Judge Invalidates Software Patent, Citing Bilski
bfwebster writes "US District Court Judge Andrew Gilford (Central District of California) granted a summary judgment motion in DealerTrack v. Huber et al., finding DealerTrack's patent (US 7,181,427) — for an automated credit application processing system — invalid due to the recent In re Bilski court decision that requires a patent to either involve 'transformation' or 'a specific machine.' According to Judge Gilford's ruling, DealerTrack 'appears to concede that the claims of the '427 Patent do not meet the "transformation" prong of the Bilski test.' He then applied the 'specific machine' test and noted that, post-Bilski the Board of Patent Appeals and Interferences has ruled several times that 'claims reciting the use of general purpose processors or computers do not satisfy the [Bilski] test.' Judge Gilford analyzes the claims of the '427 patent, notes that they state that the 'machine' involved could be a 'dumb terminal' and a 'personal computer,' and then concludes: 'None of the claims of the '427 Patent require the use of a "particular machine," and the patent is thus invalid under Bilski.' DealerTrack apparently plans to appeal the ruling. Interesting times ahead."
'claims reciting the use of general purpose processors or computers do not satisfy the [Bilski] test.'
Sounds familiar to the kind of logic that Donald Knuth employs when discussing software patents. He tried reaching out to the EU Patent Office in an effort to avoid making algorithms patentable--he feels this has been a mistake in America. He recently sent the EU Patent Office Commissioner a 1994 letter he had originally sent to the United States Patent Office about patenting software. His argument is simple: (1) math cannot be patented (2) all algorithms are math (3) all software is one or more algorithms and so follows that software cannot be patentable. The USPTO replied by defining non-mathematical software to be patentable while purely mathematical software is not. Knuth sums himself up nicely: 'Basically I remain convinced that the patent policy most fair and most suitable for the world will regard mathematical ideas (such as algorithms) to be not subject to proprietary patent rights. For example, it would be terrible if somebody were to have a patent on an integer, like say 1009, so that nobody would be able to use that number "with further technical effect" without paying for a license. Although many software patents have unfortunately already been granted in the past, I hope that this practice will not continue in future. If Europe leads the way in this, I expect many Americans would want to emigrate so that they could continue to innovate in peace.'
Maybe the right way to approach this was to claim that general purpose processors are only capable of executing extremely complex mathematical algorithms--which should not be patentable. Therefor the software that runs on general purpose processors should not be patentable.
My work here is dung.
Just when I was going to patent my "process for delivering an online response to a website article post", judges start remembering the Bilski Test!
My degree is in mathematics. There's no such thing as non-mathematical software. There is mathematical proof of this. There's a nice equivalence theorem for the two, and the website linked shows the results of that equivalence.
I repeat: there's no such thing as "non-mathematical" software, because it is equivalent to math. The only people who think otherwise don't know what math is. It's like trying to claim that 1 != 1. And yes, people really do claim utter nonsense like that sometimes, especially those who don't understand the fact that infinite sequences like 0.99999[repeating] don't have a last digit by virtue of being infinitely long (if an infinite list had a last element, it would be a contradiction in terms, because part of the definition of infinite is that for every element x, there is a successor of x).
One might as well claim that pi is exactly 3.
An algorithm cannot be a "specific machine", as an algorithm isn't patentable subject matter in the first place. For years, software has been patented by using dodges like "A device consisting of CPU, storage, input device, output device executing algorithm X". Bilski makes that dodge invalid.
Some software patents are even sillier, in that they patent the _media_ containing the software. Some of Microsoft's FAT patents are that way, for instance. I don't know if that dodge has been tested in court since Bilski (or even before)
Summary points to a press release. The actual decision is available here: http://bfwa.com/docs/dealertrack.pdf (7 page pdf)
But if the bath water is going to include such notorious crap patents as 1-Click, Desire2Learn, NTP, and many others, then I would have to say that the bathwater is so rank and disgusting that it's not too high a price to pay to lose a handful of babies, as Bilski does.
But can't we do better? Can't we find an "obviousness" test that works?
Bilski wasn't about obviousness - Bilski was about patentability of certain types of inventions. For obviousness, you want to look at KSR v. Teleflex, where the Supreme Court laid out 9 different ways to find something obvious.
The position is pretty explicit. The past law was such that if it were a business process or describing an algorithm in the traditional sense (the bulk of software patents do this...) then it wasn't patentable- same goes for that which resides in nature. Bilski puts it back to where it was prior to all the fun and games when it was thought that it was a "good idea" to allow patenting damned near anything. It's not throwing the baby out with the bath water- it's fixing part of what's been broken for a while now.
I am not merely a "consumer" or a "taxpayer". I am a Citizen of the State of Texas
I wasn't logged in before, GP anon was me. Anyhow, the period was the end of the sentence, not some attempt to make it into a float/string/boolean/whatever and I certainly didn't use the Python operators. It's supposed to be the same token (1) on both sides. But that's why we use formal languages that are picky about syntax and which can be checked automatically to avoid people finding weird ambiguities to question.
The theorem I was mentioning above is called Curry-Howard-Lambek correspondence (it took me a while to find all the links):
(Wiki links added because most people are too lazy to Google the terms they don't understand. Especially if they don't realize that they don't actually understand them.)
So even if you find some crazy language where they define != to be an equality operator or something equally unusual, software is still equivalent to math. Metamath wouldn't be possible otherwise. And as you can see, they're doing just fine.