If you're going to use Wikipedia as your source, I urge you to read the entire article: Women gained the right to vote in municipal elections in Belgium in 1919; the were not able to vote in national elections until 1948. I don't see how the idiocy of the parent post makes your incorrect claims any less false.
It shouldn't detract from the awful history of American slavery to point out that you are again wrong, and the last nation in Europe/Americas to abolish slavery was Spain.
You and the original poster are two sides of a coin...
I have no problem saying the US didn't have full women's suffrage until 1929. I'm under no illusion that the US led the way in this arena. We were middling in our finally recognizing the right of women to vote.
Still places the US 15 years ahead of France, 19 ahead of Belgium and makes your original post as much hokum as the jingoistic post to which you were replying.
(If you are using Puerto Rico as a rule, does that mean that The Netherlands didn't have women's suffrage until it was extended to it's colonies in 1948? The UK in 1957 because it was withheld from it's territories?)
Really, see that's why we call you ignorant, you come here invent some numbers and are happy USA comes up in number one in them. Yes, Southern European countries came after you in that aspect (although in some of them woman where entitled to held a public office, well before that happened in USA), still, for "number one" you come actually amongst the last ones.
Here is a small list (it's not exhaustive):
Woman right to vote: USA: 1920, Canada:1918, Finland:1906, Norway 1913, Sweden:1909-1919(full), Denmark:1915, Iceland:1915, Russia:1917, UK, Canada, URSS, Poland, Latvia, Lithuania, Estonia, Ireland:1918, Netherlands, Belgium, Belarus, Luxemburg and Ukraine 1919.
I would really like to know how did you invent that about Canada and Sweden though, since there is really no way conceivable you can say they had universal suffrage after USA, but ok.
Canada allowed the provinces to decide on women's suffrage in 1918 (or thereabouts, I'm taking this from your timeline), but Canada didn't adopt full women's suffrage until 1940, when Quebec finally allowed it. Sweden technically gave women the right to vote in national elections in 1919, but didn't extend it to all women until 1921.
You made a sweeping generalization that was easily proved false, yet I'm the ignorant one?:P
You where also basically the last Western Northern Hemisphere country to do that. Europe had Universal Suffrage long before USA.
I'm not sure where you are arbitrarily deciding to draw the boundary for the start of the "Western Northern Hemisphere", but it apparently excludes the UK, Ireland, Mexico, Sweden, Italy, Portugal, Cuba, Canada, France, Italy... all of which granted women the vote after the US.
http://www.history.ca/content/ContentDetail.aspx?ContentId=222
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_Cuba
http://books.google.com/books?id=-mMBmhYxg8sC&pg=PA195&lpg=PA195&dq=cuba+slavery+1884&source=bl&ots=H4QyYAqsYs&sig=aMojAia8X6WQdDu_uI4KE3W9WUc&hl=en&ei=yJ0rTdiUEoyr8AbFuuTeCQ&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=1&ved=0CB0Q6AEwAA#v=onepage&q=cuba%20slavery%201884&f=false
should be "Europe/North America"
If you're going to use Wikipedia as your source, I urge you to read the entire article: Women gained the right to vote in municipal elections in Belgium in 1919; the were not able to vote in national elections until 1948. I don't see how the idiocy of the parent post makes your incorrect claims any less false.
You and the original poster are two sides of a coin...
Still places the US 15 years ahead of France, 19 ahead of Belgium and makes your original post as much hokum as the jingoistic post to which you were replying.
(If you are using Puerto Rico as a rule, does that mean that The Netherlands didn't have women's suffrage until it was extended to it's colonies in 1948? The UK in 1957 because it was withheld from it's territories?)
Really, see that's why we call you ignorant, you come here invent some numbers and are happy USA comes up in number one in them. Yes, Southern European countries came after you in that aspect (although in some of them woman where entitled to held a public office, well before that happened in USA), still, for "number one" you come actually amongst the last ones.
Here is a small list (it's not exhaustive): Woman right to vote: USA: 1920, Canada:1918, Finland:1906, Norway 1913, Sweden:1909-1919(full), Denmark:1915, Iceland:1915, Russia:1917, UK, Canada, URSS, Poland, Latvia, Lithuania, Estonia, Ireland:1918, Netherlands, Belgium, Belarus, Luxemburg and Ukraine 1919.
I would really like to know how did you invent that about Canada and Sweden though, since there is really no way conceivable you can say they had universal suffrage after USA, but ok.
Canada allowed the provinces to decide on women's suffrage in 1918 (or thereabouts, I'm taking this from your timeline), but Canada didn't adopt full women's suffrage until 1940, when Quebec finally allowed it. Sweden technically gave women the right to vote in national elections in 1919, but didn't extend it to all women until 1921. You made a sweeping generalization that was easily proved false, yet I'm the ignorant one? :P
- Accepted women as equal citizens
You where also basically the last Western Northern Hemisphere country to do that. Europe had Universal Suffrage long before USA.
I'm not sure where you are arbitrarily deciding to draw the boundary for the start of the "Western Northern Hemisphere", but it apparently excludes the UK, Ireland, Mexico, Sweden, Italy, Portugal, Cuba, Canada, France, Italy... all of which granted women the vote after the US.