I'll leave this to the lawyers, but consider this. If reverse engineering is not a valid means to an end, where does this leave any preexisting incidents? Does IBM now have a valid case against anybody and everybody using the bios that was reverse engineered from the original IBM PC? Or maybe I'm off base, can somebody shed some insight?
I'll leave this to the lawyers, but consider this. If reverse engineering is not a valid means to an end, where does this leave any preexisting incidents? Does IBM now have a valid case against anybody and everybody using the bios that was reverse engineered from the original IBM PC? Or maybe I'm off base, can somebody shed some insight?