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Computer Generates Largest Math Proof Ever At 200TB of Data (phys.org)

An anonymous reader quotes a report from Phys.Org: A trio of researchers has solved a single math problem by using a supercomputer to grind through over a trillion color combination possibilities, and in the process has generated the largest math proof ever -- the text of it is 200 terabytes in size. The math problem has been named the boolean Pythagorean Triples problem and was first proposed back in the 1980's by mathematician Ronald Graham. In looking at the Pythagorean formula: a^2 + b^2 = c^2, he asked, was it possible to label each a non-negative integer, either blue or red, such that no set of integers a, b and c were all the same color. To solve this problem the researchers applied the Cube-and-Conquer paradigm, which is a hybrid of the SAT method for hard problems. It uses both look-ahead techniques and CDCL solvers. They also did some of the math on their own ahead of giving it over to the computer, by using several techniques to pare down the number of choices the supercomputer would have to check, down to just one trillion (from 10^2,300). Still the 800 processor supercomputer ran for two days to crunch its way through to a solution. After all its work, and spitting out the huge data file, the computer proof showed that yes, it was possible to color the integers in multiple allowable ways -- but only up to 7,824 -- after that point, the answer became no. Is the proof really a proof if it does not answer why there is a cut-off point at 7,825, or even why the first stretch is possible? Does it really exist?

143 comments

  1. Yes. by Samantha+Wright · · Score: 5, Insightful

    Of course it's a proof. Who taught you what the word "proof" means? Perhaps you were looking for "satisfying answer," dear editor?

    --
    Bio questions? Ask me to start a Q&A journal. Computer analogies available for most topics!
    1. Re:Yes. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

      The question was actually asked by Bob Yirka, the reporter of TFA on phys.org.

      But yeah.

    2. Re:Yes. by AthanasiusKircher · · Score: 4, Interesting

      Indeed. I'm rather confused by the editorial commentary. To put it in terms of the summary regarding a question of color, imagine if someone asked the question, "What color is the sky?" Conjecture: The sky is blue.

      Proof? Point an instrument at the sky and measure the light coming from it. Looking at the spectrum of frequencies coming from the sky, it falls into a range of colors that humans would generally associate with "blue."

      That's it -- you've "proved" what the color of the sky is, i.e., "blue."

      TFS instead starts asking, "But WHY are the frequencies emitted from the sky in the range that qualifies as blue? Why aren't there other dominant frequencies? Why do they fall in a particular range? Have we really proved what color the sky is???"

      These are all very interesting questions, but they are irrelevant to the fact that the sky IS blue and one can prove it by measuring the frequency and correlating it with what humans call "blue." Proofs aren't generally about "why," and in fact many concise "elegant" mathematical proofs may be completely non-intuitive about showing why they work -- nevertheless they are considered valid proofs.

    3. Re:Yes. by hey! · · Score: 2, Interesting

      Well, let me take the devil's advocate position for a moment.

      Yes, it proves the conjecture, but by relying upon a mechanical process you miss out on something that is required by humans to bring the problem within the grasp of our limited attention spans and working memory: insight. So we know the answer to the conjecture, but it doesn't advance our understanding of the problem and its related problems the way a human proof would.

      So you could say it's proof of the conjecture in the sense that it's convincing evidence of the truth of the conjecture. But it doesn't necessarily contribute to mathematical knowledge in the same way you'd expect a traditional proof to. So you could well look at it as a "proof" but in only a restricted sense. This would be fairly typical of the way we use words.

      I think one might well be justified in putting computerized proofs into a different class of evidence than traditional mathematical proofs; we might need to distinguish between the two by some kind of retronym.

      --
      Post may contain irony: discontinue use if experiencing mood swings, nausea or elevated blood pressure.
    4. Re:Yes. by Donwulff · · Score: 5, Insightful

      It's proof, but the problem is the measure of "largest math proof ever" is dumb. I could let a computer (or preferably a cluster) generate proof that every natural number below 200 trillion is followed by another, and there are no gaps, and it would easily trump that as the "largest math proof ever". What's that you say, it's not the simplest proof? True, but my algorithm just didn't hit on the simplest proof yet... Or if you prefer, I can generate proof of the exact number of primes below 200 trillion, it would beat that record by far and as far as currently known, have no simpler proof. For that matter, the Great Internet Mersenne Prime Search is constantly generating proofs that, if written and dumped out sequentially, would beat the pants off this record. But I hope we're not (or shouldn't be) merely competing for "the largest waste of computing power ever" :)

    5. Re:Yes. by elwinc · · Score: 1

      Because shorter wavelengths of light are preferentially scattered off the molecules in the earth's atmosphere (that's also why the sunset is orange - - when a light ray (low angled at sunset) passes thru enough atmosphere, most of the blue and green get scattered away). Why does light scatter that way? Because the molecules are much smaller than the wavelengths involved, but the closer the size ratio, the bigger the interaction. Why? There's probably some confusing equation in electrodynamics that explains it based on Maxwell's equations, but it's not a very satisfying explanation. And if it is satisfying, the "Why are Maxwell's equations true" question will probably be a stumper. Or the why after that. I don't think you can actually get to the bottom of the "why" questions.

      --
      --- Often in error; never in doubt!
    6. Re:Yes. by inode_buddha · · Score: 1

      I wonder what the power bill was for the proof.

      --
      C|N>K
    7. Re:Yes. by K.+S.+Kyosuke · · Score: 3

      So you could say it's proof of the conjecture in the sense that it's convincing evidence of the truth of the conjecture. But it doesn't necessarily contribute to mathematical knowledge in the same way you'd expect a traditional proof to. So you could well look at it as a "proof" but in only a restricted sense.

      I'm not sure how enumerating a finite set and demonstrating that a property holds for all its elements (or conversely, that it doesn't hold for some of its elements) doesn't constitute "a traditional proof". Dealing with finite cases by enumerating them seems perfectly traditional to me.

      --
      Ezekiel 23:20
    8. Re:Yes. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Of course it's a proof. Who taught you what the word "proof" means? Perhaps you were looking for "satisfying answer," dear editor?

      Another pseudo-science paper to be debunked as fraud in short order.

    9. Re:Yes. by thinkwaitfast · · Score: 3, Informative

      IBM Blue Ice supercomputer 325.40 kW x 48hours x 0.10/kwh = $1,561.92.

    10. Re:Yes. by U2xhc2hkb3QgU3Vja3M · · Score: 4, Funny

      Dude, we all know that if you keep digging these "why" questions, you'll just end up with 42.

    11. Re:Yes. by mysidia · · Score: 0

      That's it -- you've "proved" what the color of the sky is, i.e., "blue."

      Perhaps you've proved the frequency of the color from the sky, but are you sure the definition of blue to include this particular frequency for this object is correct definition of blue? Perhaps not.

    12. Re:Yes. by mysidia · · Score: 1

      Also.... Let's say you just wanted to publish a really long proof, but it turned out what you wanted to prove wasn't true after all....... So you conveniently stripped out the one counterexample you found from the data.

      How the hell is a human going to discover that you cheated, or that your proof is wrong because of a rounding error in your program?

      With a normal proof your reviewers don't need to go through extreme measures to be able to verify your result.

    13. Re:Yes. by K.+S.+Kyosuke · · Score: 1

      Kolmogorov complexity? Why not publish the program?

      --
      Ezekiel 23:20
    14. Re:Yes. by Garble+Snarky · · Score: 1

      They discover you cheated by running the program again and seeing different results?

    15. Re:Yes. by fuzzyfuzzyfungus · · Score: 1

      While it does seem reasonable to treat 'proofs that are essentially incomprehensible except in summary' differently from ones that humans can actually use; it seems uncomfortably likely that most proofs, likely the overwhelming majority, are of the incomprehensible flavor with just a tiny little island of math that a suitably intelligent person could actually plow through. Beyond that, it seems reasonable to suspect that only a vanishingly small slice of the proofs that could, in principle, be generated in finite time on finite hardware are actually accessible to the very, very, finite amount of time and hardware we have at our disposal.

      This isn't to say that such monstrous proofs are any more palatable; but even among the bits of math well behaved enough to be provable at all it is likely that being inaccessibly vast is the rule rather than the exception.

    16. Re:Yes. by HiThere · · Score: 4, Insightful

      That's not even true of many traditional proofs. Some traditional (i.e., by humans) are long enough to require weeks to months of study, as well as years to produce.

      This is more extreme in that nobody can reasonably go over that much proof, no matter how dedicated they are, but in principle it could be done by overlapping teams of people. It won't be, because people don't doubt it sufficiently. Various people will look at various parts of the proof. But it *could* be done.

      There's one math proof that's been published for over a year (forget what it's about, or how much over). It's by one mathematician, not by a computer, but it was developed over a decade or so, and he developed some eccentric tools that aren't widely understood, so verifying the proof requires significant work, and hasn't been done. Will it be done? Is it as trustworthy as a proof by a computer that also hasn't been gone over in detail by lots of (other) mathematicians?

      The problem isn't just computers, it's a degree of complexity beyond what most professional mathematicians are prepared to deal with. And it's showing up in several places around the edges of various fields.

      --

      I think we've pushed this "anyone can grow up to be president" thing too far.
    17. Re:Yes. by GrpA · · Score: 2

      42... A very finite number indeed.

      And therein lies the problem - Is it possible to demonstrate a proof through brute force?

      --
      Enjoy science fiction? "Turing Evolved" - AI, Mecha, Androids and rail-gun battles. What more could you want?
    18. Re:Yes. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It's proof, but the problem is the measure of "largest math proof ever" is dumb

      Not really, just as one can reasonably discuss the largest number used in a math publication as part of a proof. Of course you could trivially come up with a larger number, but that doesn't make it actually used for doing something novel enough to be published. Your proof that a computer can print out the numbers to 200 trillion isn't useful enough to be published in a paper. The proof here doesn't have to be the simplest one possible for what it shows, but it helps that it is the simplest one known at the moment.

      Or if you prefer, I can generate proof of the exact number of primes below 200 trillion, it would beat that record by far and as far as currently known,

      There are already papers for calculating the exact number of primes below 10^24, 10^25, and 10^26 that is far simpler than what you propose...

    19. Re: Yes. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

      Well, that proof at least is less than a terabyte!

    20. Re:Yes. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Well.. If proof requires reviewer to have IQ of 160+ than I would call it an extreme measure. It might be comparable to requirement of having access to supercomputer for two days.

    21. Re:Yes. by mysidia · · Score: 1

      That's not even true of many traditional proofs. Some traditional (i.e., by humans) are long enough to require weeks to months of study, as well as years to produce.

      There's a major difference between 'require weeks to months of study' to review VS Time to Read VS It would not be physically possible for you to read this in your lifetime!

      The problem isn't just computers, it's a degree of complexity beyond what most professional mathematicians are prepared to deal with.

      Greater complexity can also lead to subtle mistakes...... and eccentric tools sometimes have a way of blowing up in unexpected ways, so even a careful review of the tool itself may miss the fact that it's going to give an erroneous result under a certain condition.

    22. Re:Yes. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 2, Insightful

      It is upon the asker to define what would qualify as blue. Otherwise the problem is underspecified.

    23. Re:Yes. by Mr+Z · · Score: 1

      Came here to say the same thing. The nice thing about a compact proof is that it may generalize to other situations or offer greater insights. This is certainly not a compact proof. But, to say it's not a proof is ludicrous. It's a very explicit and detailed proof.

      It's the difference between adding up the numbers 1 through 100 sequentially (perhaps by counting on your fingers even), and using Gauss' insight to take a short cut. The computer didn't take any insight-yielding shortcuts, but still got the answer.

      ________

      (And yes, Gauss' story is probably apocryphal; but still the difference between the approaches is what I'm getting at.)

      (I say "insight-yielding shortcut" to distinguish it from the many heuristics that modern SAT solvers use, including the one used here.)

    24. Re:Yes. by lars_stefan_axelsson · · Score: 2

      Of course it's a proof.

      Not so fast. There are several mathematicians that don't necessarily agree with that statement. At least not in its strongest form. (We'll ignore the editor basing their argument on the wrong thing, of course being "satisfying" to a human has little bearing on the "proofness" of a mathematical argument).

      In fact, whether computer generated proofs that are too large to check by human mathematicians are really proofs at all is a question that's alive (if not exactly well) in the mathematical community, and you'll find many mathematicians who will sneer at it. This based on the realisation that many so called proofs are wrong. The history of computer generated proofs and verifications in particular being littered with incorrect results (often due to a validation problem, rather than a verification problem, but the latter, due to bugs in the verifier are not unheard of). Hence, the need for some form of human verification. They don't call it "the social process of mathematics" for nothing. Like Jim Horning said: "A Proof is a repeatable experiment in persuasion." Now, if you need another computer to verify the first, you soon end up with a "it's computers all the way down-silly"-type of argument, that doesn't make more pure mathematicians feel exactly warm and fuzzy all over. (Us computer scientist we shrug and get on with it, but that's a different story.)

      --
      Stefan Axelsson
    25. Re:Yes. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The size of any proof that can be trusted and published should be such that a normal human can at least read the entire proof within 24 hours.

      You mean someone who has studied mathematics at university level?
      A normal human will not understand the semantics typically used in proofs. Just look at what have happened to any math related page on Wikipedia. They have all gone from the state where a normal person can get an idea of what the expression is about to being a page that is unreadable unless you know enough maths to not need to look it up.

    26. Re:Yes. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      So? The proof in the article presumably has source code. Feel free to read it if you want to validate correctness.

    27. Re:Yes. by jouassou · · Score: 2

      Fun fact: point scientific equipment up at the sky, and you'll find that it's actually violet. It only looks blue because the human eye is more sensitive to the colour ranges that we call blue than the colour ranges that we call violet. But I agree with your sentiment :).

    28. Re:Yes. by serviscope_minor · · Score: 1

      Point an instrument at the sky and measure the light coming from it. Looking at the spectrum of frequencies coming from the sky, it falls into a range of colors that humans would generally associate with "blue."

      Or, you know, just look at it and observe that it is blue.

      --
      SJW n. One who posts facts.
    29. Re: Yes. by fuzzyfuzzyfungus · · Score: 1

      One should never bet against dishonesty; but math is one of those places where 'X holds except for value N' is likely to be considered way more interesting than quietly suppressing the N case and declaring 'X holds'. The follow-up research on "why value N?" is almost certain to be of greater interest, and keep you getting cited longer, than the "yup, X is proven, move along."

    30. Re:Yes. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Imho the output is not the proof, running the algorithm is. How big was that? 2 days on a cluster doesn't impress me.

      From the description it sounds like they simply did an exhaustive search for coloring numbers and at 7824 they couldn't find a solution. So now we know what the answere is. It's a proof. It's not a beautiful proof. Go find one that tells us why instead of just listing all the ways you can't color.
      .

    31. Re:Yes. by TheCycoONE · · Score: 1

      I'm not sure why "uses a computer" necessitates a new class. It seems to me that your argument applies to proof by exhaustion whether done by hand or computer. Also it is not unheard of to try to reach simpler proofs after constructing a complex one - the investigation doesn't have to stop here, but now we know the answer.

    32. Re:Yes. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Lord Rayleigh ( John Strutt ) solved those equations for scattering in the 1800s.
      As for why - maybe you need to study a bit more, like I did for 20 years. Of course, you might not be as fast, and may be faster.
      And being stumped is a normal state for philosophical and artistic types, when it comes to anything mathematical.

    33. Re:Yes. by AthanasiusKircher · · Score: 1

      Yep, that's why I specified that one should look at the whole spectrum and distribution and compare it to what humans would characterize as "blue." Obviously many light sources emit a wide variety of frequencies, but humans just perceive one hue out of that mess. The association, as you note, is complex, but pretty well studied.

    34. Re:Yes. by NotAPK · · Score: 2

      "Is it possible to demonstrate a proof through brute force?"

      Yes.

      Prove that the number of unique permutations of the first 3 natural numbers greater than 0 is 6.

      Proof:

      1 2 3
      1 3 2
      2 1 3
      2 3 1
      3 1 2
      3 2 1

      QED

    35. Re:Yes. by NotAPK · · Score: 2

      And not only read the source, but re-run the source yourself.

      Or write your own program to validate the output of the first.

      Even a "simple" proof that sums a long list of numbers would be unfeasible for a human to add up and check, yet we would all feel comfortable writing a program (or a set of programs, each doing the assessment slightly differently) to sum up the numbers and compare the result.

      While longer and larger the proof in TFA is not really any different.

    36. Re:Yes. by NotAPK · · Score: 1

      "that is unreadable unless you know enough maths to not need to look it up."

      And if you're looking it up on Wikipedia then you'll be caught in a never-ending loop of inadequate comprehension... :)

    37. Re:Yes. by T.E.D. · · Score: 1

      This is more extreme in that nobody can reasonably go over that much proof, no matter how dedicated they are, but in principle it could be done by overlapping teams of people. It won't be, because people don't doubt it sufficiently. Various people will look at various parts of the proof. But it *could* be done.

      This has to be seen as a problem. I'm not a mathematician, but I do have a Master's in CS, and I can pretty much guarantee you that program they ran to generate this proof has a bug in it. It may not be a bug that affects the proof, but *all* programs of any appreciable size have bugs in them. ALL.

    38. Re:Yes. by jandersen · · Score: 1

      Indeed. I'm rather confused by the editorial commentary. To put it in terms of the summary regarding a question of color, imagine if someone asked the question, "What color is the sky?" Conjecture: The sky is blue.

      Proof? Point an instrument at the sky and measure the light coming from it. Looking at the spectrum of frequencies coming from the sky, it falls into a range of colors that humans would generally associate with "blue."

      That's it -- you've "proved" what the color of the sky is, i.e., "blue."

      Which illustrates the naive idea of what a proof is: a bit confused. For one thing, mathematical proof does not work this way - what comes closest, conceptually, is a physical experiment, but it fails, in the sense that the purpose of an experiment in empirical science is not to prove something; at best you can hope to disprove, or if you fail convincingly in doing that, you can confirm you theory. But a proof it aint. Only mathemetics can provide positive proof of anything, and only because it restricts itself to purely logical considerations of a set of axioms. Experiments have no place in mathematical proofs; at best you can try to calculate some things a number of times and try to discover what may be a likely pattern, and then you can try to establish a real proof.

      Although it is very impressive to have worked through a mind-bogglingly huge dataset to determine the truth of a conjecture, it is strangely unsatisfactory; we didn't really learn anything new, we didn't find a new, interesting logical connection, we just worked out all the possible combinations and checked to see that they all had the right format.

    39. Re:Yes. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Or if you prefer, I can generate proof of the exact number of primes below 200 trillion, it would beat that record by far and as far as currently known, have no simpler proof.

      Except for Douglas Staple's paper a couple years back that shows memory requirements of prime number counting is only O(x^(1/3) (log x)^2) and managed to find the exact number of primes under 10^26 using only 40 TB of memory. So no, your proof would not be the simplest such proof, by far, and actual proofs along these lines do not use more memory than the one in TFA.

    40. Re:Yes. by hey! · · Score: 1

      Well, it's a continuum. Dividing a problem into a trillion cases and dividing them into two might be the same in principle, but not in practice.

      Dividing something into countably infinite cases probably counts as even more of an "insight-based" proof, because then carrying out the proof by induction requires organizing those cases in some way that makes your argument convenient.

      --
      Post may contain irony: discontinue use if experiencing mood swings, nausea or elevated blood pressure.
    41. Re:Yes. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      No.

      Every single program of any size does exactly what its code tells it to do. Exactly.

      Why would you expect the code for this program to be of such a size that the human mind couldn't grasp and verify every single aspect of its code to confirm that it's doing what they expect?

    42. Re:Yes. by tlhIngan · · Score: 2

      Is it possible to demonstrate a proof through brute force?

      For certain classes of proof, yes.

      These classes are ones where the solution space is finite, in which case one can merely enumerate through all the possibilities. Another is where you're proving in general something is true - like in this case. In which case all you need to do is find one counter-example to prove the hypothesis wrong. Which happened here - they simply went through and enumerated the possibilities and checked each and every one of them to see if it meets the conditions.

    43. Re:Yes. by T.E.D. · · Score: 2

      Why would you expect the code for this program to be of such a size that the human mind couldn't grasp and verify

      Colloquially, if its bigger than "Hello World", it has bugs. Lots of "Hello World"s have bugs too.

      But if you are talking about Formal Verification, that's actually a research topic in CS. Its possible to do, but very expensive. Usually you have to use special compilers designed for that, like SPARK. You ever heard of anyone using SPARK? Well, that should tell you how common that is.

      But even then, that doesn't mean you don't have bugs. As Math/CS god Donald Knuth once said of a relatively more simple queuing algorithm: "Beware of bugs in the above code; I have only proved it correct, not tried it."

      Computers can't do this for you either. That's part of Computability Theory. You've got the Halting Problem in general, and Rice's Theorem more specific to mathematical transforms. There's a halfway (but not great) discussion of this on this SE Question.

    44. Re:Yes. by luis_a_espinal · · Score: 1

      42... A very finite number indeed.

      And therein lies the problem - Is it possible to demonstrate a proof through brute force?

      For classes of problems whose solution space are finite, then yes, it is possible, and in many cases, desirable. If the solution space has properties similar to a finite subset of, say, the natural numbers, then you could prove by induction. Depending on the situation, some of these problems are easier to prove via induction, and other times, by simply iterating over the problem space.

    45. Re:Yes. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The history of computer generated proofs and verifications in particular being littered with incorrect results (often due to a validation problem, rather than a verification problem, but the latter, due to bugs in the verifier are not unheard of)

      How is that different from human generated proofs, honestly?

      People generate and publish proofs that are later determined to be incorrect, or incomplete. People also program computers to generate proofs. From these two items, we can assume that people will, periodically, program computers to generate proofs that are incorrect, or incomplete.

      Nothing has changed in this scenario, except "ooooh, computers." Whether it's people writing proofs directly, or people writing code to instruct a computer to generate a proof, people are fallible, and will make mistakes.

    46. Re:Yes. by Taxman415a · · Score: 2
      On the other side of that coin is what happened to tables of integrals when computer algebra software came out. The tables of integrals in the back of calculus books were considered tablets passed down from on high. Ok exaggerating, but they were considered generally accurate except for typos. When computer algebra software became powerful enough to check them, they were found to be riddled with errors. When checked by hand the computer algebra software was found to correct.

      So what's the difference? In the case of tables of integrals, the problem is probably unusually well suited to solving with computer algebra software. Lots of difficult algebra to solve by hand, but relatively few rules to program that, when correct, can be repeated as needed. In large computer generated proofs, there is no easy way to check them to the point that some are basically unverifiable. The only solution I can think of is going back to formal mathematical proof specifications and crunching away until its verified.

    47. Re:Yes. by Rakshasa+Taisab · · Score: 1

      How is a machine 'computed' proof any different from a human 'computed' proof?

      --
      - These characters were randomly selected.
    48. Re:Yes. by pr0fessor · · Score: 1

      I thought the answer was anything to not go through a bunch of color swatches to pick a new color for the living room...

    49. Re:Yes. by Curate · · Score: 1

      No, a proof is a proof. What kind of a proof? It's a proof. A proof is a proof, and when you have a good proof, it's because it's proven.

    50. Re:Yes. by StevenMaurer · · Score: 1

      Why does light scatter that way? Because the molecules are much smaller than the wavelengths involved, but the closer the size ratio, the bigger the interaction.

      Rayleigh scattering? I think it might actually be a bit more complicated than you think.

    51. Re:Yes. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I understand what you're saying, but why does this proof have to be more difficult than "Hello World"?

      I'm quite sure that the proof program could be written in pure hand-crafted ASM. Basic math is kind of what computers excel at.

      So we can assume there's a loop, some sort of if statement on the math, and then an output. You can probably make it a grade 10 compsci problem and get over 50% of the programs to be bug free.

    52. Re:Yes. by HiThere · · Score: 2

      What you need to realize is that proofs by humans will also have "bugs". This is why it's important to have multiple independent proofs, if possible, and failing that to have multiple reviewers. But multiple reviewers have been known to overlook the same mistake.

      Mathematicians hate the concept, but the foundations of math are not secure. They depend on what humans find convincing evidence. To an extent reproducing the proofs via computer strengthens the proofs, as that reduces the inherent bias. (Everyone has bias in the way they think, and some biases are shared by everyone. Often the only way to discover them is to show that accepting them would cause a more fundamental problem.)

      Computers, by using boolean logic, reduce the number of basic assumptions, and therefore are, in principle, more accurate. But they are programmed by humans, who have sloppy thought processes and inherent biases. And sometimes the error correcting codes don't, so there's also hardware errors.

      The only really convincing proofs are those that have multiple independent proofs which use different foundational principles.

      However, the longer the proof, the more likely it will have an undetected error. This is true no matter whether it's proven by a human or by a computer. There are lots of ways that proofs can be partially checked, but checking for "of course" assumptions is extremely difficult. (Validating the steps of the proof doesn't help if the proof doesn't really prove what you intend it to prove. And that's happened. A notorious example is Euclidean Geometry's parallel postulate [though to be fair Euclid wasn't happy with needing the postulate, and kept trying to find a proof of it]. But it took roughly 2000 years to show that it wasn't really a part of basic geometry, because everyone just presumed it was included.)

      --

      I think we've pushed this "anyone can grow up to be president" thing too far.
    53. Re:Yes. by Whibla · · Score: 1

      While longer and larger the proof in TFA is not really any different... (to the proof I suggested)

      I think I disagree with you there. They claim to have found a limit on (the solution space of) a conjecture. This proof (has to) is to prove that this limit is correct. A far different beast, as the patterns arising from / within the number line are completely different in the two cases

    54. Re:Yes. by NotAPK · · Score: 1

      Sure, but if you tell me you've proven that the first million digits of pi don't repeat and you generated them with a computer, I can at least do some basic checks:

      1) There are a million digits.

      2) They don't repeat.

      3) To the limit of the resources available to me I can run my own pi generation routine and ensure that my output matches yours.

      That's how I was thinking about this proof, but I do realise it's different. Handling 200TB of boolean logic operations is kind of funky!! :)

    55. Re:Yes. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Your proof fails. You need to show you have them all, not just list six. For example:

      Prove that the number of unique permutations of the first 4 natural numbers greater than 0 is 6.

      Proof:

      1 2 3 4
      1 3 2 4
      2 1 3 4
      2 3 1 4
      3 1 2 4
      3 2 1 4

    56. Re:Yes. by lars_stefan_axelsson · · Score: 1

      Yes. Don't take my argument to mean that I want to throw out the baby with the bathwater. I'm a firm believer in the use of computers in mathematics. I think we're only just scraping the surface of what's possible. (To add to your example: there's interesting work in statistics for example, where Monte Carlo type simulations have demonstrated that certain statistical tests are much more accurate and valuable, compared to others, on a wide range of different data. Results that were very difficult, if not impossible, to achieve with traditional analytical methods).

      But as always, one has to beware of the "I have a very large hammer, so everything's starting to look like a nail"-bias. Computers are an invaluable tool for some situations like you say, and maybe not so hot for others, like you also point out.

      --
      Stefan Axelsson
    57. Re:Yes. by lars_stefan_axelsson · · Score: 1

      Yes, I (and many others) argue that something does change, when proofs become so large that other human mathematicians can't check them.

      The social process of mathematics is meant to adress the first kind of problem, i.e. determine that some proofs are incorrect. That's why they're written up and published they way they are. So that others can follow them and make their own judgement as to whether they're true or not. Only when we have a broad consensus from peers do we update our text books and pronounce something "true". (And in many cases we don't get that far, as the area/results aren't interesting enough to enough people, that they get any scrutiny).

      But with computer generated proofs that can't be checked other than by another computer this process breaks down. And that's a problem. Perhaps mainly from a philosophical standpoint (that's why us computer scientists mainly ignore it), but then again, mathematics is philosophy (some say in its purest form), so one shouldn't take that step lightly, and without due consideration.

      So, perhaps, in the future, mathematical arguments will all be made by contrarian AI:s, who will make arguments and hold debates that we mere mortals can't even begin to follow, but we're not there yet. Not by a long shot.

      --
      Stefan Axelsson
    58. Re:Yes. by T.E.D. · · Score: 1

      This is interesting, and makes a lot of sense. However, if "proofs" are now so complicated that we essentially have to treat them like a computer program (things to be debugged rather than something that can be conclusively shown to be correct), then isn't "Proof" a bit of a misnomer? It implies a level of certainty that simply is no longer there.

    59. Re:Yes. by HiThere · · Score: 1

      That's what proof has always meant. It's never meant absolute certainty...except that people want to think that that's what it means. (This is one of the inherent biases that is shared by [almost?] all people.)

      The think that's changed about the nature of proof in the last 2000 years is that people are more willing to accept that there may be blind spots in their thinking. I attribute this to a combination of more people living in cities, and fast communication across distances. People today get exposed to a lot more divergent opinions while they are growing up (and solidifying their beliefs) than they used to, so they're a bit more flexible, on the average.

      --

      I think we've pushed this "anyone can grow up to be president" thing too far.
    60. Re:Yes. by K.+S.+Kyosuke · · Score: 1

      But if you are talking about Formal Verification, that's actually a research topic in CS. Its possible to do, but very expensive. Usually you have to use special compilers designed for that, like SPARK [wikipedia.org].

      I was wondering why you'd need "special compilers" for this...and it turns your it's actually some kind of augmented Ada. Well, obviously, if you start with "traditional" source code, a lot of the information is already lost! One wonders if it isn't simply better to start with some kind of a correct high-level specification and then to translate it down to machine code with a series of transformations (some of them potentially custom) that provably preserve the invariants of the original code between any two steps. To have people write basically arbitrary code halfway down the route from spec to machine code - in a woefully inadequate language to boot - and then to try to prove that this arbitrary code is correct immediately sounds like lunacy.

      --
      Ezekiel 23:20
    61. Re:Yes. by T.E.D. · · Score: 1

      That's what proof has always meant. It's never meant absolute certainty

      That's what I was taught it meant. A lot of proofs build on other proofs. If the first one turns out to be "buggy", then you'd have to re-evaluate every single later proof that used it too. That could get to be a nightmare.

      Thinking back on it though, the teacher I had for the (Geometry) class in HS that first taught me proofs was the worst math teacher I ever had, bar none (he was a coach, so this was his "beard" class). So I guess I shouldn't be surprised at the idea that he was teaching that wrong...

    62. Re:Yes. by HiThere · · Score: 1

      Sorry. That's what high school teachers teach you math proof means. And they don't notice the inherent contradiction when they find errors in the proofs that you hand in...but it's there, and blatant when you stop to think about it. More experienced people will make fewer errors, but people aren't infallible. That's reserved for the Pope, and even there only on matters of (current?) doctrine.

      --

      I think we've pushed this "anyone can grow up to be president" thing too far.
    63. Re:Yes. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I personally find the "computers all the way down" argument reassuring. Not only do multiple systems exist, so that they can cross-check each other, but the supporting software should only get better with time as test suites accumulate for each implementation, especially for the tough situations where the humans go astray. That essentially means that once an error is detected, it's theoretically possible to never see that error *ever* again for the rest of your lifetime (and maybe even the lifetime of all your descendants). That's much better than "mathematicians all the way down" (the status quo) can accomplish, as they are fundamentally much more error-prone than computers.

    64. Re:Yes. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It's not a proof. It's a demonstration.

  2. Very disappointing. by Overzeetop · · Score: 1

    I really wanted the answer to be 42.

    --
    Is it just my observation, or are there way too many stupid people in the world?
    1. Re:Very disappointing. by martinfb · · Score: 1

      I really wanted the answer to be 42.

      They never finished the work: If you add all the digits in 7824 you get 21; the multiply by 2 (the number to which A, B, and c are raised), you get 42! Any real galactic hitchhiker can see this!

      --


      Self-importance and self-indulgence is the root of ALL evil.
  3. Proof? by swimboy · · Score: 2

    This doesn't sound like a proof to me. It sound like they disproved the hypothesis at 7,825. It's kind of like saying that they proved that there are no strings of 8 consecutive zeros in the decimal representation of pi. Well, until you get up to about 172,000,000 digits, at which point there is one.

    --
    Ask me how the Heisenberg Principle may or may not have saved my life.
    1. Re:Proof? by l2718 · · Score: 5, Informative

      They proved that in every partition of the positive integers into two classes, one class contains a solution to the equation $a^2+b^2 = c^2$. The method of proof is by showing this is already two for any partition of the interval {1,2,...,7,825} into two classes.

      This is not entirely surprising; probably there will eventually be quantitative bounds showing that if you colour the integers in {1,2,...,N} in two colours then there are at least f(N) monochromatic Pythagorean triples for some increasing function f(N). Then 7,825 is the first N where f(N)>0, that's all.

      I do agree with you that Graham probably expected a proof of the quantitative type rather than a computer search, because many other Ramsey theory problems have quantitative solutions, but there's nothing wrong with starting with a computer search.

    2. Re:Proof? by Moof123 · · Score: 1

      Agreed. I am curious if it could have been much smaller, perhaps a single page, to show just the set of values that failed the test, or was that what took 200 TB? Sounds like you'd need to show that all 7825 integers had been shown to have been cycled through all possible color combinations, but were all those combinations tabulated to be the 200 TB of data?

    3. Re:Proof? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Perhaps, but how do they go about verifying the proof? And is there any guarantee that it's going to hold up indefinitely?

      Mathematical proofs are hard to do because there's weird things that can pop up with only a couple specific values that might be very large. Until somebody actually verifies this, calling it a proof is somewhat questionable. It's technically a proof, I suppose, but it's one that hasn't and likely won't be verified due to the size.

    4. Re:Proof? by quenda · · Score: 2

      Isn't it more like they *disproved* the hypothesis that "there are no strings of 8 consecutive zeros in pi" by finding an example at a given place?

      As a non-mathematician - do I understand this correctly?
      Expressing a proof that partitioning is possible for {1,2,...n} is simpler - you just provide an example. The hard part is proving that no such partition exists for a given n.
      In this case, they both proved the specific cases up to 7,824, and disproved the general case by proving it impossible for the specific case {1,2,...7825} .

      The number of possible partitions of that set is 2^7824, which makes the number of particles in the observable universe look rather small, so a brute-force approach is inadequate.

    5. Re:Proof? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Perhaps, but how do they go about verifying the proof?

      This IS the way to verify proofs. If it is possible to assert every case then actually going through every case and testing them is the best way to make sure that the proof holds. Otherwise there might be some number somewhere that makes the proof go poof.
      Unfortunately this isn't always possible.
      Computational testing with non-integer numbers is tricky, but if nothing else it is always a good idea to do a computational test.
      Just making sure that the theory holds for all cases of float32 doesn't take that long.

      And is there any guarantee that it's going to hold up indefinitely?

      No, but that guarantee never exists. Humans makes errors and even manual analysis could be flawed. Majority vote does not guarantee correctness either.
      There is no way to ever guarantee that a thought is correct.
      The kind of absolute truth/proof that exists in mathematics only exists there because mathematicians doesn't know enough philosophy to dispute inference.

    6. Re:Proof? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Thank you for that rephrasing of the problem here. For some reason I found it weirdly difficult to wrap my head around the less-technical way the summary described it.

    7. Re:Proof? by sh00z · · Score: 1

      So, how does this result in 200 TB? Does it represent the space required to store every digit of every calculation in a brute-force proof? If so, then maybe that''s the correct number. But that size does not make it "not human-verifiable." The algorithm used to generate it is probably less than 500 kB, something that any number of competent mathematicians could do.

    8. Re:Proof? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      There are 2^7824 unique ways to partition the numbers 1..7285 in two sets. 200 TB of data in total isn't that much, that's only 1 bit of data per 2^7768 unique ways.

      IOW, you need to group the partitions, and then come up with a proof per group. I have no idea how many groups there are, and how big each individual proof is. It's quite possible that the proof per group of partitions is just 10 kB, and the number of groups is 20 billion.

    9. Re:Proof? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Troll is troll.

  4. THIS belongs on Slashdot by x_IamSpartacus_x · · Score: 3, Insightful

    This is absolutely news for nerds. Please post stories like this one and fewer "Why Trump/Clinton are lizard people" stories.

    On topic, what is the content of this 200tb proof? Is that just a text file where each character is a bit? How many libraries of congress is this proof?

    Whatever the content, congrats to this team of mathematicians.

    1. Re:THIS belongs on Slashdot by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0, Funny

      "This is absolutely news for nerds. Please post stories like this one and fewer "Why Trump/Clinton are lizard people" stories."

      Clever girl.

    2. Re:THIS belongs on Slashdot by PsychoSlashDot · · Score: 1, Insightful

      This is absolutely news for nerds.

      I'm going to play devil's advocate and point out that this story literally boils down to "someone used a computer to do what computers do."

      --
      "Oh no... he found the .sig setting."
    3. Re:THIS belongs on Slashdot by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I say you're making his point for him.

    4. Re:THIS belongs on Slashdot by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      That is news in a way.
      Most of the time computers are used to shitpost on forums and look at porn/cat videos.
      Using computers for computational analysis is a bit outside the norm.

    5. Re:THIS belongs on Slashdot by NotAPK · · Score: 1

      "Most of the time computers are used to shitpost on forums and look at porn/cat videos."

      OR do all three at once!!! SHIT POST!!!! :)

  5. Of course it's a proof! by mhkohne · · Score: 1

    It's just that it's an experimental proof instead of a purely mathematical one.

    And it's hardly the first time this has been done - the 4 color math problem was proved by computation back in 1976.

    --
    A thousand pounds of wood moving at 300 feet per minute. Don't get in the way.
  6. Non informative proof? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Good proofs serve two purposes. Obviously they provide a yes/no answer to a question, but equally importantly they teach us things about the problem and the underlying structure of mathematics. This serves the first purpose but fails on the second.

  7. Computer-assisted proofs are proofs by l2718 · · Score: 2

    Well, part of the argument is proving that (if implemented correctly) the algorithm actually solves the problem. But in fact this part is redundant -- because what the computer does is actually write out a proof of the theorem.

    The point is that while coming up with a proof takes work or ingenuity, verifying the correctness of an proposed proof (written in sufficient detail) is purely mechanical. In other words, you don't need to believe or check anything the researchers have done. You simply need to take the output of their program and use a proof-checker to verify that this output is a valid proof.

    For many combinatorial theorems this is the way of the future, and while the submitted may be unsatisfied by a proof which doesn't provide intuition, isn't that better than no proof at all?

    1. Re:Computer-assisted proofs are proofs by TeknoHog · · Score: 2

      Also, consider simple proofs by induction. Besides the actual induction, you need to show that a trivial case works, which is usually plain arithmetic that could be done on a computer. More complicated proofs may require multiple brute-force cases before the actual math can be done. For example, I recall a proof of Bertrand's postulate which first needs individual cases for n < 2000.

      It's a bit like physics where you need some concrete system of measurements, a real-world grounding for your abstract work to make sense. If you're doing math with actual numbers, you generally need some numbers to begin with.

      --
      Escher was the first MC and Giger invented the HR department.
  8. Writing this out by hand would have been a b*tch by justcauseisjustthat · · Score: 1

    Brings back memories of hand writing proofs in Adv Calc and Analytical Calc, getting 6 pages in and finding a mistake. 199.99999 TB written by hand and finding a mistake = bad year :-)

  9. *HEAD EXPLODES* by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Ah, I feel much better now.

  10. Retarded question ... by angel'o'sphere · · Score: 1

    Is the proof really a proof if it does not answer why there is a cut-off point at 7,825, or even why the first stretch is possible? Does it really exist?
    When you have counted all possible outcomes and put a note for each one into a basket, collecting all notes of the same kind, then the result is a proof.

    What else should it be? There is no "why" needed.

    The "why" would be interesting as it might lead to a formula where you just put in a few parameters and get a "colour" as answer.

    The easiest proof btw is the proof by counter example ... met already plenty of Ph.D's who did not grasp that concept.

    "All (chicken) eggs are white!"

    "No, look, here I have a brown one!"

    "That proofs nothing!"

    Wow ...

    --
    Cost free eBook I read (by iBook/Kobo/Amazon/ObookO/Gutenberg etc.): "The Green Odyssey" by Philip Jose Farmer.
    1. Re:Retarded question ... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      What else should it be?

      It may be "a proof", but it clearly would not be one in Erdos' book. He believed, if I recall correctly, that all meaningful proofs exist in a small book owned by God, and that even the most complex things had short beautiful proofs.

  11. confusing by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    "was it possible to label each a non-negative integer, either blue or red, such that no set of integers a, b and c were all the same color"

    if you have 2 colors, and 3 numbers, and you have to label the 3 numbers with a color, but no 2 numbers can have the same color, then you need 3 colors.

    they choose to describe the problem in worst way

  12. Re:Writing this out by hand would have been a b*tc by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    someone has to peer review it

  13. Contents of the 200TB proof by l2718 · · Score: 2

    On topic, what is the content of this 200tb proof? Is that just a text file where each character is a bit? How many libraries of congress is this proof?

    Consider the integers between 1 and 7285. To each integer i assign a boolean variable P_i. These variables encode the partition of these integers into two classes (think of P_i as encoding the statement ""the integer i belongs to the first class").

    Now let $a,b,c$ be a Pythagorean triple (a^2+b^2=c^2 and 1

    Finally, the claim "every triple is not monochromatic" is obtained by taking the conjuction of the Q_{a,b,c} over all triples (a,b,c) as above. It's a huge boolean expression and the goal is to show that it always evaluates to FALSE (in other words, that for any boolean assignment to all the P_i), the huge conjugation always takes the values.

    The proof works by manipulating this boolean expression: it has 200TB of instructions on how to manipulate this huge boolean expressions step-by-step in ways that obviously don't change its truth value, so that at the end one of the clauses in the conjunction simply reads "FALSE", making the whole expression indeed universally false. A computer program discovered this list of manipulations, and a separate (much simpler) program can easily verify that the manipulations are of the right kind (they don't change the truth value) and that at the end of the manipulation you get a clause saying FALSE.

    1. Re:Contents of the 200TB proof by l2718 · · Score: 5, Insightful
      Sorry, the system ate my "less than" signs. Here's a corrected version.
      1. Consider the integers between 1 and 7285. To each integer i assign a boolean variable P_i. These variables encode the partition of these integers into two classes (think of P_i as encoding the statement ""the integer i belongs to the first class").
      2. Now let $a,b,c$ be a Pythagorean triple (a^2+b^2=c^2 and each is between 1 and 7285). Construct the boolean expression Q_{a,b,c} = (P_a & P_b & !P_c) || (P_a & !P_b & P_c) .." (disjunction of 6 clauses each being a conjunction of three terms) describing the 6 ways in which a triple can be non-monochromatic). So Q_{a,b,c} encodes the assertion "the integers a,b,c are not in the same class" by writing out the 6 ways in which a,b,c can belong to two classes without all belonging to the same class).
      3. Finally, the claim "every triple is not monochromatic" is obtained by taking the conjuction of the Q_{a,b,c} over all triples (a,b,c) as above. It's a huge boolean expression and the goal is to show that it always evaluates to FALSE (in other words, that for any boolean assignment to all the P_i), the huge conjugation always takes the values.
      4. The proof works by manipulating this boolean expression: it has 200TB of instructions on how to manipulate this huge boolean expressions step-by-step in ways that obviously don't change its truth value, so that at the end one of the clauses in the conjunction simply reads "FALSE", making the whole expression indeed universally false. A computer program discovered this list of manipulations, and a separate (much simpler) program can easily verify that the manipulations are of the right kind (they don't change the truth value) and that at the end of the manipulation you get a clause saying FALSE.
    2. Re:Contents of the 200TB proof by XanC · · Score: 2

      You can use less than and greater than signs if you HTML-escape them, eg: "&lt;" (<) and "&gt;" (>).

  14. Limits by U2xhc2hkb3QgU3Vja3M · · Score: 1

    Is the proof really a proof if it does not answer why there is a cut-off point at 7,825, or even why the first stretch is possible? Does it really exist?

    Why not ask this guy?

  15. Jean Chretien by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    A proof is a proof. What kind of a proof? It's a proof. A proof is a proof. And when you have a good proof, it's because it's proven.
    -- Jean Chretien (former prime minister of Canada)

  16. My C64 by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Has been working on this since 1984. It just spit out '9'. I probably should have optimized the code a little more.

  17. Buggy Whips by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    All this ranting against computer proofs by "real" mathematicians reminds me of the economics example of the buggy whip manufacturers. They were very vocal about being put out of business by the new-fangled machines, too.

    1. Re:Buggy Whips by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I can't recall ever reading about buggy whip manufacturers being vocal.
      Skilled luddites on the other hand went beyond being vocal and took actions that even led to a new word being used for disrupting machines.

  18. Clobbering With Statistics by Bing+Tsher+E · · Score: 1

    It's just "Clobbering With Statistics" which is fun, and probably easier to get funding for, as you just buy a bunch of equipment.

  19. This is as satisfying an accomplishment by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    .. as winning a fight in junior high school by bringing your big brother in to clock the guy.

    Better not mess with me! Because, uh...

  20. One question: by FrozenGeek · · Score: 1

    Has anyone checked all 200TB of data? Are you certain that there is no flaw in the output?

    --
    linquendum tondere
    1. Re:One question: by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It's a proof, they're designed to be verifiable and reproduceable, that's the point. Think about how normal proofs on paper work: it's a series of steps where you can look at any one step and easily verify that it is valid. Aside from some very initial assertions that need hand checking, everything can be checked almost in isolation and without any knowledge about what they're proving. Then you get to the end, see what the conclusion is...yeah. It's kind of trivial to "check it all".

    2. Re:One question: by FrozenGeek · · Score: 1

      So why produce 200TB of output? I am not a mathematician (need a few more courses to call myself that). But I do have a comp sci degree. I know about programming errors. Some of them can be exceedingly subtle. Beyond that, I was attempting (apparently unsuccessfully) to be humourous.

      --
      linquendum tondere
  21. Science vs Maths. by TapeCutter · · Score: 1

    Isn't it more like they *disproved* the hypothesis....[snip]....As a non-mathematician - do I understand this correctly?

    Yes and no, terms such as "proof" are often used in a casual way. Science doesn't offer proof or truth, it offers evidence. Maths doesn't have hypotheses, it has conjectures and truth. This is because Maths is an axiomatic system, the universe is not an axiomatic system therefore Science doesn't have axioms, it has assumptions. A properly formed mathematical conjecture (or statement) is "proven" by demonstrating it is true or false by the axioms of the system.

    Having said that, the conjecture was in indeed "disproven" by the discovery of a counter example. :)

    --
    And did you exchange a walk on part in the war for a lead role in a cage? - Pink Floyd.
    1. Re:Science vs Maths. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Actually mathematics does have hypotheses. However there are very few, they are called axioms and hardly raise any doubt about their validity, with the possible exception of the axiom of choice.

    2. Re:Science vs Maths. by Koen+Lefever · · Score: 1

      Maths doesn't have hypotheses, it has conjectures and truth. This is because Maths is an axiomatic system

      The axioms are the hypothesis. Change them and you get a different mathematics. In that sense, in mathematics everything is hypothetical.

      Actually mathematics does have hypotheses. However there are very few, they are called axioms and hardly raise any doubt about their validity, with the possible exception of the axiom of choice.

      And Euclid's fifth postulate: change this hypothesis and you get different geometry.

      There are other issues with axioms:

      Do we restrict ourselves to first order predicate logic (like Tarski's Axioms for Euclidean geometry) or do we allow higher order logic (like Hilbert's axioms for Euclidean geometry)? Such choices have consequences for completeness and decidability.

      What operators do we define as primitive and which ones do we define from those? For example we can write axioms for AND/OR/NOT in proposition logic, or we can have only axioms for the NAND operator and define the others from that.

      --
      /. refugees on Usenet: news:comp.misc
  22. No! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

    Rethink!

    Do you need a human to confirm most precise calculations of pi? No. You need the human to confirm correctness and appropriateness of the software that does so, or of software which itself ensures correctness (and still the human must check appropriateness - basically, is the algorithm mathematically sound).

  23. entire? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    So it says it is not entire?

  24. QED by dohzer · · Score: 1

    If the file ends with "QED", then but definition it is a proof.

    1. Re:QED by Koen+Lefever · · Score: 1

      If the file ends with "QED", then b[y] definition it is a proof.

      Except of course if it is a text about Quantum Electro-Dynamics.

      --
      /. refugees on Usenet: news:comp.misc
  25. entire [N]/y by joel2001k · · Score: 1

    So it says it is not entire? [Y]/n

  26. Proof of cutoff point by FalcDot · · Score: 1

    One could image the editors being just a little bit 'happier' with the proof if just a bit more information was provided about the number 7825.

    Correct me if I'm wrong, but 7825 has to be part of at least one Pythagorean Triple, no? If you take all the integers up to 7824 and you can divide them up, but then you fail when you add 7825, then 7825 has to be part of a triple, otherwise it wouldn't be a tipping point.

    So there has to be at least one set of numbers a and b such that a + b = 7825. a and b must be smaller than 7825 which is why 7825 has to be the c in the Pythagorean theorem.

    So if any such numbers a and b could be given as additional information, the reason for 7825 would be clearer.

    Like if you're dividing red and blue marbles over 2 containers and you can't have two of the same color in a container. You can divide 4 of them, 1 of each color in each container, but when you try to place a fifth, all containers are full.

    Here, same thing: when you reach 7825, all the containers are full and you can't squeeze in an extra triple anywhere.

    1. Re:Proof of cutoff point by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Kinda? It's less pigeonhole and more knapsack. It's not that everything's full, it's just that none of the combinations quite work, for no one easily-identifiable reason.

  27. Mathematical Proof != Scientific Theory by Roger+W+Moore · · Score: 4, Interesting

    These are all very interesting questions, but they are irrelevant to the fact that the sky IS blue and one can prove it by measuring the frequency and correlating it with what humans call "blue."

    This is not a mathematical proof but a scientific theory supported by evidence. A mathematical proof, if correct, is always and absolutely true. The major difference is that suppose I did your experiment at night, or at sunrise/sunset, or on a cloudy day? I could get red, black, white or grey for the colour of my sky. All you can do in science is take data, come up with a thoery to explain that data and then test the predictions of that theory under conditions where nobody has tested it before to see whether it works. In your case it is very easy to disprove the theory that the sky is blue.

    In fact you can never really prove a scientific theory - all you can say is that it works in all the situations it has been tested under. That's good enough to be extremely useful and to advance our understanding about how the universe works but it is not the same thing as a mathematical proof. This is why scientists spend time confirming that existing theories work in new situations but you never hear of mathematicians checking the pythagorus theorem again to confirm that it still works with new right-angled triangles.

    1. Re:Mathematical Proof != Scientific Theory by AthanasiusKircher · · Score: 0

      This is not a mathematical proof but a scientific theory supported by evidence.

      I knew somebody was going to come and start arguing about this nonsense. Look -- I was trying to make a rough analogy in common language, first of all, which should have been clear to anyone (I thought). OBVIOUSLY the statement "the sky is blue" is not true at night or when it's cloudy or whatever. Duh. Thanks, Captain Obvious.

      A mathematical proof, if correct, is always and absolutely true. [snip] In fact you can never really prove a scientific theory - all you can say is that it works in all the situations it has been tested under.

      I want you to think hard about this. This is a common statement, but if you actually spend some time interrogating what you're claiming, you'll realize there is no PRACTICAL difference between the two. Why? A mathematical proof is NOT "always and absolutely true." It only works in an imaginary situation that has been made up and functions under various untestable axioms. If some of those axioms fail (as they often do when math is applied to the real, actual world), the math "proof" is no longer valid.

      There's a whole area devoted to the philosophy of mathematics that has to do with how (or whether!) math actually applies to the real world. Most of those perfect assumptions we make in mathematical theorems don't really work in the messiness of the real world.

      So, you're stuck with a couple of possibilities, either (1) math is purely imaginary and has no relationship to the real world, in which case you get to claim that mathematical proofs are "different" because it's a purely mental exercise (but practically useless), or (2) math HAS some imprecise relationship to the real world, but the perfection of the math fails due to the imprecision of application... in which case any mathematical proof is essentially another fallible hypothesis about the real world which could fail at any moment for the same reason any "scientific" theory fails.

      To put it another way, a math proof is the equivalent of saying, "The sky is blue, assuming a perfect day with these 164 assumptions." And yeah, if you assume those 164 background assumptions are true, you pretty much can "prove" that the sky will be blue. The real world doesn't work like that, but I can still prove that the sky IS blue (not that it "will be blue" at some future time) by measuring the sky outside MY house RIGHT NOW. That is an assertion of fact regarding a specific measurement I took, NOT a scientific hypothesis expected to be valid at all times and in all places.

    2. Re:Mathematical Proof != Scientific Theory by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      In fact you can never really prove a scientific theory

      Thank you for this post. As a former research scientist, I cringe when I see people say things are "scientific facts" rather than "theories that are backed up by data."

    3. Re:Mathematical Proof != Scientific Theory by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

      Mathematician and former research scientist here. (Sorry, I always post AC just on principle, so you'll have to verify everything I say from other reputable sources, not an online reputation.)

      This post was just asking for a rebuttal. And in fact, I've trimmed up my rebuttal to just this tl;dr version:

      Math: Logically provable theorems which apply only to the set of rules they were written for. You cannot perform a mathematical "experiment." Proofs can be logically flawed by making invalid assumptions. You will never apply a scientific theory to prove something mathematical.

      Science: Theories which attempt to describe reality but cannot be logically proven. You must create an experiment to test a theory. Experiments can be flawed by not accounting for certain situations, or by improperly analyzing the results. You might apply (proven!) mathematical theorems in developing or testing your theory.

    4. Re:Mathematical Proof != Scientific Theory by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It only works in an imaginary situation that has been made up and functions under various untestable axioms

      That is all of math and math proofs: demonstrating that something is true or not given a certain list of premises. Even if you want to claim one of the premises is false, that does not falsify the proof, as the whole thing is an exercise in making sound arguments.

      (as they often do when math is applied to the real, actual world), the math "proof" is no longer valid.

      Except that is no longer pure math, and that does not invalidate the proof. You can show a math theorem is not practical or applicable to some real world situation you were hoping to use it for, or that someone else used it for before, but that does not invalidate the proof.

      "different" because it's a purely mental exercise (but practically useless),

      This is what the vast majority of mathematicians say and think. Math is an exercise in deductive logic, and you can derive the results with no connection to the external world, so it is a purely mental exercise. That hasn't caused it to be useless, and you can use real world motivations to suggest what paths within math to pursue.

      you'll realize there is no PRACTICAL difference between the two

      There is a huge difference in the end between deductive logic and inductive logic. Science is dominated by the latter, and math is dominated by the former. Your sky is blue analogy still falls short of deductive logic, because you're still talking about measurements which provide imperfect information requiring inductive logic.

    5. Re:Mathematical Proof != Scientific Theory by Roger+W+Moore · · Score: 1

      Look -- I was trying to make a rough analogy in common language...OBVIOUSLY the statement "the sky is blue" is not true at night or when it's cloudy or whatever. Duh. Thanks, Captain Obvious.

      Sometimes when dealing with General Ignorance you have to be Captain Obvious although here apparently not obvious enough. I understood your rough analogy for what it was and was extending it to explain to you the difference between a scientific theory and a mathematical proof. It doesn't matter what scientific statement you make you can never prove it is always true under all circumstances. The best you can say is that every time you have tested it the statement has proved to be correct.

      So, you're stuck with a couple of possibilities...

      No actually you are not. There is another possibility: mathematics is a precise, logical language which we can use to describe worlds which may or may not be real. This is precisely how we use maths in physics. When theorists construct a mathematical model of some new set of fundamental fields they have no idea whether such fields exist in reality and yet they can derive a mathematical model for them and use it to make predictions about what we should see if they did exist. This then allows experimental determination about whether the field exists which is exactly how we found the Higgs boson.

      So maths exists apart from the real world but is an incredibly useful tool for describing it. The perfection of the maths does not fail when describing the real world it is simply that the mathematical model used was not a perfect representation. This means that the model is wrong, not the maths which underlies that model.

      I can still prove that the sky IS blue (not that it "will be blue" at some future time) by measuring the sky outside MY house RIGHT NOW. That is an assertion of fact regarding a specific measurement I took, NOT a scientific hypothesis expected to be valid at all times and in all places.

      Actually you can go further and say that is it not a scientific hypothesis at all because it has zero power of prediction. In science we actually just call what you did a measurement because that is all it is. Even then you still have to be careful because scientific measurements always contain some degree of uncertainty. Really the statement you can make is that whatever sensor you used indicated that the sky was blue at that time. If the sensor is faulty or there was data corruption etc. then it might give a blue reading even if the sky was white.

    6. Re:Mathematical Proof != Scientific Theory by AthanasiusKircher · · Score: 1

      Sometimes when dealing with General Ignorance you have to be Captain Obvious although here apparently not obvious enough.

      Woah -- sorry, but that's over the line. I admittedly was a bit rude in making fun of your post, and for that I would apologize. But I did not accuse you yourself of being an idiot. This is impolite and unwarranted. If you spend even a few minute reviewing the history of my posts here, you'd know that I have a deep background in the history and philosophy of science. So accusing me of "general ignorance" in this area is really being a jerk.

      Nevertheless, I'm in a good-natured mood, so I'll respond a bit just to try to enlighten you.

      I understood your rough analogy for what it was and was extending it to explain to you the difference between a scientific theory and a mathematical proof.

      Thanks, but I don't need that. I completely understand what the COMMON idea of this distinction is. I was trying to get you to think a bit more "outside the box" and realize the practical reality of these distinctions is a bit less helpful than most people think.

      The perfection of the maths does not fail when describing the real world it is simply that the mathematical model used was not a perfect representation. This means that the model is wrong, not the maths which underlies that model.

      You really didn't get what I was trying to say. There's no precise way to define a statement like "the sky is blue" in any mathematical sense, because the real world is simply too messy. Just like there's no such thing as an actual "triangle" in the real world -- eventually you go far enough down dividing space and you get to Plank length and things go wonky. There's only an imprecise relationship between the number 23 and anything in reality, because even enumerating things precisely in the real world is often very "messy" when you try to get very, very, very precise.

      Yes, there are some cases where math seems to have an exact relationship to the real world, but in most cases (including in most uses in physics), we just skim over that messiness and ignore it while assuming the math just "matches" the reality. And there are plenty of cases where that math turns out to be wrong, because that "messiness" of reality (even when it's relatively small differences and mostly imperceptible in real life) "bubble up" and make errors appear on the macro level in some physical circumstances.

      Now, you seem to be arguing that in that case the "math is still right" but the model was wrong. What I'm telling you is that I think that's an artificial distinction that has no practical meaning. You can disagree with me, but I'd say that when the math doesn't fit reality, it's flawed -- the whole thing. Because a mathematical model used within a scientific hypothesis IS part of the science. That's why Newton isn't really "wrong" and why we still teach his version of mechanics. The math model IS the science, even if it doesn't reflect the reality at high speeds or energies or whatever, and as a practical matter, the math works to a high-enough precision that Newton's model is still useful in most everyday applications.

      To me, math models and experimental science are fundamentally related. Trying to claim one can be "right" while the other is "wrong" is just a distinction without usefulness. Anyhow, all of this discussion, while interesting, is NOT at all related to the example I gave.

      Actually you can go further and say that is it not a scientific hypothesis at all because it has zero power of prediction. In science we actually just call what you did a measurement because that is all it is.

      Who called it a scientific hypothesis? I didn't in my original post. But you did. At no point would I have considered what I said to be a "hypothesis." I called it a "conjecture."

      Anyhow, my example is similar to a mathematical proof in the sense t

  28. Proof written at 1 GB/s by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    I wonder how much of those 48 hours were spent on string manipulation. echo '200000/(2*24*3600)' | bc -l # == 1.2

  29. The proof program by lars.rasmusson · · Score: 1

    # Claim: It is not possible to make a partition of the
    # natural numbers into to sets so that
    # _all_ pythagorean tripples are split up,
    # having some elements in one partition and
    # some in the other.
    #
    # The math proof relies on this being true for all triples
    # of numbers up to N = 7285, something which can be tested by
    # a computer.
    #
    # We create a logic expression that is true iff
    # there exists some partition such that all triples
    # are split, and false otherwise.  The computer
    # checks that this is indeed always false (=unsatisfiable)
    # for all possible partitions.
    #
    # Below P13 means that integer 13 belongs to the first set
    # and ~P13 means that it belongs to the other set, etc.

    from sympy import *

    N = 10 # should be 7285

    def is_a_triple(a,b,c): return a**2+b**2==c**2

    tripplesUpToN=[(a,b,c) for a in range(N) for b in range(N) for c in range(N) if is_a_triple(a,b,c)]

    def notAllInSamePartition(a,b,c):
        Pa,Pb,Pc=var("P{} P{} P{}".format(a,b,c)) # Create variables P13, P57, etc.
        return ~( (Pa & Pb & Pc) | (~Pa & ~Pb & ~Pc) )

    # Expr = All triples of numbers up uo N are split up over different partitions
    Expr = And(*[notAllInSamePartition(a,b,c) for a,b,c in tripplesUpToN])

    # Expr is unsatisfiable, because always some triple will be completely in one of the partitions, so it should print False
    print satisfiable(Expr)

    1. Re:The proof program by lars.rasmusson · · Score: 1

      #The range should not include 0 - so much for trying to be concise...

      range(1,N+1)

  30. In The End... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Shit's brown.

  31. The end of math? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    It feels like we have really reached the end of pure math as an interesting research area now.

    Since Godel et al we know that searching for proofs given axioms is a mechanisable though sometimes non-terminating grind, pretty similar to searching for the next biggest prime number. We know there are an infinite number of theorems out there of which some can be ground out by search.

    So what's the point of having human pure mathematicians any more? The act of searching for proofs is no longer interesting in itself, apart from maybe as one example of a cognitive heuristic process for the psychologists to study. Should we just declare pure maths, like theoretical chemistry, to be completed and "over", and spend research funds on something else now ?

  32. simple proof by queBurro · · Score: 2

    I've got a simple proof of this but it's slightly too large for this comment box. I'll post it laterrrrrrrrrrrrr...

    --
    sag
    1. Re:simple proof by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      a^n+b^n=c^n, by any chance?

  33. Pointless by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    I think there are more important things to be working on.

  34. Is this really a proof? by Dcnjoe60 · · Score: 0

    Is this really a proof? I was always taught that a proof shows that the argument presented is always true -- not just for the first 7,824 times as is the case here, but always (obviously given the axioms used).

    For instance, in Euclidean geometry, one can prove that the sum of the angles of a triangle are two 90 degree angles or 180 degrees. They don't total to 180 degrees up to some finite point as in the article.

    Don't get me wrong. There was impressive work done here. It just doesn't amount to a proof, unless that is now a subjective term.

    1. Re:Is this really a proof? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      They found a counterexample to a conjecture at N=7824. They didn't show it just works for the first 7824 cases, but showed that conjecture is wrong. And since the conjecture claims to apply for all N, it would fall under definition of a proof, as they proved the conjecture is always a false statement.

    2. Re:Is this really a proof? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I'm sure the problem statement is stated for the case of k=7824, and separately for the case of k=7825.

      One can be proven, the other cannot.

      So, yes, this is a proof. It's a proof for a special case of k. Special cases are in no way a disqualifier for "proofhood" because of lack of universality. In particular, in some sense, every result can be seen as a special case.

      Now, just to mention it as a possible explanation of what you've been taught... there is such a thing as a tautalogy. A tautology is a statement which can be proven to be true, irrespective of *particular values* that happen to be true. In essence, whereas a proof may be true for only one particular value, a tautology is true for a class of values. This happens a lot in math. So much so that related concepts of "equivalence relation" and "isomorphism" are also important in their own right. I'll just leave it at that, but of course I'm just scratching the surface, here.

  35. What would Ramanujan Do? by 140Mandak262Jamuna · · Score: 2
    What Would Ramanujan

    Do?

    He will simply calculate all possible Pythagorean triples in his head, write down 7285 in a piece of paper as the "solution" and leave the proof as an elementary exercise to the reader.

    --
    sed -e 's/Chuck Norris/Rajnikant/g' joke > fact
    1. Re:What would Ramanujan Do? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Fucker was a badass!

      Wish I really understood his insight into mock theta functions.

  36. 1980s all over again by Solandri · · Score: 1

    We already went through this in the 1980s. The four color theorem - the idea that you can draw any map using just 4 colors and no neighboring regions with shared edges will have the same color - resolves down to 1476 possible simplified map configurations. Appel and Haken wrote a computer program to check each of those configurations, and none were found to violate the theorem. Thus the theorem must be true.

    Mathematicians initially rejected the idea that this constituted a mathematical proof for the reasons that have been posted in the comments here. But in the 1980s they came around and begrudgingly accepted that the theorem had in fact been proven, thus legitimizing computer proofs by exhaustion of the solution space. It's really no different than proof by reduction, where you can reduce a problem down to just one or two cases, and simply show that those one or two cases don't violate the theorem being proven.

    1. Re:1980s all over again by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      True. But what mathematicians (and most people, to be fair) seek to understand is not truth, so much as mechanism and purpose. Brute force proofs often don't provide much in the way of mechanism, or explication of relations, which is why alternate proofs are a common theme in math. Alternatives ways of thinking often provide new insights which can provide clarity of reasoning. In the case of the FCT, newer proofs have reduced the number of configurations, while providing better ways of thinking about the problem. New techniques in number theory often have the effect of changing cardinality of bounds. Often, these changes are hailed within the math community as providing hard-won victories of insight.

  37. Randall Holmes on the consistency of Quine’s by FlaSheridn · · Score: 1

    Do you mean Randall Holmes on the consistency of Quine’s set theory, New Foundations? https://arxiv.org/abs/1503.014... (see also http://www.logicmatters.net/20...)

  38. Re:Randall Holmes on the consistency of Quine&rsqu by HiThere · · Score: 1

    IIRC, the paper I was talking about was by someone from Japan, so probably not that one. If not, I'm not really surprised that there's more than one. (OTOH, he says an earlier version of that proof had been checked by a group of mathematicians, so unless that happened since I heard about it, it's definitely another proof.)

    Unfortunately (in this case) I'm a programmer, not a Number Theory mathematician, so the details of what the proof was about, even in general terms, didn't stick in my memory.

    --

    I think we've pushed this "anyone can grow up to be president" thing too far.
  39. Who fucking cares? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Bunch of nerdies

  40. Cumulative Rounding Error by ihtoit · · Score: 1

    That's all I got.

    --
    Political debates have me rolling my eyes so much I think I got optical whiplash. I should sue. - Foamy The Squirrel