Poincaré Conjecture May Be Solved
Flamerule writes "The New York Times is now reporting that Dr. Grigori (Grisha) Perelman, of the Steklov Institute of Mathematics of the Russian Academy of Sciences in St. Petersburg, appears to have solved the famous Poincaré Conjecture, one of the Clay Institute's million-dollar Millennium Prize problems. I first noticed a short blurb about this at the MathWorld homepage last week, but Google searches have revealed almost nothing but the date and times of some of his lectures this month, including a packed session at MIT (photos), in which he reportedly presented material that proves the Conjecture. More specifically, the relevant material comes from a paper ("The entropy formula for the Ricci flow and its geometric applications") from last November, and a follow-up that was just released last month."
The link to mathworld.wolfram.com from the post says:
So, why the excitment about this later Perelman paper? Has the Dunwoody paper been debunked?
You win again, gravity!
Now, can someone tell me what practical applications there might be of this? Or is it strictly an abstract concept?
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http://www.theinformationminister.com/press.php?ID =612212491
we got this ages ago. i swear
Silly people... this is TOPOLOGY! It's not meant for people to USE it! It's just for mathematicians to RUMINATE UPON!
Has Fermat's Last Theorem actually been used in practical applications? I don't think so...
If everyone thought like you we'd still be living in caves.
Just because practical applications aren't totally obvious for a layman (or even a matematician) doesn't mean this will never be of practical use.
Even if no practical applications are ever found, this proof (if it survives peer review) may well pave the way for something else that is immensly useful.
There's just no way to tell right now.
"First lesson," Jon said. "Stick them with the pointy end."
translation to make it easier.
basically all the poincare conjecture says is that if you have a 3 dimensional figure which is closed (therefore, it it bounded (doesn't go off to infinity in either direction), and doesn't have any "holes" in it (like a donut)) then you can take every point and map it to a point in an equivalent sphere without losing continuity (therefore, everypoint will have the same "neighbourhood" of points as it had in the initial shape.)
ie. You can map a cube into a sphere, or a dodecahedron, or a weird globlike thing that doesn't fold back on itself, or a whole piece of paper (without holes), or a pencil, or a lot of different figures.
As well, this conjecture also handles figures with holes in them (like donuts), and maps them all to simpler figures.
It's a very simple concept, but has been incredibly hard to prove, and what makes this conjecture even more frustrating is the fact that 1 and 2-dimensional forms of this conjecture were incredibly easy to prove, as well as 4 and up have been solved, and were reasonably easy as well. Yet for some reason the 3 dimensional version does not lend itself easily to a simple proof.
Everyone generally believes this is true, but no one has been able to prove or disprove it.
If proven, this is an important aspect of topology, because then we can map all n-dimensional figures to a simpler form (like a sphere) and know that the continuity and general structure of the figure will remain the same.
~ kjrose
It's so simple when you put it in plain english ...
[/sarcasm]
Ok, try this:
We long ago proved that an ordinary sphere is the only shape in 3 dimentions with no holes in it.
Note that the "shape" is "made of clay". You are allowed to stretch it, squish it, and bend it all you want. You aren't allowed to cut it or put a hole in it. And you can't "meld" parts togther.
A coffee cup is the same "shape" as a donut because you can smoothly "flow" the cup part into the handle and you get a donut.
What they just proved is that a 4-dimentional sphere is the only shape with no holes in it.
So what? Well if you have some wierd complex 4 dimentional "thing" and you know it doesn't have any holes in it then you now know it has to be equal to a sphere. It SEEMS obvious, but it was still important to prove. It is important for many other proofs.
Better?
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- - You can't take something off the Internet! That's like trying to take pee out of a swimming pool.
I swear that looks like perl.
By reading this comment, you immediately waive any and all rights regarding it.
Anyway, if true, this is kind of like Wiles proof of Fermat's Last Theorem -- proving an old conjecture by proving a more general (and more modern) one (in Wiles case, it was proving part of Taniyama-Shimura).