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Algorithm Predicts US Supreme Court Decisions 70% of Time

stephendavion writes A legal scholar says he and colleagues have developed an algorithm that can predict, with 70 percent accuracy, whether the US Supreme Court will uphold or reverse the lower-court decision before it. "Using only data available prior to the date of decision, our model correctly identifies 69.7 percent of the Court's overall affirm and reverse decisions and correctly forecasts 70.9% of the votes of individual justices across 7,700 cases and more than 68,000 justice votes," Josh Blackman, a South Texas College of Law scholar, wrote on his blog Tuesday.

177 comments

  1. biased algorith by Dthief · · Score: 5, Insightful

    I (read: anyone) can make an algorithm that fits any previous data (even only using data that precedes the "prediction")......testing future predictability is the only way this means anything.

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    1. Re:biased algorith by mwvdlee · · Score: 2

      If only he could have made some predictions, travelled to the future to test the predictions, then travelled back and put the results in his blog post.
      Sadly, testing future predictability can only be done after the future has passed.

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    2. Re:biased algorith by Chatterton · · Score: 3, Informative

      That why you train your algorithm on all the available cases but the last year ones. Then you can test it on that last year of cases. For the system the last year is the "future" on which you do your testing.

    3. Re:biased algorith by Thanshin · · Score: 2

      But once the future has passed, it's no longer future. So one can only assert to have tested the predictability formerly called future; also known as the Prince test.

    4. Re:biased algorith by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 2, Insightful

      That's why you should always divide your data set into one subset for fitting/training of the algorithm, and another subset to verify its predictive ability.

      The algo doesn't know or care whether the data is actually from the future. That is irrelevant as long as it wasn't fitted on it.

    5. Re:biased algorith by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I (read: anyone) can make an algorithm that fits any previous data (even only using data that precedes the "prediction")......testing future predictability is the only way this means anything.

      How exactly does one test future predictability of that particular group?

      I'm assuming we would at least use the three-ring-circus algorithm to make it somewhat accurate.

    6. Re:biased algorith by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 5, Informative

      Yes, and then when the algorithm doesn't work you finetune it a bit and test again and suddenly you end up with an algorithm that has been trained on all data without actually training it against all data.

      One should be very skeptical against future predicting algorithms. Until they have been released in the wild for a while without the developer tampering with it it is pretty safe to guess that it more or less is another version of the Turk, even if its inventor doesn't realize it.

      The same principle can be applied to market research or climate studies. If the algorithm used is tampered with to produce more accurate results one can assume that it is useless.

    7. Re:biased algorith by jellie · · Score: 1

      In this particular case, future predictability doesn't work. The sample size is way too small (as SCOTUS only hears ~80 cases/year), and the cases are not evenly distributed. The last couple years, for example, the court has become very conservative and happens to hear a significantly higher percentage of business-related cases. It's hard to predict anything from that.

      It would make more sense to divide the data into training and validation/cross-validation data sets like in a standard machine learning approach.

    8. Re:biased algorith by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It's pretty easy to simulate future prediction. Divide your data into a training set and a validation set. Feed the training set to the algorithm to build the model. Check the accuracy against the validation set.

      For bonus marks, repeat this many times with different, random partitions of the data into training/validation.

    9. Re:biased algorith by Dthief · · Score: 1
      how about make the algorithm.......use it in a predictive manner after making it....THEN REPORT IT.....

      what they have done here is taken a data set and made algorithms until one of them matched well. If I have a model that predicts traffic patterns or weather patterns in the past, its only useful if it is then applied after the fact and is still comparably accurate to when it was developed.

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    10. Re:biased algorith by Dthief · · Score: 1

      THIS...better worded than my original comment

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    11. Re:biased algorith by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Predicting what people are going to decide via an algorithm is a defunct. I believe you were trying to say unless someone else can foresee the future and predict it with certainty this algorithm/study was dumb.

      You can ruffly predict the future of somethings based off history, but even that fails with or without an algorithm. They are good for somethings but not good for predictions but decisions.

    12. Re:biased algorith by Euler · · Score: 4, Insightful

      You could train it with 80% of the historical data and see if it predicts the next 20% of historical data.

    13. Re:biased algorith by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I believe you were trying to say "is defunct," "roughly" and "some things."

    14. Re:biased algorith by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      But, but we can replace the supreme court with Big Data (r) once the prediction rate reaches the significant 80%! The other 20% can be ignored as irrelevant noise to the great nations harmonious strives to a politically homogeneous and assuredly peaceful state.

    15. Re:biased algorith by plopez · · Score: 1

      That is why you use split data sets. You calibrate on one half, or less, of historical data and then verify against data you did NOT calibrate against.

      --
      putting the 'B' in LGBTQ+
    16. Re: biased algorith by Bartles · · Score: 1

      And sometimes an algorithm can't predict the future OR correctly duplicate the past. Just see global temperature models.

    17. Re:biased algorith by Daniel+Hoffmann · · Score: 1

      I would assume that any person doing professional statistical research knows how to validate to a certain degree of trust.
      For example from:
      http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/C...

      "Repeated random sub-sampling validation

      This method randomly splits the dataset into training and validation data. For each such split, the model is fit to the training data, and predictive accuracy is assessed using the validation data. The results are then averaged over the splits."
      So you actually train against all data and validate against all data in several random sub-samplings, then you average the results to get your 70%. This is just one form of cross-validation there are other more fit for some specific problems.

      I think what you actually mean is:
      http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/O...
      The solution is fits too tightly to the current data. There are ways to reduce overfitting (like using some forms of cross-validation,) again if the researcher is competent he can be pretty sure that his solution is not overfitted to the current data. But who reads the actual paper when you can head a headline with big numbers like 70%?

    18. Re:biased algorith by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      This is why validation sets exist.

    19. Re:biased algorith by nedlohs · · Score: 2

      But of course you tweak and change over time rather than having the first try work just perfectly and so that subset for verification ends up influencing the algorithm anyway.

    20. Re:biased algorith by Drethon · · Score: 1

      You mean like all the cosmological (is that the word?) algorithms and models that match how the universe was created?

    21. Re:biased algorith by Applehu+Akbar · · Score: 1

      It would be more accurate to train with all the data available up to, say, year 2000 and then see what the model 'predicts'.

    22. Re:biased algorith by phantomfive · · Score: 2

      That's a good idea, but it only works once. If you keep trying it over and over with different algorithms, then the effectiveness decreases.

      Essentially what you are doing there is manually running an evolutionary algorithm, discarding ones that don't fit the last 20%, and improving on ones that do.

      --
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    23. Re:biased algorith by LongearedBat · · Score: 2

      I dunno. There may be changing trends, so what you suggest might train it to be accurate for a bygone era.

    24. Re:biased algorith by JoeMerchant · · Score: 1

      In this particular case, I'm not very impressed with a 70% prediction rate on a binary decision... you could get similar results by saying "Uphold" every time and ignoring all the data.

      What would be more impressive is if the algorithm could predict (with greater accuracy) how theoretical courts would perform with new justices assigned to the bench. Say a seat is opening up and there are several candidates for the position, can the algorithm tell you what the outcome of an upcoming case will be with the various choices of new justices?

    25. Re:biased algorith by excelsior_gr · · Score: 1

      I beg to differ. While constructing a model there are often unknown relationships and parameters between variables for which you have to make assumptions. Like, for example, you suspect that two variables are related, but instead of digging in deeper and deeper in order to exactly resolve the relation you assume an e.g. linear relation, you fit the parameters to some data and move on. As long as you clearly present your methodology, I don't think there is anything wrong with this. The next guy can look closer and walk the extra mile, figure out a more rigorous relationship between the variables and improve your model. This methodology is not only common, it's also necessary: often the relationships between variables is so complex that being more rigorous does not improve the model because you add physical parameters/constants that you know little of and cannot measure with enough accuracy (or at all), so you're better off fitting them anyway (inverse problem). As to the usefulness, scientists "tamper" with the models all the time: Kepler tampered with the model of Copernicus, and Newton tampered with the model of Kepler. "Tampering" Newton's law for improving the result accuracy led to general relativity.

      Your comparison to the Turk is just wrong. That was a straight-out hoax. An algorithm "trained" to represent some data still has value in representing these data, no matter how simple/non-rigorous it is. If the model is good, then it might even have some value in predicting the behavior of the system (in our case, the supreme court) even under different conditions (the "future"). In the model there are certainly correlations that the maker figured out by examining some data. Thus, the model can only be as good as the data that it is based upon. There is nothing wrong with improving the model as more data become available. Stubbornly sticking to the initial (wrong) estimates would be like saying that we should have dumped Newton's law of gravitation at birth because we didn't have a good value for G, instead of measuring G with higher accuracy.

    26. Re:biased algorith by shaitand · · Score: 1

      People develop predictive algorithms for all sorts of the things. The most obvious are trading algorithms for financial markets. Such an algorithm can be very accurate... until trends change in what you are predicting. Because the algorithm is built based on an analysis of the historical data it is generally going to be very successful at "prediction" when then run against that data.

      The utility of the algorithm doesn't become evident until it is tested against data which wasn't available when designing it and maintains it's accuracy without additional adjustment. Even then, any change in variables or trends not accounted for in the algorithm can cause it to have dramatically reduced effectiveness when that change occurs which could be before the next case or in 5 or 10 years of the algorithm seeming to be perfect.

    27. Re:biased algorith by sjames · · Score: 1

      However, time marches on. There will always be new data to test against.

      The more interesting question though is to look at what factors were involved in the successful algorithm. Ideally there won't be terms in there like gender or race of the justices or political affiliations. That, in turn offers a way to look (theoretically, of course) at how the current SCOTUS might have decided key cases in the past.

    28. Re:biased algorith by Applehu+Akbar · · Score: 1

      And wouldn't spotting trends be part of a viable model?

    29. Re:biased algorith by mysidia · · Score: 1

      I (read: anyone) can make an algorithm that fits any previous data

      Unless it was an honest test where the sets of cases used to build and train the algorithm were required to be random samples, AND the cases the prediction was tested against were also a random sample with no overlap with the cases used to build the algorithm (with no training of the algorithm based on the cases supposedly being used to validate it).

    30. Re:biased algorith by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      That only works if you get it right on the first try, if you keep refining your algorithm until it fits the test cases, then you've essentially used your test data as training data.

    31. Re:biased algorith by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      A nickel says it's not based on the US Constitution.

    32. Re:biased algorith by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I read the Wikipedia article about the Turk. Fascinating stuff.
      However, I'm not quite understanding your analogy. The Turk was an intentional deception; a device that hides a human. It had nothing to do with predicting, or whether an algorithm stand the test of time. Perhaps you suggest that the Turk was promoted as a pre-built machine that responded to new and real-time input. Surely the inventor did realize what it was doing, though.
      I might just be over-analyzing your statement, but I'm wondering if there's a piece to this analogy that I'm missing.

  2. Not a bad idea by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Maybe it'll cut down the number of frivolty in lawsuits once businesses realize their cases are futile.

    Or not.

    1. Re:Not a bad idea by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Be frivolous and frisky, I always says.

  3. hell by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    They beat my 50% accurate algorithm...

  4. Trivial by Chrisq · · Score: 2

    Just identify the wrong decision and they are bond to pick it ;-)

  5. is it better than random? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

    If the decisions have 50/50 distribution, then a random guess is right 50% of the time. For any other distribution it's more than that. Soooo 70% is at best a little bit better than random guess, at worst equal to it.

    1. Re:is it better than random? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Actual a random guess is right 50/50 even for uneven distributions.

      take a situation where outcome A happens 10% of the time and outcome B happens 90% of the time. Now, flip a coin to choose A or B, and work out how often you will pick right. Outcome A is right in 10% of cases, given that, you flip a coin and have a 50% chance of matching A. Outcome B is right in 90% of cases, given that, you flip a coin and have a 50% chance of matching B.

      In other words, a random selection never beats the odds.

    2. Re:is it better than random? by mrvan · · Score: 5, Informative

      That is correct, but not what the GP meant. If you can model the distribution (e.g. you 'know' that B is 90%) then you can weigh your random guessing such that it is correct in >50% of the cases, even without looking at the case itself (it is still 'random' in that sense)

      Extreme case: I can predict whether someone has Ebola without even looking at them with >99.99% accuracy by just guessing "no" every time, since the prevalence of Ebola is >.001%.

      Suppose the supreme court has 70% chance of overturning (e.g. because they choose to hear cases that have 'merit'), then an algorithm that guesses 'overturn' 100% will have a 70% accuracy. A random guess that follows the marginal of the target distribution (e.g. guess 70% overturn) also scores >50% (58% to be precise).

    3. Re:is it better than random? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      There are other ways to do a random guess than flipping a coin. Try a D10.

    4. Re:is it better than random? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      However, you'd live longer if you'd guessed each potential Ebola case incorrectly.

  6. Full of shit! Partially? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    So does that make them 70% full of shit, or 30%?

  7. Is this anything new? by SillyBrit · · Score: 1

    People have been predicting outcomes for years. There was a story a couple of months back about something similar. And here's a link to a group that stated 75% success predicting the outcome prior to oral arguments, back in 2004 http://www.jstor.org/discover/10.2307/4099370?uid=3738032&uid=2&uid=4&sid=21104566455723. I can't comment on the relative academic merits of either though.

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  8. Missing info by paradigm82 · · Score: 1

    It would be useful to know how many of the court's decisions are affirm vs reverse. If 70% are affirm, it's not impressive to be able to correctly predict 70% of decisions since you can just always guess on "affirm". Of course, if it is equally distributed (50% affirm, 50% reverse), getting 70% correct shows the algorithm has some prediction power (assuming it is trained on a different dataset than is used for evaluating it). But it is impossible to determine if this is the case, based on the information in the article.

    1. Re:Missing info by mwvdlee · · Score: 3, Informative

      It would be useful to know how many of the court's decisions are affirm vs reverse.

      http://www.americanbar.org/con...

      I did some tallying on table 3 and found the following numbers on total decissions;
      Reversed: 58.48%
      Vacated: 12.58%
      Affirmed: 28.94%

      The article doesn't mention whether "vacated" is counted separately or as a reversal.
      The graph shows only reversed and affirmed, so I'm assuming vacated counts as a reversal.
      If this is the case, reversed and vacated together is 71.06%.
      So if you'd guess "Reversed" all the time, you'd be slighly more accurate than the algorithm.

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    2. Re:Missing info by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I totally lol'd when I saw those stats. This is probably where the guy got the idea. No doubt he 'fine tuned' his algorithm to fit these probabilities.

    3. Re:Missing info by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Vacated is neither affirmed, nor reversed.
      Affirmed means, "The earlier court got it right."
      Reversed means, "The earlier court got it backwards."
      Vacated means, "We found an error the earlier court made, so we're discarding the judgement, and sending it back to be tried again with instructions on how to handle the part where the earlier court erred."

    4. Re: Missing info by steven.db.clark · · Score: 1

      And that makes sense. If affirmed is the likely outcome then the court won't take the case. Reversed should be the best choice.

    5. Re:Missing info by mwvdlee · · Score: 1

      I know they're not the same; that's why they are different words.
      TFA however, does not seem to recognize anything besides "affirmed" and "reversed", so "vacated" must be categorized as either of these.
      Since the PDF I linked to grouped "vacated" with "reversed" in some of it's tables, I assumed that must have been what TFA has done, hence my use of the words "assuming vacated counts as a reveral".

      Short; it doesn't matter what either of us thinks, it matter how the author of TFA defined these terms.

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  9. Useless by Jiro · · Score: 5, Insightful

    According to http://www.scotusblog.com/stat... the Supreme Court recently affirmed 27% of lower court decisions and reversed 73%. This means that if you guess that the Supreme Court reverses the lower court every time, you'll be 73% accurate. 70% accuracy is ridiculously low if you can get 73% accuracy *without* taking into consideration the records of each justice or any other kind of details.

    1. Re:Useless by fph+il+quozientatore · · Score: 1

      This should be +10 insightful.

      --
      My first program:

      Hell Segmentation fault

    2. Re:Useless by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I guess you missed the "using only data available prior to the date of decision" part. Yes, knowing it's 73%, you can go back and guess "reversed" and be 73% correct, but if you already know it's 73% in fact you can find out the outcome in each case and guess correctly 100% of the time, so 73% is pretty bad actually. But yeah, having the posterior information available as a prior does help.

    3. Re:Useless by Bearhouse · · Score: 1

      It depends - there's a difference between saying 70% "in general" and "this one will be part of the 70%".

      Of course, since the percentages seem very close the practical implications would seem to be the same.

    4. Re:Useless by dkf · · Score: 1

      According to http://www.scotusblog.com/stat... the Supreme Court recently affirmed 27% of lower court decisions and reversed 73%. This means that if you guess that the Supreme Court reverses the lower court every time, you'll be 73% accurate. 70% accuracy is ridiculously low if you can get 73% accuracy *without* taking into consideration the records of each justice or any other kind of details.

      Of course, the usual reason why the case got to the Supremes in the first place is because there were two cases by different Appeals Circuits which conflicted.

      --
      "Little does he know, but there is no 'I' in 'Idiot'!"
    5. Re:Useless by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Yes, knowing it's 73%, you can go back and guess "reversed" and be 73% correct, but if you already know it's 73% in fact you can find out the outcome in each case and guess correctly 100% of the time, so 73% is pretty bad actually.

      Only a South Texas College scholar could parse that sentence.

    6. Re:Useless by sound+vision · · Score: 2

      Not really - The "algorithm" the grandparent has come up with can be written out as "The vote will be to reverse the ruling". Sure, you will get approximately 73% accuracy, assuming the distribution of the decisions remains the same. But it has zero utility as a predictive algorithm. Presumably, the algorithm that has been developed in TFA can predict both rulings to uphold and rulings to reverse with 70% accuracy. That's infinitely more useful than an algorithm that predicts rulings to reverse with 100% accuracy and rulings to uphold with 0% accuracy, which is what the GP poster did.

      It's similar to

    7. Re:Useless by AthanasiusKircher · · Score: 4, Informative

      70% accuracy is ridiculously low if you can get 73% accuracy *without* taking into consideration the records of each justice or any other kind of details.

      First, your link only deals with the past court term. TFA deals with predicting cases back to 1953. Is your 73% stat valid for the entire past half century?

      And even if it were, the algorithm is much more granular than that, predicting the way individual justices will vote. From TFA:

      69.7% of the Courtâ(TM)s overall affirm and reverse decisions and correctly forecasts 70.9% of the votes of individual justices across 7,700 cases and more than 68,000 justice votes. Also, before someone objects, please note that (contrary to popular belief) SCOTUS does not always vote 5-4 according to party lines. For instance, your own link notes that 2/3 of last year's opinions were UNANIMOUS. 5-4 decisions usually amount for only 25% of cases or so in recent years, and of those, usually a 1/3 or so don't divide up according to supposed "party line" votes.

      So, I agree with you that simply predicting reverse/affirm at 70% accuracy may be easy, but predicting 68000 individual justice votes with similar accuracy might be a significantly greater challenge.

    8. Re:Useless by AthanasiusKircher · · Score: 1

      Sorry -- accidentally hit submit early. Obviously the main quote from TFA is only one sentence... the rest is my commentary.

    9. Re:Useless by fph+il+quozientatore · · Score: 3, Informative

      Yeah, that's why we have better error measures than "70% accuracy", and competent people should use them.

      --
      My first program:

      Hell Segmentation fault

    10. Re:Useless by Cyberdyne · · Score: 1

      So, I agree with you that simply predicting reverse/affirm at 70% accuracy may be easy, but predicting 68000 individual justice votes with similar accuracy might be a significantly greater challenge.

      In fact, it looks like very much the same challenge: with most decisions being unanimous reversals, it seems only a small minority of those individual votes are votes to affirm the lower court decision. So, just as 'return "reverse";' is a 70+% accurate predictor of the overall court ruling in each case, the very same predictor will be somewhere around 70% accurate for each individual justice, for exactly the same reason. (For that matter, if I took a six-sided die and marked two sides "affirm" and the rest "reverse", I'd have a slightly less accurate predictor giving much less obvious predictions: it will correctly predict about two-thirds of the time, with incorrect predictions split between unexpected reversals and unexpected affirmations.)

      This is the statistical problem with trying to measure/predict any unlikely (or indeed any very likely) event. I can build a "bomb detector" for screening airline luggage, for example, which is 99.99% accurate in real-world tests. How? Well, much less than 0.01% of actual airline luggage contains a bomb ... so a flashing green LED marked "no bomb present" will in fact be correct in almost every single case. It's also completely worthless, of course! (Sadly, at least two people have put exactly that business model into practice and made a considerable amount of money selling fake bomb detectors for use in places like Iraq - one of them got a seven year jail sentence for it last year in England.)

      With blood transfusions, I understand there's now a two stage test used to screen for things like HIV. The first test is quick, easy, and quite often wrong: as I recall, most of the positive readings it gives turn out to be false positives. What matters, though, is that the negative results are very, very unlikely to be false negatives: you can be confident the blood is indeed clean. Then, you can use a more elaborate test to determine which of the few positives were correct - by eliminating the majority of samples, it's much easier to focus on the remainder. Much the way airport security should be done: quickly weed out the 90-99% of people/bags who definitely aren't a threat, then you have far more resources to focus on the much smaller number of possible threats.

      Come to think of it, the very first CPU branch predictors used exactly this technique: they assumed that no conditional branch would ever be taken. Since most conditional branches aren't, that "prediction" was actually right most of the time. (The Pentium 4 is much more sophisticated, storing thousands of records about when branches are taken and not taken - hence "only" gets it wrong about one time in nine.)

      Now, I'd like to think the predictor in question is more sophisticated than this - but to know that, we'd need a better statistical test than those quoted, which amount to "it's nearly as accurate as a static predictor based on no information about the case at all"! Did it predict the big controversial decisions more accurately than less significant ones, for example? (Unlikely, of course, otherwise they wouldn't have been so controversial.)

    11. Re:Useless by fph+il+quozientatore · · Score: 3, Informative

      To be more fair, I am not bashing the original paper here -- that one reports the full confusion matrix (http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/papers.cfm?abstract_id=2463244).

      --
      My first program:

      Hell Segmentation fault

    12. Re:Useless by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The 70% of algorithm accuracy is rather an estimation, further testing actually gives value of 73 %.
      I have found the source code of the algorithm on a warez site - here is complete listing:

              bool supreme_court_decision(bool lower_court_decision) {return ! lower_court_decision;}

    13. Re:Useless by AthanasiusKircher · · Score: 1

      In fact, it looks like very much the same challenge: with most decisions being unanimous reversals, it seems only a small minority of those individual votes are votes to affirm the lower court decision.

      Nope -- you just made the same error the GP did: extrapolating a false inference based on one year of data. It's true that last year had 2/3 unanimous rulings, but that was an outlier -- which I was mainly using to make a point about how the 5-4 rulings that make the news are not as common as we think.

      In reality, the Roberts court has averaged maybe 40-50% unanimous rulings, but this is an outlier historically too. Over the 50 years TFA deals with, the unanimous rate is more like 30-40%, I think, maybe less.

      So, no -- you can't just assume that 2/3 of votes are for unanimous reversals.

      So, just as 'return "reverse";' is a 70+% accurate predictor of the overall court ruling in each case, the very same predictor will be somewhere around 70% accurate for each individual justice, for exactly the same reason.

      That logic is completely bogus. For example, imagine a scenario where the 70% reversals are unanimous, and the other 30% are all 5-4 rulings not to reverse. That would mean that 83.3% of votes were to reverse, and only 16.7% were to uphold... quite far from your 70% assumption. Or, to be more extreme, imagine a scenario where the 70% reversals are all 5-4, while the affirmations are all 9-0 unanimous. In that case, while 70% of rulings result in reversals, only 31% of votes were actually to reverse.

      In sum, most decisions are NOT unanimous reversals, and the number of individual votes to reverse does NOT necessarily have much to do with the number of decisions to reverse.

      For that matter, if I took a six-sided die and marked two sides "affirm" and the rest "reverse", I'd have a slightly less accurate predictor giving much less obvious predictions: it will correctly predict about two-thirds of the time, with incorrect predictions split between unexpected reversals and unexpected affirmations.

      Wrong again! Assuming a 70% rate for reversals, if you took a 6-sided die and wrote "reverse" on ALL sides, you'd get a 70% accuracy rate for predictions.

      But if you wrote reverse on only four sides, you'd get an accurate prediction from your die only about 56% of the time. Your die actually became much less accurate! (Even if you used a 10-sided die and wrote "affirm" on 3 sides, you'd only get 58% accuracy for predictions, much less than you'd get by writing "reverse" on all sides.)

      Really -- if you're going to try to critique someone else's models on the basis of flawed stats, take some time to think about your own arguments and understand their numerical results.

    14. Re:Useless by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I did and I'm from nowhere near there.

    15. Re:Useless by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

      The paper reports a 30% accuracy for SCOTUS affirmations and 91% accuracy for SCOTUS reversals, which is a bit better than any uninformed model could do. An uninformed predictor that guesses "reversal" X% of the time will have an X% accuracy for reversals and (100-X)% accuracy for affirmations, so the two prediction accuracies always sum to 100% for uninformed predictors.

  10. Simplified algorithm by mwvdlee · · Score: 3, Insightful

    if defendant.bank_balance > plaintiff.bank_balance
          winner = defendant
    else
          winner = plaintiff

    I'd guess about 90% accurate.

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    1. Re:Simplified algorithm by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

      bool IsGuilty(String defendant){
      if (defendant.compare("black")==1)
        return true;
      else
        return false;
      }

      -- From outraged black guy!

    2. Re:Simplified algorithm by dywolf · · Score: 2

      my algorithm is even better, and even more accurate. its simple: What is the worst possible outcome for the citizenry?

      --
      The guy who said the election was rigged won the presidency with the second-most votes.
    3. Re:Simplified algorithm by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

      /* politics is the standard 2-axis model of politics:
        * x = economic freedom
        * y = personal freedom
        * (0,0) = authoritarian
        * (0,1) = liberal ("left")
        * (1,0) = conservative ("right")
        * (1,1) = libertarian
        */
      vec2 c = case.politics;
      vec2 p = normalize(proj(c, plaintiff.politics));
      vec2 d = normalize(proj(c, defendant.politics));
      for (Judge judge : scotus)
        {
          vec2 j = normalize(proj(c, judge.politics));
          float pj = dot (p, j);
          float dj = dot (d, j);
       
          if (pj >= 0.5 || dj <= -0.5)
            judge.rulesFor(plaintiff);
          else
            judge.rulesFor(defendant);
        }

      This is 99.44% accurate.

    4. Re:Simplified algorithm by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      That's probably at least 92% accurate.

      I used to use the algorithm;

      Does ruling help people + hurt companies =
          winner Company.

      Does ruling help companies + hurt people =
          winner Company

      Does ruling do nothing to companies and annoy people =
          Clarence gets his intern to put big words in his decision brief.

      Yours with the money calculation is way more straightforward. It accounts for those Company vs. Company rulings as well. Kudos!

    5. Re:Simplified algorithm by Vitriol+Angst · · Score: 1

      It would run faster if written in Swift. ;-P

      --
      >>"ad space available -- low rates!!!"
    6. Re:Simplified algorithm by Vitriol+Angst · · Score: 1

      By the way, I'm keeping this algorithm -- not for the wisdom, but because it's so much more efficient than a bunch of CASE statements. Wow, vectored decision trees -- seems so much more civilized.

      --
      >>"ad space available -- low rates!!!"
    7. Re:Simplified algorithm by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      e>

      This is 99.44% accurate.

      So is Ivory soap.

    8. Re:Simplified algorithm by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Sigh... it's so long! After you practice using !strcmp instead of strcmp...==0, the following becomes second nature:
      bool isGuilty(String defendant){return defendant.compare("black");}
      Some people may say that this code is more implicit, and therefore more challenging to read.
      Newbs... once the language is mastered, the shorter version is just as easy, and doesn't take six freakin' lines. Actually, if you can just simply use:
      x.compare("black")
      instead of:
      isGuilty(x)
      then the function can be reduced down to zero lines.

    9. Re:Simplified algorithm by swillden · · Score: 4, Insightful

      my algorithm is even better, and even more accurate. its simple: What is the worst possible outcome for the citizenry?

      I don't know about the accuracy of your SCOTUS result-picking algorithm, but you and mwvdlee have a good algorithm to get modded up on slashdot: Just express deep cynicism about the system. Doesn't have to be true in the slightest.

      FWIW, I watch SCOTUS pretty closely, and I'd say their bad decisions are fairly rare. I'm unhappy with the outcome in a larger minority of cases, but it's not very common that upon reading the opinions and dissents that I find myself ultimately in disagreement with their conclusions. And in most cases I think they not only make the right legal call, but the right call for the citizenry (though that isn't, and shouldn't be, their primary focus).

      Of course, you and I may well disagree about some of the decisions.

      --
      Note to ACs: I usually delete AC replies without reading them. If you want to talk to me, log in.
    10. Re:Simplified algorithm by Drethon · · Score: 1

      Or

      if defendant.lawyer_pay > plaintiff.lawyer_pay
      winner = defendant
      else
      winner = plaintiff

    11. Re:Simplified algorithm by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      What the heck kind of bad code is that.

      bool isGuilty(String defendantSkinColor){
          return defendantSkinColor.equals("black")
      }

    12. Re:Simplified algorithm by phantomfive · · Score: 1

      I'd guess about 90% accurate.

      lol if you ever actually want to bet money on that algorithm, let me know. I'll even give you 5 to 1 odds, instead of the 9 to 1 you suggest.

      --
      "First they came for the slanderers and i said nothing."
    13. Re:Simplified algorithm by dywolf · · Score: 1

      Cynicism? Yes. Warranted? Yes.
      To be fair, most of their decisions aren't earth shattering or even really newsworthy, so they dont get reported.
      But of those that are big deals...this current court is pretty atrocious. Particularly in terms of business, this court is one of the most pro-corporation-as-the-expense-of-citizens/consumers that has ever existed.

      Good decision: killing DOMA, upholding the ACA in general

      Bad decisions: allowing unlimited money in politics...twice (total ban on contribution limits will probably happen next year), allowing corporate religious belief, saying that admitting to a religuos belief so an employee can get outside coverage is a burden (essentially allowing employee to use his religious beliefs to control what an employee can or cannot buy with his own monies), weakening the 5th Amendment such that now you must declare that are you exercising your 5th Amendment/Miranda rights otherwise your refusal to incriminate yourself CAN be used against you....

      For ex:
      --Corporations can have religious rights. But that's ok, because the Adminstration already has a workaround for religious non-profits, right? So just use that.
      --3 day later: BTW, that work around? It's unconstitutional too, because having an employer admit it won't provide certain coverage because of religious convictions is too big of a burden on their ability to exercise their religious convictions.

      Plus there are many cases in the Court's history where the decision they made was the better choice for the citizenry, even though not the best legal choice. IE, a solid legal case could have been made for the opposite outcome, but they chose to orient towards what was best for the people, rather than what was best for the law.
      This particularly cover cases related to Slavery, Civil Rights, Equal Rights, etc.

      --
      The guy who said the election was rigged won the presidency with the second-most votes.
    14. Re:Simplified algorithm by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      ... the worst possible outcome ...

      That's precisely what created the US TSA and its world-wide crowd of clones. Sometimes, it's better to ask whether the cure is worse than the disease.

    15. Re:Simplified algorithm by diamondmagic · · Score: 1

      The Court's first responsibility is to uphold the law -- not the law as they or anyone else wants it. This includes the Constitution, the "supreme law of the land" - they can't uphold a law that Congress has no authority to pass in the first place.

      From this viewpoint, let's take a look at those decisions:

      Bad decision: Calling the ACA a "tax". The ACA originated in the Senate, even though the Constitution requires that new taxes originate in the House. Furthermore, you can't compel people to buy something, and you can't compel a company to sell something - that's outright slavery, if it was ever recently legalized.

      Good decision: Upholding the free speech of individuals, whether representing a corporation or themselves. The First Amendment says "Congress shall make no law... abridging the freedom of speech." No exemptions are listed. (And the Constitution, mind you, has numerous exemptions to various things - not in this amendment, though.) You might say "But money isn't speech!" which is technically, literally true, but doesn't make the First Amendment implications any less relevant. It costs money to publish speech, and this applies to newspapers, websites, and bloggers; in addition to advertisers. Additionally, the Federal government doesn't have the power to legislate intrastate exchange; it only has some power over interstate trade, the power to regulate (which does not include prohibition).

      It sounds like all you want to do is force some people to behave the way you want them to behave, without considering that they might have a right to do so even when you disagree with them on the matter.

    16. Re:Simplified algorithm by dywolf · · Score: 1

      so money = speech, and if some just happen to have a louder voice because they have more money...oh well?
      Bugger that.

      and the rest of your comments are nonsense too: the ACA did originate in the house; if we can require people to carry car insurance so they dont become a burden and impose a burden on others then theres no reason not to do it for healthcare, especially when healthcare costs are 20% of our entire economy (course this whole "problem" goes away if we just instituted medicaire for all....plus it's cheaper); etc etc.

      as i said: they were "upholding the law" in Plessy v Ferguson and Dred Scott too, and others, even though those were horrible decisions, detrimental to the country
      And again as i said, the case could be made that they werent upholding the law when they decided several others, even though those others were beter for the country.
      That's why all the money=speech decisions are horrible, cause it literally, blatantly, opens up elections to being bought (or at least more than they already were).
      So stuff you nonsense.

      --
      The guy who said the election was rigged won the presidency with the second-most votes.
    17. Re:Simplified algorithm by dywolf · · Score: 1

      and just so I can be especially clear: if it happens that the right decision in terms ofthe Law is NOT the right decision in terms of the public good, then the Law MUST be changed. The two concepts should, indeed they must, be aligned.

      Otherwise you become a country who worships the law even to the detriment of soctety itself.

      --
      The guy who said the election was rigged won the presidency with the second-most votes.
    18. Re:Simplified algorithm by dywolf · · Score: 1

      and just so I can be especially clear: if it happens that the right decision in terms ofthe Law is NOT the right decision in terms of the public good, then the Law MUST be changed. The two concepts should, indeed they must, be aligned in a nation of free people.

      Otherwise you become a country who worships the law even to the detriment of society itself.

      --
      The guy who said the election was rigged won the presidency with the second-most votes.
    19. Re:Simplified algorithm by diamondmagic · · Score: 1

      You don't own a newspaper to deliver your opinion to the front steps of millions of people... Oh well?

      That doesn't mean we can go around neutering newspapers. Now, I never said "money = speech", but that doesn't make the First Amendment implications any less relevant. You cannot enforce a law that has the effect of chilling speech. Period full stop.

      Everything for Obamacare/PPACA, including the "penalty" tax and tax on medical devices, was introduced in the Senate. They could only pass the Senate version because it was the only version passed on either side of the Rotunda before Democrats lost their "super majority" in the Senate -- the House had to pass it second.

      Again, you can't uphold a law that's unconstitutional. This means due process, and equal protection of the law. People have rights, and every time someone is allowed to exercise those rights in a way you don't like, you want to blame the Court. No thank you.

      We also sent millions of Japanese Americans to detention centers, and continue to lock up people in Federal prison for completely consensual, non-violent "crimes", in the name of "the public good". When you have a completely subjective, flexible, term as "public good" you get the TSA, Homeland Security, USA PATRIOT Act, DEA, NSA, and you can protest it as much as you want but no court is going to agree with you on how their idea of public good is wrong, and your idea of public good is right. No thank you. We have rights that are above even every last person on Earth going to a poll station and checking the right box.

  11. That ought to be easy... by Type44Q · · Score: 0

    Just write an algorithm that determines which decision will leave the American peoples' ass stretched open the widest, when they're bent over and fucked.

  12. Useless by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    So what they've done is create a system marginally less accurate than "return 'reversed'".

  13. Sweet! Now we can start the Judge program. by Lumpy · · Score: 2

    Install software in the helmet, Set the judges loose on the city....

    I AM THE LAW!

    --
    Do not look at laser with remaining good eye.
  14. Re:Useless (not if you read the article) by MarkWegman · · Score: 1

    The article talks about predicting decisions going back to 1953. It also says it's easy to come up with good predictors for specific time ranges. Your rejection algorithm works well for the last year or so, but the article you cite is based on the last years statistics only. The actual article talks about using a whole pile of inputs and learning a good predictor. It sounds like it would have easily learned your strategy, though the article isn't clear. Apparently the algorithm is doing just about as well as humans trying to predict the decision, where the best humans have just a small amount better track record.

  15. 70% successful prediction by Richard+Kirk · · Score: 1

    A 70% prediction rate is not impressive. In the UK, where the weather seems pretty unpredictable, "it will be pretty much the same as yesterday" is right about 70% of the time. Weather forecasting and track individual storms, but It took a long time and a lot of research for the weather forecast success flat rate to get any better than this. The model may be important: the success rate probably isn't.

    1. Re:70% successful prediction by jd · · Score: 1

      It's 70% average. For the Democratic judges, it's much lower. For the Republican judges, you could probably dispense with them and use the code as it stands. Since the algorithm falls short of true AI, this clearly implies a lot about how decisions are made and what with.

      --
      It's a small world and it smells funny; I'd buy another if it wasn't for the money; Take back what I paid (SoM)
    2. Re:70% successful prediction by wonkey_monkey · · Score: 1

      A 70% prediction rate is not impressive.

      Doesn't that rather depend on what you're predicting, and how good previous algorithms were?

      Isn't that a bit like complaining that "10mph is not impressive" while commenting on a story about the world's fastest snail?

      In the UK, where the weather seems pretty unpredictable, "it will be pretty much the same as yesterday" is right about 70% of the time.

      I can predict with 99.9% accuracy what the weather will be like in five minutes. Does that mean any prediction less than 99.9% accurate is not impressive?

      --
      systemd is Roko's Basilisk.
    3. Re:70% successful prediction by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      For the Republican judges....

      Having not read the article... is this true or is it a bias of yours? When dealing with stats bias is a horrible thing to have. You can accidentally sneak in bad data and not even know it.

      But let me show you how you are wrong. read this please.
      http://yro.slashdot.org/comments.pl?sid=5501457&cid=47621169

      There are people who actually understand statistics here. Please read them. From my pov I would say there are 2/3 judges that seem to swing the vote back and forth. The rest are dipsticks who vote with their party for some reason. If you take into account that only 2-3 swing votes in any case you end up at about 70%. Low and behold that is about what it is.

      If you want to pretend your party is better than the other please read up on the history of your party. Even recent history is telling (NSA and IRS scandals).

  16. Re: Replace them by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Lawyers: "We want wealth to equal power."

    SCOTUS: "Done. You owe me an upgrade."

  17. Re:There's a more useful algorithm by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Well, there are some things. You can say, for instance, that a court's decision should not depend on the gender of the judge, or the time of day, or on whether the appellant is of the same race as the judge. If you check and find out that these irrelevant things do matter, then you can say that there is injustice even without having any opinion on which way any particular case should go.

    But there is very little research of this sort. At the end of the day, the court system is more about convincing people that justice has been served, than about actually serving justice.

  18. Guess what by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    If we outlawed private campaign funding it would be correct 100% of the time.

  19. Unimpressive by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    It's within 1 standard deviation of being no better than a coin toss.

  20. There's a more useful algorithm by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Here's that algorithm:

    #DEFINE FREE_FROM_BIAS_AND_FINANCIAL_INFLUENCE 0
    #DEFINE FREE_FROM_BIAS_BUT_INFLUENCED_BY_MONEY 1
    #DEFINE FREE_FROM_FINANCIAL_INFLUENCE_BUT_POLITICALLY_BIASED 2
    #DEFINE POLITICALLY_BIASED_AND_INFLUENCED_BY_MONEY 3

    int algorithm() {

          return POLITICALLY_BIASED_AND_INFLUENCED_BY_MONEY;
    }

  21. Algorithm based on bias by ranton · · Score: 2

    I wouldn't be surprised if the primary predictive trait used is simply to check the biases of each judge and then assume they will vote along those biases. Assuming conservative judges will vote conservative and liberal judges will vote liberal should give you a pretty good score right off the bat.

    --
    -- All that is necessary for the triumph of evil is that good men do nothing. -- Edmund Burke
    1. Re:Algorithm based on bias by AthanasiusKircher · · Score: 4, Informative

      I wouldn't be surprised if the primary predictive trait used is simply to check the biases of each judge and then assume they will vote along those biases. Assuming conservative judges will vote conservative and liberal judges will vote liberal should give you a pretty good score right off the bat.

      Only in a small minority of cases. Contrary to popular belief, most SCOTUS cases aren't highly politicized cases with a clear conservative/liberal divide. Most cases deal with rather technical issues of law which are much less susceptible to this sort of political analysis.

      The Roberts Court, for example, has averaged 40-50% unanimous rulings in recent years (last year about 2/3 of rulings were unanimous). So, your idea of "assume conservative vote conservative, liberal vote liberal" would tell you nothing about maybe half of the cases that have come before the court in recent years. (Historically, I believe about 1/3 or so of rulings tend to be unanimous.)

      And even with the closely divided cases, you have a problem. Of the 5-4 rulings (which in recent years have been only about 20-30% of the total rulings), about 1/4 to 1/3 of them don't divide up according to supposed "party lines."

      In sum, I don't know what factors this model ends up using, but "conservative vs. liberal" is way too simplistic to predict the vast majority of SCOTUS rulings. If you could factor in detailed perspectives on law (which often have little to do with the stereotyped political spectrum), you might have something... but that would require a lot more work, particularly over the 50 years of rulings TFA deals with.

    2. Re:Algorithm based on bias by JoeMerchant · · Score: 1

      I was going to say: media preference datapoint: NPR vs FOX, might be the strongest predictor.

    3. Re:Algorithm based on bias by JoeMerchant · · Score: 2

      Bear in mind, the model only gets it right 70% of the time, and a red-black roulette spin would get it right nearly 50% of the time.

    4. Re:Algorithm based on bias by ShanghaiBill · · Score: 2

      So 40-50% are unanimous, and those should be easy to predict. For the remainder, predict party line, and you will get an additional 30-40% right. So an algorithm that gets only 70% right doesn't seem very impressive. Even simplistic guessing should do at least that well.

    5. Re:Algorithm based on bias by Alomex · · Score: 1

      he Roberts Court, for example, has averaged 40-50% unanimous rulings in recent years

      If at all possible courts rule only on the parts they all or the vast majority agree on and skip parts they don't agree. For example, one judge might want to overturn the entire law, another just this specific application. Then the court unanimously rules to reverse the case and remains silent on the bigger issue.

    6. Re:Algorithm based on bias by AthanasiusKircher · · Score: 1

      Bear in mind, the model only gets it right 70% of the time, and a red-black roulette spin would get it right nearly 50% of the time.

      Yes, and if we were talking about a handful or even a few dozen outcomes, 70% accuracy wouldn't be significant. But we're talking about 68,000 individual decisions of justices. If your roulette spin came up red 70% of the time over 68,000 spins, you'd be darn certain it was rigged. Besides, focusing on this one statistic is relatively meaningless -- a model that gets 70% correct could be simplistic and stupid, or it could have a tremendous amount of insight... that one number says nothing.

    7. Re:Algorithm based on bias by sumdumass · · Score: 1

      The still need a reason to reverse the case. The SCOTUS or any court for that matter does not just go because we said so. They have reasons. Now, I agree that they may or may not overturn a law based on how much they agree with each other, but they still need a reason to invalidate a lower courts judgement.

    8. Re:Algorithm based on bias by AthanasiusKircher · · Score: 1
      And you'd have a reasonable argument if we were only predicting affirmations vs. reversals. That's just a couple possible outcomes per case. But the model also predicts the votes of individual justices with over 70% accuracy... tens of thousands of them. Is it the best model ever? Probably not. But the results seem quite significant over such a large number of cases over 50 years... so it's something. You really think it's that easy to predict when a case will be unanimous vs. 8-1 or 7-2 or 6-3, and that you can predict the exact dissenters with 70% accuracy over tens of thousands of cases? It's not that easy.

      Getting it 50% right it trivial. Getting a few votes 70% right is probably also easy. Getting 70% accuracy over thousands of votes though is not just like rolling a couple good dice rolls in a row.

    9. Re:Algorithm based on bias by AthanasiusKircher · · Score: 1

      Just ran some numbers, since I was curious

      So 40-50% are unanimous, and those should be easy to predict.

      Only if you can predict which decisions will be unanimous with 100% accuracy.

      For the remainder, predict party line, and you will get an additional 30-40% right.

      Let's assume we can predict the 45% or so of unanimous decisions of the past few years with 100% accuracy (a dubious assumption), so we have the other 55% to deal with. Even if we assume an incredibly simple model where 4 justices are solidly on each "side" and only one justice is consistently a swing vote (empirically not true), we still have to deal with predicting the roughly 1/3 of cases that have 8-1, 7-2, or 6-3 decisions. And in those cases, we'd have to be able to predict which side is the correct "party line" for each "side" (which seems like a dubious idea for cases decided 8-1 or 7-2, so could we really predict which side to even put the votes on?). And even if we exclude the possibility that these latter cases might involve dissenting pairings that cross "party lines" (these happen more often than you'd think -- you might see Scalia joining up with Ginsberg or Breyer or whoever in some cases -- but let's exclude that possibility under your simple "party line" model)... well, using stats for the breakdowns of the court in the past six terms from SCOTUSblog, I get a 37% prediction rate for individual justice votes in the non-unanimous decisions... using the basic idea of your model.

      That only gets us up to about 65% accuracy overall... and that's assuming (1) we can identify and predict unanimous decisions with 100% accuracy, (2) we can clearly identify 4 justices who are in each "party" and one clear swing voter, (3) we can determine with perfect accuracy which ruling each "party" will favor in every case, and (4) we never have dissents that cross "party" boundaries.

      And all of those assumptions are nowhere near true. Thus, your simplistic model is nowhere near feasible, and even if we could make it work very roughly, I think we'd be very lucky if we predicted much higher than 50% of justices' votes with it.

    10. Re:Algorithm based on bias by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      >Only in a small minority of cases. Contrary to popular belief, most SCOTUS cases aren't highly politicized cases with a clear conservative/liberal divide. Most cases deal with rather technical issues of law which are much less susceptible to this sort of political analysis. The Roberts Court, for example, has averaged 40-50% unanimous rulings in recent years (last year about 2/3 of rulings were unanimous). So, your idea of "assume conservative vote conservative, liberal vote liberal" would tell you nothing about maybe half of the cases that have come before the court in recent years. (Historically, I believe about 1/3 or so of rulings tend to be unanimous.)

      Actually, all that doesn't necessarily support your conclusion. A 50% unanimous ruling statistic might well mean that the Justice's political biases place them on the same side of an issue about half the time.

    11. Re:Algorithm based on bias by JoeMerchant · · Score: 1

      Personally, I'd call an simplistic algorithm that gets 70% right brilliant, and one that has a tremendous amount of insight that also gets 70% correct overly complicated and prone to unpredictable failure.

  22. I Have One To! by LifesABeach · · Score: 0

    Tyranny equals enough money has been thrown into the court room.

    1. Re:I Have One To! by LifesABeach · · Score: 1

      Maybe the definition of Tyranny could be changed, for a price?

  23. not really that hard, theoretically by argStyopa · · Score: 1, Flamebait

    The US Constitution is only about 4 pages, 4400 words (and the bulk of that is structural & procedural minutiae about the US government).
    The role of the USSC is simply resolving if a law does or does not conform to the US Constitution.

    Given those relatively limited boundaries, it shouldn't be that complex of an issue to predict algorithmically the results of a given judicial ruling, one would think. (The devil's in the details about parsing meaning and context.)

    Of course, I believe phrases like "the right to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed" are indisputably clear, and I'm astonished that people can find convoluted ways to try to tear it apart syntactically.and semantically.

    --
    -Styopa
    1. Re:not really that hard, theoretically by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

      Of course, I believe phrases like "the right to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed" are indisputably clear, and I'm astonished that people can find convoluted ways to try to tear it apart syntactically.and semantically.

      Except you're missing the context. The full text is: " A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State,, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."

      So for 150 years, the 2nd amendment was interpreted to mean that states could raise armed militias, but that there was no individual right to bear arms. Citation: http://www.newyorker.com/news/...

    2. Re:not really that hard, theoretically by jd · · Score: 1

      Since you fail on the example you tried to parse, I suggest that although the theory is easy, personal prejudice always takes precedence over what is written.

      --
      It's a small world and it smells funny; I'd buy another if it wasn't for the money; Take back what I paid (SoM)
    3. Re:not really that hard, theoretically by tomhath · · Score: 2

      The original intent was to prevent the government from having too much power by ensuring that citizens could form militias. Having arms available to everyone (not just the government's army) was an essential part of being able to raise a militia.

    4. Re:not really that hard, theoretically by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      No, the original intent was to ensure that slave owners could form militias to prevent slave revolts. The Founders were well aware of the inability of militias to stand against a professional army as consistently demonstrated in the American Revolution.

    5. Re:not really that hard, theoretically by argStyopa · · Score: 3, Interesting

      Nonsense, an editorial screed by the New Yorker is meaningless. And if you want to bring context into it, you'll lose even harder.

      Firstly, judicial review wasn't even a principle until Marbury v Madison in 1803. So we're talking about the 19th century only.

      In cases in the 19th Century, the Supreme Court ruled pretty much only that the Second Amendment does not bar state regulation of firearms. (For example, in United States v. Cruikshank, 92 U.S. 542, 553 (1875), the Court stated that the Second Amendment âoehas no other effect than to restrict the powers of the national government,â and in Presser v. Illinois, 116 U.S. 252, 265 (1886), the Court reiterated that the Second Amendment âoeis a limitation only upon the power of Congress and the National government, and not upon that of the States.â )

      Although most of the rights in the Bill of Rights have been selectively incorporated into the rights guaranteed by the Fourteenth Amendment and thus cannot be impaired by state governments, the Second Amendment has never been so incorporated.

      It's only since 1939 United States v Miller, that federal court decisions considering the Second Amendment have largely interpreted it as preserving the authority of the states to maintain militias - not the '150 year history' stated in the deliberately-misleading text of the quoted article.

      (much of the above is clipped verbatim from http://www.loc.gov/law/help/se...)

      In fact, it's ONLY in the latter 20th Century that we've even HAD this debate, as all constitutional commentary and understanding previous to that was universal in its understanding of the 2nd Amendment as an individual right, *not* dependent on being in a militia: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/S...

      Of course, you further disregard that according to the US code, all males from 17-44 *are* by default in the militia. (http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/10/311)

      --
      -Styopa
    6. Re:not really that hard, theoretically by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

      I see the 'collective right' argument all the time, but it makes no sense on the face of its own claim.

      From the 1st Amendment:
      "Congress shall make no law ... abridging ... the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances.

      Here we have another "right of the people" that is not to be denied. If "the people" means a collective right, not an individual one, then you are making the claim that *you* don't have the right to peaceably assemble, and to petition the Government for redress of grievances. Do you see the problem yet?

      If not, let me ask you a simple question: If the individual does not have a right, how can a group which is *composed* of those individuals have that right?
      The answer is simple; it cannot. The rights of a group of people are the same as the rights of the individuals which make up the group.

      In the case of the 2nd Amendment, the issue becomes even more clear when you are familiar with what a militia was (and still is). A militia is the body of the people living in a state who are able and willing to take up arms in defense. They are expected to arrive with at least minimally sufficient arms, ammunition, and equipment to take on the immediate task for which they have been called. (The state is expected to provide such supplies, including food and ammunition, as may be needed for extended campaigns.) If an individual does not have the right to keep & bear arms, then the militia *cannot* exist.

      Finally, the Constitution does not *grant* rights. It explicitly lays out the boundaries of the powers which were granted to the federal government *by* the people. The 2nd Amendment does not *create* the right to keep & bear arms, it simply acknowledges the existence of that right, and disallows the federal government from infringing that right.

    7. Re:not really that hard, theoretically by Beyond_GoodandEvil · · Score: 1

      No, the original intent was to ensure that slave owners could form militias to prevent slave revolts. The Founders were well aware of the inability of militias to stand against a professional army as consistently demonstrated in the American Revolution.
      Federalist #46 would be to differ.

      --
      I laughed at the weak who considered themselves good because they lacked claws.
    8. Re:not really that hard, theoretically by david_thornley · · Score: 1

      Determining constitutionality is an important part of the Supreme Court's work, but it's hardly all of it.

      Did you know that Federal law varies over the country? The law as written is the same, of course, but it's interpreted differently. One of the Supreme Court's functions is to rule on a sample case when it gets too bad.

      --
      "When you have eliminated the unacceptable, whatever is left, however improbable, must be the truthiness" - Holmes
    9. Re:not really that hard, theoretically by unitron · · Score: 1

      The original intent was to prevent the government from having too much power by ensuring that citizens could form militias. Having arms available to everyone (not just the government's army) was an essential part of being able to raise a militia.

      The original intent was to make militias possible so that they could avoid having to have a standing army.

      They were very big on the idea of not having a standing army.

      --

      I see even classic Slashdot is now pretty much unusable on dial up anymore.

    10. Re:not really that hard, theoretically by unitron · · Score: 1

      No, the original intent was to ensure that slave owners could form militias to prevent slave revolts. The Founders were well aware of the inability of militias to stand against a professional army as consistently demonstrated in the American Revolution.

      Yeah, if the colonies' professional army hadn't been able to defeat King George III's militias, we'd all be speaking English now.

      --

      I see even classic Slashdot is now pretty much unusable on dial up anymore.

    11. Re:not really that hard, theoretically by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      So, when you turn 45, they can take your gun?

  24. Useless by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

    Correct. I did my thesis work in this area (predicting court outcomes). If you can't beat simply predicting reverse every time, you have nothing.
    From a common sense perspective. Consider the effort the court goes through in selecting a case and all the cases that don't get selected. Consider why cases go before the supreme court. The ones that the court hears are naturally going to be those that someone things are important enough to reverse.

  25. end by WallaceAndGromit · · Score: 1

    I mean when will this ever end?

    --
    Name: Mr. Anon E Mouse; SSN: 555-55-5555
    1. Re:end by Vitriol+Angst · · Score: 1

      SCOTUS + ((Mobs + Pitchforks + Torches) / Angry) = Sudden Concern for Public

      --
      >>"ad space available -- low rates!!!"
  26. lol by Charliemopps · · Score: 1

    Per their own data:
    They reviewed 7700 cases.
    The court reversed 5077 of those cases.
    So the court reverses 66% of cases it sees. Which makes sense, that's what the court does.
    So I can get damn close to their results with my model which is: "The court will reverse 100% of the time"

    I don't see their model in there, and I don't really care to look that hard. But they said they used the same data previous models did. Most of that data are things like:
    Which court heard the origional case?
    Was the decision liberal or conservative?
    etc...

    It seems to be more of a case of, the court is overturning politically motivated decisions made by lower courts. i.e. a Liberal leaning decision out of California is likely to be overturned... or a conservative leaning decision out of texas. But the reverse, a conservative leaning ruling out of California is not. So if a court rules against it's nature it's more likely to stand when heard by SCOTUS, which makes intuitive sense.

    1. Re:lol by david_thornley · · Score: 1

      More specifically, if the court is reasonably happy with a circuit court decision, there's no real need for the Supreme Court to intervene. If they Supremes disagree, they might well want to hear the case. I'd suspect that many of the upholdings were matters of different circuit courts making different interpretations, so the Supremes would grab a case and hear it to set consistent binding precedent across the country.

      --
      "When you have eliminated the unacceptable, whatever is left, however improbable, must be the truthiness" - Holmes
  27. Better algorithm by fulldecent · · Score: 0

    I have a better algorithm... written in one line of perl:

    print "Reverse";

    Accuracy: 73%

    Source http://www.scotusblog.com/stat...

    --

    -- I was raised on the command line, bitch

  28. I can predict House votes 100% of the time by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

    If Obama wants it the GOP will say No.

  29. That's not really prediction by eladts · · Score: 1

    You can only predict things that have not yet happened. I'll be much more impressed If they publish their predictions to future decisions and these turn out to be 70% correct.

  30. So by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    It's slightly more accurate than a coin flip! Nice! Something tells me even a Fox News anchor would perform better.

  31. Predicting the past by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Shouldn't this algorithm predict 100% of past court decisions? What we are really interested in is whether it can predict the future - let it run for a few court terms and THEN announce something to the media.

  32. Good news by internerdj · · Score: 1

    Despite all the (partially true) snark. Isn't this a good thing? Shouldn't the highest court of the land be producing rulings that are predictably consistent with previous rulings? Unless a case is truly novel, past performance should be a good predictor of future performance here, since case law is cumulative.

    1. Re:Good news by Bob+the+Super+Hamste · · Score: 1

      While I agree that we do need a logically coherent set of laws and rulings that doesn't seem to be what we get.

      --
      Time to offend someone
    2. Re:Good news by geekoid · · Score: 1

      Laws are created by men to get a society to work and last. Society is not logically coherent, so why would you expect the laws to be?

      --
      The Kruger Dunning explains most post on /. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dunning%E2%80%93Kruger_effect
  33. It should be trivial to predict it 100% by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    It should be trivially easy to predict the outcome of SCOTUS cases, as most constitutional issues are black or white.

    The constitution does a couple of things. First, it lists a bunch of things the Government CAN'T DO, period, no matter how much it wants. Second, it says that it can only do what the people give it permission to do, and nothing else.

    Too often I hear people talking about what the framers "might have meant" or worse, what their "intent might have been." Folks, these are not at issue, because what they meant, and what they intended, are clearly spelled out in their writings of the time. Between the Federalist Papers, the DoI, the Constitution, and the multitude of books these people authored, it is all spelled out in excruciating detail, and by design, without room for creative interpretation.

    1. Re:It should be trivial to predict it 100% by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Looking at the paper, it appears less than a quarter of the influence on their prediction comes from the case itself. It cares much more about what ideological direction the courts have been going lately, which suggests cases aren't exactly decided strictly on their own merits.

  34. 70% of the time... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    ... it works everytime! https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=pjvQFtlNQ-M

  35. Odds? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Let the judicial betting begin!

  36. Re:Replace them by Impy+the+Impiuos+Imp · · Score: 5, Insightful

    Lawyers: We want people to carry their rights with them, even when operating as a group of people Congress defined as a "corporation" because Congress cannot force them to give up their First Amendment rights.

    Scotus (in the voice of Nomad): Logic correct. Opposing lawyers are in error. Must sterilize.

    --
    (-1: Post disagrees with my already-settled worldview) is not a valid mod option.
  37. Useless? No. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

    What One has is a more accurate model, which is how science works: One creates a model, tests it, adjusts to improve its accuracy, lather, rinse, repeat. It's worked pretty well for centuries.

    1. Re:Useless? No. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      When testing immutable laws of nature that is fine. When testing why humans are acting a certain way, it is not fine. Humans can and do change how they act and a model that fits previous data is just that; a model that fit all past data. The model may have zero predicting power in the future and you won't know that until you let new data run into the model. This is not "science".

  38. Only if ... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    ... You ignore reality, sure.

  39. 70% by geekoid · · Score: 1

    is still withing chance because the error bars on the are huge.

    --
    The Kruger Dunning explains most post on /. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dunning%E2%80%93Kruger_effect
  40. Well, yeah, but ... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    ... Americans often like to blame Others for problems: Judges, Politicians, Muslims, "illegal Aliens", pro-Lifers, Gays, city Residents, the Poor, the Unemployed, the business Owners, the Religious, the Old, the Young, etc., etc., etc. So, given the large american presence on /., if You find analysis as intelligent as Your's obviously is, it will be a rare gem to be treasured, indeed.

  41. 70% is low by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

    70% isn't very hard to guess. Just basic guessing should get you 50% ave. Then you take political votes, liberal judges are a lock in how they vote even if it goes against the constitution (Obamacare) while republican judges will generally follow what the law says.

    With that in mind, 70% is not a good %. It should be 100% possible to predict outcome before the final vote. Read the law and constitution and use it to determine the outcome. You will just get a few wrong with some judges not following the constitution/law.

  42. Is that really hard? by Opportunist · · Score: 2

    I'd actually have expected more. I mean, let's be reasonable here:

    A 50% accuracy can be achieved by the average unbiased coin. Now throw in the rulings that are easy to foresee because any other decision would be politically suicidal and you should easily arrive at more than 70%.

    --
    We used to have a Bill of Rights. Now, with the rights gone, all we have left is the bill.
    1. Re:Is that really hard? by phantomfive · · Score: 1

      Now throw in the rulings that are easy to foresee because any other decision would be politically suicidal

      The supreme court doesn't have to worry about political 'suicide.' By design their position was made to be shielded from the problems of politics.

      --
      "First they came for the slanderers and i said nothing."
    2. Re:Is that really hard? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      They're shielded from politics, but vulnerable to the same bribes which dominate politics. And no, I can't know many suitcases full of cash there are in D.C.

    3. Re:Is that really hard? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Now throw in the rulings that are easy to foresee because any other decision would be politically suicidal

      The supreme court doesn't have to worry about political 'suicide.' By design their position was made to be shielded from the problems of politics.

      The still get their stock tips from politicians that are exempt from SEC insider trading laws...

  43. The major weak point in this type of model by Applehu+Akbar · · Score: 1

    ...Is that in most cases the decision to 'give cert' for Supreme Court review of given lower-court cases vests with the Justices' law clerks. This may be as weird as that decision to give the Librarian of Congress veto power over unlocking our cellphones, but that's the way it is. How accurate can any model be at delving into the minds of law clerks?

  44. Flip a Coin by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    I could flip a coin and be 50% accurate...

  45. I certainly hope so. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    I would hope that accuracies far above 50% can be obtained. A random supreme court isn't something anyone wants.

  46. I can predict better than 90% by mspohr · · Score: 1, Insightful

    The Supreme Court is dominated by a bunch of fanatic right wing corporate toadies.
    So, the decision comes down in favor of corporations (on economic issues) or social conservatives (on social issues).
    The Constitution has nothing to do with it.
    The Supreme Court is the ultimate cheerleader for our fascist state.

    --
    I don't read your sig. Why are you reading mine?
    1. Re:I can predict better than 90% by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      A slightly less mouth-frothing way of looking at that would be:
        - The consitution spells out The System on which the country and its economy are based
        - Corporations get rich by learning that System sufficiently well, that they can exploit it better than others. They don't want it to change, at least in ways they can't control.
        - Conservatives are, pretty much by definition, people who do well out of The System as it is, and don't want it changed "unnecessarily"
        - The Supreme Court ensures that the Constitution is upheld, even when popular will wants to overturn it. It's an inherently conservative body, by design.

      Yes, SCOTUS is conservative. But it's pretty much the opposite of "fascist".

  47. Re:Replace them by sjames · · Score: 1

    More like: They already do. Let each advocate and vote as his conscience dictates,. Their votes will align with the values of any corporation they might create.

    Corporate personhood gives the owners a double vote.

  48. Re:Replace them by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Pardon me, but what I'd read was corporate personhood originated with the state legislatures (specifically the State of Delaware), not Congress.

  49. Re:Replace them by sumdumass · · Score: 1

    Not at all. The entire concept of a corporation is that you can invest without operating. The corporation acts on its own and independent of it's owners if they chose not to directly participate. This is important if you ever wanted to make something happen but didn't have the skills or just wanted to invest finds for other purposes.

    Now corporate person hood, which is not the same as corporations are people, has been upheld by the supreme court since 1819 with Trustees of Dartmouth College v. Woodward. But it is not a double vote. If anything, it is having speech and the freedom to say things that contradict itself but not vote more than once. No corporation has the ability to vote in government elections that I know of.

  50. It's SUPPOSED to be predictable - but not science by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    It should be that most legal practitioners can predict Supreme Court rulings, since courts follow the law and past decisions. The Supreme Court, and all courts, could be replaced with an algorithm that correctly applies the laws to facts (facts as found, normally by juries).

    The 70+% reversal rate reflects the role of the Supreme Court: to correct the mistakes of lower courts in interpreting the law, most often in the interaction and ambiguity of the law. There's no reason to accept a case unless there's good reason to reverse it.

    Finally, the reasoning of the court matters as much as the ruling; by hypothesis, the problem with the case (and others like it), is mis-application of the law, and the reasoning is intended to correct that, so courts can be consistent and people know what the law is so they can follow it.

    So applying a scientific idea of "prediction" here is wrong. These are not physical phenomena or stochastic or random processes where a "prediction" is based on "discovering" a "model" of what is "really happening" like science. The rulings are intended to produce clarity. They are bound up mainly in the ambiguity and conflicts of law (as codified) and its application, so the "model" disclosed in each ruling is really an anti-model: tweaks applied to a not-yet-working semantic system to make it more... predictable.

    True, the rulings are text and you can analyze them. But I think unless the model is essentially about the application of the law in question, it's probably not illuminating.

  51. Re:Replace them by sjames · · Score: 1

    Sure, and absent the whole corporations = people with free speech, they can remain hands off if they like. No change there.

    Corporations don't actually get a vote, but they do spend bazillions on lobbiests and campaign funds. Instead, how about they tell their owners (stockholders) what will be good for the company (and presumably the investment) and if those stockholders care to lobby or donate, they are free to do so.

    Nowhere in there are the owners being denied the ability to carry their rights with them (as the post I replied to claimed (or more properly, stated that others claim).

  52. Re:Replace them by sumdumass · · Score: 1

    It does not make any sense at all to set up something where investors and owners can be hands off and then require them to be hands on in order for the corp to fulfill its fidiciary duties/responsability.

    Maybe you are not aware, but nost of the colonies that became states were set up by companies. They were chartered and run by them. The founders knew exactly what they were and capable of in ways that make today's companies look like kids selling cookies. And yet they purposely gave them autonomy and a responsability to act in the interest of the company. You seem to be the outlier here.

  53. Re:Replace them by sjames · · Score: 1

    The corporation would in no way be impared from fulfilling it's fidiciary duties. In the same way that making theft and fraud illegal doesn't prevent a corporation from fulfilling it's fidiciary duties.

    As for the rest, you are referring to crown charters that were granted by the king of England when the states were still colonies and so subject to English law and the king. I cannot imagine why you might think that would have any bearing on U.S. law. Further, I can't imagine why you would think the founding fathers were on-board with that given the Revolutionary War.

    Once the Constitution was signed (marking the beginning of the U.S. government as we know it), the federal government granted a very few charters to great controversy. After that, the whole mess was left to the states.

  54. I know by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    I know, can we fire them all and just buy 1 copy of the program. Then, when someone wants an appeal, we could just run the program and have a nice easy answer.

  55. 69.7% of the time the answer is "yes"? by Mirar · · Score: 1

    69.7% of the time the answer is "yes"?

  56. Re:Replace them by sumdumass · · Score: 1

    The corporation would in no way be impared from fulfilling it's fidiciary duties. In the same way that making theft and fraud illegal doesn't prevent a corporation from fulfilling it's fidiciary duties.

    I never said the corporation would in no way be impared from fulfilling it's fiduciary duties. I said it makes no sense to force the hands off benefit of a corporation aside in order to maintain it.

    Or in other words, you could no longer purchase stock X and have it in your retirement only knowing you have stock X as an investment. You could no longer purchase a mutual fund for the same without knowing all the ins and outs of each and every company and listening to their pitch on what might harm them and adjust your speech accordingly. It simply makes no sense at all to deny corporations the ability to advocate for themselves via speech. The vast majority of people would either be flying blind because they have occupations and obligations other than watching stock and laws/politics or only invest in a small number of companies.

    As for the rest, you are referring to crown charters that were granted by the king of England when the states were still colonies and so subject to English law and the king. I cannot imagine why you might think that would have any bearing on U.S. law. Further, I can't imagine why you would think the founding fathers were on-board with that given the Revolutionary War.

    It sounds like you like to run around the track twice quibbling about all the trees and flowers in some attempt to complain that the stadium seats are not comfortable. I completely understand why you cannot understand. It's importance is because the same people who revolted from the king, who were subject to those crown charters and their independent actions, are also the same people who made the US law. If they felt the same as you, they would have specifically prohibited it. But guess what, they didn't believe the same as you and they didn't prohibit it- even after revolting against England and setting up their own country twice.

    Once the Constitution was signed (marking the beginning of the U.S. government as we know it), the federal government granted a very few charters to great controversy. After that, the whole mess was left to the states.

    I do not understand why you would even point this out. Of course the federal government made very few charters and left the rest to the states, it is by design of the US constitution. But lets not pretend that the states knew nothing about the crown charters or the companies operating under them so they were clueless in their law too. The fact of the matter is that they knew this full well and likely were created as colonies who grew to nation states under them. Like I said, the founders knew and didn't care about what you do. They made corporations so they had the ability to operate independent of a single owners or groups of owners and they did this knowingly of all the ills of corporations too.

  57. Re:Replace them by sjames · · Score: 1

    Or in other words, you could no longer purchase stock X and have it in your retirement only knowing you have stock X as an investment. You could no longer purchase a mutual fund for the same without knowing all the ins and outs of each and every company and listening to their pitch on what might harm them and adjust your speech accordingly

    Good. Absentee owners are a problem we would be better off without. If you can't be bothered to read a newsletter every 2 years and understand the issues, you should probably abstain from voting anyway. Really though, there are only two likely states. In one, you already agree with what teh corporation wants and so you vote accordingly. In the other you believe differently and it is best if the corporation you own part of doesn't act against you.

    You chose to refer to the authority of the founding fathers, and claim they appointed corporations to run the states. I pointed out that it was bollocks.

    The states did grant charters, but they included revocation clauses with real teeth and mandated that the corporation operate only within it's charter AND for the public good (or have it revoked). This was quite different from the crown charters.

  58. Re:Replace them by sumdumass · · Score: 1

    Good. Absentee owners are a problem we would be better off without. If you can't be bothered to read a newsletter every 2 years and understand the issues, you should probably abstain from voting anyway.

    Poppycock. The entire concept of a corporation is to separate investment from the operations of the business. But the silliness of your statement is full of ill places conception. The exact same can be said about people who do not even know who the current vice president are but were convinced to register and vote. No one things they should abstain from voting- at least no one who is taken seriously.

    Really though, there are only two likely states. In one, you already agree with what teh corporation wants and so you vote accordingly. In the other you believe differently and it is best if the corporation you own part of doesn't act against you.

    Wrong. The state of convincing you otherwise exists and should exist. It is best if the corporation can make a case and you can act accordingly to your own convictions. This idea that corporates can spend money on speech and you all the sudden have no leg to stand on or somehow magically lose all your objections is nothing but a myth.

    You chose to refer to the authority of the founding fathers, and claim they appointed corporations to run the states. I pointed out that it was bollocks.

    I did no such thing. I even spelled it out in the last post in which I said those founders were subjected to those corporations and those same founders made laws and did not take steps to limit corporations for those purposes. Please stop arguing what was never said and pay attention.

    The states did grant charters, but they included revocation clauses with real teeth and mandated that the corporation operate only within it's charter AND for the public good (or have it revoked). This was quite different from the crown charters.

    Of course. But what they did not do was limit their rights of speech, their ability to enter into contracts separate from their owners or achieve levels of debt and default separate from their owners who took no part in operating the corporation. In short, the states, who many were created as colonies subject to the corporations, create a system that clearly generates autonomy of the corporations giving them a status as a separate entity with the ability to act as people from the start. You are essentially saying "ahh,, but they dotted their I's differently so the otherwise identical system is completely different" which isn't the case at all.

  59. Re:Replace them by sjames · · Score: 1

    They had the ability to enter into a contract and otherwise conduct business as a legal fiction. They had no Constitutional rights until a few blunders by the Supreme Court granted them, but that was years later.

  60. Re:Replace them by sumdumass · · Score: 1

    lol.. No, they always had constitutional rights and the supreme court said congress cannot take them away. The court started affirming these rights as early as 1819 when all the founding fathers were still around and the constitution and the role of government was well understood.

    Congress shall make no law means what it means. It does not mean congress can make a law in certain times or that congress can make a law if something is a certain way, it means congress can make no law prohibiting the freedom of speech. It is clear and always has been clear- even when you attempt to shoehorn it into something else.