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Mathematicians Race To Debunk German Man Who Claimed To Solve The 'P Versus NP' Problem (vice.com)

A German man -- Norbert Blum -- who claimed that P is not equal to NP is seeing several challenges to his solution. From a report: Numerous mathematicians have begun to raise questions about whether the German mathematician solved it at all. Since Blum's paper was published, mathematicians and computer scientists worldwide have been racking their brains as to whether the Bonn-based researcher has, in fact, solved this Millennium Prize Problem. After an initially positive reaction, such as the one from Stanford mathematician Reza Zadeh, doubts are beginning to arise about whether Blum's reasoning is correct. In a forum for theoretical mathematics, a user named Mikhail reached out to Alexander Razborov -- the author of the paper on which Blum's proof is based -- to ask him about Blum's paper. Razborov purports to have discovered an error in Blum's paper: Blum's main argument contradicts one of Razborov's key assumptions. And mathematician Scott Aaronson, who is something of an authority in the math community when it comes to P vs. NP, said he would be willing to bet $200,000 that Blum's mathematical proof won't endure. "Please stop asking," Aaronson writes. If the proof hasn't been refuted, "you can come back and tell me I was a closed-minded fool." In the week since Aaronson's initial blog post, other mathematicians have begun trying to poke holes in Blum's proof. Dick Lipton, a computer science professor at Georgia Tech, wrote in a blog post that Blum's proof "passes many filters of seriousness," but suggested there may be some problems with it. A commenter on that blog post, known only as "vloodin," noted that there was a "single error on a subtle point" in the proof; other mathematicians have since chimed in and confirmed vloodin's initial analysis, and so the emerging consensus among many mathematicians is that a solve for P vs. NP remains elusive.

156 comments

  1. Summary doesn't give the answer by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    So did he prove P = NP or P != NP?

    Either way, it apparently is close enough so let's please move on.

    1. Re:Summary doesn't give the answer by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      He might have proved that P != NP.

    2. Re:Summary doesn't give the answer by vux984 · · Score: 3, Informative

      He might have proved that P != NP.

      And this is the result we expect. So proving it would confirm most suspicions, but it should go without saying that searching for flaws in this proof is good mathematics, and exactly what everyone should be doing.

    3. Re:Summary doesn't give the answer by arth1 · · Score: 2

      And this is the result we expect. So proving it would confirm most suspicions, but it should go without saying that searching for flaws in this proof is good mathematics, and exactly what everyone should be doing.

      Well, no, I know a few people who should not be doing this.

      Proving that P!=NP only requires proof of one polynomial problem not being deterministic, it doesn't matter what it is, and it's proven.
      Proving that P=NP, on the other hand, might be impossible without a new definition of polynomial.

    4. Re:Summary doesn't give the answer by JohnFen · · Score: 2

      The article doesn't give the answer because, right now, nobody knows. People are working on determining if his proof is correct or not. That's pretty much all the article is saying.

    5. Re:Summary doesn't give the answer by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      But with the hysteria surrounding Trump's wife wearing heels.

    6. Re:Summary doesn't give the answer by vux984 · · Score: 4, Interesting

      Proving that P!=NP only requires proof of one polynomial problem not being deterministic, it doesn't matter what it is, and it's proven.
      Proving that P=NP, on the other hand, might be impossible without a new definition of polynomial.

      I believe you are mistaken.

      Finding one example of P = NP proves the classes are equal, because NP-complete problems can all be transformed to other NP problems in polynomial time.

      So if you solve ANY NP-complete problem in polynomial time, you have a solution to ALL of them. If you solve 3-SAT in polynomial time you've solved TSP (travelling salesman) in polynomial time too, because TSP can be "mapped" to 3-SAT in polynomial time.

      So basically, if you can prove OR disprove any NP-complete problem can be solved in polynomial time then you prove P=NP or P!=NP.

    7. Re:Summary doesn't give the answer by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I'm going to assume based only on a quick glance at wikipedia, that if he definitively proved P=NP we'd have infosec guys running through the streets with torches and "REPENT" signs.

      But I don't do CS so maybe I'm misinterpreting something.

    8. Re:Summary doesn't give the answer by arth1 · · Score: 2

      Finding one example of P = NP proves the classes are equal, because NP-complete problems can all be transformed to other NP problems in polynomial time.

      The way I understand it, NP problems can all be transformed to other NP problems in polynomial time, but cannot be transformed to all other NP problems in polynomial time. So you would at most move a class of problems from NP to P.

    9. Re:Summary doesn't give the answer by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

      The way I understand it, NP problems can all be transformed to other NP problems in polynomial time, but cannot be transformed to all other NP problems in polynomial time. So you would at most move a class of problems from NP to P.

      I believe you are right, hence the distinction between NP and NP-complete in the post you replied to. I find the diagram on this page helpful.

    10. Re:Summary doesn't give the answer by vux984 · · Score: 3, Interesting

      https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/...

      If he finds a solution in polynomial time of ANY NP-complete problem he proves P=NP.

      By the definition of NP-complete:

      "A problem p in NP is NP-complete if every other problem in NP can be transformed (or reduced) into p in polynomial time." (This makes sense, because if you can got from A to B in polytime, and A to C in polytime then you can go from A to C in polytime too, trviially by going from A to B and then B to C. (because polytime x polytime = polytime)

      A P=NP proof would consist of finding a polynomial solution to *any* NP-complete problem (and therefore ALL NP-complete problems.)

      There are a handful of problems in NP that are not known to be in P and not known to be NP-complete; but if P=NP they would also have polynomial time solutions.

      NP-hard problems are NOT in NP. (e.g the halting problem) so they aren't at issue.

      A P != NP proof is the harder proof since you can't use proof by example -- you have to formally prove that a polynomial solution does not exist for an NP-complete problem. (and therefore does not exist for all of them)

    11. Re:Summary doesn't give the answer by vux984 · · Score: 1

      see my response. I actually pointed at the same diagram; and address your argument.

    12. Re:Summary doesn't give the answer by david_thornley · · Score: 2

      My understanding is that NP-hard are problems that are in the same class as NP-complete problems. Since any NP problem can be solved in exponential time, problems that are not solvable in exponential time (or at all) aren't NP-hard.

      One example of an NP-hard program is the Traveling Salesman problem, which is to find an optimal route through a graph. If a problem is in NP, then you can efficiently verify a proposed solution, but (unless P=NP) you can't efficiently verify that a route is optimal. Now, take that graph and see if you can find a route with a cost less than some given value. This is in NP, since you can verify a proposed solution efficiently, and the Salesman problem can be solved in polynomial time if the modified problem can be. Obviously, the modified problem can be solved in polynomial time if the Salesman problem can be. We've determined that the modified problem is NP-complete, so we'd consider the Salesman problem as NP-hard.

      --
      "When you have eliminated the unacceptable, whatever is left, however improbable, must be the truthiness" - Holmes
    13. Re:Summary doesn't give the answer by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      So if you solve ANY NP-complete problem in polynomial time,

      You're missing a "deterministic" there. NP does not mean "non-polynomial", but "non-deterministic polynomial."

    14. Re: Summary doesn't give the answer by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      To a state that was just recently flooded by natural disasters. Nice touch Mrs Trump.

    15. Re:Summary doesn't give the answer by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I've looked at the article and I certainly don't profess to understand it.

      However, it seems that Blum attempts to demonstrate that certain classes of NP problems are by their nature exponential or super-exponential and can not be placed into a one to one correspondence with a specific kind of monotone function that can be translated into a one to one correspondence with polynomial functions of a general nature. Consequently, NP != P.

    16. Re: Summary doesn't give the answer by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      No, he is not missing a "deterministic". Being able to solve something in polynomial time means it is in P. If you can verify a solution in polynomial time, such that a perfect guess from an oracle would take polynomial time to check, it is in NP. Whether or not the latter can be solved on polynomial time depends upon the problem and if P=NP.

    17. Re:Summary doesn't give the answer by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      >> He might have proved that P != NP.
      > And this is the result we expect.

      I think proving P!= NP should be impossible, because that reasult means G-d cannot exists (i.e. it is possible for men to create riddles even G-d cannot solve).

      On the other hand, it has been well established since about the end of 19th century that science has no authority in theology and theology has no authority in science. Such a result would thereby overstep the authority of science.

    18. Re:Summary doesn't give the answer by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

      My understanding is that NP-hard are problems that are in the same class as NP-complete problems. Since any NP problem can be solved in exponential time, problems that are not solvable in exponential time (or at all) aren't NP-hard.

      Your understanding is false.

      A problem is NP-hard if you can reduce all problems that are in NP to it (with a polynomial reduction). If a NP-hard problem happens to be also in NP, then the problem is (by definition) NP-complete, but nothing prevents it from being in a more difficult complexity class.

      For example, the problem of satisfiability of quantified boolean formulas (QBF-SAT) is both PSPACE-complete and NP-hard. There you have a trivial reduction from the NP-complete SAT to QBF-SAT since each normal boolean formula is also a QBF-formula that just happens to have no quantifiers.

      In short: hardness gives only the lower bound of complexity, while completeness gives both the lower and the upper bound.

    19. Re:Summary doesn't give the answer by DulcetTone · · Score: 1

      Is it not possible that any given problem understood to be NP might be wrongly thought to be NP, and so proving a P problem was equivalent to it would only highlight the mistaken initial categorization of the problem as being NP?

      --
      tone
    20. Re:Summary doesn't give the answer by dargaud · · Score: 1

      For those who haven't heard, there's a pretty good movie about this: Travelling Salesman (2012), required viewing for math geeks.

      --
      Non-Linux Penguins ?
    21. Re:Summary doesn't give the answer by david_thornley · · Score: 1

      I just checked Wikipedia and it seems you are correct. Do you know if there's a term for NP-hard problems that are not in NP but are (within the usual polynomial complexity) are the same as a problem that is in NP (and hence is NP-complete)?

      --
      "When you have eliminated the unacceptable, whatever is left, however improbable, must be the truthiness" - Holmes
    22. Re:Summary doesn't give the answer by Argos · · Score: 1

      (i.e. it is possible for men to create riddles even G-d cannot solve).

      Utter nonsense. All the P/NP problems are trivially solvable in finite time. The only question is the speed.

    23. Re:Summary doesn't give the answer by vux984 · · Score: 1

      Is it not possible that any given problem understood to be NP might be wrongly thought to be NP, and so proving a P problem was equivalent to it would only highlight the mistaken initial categorization of the problem as being NP?

      The key to answering this is in the definition of NP-complete problems.

      The map coloring problem is a nice easy to understand np-complete problem. The problem is to take a map (states in a country, countries in the world, whatever, you get the idea) and a number of colors "n" and say... can I color this map with "n" different colors such that no two adjacent areas are the same color.

      Basically for that problem to get into the class of "NP-complete" in the first place we have to mathematically prove two things:

      a) a proposed solution can be verified in polynomial time. In this case that means if I give you a list of all the areas of the map each with one of the n colors assigned to it, how long will it take you to verify that it is a valid solution? In this case, you can simply look at each area on the map, note its color, and then check that none of its neighbors are the same color. That's got a time complexity on the number of areas squared. So that's easy to check in polynomial time.

      b) can all other NP-complete problems be reduced to this one. In practice, once you show one can be reduced to this problem, that shows they all are because all the others have been shown to reduce to the one you looked at, and the transformations can be stacked up in polytime to inductively prove the whole class reduces to this problem. (So if it takes o^5 to reduce B to A, and o^3 to reduce C to B then it's not going to be any worse than O^8 to reduce C to A, and that's still polytime. The upshot is that you only need to find one mapping, but even so, this is a LOT more complicated to show, and I won't get into it here. The transformation is simply a 'mechanical' process so once you come up a transformation you can automate it.

      Thus the transformation needs to show how you can take a DIFFERENT NP-Complete problem, mechanically transform it to this one, and then use the solution to this one, to identify a solution to the other one.

      Now, going back to your question. If a given problem is "understood to be NP complete" - and you find a P solution for it, then

      a) Either the accepted proof that it was was NP-complete was wrong. (unlikely but possible); and you move that one problem into P
      b) Or the solution you found does solve the problem, and then in turn DOES solve the other NP-complete problems, and you have just proven P=NP.

      So, yeah, its possible a problem was miscategorized, but its not at all likely because both the solution verification, and the mechanical transformation parts of NP-complete proofs can be mechanically implemented and tested. So while there is a bit of cleverness in coming up with the transformation, if it was flawed, it wouldn't actually *work*. So its unlikely it would go undetected. Plus its even more unlikely because most of the graph problems are easily related to eachother, and most of the SAT problems are like wise easily related to eachother and the proofs are simple enough. Their are multiple proofs relating SAT problems to graph problems, etc... so the odds of an accepted NP-complete proof being wrong is further reduced because there are multiple such proofs relating different problems creating a network or web of proofs.

    24. Re:Summary doesn't give the answer by Altrag · · Score: 1

      NP-hard are not in the same class as NP-complete. NP-complete is a (fairly small) list of problems that are all equivalent to each other, within a polynomial-time conversion. NP-hard problems are not in that little group and may or may not be within NP entirely. NP-hard is kind of loosely defined as "anything harder than P that we haven't managed to otherwise classify yet."

      Which means any particular NP-hard problem could be within NP-complete (and we just haven't discovered an appropriate polynomial-time conversion) or they could be outside of NP completely but again we just haven't managed to conclusively prove it.

      TSP is a bit special in that there's two variants -- the decision variant ("does a path exist yes/no?") is NP-complete, but actually finding the path is NP-hard.

      Showing that P=NP would immediately reduce everything in NP-complete to polynomial time (how to do that is not necessarily part of the statement unfortunately) but it wouldn't necessarily imply all NP-hard problems could be reduced to polynomial time due to the looseness of the definition (that is, some problems labeled NP-hard may not be NP at all and the P=NP proof wouldn't apply to them.. though it could potentially be used for contradiction to show certain problems are definitively not NP and could be properly categorized outside of NP-hard.)

  2. "theoretical mathematics" by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

    lol.

    1. Re:"theoretical mathematics" by DontBeAMoran · · Score: 1

      I handed a homework paper to my teacher and told him my score should be a theoretical 93%.

      --
      #DeleteFacebook
    2. Re: "theoretical mathematics" by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It's virtually perfect

  3. Obligatory by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

    P = NP iff P=0 or N=1

    1. Re:Obligatory by DontBeAMoran · · Score: 1

      Syntax error on line 1.

      --
      #DeleteFacebook
    2. Re: Obligatory by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Who died and made you a compiler?

    3. Re: Obligatory by DontBeAMoran · · Score: 1

      Syntax error on line 1.
       

      --
      #DeleteFacebook
    4. Re: Obligatory by Iamthecheese · · Score: 1

      main { P = NP if (P=0 OR N=1){} }

      --
      If video games influenced behavior the Pac Man generation would be eating pills and running away from their problems.
    5. Re: Obligatory by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You do know what iff means? It doesn't mean if.

    6. Re:Obligatory by Megol · · Score: 1

      iff=If and only if.

    7. Re: Obligatory by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Syntax error on every line.

  4. P not equal NP [Re:Summary doesn't give the an...] by XXongo · · Score: 2

    The previous /. post gave a link to the abstract, which is only three sentences long, here: https://arxiv.org/abs/1708.034.... The third sentence is "This implies P not equal NP."

  5. Re:Debunk a German? That's easy! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

    The state of modern, Western political discourse makes me drink heavily.

  6. Let creimer read it by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    After he's done cleaning the closet, troubleshooting the keyboard, shitposting Amazon affiliate links, he'll quickly glance over this proof and find all the mistakes lesser minds have made.

    Behold the superior intellect of a IT miracle worker.

  7. Re:P not equal NP [Re:Summary doesn't give the an. by XXongo · · Score: 5, Funny

    Oh, so it's implied but not proven. Gotcha.

    Mathematicians may read different things from the word "imply" than you do.

  8. P != NP proof by bongey · · Score: 4, Informative

    Paper is suggesting P!=NP .

    1. Re:P != NP proof by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      all the wrong answers though :(

  9. Mathematicians Race To Debunk by bn-7bc · · Score: 1

    Hmm this does not sound right, shuld the reaction not be: New thery, lut`s test it and see what the results are? when you set out to debunk something you are biased against it from the start. Or is this just a cas of the supmitter wanting tohave a slightly more confrontational title?

    1. Re:Mathematicians Race To Debunk by bn-7bc · · Score: 1

      And of corse I forgot the other possibilitty, this German is obviosly wrong and evryone else is just rasing to brove it to shut him up and moving along. I am not qualified to even guess about it.

    2. Re:Mathematicians Race To Debunk by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

      Well, think about it ... this conjecture is literally decades old, possibly much older I can't remember off the top of my head.

      It has wide ranging implications if proven. Someone claims to have proven it. There's money on the line for proving it.

      The primary way to review this isn't to say "wow, that's awesome, it must be true" ... it's literally to attempt to invalidate the proof and say "yeah, but this is wrong right here and therefore everything after it is wrong".

      And claiming to be the one to have proven this pretty much means people are going to start by poking holes in your argument .. not because they're biased against it, but because this far it has proven impossible.

      Claiming to have made a revolutionary advancement in mathematics ( which would have such far reaching implications as to invalidate encryption for instance ) has a high standard of proof. So, yeah, debuking is a pretty good word here.

    3. Re:Mathematicians Race To Debunk by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      No, the correct way is to try to find flaws in the proof. prove the flaw. Then you or anybody tries to find flaws in your flaw proof, and so on.
      Eventually everyone agrees to something that none can find flaws in and that's more or less it.

      I can't even imagine what would it be like to try to prove something with a so open mind that you don't know what you are trying to prove.

      The bias would be if math was opinable, but it is not opinable, it is debuggable at most.

    4. Re:Mathematicians Race To Debunk by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The actual method of scientific progress is to set a theory forward and then try to disprove it. If you despite your best attempts and worst biases fail to disprove it, then the theory is valid...until a better method to disprove it comes along.

      This is a big part of what separates hard science from soft science. In a hard science, it doesn't matter if you choose not to believe in gravity and believe that gravity has a special bias towards left-handed trans-gender left-wing protestants with purple skin; if such a person jumps off a building they will still fall to the ground just like everyone else.

    5. Re:Mathematicians Race To Debunk by JohnFen · · Score: 4, Insightful

      when you set out to debunk something you are biased against it from the start.

      Yes, which in this sort of thing is exactly the right stance to take. you want to intentionally look for ways that the theory is incorrect because, if the theory is correct, it doesn't matter how biased you are. The theory will survive.

      However if you don't start off with the intention of disproving it, then you might miss the critical bit that show the theory to be wrong.

    6. Re:Mathematicians Race To Debunk by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      That's not even how scientific method in the empirical sciences works, let alone in mathematics. It doesn't matter how biased you are anyway, if you do it correctly (although an open mind can sometimes help).

    7. Re:Mathematicians Race To Debunk by serviscope_minor · · Score: 5, Insightful

      Hmm this does not sound right,

      It is.

      shuld the reaction not be: New thery, lut`s test it and see what the results are?

      No, it's maths, not science. There is an absolute truth here. Either the proof is correct or it is not. The best way of figuring out if it's correct is to look for flaws.

      --
      SJW n. One who posts facts.
    8. Re:Mathematicians Race To Debunk by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It doesn't appear that you're even qualified to post about it.

    9. Re:Mathematicians Race To Debunk by ewibble · · Score: 1

      This is a mathematical proof not a scientific one. All you have to do find a flaw in the logic to disprove it.

    10. Re:Mathematicians Race To Debunk by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Hmm this does not sound right, shuld the reaction not be: New thery, lut`s test it and see what the results are? when you set out to debunk something you are biased against it from the start. Or is this just a cas of the supmitter wanting tohave a slightly more confrontational title?

      A race to debunk is unduly confrontational language, sure. They're looking to disprove a solution to a very notorious problem, not to claim that this guy is deliberately out to mislead the mathematical community. Still this isn't a new theory, it's a proof. While a new theory should indeed be tested in an attempt to confirm or disprove its predictions, a mathematical proof can't be tested in the same way a theory can be.

    11. Re:Mathematicians Race To Debunk by Xenx · · Score: 1

      But, where is your proof that it doesn't have a bias? How many left-handed trans-gender left-wing protestants with purple skin have fallen to their death?

    12. Re:Mathematicians Race To Debunk by Hognoxious · · Score: 1

      Probably more than zero.

      Ask ISIS, they'd know.

      --
      Confucius say, "Find worm in apple - bad. Find half a worm - worse."
    13. Re:Mathematicians Race To Debunk by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

      They used that terminology because Razborov (the author of the paper it's based on) has publicly stated that his method does not apply, so the proof is flawed.

      tl;dr: The proof has already been debunked.

    14. Re:Mathematicians Race To Debunk by Roger+W+Moore · · Score: 2

      No, it's maths, not science.

      That's irrelevant: we do exactly the same thing in science too. The only difference is that, in addition to looking for flaws in the logic, we can test a paper's assertions against data - either existing or new.

    15. Re:Mathematicians Race To Debunk by Megol · · Score: 1

      I'd assume all of them. It's hard to fly with only a left wing.

    16. Re:Mathematicians Race To Debunk by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Call us when you've checked all the data.

    17. Re:Mathematicians Race To Debunk by serviscope_minor · · Score: 1

      The only difference is that, in addition to looking for flaws in the logic, we can test a paper's assertions against data - either existing or new.

      You're basically saying the only difference is that they're completely different!

      --
      SJW n. One who posts facts.
    18. Re:Mathematicians Race To Debunk by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It's a proof not a theory. It's a logical argument that you try to pick holes in, rather than something you can test with a hypothesis and experimental evidence. The difference means you can prove a proof when it's untestable in the real world in a finite time (because you'd have to pretty much brute force every possible P and NP problem to do so in this case).

    19. Re:Mathematicians Race To Debunk by david_thornley · · Score: 2

      You can test mathematical theorems, usually, by looking for counterexamples. If you find one, the proof is invalid. If you don't, that doesn't tell you anything about the validity.

      --
      "When you have eliminated the unacceptable, whatever is left, however improbable, must be the truthiness" - Holmes
    20. Re:Mathematicians Race To Debunk by The+Evil+Atheist · · Score: 1

      Or the proof itself is undecidable.

      --
      Those who do not learn from commit history are doomed to regress it.
    21. Re:Mathematicians Race To Debunk by Pseudonym · · Score: 2

      The only difference is that, in addition to looking for flaws in the logic, we can test a paper's assertions against data - either existing or new.

      All the data suggests, very strongly, that P != NP. This is what the (known to be flawed; we've known for several days before Slashdot picked it up) paper claims. So the claim already matches the data.

      Given that the author is not a crank (most P?=NP papers are crankery), the only two possibilities are that the proof is valid or the proof has a flaw. The only way to tell is to look for flaws.

      --
      sub f{($f)=@_;print"$f(q{$f});";}f(q{sub f{($f)=@_;print"$f(q{$f});";}f});
    22. Re:Mathematicians Race To Debunk by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      That's irrelevant: we do exactly the same thing in science too.

      Right. They test stuff. With real-world data.

      If they did the same, they'd have huge spyglasses to locate numbers frolicking through the void.

    23. Re:Mathematicians Race To Debunk by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I think you need to refer to Godel's incompleteness theorem. Depending on how certain problems are posed they can be both true and not true within a given frame of reference, suggesting that some fundamental aspects of mathematics may be beyond proof.

    24. Re:Mathematicians Race To Debunk by HiThere · · Score: 2

      Actually, in math I think a closed mind is often more helpful than an open mind. That way you don't give up so easily. It's not as if math proofs aren't generally reasonably easy to validate...I believe it can even be done mechanically. Constructing the proof is a lot more difficult.

      The only difficulty with this is when new approaches are used. In that case it can (and has in the recent past) require years of effort to translate the new approach into the older methods. And, of course, the proof checkers need to be able to validate the theorems and corollaries referenced. I believe this was a problem in the case I'm referring to because the references were all in Japanese math journals, and the proof engines weren't familiar with them. I should remember the guy's name, but I'm monolingual English and Japanese names just don't stick easily. And when it comes to math, I'm a programmer. I haven't even remembered enough details to google it. (And I am talking about using the Google search engine, it's not a generic reference.)

      --

      I think we've pushed this "anyone can grow up to be president" thing too far.
    25. Re:Mathematicians Race To Debunk by HiThere · · Score: 1

      That's not what the incompleteness theorem says. It says:
      Any sufficiently complex system has true statements that cannot be proven true within the system.
      This is not the same as statements which are both true and false. If there are statements which are both true and false then the system is not necessarily incomplete, but merely inconsistent. (It may also be incomplete.)

      --

      I think we've pushed this "anyone can grow up to be president" thing too far.
    26. Re:Mathematicians Race To Debunk by serviscope_minor · · Score: 1

      Ha! Very good :)

      Though if it is undecidable then the proof that P!=NP must surely contain an error.

      --
      SJW n. One who posts facts.
    27. Re:Mathematicians Race To Debunk by Richard+Kirk · · Score: 2

      There are a number of word-values here that are peculiar to mathematics, and probably giving the wrong opinion for a general audience. To many people, myself included, this reads a bit like the cold fusion debacle. But it isn't. With cold fusion there ought to be an experiment that others can repeat or not as the came may be, but many critical factors were omitted. With mathematics, the written analysis is everything.

      So, let's have a go at re-drafting the summary. Blum feels they have got somewhere with P != NP. He is unlikely to just trust his own intuition, so the work has probably had several reviewers by the time he feels confident enough to go public. At which point he probably still feels there may be errors that more eyes will spot, but right or wrong, this is something that people should be looking at.

      And look they do. If he has really slain this monster, it will probably take a year or so of hard looking before most mathematicians will provisionally accept it. And even then they will keep poking.

    28. Re:Mathematicians Race To Debunk by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      If mathematics was science you'd be right. But it isn't. The way to test results in mathematics is to find if the proof is logically sound.

    29. Re:Mathematicians Race To Debunk by twistnatz · · Score: 1

      I think you are talking about Shinichi Mochizuki and his Inter-Universal Teichmuller Theory. After 4 years or so there are now about 2 dozen people that are quite familiar with it but it will take a lot more effort until it is going to be accepted, if indeed it ever will.

    30. Re:Mathematicians Race To Debunk by twistnatz · · Score: 1

      I think in this case there is a counterexample that shows Blums proof can not work. Its explained in one of the links in the summary

    31. Re:Mathematicians Race To Debunk by Roger+W+Moore · · Score: 1

      No it is the same with one additional constraint. Both maths and science papers have to be logically consistent but a science paper also has to agree with nature. If a paper is published claiming that a particular measurement will have a value X you can debunk it two ways. First you could find an error in the mathematical calculation of the value X and secondly, you could go and measure the value and find that it is not X. So it is just like maths with the additional constraint that the maths not only has to be correct but that it also has to accurately describe nature.

    32. Re:Mathematicians Race To Debunk by Altrag · · Score: 1

      Then its not a proof.

    33. Re:Mathematicians Race To Debunk by Altrag · · Score: 1

      An important corollary: those true statements that aren't provable within their own system could still be provable within a larger system. For a really simple example, "1+1=2" is not provable within a system that consists entirely of real numbers and the "basic" high school level operators (such as addition) -- all you can do is define addition such that the statement is true and treat it essentially as an axiom from that point on. But it is provable within ZFC if you define your sets and operations correctly.

  10. I actually solved this problem. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    I was reading a book last month which inspired the proof. I noted the proof in the margin of the book but there wasn't enough room to write the proof in full.

    1. Re:I actually solved this problem. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      No you didn't.

    2. Re:I actually solved this problem. by tomhath · · Score: 1

      Oh yeah? Prove it.

  11. maybe by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

    Andrew Wiles' first proof that solved Fermat's Last Theorem was initially flawed, but he was able to fix it within a year. I'm going to hold off judgement until 1) it's clear whether or not Blum's current proof is wrong, and 2) it whether or not it can be salvaged.

    1. Re:maybe by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Indeed, if Blum himself had admitted the flaw that would be clearer (he could find another proof later, but I'd take it for granted that this proof is wrong).
      But I don't know that Blum has replied anything to the Tardos function counterexample or the vloodin argument or anything. He may still be considering
      his position. I guess we get to wait and see...

  12. Re:Debunk a German? That's easy! by Austerity+Empowers · · Score: 2

    The state of modern, Western political discourse makes me drink heavily.

    Me too. In fairness though, I was doing it anyway. Now I have an excuse.

  13. As usual, journalists don't grok mathematicians by MostAwesomeDude · · Score: 4, Informative

    Nobody is racing, Scott Aaronson did not make a monetary wager this time around (and was also rudely misquoted), Blum is a respected mathematician who has been working in this subfield for years, most mathematicians expect that P != NP and also that the proof will be very difficult and not found by accidental observation like in Blum's paper, chess is within EXPTIME and not "out of the realm of possibility", and Traveling Salesman instances can actually be solved in pretty good time due to a TSP-specific heuristic.

    --
    ~ C.
    1. Re:As usual, journalists don't grok mathematicians by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Even if such a proof exists, it still doesn't guarantee an easy way to decompose an NP problem into P. Showing that P = NP might not make any practical difference.

    2. Re:As usual, journalists don't grok mathematicians by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      He was talking about P!=NP. Almost no mathematician believes that P=NP. Notable exception: Donald Knuth once expressed your point of view.

    3. Re:As usual, journalists don't grok mathematicians by Myrdos · · Score: 1

      Traveling Salesman instances can actually be solved in pretty good time due to a TSP-specific heuristic.

      Do you mean with branch and bound? Or is there something even faster?

    4. Re:As usual, journalists don't grok mathematicians by swillden · · Score: 5, Informative

      He was talking about P!=NP. Almost no mathematician believes that P=NP. Notable exception: Donald Knuth once expressed your point of view.

      As I recall, what Knuth said was that the worst possible solution of the P/NP question would be a non-constructive proof that P=NP. That would tell us that all problems are "easy", but not tell us anything about how to solve them efficiently. It would mean that we could never rely on problems to be hard where we want them to (e.g. cryptography), but wouldn't necessarily give us any insight about how to make them easy.

      I don't think he ever expressed the opinion that he thought it likely that P=NP.

      --
      Note to ACs: I usually delete AC replies without reading them. If you want to talk to me, log in.
    5. Re:As usual, journalists don't grok mathematicians by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Original AC here. That's an interesting example of how urban myths develop. Through some Chinese whisper post, the Internet somehow transformed the claim that the worst possible solution would be a non-constructive P=NP proof into the totally different claim that probably P=NP but without an effective transformation algorithm.

      Thanks for the clarification!

    6. Re:As usual, journalists don't grok mathematicians by Megol · · Score: 2

      One doesn't _solve_ things with heuristics so I don't know what you mean? One can get pretty good results for traveling salesman problems with good algorithms, approaching the optimal route - sure. But it isn't the same as solving the problem which would provide the optimal route every time. If one want the optimal route the problem is still hard.

    7. Re:As usual, journalists don't grok mathematicians by david_thornley · · Score: 4, Insightful

      Technically, chess can be completely analyzed in O(1), since it's a finite problem.

      You can't solve general Traveling Salesman problems in polynomial time. It may be possible to do special cases*, and it is possible to come up with heuristics that will give you a good solution but not necessarily the optimal one.

      In general, if you prove that a problem is NP-complete or NP-hard, you give up on finding an efficient exact solution and start looking for special cases and good heuristics.

      *One special case is where the shortest distance from A to B is the direct line from A to B; that is, you can't go from A to C to B faster than you can go from A to B. This is what you'd normally expect, but it doesn't always hold. If A and B are in unfriendly countries, and C is in a neutral country, it may indeed be faster to go A->C->B than A->B directly.

      --
      "When you have eliminated the unacceptable, whatever is left, however improbable, must be the truthiness" - Holmes
    8. Re:As usual, journalists don't grok mathematicians by gweihir · · Score: 1

      Chess is not finite. But since it is finite state, it must run into a state reached before eventually when playing it infinitely. Then you can sort-of say that the intermediary steps did not matter. However there is an infinite number of different chess games. All it takes for the proof is a state that you can go away from and go back to afterwards in two different ways. Then call one "0" and one "1" and encode all binary numbers in this. QED.

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      Most ACs are not even worth the keystrokes to insult them. Be generically insulted by this and ignored otherwise.
    9. Re:As usual, journalists don't grok mathematicians by gweihir · · Score: 2, Insightful

      Indeed. And it may well turn out that if Blum did not solve it after all, his work provides a critical stepping stone or has other important uses (may take centuries though, Math is hard). This is mathematics at its best and practiced by some truly impressive minds.

      --
      Most ACs are not even worth the keystrokes to insult them. Be generically insulted by this and ignored otherwise.
    10. Re:As usual, journalists don't grok mathematicians by rgmoore · · Score: 3, Informative

      This is incorrect. There's a rule in chess that the game is a draw if the same position is reached three times. Since there are a finite number of possible positions and a you're only allowed to visit each of those positions a finite number of times in a game, there must also be a finite number of games.

      --

      There's no point in questioning authority if you aren't going to listen to the answers.

    11. Re:As usual, journalists don't grok mathematicians by Pseudonym · · Score: 1

      Blum is a respected mathematician who has been working in this subfield for years, [...]

      That, by the way, is the only reason why this has made news this time around. Even though his purported proof was likely to be flawed, assuming that anyone in this generation is going to solve the problem, Blum is the sort of person who may be able to do it or, even if he can't, to make progress even with a flawed proof.

      --
      sub f{($f)=@_;print"$f(q{$f});";}f(q{sub f{($f)=@_;print"$f(q{$f});";}f});
    12. Re:As usual, journalists don't grok mathematicians by Pseudonym · · Score: 1

      There is also the 50 move rule, which puts a (very crude) upper bound on the length of any chess game at 49*15 = 735 moves.

      --
      sub f{($f)=@_;print"$f(q{$f});";}f(q{sub f{($f)=@_;print"$f(q{$f});";}f});
    13. Re:As usual, journalists don't grok mathematicians by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      49*15*2=1470 moves (both sides can lose pieces) ;)

      Additionally, the 50-move rule resets on either a capture or a pawn move. There are 16 pawns and 6 squares in front of each pawn. Allowing for some required captures, say that adds another 49*10*6=2940 moves, for a grand total of 4410.

    14. Re:As usual, journalists don't grok mathematicians by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You're thinking about the 8x8 game of chess. You can consider generalized versions of chess in which the board is NxN and each side has 2N many pieces. This is the version that the complexity theorists consider when saying chess is EXPTIME-hard. https://cstheory.stackexchange.com/questions/6563/what-is-the-computational-complexity-of-solving-chess

    15. Re:As usual, journalists don't grok mathematicians by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Knuth actually did express that he takes the side P=NP and that he is in the minority.
      See https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Ph4hlOzq_pE and listen to the first 25 seconds. I am appalled by the fact checking abilities and the easily persuadable ... Oh, ok , I see your point, you must be correct, .... bro 's and gal's wake up ... it's 1985 !

    16. Re:As usual, journalists don't grok mathematicians by Pseudonym · · Score: 1

      Ah, yes. I did think about the multiplication by two, but then thought that it was due to a "move" being both players' turns.

      Just for comparison, the best known lower bound on the longest chess game is 545 moves. Either way, the point is that there are a finite number of chess games.

      --
      sub f{($f)=@_;print"$f(q{$f});";}f(q{sub f{($f)=@_;print"$f(q{$f});";}f});
    17. Re:As usual, journalists don't grok mathematicians by HuguesT · · Score: 1

      Basically B&B but with very good heuristics. We can solve TSP with 10^6 nodes without too much trouble.

    18. Re:As usual, journalists don't grok mathematicians by Shimbo · · Score: 1

      Either way, the point is that there are a finite number of chess games.

      You are right but for the wrong reason: as both the draw by repetition and 50-move rule are only draws if claimed as such they don't actually place an upper limit on the game.

      However, I learnt something new today: the 75 move rule and 5 times repetition rule automatically end the game in a draw. So, it's true there a a finite number of chess games but only since 2014 when the laws were amended.

    19. Re:As usual, journalists don't grok mathematicians by houghi · · Score: 1

      One special case is where the shortest distance from A to B is the direct line from A to B; that is, you can't go from A to C to B faster than you can go from A to B

      To me that does not seem to be a special case. You take two things and think they are the same. One is shortest distance and one is shortest time.

      Anybody with a GPS will know that these are not the same. If A to B to C is 2 distance unit. It will be (assuming they are in a straight line) 4.
      If the time from A to B is 3 and from B to C is 3. and from A to C 5, then the shortest time is 5.

      The time and the distance are unrelated. It will always be either the shortest distance or the shortest time. The times they are the same are the special cases, not the ones where they are not.

      --
      Don't fight for your country, if your country does not fight for you.
    20. Re:As usual, journalists don't grok mathematicians by david_thornley · · Score: 1

      Interesting. However, unlike Go or checkers, chess doesn't scale up per se. There have been chess variants that used bigger boards, but they had new pieces.

      Given a rule for scaling up chess, apparently (according to the stack exchange question you cited), it's PSPACE-hard, which isn't quite the same as EXPTIME-hard (I'm not offhand very familiar with the complexity hierarchy above NP, but you should be able to use exponential rather than polynomial space given exponential time.)

      --
      "When you have eliminated the unacceptable, whatever is left, however improbable, must be the truthiness" - Holmes
    21. Re:As usual, journalists don't grok mathematicians by david_thornley · · Score: 1

      TSP is defined on an arbitrary graph, and we can fill in connection costs as we please.

      TSP is also defined as the lowest-cost way to visit each node once. It may be that A->C->B is less than A->B in the general case, but using that as a replacement means C cannot be used in any other order.

      --
      "When you have eliminated the unacceptable, whatever is left, however improbable, must be the truthiness" - Holmes
    22. Re:As usual, journalists don't grok mathematicians by swillden · · Score: 1

      I stand corrected. Though I'm quite certain I saw a talk years ago in which he said he did not think that P=NP. That would have been long before 2014, so maybe he changed his mind.

      --
      Note to ACs: I usually delete AC replies without reading them. If you want to talk to me, log in.
  14. Re:Debunk a German? That's easy! by SirSlud · · Score: 1

    You sound preoccupied.

    --
    "Old man yells at systemd"
  15. Re:Debunk a German? That's easy! by goose-incarnated · · Score: 1

    The state of modern, Western political discourse makes me drink heavily.

    Don't be like that - I'm sure it has its bad points too.

    --
    I'm a minority race. Save your vitriol for white people.
  16. Re:P not equal NP [Re:Summary doesn't give the an. by CustomSolvers2 · · Score: 1

    We need a new elegantly caustic mod category just to be fair with your comment. LOL.

    --
    Custom Solvers 2.0 = Alvaro Carballo Garcia = varocarbas.
  17. Re:Early Confirmation Bias by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    fuck off back to breitbart you stupid little dipshit

  18. Scott Aaronson did not bet anything by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

    Scott Aaronson dd not bet 200000 $ . He basically said he's tried of people asking about P != NP . He explains so much in the very blog linked from TFA:

    A final thing to talk about—yeah, we can’t avoid it—is Norbert Blum’s claimed proof of P != NP. I suppose I should be gratified that, after my last post, there were commenters who said, “OK, but enough about gender politics—what about P vs. NP?” Here’s what I wrote on Tuesday the 15th:

    To everyone who keeps asking me about the “new” P != NP proof: I’d again bet $200,000 that the paper won’t stand, except that the last time I tried that, it didn’t achieve its purpose, which was to get people to stop asking me about it. So: please stop asking, and if the thing hasn’t been refuted by the end of the week, you can come back and tell me I was a closed-minded fool.

    Many people misunderstood me to be saying that I’d again bet $200,000, even though the sentence said the exact opposite. Maybe I should’ve said: I’m searching in vain for the right way to teach the nerd world to get less excited about these claims, to have the same reaction that the experts do, which is ‘oh boy, not another one’—which doesn’t mean that you know the error, or even that there is an error, but just means that you know the history.

  19. Re:Early Confirmation Bias by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    +1 insightful

  20. A solve... remains elusive. by nuckfuts · · Score: 1

    Solve is not a noun.

  21. I think not by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    http://haspvsnpbeensolved.com

    1. Re:I think not by CustomSolvers2 · · Score: 1

      Firstly, I couldn't understand why anyone would have bought such a domain name. Now, I completely get it and my life has finally a purpose! LOL.

      --
      Custom Solvers 2.0 = Alvaro Carballo Garcia = varocarbas.
  22. Purports? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Razborov purports to have discovered an error in Blum's paper

    Are you implying Razborov's claim is likely false?

  23. did he loop mathematicians? by kiviQr · · Score: 1

    I guess he created meta N = NP problem.

  24. Joke aside, why is this proof important? by fourfaces · · Score: 0

    I mean, what is the significance of this proof to the world? Will it lead to some scientific or technological breakthrough?

    1. Re: Joke aside, why is this proof important? by KGIII · · Score: 2

      Scroll down to consequences:

      https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wik...

      --
      "So long and thanks for all the fish."
    2. Re: Joke aside, why is this proof important? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I suppose it answers the question: if you can prove rigorously that an algorithm is NP-hard, is it still worth paying researchers to try cracking it afterwards?

  25. Idiots who are incapable of learning by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    If it's Lennart Poeterring we should just take hi's word for it. No cheese for the luddite's!
    --
    thegarbzage

  26. Re:Early Confirmation Bias by JohnFen · · Score: 1

    This article smacks of early confirmation bias. It seems like the "peers," instead of testing the new theoretical proof, are instead simply looking for errors in it

    ...which is exactly how you test a mathematical proof.

  27. Re:Early Confirmation Bias by halivar · · Score: 1

    It seems like the "peers," instead of testing the new theoretical proof, are instead simply looking for errors in it because they refuse to believe that someone has solved it when they could not.

    You don't "test" math proofs. They are either true, or they are not. If they have errors, then you got good ol' TPATWTCIF.

  28. Maybe we should just settle on ... by fahrbot-bot · · Score: 1

    P ~ NP

    and call it a day. Problem solved.

    --
    It must have been something you assimilated. . . .
  29. Re:P not equal NP [Re:Summary doesn't give the an. by swillden · · Score: 1

    The previous /. post gave a link to the abstract, which is only three sentences long, here: https://arxiv.org/abs/1708.034.... The third sentence is "This implies P not equal NP."

    Points for style, gotta give him that much. "Other guys demonstrated abstruse technical thing. We demonstrate another variant of abstruse technical thing. This implies P not equal NP."

    Of course, he probably could have been even more restrained. I imagine that to people in the field the fact that the monotone and non-monotone network complexities of the clique function having the same bounds obviously implied P != NP, so he could have left the sentence out entirely, which would have been even cooler.

    --
    Note to ACs: I usually delete AC replies without reading them. If you want to talk to me, log in.
  30. Elusive indeed by UnixUnix · · Score: 2

    Blum's approach does not fall prey to the known barriers of relativization, natural proofs and algebrization, it's a serious and inspiring effort that unfortunately does have a flaw and it's unclear whether it can be fixed. The reason many in the field are skeptical is this: experience with long-term outstanding open problems indicates they need some major overall advance in Mathematics as they don't yield to clever twists of the currently known, e.g. Fermat's Last Theorem took hundreds of years and advances two orders of magnitude beyond what was known in Fermat's time before the (complicated) proof by Wiles. The P, NP, PSPACE matter shows our understanding of these fundamental complexity classes is still rather superficial. So we just post on /.

  31. Re:Debunk a German? That's easy! by Hognoxious · · Score: 1

    Debunk or der Bunker?

    --
    Confucius say, "Find worm in apple - bad. Find half a worm - worse."
  32. Re:Yeah! That figures by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    I had a Real Analysis professor who told the Story of why there is no Nobel Prize in Mathematics.

    Nobel's wife had an affair with A Mathematics Professor...

    is this more or less juicy than your theory?

  33. Re:Early Confirmation Bias by Zalbik · · Score: 3, Funny

    You don't "test" math proofs. They are either true, or they are not. If they have errors, then you got good ol' TPATWTCIF.

    Wait, are you saying the P vs NP proof is not verifiable in polynomial time? :-)

  34. This is perfectly normal by gweihir · · Score: 1

    Whenever one of the remaining really large mathematical questions gets a credible attempt at solving it, this is the standard procedure. The author publishes, some reputable people in this area do a sniff-test and say "this deserves real consideration" and then it takes a while (pften years) to figure it out. I would also like to point out that we have seen credible but faulty proofs for big questions in the past that then later actually could be fixed or serve as basis for a real proof. Hence this is an important step either way and even if it requires a few years to fix, there may be a shared Field-Medal or similar in it for Blum and the answer to the P/NP question for everybody else.

    --
    Most ACs are not even worth the keystrokes to insult them. Be generically insulted by this and ignored otherwise.
  35. Re:Early Confirmation Bias by david_thornley · · Score: 2

    On the frightening premise that you may be serious:

    Of COURSE they're looking for errors. That's what mathematicians do. If they see a complicated proof, they look for possible errors, because otherwise it's easy to miss them. It has nothing to do with refusing to believe.

    If you can dig up a copy of Euclid, look at the very first proof, Proposition 1 of Book 1. If you just look at it, it looks convincing. If you are looking for errors, you are likely to find the error. If you just accept the proof as valid because it looks valid, you're wrong. Look for weak spots. Try counterexamples.

    Errors aren't necessarily fatal to the overall idea of a proof. If one derivation or assumption in a proof is invalid, it might well be possible to find an alternative to the erroneous part. This happens, and when the errors have been fixed (if fixable) the proof is valid.

    --
    "When you have eliminated the unacceptable, whatever is left, however improbable, must be the truthiness" - Holmes
  36. Re:Early Confirmation Bias by gweihir · · Score: 1

    Actually, testing them (looking for a counterexample) is a quite standard technique when trying to evaluate the validity of a mathematical proof. This also one of the techniques used to understand it, and for stuff this advanced it can take months or years to get the gist.

    --
    Most ACs are not even worth the keystrokes to insult them. Be generically insulted by this and ignored otherwise.
  37. who cares about parts of speech? by KWTm · · Score: 1

    Solve is not a noun.

    <sarcasm effect="gagging">
    Don't you know? If you actually take into account parts of speech in your grammar, you are not cool and techy! I can receive an "invite" to a "consult", but if I fail to show up I can have another "go".

    Clearly your "know" is bad and your "learn" is insufficient. Next time, first find out more about "speak"!
    </sarcasm>

    --
    404555974007725459910684486621289147856453481154 in hex is "You sank my Battleship?"
    [GPG key in journal]
    1. Re:who cares about parts of speech? by nuckfuts · · Score: 1

      Thanks for the enjoy. Your posting contains a lot of funny :)

  38. Re: As usual, journalists don't grok mathematician by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    The rule says that either player may claim a draw; it's not automatic.

  39. I have a much, much easier proof that P != NP by Excelcia · · Score: 2, Informative

    I have a much easier proof that P != NP.

    If P was equal to NP then it would refer to its own proof as much as to anything else. In short, proving that P = NP would be just as easy as verifying that proof.

    Since proving that P = (or !=) NP is obviously hard, and since anyone working on the problem has been discredited inside a week, then that clearly shows that the proof is hard to calculate and easy to discredit. Ergo P != NP.

    I'll take that in cash please. Small bills.

    1. Re:I have a much, much easier proof that P != NP by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Informative

      While this argument seems to be partly in jest, Scott Aaronson even refers to it as reason #8 "The Self-Referential Argument" to believe P != NP.
      There is something weirdly fascinating about this kind of thinking.

      https://www.scottaaronson.com/blog/?p=122

  40. Re:Anti-Math racist haters by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Smash the Fash! Free nose-jobs for Nazis!

  41. Re:P not equal NP [Re:Summary doesn't give the an. by Smallpond · · Score: 1

    And it's only a theory.

  42. Re:P not equal NP [Re:Summary doesn't give the an. by jeremyp · · Score: 1

    Same thing in maths.

    "P implies Q"

    means "if P is true then Q is true".

    --
    All I want is a secure system where it's easy to do anything I want. Is that too much to ask ~~ Randall Munroe
  43. Doubts? by prefec2 · · Score: 1

    It is good to have doubts, especially for such topics, like P vs. NP. However, doubts are not the equivalent to error. Therefore, we have to wait until mathematicians have come to a definitive answer.

  44. There's no story here, really by uohcicds · · Score: 1

    This is effectively peer-reviewed science & mathematics doing its job.

    Academic publishes potential proof of extremely well-known and difficult problem in mathematics.

    Other academics examine proof to see if it contains errors (even though many would hope it doesn't and this famous problem can be solved).

    It looks like it does.

    Submitter goes away and tries to fix errors.

    Repeat until successful/dead (delete as applicable).

    --
    It's not you: I'm just this horrifically socially awkward with everybody.
  45. Blum: "The proof is wrong." by Peter+Allan · · Score: 2

    Yesterday he posted this comment to the Cornell page linked above: "The proof is wrong. I shall elaborate precisely what the mistake is. For doing this, I need some time. I shall put the explanation on my homepage"

  46. Re:Early Confirmation Bias by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Nah, that's just playing with semantics. It's also not a productive approach here - after 60 years of searching nobody has managed to find a single counterexample to P!=NP.

  47. UPDATE: Blum now claims his proof was wrong by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

    Blum has updated the comments for the proof on the official publication site.

    Comments: The proof is wrong. I shall elaborate precisely what the mistake is. For doing this, I need some time. I shall put the explanation on my homepage

  48. Mathematicians Cruel by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Let German Man bunk! German Man need sleep after complicated proof!

  49. I know this guy, he's full of shit by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Norbert Blüm claimed 30 years ago that "pensions are safe". And now he claims that P=NP. I'm not surprised.

  50. Re:P not equal NP [Re:Summary doesn't give the an. by Altrag · · Score: 1

    Its not quite the same.. in math, "implies" is a strict "if P is true then Q is true" phrase as you wrote, while in English it tends to be read more along the lines of "P suggests Q," with a silent "but doesn't prove it" clause.

    Its kind along the lines of how in English, "or" almost always means "exclusive or" while in math it definitely does not -- the concepts are related to be sure, but not exactly the same and mathematicians can't work with those inexacts so they use words in a much stricter sense (at least when being formal) than your average English speaker/writer ever would.