There is one thing that makes the case in article not so clear. The mandatory 2 year EU warranty is not provided by the maker of a product but by a vendor.
Producer warranty can be "whatever" and is not regulated. Vendor warranty is regulated and is 2 years mandatory.
Now in case when Apple is selling through their own Apple store the law applies, but if it's sold through 3rd party Apple does not have to offer any warranty - the reseller does.
Friend, I'm betting some ignorant clod standing at the dock in Spain in the 17th century, said "There goes that Columbus whack-o-doodle, sailing off the edge of the world, I hope a great big fat sea monster swallows him whole." He redefined what was possible for being human.
At Columbus' times it was common knowledge that the world is round and size of the Earth was calculated by Erastothenes with 2% error 1500 years earlier.
Columbus didn't get rejected because he believed the world is round - he believed that it's 2/3 smaller and Asia spans much farther to the east - he believed the distance to Asia is about the actual distance to Americas.
He only got lucky when he encountered an unknown continent just as the supplies were running out and he never accepted that the lands he sailed to are not Asia.
There's one important caveat: no "new" gold enters the system.
When someone buys the pet for real money and someone else buys it for gold, that gold was already present in the game, it was not "created" by the real money transaction.
I wouldn't go as far as that. Ignoring the things like psalms or rules the law, I'd say that some biblical events can be compared to the Illiad - events could be historical (at least in part), but wrapped in mystical narrative. AFAIR according to our current knowledge most of early books (e.g. Exodus) are not actual historical events, but some can be (e.g. king David existence or events from book of Esther).
To clarify what I mean as "non-procreation sex": contraceptives are sin, oral sex is a sin, anything that wouldn't result in fertilization during ovulation is a sin.
Some doctrines see this differently (e.g. in Eastern Orthodox contraceptives are allowed, not sure about Protestant/Evangelism etc) but in general - most things related to sexuality are sin.
Not the way I interpret it. OP is using Pascal's wager trying to present the choice of faith as a logical outcome the following options: "you win eternal prize and lose nothing", "you are damned and gain nothing during your life" and "there is nothing afterwards and you lose nothing"
This ignores
- there are other deity options, so "eternal prize" is not guaranteed if you follow Christian religion
- you do give up quite a lot if you follow Christian religion - some might feel that the option of having sex in other purpose than having children is quite important. Non-procreation sex is a sin in Catholic doctrine (yes, even in marriage), possibly in other Christian doctrines too
- will God accept your "I believe just in case" belief as genuine if he exists?
Just like Christians stake their eternal future on the presumption that if God exists, it's the God from the bible (or rather their interpretation of it). They live their whole lives doing what their interpretation of the bible supports, and rejecting the concept that there could be anyone or anything different. If they are wrong, and there turns out to be a judgement day ruled by different deity they will spend eternity burning in other version of hell.
Similarly, I can't enjoy a $1000 bottle of wine any more than a $100 bottle; but that's no reason to say that a $100 bottle of wine is just as good as the $1000 wine because the vast majority can't tell the difference.
Assuming that 100$ and 1000$ wine have some other differences apart from price. But I know a few people who, given the exactly same liquid and being told that one is 10 times more expensive, would find out many differences between them and genuinely believe in it.
Last time I checked, there was no fast way to report a spammer, you have to click 3 or 4 times and be redirected to different pages before having just one message successfully reported.
That must have been long time ago. Now you have "report spam" link right by the thread summary (you don't have to even open the thread) and at each message that doesn't result in opening new window/following the link.
The way Battle.net accounts are currently set up, if you receive a suspension on a World of Warcraft account attached to that Battle.net account, it has no affect on any other World of Warcraft accounts that may also be attached.
So when did Poland get a proper government? The government that ruled Poland for decades after WW" was a continuation of that government
.
In 1991, when there were first democratic elections. Before that were elections in 1989, but the communists were guaranteed 65% of places in the parliament at that time
"While most of the ethnic German population of pre-war Poland fled or was expelled, some were "rehabilitated" and offered their pre-war Polish citizenship back.[94] "Rehabilitation" was offered to people who had been subject to forced labour before, spoke Polish and were rated as not constituting a threat"
So some Germans were given Polish citizenship
Yes, after Poland regained independence and was no longer a Soviet satellite country. And could decide for itself.
If you say that it doesn't count, because Poland back then was influenced by the Soviets, then you could conveniently brush aside any of the possible bad things that happened during communist era and say "there was no independent Poland, Poland regained their independence when USSR fell".
Poland wasn't "influenced" by Soviets - it was ruled by Soviets. Officials (including "president" - the title was different) were appointed by Soviets. Polish government have to get approval for virtually anything from Soviet communist party and had to perform whatever they requested. There were Soviet military bases in Poland till 90s. So I'm not going to brush away "any" possible bad thing (there were, and still are, strong anti-Jew sentiments for example), but things ordered by the government (so in fact by Soviet communist party) hell yeah.
Because I was quoting the part that supported my point? The fact that many Poles helped Germans after WW2 does not change the fact that many Poles abused Germans after the war.
There was no Polish government when the deportations were performed. "Polish" government waselected in elections staged by Soviets and legitimate Polish leaders were kidnapped from UK and sentenced in phony trials or murdered by NKVD.
"Polish" army was controlled by Red Army generals.
You make it sound as if Poland was independent country after the war - it wasn't - it was a Soviet puppet country. Likewise, German people couldn't be offered Polish citizenship (even if Polish people would agree, Soviet government wouldn't).
I'm not saying that Polish people didn't take part in that - many did - I'm saying that it wasn't organized and ordered by Poland.
And why didn't you quote whole paragraph but omitted last sentence?
"The attitude of Polish civilians, many of whom had experienced brutalities only surpassed by the treatment of the Jews during the preceding Nazi occupation, was ambiguous.[12] Many engaged in looting, robberies, beatings and even murders and rapes.[12] On the other hand, there were incidents when Poles, even freed slave labourers, protected Germans by e.g. disguising them as Poles.[12]"
"We" in this context is the Polish nation and/or government.
It's quite dishonest to claim that the expulsions were done by the Russians, and Poland had nothing to do with it.
But they were done by the Soviets. USSR had decided on the new borders and decided that all the Germans have to move to new Eastern Germany country, just as Polish citizens were displaced from lands to the east which were used to form Latvia, Belarus and Ukraine subrepublics of USSR (not independent countries).
Poland was shifted to the west by about 50% of its area (i.e. after the war eastern border moved to roughly middle of the pre-war country and western area was moved the same distance). The people from "old" Poland were moved to new "one" - they were as much mistreated as Germans moving to "new" Germany.
Does that make it OK for them to mistreat others in return? Is it OK to mistreat Germans because some other Germans did some shitty things?
You're asking wrong nation. We didn't have anything to say about new borders and moving the population (both Polish and German). It was decided and done by USSR and their troops.
Poland, as in Polish people did not drive out anyone. USSR did, together with USA and UK - they decided in http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Yalta_Conference on our new borders, moved Polish citizens from our pre-war territory and moved German citizens to new German Democratic Republic. We didn't have anything to say about it.
Slashdot Mirror
Producer warranty can be "whatever" and is not regulated. Vendor warranty is regulated and is 2 years mandatory.
Now in case when Apple is selling through their own Apple store the law applies, but if it's sold through 3rd party Apple does not have to offer any warranty - the reseller does.
Friend, I'm betting some ignorant clod standing at the dock in Spain in the 17th century, said "There goes that Columbus whack-o-doodle, sailing off the edge of the world, I hope a great big fat sea monster swallows him whole." He redefined what was possible for being human.
At Columbus' times it was common knowledge that the world is round and size of the Earth was calculated by Erastothenes with 2% error 1500 years earlier.
Columbus didn't get rejected because he believed the world is round - he believed that it's 2/3 smaller and Asia spans much farther to the east - he believed the distance to Asia is about the actual distance to Americas.
He only got lucky when he encountered an unknown continent just as the supplies were running out and he never accepted that the lands he sailed to are not Asia.
There's one important caveat: no "new" gold enters the system. When someone buys the pet for real money and someone else buys it for gold, that gold was already present in the game, it was not "created" by the real money transaction.
I wouldn't go as far as that. Ignoring the things like psalms or rules the law, I'd say that some biblical events can be compared to the Illiad - events could be historical (at least in part), but wrapped in mystical narrative. AFAIR according to our current knowledge most of early books (e.g. Exodus) are not actual historical events, but some can be (e.g. king David existence or events from book of Esther).
I don't know. I'm just saying that not all religions see the Bible and evolution as mutually exclusive.
Literal interpretation of Genesis is mostly a thing of few Evangelical churches in USA. Most other denominations see it as allegory.
Only because he was attacked by Hitler. Before that they cooperated very closely and attacked Poland together.
Some doctrines see this differently (e.g. in Eastern Orthodox contraceptives are allowed, not sure about Protestant/Evangelism etc) but in general - most things related to sexuality are sin.
This ignores
- there are other deity options, so "eternal prize" is not guaranteed if you follow Christian religion
- you do give up quite a lot if you follow Christian religion - some might feel that the option of having sex in other purpose than having children is quite important. Non-procreation sex is a sin in Catholic doctrine (yes, even in marriage), possibly in other Christian doctrines too
- will God accept your "I believe just in case" belief as genuine if he exists?
Just like Christians stake their eternal future on the presumption that if God exists, it's the God from the bible (or rather their interpretation of it). They live their whole lives doing what their interpretation of the bible supports, and rejecting the concept that there could be anyone or anything different. If they are wrong, and there turns out to be a judgement day ruled by different deity they will spend eternity burning in other version of hell.
Yeah, and these are all in the same language. We probably have no way to interpret it the way the authors intended.
Why don't you follow your own advice and look what's actually in the text?
A few examples from http://bible.cc/ezekiel/4-12.htm :
New International Version (©1984)
Eat the food as you would a barley cake; bake it in the sight of the people, using human excrement for fuel."
New Living Translation (©2007)
Prepare and eat this food as you would barley cakes. While all the people are watching, bake it over a fire using dried human dung as fuel and then eat the bread."
English Standard Version (©2001)
And you shall eat it as a barley cake, baking it in their sight on human dung.”
New American Standard Bible (©1995)
"You shall eat it as a barley cake, having baked it in their sight over human dung."
GOD'S WORD® Translation (©1995)
Eat the bread as you would eat barley loaves. Bake the bread in front of people, using human excrement for fuel."
King James Bible
And thou shalt eat it as barley cakes, and thou shalt bake it with dung that cometh out of man, in their sight.
You mean the false one?
He missed one crucial combination - does drunk Nico, drunk player cancel each other out?
Similarly, I can't enjoy a $1000 bottle of wine any more than a $100 bottle; but that's no reason to say that a $100 bottle of wine is just as good as the $1000 wine because the vast majority can't tell the difference.
Assuming that 100$ and 1000$ wine have some other differences apart from price. But I know a few people who, given the exactly same liquid and being told that one is 10 times more expensive, would find out many differences between them and genuinely believe in it.
It must be some some african-internet hybrid volcano, it is already splitting the article about itself in two.
Last time I checked, there was no fast way to report a spammer, you have to click 3 or 4 times and be redirected to different pages before having just one message successfully reported.
That must have been long time ago. Now you have "report spam" link right by the thread summary (you don't have to even open the thread) and at each message that doesn't result in opening new window/following the link.
The way Battle.net accounts are currently set up, if you receive a suspension on a World of Warcraft account attached to that Battle.net account, it has no affect on any other World of Warcraft accounts that may also be attached.
Source: http://forums.worldofwarcraft.com/thread.html?topicId=20464488049&pageNo=2&sid=1#39
So when did Poland get a proper government? The government that ruled Poland for decades after WW" was a continuation of that government
.
In 1991, when there were first democratic elections. Before that were elections in 1989, but the communists were guaranteed 65% of places in the parliament at that time
"While most of the ethnic German population of pre-war Poland fled or was expelled, some were "rehabilitated" and offered their pre-war Polish citizenship back.[94] "Rehabilitation" was offered to people who had been subject to forced labour before, spoke Polish and were rated as not constituting a threat"
So some Germans were given Polish citizenship
Yes, after Poland regained independence and was no longer a Soviet satellite country. And could decide for itself.
If you say that it doesn't count, because Poland back then was influenced by the Soviets, then you could conveniently brush aside any of the possible bad things that happened during communist era and say "there was no independent Poland, Poland regained their independence when USSR fell".
Poland wasn't "influenced" by Soviets - it was ruled by Soviets. Officials (including "president" - the title was different) were appointed by Soviets. Polish government have to get approval for virtually anything from Soviet communist party and had to perform whatever they requested. There were Soviet military bases in Poland till 90s. So I'm not going to brush away "any" possible bad thing (there were, and still are, strong anti-Jew sentiments for example), but things ordered by the government (so in fact by Soviet communist party) hell yeah.
Because I was quoting the part that supported my point? The fact that many Poles helped Germans after WW2 does not change the fact that many Poles abused Germans after the war.
Good, you can admit we weren't only bad guys ;)
"Polish" army was controlled by Red Army generals.
You make it sound as if Poland was independent country after the war - it wasn't - it was a Soviet puppet country. Likewise, German people couldn't be offered Polish citizenship (even if Polish people would agree, Soviet government wouldn't).
I'm not saying that Polish people didn't take part in that - many did - I'm saying that it wasn't organized and ordered by Poland.
And why didn't you quote whole paragraph but omitted last sentence?
"The attitude of Polish civilians, many of whom had experienced brutalities only surpassed by the treatment of the Jews during the preceding Nazi occupation, was ambiguous.[12] Many engaged in looting, robberies, beatings and even murders and rapes.[12] On the other hand, there were incidents when Poles, even freed slave labourers, protected Germans by e.g. disguising them as Poles.[12]"
It's quite dishonest to claim that the expulsions were done by the Russians, and Poland had nothing to do with it.
But they were done by the Soviets. USSR had decided on the new borders and decided that all the Germans have to move to new Eastern Germany country, just as Polish citizens were displaced from lands to the east which were used to form Latvia, Belarus and Ukraine subrepublics of USSR (not independent countries). Poland was shifted to the west by about 50% of its area (i.e. after the war eastern border moved to roughly middle of the pre-war country and western area was moved the same distance). The people from "old" Poland were moved to new "one" - they were as much mistreated as Germans moving to "new" Germany.
Does that make it OK for them to mistreat others in return? Is it OK to mistreat Germans because some other Germans did some shitty things?
You're asking wrong nation. We didn't have anything to say about new borders and moving the population (both Polish and German). It was decided and done by USSR and their troops.
Poland, as in Polish people did not drive out anyone. USSR did, together with USA and UK - they decided in http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Yalta_Conference on our new borders, moved Polish citizens from our pre-war territory and moved German citizens to new German Democratic Republic. We didn't have anything to say about it.
http://penny-arcade.com/comic/2009/6/5/
That's because American cities were designed like that from the start. Try one of older European cities which just "grew": Gliwice