so basically we are using 0!=1 for convenience...that's great! so all the times when i couldnt find the answer i could have just made up a special purpose definition or theorem to make my analysis "work".
Sure, if you have 1 object you can arrange it in only one way. But if you have no objects (zero), there is nothing to arrange. Nothing to be done.
Another, proof they use to prove this is as follows:
n!= n(n-1)!
1!=1(0)!
Therefore, 0! = 1.
Sorry I cant buy that. They say the definition of a factorial of a number n is the product of all of the positive integers from one, up to n.
So my argument is this:
if n=0, since we are trying to find 0!.
How can you find the the product of all positive integers from one up to 0. This would lead you off into infinity.
My conclusion is that they made 0!=1 bcos it would screw the hell out of all the theories they already have.
For example, some defenitions seem so arbitrary to me
I agree, ever since taking Calculus I have question why is 0! (zero factorial) equal to one??
I asked a professor in my universtiy once and his reply was, "It just is, if you dont believe it, solve the problem without using it". Sure, I used 0!=1 for the problem, but I still doubt its validity. Maybe they made it up so theorems like "Taylor Series" make more sense.
Slashdot Mirror
so basically we are using 0!=1 for convenience...that's great! so all the times when i couldnt find the answer i could have just made up a special purpose definition or theorem to make my analysis "work".
Sure, if you have 1 object you can arrange it in only one way. But if you have no objects (zero), there is nothing to arrange. Nothing to be done.
Another, proof they use to prove this is as follows: n!= n(n-1)! 1!=1(0)! Therefore, 0! = 1.
Sorry I cant buy that. They say the definition of a factorial of a number n is the product of all of the positive integers from one, up to n.So my argument is this: if n=0, since we are trying to find 0!. How can you find the the product of all positive integers from one up to 0. This would lead you off into infinity.
My conclusion is that they made 0!=1 bcos it would screw the hell out of all the theories they already have.
I told you it was all a conspiracy
I agree, ever since taking Calculus I have question why is 0! (zero factorial) equal to one?? I asked a professor in my universtiy once and his reply was, "It just is, if you dont believe it, solve the problem without using it". Sure, I used 0!=1 for the problem, but I still doubt its validity. Maybe they made it up so theorems like "Taylor Series" make more sense.
Everything is a conspiracy.....