On the plus side, when you go to the movies, you don't have to hear screaming kids or their screaming parents or general idiots talking on their cellphones during the movie, so I would say that you have a better movie experience than I do.
I don't care if you have been there or not, but was illegal immigration one of the problems you encountered on your visit (I can assume it was a visit since you said you have been there instead of you have lived there, but even if you have, its irrelevant to the question)?
While illegal immigration may be a problem in Singapore, its a problem is many countries, and none of them would claim illegal immigration as a reason to move anywhere. Honestly, illegal immigration is a minor issue until it causes a housing crisis, overpopulation, spread of disease, etc. I believe that Singapore's biggest issues right now stem from the remnants of the SARS outbreak (equivalently like nuclear power suffers in the US because of 3 mile island), terrorism (granted, a global issue), and of course the problems of linguistic development. None of these are caused by illegal immigration. For those of you scratching your heads at that last one, there is a divide between chinese and english speakers. You have grandparents, who grew up speaking mandarin at school and dialect at home. Then you have parents, who spoke english at school and mandarin at home to their parents. Now the kids can't speak dialect. This has caused children in singapore to be unable to communicate with their grandparents.
Man, if only gaining the benefits of capitalism without losing totalitarianism hadn't caused all the illegal immigration (eggnoglatte, here I am kidding), many more people would want to live in Singapore.
Try external USB drives. They sell 1.5 terabyte versions for a mere $100 now, so you get a years worth of bandwidth, assuming all you do is download things for storage purposes, for the cost of a really good date.
If you use comcast, and can use 250 GB per month, you can get 20 times as much bandwidth as dialup, for only 12 times the price.
The real issue, of course, is that providing 100 times the bandwidth of dialup wouldn't cost comcast twice the price of dialup. We should be paying $12 per month for a terabyte of bandwidth, which would give comcast a 20% profit, which no reasonable company would turn down. Comcast doesnt do this because people are willing to pay $60 a month ofr 2-3 GB of bandwidth. If comcast doesnt lose 95% of their market by chargingf $60 instead of $12, they have no reason to lower their prices, ever.
Except that all of that is irrelevant to the fact that mental illness is overdiagnosed. The people who actually have problems aren't being ignored. Those are generally obvious, and the ones that aren't can still tell that something isnt quite right. If it was just borderline cases that were overprescribed, I would be OK with it. Its the ones who don't have issues but get medication that are the problem.
I went to public school and was socially inept. Luckily, my parents were smart enough to recognize that I was just smarter than my peers, not mentally incompetent. This probably happened because my father is a psychiatrist, not a psychologist.
Its not because a company makes money that kids should go off drugs. Its because they dont need drugs.
Do you move on 1 day's notice? Nowadays, when you sign the contract to move to a new place, you sign up for cable/internet weeks in advance, so the same day the movers bring your stuff over, comcast/AT&T/whoever shows up in the same window. You are gonna be around 2-3 hours minimum (and likely 5-6) on a move anyway, so so you have everything by the time your bed is set up and you take a nap to recuperate from the stress of the day. Of course, these days, if you have internet, you have no need for cable anyway.
No, we don't define gender as feminine vs masculine, despite what you think you learned in your intro to feminist philosophy class in community college. Gender is a defined class of replacement nouns, pronouns, etc; like to replace "the man" with "he." Gender is the construct difference between male and female. In other words, male and female are definitions of gender. So you seem to have it backwards, my assumption was that gender means male, not the other way around. I correctly use the assumption that the Y-chromosome is part of the definition of how you define gender, because it is true. Granted, it doesn't fit when I refer to "my ship" as "she", but I would refer to "the person with the Y chromosome" as "him," even in a statistical sample of Y-chromosomes for gender. Then again, in the quote you have ignored twice now even though you reproduce, I also explicitly state that y-chromosome does not necessarily = male [Sex isn't male (neither are y-chromosomes)].
You won't have a very good career in debating, because the first of debating is dont quote people and then come up with improper assumptions about what those quotes mean, because if the person you are debating isn't retarded, you will embarrass yourself.
At any rate, we got on this tangent because you brought it up.
Here is the breakdown: - You brought up the example - I explained why your example didn't work - You went off on a tangent - I briefly pointed why you were wrong - You quoted me, reached an impossible conclusion regarding my assumptions, misinterperated the result of those false assumption regarding my assumptions, and then pointed out that you don't know what means, complaining that we somehow got off on a tangent - I responded again, and now am waiting to see how you screw this one up
On a tangent here, if you randomly CAPITALIZE WORDS in the middle of a TYPED sentence, it doesn't strengthen or or emphasize points of your argument, it just makes you look immature and unsure of your points. Certainly, no one is going to take anything you say more seriously for it, especially because that behavior generally means that you are wrong. Stop doing that if you want to be taken seriously.
Thats probably because everytime people go to costco, they spend about $300. You have to expect large bills if you take cash. Ignore the outliers who go to get a $3, pedantic people.
Nope, you are also wrong, because they situation you describe is not the original question. Read it again, I'm getting depressed at how many people on slashdot don't get simple things.
The question is 1 coin is heads, what is the probability that the other coin is heads. In other words, your girlfriend is pregnant. What are the odds that my girlfriend is also pregnant? Since we have never met each other, it doesn't matter if you never use birth control, or if you and your girlfriend enter into as many orgies as you can find, and you sleep with homeless people in the hopes of getting knocked up. It doesn't affect my girlfriend if you never sleep with her. Since one coin is heads, it doesn't matter that tails-tails exists. Tails-tails doesn't exist in the question, because one coin is heads (just like one of our girlfriends is pregnant, and by definition of different coins, we are dating different people). After one coin is heads, the other coin is random, just like flipping any coin (dont be pedantic, you arent flipping a double sided coin, except for the first coin, which could be coin #2, because one coin is guaranteed to be heads, it's not random, whereas the other is random). If you think that a coin that is required to be heads could be tails, then while every life is precious, your death would not be a loss to humanity.
While I have made it as stupidly simple as it should get, lets look another way.
You have 2 coins. One of them is heads. Lets call the coins coin 1 and coin 2. If coin 1 is heads, then coin 2 is not affected by coin 1, and has a 50% chance of being heads or tails. This makes the overall outcome either heads-tails or heads-heads. If coin 2 is guaranteed to be heads, than the outcomes are either tails-heads or heads-heads. Oh look the overall odds of heads-heads are 50%, like I have explained on 6 occasions in the past 24 hours, you (most insulting thing you can think of here).
How can all of you be this stupid. Read, think, and then don't post, because dammit, you are wrong.
Answer this: If you flip one coin, what are the odds of heads? If you say anything other than 50%, lets meet in person so I can money off you.
I'm done with this, I'm not responding to anyone else, and for fucks sake, all of you better hire an accountant, because if you cant figure this shit out, you sure as hell can't figure out your taxes.
I didn't say a Y chromosome was guaranteed to produce a male (nevermind that I explicitly stated that Y chromosome does not = male), I said it was statistically significant; if you haven't been paying attention, it just means that its unlikely to have occurred by chance. Outliers exist, it doesn't make them your expectation. For example, the average history major at UNC for class of 1983 starts out at over 200k per year, but not if you take Michael Jordan out of the sample. On the other hand, while a red car could end up actually being a waffle house, we don't assume that the average objective viewer is high on crystal meth and shrooms.
Biologically, sex is caused by hormones, not f(x). Its also not caused by a fuckload of a complicated system. Also, no one reads the article because it's almost always wrong, which is why we a forum in the first place (so we can argue about why it's wrong).
By the way, most model Ts are Georgia Tech Old Gold, not black (if they aren't, I dont care, most that still drive are). Try again if you want, but please actually read my response beforehand.
How do you not get this and still have figured out how to use a computer?
Dear G-d, its a simple question. You flip a coin, its either heads or tails with equal probability. The other coin is already heads. Move on.
If you insist on screwing it up and claiming that the second coin was the one that had to be heads, than the first coin still had a 50% chance being heads or tails while the second coin had the 100% chance of being heads. If you don't get it now, don't post again.
You are still wrong. It doesnt matter if it is coin A or coin B, one of them is already heads. We are asking about the probability of the other coin. Stop trying to answer a different question, because that is not the issue. You are wrong, I am done with you.
You are calculating the odds of the other one being also heads, predicated on the first being heads. The order doesn't matter.
You flip 2 coins. One of them is heads. There is no probability of it not being heads. Therefore, the odds of the other one being heads are not affected.
You should try learning english, its a great language once you get the hand of it.
That would be incorrect for multiple reasons, nevermind that you cant have a continuous youtube video be an hour and a half in length.
We have to assume that one of the coins is heads, as is prefaced in the original question, and then flip the other. Under that condition, just send me the $1000.
Just acknowledge that you are wrong, and move on with your life.
Realize that flipping 2 coins is the same thing as flipping one coin twice. The problem with your logic is that one of the coins has to be heads. If you flip coin X and find that it is tails, you can't claim that coin Y must be heads unless you flip it. This would mean that the results of one flip affect another, which is not true.
Run coins X and Y seperately, keep the values of each flip as a trial. This way, the outscome of coin X doesn't affect the outcome of coin Y, even though we assume that at least one of them will land on heads (it just can't occur because the other does or does not). Search each trial as an if statement for a running total with the following score modifiers;
Start each trial by searching by X: if X = 1, Y = 0 == fail (-1) if X = 1, Y = 1 == success (+1)
repeat for Y: if Y = 1, X = 0 == fail (-1) if Y = 1, X = 1 == success (+1)
Thus, your results will show
X = 1, Y = 0 will equal (-1) X = 1, Y = 1 will equal (+2) If X = 0, Y = 0 will equal 0 *no heads means no trial* if X = 0, Y = 1 will equal (-1)
Your running score should not be statistically significantly different from 0 (depending on your confidence level) to show that in a continous trial, the odds of both coins landing on heads provided that at least one of them lands on heads is 50%.
To simplify this for you, one of the coins has to be heads. Therefore, you start with one coin heads and dont worry about its outcome (because it has to be heads). It cant change. It doesn't matter if you start with the first coin being heads or the second coin being heads, as long as one of them is predetermined to be heads, and you flip the other. The simplified problem is simply what are the probabilities associated with the flipped coin (that doesnt necessarily have to be heads). Its the same question as - If the next car that comes down the street is primarily red, what is the probability that the next coin flip is heads? You are trying to claim that flipping the coin and getting heads or tails will change the color of the car coming down the street, when we already prefaced that we know what color it is.
This is the original wording: "If I flip two coins and one of them is heads, what are the odds the other one is also heads?" It does help to understand the question before you try to solve the answer.
If you find that coin X is tails, you dont know that one of the flips is heads. You can't use the data unless you already also know that coin Y is heads. You have to start with either coin X or coin Y is known to be heads. Then you flip the other and see if its heads or tails.
Sorry, but you are wrong.
Fix your code, you will see that it is 50% chance of two heads and 50% chance of 1 heads, 1 tails.
Run your program, and you will see that it is 50%. For the same reasons that I have pointed out repeatedly. You are also wrong. This was not the original question. However, if you know that one of the coins hits heads by default, you dont know which one, and order in this case would matter.
Therefore, reread any of my posts, run your program, and apologize.
Of course I think that you are that stupid. You think that when you flip 2 coins, and one of them is heads, there is 1/3 chance that the other will be heads.
There are 4 possibilities where one of the two is heads.
Either flip 1 is heads, or flip 2 is heads.
If flip 1 is heads, there are two options: Flip 2 can be heads, or flip 2 can be tails
If flip 2 is heads there are two options: Flip 1 can be heads, or flip 1 can be tails
The 4 options are therefore:
Heads-Heads (flip 1 is known to be heads) Heads-Heads (flip 2 is known to be heads) Heads-Tails (flip 1 is known to be heads) Tails-Heads (flip 2 is known to be heads)
Therefore, if one of the flips is known to be heads, there is a 50% chance of the other being heads.
Still dont believe me?
Videotape yourself flipping 2 coins as many times as you like (at least 1000 times). For every time that one of the flips of the two is heads, and the other is tails, I will pay you $1 For every time that one of the flips is heads, and the other is tails, you will pay me $1.25. Any time it is tails-tails, no one pays anyone anything.
If you are right, you should profit an average of $18.75 per 1000 flips. Since I'm right, let know how much you lose, let me know youve got the unedited video, and Ill let you know where to send the certified check.
1 - You are a troll, in which case, no one loves you, not even your mother
2 - Your are the dumbest person to ever post on/., and you need a 3rd grader to explain to you how to read.
If 2 is the case, please notice that the prereq is that one of the flips must be heads.Therefore, tails-tails is not a viable choice, because neither is heads, and you know that one of them must be heads. I have already explained this on 3 occassions.
If you respond again, it better be an apology for wasting my time and recognition of how daft you are, along with proof that you have signed up for a statistics course and a remedial logic course at your local community college.
Thought experiment 1 - this would be a significant finding, provided that you did not ask how many days have passed as the number you are asked for; if you ask for a number and they respond in a pattern, that is a significant finding. It would be statistically significant, however, that patterns are used if you instruct the person to follow such a specific pattern, because you removed the opportunity for variablity by your instruction. You dont have a random sample if there is no variability in a population. I already covered this.
A sample, on the other hand, would not be one person responding with a number day after day after day; rather it would at least be hundreds (if not thousands) if you wish to extrapolate to the population (either people or numbers). You can't do it with 1 data point.
Your third paragraph is confusing, because it is a paraphrase of what I said, only it doesn't fit with everything else you say in your reply.
Second thought experiment - Sex isn't male (neither are y-chromosomes), you are thinking of gender. Regardless, you would find a statistically significant relationship between males having a y-chromosome, because its part of the definition of how you define gender. This would be like sampling a population of red cars to determine if they are red.
Try coming up with a population that has variability, so that taking a sample makes sense, and you will see that statistical significance matters.
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That would be because driving is a privalege, not a right (unlike education).
On the plus side, when you go to the movies, you don't have to hear screaming kids or their screaming parents or general idiots talking on their cellphones during the movie, so I would say that you have a better movie experience than I do.
I don't care if you have been there or not, but was illegal immigration one of the problems you encountered on your visit (I can assume it was a visit since you said you have been there instead of you have lived there, but even if you have, its irrelevant to the question)?
While illegal immigration may be a problem in Singapore, its a problem is many countries, and none of them would claim illegal immigration as a reason to move anywhere. Honestly, illegal immigration is a minor issue until it causes a housing crisis, overpopulation, spread of disease, etc. I believe that Singapore's biggest issues right now stem from the remnants of the SARS outbreak (equivalently like nuclear power suffers in the US because of 3 mile island), terrorism (granted, a global issue), and of course the problems of linguistic development. None of these are caused by illegal immigration. For those of you scratching your heads at that last one, there is a divide between chinese and english speakers. You have grandparents, who grew up speaking mandarin at school and dialect at home. Then you have parents, who spoke english at school and mandarin at home to their parents. Now the kids can't speak dialect. This has caused children in singapore to be unable to communicate with their grandparents.
Man, if only gaining the benefits of capitalism without losing totalitarianism hadn't caused all the illegal immigration (eggnoglatte, here I am kidding), many more people would want to live in Singapore.
Yeah, I can't think of how many people want to live Singapore...
Try external USB drives. They sell 1.5 terabyte versions for a mere $100 now, so you get a years worth of bandwidth, assuming all you do is download things for storage purposes, for the cost of a really good date.
Lets do some more math.
If you use comcast, and can use 250 GB per month, you can get 20 times as much bandwidth as dialup, for only 12 times the price.
The real issue, of course, is that providing 100 times the bandwidth of dialup wouldn't cost comcast twice the price of dialup. We should be paying $12 per month for a terabyte of bandwidth, which would give comcast a 20% profit, which no reasonable company would turn down. Comcast doesnt do this because people are willing to pay $60 a month ofr 2-3 GB of bandwidth. If comcast doesnt lose 95% of their market by chargingf $60 instead of $12, they have no reason to lower their prices, ever.
Except that all of that is irrelevant to the fact that mental illness is overdiagnosed. The people who actually have problems aren't being ignored. Those are generally obvious, and the ones that aren't can still tell that something isnt quite right. If it was just borderline cases that were overprescribed, I would be OK with it. Its the ones who don't have issues but get medication that are the problem.
I went to public school and was socially inept. Luckily, my parents were smart enough to recognize that I was just smarter than my peers, not mentally incompetent. This probably happened because my father is a psychiatrist, not a psychologist.
Its not because a company makes money that kids should go off drugs. Its because they dont need drugs.
Do you move on 1 day's notice? Nowadays, when you sign the contract to move to a new place, you sign up for cable/internet weeks in advance, so the same day the movers bring your stuff over, comcast/AT&T/whoever shows up in the same window. You are gonna be around 2-3 hours minimum (and likely 5-6) on a move anyway, so so you have everything by the time your bed is set up and you take a nap to recuperate from the stress of the day. Of course, these days, if you have internet, you have no need for cable anyway.
No, we don't define gender as feminine vs masculine, despite what you think you learned in your intro to feminist philosophy class in community college. Gender is a defined class of replacement nouns, pronouns, etc; like to replace "the man" with "he." Gender is the construct difference between male and female. In other words, male and female are definitions of gender. So you seem to have it backwards, my assumption was that gender means male, not the other way around. I correctly use the assumption that the Y-chromosome is part of the definition of how you define gender, because it is true. Granted, it doesn't fit when I refer to "my ship" as "she", but I would refer to "the person with the Y chromosome" as "him," even in a statistical sample of Y-chromosomes for gender. Then again, in the quote you have ignored twice now even though you reproduce, I also explicitly state that y-chromosome does not necessarily = male [Sex isn't male (neither are y-chromosomes)].
You won't have a very good career in debating, because the first of debating is dont quote people and then come up with improper assumptions about what those quotes mean, because if the person you are debating isn't retarded, you will embarrass yourself.
At any rate, we got on this tangent because you brought it up.
Here is the breakdown:
- You brought up the example
- I explained why your example didn't work
- You went off on a tangent
- I briefly pointed why you were wrong
- You quoted me, reached an impossible conclusion regarding my assumptions, misinterperated the result of those false assumption regarding my assumptions, and then pointed out that you don't know what means, complaining that we somehow got off on a tangent
- I responded again, and now am waiting to see how you screw this one up
On a tangent here, if you randomly CAPITALIZE WORDS in the middle of a TYPED sentence, it doesn't strengthen or or emphasize points of your argument, it just makes you look immature and unsure of your points. Certainly, no one is going to take anything you say more seriously for it, especially because that behavior generally means that you are wrong. Stop doing that if you want to be taken seriously.
Thats probably because everytime people go to costco, they spend about $300. You have to expect large bills if you take cash. Ignore the outliers who go to get a $3, pedantic people.
Nope, you are also wrong, because they situation you describe is not the original question. Read it again, I'm getting depressed at how many people on slashdot don't get simple things.
The question is 1 coin is heads, what is the probability that the other coin is heads. In other words, your girlfriend is pregnant. What are the odds that my girlfriend is also pregnant? Since we have never met each other, it doesn't matter if you never use birth control, or if you and your girlfriend enter into as many orgies as you can find, and you sleep with homeless people in the hopes of getting knocked up. It doesn't affect my girlfriend if you never sleep with her. Since one coin is heads, it doesn't matter that tails-tails exists. Tails-tails doesn't exist in the question, because one coin is heads (just like one of our girlfriends is pregnant, and by definition of different coins, we are dating different people). After one coin is heads, the other coin is random, just like flipping any coin (dont be pedantic, you arent flipping a double sided coin, except for the first coin, which could be coin #2, because one coin is guaranteed to be heads, it's not random, whereas the other is random). If you think that a coin that is required to be heads could be tails, then while every life is precious, your death would not be a loss to humanity.
While I have made it as stupidly simple as it should get, lets look another way.
You have 2 coins. One of them is heads. Lets call the coins coin 1 and coin 2. If coin 1 is heads, then coin 2 is not affected by coin 1, and has a 50% chance of being heads or tails. This makes the overall outcome either heads-tails or heads-heads. If coin 2 is guaranteed to be heads, than the outcomes are either tails-heads or heads-heads. Oh look the overall odds of heads-heads are 50%, like I have explained on 6 occasions in the past 24 hours, you (most insulting thing you can think of here).
How can all of you be this stupid. Read, think, and then don't post, because dammit, you are wrong.
Answer this: If you flip one coin, what are the odds of heads? If you say anything other than 50%, lets meet in person so I can money off you.
I'm done with this, I'm not responding to anyone else, and for fucks sake, all of you better hire an accountant, because if you cant figure this shit out, you sure as hell can't figure out your taxes.
I didn't say a Y chromosome was guaranteed to produce a male (nevermind that I explicitly stated that Y chromosome does not = male), I said it was statistically significant; if you haven't been paying attention, it just means that its unlikely to have occurred by chance. Outliers exist, it doesn't make them your expectation. For example, the average history major at UNC for class of 1983 starts out at over 200k per year, but not if you take Michael Jordan out of the sample. On the other hand, while a red car could end up actually being a waffle house, we don't assume that the average objective viewer is high on crystal meth and shrooms.
Biologically, sex is caused by hormones, not f(x). Its also not caused by a fuckload of a complicated system. Also, no one reads the article because it's almost always wrong, which is why we a forum in the first place (so we can argue about why it's wrong).
By the way, most model Ts are Georgia Tech Old Gold, not black (if they aren't, I dont care, most that still drive are). Try again if you want, but please actually read my response beforehand.
No. Just no. You are wrong.
How do you not get this and still have figured out how to use a computer?
Dear G-d, its a simple question. You flip a coin, its either heads or tails with equal probability. The other coin is already heads. Move on.
If you insist on screwing it up and claiming that the second coin was the one that had to be heads, than the first coin still had a 50% chance being heads or tails while the second coin had the 100% chance of being heads. If you don't get it now, don't post again.
You are still wrong. It doesnt matter if it is coin A or coin B, one of them is already heads. We are asking about the probability of the other coin. Stop trying to answer a different question, because that is not the issue. You are wrong, I am done with you.
No.
You are calculating the odds of the other one being also heads, predicated on the first being heads. The order doesn't matter.
You flip 2 coins. One of them is heads. There is no probability of it not being heads. Therefore, the odds of the other one being heads are not affected.
You should try learning english, its a great language once you get the hand of it.
That would be incorrect for multiple reasons, nevermind that you cant have a continuous youtube video be an hour and a half in length.
We have to assume that one of the coins is heads, as is prefaced in the original question, and then flip the other. Under that condition, just send me the $1000.
Just acknowledge that you are wrong, and move on with your life.
Realize that flipping 2 coins is the same thing as flipping one coin twice. The problem with your logic is that one of the coins has to be heads. If you flip coin X and find that it is tails, you can't claim that coin Y must be heads unless you flip it. This would mean that the results of one flip affect another, which is not true.
Run coins X and Y seperately, keep the values of each flip as a trial. This way, the outscome of coin X doesn't affect the outcome of coin Y, even though we assume that at least one of them will land on heads (it just can't occur because the other does or does not). Search each trial as an if statement for a running total with the following score modifiers;
Start each trial by searching by X:
if X = 1, Y = 0 == fail (-1)
if X = 1, Y = 1 == success (+1)
repeat for Y:
if Y = 1, X = 0 == fail (-1)
if Y = 1, X = 1 == success (+1)
Thus, your results will show
X = 1, Y = 0 will equal (-1)
X = 1, Y = 1 will equal (+2)
If X = 0, Y = 0 will equal 0 *no heads means no trial*
if X = 0, Y = 1 will equal (-1)
Your running score should not be statistically significantly different from 0 (depending on your confidence level) to show that in a continous trial, the odds of both coins landing on heads provided that at least one of them lands on heads is 50%.
To simplify this for you, one of the coins has to be heads. Therefore, you start with one coin heads and dont worry about its outcome (because it has to be heads). It cant change. It doesn't matter if you start with the first coin being heads or the second coin being heads, as long as one of them is predetermined to be heads, and you flip the other. The simplified problem is simply what are the probabilities associated with the flipped coin (that doesnt necessarily have to be heads). Its the same question as - If the next car that comes down the street is primarily red, what is the probability that the next coin flip is heads? You are trying to claim that flipping the coin and getting heads or tails will change the color of the car coming down the street, when we already prefaced that we know what color it is.
If you don't get this, I can't help you.
Swing and a miss.
This is the original wording: "If I flip two coins and one of them is heads, what are the odds the other one is also heads?" It does help to understand the question before you try to solve the answer.
If you find that coin X is tails, you dont know that one of the flips is heads. You can't use the data unless you already also know that coin Y is heads. You have to start with either coin X or coin Y is known to be heads. Then you flip the other and see if its heads or tails.
Sorry, but you are wrong.
Fix your code, you will see that it is 50% chance of two heads and 50% chance of 1 heads, 1 tails.
That is not true.
Run your program, and you will see that it is 50%. For the same reasons that I have pointed out repeatedly. You are also wrong. This was not the original question. However, if you know that one of the coins hits heads by default, you dont know which one, and order in this case would matter.
Therefore, reread any of my posts, run your program, and apologize.
Of course I think that you are that stupid. You think that when you flip 2 coins, and one of them is heads, there is 1/3 chance that the other will be heads.
No, you dumb fuck.
There are 4 possibilities where one of the two is heads.
Either flip 1 is heads, or flip 2 is heads.
If flip 1 is heads, there are two options:
Flip 2 can be heads, or flip 2 can be tails
If flip 2 is heads there are two options:
Flip 1 can be heads, or flip 1 can be tails
The 4 options are therefore:
Heads-Heads (flip 1 is known to be heads)
Heads-Heads (flip 2 is known to be heads)
Heads-Tails (flip 1 is known to be heads)
Tails-Heads (flip 2 is known to be heads)
Therefore, if one of the flips is known to be heads, there is a 50% chance of the other being heads.
Still dont believe me?
Videotape yourself flipping 2 coins as many times as you like (at least 1000 times). For every time that one of the flips of the two is heads, and the other is tails, I will pay you $1
For every time that one of the flips is heads, and the other is tails, you will pay me $1.25. Any time it is tails-tails, no one pays anyone anything.
If you are right, you should profit an average of $18.75 per 1000 flips. Since I'm right, let know how much you lose, let me know youve got the unedited video, and Ill let you know where to send the certified check.
There are two possibilities here
1 - You are a troll, in which case, no one loves you, not even your mother
2 - Your are the dumbest person to ever post on /., and you need a 3rd grader to explain to you how to read.
If 2 is the case, please notice that the prereq is that one of the flips must be heads.Therefore, tails-tails is not a viable choice, because neither is heads, and you know that one of them must be heads. I have already explained this on 3 occassions.
If you respond again, it better be an apology for wasting my time and recognition of how daft you are, along with proof that you have signed up for a statistics course and a remedial logic course at your local community college.
Thats not the question.
This was the question:
If I flip two coins and one of them is heads, what are the odds the other one is also heads?
Try reading back through the posts next time. The wording is important, and you got it wrong.
Of course not. Are you illiterate?
Thought experiment 1 - this would be a significant finding, provided that you did not ask how many days have passed as the number you are asked for; if you ask for a number and they respond in a pattern, that is a significant finding. It would be statistically significant, however, that patterns are used if you instruct the person to follow such a specific pattern, because you removed the opportunity for variablity by your instruction. You dont have a random sample if there is no variability in a population. I already covered this.
A sample, on the other hand, would not be one person responding with a number day after day after day; rather it would at least be hundreds (if not thousands) if you wish to extrapolate to the population (either people or numbers). You can't do it with 1 data point.
Your third paragraph is confusing, because it is a paraphrase of what I said, only it doesn't fit with everything else you say in your reply.
Second thought experiment - Sex isn't male (neither are y-chromosomes), you are thinking of gender. Regardless, you would find a statistically significant relationship between males having a y-chromosome, because its part of the definition of how you define gender. This would be like sampling a population of red cars to determine if they are red.
Try coming up with a population that has variability, so that taking a sample makes sense, and you will see that statistical significance matters.