(And totally off-topic aren't the odds of winning the UK ((49^48^47^46^45^44^43) to 1) lottery somewhere in the same order of magnitude as the original odds?)
Continuing in the off-topic mode:
IANAM but, as I understand it, the odds of winning the lottery (getting 6 numbers correct) would be
1/{(6/49)*(5/48)*(4/47)*(3/46)*(2/45)*(1/44)} to 1
or about 11 million to 1.
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(And totally off-topic aren't the odds of winning the UK ((49^48^47^46^45^44^43) to 1) lottery somewhere in the same order of magnitude as the original odds?)
Continuing in the off-topic mode: IANAM but, as I understand it, the odds of winning the lottery (getting 6 numbers correct) would be
1/{(6/49)*(5/48)*(4/47)*(3/46)*(2/45)*(1/44)} to 1
or about 11 million to 1.