Software Transferability? (or the lack of it)
"I seem to recall hearing stories of courts overturning these schemes; does anybody have any specifics? Cases/judicial opinions, perhaps? I've checked FindLaw, Google, and others, but haven't found anything (haven't found anything upholding them, either...). Have these clauses ever even been to court, or do the companies just depend on FUD to bludgeon the end user into compliance? Anybody with experience, I'd love to hear it. Lawyers, your opinions? (Lawyers, would you be willing to fight one out in court, if given the chance?)"
As many of you may know, the concept of "owning" software is fallacy. You own nothing. What you do posess when you purchase your new piece of commercial software, is a corporate-skewed set of limited-use rights, which are getting more and more limited each day. For those interested, the latest print issue of Wired (October, 2001) has a big "article" on this (see p.170). It attempts to illustrate thru humorous example, what software has been seriously doing for decades.
No one would own (or lease) a car if the contract said, "You must not sell this car, in the event this car is no longer used, send it to the nearest junkyard.", so why is this true for software?
I believe this was subsequently written into law for records, but this may have been turned on its ear by passage of UCITA, which gave EULAs teeth.
Yep, I know it sounds stupid (and means, for example, that online documentation has more restrictions than the exact same information printed on paper). But there are federal legal precedents for that interpretaiton. Check out, for example, MAI vs. Peak Computer, from 1993.
IANAL.
Software is like prostitution. You got the product. You sell the product. You still got the product. The consumer doesn't get money back just because he's done with the product, it's a totally different concept than just buying tangible things.
Copyright protection allows full transfer and/or resale of copyrighted material and all copies made for personal backup. Software does not get an exemption .
In Germany, this has been further extended. You can even resell your Microsoft Windows OEM license as a full blown license, provided you transfer all copyrighted associated material.
In the US, the issue becomes more complex for EULA protected software. One issue is that the company claims the consumer agrees to a contract he never has a chance to read before purchase. The contract allows the consumer to be refunded for the software, but not from the software owner, Microsoft. No. You have to get the refund from the resaler. In practice this does not happen so you are forced into accepting a license whose terms you cannot read before purchase.
There is some reason to think that EULAs of this form will ultimately be stricken as illegal, and software only protected by copyright. In fact, some people think this is already the case (read http://cr.yp.to/).
So, to sumarize, software is not like tangible things. In some views, it is just like copyright, and is completely re-sellable. Even after use.
This is a horrible analogy. First of all, the First Sale doctrine DOES APPLY to recordings of Musical works - meaning when I buy a CD (admittedly it's a copy of a piece of art) I have the right to sell that CD to anyone whom I chose.
Hence used CD shops all around the world.
What's different about software is that you agree to the EULA before you open or install the software.
The real question is whether or not that EULA is even a valid agreement, since it attempts to nullify certain rights the courts have traditionally upheld, such as First Sale doctrine.
In a similar note, I remember reading about IBM getting into Anti-Trust trouble back in the 70's because they would NEVER sell their software or hardware. You HAD to lease it from them, meaning they never transferred ownership of anything to you.
Of course, from a corporate standpoint this makes perfect sense. Economically, a firm will always maximize profits if it only leases (either rights of use or whatever) it's products and services. My question is why no one ever thought to bring this up in the Microsoft case.
IBM was forced by the courts to sell products and software if they were also going to lease them. Of course, they continue to do both, but it's interesting that this was the focus of one of the most successful anti-trust cases in our nation's history, and yet somehow the DOJ missed it in the Microsoft Case.
Anyone have any ideas on how this doctrine has held up in the courts and how it might affect the future of Software as Services???
BJ Hoffpauir
Sr. Systems Architect
Time Trend, Inc.
www.timetrend.com
PS - I read about the IBM issue in "Proudly Serving My Corporate Masters" - a great book!!!
http://www.proudlyserving.com/
Bryan "BJ" Hoffpauir