Can Communications Be Learned From Chimps?
Pine UK writes "The Zoological Society of London are looking for volunteers who are willing to 'talk chimp' in everyday life. The ZSL will be studying the volunteers to see how talking chimp affects situations like workplace conflicts. According to BBC News, the volunteers are expected to show their emotions in a chimp like fashion. This can be done by baring their teeth and by using submissive body language such as lowering their heads and crouching. The ZSL will publish their findings later this year."
I really hope this is not a government sponsored study. I mean, even if researches conclude that chimp-like movements, facial expressions, and noises help solve workplace and home conflicts, how many people are really going to start walking around going "abuga luuga luuga" and whatnot?
The Zoological Society of London are looking for volunteers who are willing to 'talk chimp' in everyday life.
...?
This is too rich: parody that writes itself.
Are we sure that April 7 isn't All Fool's Day
-kgj
-kgj
News, the volunteers are expected to show their emotions in a chimp like fashion. This can be done by baring their teeth and by using submissive body language such as lowering their heads and crouching
And this is different from how human body language is used how?
-Colin
No. You see, we are human beings. We have developed written and spoken language, art, music, drama and culture which allows us to communicate. Rather well, in fact.
I really don't think there is a need for "throw shit at each other" as a way to communicate.
Business isn't willing to pay for products, innovation and careers, so we get brands, mortgage commercials and layoffs.
After downloading the survey and laughing a bit more, I noticed they only mention how to send it back to them by snail mail - no online file upload or even email address to collect them. Which implies to me that this is either a joke or something they expect at most a few hundred people to reply to [otherwise they'd have found a simpler and more effective response system].
Stuff.
...and this is why scientific communities have ethics boards.
This is why "the universal language is American English" - Britian spread English throughout the world during it's rampant empire building in the 15th and 16th centuries, and because of the distances involved British "english" evolved and the rest of the world was largely uneffected by the changes.
Then how come we write and speak "British English" (aka Commonwealth English) in Australia, New Zealand, and most other nations of the Commonwealth, despite the fact that we are far more geographically separated from Britain than the USA is?
Another thing that is strange is that (Australian) historic documents from the 1700s and 1800s use something much closer to Commonwealth English than American English.
Commonwealth English is far more widespread than American English worldwide (despite American English being the de-facto standard language of the Web).
Even the link you provided to Wikipedia claims that "language reforms [in America] were not driven by government, but by textbook writers and dictionary makers". It also explains that "Webster's particular contribution was to show that the region spoke a different dialect from Britain, and so he wrote a dictionary with many spellings differing from the standard. Many of these changes were initiated unilaterally by Webster."
It does, however state that "standard American English of the upper Midwest has a sound profile much closer to seventeenth century English than contemporary speech in England". However, this is not referring to spelling and grammar.
So, American English is a version of English that is peculiar to the United States, and is far from a "traditional" approach (it was unilaterally changed by Webster to appear different from British English), and it certainly has no historical claim to be "the universal language".
Well, there was much closer interaction between Britain and the U.S. until the 1770s (so the dialect changes would have been less pronounced), and large-scale settlement did not iccur until long after 1607, but I agree with your point.
;)
To be honest, the original poster included the 1776 date in his post, so I was just using that, and hoping nobody would see the obvious flaw in my argument
Eh? Can somewone explany why is this scored +1 funny?
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