E.U. Regulator Says IP Addresses Are Personal Data
NewsCloud writes "Germany's data-protection commissioner, Peter Scharr told a European Parliament hearing on online data protection that when someone is identified by an IP, or Internet protocol, address, 'then it has to be regarded as personal data.' Scharr acknowledged that IP addresses for a computer may not always be personal or linked to an individual. If the E.U. rules that IP addresses are personal, then it could regulate the way search engines record this data. According to the article, Google does an incomplete job of anonymizing this data while Microsoft does not record IP addresses for anonymous search."
Never really looked at it this way. I think it's become ingrained in us that IP's are a way of tracking instead of a way of communicating. Being able to track them is just a side issue. If we look at an IP as a means of communication then does that not make it private in some way? I don't know exactly how I feel about this but I'd certainly like to have more rights rather than less of them.
Does that mean that if passed, then the RIAA can't use my personal data 'IP' to sue me? TFA was a little short on details of the reprecushions of this.
Unless Microsoft is just lying. How can they be trusted, with their track record?
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make install -not war
How is an IP address more "personal" than my GPS location at any given point in time? Sure an IP address can be "mine" if I have my own domain etc. This is not usually the case though. Most IP addresses are "owned" by the ISP and assigned to people via DHCP (except for static ones). This is not too much unlike a restaurant reserving tables for a customer, and sometimes reserving a table for a customer for a long time. It doesn't make the table being reserved the customers the customers personal property; the restaurant still owns it--it is no more personal than, well, any other table in an anonymous bar (for example). I can't see how IP addresses can be "personal".
If IP addresses are personal data, who owns 127.0.0.1?
Don't quite agree... I don't think when you pull into the pharmacy to 'GET' a small-size condom you need to utter your license plate number to initiate a conversation & transaction with the cashier (well, in which case you'd probably avoid any conversation but just have the transaction done).
If IP addresses are personal data, and you visit my web page, and my access logs show I served an IP that you used at a certain time (or even just that I served an IP you used), am I now subject to laws regarding the holding of personal information? If you were to contact me and request that information how would I authenticate you? If I was to disclose certain parts of the "personal data" that you claimed belonged to you, how could I know that I was not disclosing someone else's personal information, given that I can't necessarily authenticate you or anyone else and IP's can be re-allocated? If I ban an IP address for abusing my server and it is later re-allocated to someone else, is that slander? If I forward an e-mail whose headers contain IP addresses of relay servers, is that unlawful disclosure of personal information?
This is totally ridiculous.