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Amazon Patents 'Maintaining Scarcity' of Goods

theodp writes "Back in Biblical times, creating abundance was considered innovative. That was then. Last Tuesday, GeekWire reports, the USPTO awarded Amazon.com a broad patent on reselling and lending 'used' digital goods for an invention that Amazon boasts can be used to 'maintain scarcity' of digital objects, including audio files, eBooks, movies, apps, and pretty much anything else."

4 of 240 comments (clear)

  1. To promote the progress of by Rogerborg · · Score: 5, Interesting

    science and useful arts.

    USPTO, please read the Goddamn Constitution.

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  2. Physical objects wear out, digital objects don't by markdj · · Score: 5, Interesting

    This has to do more with the fact that physical objects wear out and digital objects don't. Publishers have complained that when a library lends a physical book, it can only do so for a limited number of times before it has to buy another copy because the first wore out. When libraries lend digital objects, they never have to buy another again. So publishers want a limit to the number of times that a digital object can be lent before requiring a repurchase. The same goes for CDs/DVDs.

  3. Re:And of course ... by TarPitt · · Score: 5, Interesting

    Any form of private property is a government enforced monopoly

    The owner of the property has exclusive rights to it backup up by government

    Private property is the core of "free enterprise"

    The birth of industrial capitalism was formed by the "privatization" of traditional agricultural commons, impoverishing the peasant class and creating a cheap workforce for the factories of free enterprise.

    The privatization of innovation eliminates the intellectual commons in a similar way

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  4. Re:And of course ... by femtobyte · · Score: 4, Interesting

    You're making the mistake that a lot of modern Capitalist political/economic rubbish relies on: assuming that the words used to describe economic organization (in this case, "owned by"), have a universal and absolute meaning identical with their present usage.

    Yes, land just about everywhere has historically been "owned" by someone. But "ownership" is a particular bundle of de jure and de facto practices that changes with time and place --- for large segments of history, land being "owned" by some lord/king was not at all exclusive with use as "commons." Only later was the definition and practical exercise of "ownership" shifted towards our contemporary notion of "private property." But I suppose paying historical attention to the actual conditions of production "on the ground," instead of tossing around terms like "ownership" as though they were handed down immutable from God, would be too "Marxist" for you.