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Predicting US Supreme Court Justice Votes

New submitter Pierre Bezukhov writes "Researchers Roger Guimera and Marta Sales-Pardo of Spain set out to ask whether one of the nine Supreme Court justices could be plucked from the bench and replaced with an algorithm that does not take into account the law or the case at issue, but does take into account the other justices' votes and the court's record. These researchers say their computational models, using methods developed to analyze complex social networks, are just as accurate in predicting a justice's decision as forecasts from legal experts. 'We find that Supreme Court justices are significantly more predictable than one would expect from "ideally independent" justices in "ideal courts,"' that is, free agents independently evaluating cases on their merits, free of ideology, the study said."

31 of 186 comments (clear)

  1. Re:A really good judge by icebike · · Score: 5, Funny

    I wish a law clerk had written the last sentence of the summary.
    It might have had a chance of being intelligible.

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    Sig Battery depleted. Reverting to safe mode.
  2. Fantastic by Jeremi · · Score: 2, Funny

    Now Thomas is going to the Halting-Problem-Buster trick, by getting a copy of this program and ruling the opposite of whatever it predicts he's going to do.

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    I don't care if it's 90,000 hectares. That lake was not my doing.
    1. Re:Fantastic by DJRumpy · · Score: 3, Interesting

      Actually, Scalia was found to be the most activist with Thomas running a close second. Conservative judges were also found to me more activist (willing to strike down rulings that lean towards a liberal bias). There's an interesting study on judicial partisanship that was done over 20 years of cases. The old conservative class of 'Liberal Activists Judges" turns out to not be entirely true after all, but rather leaning more towards a conservative trend towards begin activist.

      http://www.law.harvard.edu/news/2008/08/04_sunstein.html

    2. Re:Fantastic by Hartree · · Score: 3, Insightful

      There's a bit of a time horizon issue in that. You've got to decide what period of time you look at. That's going to have an impact on what you see.

      My guess is that if you looked at the years of the Warren court, you'd get a different answer.

      The court is not utterly independent of the politics of the country around it. In the 50s, there was a move toward activist decisions that could be considered liberal at their time. In the 80s, there was something of a reversal of that with more activist decisions coming from the right.

      The group that is defending the status quo of the time is less likely to be "activist" than a group more inclined to change it.

    3. Re:Fantastic by Jane+Q.+Public · · Score: 5, Informative

      That is interesting, but from your usage, it appears that you misunderstand what being an "activist" judge means. An "activist" judge is one who attempts to create law in the courtroom, as opposed to evaluating existing law. It is not a "left vs. right", "liberal vs. conservative" concept.

    4. Re:Fantastic by DJRumpy · · Score: 2

      A judge doesn't "create" law. They interpret it. Interesting idea, but the reality is they simply interpret existing law in a way that provides a favorable outcome to whatever partisan leanings they have.

      In the context of partisan leanings, it is most decidedly a liberal vs conservative concept.

    5. Re:Fantastic by magarity · · Score: 2, Interesting

      Actually, Scalia was found to be the most activist with Thomas running a close second. Conservative judges were also found to me more activist (willing to strike down rulings that lean towards a liberal bias)

      There are two main types of Federal justices: originalists and activists. An activist is not one who rules contrary to prior decisions. An activist justice is one who rules according to his/her view of how things out to be in the modern world. An originalist rules according to how he/she thinks the founders of the country would have thought of the matter. Neither Scalia nor Thomas can be "most activist" or even activist at all; both are well known for quoting historical sources as the basis for their decisions.

    6. Re:Fantastic by brokeninside · · Score: 2

      "A judge doesn't "create" law. They interpret it."

      You haven't read much in the way of legal theory, have you?

      Outside of the most conservative legal theories, such as classical legal positivism and natural law theory, few legal scholars would object to the idea that judges create law. Some would say that judges should be careful not to give the appearance of creating law because such an appearance might lead the masses to object. But, for the most part, the dispute between various legal philosophies is not over whether or not judges create laws but the extent to which judges are justified in creating law.

      Go back to the late 1800s and read Oliver Wendell Holmes, Jr.'s essay "The Path of the Law." You can find it online quite easily. In it he advances the most extreme version of a legal philosophy that thinks that judges create law. His view, legal positivism, is that law is nothing more than a prediction of how judges will rule. If you don't think something over 100 years old is still relevant, go read any of the essays or books by appellate court justice Richard Posner who advocates a very similar legal philosophy.

      Scholars who oppose the theory of Holmes and Posner generally only oppose the extent to which they take the theory. They argue not that judges do not create law but the extent to which they create law is small and well circumscribed by legislation and precedent.

    7. Re:Fantastic by fyngyrz · · Score: 2

      ultimately the legislative branch has the authority to override regulations, rulings, and even the constitution itself.

      ...and here we have the ultimate expression of free speech. You can say anything you want, even when it is simultaneously wrongheaded, stupid, misleading, and flat-out incorrect -- all at once.

      I congratulate you, sir, on completely failing to understand how your government works, and further, for attempting to spread that failure far and wide.

      --
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    8. Re:Fantastic by hairyfeet · · Score: 2

      Uhhh...then how do you explain the stretching of the commerce clause beyond all realms of logic or sanity? When they said interstate commerce was affected by a guy growing his own feed for his own animals (can't remember the case offhand, someone here does i'm sure) how could you call that anything BUT creating law out of thin air? The commerce clause says interstate commerce, not inter field.

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    9. Re:Fantastic by Bacon+Bits · · Score: 4, Insightful

      Uh, that isn't wrong. You're wrong.

      The legislative branch can and has overridden regulations, rulings, and the constitution. It does that by passing new laws. In the case of the US Constitution, new amendments must be passed. The most obvious example is the 21st Amendment to the US Constitution, but . You can also consider the example of the judicial interpretation of Eminent Domain in Kelo v. City of New London. Several states have since passed amendments to State Constitutions (Michigan, for example) which restrict or bar the state's ability to use eminent domain.

      The judicial branch interprets the law, which includes removal of laws which are proscribed by other laws. It does not get a choice about what the law is, only how to interpret it and how each law interacts with the others or how a law applies in a given case.

      The executive branch executes an enforces existing laws, and is allowed to issue rules and regulations that enable executing the laws. It does not get a choice about what the law is, only how to go about executing it.

      The legislative branch exists solely to create new laws. It alone determines what the law is. It alone is given the power to amend the Constitution (Article 5). Neither the judicial nor the executive branch is given that power. Indeed, the executive branch doesn't even get veto power for constitutional amendments. Additionally, the legislature alone is given the power of impeachment (Article I), which may be used to remove any civil servant from office, including a President or Supreme Court Justice.

      Congress has the ultimate trump card. The problem is that it's legislation by committee, meaning they spend all their time talking and very little actually doing anything. This, I think, is simultaneously the greatest and worst idea the founding fathers had.

      --
      The road to tyranny has always been paved with claims of necessity.
    10. Re:Fantastic by fyngyrz · · Score: 2

      You need to re-read article V; you didn't understand it.

      Short version: congress can't pass an amendment: there are only two ways to do that. First is ratification by the legislatures of 3/4ths of the states, second is via constitutional conventions in 3/4ths of the states. Congress is powerless to make any authorized, legitimate changes to the constitution -- it's not their decision to make.

      And when they step out of line and do so anyway (as they quite often do), the supreme court can overrule them. So they don't even have final authority when they violate their oaths.

      It is truly unfortunate that most of the judges on the supreme court are just as likely to fail to understand and/or obey the constitution as any congressman, hence the many bill of rights violations, the inversion of the commerce clause, the ex post facto laws, use of torture, the blatant misinterpretation of article 3, and so on that have made it into "settled law."

      From where I sit, the biggest mistake of the authors of the constitution was not to set out severe penalties for violation of the constitution. The constitution, while on one hand called "the highest law in the land", is completely toothless, and consequently. none of the three branches of government take their oaths to it seriously. If they violate it... absolutely nothing can happen to them. So they do. Constantly.

      --
      I've fallen off your lawn, and I can't get up.
  3. I don't get it... by adamchou · · Score: 5, Interesting

    Algorithms like this have to be modeled after the historical decisions that the justices decided upon. So of course they accurately "predict" the historical decisions. So how do they know how accurate these things are for future decisions? I couldn't RTFA because the damn article isn't loading on my crappy government Internet connection.

    1. Re:I don't get it... by PhrostyMcByte · · Score: 4, Insightful

      Typically when doing this kind of statistical analysis, one uses half the data for training and half the data for accuracy tests.

      I haven't RTFA though, so I don't know what they've done.

    2. Re:I don't get it... by Jane+Q.+Public · · Score: 4, Informative

      "So of course they accurately "predict" the historical decisions."

      In tests of this nature, the way such algorithms are tested is by giving them a subset of historical data (ideally chosen randomly), then seeing if the program can predict outcomes from historical situations that were not included in the "learning" data.

      So your objection has little merit.

    3. Re:I don't get it... by adamchou · · Score: 2

      If you'd re-read what I wrote, I didn't object to anything. I asked a question.

      So your accusations have little merit.

  4. Knock Me over with a Feather by rshol · · Score: 2, Funny

    Wait, what? Supreme court justices have political opinions? Who would have thunk it.

    1. Re:Knock Me over with a Feather by Jane+Q.+Public · · Score: 2

      Political opinions are a given. However, those opinions are not supposed to bias judges in their evaluation of the law: they are supposed to exercise "judicial restraint", and separate their own opinions from the legal facts.

      Some people are better at that than others. I would argue that because for generations, Supreme Court justices have been appointed specifically because of their ideologies, as opposed to their legal brilliance or objectivity, that the current Supreme Court is rather terrible at it.

    2. Re:Knock Me over with a Feather by Jane+Q.+Public · · Score: 2

      "Basically, this simply undermines your original point... judges are chosen because of their opinions."

      It doesn't undermine my point at all. I mentioned this myself elsewhere.

      The fact that judges are often, if not usually, chosen for a particular political position does not alter the basic legal principle that judges are supposed to be unbiased, regardless of their personal or political beliefs.

      To the extent that they allow their personal beliefs to influence their decisions, they simply aren't doing their jobs.

  5. Re:A really good judge by Oxford_Comma_Lover · · Score: 2

    Law Clerks write the decisions, but a good judge decides what the decision will be. In SCOTUS, the judges get bench briefs from their clerks before oral argument, plus briefs from either side. Then they retire after the case is argued and go around the table, with the least senior justice speaking first and giving his impression of the case / comments / where he'll come out. It goes in order of reverse seniority so that the senior justice speaks last in order to get the benefit of hearing everyone else first. Then they have clerks write opinions based on their decision. Occasionally there is a realignment after reading the opinions that are drafted.

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    -- IANAL, this isn't legal advice, and definitely isn't legal advice for you. Also, Squee!
  6. The Suprme Court can't rule impartially by Nidi62 · · Score: 3, Informative

    The whole point of the Supreme Court is interpretation. Interpretation of how a law applies to a given situation (and if it even does). This involves more than just case knowledge, it relies on all their experience behind the bench, as well as their own beliefs. The justices are ruling on how they think the law applies, based upon their own knowledge of case law, the language of the law in question, and their belief as to the intention of that law. Impartiality is possible in application; it is much harder, if not impossible, in interpretation.

    And this ignores the fact that Supreme Court Justices are in fact political appointees and are selected based upon how they ruled on given cases (ie, in a way the President and majority of Congress ideologically supports). So even selection, well, selects towards those with a certain bias depending on which party is in control of the government at the time of appointment.

    --
    The only thing necessary for evil to triumph is for it to be pitted against a slightly greater evil
    1. Re:The Suprme Court can't rule impartially by 93+Escort+Wagon · · Score: 2

      And this ignores the fact that Supreme Court Justices are in fact political appointees and are selected based upon how they ruled on given cases (ie, in a way the President and majority of Congress ideologically supports). So even selection, well, selects towards those with a certain bias depending on which party is in control of the government at the time of appointment.

      Of course, as has been seen with appointments such as David Souter, John Paul Stevens,and Earl Warren, the political alignment of the standing president hasn't always correlated well with the future track record of their appointees.

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    2. Re:The Suprme Court can't rule impartially by anom · · Score: 2

      IMO this is a good thing -- it shows that the concept behind the lifetime appointment works. Once they're on the bench, even if they "owe someone" for getting there, there's nothing that can really force them to rule one way or another.

  7. Courts are supposed to be predictable by Hentes · · Score: 5, Insightful

    The whole point of the legal system is that courts don1t just hand out verdicts randomly, but according to the laws available for everyone. Without that, people wouldn't know how to act legally. In fact, ideally one should be able to predict what a courts decision would be in every situation. unfortunately, the legal systems of the world are too complicated/contradictory for that.

    1. Re:Courts are supposed to be predictable by Attila+Dimedici · · Score: 4, Insightful

      Just look at the Bush v. Gore decision where they decided that one man one vote meant that enough votes were left untallied to effectively hand the election to Bush because they were concerned that too much attention was being paid to those particular ballots.

      That is a complete misrepresentation of the Supreme Court decision. The U.S. Supreme Court ruled that the Equal Protection clause was violated by the recount called for by the Florida Supreme Court and that there was not enough time to conduct a recount that met the Equal Protection clause. A significant factor in their decision was that the end result of any Constitutional decision by them would be the same as the result of their ruling. If the Supreme Court had not ruled as it had, it is probable that the Florida legislature would have appointed a group of Electors who would have voted for Bush (according to the U.S. Constitution, each state legislature decides how that state's Electors are chosen). If that had happened it is quite possible that the end result would have been that there were no Electors from the state of Florida (there are several other scenarios in which this would have happened). In which case, the election would have been decided by the U.S. House of Representatives, who would have chosen Bush. Finally, the fact of the matter is that several groups that consistently favor the Democratic Party counted the ballots in Florida later and found that under no reasonable standard would Gore have won the state.

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      The truth is that all men having power ought to be mistrusted. James Madison
  8. This is informative how? by Hartree · · Score: 4, Informative

    I used to work with a group that simulated the folding of proteins.

    You'd take an assortment of protein sequences and train a neural net on how they folded. Then you try to use that to predict the folding of another different protein that wasn't in the set you trained it on.

    But, in this case, they don't try to predict the behavior of an independent case, they use it to predict the behavior of one of the 8 items (justices) they trained the simulation on. That's fine as an exercise in simulation, but using it to reach conclusions on intent and bias is a real reach. I suspect the journalists hyped that part of it a lot more than the researchers themselves.

    That's underwhelming enough as is. But what do you use as a measure of how "independent" a judge is?

    Assuming no relationship between decisions is ludicrous. On many items that aren't terribly controversial, Ginsburg and Scalia, for example, would rule similarly just because they are trained judges with a background in US law.

    Similarly, you wouldn't be surprised if Krugman and Friedman agreed on the proper answer to a question from an Econ 101 textbook, regardless that they would differ massively on more complex issues.

    Add to that, the Supreme Court doesn't get the expected and routine "no-brainer" type decisions. It's where the ones with thorny legal interpretation and constitutional issues end up.

    I'd be really surprised if you didn't have a correlation between how one particular justice votes and how the rest of the justices vote.

    1. Re:This is informative how? by brokeninside · · Score: 2

      Unlike Friedman and Milton (who actually agree on more macroeconomic issues than the disagree over), judges frequently have completely different ideas on what law is.

      To mention just a few positions:

      • legal realism: law is nothing more than the prediction of how judges will rule (Oliver Wendell Holmes Jr., Richard Posner, etc.)
      • classical legal positivism: law is nothing more than the commands of a sovereign (Jeremy Bentham, John Stuart Mill)
      • modern legal positivism: law is what emerges out of a professional legal class (legislators, judges, lawyers, police, etc.) which are accepted by the citizenry in general as the makers of the law (HLA Hart, Joseph Raz)
      • natural law: law is a human implementation of a transcendent moral code (Lon Fuller, John Finnis)

      And that doesn't even get into the question of interpretations of how to interpret the law. The question of how to interpret the law can only be considered once one determines what it is that the law is.

      So, yes, it is surprising that there is any sort of correlation. I've not looked at the Supreme Court level, but in general, the best "scientific" studies that have tried to find any patterns in legal rulings have successful prediction rates that are indistinguishable from chance.

    2. Re:This is informative how? by LargeMythicalReptile · · Score: 2

      Assuming no relationship between decisions is ludicrous. On many items that aren't terribly controversial, Ginsburg and Scalia, for example, would rule similarly just because they are trained judges with a background in US law.

      [...]

      I'd be really surprised if you didn't have a correlation between how one particular justice votes and how the rest of the justices vote.

      Exactly. (PDF)

      TL,DR:
      Last Supreme Court term,
      -Almost half of all Supreme Court decisions were unanimous
      -The two Justices who disagreed most frequently in judgment were Ginsburg and Alito--and they still agreed with each other noticeably more than half the time (62.5%). Ginsburg and Scalia, in your example, agreed in judgment 65% of the time.
      -That said, there is at least some truth to there being a "liberal wing" and a "conservative wing" (with Kennedy being the "swing vote"): of the 16 cases that were decided 5-4, 14 of them were Roberts-Scalia-Thomas-Alito vs. Ginsburg-Breyer-Sotomayor-Kagan with Kennedy casting the deciding vote. But a number of the lineups are more interesting.

      The Justices are highly educated professionals, and as such agree with each other a lot of the time about what the law actually says. None of them is blindly ideological--but just the same, they do have their individual opinions about how the law should be interpreted, so some level of ideology is certainly present.

  9. Obvious for the last 100 years by AK+Marc · · Score: 4, Interesting

    I liked my time in law school. Nothing pissed off a law-worshiper more than pointing out that the Supreme Court was a means to code unreasoned opinion into law, as the decisions use law to justify opinions, the opposite of what the courts assert (where they say they come to their opinions through examining the law, rather than force their personal opinions into law). The legal experts have been able to predict not only the direction in which they vote, but also the reasons they would give. But it's interesting to learn that an algorithm is sufficient, with no analyzation of the facts and law necessary.

  10. Huh??? by Hartree · · Score: 2

    Forgive me, but I'm a touch incredulous at that statement.

    Not my recollection (60s through now) at all, especially the Warren court and the early 70s.

    The Warren court was pretty unabashedly activist. Go read up on it. They saw themselves as addressing needed social injustices via court decision. You may agree with what they decided (and many times it was needed badly as the civil rights cases and some of the liability) but that's the very definition of judicial activism.

    How do you think they didn't overturn precedent on Brown vs Board of Education and the other cases that were the very core of the victories of the civil rights movement? In Brown, they specifically went against previous decisions (Plessey vs Ferguson) that said segregation was acceptable. In Brown, they said seperate but equal was not.

    How was Roe vs Wade not a change from the longstanding tendency to leave medical regulation to the states? Etc, etc, the list is a long one. Look at liability law as well. there was major overruling of standing precedent.

    Just because a decision was a good or needed one doesn't bear on whether it was activist or precedent preserving.

    What you're saying just doesn't agree with history.

  11. This is a surprise why? by spazmonkey · · Score: 3, Informative

    You have conservative Christian 'law schools' that focus specifically on teaching how to use and apply law toward the explicit agenda of moving it in the direction of biblical principles. By definition, they are designed to only turn out activists. It is their express stated intent, and the way those schools promote themselves as different from traditional law schools they compete with. Is it any surprise then that the only real sizable pool of 'activist' judges are conservative/christian supremacist types?