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Possible Issues With the P != NP Proof

An anonymous reader writes "We previously discussed news that Vinay Deolalikar, a Principal Research Scientist at HP Labs, wrote a paper that claimed to prove P is not equal to NP. Dick Lipton, a Professor of Computer Science at Georgia Tech, analyzed the idea of the proof on his blog. In a recent post, he explains that there have been many serious objections raised about the proof. The post summarizes the issues that need to be answered in any subsequent development, and additional concerns are raised in the comment section."

32 of 147 comments (clear)

  1. Incompleteness by im_thatoneguy · · Score: 5, Interesting

    Yes there can be a proof to prove that there is no proof. Check out Godel's Incompleteness Theorem

    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/G%C3%B6del's_incompleteness_theorems

    Gödel's incompleteness theorems are two theorems of mathematical logic that establish inherent limitations of all but the most trivial axiomatic systems for mathematics. The theorems, proven by Kurt Gödel in 1931, are important both in mathematical logic and in the philosophy of mathematics. The two results are widely interpreted as showing that Hilbert's program to find a complete and consistent set of axioms for all of mathematics is impossible, thus giving a negative answer to Hilbert's second problem.

    Not sure if any such effort exists though in this case.

    1. Re:Incompleteness by digitig · · Score: 4, Insightful

      Fails at step 3.

      --
      Quidnam Latine loqui modo coepi?
    2. Re:Incompleteness by david_thornley · · Score: 2

      If, in step 2, you mean a formal decision procedure to tell if an problem is in P or in NP, no, we don't. We know that any problem in P is also in NP, by definition. Therefore, if we can prove that any problem in NP is also in P, using only properties we've proved belong to NP, we've got a proof. If we can prove that any individual problem in NP is not in P, we have a proof of the opposite. Neither of these requires a general NP- or P-detector.

      Technically, we could possibly have a proof one way or another without knowing any problem in P or NP.

      Hopefully, this is also self-evident.

      Demons and other evil things lurk in statements like this. Either it is clearly self-evident, or it shows that you haven't thought things through. In step 1, it is self-evident that a formal proof demands a formal statement of what is to be proved. In step 2, you simply haven't thought well enough about what a proof needs.

      --
      "When you have eliminated the unacceptable, whatever is left, however improbable, must be the truthiness" - Holmes
  2. Current Status by pdxp · · Score: 5, Informative

    The paper was preliminary to begin with. It is currently withdrawn in order to fix minor typos and because currently "enough unresolved issues with the paper exist to foster a healthy sense of skepticism". This is a good thing for now.

    The original discussion was in a Google Doc but has since moved to a wiki.

    Info: Previous post explaining the proof more clearly
    Paper (not wort reading for most of us)

    1. Re:Current Status by Affenkopf · · Score: 5, Funny

      The paper was preliminary to begin with. It is currently withdrawn in order to fix minor typos

      Minor typos like a ! that m,ade it into the paper by accident.

  3. Mathematicians are gathering to vet this paper by Xenographic · · Score: 5, Informative

    For anyone interested in the details, you can find a lot more on this wiki, where a lot of mathematicians are weighing in on the proof and its potential flaws. Mathematicians are gathering from all over to examine this paper because it's so interesting. Even if one of the serious objections that have been raised so far kills it, it contains some novel ideas that will get people thinking.

    They've also been gathering the news coverage and such, so it's probably the best place to find up-to-date information about this proof. It seems to have sparked quite a lot of interest for a paper that hasn't even been properly published.

    1. Re:Mathematicians are gathering to vet this paper by silentcoder · · Score: 4, Insightful

      >No, it's not. The relationship between computer science and mathematics is similar to the relationship between physics and mathematics:

      No it's not the one IS the other and it's the perceived DIFFERENCE that doesn't exist. It's purely a perception -and a DELIBERATE illusion at that, designed to simplify the process. Ultimately it's easilly provable that every computer program is a simple mathematical function - so simple in fact that it is in fact a single number.

      There is nothing weird about this- if you know lambda calculus, godel-number and Turing machines it's simple logic. We have never done anything to "split" the fields. All computer science did was to create a (very shallow) layer of pretense through which ot access the maths.

      To suggest it is anything OTHER than mathematics is to prove you have absolutely no idea how computers actually work. In the real world- every computer is a universal turing machine.
      If you have any real doubt - just consider this: any program COULD be written in lisp.
      Lisp is DIRECTLY based on lambda-calculus - in fact the ONLY (minor) difference as small syntactical changes designed to make it easier to TYPE lambda on a computer (it was after-all designed for writing in).
      Lamba-calculus is a simple form of mathematical language - like algebra or godel numbers or any of a dozen other ways to write down 2+2=4 that are all just different ways of expressing it designed to be useful for different purposes.

      It's true that currently the most popular languages do not follow the lisp "look like the function you are" structure -but this is because in single-CPU machines top-down programs were slightly more similar to how the hardware actually PROCESSED the functions - and that made it easier to program in.
      Expect this to change in the next few years - multi-CPU machines are actually EASIER to program for in a functional language like lisp - which makes all those nasty multithreading issues just go away by putting you on the actual mathematics that happens.

      --
      Unicode killed the ASCII-art *
    2. Re:Mathematicians are gathering to vet this paper by PachmanP · · Score: 2, Funny

      Strictly speaking, every computer in the real world is a finite state machine that's complex enough to simulate a universal Turing machine. It's a subtle difference that really only matters if you're considering the math behind it ;)

      Oh Snap!!

      --
      You're thinking small. Why miniaturize the laser, when we could instead enlarge the sharks? -John Searle
    3. Re:Mathematicians are gathering to vet this paper by DiegoBravo · · Score: 2, Funny

      CS is a subset of biology. Any question in CS can and must be restated in a human brain...

    4. Re:Mathematicians are gathering to vet this paper by Raenex · · Score: 2, Informative

      You don't REALLY need to CAPITALIZE words so FREQUENTLY to make your point.

    5. Re:Mathematicians are gathering to vet this paper by yyxx · · Score: 2, Insightful

      Ultimately it's easilly provable that every computer program is a simple mathematical function - so simple in fact that it is in fact a single number.

      Every biological system is a physical system, but if you study physics, you'll know next to nothing about biology.

      All computer science did was to create a (very shallow) layer of pretense through which ot access the maths.

      There is no "pretense". Theoretical computer science is a highly mathematical discipline, but it deals with issues that are of no interest to most other mathematicians. They aren't part of the standard math curriculum either. However, the kinds of mathematics it deals with are of interest to people who build and program computers. That's why theoretical computer science became part of computer science and the computer science curriculum.

      Lisp is DIRECTLY based on lambda-calculus - in fact the ONLY (minor) difference as small syntactical changes designed to make it easier to TYPE

      Lisp has side effects, lexical scoping, a rich set of data types, and dynamic typing. It is nothing like lambda calculus.

      Expect this to change in the next few years - multi-CPU machines are actually EASIER to program for in a functional language like lisp - which makes all those nasty multithreading issues just go away by putting you on the actual mathematics that happens.

      Lisp is not a functional programming language, it's a multi-paradigm language that allows you to program in a functional style. Lisp programs are no more parallelizable than C or Perl programs, even when they are written in a functional style.

      In order to be a functional programming language, a language needs to prohibit (or at least isolate) side effects. Haskell is about the closest to a pure functional programming language in common use that there is.

      I think the fact that you think that Lisp has the benefits of lambda calculus illustrates again why mathematicians shouldn't be doing computer science...

  4. Yes, they've tried that by Xenographic · · Score: 5, Informative

    They've tried that, but all that's been proven so far is that several types of proof won't work, rather than proving that it's impossible to prove. The first few sections of this paper itself go into detail about why this proof isn't one of the kinds of proof that won't work, incidentally.

    Terrence Tao has a blog post on why a P=NP proof can't be relativisable if you're interested. Incidentally, there are several other classes of proof that won't separate P from NP.

    1. Re:Yes, they've tried that by nomoreunusednickname · · Score: 5, Funny

      I have discovered a truly marvelous proof that P!=NP. But this comment is too deterministic to contain it.

  5. I for one by Chuck+Chunder · · Score: 5, Funny

    feel very very stupid after reading that.

    --
    Boffoonery - downloadable Comedy Benefit for Bletchley Park
    1. Re:I for one by Bigjeff5 · · Score: 2, Insightful

      NP has an N in it
      So it's not the same as P

      Prove it.

      --
      Security is mostly a superstition... Avoiding danger is no safer in the long run than outright exposure. - Helen Keller
  6. Publication Bias by mSparks43 · · Score: 5, Funny

    Like I said last time. The trouble is, every time someone proves P=NP, the NSA arranges them a little accident.

    1. Re:Publication Bias by martin-boundary · · Score: 4, Funny

      You can't be sure of that. The NSA can only "accident" all those who prove P=NP if the proof verification algorithm requires polynomial time to complete.

  7. Hard core by gregrah · · Score: 5, Interesting

    "Formal Language Theory" - an undergrad course at my university that dealt with Finite State Automata, Touring Machines, Computability Theory, Complexity Theory, and the formal proofs thereof, was the most interesting class that I've ever taken. That being said, I always felt when doing homework for that class that I was taking a dive off the deep end (i.e. pushing the limits of human sanity). And that's only from studying the "low hanging fruit" that people were publishing papers on several decades ago when theoretical computer science was still relatively young. I can't imagine things have gotten any less mind-warpingly complex since then.

    I have tremendous respect for the folks who continue to "dabble" in this stuff. I'm sure that for their efforts they have been rewarded with glimpses of indescribably beautiful works of both man and of nature.

    1. Re:Hard core by tehcyder · · Score: 5, Funny

      "Formal Language Theory" - an undergrad course at my university that dealt with Finite State Automata, Touring Machines, Computability Theory, Complexity Theory,

      How cool was that, I assume it was to give you a theoretical basis for the use of car analogies.

      --
      To have a right to do a thing is not at all the same as to be right in doing it
  8. It looks like by maroberts · · Score: 2, Insightful

    Vinay Deolalikar was a little unfortunate in that his unreviewed theory got more attention than he believed it would. It seems his paper offers a new approach, but as it was a first draft had a number of holes and was by no means ready for "prime time".

    On the other hand, you could say that broadcasting that you have a solution to one of the most famous remaining unsolved problems was a little ill-advised.

    --

    Donte Alistair Anderson Roberts - hi son!
    Karma: Chameleon

    1. Re:It looks like by PeterM+from+Berkeley · · Score: 3, Insightful

      I read that he intended his proof only to be distributed to a select group of people to help him review it. Then it got away, bits being infinitely copiable.

      If someone else released his proof into the wild, we can hardly blame him.

      --PM

  9. Re:Proof that a proof can't exist? by FrangoAssado · · Score: 3, Informative

    This question has been considered by quite a few different people; search google for P vs NP independent ("independent" meaning independent from the usual accepted axioms for mathematics, i.e., can't be proven using the currently accepted axioms).

    There's a nice survey paper about this question that's very readable if you're willing to invest some time: Is P Versus NP Formally Independent?.

  10. Re:How? by digitig · · Score: 5, Informative

    Step 3 states that "We cannot accept the definition of the set NP purely in terms of its members having a property (a solution in polynomial time) that we have no reliable mechanism to detect." "Detect" is a bit vague here, but all that's needed for an existence proof (or disproof) is a formal definition, not any means of actually detecting cases. Look at pretty much any proof involving transfinites.

    --
    Quidnam Latine loqui modo coepi?
  11. Re:Algorithms by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 3, Interesting

    How about this simplification:

    P is the class of problems for which you can get the answer (output) quickly (i.e. in polytime).

    NP is the class of problems for which you can verify an answer quickly.

    P = NP is the question of whether all problems where you can verify the answer quickly have corresponding solvers that also find the answer quickly. If yes, P = NP, if not, P != NP. It's really a question about how powerful algorithms can be - and thus how powerful intelligence can be, because if P = NP, you could build a puzzle solver that would solve just about any puzzle, including "is there a short proof for [insert conjecture here]?".

  12. Re:Proof that a proof can't exist? by gphilip · · Score: 2

    Couple of things: Irrespective of whether P = NP or not, there exists polynomial-time reductions from any problem in P to any NP-complete problem. I guess you meant it the other way round.

    I am not sure in what sense you use the term "undecidable", but if (as it seems likely) you used it to mean independent , then your argument fails at steps 2 and 3.

    A proof that P =? NP is undecidable has to only show that one can neither prove nor disprove this statement: it need not show that no polynomial-time reduction exists from from any NP-complete problem to any problem in P.

    In other words, undecidable != false.

  13. Dick Lipton by Sara+Chan · · Score: 3, Informative

    For those who are unfamiliar with the name, Richard Lipton is one of the top researchers in theoretical computer science.

  14. Re:Algorithms by TheRaven64 · · Score: 2, Funny

    If you think 'polynomial time' and 'quickly' are in any way similar, there's a good chance that you're a theoretical computer scientist.

    --
    I am TheRaven on Soylent News
  15. What would be better? by 2obvious4u · · Score: 3, Interesting

    Finding a proof for P=NP or P!=NP?

    In one case encryption can be proven secure, in the other we loose encryption but gain efficiency. What would be better for humanity going forward, being able to solve box packing problems instantly or having nearly perfectly secure communication?

    1. Re:What would be better? by godrik · · Score: 2

      We can do cryptography without relying on P!=NP. That's going to be longer to initialize but that would probably work.

    2. Re:What would be better? by grikdog · · Score: 2

      Intuition suggests that improvable worlds would be better than universes set in proverbial stone, so P = NP. Even if we can't prove a lemma, that kind of world doesn't rule out accidental proofs by dumb luck or alien intelligence. Personally, assuming I kinda grok the basics, there are more cases of improvable than provable, such as Sylvain Gelly's MoGo program which can beat average Go players about five decades sooner than expected. P = NP means live is easy, imho.

      --
      ``Tension, apprehension & dissension have begun!'' - Duffy Wyg&, in Alfred Bester's _The Demolished Man_
  16. Problem solving by Fractal+Dice · · Score: 2, Interesting

    Can the proof be verified in polynomial time?

    I'm one of those ex-mathamaticians who still sulks at the existence of discussions beyond my ability to comprehend, where there is absolutely nothing constructive I can add. As a student back in the day, I was always nervous of proofs that were longer than a page - it always seemed to me that once a single proof got beyond a certain length, there was always some lingering doubt that some flaw or special condition had been overlooked, doubt that would pass on to every result that then used it. I guess that's the difference between learning math (where the problems are deliberately selected by textbook authors to have nicely bounded complexity) and researching math (where nobody knows how many twists and turns there are in the road between you and your goal).

  17. Re:Proof that a proof can't exist? by UnknowingFool · · Score: 3, Insightful

    Not really. It's proof of a negative which is vastly more difficult than a positive. For example, proving no dogs can have black spots is much harder than dogs can have black spots. You'd have to prove how it's impossible for any dog in existence to get black spots. The opposite only requires existence of 1 dog with black spots.

    It's the same with Fermat's Last Theorem: Prove no solutions exist for x^n+y^n=z^n for all integers x,y,z where n is an integer greater than 2. That proof takes hundreds of pages.

    --
    Well, there's spam egg sausage and spam, that's not got much spam in it.