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The Poincaré Conjecture has Been Proved

Martin Dunwoody, a famous mathematician who works in the field of topology has a preprint that provides a proof of the Poincaré conjecture. This was one of the seven Clay Mathematics Institute millenium prize problems (reported on Slashdot here). The solution to each of the problems carries a monetary reward of 1 million dollars. However there are a number of conditions that still need to be met for the prize to be awarded in the case of the Poincaré conjecture.

88 of 299 comments (clear)

  1. Wierd Problem by KagatoLNX · · Score: 3, Interesting

    If you follow the link to the description of the problem, it gets really wierd. Apparently this is one of those problems where you have to prove it for 1=7} but no one ever managed n=3 (which was the original, non-generalized conjecture anyways). Funny that this guy just had to fill in the last blank.

    --
    I think Mauve has the most RAM. --PHB (Dilbert Comic)
    1. Re:Wierd Problem by leviramsey · · Score: 2, Informative
      seems rather an inelegant way to make a general proof; general proof for n>=5, the seperate proofs for n=1, n=2, n=3 and n=4. Does this new proof just do n=3, or is it a _nice_ general proof?

      I see no inelegance to this method. One of the steps in the general proof may only work if n>=5. This does not mean that the general proof is invalid.

      Essentially, the same method underlies inductive proof (e.g. a general proof that holds for n>s, and a demonstration that n=s combine to n>=s).

    2. Re:Wierd Problem by Gary+Yngve · · Score: 3, Funny

      Without reading the preprint, I cannot say (not that I could understand it anyway :) ). But it wouldn't surprise me if the proof was just for 3.

      R^3 is kind of a magical place. R^2 might not have enough wiggling room, but R^4 might have too much. There exists a cross product in only R^3.

    3. Re:Wierd Problem by splorf · · Score: 2, Informative
      Here's some further info on the Poincare conjecture.

      This proof does just d=3 and it's interesting that it's essentially combinatorial. Smale's proof for d>=5 was based on differential topology, a grand and beautiful branch of pure higher math. Freedman's proof for d=4 used Yang-Mills theory developed in particle physics. d=3 looks like essentially a computer scientist's proof.

      Disclaimer: I don't understand this stuff in any detail--these remarks are based on looking at the preprint and remembering stuff that I heard in math class long ago. Also, I think I'll wait to hear what the math community says, before believing the problem is really finally solved.

    4. Re:Wierd Problem by avsed · · Score: 2, Informative

      No, one can have a cross (outer) product in any number of dimensions, just as one can have an inner ("dot") product in any number of dimensions. Tensor calculus is the generalisation of ordinary geometric calculus that describes this.

      Dan

    5. Re:Wierd Problem by crawling_chaos · · Score: 2
      This is an inductive proof. Anyone who finds the technique inelegant better worry, since pretty much the entire field of Computer Science is held up by similiar "inelegant" logic.

      Come to think of it, most of Abstract Algebra is as well. Someone want to help me out here? I only audited AA at eight in the morning and dated a math major. I wasn't paying much attention to math on either occasion.

      --
      You can only drink 30 or 40 glasses of beer a day, no matter how rich you are.
      -- Colonel Adolphus Busch
    6. Re:Wierd Problem by Shaheen · · Score: 2

      Lots of problems are like this. Namely, every NP-Complete problem is like this.

      You can prove that a problem is NP-Complete by restating the problem as a polynomial-time manipulation of another problem. Sort of like "if the red marbles in this problem are considered the nodes of the tree in this other problem, then I can say this because I know something about red marbles."

      In this case, n > 3 is simply a problem that can be stated as a manipulation of n = 3.

      --
      You should never take life too seriously - You'll never get out of it alive.
    7. Re:Wierd Problem by caffeined · · Score: 2, Informative

      Yes, the proof is only for n=3. Poincare's original conjecture was only for n=3, but was later extended to be for all n. The other cases have been proven already, so this proof takes care of the remaining (original) case.

      If you're interested in reading up on it a bit, the link in the original post to "http://mathworld.wolfram.com/PoincareConjecture.h tml" is excellent. (And it's where I learned the above stuff about the various cases.

      --
      Sigh. My id isn't prime. 2 2 2 2 2 3 5 313
    8. Re:Wierd Problem by BlowCat · · Score: 2

      That site doesn't define 3-manifold and 3-sphere. Is it a 3D sphere in 4D or a 2D sphepe in 3D? It it's the former, then the result hardly has any practical use, since we live in 3D and mostly deal with 2D manifolds :-)

    9. Re:Wierd Problem by SIGFPE · · Score: 2

      If by cross product you mean a bilinear map (a,b)-> a x b on some vector space where the product is orthogonal to the arguments and |a x b|^2+(a.b)^2=|a|^2|b|^2 then you may be surprised to hear that there are many cross products in dimension 7. They come from the octonions, the non-associative 8D generalisation of the quaternions. See here.

      --
      -- SIGFPE
    10. Re:Wierd Problem by colmore · · Score: 2

      3 dimensional spaces are exceptionally strange. there are a large number of theorems that have trivial proofs for 1 or 2 dimensional spaces, and work out very easily for 4 or more, but for some reason, 3-space is highly irregular.

      My knowledge of topology isn't terribly deep, so you'll have to ask others for more info.

      --
      In Capitalist America, bank robs you!
    11. Re:Wierd Problem by mreece · · Score: 2

      Uh... sort of. First of all, the cross product isn't just any outer product, it's an antisymmetrised one, more of a wedge product than a tensor product. Anyhow, you can certainly do similar things in other dimensions, but the objects you get won't all be "of the same type", in a loose way of speaking. Somewhat more precisely, only in 3 dimensions do we have that the spaces of 1-forms and 2-forms have the same dimension, so that if a and b are one forms, (a /\ b) can be somehow identified with another one form. Even in 3 dimensions there really isn't a canonical way to do this, which is why cross products end up needing an orientation (the whole right-hand rule thing, which is rather arbitrary).

      --
      Matt Reece
    12. Re:Wierd Problem by Gary+Yngve · · Score: 2

      Sure, and by the Celebrated Theorem of Froebenius, there is no such thing in a higher dimension. :)

    13. Re:Wierd Problem by Gary+Yngve · · Score: 2

      Whew, it's been a long time since I've taken algebra... Froebenius's result just applies to associative division algebras. Octonions are the only other finite-dimensional real division algebra.

      http://mathworld.wolfram.com/DivisionAlgebra.htm l

  2. now I've seen it all by squidinkcalligraphy · · Score: 3, Funny

    The Poincaré Conjecture proved, and microsoft ads on slashdot

    --
    "I think it would be a good idea" Gandhi, on Western Civilisation
  3. Re:teacup == donut by Quirk · · Score: 2, Funny

    Charles Dodgson, somewhere thru the looking glass, is at tea with the Mad Hatter discussing this very matter.

    :)
    --
    "Academicians are more likely to share each other's toothbrush than each other's nomenclature."
    Cohen
  4. Let's wait on calling it "proved" by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 2, Informative

    Nothing is proven until it is peer reviewed and published in a prestigious journal, and then it must to be out there for some time before it is truly accepted. Also, there may be a mistake that throws the proof off for a few years.

  5. Re:What's the problem? by psavo · · Score: 2, Insightful

    Interesting stuff.
    isn't it 'better' to not think about rubberband at outer surface bat at 'outer rim'. At about below surface of apple/doughnut?
    Then one will see that in apple rubberband (even in 3D) is convexish (I mean infinitely thin rubberband), but in doughnut, there is no way to see some part of rubberband unless it's quantized.
    Same applies fo 'standard' universe and with one which has a 'pen'-hole which goes straight through rubberband (some odds for that..).

    --
    fucktard is a tenderhearted description
  6. Re:What's the problem? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 5, Informative

    You show great skill at cut & pasting from http://www.claymath.org/prizeproblems/poincare.htm : )

    Just kidding. Go ahead, enjoy the cut & paste karma.

  7. Re:What's the problem? by Gary+Yngve · · Score: 2

    Here's an algebraic topology version of the problem:

    Given a simply connected tetrahedral mesh, show that the mesh can be collapsed by topologically invariant operations to a single tetrahedron.

  8. Re:Proof by bentini · · Score: 4, Insightful

    Wow. I wish I could highlight a section of your post to point out as being wrong as you did the the grandparent. Unforutnately, I can't. You're wrong all throughout.

    First, how do you show something is proven? Well, you give a proof. How do I know the proof is correct? I work through all the steps... But what if I mess up and sneeze and my thinking gets confused and I accept something that isn't true? It could happen. Well, I'll just push it through a formal logic computer program that checks it.
    But what if the computer has a glitch and a 0 or a 1 gets accepted. Or worse, I made the error while programming the formal logic system. Or more subtly, the compiler or hardware.

    Basically, it's like this, proofs are as much a social event as a mathematical cedrtainty. Proofs are presented, and believed, and then refuted. Mathematical proof is a social process carried on by mathamaticians, and you can't forget that. I'm sure that I've proved things incorrectly before, and believed them. Just because nobody's found an error in a published and accepted proof doesn't mean one doesn't exist. If you think that humans can do ANYTHING with probability 1, you're sorely mistaken and are seeing the world in too convenient terms.

    Sorry to burst your bubble, but there's a lot of thinking in this. Peer review does not imply flawlessness.

  9. Re:What's the problem? by metlin · · Score: 3, Informative

    Which is exactly what they've done in the paper. They've depicted on how the mesh could possibly collapse.

    They have depicted an 8-gon curve which satisfies the intersection properties, extrapolate using a 2 vertex model and use that to show the possible collapse. They've not depicted the collapse per-se in action tho. :-(

  10. For 1=7 by XNormal · · Score: 2

    You can prove anything :-)

    --
    Stop worrying about the risks of nuclear power and start worrying about the risks of not using nuclear power.
    1. Re:For 1=7 by streetlawyer · · Score: 2

      Strange how the proof of your existence causes me to immediately doubt the existence of "your girlfriend".

  11. Re:Proof by mizhi · · Score: 2

    Isn't this just Godel's theorem? That in any axiomatic schema, there will be certain propositions that can not be proven within it.

    --
    Humorless sig goes here.
  12. Re:In related news.... 4 = 5 by Rhinobird · · Score: 2, Funny

    oh sure you can, but then winston churchill becomes a carrot...and other such nonsense.

    --
    If Mr. Edison had thought smarter he wouldn't sweat as much. --Nikola Tesla
  13. Re:Well.. by danielrose · · Score: 2, Informative

    I don't get it, what is so difficult? Here is one more time for you slow guys:

    The n = 1 case of the generalized conjecture is trivial, the n = 2 case is classical, n = 3 remains open, n = 4 was proved by Freedman (1982) (for which he was awarded the 1986 Fields medal), n = 5 by Zeeman (1961), n = 6 by Stallings (1962), and n >= 7 by Smale in 1961. Smale subsequently extended his proof to include n >= 5.

    Now what part doesn't make sense? *efg*

    --
    i hate pansy republicans
  14. Blind faith in Mathematics by ynotds · · Score: 2, Insightful

    I write this as a reformed Mathematician of sorts, which is analogous to being a reformed smoker ... the expectations that half an education in Math gives as to the existence of right and wrong answers sure looks ugly once you can escape its grip.

    And faith in Mathematical proof is counterproductive at a level beyond that ... it hides the beautiful truth that Math is something that can be joyously explored in its multitudinous riches without any need for the reality checking of the (would be) sciences.

    Personally I have come to see both Math and Science (or more strictly the scientific method) as but potent toolsets, and to confine my own quest for more profound truths to those "interdisciplinary" comparisons that have been called anything from "complex systems" to "general evolution".

    This step is a bit like the step from geometry to topology which has clearly escaped the wit of the moderator who took offense at a not quite successful attempt to make something funny out of teacups and donuts.

    --
    -- Our systemic servants do not good masters make.
  15. proof has been announced by call+-151 · · Score: 5, Insightful
    Normally it take a while for a proof to be verified- a better title would be `A Proof has been announced for the Poincare Conjecture.' The Poincare conjecture has attracted a great deal of attention and lots of remarkable, deep work, but it has also had its fair share of proofs which fell apart under serious scrutiny. Most notably, Colin Rourke and a co-author I can't remember had claimed a proof of the Poincare conjecture in 1987 which took something like a year-plus before the mistakes were found, and took a great deal of energy by a number of mathematicians to find the errors.

    That being said, Martin Dunwoody is a remarkable researcher and this work relies on important, ground-breaking work of Abby Thompson and Hyam Rubenstein, and this preprint sounds very promising!

    --
    It's psychosomatic. You need a lobotomy. I'll get a saw.
    1. Re:proof has been announced by jacobb · · Score: 2, Insightful

      Well, actually, it's a beautifully simple, short-and-sweet, easy-to-follow 6 page proof. Most students of topology can easily follow it (well, pretty easily anyway).
      I highly doubt that any errors will pop up at all simply because the proof is elementary. (note to non-mathematicians... elementary and simple or easy are two very different things in math).
      And it's only 6 pages!

    2. Re:proof has been announced by colmore · · Score: 2

      as Thelonious Monk once said "Simple ain't easy"

      --
      In Capitalist America, bank robs you!
  16. Troll, or uninformed post? [*free clue enclosed*] by rakslice · · Score: 2

    Don't confuse mathematics with science. The scientific method likes induction from a limited set of cases. Mathematical methods of proof won't touch that kind of reasoning with an 10-foot pole.

    "Anything can be proved with enough flawed mathematics." How does one prove something with flawed mathematics? Certainly, one can attempt to prove something with flawed mathematics, but if the mathematics are flawed, what does it prove?

    "Think how many times things have been proven, only to be found flawed later on?" Okay. Zero. See above.

  17. Re:In related news.... 4 = 5 by frinsore · · Score: 2, Insightful

    Actually dividing by zero doesn't give you infinity, it yeilds an undefined. If 4 / 0 was infinity then 0 * infinity would be 4, which it's not.

    Also Infinity doesn't always equal Infinity. There are many different types of infinity that may or may not equal. Consider all the counting numbers, thats an Infinity. Now consider all the real numbers, that's a different Infinity. The second Infinity is greater then the first (counting numbers are a subset of all real numbers), hence Infinity doesn't equal Infinity

  18. Nope by dark-nl · · Score: 2, Insightful

    This is very different. Bentini's theorem is simply "Mathematicians can be wrong" :-)

    I agree with that one. Some proofs are large and complicated, and they might have bugs in them that haven't been noticed yet. I even think it's possible that human minds have bugs which makes them incapable of noticing certain kinds of errors.

    More straightforwardly, some proofs have computer-generated parts and their verification is computer-assisted (the four-colour problem, IIRC), and we all know that computer programs have bugs :-)

  19. Statement of conjecture on wolfram incorrect? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 5, Informative

    Surely it should read:

    The conjecture that every *compact* simply connected 3-manifold is homeomorphic to the 3-sphere,

    Normal euclidean space R^3 is simply connected,
    and definitely NOT homeomorphic to to the
    3-sphere !!

    (That they are not homeomorphic can be proved by
    comparing their homotopy or homology groups).

    Liam.

    1. Re:Statement of conjecture on wolfram incorrect? by p3d0 · · Score: 2

      Mods, I think the parent may be a gem lost in the abyss of anonymity. Do what you think is right.

      --
      Patrick Doyle
      I mod down every jackass who puts his moderation policy in his sig. Oh, wait a sec....
    2. Re:Statement of conjecture on wolfram incorrect? by lyosha · · Score: 2, Funny

      Here's the better proof that R^3 and S^3 are not homeomorphic. Here it goes:

      S^3 is compact and R^3 is not.

  20. books on this stuff by danny · · Score: 2
    Maybe it's time for me to make a fourth attempt at reading Harper and Greenberg's Algebraic Topology: A First Course. I think I got three quarters of the way through last time...

    Can anyone recommend any other books on algebraic topology?

    Danny.

    --
    I have written over 900 book reviews
    1. Re:books on this stuff by Tityrus · · Score: 3, Informative
      Alan Hatcher's "Algebraic Topology" is, besides being freely available on his homepage, one of the best & most elegant textbooks I've ever come across.

      He also has some other books on more advanced topics in algebraic topology, in various stages of completion, but I haven't read those yet.

    2. Re:books on this stuff by mreece · · Score: 2

      I agree that Hatcher's book is good, although I'm just beginning to learn this stuff. We're using that as the text in Math 263 at Chicago - taught by J.P. May. May has a book as well, "A Concise Course in Algebraic Topology," which is highly categorical in its perspective. I'm struggling to figure out limits and colimits, so I'm afraid I haven't made it past the second chapter yet, but there seems to be a lot of good stuff in that book.

      At a more basic level, Munkres "Topology" is good for point-set stuff, but also has some algebraic topology.

      It isn't about algebraic topology, but I very highly recommend Milnor's "Topology from the Differentiable Viewpoint" and his book on Morse Theory. Guillemin & Pollack also give a very good treatment of differential topology. And Thurston's book on three-dimensional geometry and topology is awesome, but I think I would have had a very hard time getting through much of it without the class I took on it in the fall.

      --
      Matt Reece
  21. Um... by rakslice · · Score: 2

    Are the expectations you speak of about mathematical truth? Or about truth in general? If you have expectations about truths about the properties of the universe, I don't see what that has to do with math; perhaps these expectations are less the result of an education in mathematics, and more the result of half an education in mathematics...

  22. English please! by prestwich · · Score: 2, Interesting

    Can someone explain what the hell this problem is about in English please? (Preferably avoiding the word manifold).

    1. Re:English please! by jso888 · · Score: 2, Informative

      The way I'm thinking about the problem, is this. Given the condition that no point on the rubber band can ever break contact with the surface of the object it's wrapped around (sphere or doughnut -- I think that's a torus):

      You could move the rubber band towards an arbitrary apex of a sphere until the rubber band condenses to a single point at the apex. This applies to other volumes such as cubes and cones or even a randomly squeezed bit of toothpaste.

      On the other hand, this can't be done for a torus when you've stretched a rubber band around the wide way, because dealing with the hole in the doughnut would mean having to break contact with the surface of the dougnut.

      They're asking for topological proof that this is the case. Don't ask me to describe simple connectedness in plain English; it's an intuitive thing for me -- someone whose last math course was calculus 101.

      What I don't get is why you can't cheat when initially placing the rubber band on the doughnut, and stick it to one side of the hole so that the shrinking process never has to cross the chasm, as it were. Or is that besides the point?

      Also, what are the real world applications of this proof?

    2. Re:English please! by nels_tomlinson · · Score: 2
      They generalize the whole idea to one where all the objects are compact. That just means that the objects "surface" area is as small as it can get for a given internal volume.

      I suppose that this is a trivial quibble, but my understanding was that a compact set was (in N-space, N\lt\infty) a closed, convex, bounded set. Thus, an egg is a compact set in R^3, despite not having minimum surface area. For spaces which are not vector spaces, or don't have topologies, it's more complex, but now I'm telling you what I don't know, instead of what I do.

    3. Re:English please! by nivedita · · Score: 4, Insightful

      4 (Insightful)!? Almost every statement in this post is incorrect.

      The description of simply connected is a description of connectedness. Simply connected means your space doesn't have holes in it, in addition to being connected. This is required, since there are obviously 2-D surfaces (think of donuts) that are connected, yet not homeomorphic to a 2-sphere.

      A manifold is a space that is locally homeomorphic to Euclidean space. i.e. if you take a very small piece of the space near a point, it looks like a small piece of R^n. A figure 8 curve is an example of a 1-dimensional space that is not a manifold.

      Homeomorphic means that there exists a bicontinuous (continuous in both directions) one-one correspondence between the spaces.

      Compactness has precisely nothing to do with surface areas and volumes. If an objects surface area is as small as it can get wrt its volume, it's a sphere, and this has been known for a long time. Secondly, circles are 1-D, not 2-D.

      Intuitively the notion of compactness corresponds to being `finite'. In R^n, a set is compact if it is closed (i.e. contains its boundary) and bounded (doesn't stretch off to infinity). The general definition of compactness is more hairy: one way of stating it is that every infinite sequence in the set has a convergent subsequence (note that the limit also has to be in the set).

      What the Poincare conjecture states, roughly, is that any closed bounded d-dimensional object in R^n that doesn't have any holes in it (this makes it homotopy equivalent to a d-sphere) is actually homeomorphic to a d-sphere. (Note: it's non-trivial to prove that a compact d-dimensional manifold can actually be embedded in R^n for some n).

    4. Re:English please! by John+Miles · · Score: 2

      A figure 8 curve is an example of a 1-dimensional space that is not a manifold... Secondly, circles are 1-D, not 2-D.

      Could you clarify those points? I don't see how either a circle or a curve can be parameterized with a single variable in either an oriented or a non-oriented space, which is (or at least should be) the criterion for single-dimensionality.

      --
      Dahlmann tightly grips the knife, which he may have no idea how to use, and steps out into the plain.
    5. Re:English please! by mreece · · Score: 2

      You read a math text and find out that almost everything that post said is wrong. The definitions of simply connected and compact are, as others pointed out, not at all what the previous poster claimed they were.

      mathworld.wolfram.com is generally a good reference for looking up definitions...

      --
      Matt Reece
    6. Re:English please! by The_Laughing_God · · Score: 2, Informative

      A circle is 1-D because topology makes a distinction between a 'circle' (a line figure) and the region bounded by it. The region inside the circle isn't part of the circle, any more than the region outside the circle is. Casual English uses the word 'circle' for the line figure and the region it encloses.

      Similarly, if we call a basketball a 'sphere', we are discussing its 2-D surface. If we want to talk about a basketball as a 3-D object, including its internal volume, we must call it a 'ball'. There is such a thing as a 3-D sphere (3-sphere), but it is the surface of a four dimensional 'ball', which, I assure you, is like nothing you've ever seen. Many posters seem to have forgotten this today, and are speaking of 3D spheres, when they mean 2-D spheres enclosing 3-D balls.

      2-D spheres have more interesting properties than 3-D balls - which you might not suspect if you think of them (as many do) as mere surfaces (i.e a part or property) of 3-D balls.

    7. Re:English please! by EvilGwyn · · Score: 2
      • No, simply connected means that any (n-1)-loop embedded in the topological space is homotopic to a point
      • No, a n-manifold is an object such that every point is locally homeomorphic to R^n
      • No. Homeomorphic means that there is a bijective continuous function between two spaces such that its inverse is also continuous.
      • No. Compactness means that any open cover of the space has a finite subcover.

      Thanks for the plain english explanation! Without this I would never have understood it.

      --
      Phear my l33t homepage.
  23. Re:Old news... by Beautyon · · Score: 2, Insightful

    Can't you find anything to report about that HASN'T already happened?

    How can ANY editor report something that HASN'T YET HAPPENED??

    --
    ATH0 Bitcoin: 1DnwFLXczVZV8kLJbMYoheUrpqHesjxrSi
  24. Re:teacup == donut by JabberWokky · · Score: 2
    No, we're doing soirees and diagramming whether or not the bat can be black at dawn.

    --
    The JabberWokky (yes, I know. It's intentional to create a unique string.)

    --
    "$30 for the One True Ring. $10 each additional ring!" -- JRR "Bob" Tolkien
  25. Re:The problem is... by nucal · · Score: 2, Funny

    Still, by the Poincaré Conjecture - Gumby is equivalent to Pokey.

  26. Re:Proof by khuber · · Score: 3, Informative
    An error in John Nash's 1956 "The Imbedding Problem for Riemannian Manifolds" wasn't found until Solovay reported it in 1998.

    http://www.math.princeton.edu/jfnj/texts_and_graph ics/erratum.txt

    -Kevin

  27. the eric conspiracy by the+eric+conspiracy · · Score: 4, Funny


    Maybe we should give these problems to the people at the next ACM International Programming Contest.

  28. Re:In related news.... 4 = 5 by j7953 · · Score: 3, Informative
    Actually 4/0 is infinity, but 0*infinity is undefined

    No, x/0 is undefined. However, you can do things like

    lim y->0 of x/y = infinity (for x > 0)
    because, when y approaches zero, x/y will obviously become larger. But that is not the same as
    x/0 = infinity (this is wrong!)

    0*infinity is undefined, however, continuing the example above, I could write:

    lim y->0 of 0 * x/y = lim y->0 of 0/y = 0

    i.e. in that example, "0*infinity" would be zero.

    The problem with infinity is that you can't use it like a number, because it isn't one. Infinity literally means that there is an infinite number of things, e.g. the set of integers is infinite, meaning you can never list all integers because there is always a successor. You'll never "arrive at infinity" when listing integers. This means you can calculate with infinity only with equations that involve sequences and their limits. (Like the above-mentioned lim y->0 which means that y is a sequence of numbers approaching zero, and not y = 0. A suitable sequence might e.g. be y[n] = 1/n with n = 1, 2, .... Obviously, this sequence is approaching zero, but will never be equal to zero.)

    --
    Sig (appended to the end of comments I post, 54 chars)
  29. Re:teacup == donut by djmurdoch · · Score: 2

    Teacups have handles.

  30. Re:Proof by perky · · Score: 2
    Godel's incompleteness theorem in two sentences: Within any self-consistent system of formal logic there will be theorems that are true, but which cannot be proven within that system. This is such a theorem.

    --
    "The new wave is not value-added; it's garbage-subtracted" - Esther Dyson, Dec 1994
  31. Poincare conjecture cases by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 3, Informative

    I'm somewhat familiar with this proofs used in different dimension ranges. It's absolutely necessary to separate out the proof into separate cases because the topology changes wildly with dimension. Roughly speaking in dimensions 4 there is so much room that certain powerful general techniques become possible (essentially, half the dimension of the manifold is more than 2 dimensions away from the full dimension --- so submanifolds of half the dimension cannot be KNOTTED). In dimension 3 and 4 special techniques must be used (and they are different in each case). In dimension 4, a submanifold of half the dimension (i.e, 2) can be knotted in the full manifold, but one can analyze the types of knotting that occurs. Manifolds of dimension 3 need techniques UNIQUE to this dimension (incompressible surfaces, etc.). The case of dimension 3 has been the hardest.

  32. Re:Proof by caffeined · · Score: 2, Insightful

    Your comments are good as far as they go, *but* they can be taken too far.

    Yes, it is true that a proof might be mistaken and that the mistake might not be caught. This is much like the scientific process, though, in that later work which builds on it can lead to a result which is inconsistent with other accepted proofs, leading to the original proof being re-questioned. Just as in science, the bedrock proofs, from which other proofs build, are constantly being implicitly re-tested.

    I agree that you can never be 100% certain of anything (other than the base axioms which are simply defined as being true), but the probability asymptotically approaches 100% the longer that the proof stands without producing a contradiction of some sort.

    To me, it's like what Popper said about the scientific process - things can be disproved by coming up with a counter-example, but you can never definitively prove something because that would imply testing/checking all possible situations - an impossibility.

    But, to say that this means that "truth" is "socially constructed" takes this too far. It appears to imply that *any* result could be arrived at and be allowed to stand. Since math is a competitive process (like science) in which you can make your reputation by showing that an accepted "fact" is not really true, any statement which doesn't have some intrinsic merit will eventually be shown to be bogus.

    Many of the thinkers who have come up with these theses of "socially-constructed truth" tend to come from the "soft"-er disciplines, such as lit crit and philosophy. I think that many of them suffer from a sort of "credibility envy" in which they are uncomfortable with the fact that the results of their studies are not accorded the same degree of respect as those of say, physics, or math. Therefore, in order to elevate their disciplines to the same level of respect as the "hard"-er disciplines, they need to show one of two things - either that their disciplines are just as rigorous as the "hard"-er ones, or that the so-called "hard" discplines aren't really all that "hard" and are in fact just "soft" disciplines in disguise. They have opted for the second line of attack.

    --
    Sigh. My id isn't prime. 2 2 2 2 2 3 5 313
  33. And all horses are the same color. by s20451 · · Score: 2

    Theorem: All horses are the same color.

    Proof: By induction. First consider the case of one horse. Clearly, one horse is the same color as itself. Now suppose any set of k horses is the same color. If we take a set of k+1 horses, there are k ways to create sets of k horses, all of which must be the same color under the inductive hypothesis, and all of which contain common horses. Therefore any set of k+1 horses are the same color. Therefore all horses are the same color, by induction.

    --
    Toronto-area transit rider? Rate your ride.
  34. Re:Proof by Florian+Weimer · · Score: 2

    Gödel's Incompleteness Theorem does not apply to any set of axioms; the set of axioms has to be consistent and you must be able to express certain properties of the integers.

  35. Re:Old news... by Junior+J.+Junior+III · · Score: 2

    You just get that time machine from the previous story, and...

    --
    You see? You see? Your stupid minds! Stupid! Stupid!
  36. Cows have an infinte number of legs by Jhan · · Score: 2, Funny

    1) Cows have an even number of legs.
    2) Cows have forelegs and two back legs, equalling six legs.
    3) Six is an odd amount of legs for a cow.
    4) By 1 and 3 cows have both an even number of legs and an odd number of legs.
    5) The only number that is both odd and even is infinity.

    Cows have an infinite number of legs. QED.

    --

    I choose to remain celibate, like my father and his father before him.

  37. Re:In related news.... 4 = 5 by InadequateCamel · · Score: 2, Interesting

    I recently read a book called "Zero", which was (predictably) about the history of the number zero. There are a few appendicies in the book, one of which is entitled "Build Your Own Wormhole Time Machine", but the fun one is "Animal, Vegetable, or Minister?" where the author divides by zero (a-b, where a=b=1) and goes on to prove that Winston Churchill is a carrot. A good read.

  38. I second that by roystgnr · · Score: 2

    Rice U. breaks Munkres' first book up into two classes, calling the second "Geometric Topology". It's a very clear discussion of the subject. I found "Elements of Algebraic Topology" much harder, but that may just be because we only had one semester to deal with that one.

  39. ok. I have no idea what this is about by RestiffBard · · Score: 2

    I can appreciate that it is very interesting to mathematics folks. thats easy. no one knows what I'm talking about when I mention quantumn physics (I'm not a physicist but I can wrap my head around what I read). Mathematics however just befuddles me to no end. Could several of you math junkies point me in the direction of a good starter text on Mathematics? Something I can pick up at Barnes and Noble. Not the Knuth of Mathematics either. Knuth's titles are enough to make my toes curl and my brain fry. Just a layman's intro to Math will do. I'll ask again when I've figured out the first one.

    --
    - /* dead coders leave no comments */
  40. Help, I don't get it by roystgnr · · Score: 2

    It's only been a couple years since I took geometric topology; I shouldn't have forgotten this much, this fast.

    Isn't a sphere with a bubble in it (say, A = {x in R^n: 1/2 < d(x,0) < 3/2}) a 3-manifold? It's an open subset of 3-space.

    Isn't that set A simply connected? You can deformation retract it down to S^2, which is simply connected.

    And yet, even if the fundamental group pi_1(A) = 0, the higher homotopy groups aren't trivial: pi_2(A) isn't zero, so A can't be homeomorphic to a 3-sphere.

    So why isn't this a counterexample to the Poincare conjecture?

    1. Re:Help, I don't get it by Dyolf+Knip · · Score: 2
      Isn't a sphere with a bubble in it (say, A = {x in R^n: 1/2

      Sure, but I think the whole point is to prove that a compact 3d shape, that is, the one with the greatest surface area in relation to its internal volume, is a sphere.

      My question is, for the n>3 cases, were they basically doing geometry on hyperspheres? That's one thing I've never been able to wrap my head around.

      --
      Dyolf Knip
    2. Re:Help, I don't get it by snarkh · · Score: 2, Informative

      It is not a compact manifold (as you said it is open), therefore Poincare conjecture does not apply.

      And of course it is not homeomorphic to the 3-sphere, it is homotopic to the 2-sphere.

  41. Are there any physical science advances by wdavies · · Score: 2

    that can be made because of this potential breakthrough?

    Just curious, or whether it is just an annoying abstract problem that was solved?

    Winton

  42. Re:Nah by Cowculator · · Score: 5, Funny

    Be careful how you phrase that last sentence - your carefree use of the word "obvious" in reference to math calls to mind an old joke:

    Two mathematicians were talking one day about some recent work they'd done. One described a proof to the other but quickly glossed over a complicated step. The second one said, "Wait a minute - you didn't prove your last assertion." The reply: "It's obvious."

    So the second mathematician wordlessly took a piece of chalk, went to the nearby blackboard, and began to fill it with long statements full of obscure symbols. Nearly half an hour later, he stopped writing, turned around, and said, "You're right. It is obvious."

  43. Re:In related news.... 4 = 5 by EvlG · · Score: 2

    Would that happen to be this book, for the interested reader?

    Zero: The Biography of a Dangerous Idea

  44. Here's a couple books by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 2, Informative

    Well sorry, but to truly understand this stuff you really do need to have studied a lot of mathematics. I'd say two years minimum of in depth, theory level college mathematics would allow you to read and at least get the gist of most mathematics texts/problems.
    The poincare conjecture in the n=3 case is fairly simple to state, it's significance is what is more interesting, and that I cannot remember or find anything useful on at the moment.
    Which is not to say you can't have a lot of fun trying to wrap your head around this stuff or other higher level mathematics anyway. Here's a couple general mathematics books with some fun problems in them.
    Archimedes Revenge is fairly accessible.
    From Here to Infinity By Ian Stewart, that is pretty in depth, but just trying to get the gist could be fun. It has a good chapter on Fermat's Last Theorem
    And some of Ian's other books are probably good. Try here

  45. Re:In related news.... 4 = 5 by Tony-A · · Score: 2

    Cardinality for "how many elements are in the set".
    Two sets have the same cardinality iff there exists a one-one function from one set onto the other set. Thus there are exactly as many primes as there are rationals. In all cases, the power set (set of all subsets) has strictly more elements than the original set. The power set of the null set has exactly one element, the null set. The null set has no elements.

    You can also have infinite ordinals. Addition defined but not necessarily subtraction. 1,2,3,...,INFINITY,INFINITY+1,...,2INFINITY,...

  46. Re:Proof by SIGFPE · · Score: 2

    The likelihood that the Fundamental Theorem of Algebra (FTA) is false is so small, notwithstanding what you say about drunkenness, that it's more likely that you don't understand English. In fact it's more likely that your understanding of English is so poor that you've said the opposite of what you mean by accident rather than that FTA is false. Given these odds it's probably better to keep quiet than spout stuff about how FTA could be false don't you think?

    --
    -- SIGFPE
  47. Re:In related news.... 4 = 5 by slamb · · Score: 2
    But "4/0" can only be infinity.

    No, that's not true.

    lim x -> 0 of 4/x = undefined
    lim x -> 0+ of 4/x = +inf
    lim x -> 0- of 4/x = -inf

    One statement says "as x approaches 0 from the left (x is an extremely small positive number), 4/x approaches positive infinity." The other says the same thing, except from the left (negative). Only if they are the same is the general limit true.

    lim x -> x_0 = f(x) <=> lim x -> x_0+ = lim x -> x_0- = f(x)

  48. Re:Proof by colmore · · Score: 2

    yes, but most math is based on Peano and Euclid (or variations)

    those axioms are pretty hard to deny.

    --
    In Capitalist America, bank robs you!
  49. Re:Proof by norton_I · · Score: 3, Interesting

    As far as the laws of mathematics refer to reality, they are not certain, and as far as they are certain, they do not refer to reality.
    -- Albert Einstein

    Really, we do have proofs in physics(for example) that are just as provable as those in mathematics. You just have to understand that proofs of any kind are made based on certain assumtions (axioms + rules of logic).

    For instance, the quantum no-cloning theorom states that you cannot exactly duplicate an unknown quantum mechanical state. This is an absolutely proven theorom -- one of the axioms of which is the Schrodinger equation. If we ever find that quantum mechanics is not the correct description for our universe, the no-cloning theorom will still be entirely valid within the constructs of QM, as well as the regime of the universe under which QM is applicable.

    Likewise, Euclid said the sum of the angles of a triangle is Pi, but this is only true for trinagles in spaces that have a certain structure, which is why we call it Euclidian. It turns out that in general, space is non-Euclidian, though unless you are near a black hole or a neutron star, the difference is hardly noticable.

    Computer scientists have "proven" using very general methods, that there are no algorithms for computing certain things that are faster than a given bound -- There is no way to search an unordered list in faster than O(N) time, no way to sort arbitrary numbers in less than O(N*Log(N)) time, etc. However, this is based on a Turing machine model of computation, and the laws of quantum mechanics as we understand them allow computers intrinsically more powerful than a turing machine. We still don't understand much about what these quantum computers can and can't do better than a classical computer, but we do know that they can search unordered lists faster than any classical computer, though I think it has been shown that they cannot sort lists faster than a classical computer.

  50. Re:Nah by mreece · · Score: 3, Insightful

    This reminds me of another anecdote - which I believe is true. I don't recall who it is about, though. The story is that at a seminar, a respected mathematician was giving a proof when someone questioned one step. The speaker said, "it is clear," and moved on. A bit later, he turned back to the questioner and said "it can be shown," then continued once more with the talk. A few minutes later, he paused, thought for a few seconds, turned to the questioner, and said "It is well-known." Moving on with the argument, a few minutes later he paused again, turned once more to the questioner, and said: "It is wrong."

    It's always easy to take things for granted that look obvious; to some extent one always has to do this. The trick is knowing when you can do it and be right.

    --
    Matt Reece
  51. Thanks, I think I got it now by roystgnr · · Score: 2

    Basically my problems were:

    The manifold needs to be compact for the conjecture to apply.

    I was thinking of the "3-sphere" as B^3, not S^3.

    Thanks, everyone.

  52. Re:...has been "PROVEN", ...has been "PROVEN" by pclminion · · Score: 3, Interesting
    From www.m-w.com:

    Main Entry: prove
    Pronunciation: 'prüv
    Function: verb
    Inflected Form(s): proved; proved or proven

    You can say it either way. It's standard usage. Idiot.

  53. Re:Proof by nihilogos · · Score: 2

    Basically, it's like this, proofs are as much a social event as a mathematical cedrtainty. Proofs are presented, and believed, and then refuted.

    Most proofs are presented, not believed, and refuted. Good proofs are presented, not believed, subjected to scrutiny, bolstered by alternative proofs and finally accepted. The peer review process is remarkably successful because most mathematicians and scientists actively pratice skepticism. Name one proof that has been accepted for 50 years and then shown to be incorrect.

    I'm sure that I've proved things incorrectly before, and believed them

    That's not much of a peer review process is it?

    Peer review does not imply flawlessness.

    The original poster didn't actually mention peer review - you did. He/she was referring to the absolute certainty that seems to be inherent in some mathematical theorems. I put it to you that Euclid's proof that there are infinitely many prime numbers is flawless.

    --
    :wq
  54. Re:Proof by nihilogos · · Score: 2

    50 years?

    --
    :wq
  55. Yeh, okay by autopr0n · · Score: 2

    I have nothing against "intelectuals" but simply saying the "poincare conjecture" to me meas as little as "clitoris" probably means to you. It would help if they had had at least one or two sentances explaning what it was, or why it was important.

    --
    autopr0n is like, down and stuff.
  56. Re:In related news.... 4 = 5 by j7953 · · Score: 2
    nan stands for NotANumber. According to IEEE floating point arithmetics, 1/0 is infinite, and 0/0 is undefined.

    Well, I'm not familiar with the reasoning behind IEEE floating point arithmetics, but x/0 yields infinity in many programming languages. My guess is that it was defined this way because it makes more sense for most pratical applications, since otherwise a number x/y (with a small, variable y) might suddenly become undefined when y becomes so small that the computer's precision doesn't suffice and the computer thinks that y=0. In this case, x/y shouldn't be undefined, it should be "very large, beyond the computer's precision." This is better expressed by saying x/y=inf instead of x/y=nan.

    Concerning mathematics, read slamb's reply to an AC who replied to my post, he explains why x/0 has to be undefined: depending on what sequence you use, it could be either positive or negative infinity.

    --
    Sig (appended to the end of comments I post, 54 chars)
  57. Re:Proof by markmoss · · Score: 2

    proofs are as much a social event as a mathematical cedrtainty.

    You are going a bit too far. Proofs do require a social activity before they are accepted, namely rigorous checking by a number of other mathematicians. But most proofs have survived such checking as to be mathematical certainties -- within a given system of axioms.

    For instance, the Pythagorean theorem has a simple one page proof that has been reviewed by every mathematics student for over 2,000 years, and no flaw has been found. It's certain -- within Euclidean geometry. It also is known to have limited real-world applicability: it won't be exact for right triangles drawn on the curved surface of the earth, nor (according to General Relativity theory) will it be exact for large triangles in space. But it's close enough for most surveying work, and more than close enough for machine shop work.

    On the other extreme, there is the computer-generated proof of the 4-color theorem. IIRC, one mathematician could not read the whole proof in a lifetime. Merely understanding how they formulated the problem into a computer program will take up more of your life than most people want to spend on a single abstract problem. Certain computer bugs can be ruled out by re-compiling the program for different computers and comparing results, but the real question is whether the program is correct -- and apparently mathematicians who have reviewed it think it is correct, with a lot higher probability than is needed to execute a man in Texas, but not everyone agrees it is _proven_.

    And what's the real-world applicability? In theory a mapmaker could get along with just 4 colors, but it's easier and clearer to use more...

  58. Re:...has been "PROVEN", ...has been "PROVEN" by pclminion · · Score: 2
    I agree, the use of mod points on this comment was inconceivable.

    Sorry that I called you "idiot." I've been reading K5 recently and my policy (call it stupid) has been to reserve sarcasm for /. only.

    Human language is a chaotic, natural system. To attempt to apply hard-and-fast rules to it seems silly.

  59. Re:Proof by streetlawyer · · Score: 2

    Nope, that is where you're wrong, at least when you start talking about "the end of days". Anything you say is entirely dependent on what you mean by "proof", and that is a concept which has been protean in its meaning since the start of the human activity known as Mathematics. It appears to be true for Church's concept of a proof, but since 1933 we've known that this proof-concept is not entirely satisfactory, because of Goedel's result. It is entirely possible that some future genius of mathematical logic will come up with a new concept of what it is to prove a mathematical statement which solves the questions of the Continuum Hypothesis and the Axiom of Choice, and that this unimaginable future proof-concept will not have the properties you claim for mathematical proof.