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Belgian Consumer Organization Sues Apple For Not Respecting Warranty Law

New submitter thygate writes with news of more trouble for Apple with its warranty terms complying with E.U. regulations. From the press release: "For many years warranty issues are at the top of the charts of complaints dealt with by consumer organizations. One of the recurring problems are the complaints about Apple. 'Test-Aankoop/Test-Achats' found major problems fixed on the information provided by Apple and its authorized distributors regarding the legal guarantee, the commercial one year warranty, and the warranty extension through the 'AppleCare Protection Plan' of 2 or 3 years. A lawsuit against Apple has been filed (English translation; original)) with the Commercial Court of Brussels. In a precedent in Italy, The commercial practices of Apple were found to be misleading. Apple was sentenced to pay € 900,000 and was obliged to change their contractual legal warranty and guarantees to consumers."

168 comments

  1. Precedent? by crankyspice · · Score: 4, Interesting

    In Brussels, from an Italian court? I thought the EU countries (except England, which is still Common Law) were civil law jurisdictions, which don't recognize stare decisis (i.e., no "precedent" from prior decisions)...?

    --
    geek. lawyer.
    1. Re:Precedent? by wvmarle · · Score: 4, Informative

      Even then, Belgium and Italy are fully independent judiciaries. What is law in Italy is not necessarily law in Belgium. Though of course with the EU slowly but surely laws in the various member countries are getting aligned.

      A much better expression would be "a similar case".

      Nevertheless, court cases are sometimes filed to test or clarify the law in those jurisdictions. If a court rules one way in one case, it will likely rule the same way in a highly similar case.

    2. Re:Precedent? by patrickv · · Score: 5, Informative

      The case starts in Italy (=state law) and is passed up to the European court in Brussels (=federal law). Do not let a Europhile read those terms but that is what it is equivalent to. It does not matter what is decided at local level, if Brussels decides otherwise the local law is trumped.

      It is not passed up to an "European court". It is a Belgian court seated in Brussels which will have to rule according to Belgian law. Both The Italian and Belgian courts have some common ground, because the national laws are based on EU directives. EU directives are legal frameworks, but leave it up to national laws to decide on fines, for example.
      The European court of justice is seated in Luxembourg, and has no business in the present case.

    3. Re:Precedent? by GNious · · Score: 4, Funny

      We have a gay Italian as prime minister in Belgium - might have changed things a bit.

    4. Re:Precedent? by ta_gueule · · Score: 3, Informative

      "stare decisis" is a legal term. "Precedent" is a common term. This article is not written for lawyers like you so you can not sue them over the use of the term. There is indeed a precedent in Italy because it happened before this, and the 3 years legal guarantee is European law. Each state can implement European law the way they want but they both have to implement it.

    5. Re:Precedent? by crankyspice · · Score: 0

      (1) Even if the term "precedent" is being used as a non-legal-term-of-art, it still doesn't apply; one of the principal distinguishing characteristics of civil law jurisdictions is it doesn't matter what another court has done before. All primary law is codified in a jus civile system, whereas in a jus gentium system statutes are only the beginning of the analysis, and judicial "decisional law" (i.e., precedent) must also be considered.

      (2) There's no "3 years[sic] legal guarantee" in Europe; the EU mandates a two year warranty coverage (with a three year statute of limitations). http://europa.eu/legislation_summaries/consumers/protection_of_consumers/l32022_en.htm

      --
      geek. lawyer.
    6. Re:Precedent? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

      It's a separate case. The one in Italy was by their local consumer organisation and counts as a precedent in Europe.
      Test-Aankoop is just doing the same thing, but in Belgium.

      Good thing too, although nothing changes for everyone who has been aware of their rights. Just threatening companies who try to ignore the law with it, makes them give in to you since they want to avoid any publicity about this so even more people would know their rights.

    7. Re:Precedent? by wvmarle · · Score: 1

      You can't compare it like that.

      I don't know exactly how it works (it's far too complex for a layman to understand well), but afaik most European laws have to be implemented in every single country before they become valid there, and as a result there are diffences between countries. European laws do not necessarily trump local laws, especially when it concerns local issues, like this warranty case.

    8. Re:Precedent? by silentcoder · · Score: 4, Informative

      There is also the fact that even where precedent does not apply judges do look strongly at what other judges in similar cases elsewhere had found and consider their rulings very highly when making their own determinations.
      It's still quite common for example for Judges in the US to look at rulings under British case-law where similar cases were decided although British courts have no precedent-power over US ones, the findings of those judges are useful. For starters if there are evidentiary differences it may well be useful to ask "why" (particularly when the same companies are involved).

      --
      Unicode killed the ASCII-art *
    9. Re:Precedent? by mindwhip · · Score: 2

      No but Apple are *selling* 3 year 'warranties' in a way that is misleading as they don't cover the failures and repairs that the buyer is told they do at point of sale.

      At best this is a description of goods issue which is a big thing here in the EU and can attract large fines if proved to be intentional. At worst it is deliberate criminal fraud which could see someone going to prison.

      Also while the EU only mandates two years several countries have different definitions which go beyond what the EU directives require and can also be as fuzzy as 'reasonable lifespan', 'sufficient quality' and 'fit for purpose' which could easily be expected to mean 3 years for a â500 electronics device (and 5-10 years for large white goods such as washing machines, cookers etc).

      --
      [The Universe] has gone offline.
    10. Re:Precedent? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 3, Insightful

      both cases are based upon a UE directive that states that every item sold in the UE has to have 2 years warranty while Apple tell its users that they have only 1 year warranty and can buy an extention to 2-3 years so both cases have a common ground (the UE directive) but the actual results, fines and such can differ as per local laws.

    11. Re:Precedent? by ta_gueule · · Score: 1

      (1) You obviously didn't understand what I wrote. Your language is not understandable because it contains non-english and barbaric terms. Jus civile and Jus gentium are latin terms that you would use as a lawyer, I suppose. We are not in a court room and the term "precedent" does indeed apply. It shows the reader of the article that there is a pattern that is repeating itself. It doesn't matter to the court room but it does matter to the readers of the article.

      (2) So that's a 2 year legal warranty. Apple does not make it clear what is covered for free (legal guarantee) and what is covered for the money you pay (commercial guarantee). The customers are mislead because they are not lawyers and they don't know what is legal and should come free with any device. Apple is using this ignorance to its advantage, which is wrong and probably not legal.

    12. Re:Precedent? by fonske · · Score: 1

      Our prime minister is bisexual.
      French "A voile et à vapeur"
      Translation: His fancy can be tickled by sail and steam.

    13. Re:Precedent? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Actually, the Belgian 2 year warranty law predates EU directive.

    14. Re:Precedent? by daem0n1x · · Score: 1

      Jurisprudence is also used in countries that don't have common-law systems (basically most non-Anglo-Saxon countries). It's just that it has a certain weight, and it's not the prevalent mean of decision.

    15. Re:Precedent? by fatphil · · Score: 1, Insightful

      > Even if the term "precedent" is being used as a non-legal-term-of-art, it still doesn't apply; one of the principal distinguishing characteristics of civil law ...

      WOHHHHH!!! Stop there. What bit about not imbuing any law-related implications on the term are you misunderstanding? Maybe you should put down your law-books, they're clearly clouding your mind, and just look at an English-language dictionary for a definition of the word:

      PRECEDENT n.
      1 : an earlier occurrence of something similar

      Case closed.

      --
      Also FatPhil on SoylentNews, id 863
    16. Re:Precedent? by dutchwhizzman · · Score: 2

      There is European regulation about how consumer warranties are supposed to be implemented in member country legistlation. Both Belgium and Italy have this legislation in place. In Italy, Apple already lost a trail on the exact same warranty, so the chance that they'll win the trail in Belgium is negligible. In the Netherlands they changed the warranty before they got sued by a consumer organization. They did however lost several court cases to individuals that sued them on their warranty.

      --
      I was promised a flying car. Where is my flying car?
    17. Re:Precedent? by Luckyo · · Score: 2, Informative

      That would be because US has largely derived its system from British case law.

      Tell that to an Italian who worked in the system, and you'll be laughed out of the room as an "ignorant yankee". And he'll be correct.

      Remember, while Old World's legal system are generally derived from combination of Roman justice system, Catholic courts and to an extent Napoleon Code, they have extreme nationalist pride of thousands of years that they in fact represent justice in their own country, and other country's justice has nothing to do with it.

      The reason why this is filed in Brussels is because Brussels is Belgian capital city. Italian case was tried in Italian courts, that have a very different system. As grandparent point out, there's little to no stare decisis between two systems, for obvious reasons of these being different court systems. About the only comparison that could be drawn is that both laws are drawn on basis of the same EU directive. But even these laws are only BASED on the directive, and typically implement it in different ways to suit each country's legal system. A great example of this has been the copyright legislation, which varies from it being legal to download whatever you want for your personal use in Spain to it being illegal here in Finland. All based on the same directive.

    18. Re:Precedent? by Luckyo · · Score: 0

      Fun detail: word "barbaric" originally referred to any non-Latin terms. The original meaning was "bar-bar language" which means something primitive and indecipherable.

      You trying to peddle it as a way to describe Latin words which notably function to define exact meanings in current legal system in many countries likely including your own is quite hilarious in itself.

    19. Re:Precedent? by Luckyo · · Score: 1

      Parent's point is that it occurred:

      1. In a different legal system.
      2. In a different country.
      3. Based on a different law.

    20. Re:Precedent? by Hognoxious · · Score: 1

      I don't know exactly how it works

      Indeed.

      it's far too complex for an imbecile to understand, but I'm going to spout off as if I'm an expert [...] but afaik most European laws have to be implemented in every single country before they become valid there, and as a result there are diffences

      It should basically be a translation. Any differences would be accidental. Countries certainly can't intentionally rephrase them to grossly change their effect; there'd be no point having EU directives if that were the case.

      European laws do not necessarily trump local laws, especially when it concerns local issues, like this warranty case.

      So what's all this about, then?

      --
      Confucius say, "Find worm in apple - bad. Find half a worm - worse."
    21. Re:Precedent? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      "Precedent" does have meaning beyond case law, you know. It is a common-language term used to reference any related preceding event.

    22. Re:Precedent? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I don't know exactly how it works

      Indeed.

      Such snide remarks would suit you better if you would actually appear to understand the subject matter.

      It should basically be a translation. Any differences would be accidental

      No, it shouldn't, and no, it isn't. EEC directives only provide a minimum baseline for all members to uphold, and in general these directives do not prescribe a method of enforcement or height of penalties associated with them. Members are free to legislate stricter controls than required by the EU, and even not to follow certain provisions in a directive if either that provision is already covered in another piece of legislature, or that provision does not apply to that member.

      So what's all this about, then?

      It is a wikipedia article about 85/374/EEC, a mostly obsolete European directive superseded by 99/34/EC. But since you asked, allow me to quote from that article:
      [..] EU directives do not have direct effect, they only come into force on persons in member states when implemented in national legislation

    23. Re:Precedent? by realityimpaired · · Score: 1

      Any self-respecting court will look at the intent behind the law, not the word of the law. This is why we can compare the results from completely disparate legal systems in considering how to weigh in on a domestic law.... It is not a legal precedent, because as you point out the Italian and Belgian systems are different, but it is still a ruling on a law with the same basic purpose set in a country with the same basic values.

    24. Re:Precedent? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      How does the dictionary description of the GP (an earlier occurrence of something similar) preclude occurrences that are either:

      1. In a different legal system, or
      2. In a different country, or
      3. Based on a different law?

    25. Re:Precedent? by rioki · · Score: 1

      Except that the law that in question is derived from an EU directive. It being a EU directive, meaning that that law should, in theory apply equally for all EU citizens. If the case fails in Brussels, it can be tried in a EU curt, because two countries came to separate conclusions about an EU directive and as a result either the law in Italy or the law in Belgian must be altered. It is true that there is no law that forces a precedent to be taken into account in this case, except that if it is not taken into account, it has adverse effects for the law as written.

    26. Re:Precedent? by rioki · · Score: 1

      But that directive is old, like at least 10 years now...

    27. Re:Precedent? by Luckyo · · Score: 2

      But they don't use the same basis - that's the point. Basis lays in the law. Laws are different, as they are based on legal framework of each country.

      This is why for example, Spain still allows for download of copyrighted media for free for personal use in law which is in accordance with copyright directive, while many countries made it illegal with different penalties. And yet everyone is in compliance with the directive. Because that's how EU works, directive is not a LAW, it's a DIRECTIVE for countries' legislative branch to create a law based on the directive, in accordance with local legal framework, culture and legal expectations. As a result, some may adapt a bare minimum approach, some may adapt massively overkill approach, and some may adapt something else entirely with opt-outs and so on.

    28. Re:Precedent? by Luckyo · · Score: 1

      Correct. Now ask yourself, what is the directive, and why is it called a "directive" and not a "law"?

      Once you find the answer to that question, you'll understand my statement.

    29. Re:Precedent? by rioki · · Score: 1

      Fun thing, I bring it back to my retails and demand it fixed... Now it is not my problem. If he refuses, small claims it is, where I get my right in under quarter of an hour. The only way they can wind themselves out of it, is if they can prove I did not use the device as intended...

    30. Re:Precedent? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Latin got the word from Greek, and it goes back further still.

    31. Re:Precedent? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      There is also the fact that even where precedent does not apply judges do look strongly at what other judges in similar cases elsewhere had found and consider their rulings very highly when making their own determinations.

      In other lines of work they call that plagiarism :)

    32. Re:Precedent? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      We have a gay Italian as prime minister in Belgium - might have changed things a bit.

      A socialist gay Italian as prime minister in Belgium.

    33. Re:Precedent? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Except that the law that in question is derived from an EU directive. It being a EU directive, meaning that that law should, in theory apply equally for all EU citizens.

      Nope - EU directives apply to the member states, not directly to the citizens of the member states.

      Taken from the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union:

      To exercise the Union's competences, the institutions shall adopt regulations, directives, decisions, recommendations and opinions.

      A regulation shall have general application. It shall be binding in its entirety and directly applicable in all Member States.

      A directive shall be binding, as to the result to be achieved, upon each Member State to which it is addressed, but shall leave to the national authorities the choice of form and methods.

      A decision shall be binding in its entirety upon those to whom it is addressed.
        Recommendations and opinions shall have no binding force.

      So the directive is an order for a member state to "acheive a result" - how they go about that is for themselves to decide. So one countries law designed to meet that requirement, need not apply or even make a difference in any other member state.

    34. Re:Precedent? by Psicopatico · · Score: 1

      Yes and no.

      While Italian judiciary system is generally considered as civil law, in reality it is mixed.
      There are three levels of judice:
      - ordinary;
      - appeal;
      - court of cassation (a.k.a. supreme court).

      After the second level of judice, sentences create precedent and make laws.
      But the supreme court only evaluates if previous courts correctly followed the procedures/laws, it doesn't go deep on the facts of the trial.

      For other EU countries, I don't know :)

      --
      Mastering the English language is fucking easy: all you have to do is to put an f* word in every fucking sentence.
    35. Re:Precedent? by gsnedders · · Score: 1

      The US has largely derived its system from English case law. Scots law is entirely unrelated to US law.

  2. Obligated by holophrastic · · Score: 3, Interesting

    I hardly think that Apple was obliged to change anything. Probably obligated, but not obliged.

    1. Re:Obligated by Cryacin · · Score: 5, Insightful

      Any company that is not obligated to act for it's customers will eventually be obliged to close it's doors.

      --
      Science advances one funeral at a time- Max Planck
    2. Re:Obligated by holophrastic · · Score: 5, Funny

      Still more likely "Any company that is not obliged to act for its customers will eventually be obligated to close its doors."

    3. Re:Obligated by Cryacin · · Score: 0

      It is a given certainty that when one posts quickly on Slashdot and misplaces an apostrophe shall quickly invoke the ire of the Grammar Nazi's.

      --
      Science advances one funeral at a time- Max Planck
    4. Re:Obligated by holophrastic · · Score: 2

      I was pointing more to the obliged vs obligated word choice. But yes, the posessive apostrophe is one of the dumbest things in the language.

    5. Re:Obligated by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Isn't it Nazis?
      The apostrophe signifies ownership?

    6. Re:Obligated by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      In the case of Apple, though, are you and me their customers or simply their bitches? Is the product the device or the data from/about its users?

    7. Re:Obligated by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I hardly think that Apple was obliged to change anything. Probably obligated, but not obliged.

      Look up "obliged" in a dictionary.
      You'll find that obliged and obligated are mostly interchangeable.
      The summary's usage is no longer terribly common, but it is still perfectly valid.

    8. Re:Obligated by Sique · · Score: 1

      In this case, we have a foreign abreviation of a foreign word (Nazi from Nationalsozialist). If you modify the word due to the english grammar, you can denote the original core by separating the word and the grammar endings with an apostrophe.

      --
      .sig: Sique *sigh*
    9. Re:Obligated by Mitreya · · Score: 2

      Any company that is not obligated to act for it's customers will eventually be obliged to close it's doors.

      Oooh, I think you forgot to add "... in Europe", due to their stronger consumer-protection laws.
      In United States, several larger companies seem to be doing quite well acting for the politicians and sometimes for the shareholders (in that order).

    10. Re:Obligated by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

      The two words are synonyms:

      obligate (verb): Bind or compel (someone), esp. legally or morally.

      oblige (verb): Make (someone) legally or morally bound to an action or course of action.

    11. Re:Obligated by flyingfsck · · Score: 1

      Pardon me, but you missed a whole two leter word in that sentence, not merely an apostrophe.

      --
      Excuse me, but please get off my Pennisetum Clandestinum, eh!
    12. Re:Obligated by drinkypoo · · Score: 1

      If you modify the word due to the english grammar, you can denote the original core by separating the word and the grammar endings with an apostrophe.

      If you put NAZI in all caps, then you can use your precious apostrophe. But now Nazi is just a word in the dictionary, and it's time to let the apostrophe free for other jobs. You're just holding it back.

      --
      "You're right," Fisheye says. "I should have set it on 'whip' or 'chop.'"
    13. Re:Obligated by mumblestheclown · · Score: 1

      "Any company that is not obligated to act for it's customers will eventually be obliged to close it's doors."

      bollocks.

      this is one of these false truisms like "everybody gets what's coming in the end." it's wishful thinking at its finest--just ask the victims of jimmy saville. it's also incredibly generic, as "act for its customers" can be interpreted in dozens of weasely ways. does ryanair, the most profitable airline in the world, "act for its customers?"

      the reality is that the ONLY way that companies make a profit is by exploiting what is known as "market power." the more market power you have,the higher your profits, and the more you are explicitly NOT being as "nice" to customers as you could be.

    14. Re:Obligated by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      "Obligate" is an illiterate back-construction from "obligation", used by people who are unaware of the word "oblige".

    15. Re:Obligated by mumblestheclown · · Score: 2

      I'm sorry, but that's completely clueless.

      The idea that europe has "stronger consumer protection laws" is utterly false in practice.

      While yes, in europe you have some statutary differences compared to the USA - for example, a categorical right to return items purchase by post, what you do NOT have in europe, in general, is the ability to sue companies directly and/or seek punitive damages except in extremely extraordinary cases that require a myriad of hoops to be jumped through. rather, the mechanisms to go after misbehaving companies relies on public ombudspersons and "trading standards agencies" and the like who tend to go after systemic issues with an eye towards compromise, not correction and who are themselves more often than not very sympathetic to the industries they oversee and their rights to a 'fair profit.' as a result, consumer protection in practice is MUCH weaker in europe than it is in the USA simply because in the USA you can sue.

      I could give you hundreds of stories to illustrate this claim. let's pick a few.

      medical malpractice is a huge one. i have a friend who went in for laser hair removal on her legs at an expensive private clinic in harley street, london. due to incompetence, they mis-set the temperature of the laser which gave my friend burns/welts which lasted for over 4 years. in the USA, this would be an open and shut case with a several hundred thousands dollar judgement for the plaintiff's pain and suffering and as a punative lesson to the for profit clinic to put in safeguards to ensure that this doesnt happen again. in the UK? as my friend is not employed as a model and she could still work, lawyers advised her that her claim might be worth GBP 1000 if that.. hardly worth the effort. there was no good or likely outcome to obtain a punative result against the clinic (even if the punative amount paid went to charity). in short, the company can keep doing what it's doing.

      multiply this accross virtually every industry imaginable. most of europe's product safety standards are simply copied from the US, where they arise due to the US lawsuit culture. of course we all hate there being too many lawyers, but one of the positives of it is that it does lead to safer products (though occasionally over-safe).

      Another example: ryanair routinely engages in egregious behavior that would be sued out of existence in the USA. for example, they engaged in wholesale fraud and deceptive business practices to avoid playing volcano-related claims. who went after them? nobody. because a lack of ability to do a class action against them due to the highly consumer unfriendly culture in europe.

      hoenstly, i know you're trying to reason from first principles and your sterotype of europe as "over-regulated" or wahtever, but in terms of consumer protection, you're completely and totally wrong.

    16. Re:Obligated by Mitreya · · Score: 2

      The idea that europe has "stronger consumer protection laws" is utterly false in practice.

      I will admit that I am not familiar with European laws -- but I refer you to this particular article. Europe apparently has a mandatory 2-year warranty that encapsulates Apple products, yes?

      I do not believe that the 1-year that Apple provides in US is required by law here. I suspect Apple could cut this down to 3 months if they felt like it (the only concern would be consumer backlash)

      Therefore, in this particular case, Europe clearly has stronger consumer protection laws -- but I was wrong to generalize to other cases.

    17. Re:Obligated by Hognoxious · · Score: 1

      If you modify the word due to the english grammar, you can denote the original core by separating the word and the grammar endings with an apostrophe.

      No you can't. We don't ride double-decker bus'ses (the core coming from Latin omnibus) or wear pyjama's (core word from Urdu or Persian ).

      In this case it's being used to indicate that letters have been omitted.

      However it's redundant since Nazi is now recognised as a word in its own right.

      --
      Confucius say, "Find worm in apple - bad. Find half a worm - worse."
    18. Re:Obligated by Hognoxious · · Score: 1

      If you put NAZI in all caps

      ... it's still wrong, because it's not an acronym.

      --
      Confucius say, "Find worm in apple - bad. Find half a worm - worse."
    19. Re:Obligated by fnj · · Score: 1

      Do you feel at all silly for claiming that Nazi is not an acronym?

      An acronym is an abbreviation formed from the initial components in a phrase or a word. These components may be individual letters (as in CEO) or parts of words (as in Benelux and Ameslan). - Wikipedia

      A word (as NATO, radar, or laser) formed from the initial letter or letters of each of the successive parts or major parts of a compound term. - Merriam Webster online.

      Nazi - *Na*tionalso*zi*alistische Deutsche Arbeiterpartei.

    20. Re:Obligated by antdude · · Score: 1

      It's = It is. You're welcome. :P

      --
      Ant(Dude) @ Quality Foraged Links (AQFL.net) & The Ant Farm (antfarm.ma.cx / antfarm.home.dhs.org).
    21. Re:Obligated by Plumpaquatsch · · Score: 1

      Nazi - *Na*tionalso*zi*alistische Deutsche Arbeiterpartei.

      Wrong. It comes from pronouncing *Nati*onal in German.

      --
      Of course news about a fake are Fake News.
    22. Re:Obligated by holophrastic · · Score: 0

      Lookup dictionary in a lexicon, and you'll discover that "use it in a sentence" proves only that you know how others use it in a sentence, not what it actually means at all. Stop corrupting my language through incorrect usage. I don't care how many people make the mistake, it's still a mistake.

      Proven vs. Proved. There's five apples. yellow is a primary colour. sign language. Alright.

    23. Re:Obligated by holophrastic · · Score: 0

      Congrats, you've consulted a source that lists common usage, and it's told you that common people don't know the difference.

      Now use an etymological source, and discover what the words truly mean.

      Here's a hint. They have the same root -- which means that they'll be similar -- and yet they have TOTALLY DIFFERENT AFFIXES -- which means they'll be as different as phosphor and phosphate, confer and conference, confer and prefer. So similar. Not the same.

      Funny thing. English doesn't actually have many synonyms. They wind up being as distinct as beef and cow -- even though beef simply means cow.

    24. Re:Obligated by holophrastic · · Score: 1

      Just to be clear, you're saying that "obligation" is a word that doesn't come from "obligate".

    25. Re:Obligated by Holi · · Score: 1

      >In United States, several larger companies seem to be doing quite well acting for the politicians and sometimes for the shareholders (in that order).

      I thought it was always for the shareholders. I don't see a lot of corps acting for the politicians, it's almost always the other way around.

      --
      Sorry, teleporters just kill you and then make a copy. A perfect, soul-less copy.
    26. Re:Obligated by Plumpaquatsch · · Score: 1

      I'm sorry, but that's completely clueless.

      The idea that europe has "stronger consumer protection laws" is utterly false in practice.

      While yes, in europe you have some statutary differences compared to the USA - for example, a categorical right to return items purchase by post, what you do NOT have in europe, in general, is the ability to sue companies directly and/or seek punitive damages except in extremely extraordinary cases that require a myriad of hoops to be jumped through.

      So Europeans don't have as much rights because they supposedly can't sue a manufacturer when your dog didn't survive being dried in the microwave oven they made.

      --
      Of course news about a fake are Fake News.
    27. Re:Obligated by V+for+Vendetta · · Score: 1

      Wrong again: the term "Nazi" was coined after the already familiar term "Sozi", a pejorative abbreviation for socialists.

    28. Re:Obligated by Plumpaquatsch · · Score: 1

      Wrong again: the term "Nazi" was coined after the already familiar term "Sozi", a pejorative abbreviation for socialists.

      So the fact that both terms are based on pronouncing the first two syllables in German somehow proves wrong what I said - namely exactly that?

      --
      Of course news about a fake are Fake News.
    29. Re:Obligated by V+for+Vendetta · · Score: 1

      Because the "zi" in "Nazi" wasn't taken from the "ti" in "National", as you implied, but from the "zi" in "so*zi*alisten". But another way: "Sozi" stems from "Sozialisten" and "Nazi" was created by replacing the "So" in "Sozi" with "Na" (derived from "National", ofc), hence "Nazi".

    30. Re:Obligated by Plumpaquatsch · · Score: 1

      Yeah, sure, it was taken from So"zi"alist.

      And V wasn't taken from Vendetta, but from Moron.

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  3. My dad once purchased Apple Care by rolfwind · · Score: 5, Informative

    for his iPad. Kept it in a heavy duty switcheasy cover and everything. One day, in front of my eyes, he opened the cover, set the iPad sideways down on the inside of the cover's padded surface, and a huge crack occured, running the length of the screen. Luckily it was only on the black bezel, so it didn't impact use at first after putting duct tape over it to protect the fingers.

    The entire machine was mint, no scratches, no dings on the side, since it was in a case in it's entire life, the crack itself was some long weird trench that imploded. It was apparent that it wasn't some outside force, no center impact spot nor spiderwebbing outwards.

    Even with Apple Care, Apple wouldn't replace it other than to say it would cost $250 to replace it with same model. Which is kinda ridiculous. The screen worked, it was just the digitizer that I found out later costs $60 on iFixit.

    Applecare may have been worth it for past notebooks but not anything else. Most other venders extended warranties attempt to provide some value for the money. The current line of notebooks in the office seem solid, back in the mid-00s, it seemed some Powerbook would blow their motherboard every so often, and some 2-3 times in a row.

    1. Re:My dad once purchased Apple Care by ThatsMyNick · · Score: 1, Informative

      Apple Care is extended warranty, and is not insurance. I doubt you would get a replacement for notebook either.

    2. Re:My dad once purchased Apple Care by mysidia · · Score: 2

      Even with Apple Care, Apple wouldn't replace it other than to say it would cost $250 to replace it with same model. Which is kinda ridiculous. The screen worked, it was just the digitizer that I found out later costs $60 on iFixit.

      Sure sounds like cause for a small claims suit against apple due to failure to provide repair or replacement to address a defect of a product under warranty.

    3. Re:My dad once purchased Apple Care by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 2, Interesting

      A warranty covers defects, and Applecare explicitly says that this covers "Defects arising after customer takes delivery" (contrast with statutory warranties which usually only cover inherent defects - not that I'm saying this isn't an inherent defect, my point is that Applecare you shouldn't even have to argue whether or not it's inherent as it should be covered either way).

      Unless you're accusing the grandparent's dad of secretly neglecting his iPad, this is clearly a defect.

    4. Re:My dad once purchased Apple Care by stephanruby · · Score: 4, Insightful

      Apple Care is extended warranty, and is not insurance.

      That's the entire point of his post.

      It all depends on whether you believe the crack was caused by a manufacturing defect or improper/accidental user behavior. In his case, he clearly believes it was a manufacturing defect. Of course, you can choose not to believe him if you want, that's your call.

      I doubt you would get a replacement for notebook either.

      That's a strawman. He was asking for the device to be fixed, not be replaced (which according to him at least, could have been easily done).

      Besides, an extended warranty doesn't just extend the default limitation of a standard manufacturer warranty, but it's supposed to dictate more advantageous terms than a standard existing warranty (even when a defect is found only within the standard warranty period).

      So if one is to truly believe that this was caused by a manufacturing defect, and not user behavior, it wouldn't be unusual to expect better warranty service when one has purposefully purchased better warranty service in the first place.

    5. Re:My dad once purchased Apple Care by Sheik+Yerbouty · · Score: 1

      My n=1 has been a pretty good one. Never paid a dime during waranty (AppleCare). They never asked questions to what happend with it. They either repaired it (MacBook Pro, iMac) or replaced it (2 year old battery) for free.

    6. Re:My dad once purchased Apple Care by aliquis · · Score: 1

      Left IO-board of my Macbook Pro was claimed to be broken.

      I still haven't bought any and it was such a waste on a good laptop.

      Anyway, the thing is if you google for left io board for a macbook pro the ones you find are for my model. .. so.. Yeah :) (Shouldn't that be a manufacturing fault? Imho the freaking cable to the magsafe connector is a manufacturing fault because it can't handle use.)

  4. Same in Australia by SirAdelaide · · Score: 5, Interesting
    Apple still tries these tactics in Australia, even two years after being brought to public attention. In Australia, if a product isn't fit for purpose, you can return it to the store it was bought from, regardless of what Apple try to tell you. This is one small part of the reason for the 'Australia Tax', the other parts being inexplicable.

    See http://www.lifehacker.com.au/2011/01/apple-stores-warranty-approach-contradicts-australian-consumer-law/ for more detail.

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    1. Re:Same in Australia by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I really have to wonder how that works when a generic product isn't fit for any particular purpose (think Microsoft software licenses).

    2. Re:Same in Australia by jamesh · · Score: 1

      Apple still tries these tactics in Australia, even two years after being brought to public attention. In Australia, if a product isn't fit for purpose, you can return it to the store it was bought from, regardless of what Apple try to tell you. This is one small part of the reason for the 'Australia Tax', the other parts being inexplicable.

      See
      http://www.lifehacker.com.au/2011/01/apple-stores-warranty-approach-contradicts-australian-consumer-law/
      for more detail.

      Phones are even more of a special case in Australia. For other products the wording of the law is that if you paid a substantial amount of money for something and it breaks before the expected lifespan you can expect replacement from the supplier or manufacturer (can't remember which, the supplier I think). For phones, if you are under contract then the phone is considered under warranty and the phone company is responsible for it.

      I'd hoped this would reduce the amount of crap on the market - a store might not stock a crappy brand of TV if they knew they would be stuck with the warranty. It doesn't seem to have turned out that way though.

    3. Re:Same in Australia by thegarbz · · Score: 1

      Warranties are handled by the supplier via the Australian distributor. The store has little to do with it. They are in fact in the right not to handle your warranty at all and can simply direct you to the manufacturer. It doesn't cost the store anything (if they are bastards) or very little (if they have good customer service and handle things like warranties) to replace a very cheap TV.

    4. Re:Same in Australia by drinkypoo · · Score: 1

      In Australia, if a product isn't fit for purpose, you can return it to the store it was bought from, regardless of what Apple try to tell you.

      In California, you can return a defective product to _any outlet which sells it_ any time during the warranty period. Needless to say, some retailers are not too happy about this concept. Some of them cheat brutally to get around it. For example, Sears changes their model numbers every year so that they technically don't have the same product.

      --
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    5. Re:Same in Australia by delt0r · · Score: 2

      New Zealand has the same kinda of rules. I purchased a game that did not run on my machine at all despite being above the minimum required on the box. The shop of course said that there are no returns once the package is open. Sorry but that is *not* the law, its what they want you to believe. I did get my money back when i pointed out the law, and also reminded them that i can in fact get legal aid for such matters in NZ for free.

      The game was unplayable on hardware it claimed to be playable on. That is not fit for its intended purpose. Note in NZ they can replace the item or refund at their discretion, and you can't claim "damages" caused by the fault.

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    6. Re:Same in Australia by sd4f · · Score: 1

      But the warranty laws in Australia compel the shop to handle the warranty, you are meant to take it back to the place of purchase. For most electronic goods, the retailer really can't do anything, so that's why they have manufacturers warranty, that's all arranged outside what the law allows, but no one worries, because a defective product gets fixed and the customer should be satisfied. The law also allows some reasonable leniency with entry level gear, as it does examine that in "fit for purpose" you buy premium goods, you should expect premium performance, but buy bottom rung, you should expect performance which isn't as good.

      Fit for purpose also means that one could also chase up products which are defective by design, not just a production anomaly. One could argue that if something is unreasonably fragile.

    7. Re:Same in Australia by AmiMoJo · · Score: 1

      you can't claim "damages" caused by the fault.

      Really? It sounds like NZ law is fairly similar to UK law, where goods must also be "fit for purpose". In that case you can claim compensation if you suffered some loss as a result of them not being fit for the intended purpose, such as if some freestanding shelves that claim to support 100kg collapse and damage 95kg of your stuff.

      It is really quite interesting how much you can punish companies for messing you about, lying or simply failing to deliver what they promised. For example if you arrange delivery at a particular time and they don't show you can then claim compensation for any extra time off work you need to take for the re-delivery.

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    8. Re:Same in Australia by thegarbz · · Score: 1

      Handle the warranty does not mean pay for the replacement. Again this is a warranty. Warranty is always covered by a the local distributor. The cost to the shop is the cost of shipping if there even is a cost like that. This is the reason why we still have cheap shit products on the market.

      Fit for purpose is exactly why the Xbox360 red ring of death is covered regardless if the warranty is there or not. I fully support this. People buy a console expecting to need to purchase only the one in the console's life. The NES would last until the SNES was released, the SNES until the N64, the N64 until the gamecube, the xbox until the xbox360, oh what the xbox360 didn't last till the 720 was released? Clearly not fit for purpose.

  5. And apple still wins out probably by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    And Apple will still have benefited from the whole thing if they keep getting only a small fines like the € 900,000.
    At about 1205000, assuming say a lowball 100 bucks in average repair costs (parts and labor for Apple), that only equals about the cost of 12000 devices. Surely, there was more returns then that meaning they actually saved money. Add in getting extra money for their AppleCare and really, is there any reason why not to break the law when they come out on top even if caught?

  6. EU and US price differences... by tlhIngan · · Score: 1

    All Apple has to do is build in the price of AppleCare into every new purchase. That's all. Like everyone else who sells stuff in the EU - the extended warranty price is built into the price EU customers pay. Just like sales taxes and other stuff needed to comply. It just becomes another reason why US prices are "lower" than EU prices.

    Though, there is a *slight* difference between AppleCare and just a bog-standard warranty - since AppleCare offers support as well (you get 90 days of phone support standard, it extends to the full AppleCare period if you buy it).

    Perhaps Apple will just offer an "AppleCare lite" for the EU that extends support and all that extra stuff it gives other than a warranty.

    Though, the easiest way though is to just scrap AppleCare in the EU, and say all Apple products sold in the EU come with a standard 2 year AppleCare built in and adjust the prices accordingly. Or if the law says 3 years, then the 3 year AppleCare price gets built in. Or 5 years, or whatever.

    Would there be any reasonable reason otherwise? I mean, instead of trying to convince probably 10% of people to buy it, just build it in so 100% of people get it and comply with the law at the same time.

    1. Re:EU and US price differences... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 3, Insightful

      They already do this. A USD 2199 macbook is a EUR 2199 macbook. But the question is why Apple should be allowed to sell hightech junk which needs repair within two years. Hardly value for money.

    2. Re:EU and US price differences... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      What the hell are you talking about? The EU/US price difference doesn't come from this. It's because none of these things are assembled or manufactured here, everything is imported. Which means shipping and import taxes. All which, Americans for instance, pay when they want a BMW.

    3. Re:EU and US price differences... by turbidostato · · Score: 4, Informative

      "What the hell are you talking about? The EU/US price difference doesn't come from this. It's because none of these things are assembled or manufactured here, everything is imported."

      What the hell are you talking about? It is long ago that prices are unrelated to costs but to whatever the buyer is wanting to pay.

    4. Re:EU and US price differences... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      What the hell ar you talking about? All iPhone/iPad/i... gear is produced in CHINA (read my lips).

      A BMW on the other hand is indeed made mostly in Germany (although some models are made in the US in Spartanburg, nl. X5, Z3 Z3 Coupé).

      The price difference is a question of pricing and taxes (as allways).

    5. Re:EU and US price differences... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      VWs are cheaper in the US than in Germany, don't believe me, check the website. They are cheaper without even factoring in exchange rates, I think the difference on the current base model Jetta is something like $15,000 in the US or E22,000. If the US is losing on import taxes they're getting it back somewhere else.

    6. Re:EU and US price differences... by tlhIngan · · Score: 1

      "What the hell are you talking about? The EU/US price difference doesn't come from this. It's because none of these things are assembled or manufactured here, everything is imported."

      What the hell are you talking about? It is long ago that prices are unrelated to costs but to whatever the buyer is wanting to pay.

      Well, costs too.

      Let's say a $2200 MacBook Pro which costs EU2200 as well (approximately US$2969, but let's say $3000).

      FIrst you have anywhere from 15-20% import duties for foreign made goods ($330-440). Another 10-15% for sales tax (EU builds sales tax into price) ($220-330). And for fairness, let's say we have 8% sales tax in the US.

      Right now, we're at US$2200+8% or $2376 for the one in the US. For the EU, we have $2200 base price, plus $330 for import duties, plus $220 for sales tax, so we're anywhere from $2750-2950, depending on country, local taxes, etc. And the EU one sells for $3000 all in (vs. 2376 for the US one all-in), so if you're in a low-tax country, you're getting screwed nearly 10%, but if you're in a high-tax country you're pretty much sitting pretty since the prices cover taxes.

      Of course, businesses set prices in advance without knowing how the currencies fluctuate.

      Now we'll add $275 for AppleCare to the EU one (because the law says we have to provide 2 years warranty), so the EU one should cost anywhere from $3025-3325 all-in, or EU2275-2500. Which is what the new ones will cost now because they include all taxes, duties, and extended warranty. We don't add it to the US price because US consumers can choose the standard 1 year warranty or buy AppleCare for 2/3 years.

      Of course, the $2200 is what Apple determined as a "fair market price" as is the $275 for Applecare. But taxes and duties are set by the government.

      I guess the TLDR version is - the EU isn't being horrendously gouged in the end - between built-in sales tax, duties and extended warranties. Though the question becomes - what happens when someone imports from the US?

      And yes, Apple should get dinged for this, because they know the law demands 2 years, so they should've priced in AppleCare into the whole thing to begin with.

      Of course, what's ridiculous is in the US, many things only come with a 90 day warranty

    7. Re:EU and US price differences... by lxs · · Score: 1

      10-15% Sales tax? For electronics it's more like 20% sales tax in most EU countries.

    8. Re:EU and US price differences... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      the US jetta and the EU jetta are NOT the same car.

    9. Re:EU and US price differences... by Computershack · · Score: 1

      Laptops are zero rated for import duty in the EU,

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    10. Re:EU and US price differences... by turbidostato · · Score: 1

      "Well, costs too."

      No, not at all.

      "Let's say a $2200 MacBook Pro which costs EU2200 as well"

      First mistake. Is not "costs EUR2200" but "it's price-tagged EUR2200".

      Second mistake is that your MacBook Pro really costs somewhere around 300~500EUR, not 2200.

      Price is not bound to costs but to whatever marketing says the prospective customer is willing to pay. If what the customer is willing to pay minus your expected profit is less than the production costs, you don't rise the price, you low your costs or leave the market.

    11. Re:EU and US price differences... by bfandreas · · Score: 1

      The price difference may be due to VAT which tends to be very high in the EU. Around 20%, actually.
      In some countries it may be that iStuff can be sold at reduced VAT but it is highly unlikely.

      --
      20 minutes into the future
    12. Re:EU and US price differences... by bfandreas · · Score: 1

      ...or the 20% VAT in Europe. That would be the sane explanation...

      --
      20 minutes into the future
  7. So what is Apple actually accused of? by sl3xd · · Score: 1

    A summary that merely states that Apple has a warranty, and that Apple is misleading customers.

    OK, fine, but... how is Apple misleading customers? Neither the summary, nor the linked article give any clue.

    --
    -- Sometimes you have to turn the lights off in order to see.
    1. Re:So what is Apple actually accused of? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

      AFAIK EU and Belgian law already mandate certain warrantees regardless of wether you buy AppleCare or not, and Apple is accused of portraying certain warrantees to only apply if you do buy AppleCare.

    2. Re:So what is Apple actually accused of? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

      Two year warranty presented as an extension. Two year warranty is required by European law. I'm sure that's probably just a start.

    3. Re:So what is Apple actually accused of? by Psilax · · Score: 4, Informative

      In Europe there is a consumer law that demands that the sales person of a electronics device is required to give 2 years guarantee for free. So what our consumer-organisation is suing for is that apple only give 1 year and sells the other year for a profit while this should be free. (Or roughly something like that) But off course this will not make a lot of difference since 1million euros is hardly a dent in Apple profits around here since a couple of schools are starting to make iPad a basic necessity for education and others are looking at them as an example instead of going for the open-source android communities.

    4. Re:So what is Apple actually accused of? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

      In Europe there is a consumer law that demands that the sales person of a electronics device is required to give 2 years guarantee for free.

      Despite what the law may imply, the 2-year guarantee is not free. The company selling the product still has to pay to provide warranty service, and that cost will be included in the price of the product.

      Yet another example of a law taking away your opportunity. Both for the customer and the producer.

    5. Re:So what is Apple actually accused of? by Animats · · Score: 4, Informative

      how is Apple misleading customers?

      Probably the same way they were in the UK and Italy. Apple was using false and misleading advertising to sell unnecessary "AppleCare" coverage when EU law required a 2-year warranty built into the price of the product.

    6. Re:So what is Apple actually accused of? by GNious · · Score: 3, Interesting

      [...] since a couple of schools are starting to make iPad a basic necessity for education and others are looking at them as an example instead of going for the open-source android communities.

      Not to mention the income from fixing 15% of the school iPads every year: http://www.dr.dk/Nyheder/Viden/Teknologi/2013/01/Crashtest_af_ipads_soroe.htm ..or when kids end up spending 2000 euros on stuff "by accident": http://www.dr.dk/P4/Aarhus/Nyheder/Odder/2012/02/02/02134329.htm
        (Danish links - use google trans)

    7. Re:So what is Apple actually accused of? by Psilax · · Score: 1

      I don't see the loss for us as consumers in this.
      The consumer has more opportunities when buying expensive stuff and it gets broken.
      (And yes for us as belgians products are more expensive then in our surrounding countries)

      And I don't see a loss of opportunity for producers either since it is the seller that pays for the guarantee and the producer only has to make sure it has a good image.

    8. Re:So what is Apple actually accused of? by gnasher719 · · Score: 1

      Two year warranty presented as an extension. Two year warranty is required by European law. I'm sure that's probably just a start.

      And what you say is nonsense. You are confusing warranty and statutory rights. Any _manufacturer_ is free to give you any manufacturer's warranty that they like under any terms they like. Any _seller_ where you buy an item is responsible that the item is of sufficient quality. Calling that 'warranty' is quite misleading.

    9. Re:So what is Apple actually accused of? by turbidostato · · Score: 4, Insightful

      espite what the law may imply, the 2-year guarantee is not "free."

      The law doesn't imply 2-year warantee should come for free but that must be included in the front price of the product.

      "Yet another example of a law taking away your opportunity."

      There's a non fair bargaining position on the seller: we knows perfectly what the innards of the product he is selling are, but the seller can't. This way the buyer is protected knowing there's a minimal quality all products needs to abide to. It leverages the playing field for all vendors, hardly a way of taking away oportunities, except for oportunities to abuse the buyer, of course.

    10. Re:So what is Apple actually accused of? by mosb1000 · · Score: 1

      Apple Care isn't just an extended warranty. It includes tech support.

    11. Re:So what is Apple actually accused of? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You don't live in the EU, do you?

    12. Re:So what is Apple actually accused of? by L4t3r4lu5 · · Score: 1

      It's not about the â900,000. The judgement stated that Apple needs to bring their warranty in line with EU Law. If they fail, I wouldn't be surprised if there are significant repercussions (Import / trade ban until it's sorted, for instance).

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    13. Re:So what is Apple actually accused of? by hcs_$reboot · · Score: 1

      the 2-year guarantee is not free. The company selling the product still has to pay to provide warranty service, and that cost will be included in the price of the product

      Certainly true. But Apple may not want to extend much the already high price gap between their products and the competition - especially for tablets and phones. For the record, many electronic shops in France (eg FNAC) do not care at all about this 2-year warranty law when selling less known laptop brands, for instance. And nobody complains (besides me :-)

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    14. Re:So what is Apple actually accused of? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      And tech support is included in the mandatory 2 years.

      Who do you think fixes the broken stuff when you bring it in under warranty? You give it to the cashier, she opens the pad and starts soldering things in/out?

    15. Re:So what is Apple actually accused of? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      the problem is more that they were denying the legally mandated warranty and selling apple care as if it were an extended warranty. The EU does indeed have a 2 year warranty on electrical devices, however this has never been implemented in UK law - it doesn't need to be. The Sale Of Goods Act already grants longer - iirc it words it as a "reasonable time" (which the courts in England interpret as up to 6 years, or 5 years in Scotland - we have different and independent legal systems) if I spent £659 on an ipad I'd expect it to last at least 5 years.

      The key here is that your warranty is with the seller, not the manufacturer - as that is who you have a contract with. If you bought from the apple website then they're one and the same, but if you bought from currys/dixons then you need to take the item back to them, they often try to fob you off by telling you to use the manufacturers warranty - tell them to STFU and meet their contractual obligations and deal with the manufacturer for you - like the law says.

      If you live in the UK you really should read The Sale Of Goods Act (http://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/1979/54) and Supply of Goods and Services Act (http://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/1982/29) so that you know your rights - often a good idea to carry a PDF copy on your phone - I keep meaning to right an app but I'm lazy.

    16. Re:So what is Apple actually accused of? by mosb1000 · · Score: 1

      That's not what tech support is.

    17. Re:So what is Apple actually accused of? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      hardly a way of taking away oportunities, except for oportunities to abuse the buyer, of course

      Well, it is Apple we're talking about, isn't it?

    18. Re:So what is Apple actually accused of? by delt0r · · Score: 1

      You should see what the new eWaste laws are like then!

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    19. Re:So what is Apple actually accused of? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      What is tech support ? I'm not familiar with that legal term.
      If the product's advertised functionality is impaired, the warranty kicks in. Apple is mandated to offer free repair or substitution minus shipment. Software functionality is no different than hardware functionality.

    20. Re:So what is Apple actually accused of? by gnasher719 · · Score: 1

      It's not about the Ã900,000. The judgement stated that Apple needs to bring their warranty in line with EU Law. If they fail, I wouldn't be surprised if there are significant repercussions (Import / trade ban until it's sorted, for instance).

      Apple didn't have to change their manufacturer warranty at all. The consequence of all this is apparently that Apple is going to stop offering Apple Care in Italy. I'll try to explain what _actually_ happened, in case some slashdotters have the brain power to understand it:

      The manufacturer can offer any warranty they like. The seller has to fix faults under certain conditions for a certain amount of time. A manufacturer or a store can also offer to sell an extended warranty. Now when you buy extended warranty, and the warranty promises "we will do A, B, and C for you", the customer doesn't actually pay for A, B and C. They pay for A, B, and C, minus whatever rights they had anyway. And that is what the Italian complaint was about: When Apple sells Apple Care, they need to tell the buyer what they are exactly buying, and that means informing them about any rights that are part of Apple Care, but that the customer would have had without buying Apple Care.

      Note that the only people that Apple has to inform are those buying Apple Care, because when selling Apple Care, Apple has to accurately describe what the customer is getting. In all other cases, the onus is on the customer to inform himself about their laws.

      And interestingly, Dell is offering extended warranties, and they don't mention _anywhere_ on their Italian or any other website that the customer would have other rights, and neither Italian courts nor anyone on slashdot complains. (Again, they don't have to mention it when you buy a computer. They should mention it when selling extended warranties).

    21. Re:So what is Apple actually accused of? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You don't live in the EU, do you?

      I do, and I agree with what he said. See here for example: http://www.consumenteninformatiepunt.nl/page/en/themes/Kopen-in-de-EU
      (the text is in English). The two-year statutory warranty requires that the seller, not the manufacturer, repair any deficiency present at the time the item was bought. If a fault becomes apparent within the first six months, it is assumed to have been present in the beginning.

      This is completely separate from any manufacturer's warranty. What the EU is criticizing is that Apple supposedly makes it sound as if you needed the extended warranty for cases that are covered under the statutory warranty. I have no idea whether or not it's true, but in my eyes it's a ridiculous law-suit.

    22. Re:So what is Apple actually accused of? by FireFury03 · · Score: 1

      Yet another example of a law taking away your opportunity. Both for the customer and the producer.

      Yep, yet another example of a law taking away a manufacturer's opportunity to sell expensive and badly constructed crap that won't last more than a few months. Honestly, I would be very wary of buying from any manufacturer who has enough concerns about their hardware failing in short-order that they will publically flout the law to avoid having to take on any of the financial risk of it doing so.

    23. Re:So what is Apple actually accused of? by Hognoxious · · Score: 1

      Despite what the law may imply, the 2-year guarantee is not free. The company selling the product still has to pay to provide warranty service, and that cost will be included in the price of the product.

      Well thanks, roman_mir, for pointing that out.

      There we were, thinking those free peanuts at the bar were dropped from the sky by unicorn-piloted Zeppelins.

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    24. Re:So what is Apple actually accused of? by Sigg3.net · · Score: 1

      The company selling the product still has to pay to provide warranty service, and that cost will be included in the price of the product.

      Yet another example of a law taking away your opportunity. Both for the customer and the producer.

      What you call the lack of opportunity others call a right. If you buy something brand new, you have rights. Rights ensure that responsibility on both sides is clear and followed. You don't get that without law because law goes beyond whatever excuses a company may give you to claim warranty void. (Sure, laws must be improved but it doesn't change the fact that you will at some time need a third-party to solve the conflict.)

        If you want it cheaper without any rights buy it secondhand.

    25. Re:So what is Apple actually accused of? by Hognoxious · · Score: 1

      but if you bought from currys/dixons then you need to take the item back to them

      If you bought it from Comet or Jessops, better take a big hammer with you[1].

      http://www.retailresearch.org/whosegonebust.php

      Cripes-a-mercy, it'd be quicker to list the ones that haven't gone tits-up.

      [1] I believe the warranty liability in fact moves up to the next member of the supply chain - usually the importer or manufacturer. If they're still operating.

      --
      Confucius say, "Find worm in apple - bad. Find half a worm - worse."
    26. Re:So what is Apple actually accused of? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The company selling the product still has to pay to provide warranty service if their products are complete crap such that they often break after one year already

      FTFY

    27. Re:So what is Apple actually accused of? by Plumpaquatsch · · Score: 1

      In Europe there is a consumer law that demands that the sales person of a electronics device is required to give 2 years guarantee for free.
      So what our consumer-organisation is suing for is that apple only give 1 year and sells the other year for a profit while this should be free.
      (Or roughly something like that)

      Than your consumer-organisation would be a bunch of morons, because Apple will most certainly grant the two year EU Statutory Warranty if they are the seller (and if they aren't, then that's non of their business anyway).

      http://www.apple.com/uk/legal/statutory-warranty/ http://www.apple.com/benl/legal/statutory-warranty/

      --
      Of course news about a fake are Fake News.
    28. Re:So what is Apple actually accused of? by SvnLyrBrto · · Score: 1

      Thanks for the details that everyone else is ignoring. I gather, from your last paragraph, that you are fluent in both English and Italian. So I find myself wondering then:

      >Note that the only people that Apple has to inform
      >are those buying Apple Care, because when selling
      >Apple Care, Apple has to accurately describe what
      >the customer is getting. In all other cases, the onus
      >is on the customer to inform himself about their laws.

      Does something in the AppleCare documentation get lost in translation from English to Italian and become unclear? Or is it not a translation or localization, but fresh copy, written locally but poorly?

      I ask because I've purchased AppleCare for multiple products myself. In no case did I find the English-language documentation confusing or ambiguous. I know and understand exactly what I get when I buy it, to the point that the differences between the coverage for different products (MacBooks vs. iOS devices, for example) jump right out to me very obviously.

      --
      Imagine all the people...
    29. Re:So what is Apple actually accused of? by jimicus · · Score: 2

      Not entirely true.

      The product has to last a "reasonable time". What's reasonable depends on the product - nobody expects a bunch of bananas to last two years, for example.

      In any event, "reasonable time" is there to cover defects present at time of purchase. Certainly in the UK (don't know about elsewhere) the rule is: under 6 months old, it's assumed that the product was faulty from the day it was sold and the burden of proof is on the retailer to show it wasn't. Over 6 months, the burden of proof is on the customer.

      Where things become awkward is that Apple put - in big wording all over their website - "1 year warranty! Buy AppleCare to extend it to 3 years!". Which is patently untrue. They've re-done the wording so as to say "if you're in the EU, we'll do the bare minimum after 1 year. But we'll do more if you buy AppleCare".

      Personally, I think they should be looking at companies like Currys. Their entire business model is built around "sell the TV with almost zero profit but push an extended warranty that's 95% profit".

    30. Re:So what is Apple actually accused of? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I know no italian nor have I read the applecare documentation, but I think he said that apple has to explain exactly what the applecare warranty gives BEYOND the warranty the buyer would already have by default in the EU, so I think it is this difference that is the new information, not the details of the warranty itself.

    31. Re:So what is Apple actually accused of? by houghi · · Score: 1

      The law doesn't imply 2-year warantee should come for free but that must be included in the front price of the product.

      I used to work with a company for consume goods when the period went from 1 year to 2 years. We already sold an extended warranty for 3 years.

      So what they did was just recalculate the price to include the expected loss of extended warranty sales. When I asked the CEO if he thought it was a burden to not be able to sell the amount of warranty he said no. The income would not change as prices would be adapted (no extra income, because of competition) but there would be less effort needed to those sales.

      In the price increase the extra amount of devices that would come in were also calculated. I believe the increase in price was somewhere around 2-5% of the cost of the extended warranty.

      --
      Don't fight for your country, if your country does not fight for you.
    32. Re:So what is Apple actually accused of? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Apple is not only a manufacturer, it also sells stuff directly to consumers though their own stores (b&m or webshop). If you'd take a look at the warranty Apple gives to on their products on the Belgian website: http://www.apple.com/benl/legal/statutory-warranty/ They state the consumer only has 1 year limited warranty (second row, second column) even though they state the EU consumer right is 2 years (1st row, second column).

    33. Re:So what is Apple actually accused of? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      [1] I believe the warranty liability in fact moves up to the next member of the supply chain - usually the importer or manufacturer. If they're still operating.
      ---

      believe it all you like, but much like God, believing in it doesn't make it real.
      If the seller has gone into liquidation or administration, then you can seek redress with the liquidator or administrator... good luck with that. If the product happens to come with a manufacturers warranty then this is the only occasion when it has any real value to you.

      as for the SOGA and SGSA warranty responsibilities, they cease to exist when the company that sold them ceases (this is what limited liability means) if you bought from a sole trader or partnership (NB, not an LLP) then you can seek redress with the individual(s) concerned.

  8. How many European countries will it take by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

    Before Apple does what it should have done from the start and changes its warranty document to mention 2 years as required by European law?

    For example, the court in Brussels could reasonably decide that Apple has been made aware of the European warranty requirements after the court decision in Italy and that its more recent neglect in updating its documentation is a willful violation of what it is required to do by law in Europe and thus the penalties will be somewhat more harsh.

  9. Apple does not respect only warranty laws? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Far more importantly; I feel they do not respect:

    1. Environmental laws
    2. Fair use doctrine on copyright laws
    3. The spirit of the patent laws
    4. Competing in the markets instead of crushing competition in the courts law
    etc.

    Those laws are more valuable to prospective buyers. Warranty laws affect only those who have already been suckered into buying Apple's products. Thankfully, even though large, they are still a microscopic minority compared to the rest of us.

  10. Gender-equality by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    This is the same group of bright sparks that has forced insurers to charge the same premiums for males and females for all types of insurance (motor, life, pension, etc), despite clear statistical evidence to the contrary, which ultimately leads to higher prices for everybody in the EU who buys insurance (as it is then not possible to actually price for the actual underlying risk, so insurers take higher margins to compensate). However right or wrong they may be in the Apple case, Test-Achats has not shown overwhelming evidence of intelligence in the past, but large doses of dogmatism instead.

    1. Re:Gender-equality by ledow · · Score: 4, Insightful

      I think you forget what insurance is.

      If everyone pays insurance by the risk that they personally pose, we all just end up paying for our own costs. Thus, "insurance" in that sense becomes just a middle-man who takes a percentage of what we have to pay anyway.

      Insurance is intended to cover lots of people because the 1% who actually have an accident that month are covered by the 99% who didn't but still paid a (small) premium anyway.

      The problem is not the equality, but the way the insurance companies DO NOT PASS those savings on to customers (i.e. if they have 50% male and 50% female drivers, say, the female drivers will pay and subsidise the males and, by comparison, the males pay the same but have more accidents so get a better deal). The question is really why does a bad woman driver get a better insurance than a good male driver when everything is recorded and added up? That's the problem that was solved by the equality legislation, and the insurer's profiteering from it is the INSURER'S being arseholes.

      Any "insurance" where you end up paying more than others isn't insurance (US medical insurance is another example - if I have to pay more because I have condition X, then why would I pay it to an insurance company when I could just put it in a bank and pay it direct? Hence most people who need insurance, don't have it, which ruins the point of medical insurance - it just becomes easy-money for the insurer's because the high-risk pay their own bills, effectively, and the low-risk pay every month for nothing).

      It's just red-tape around paying what you owe anyway. And most modern "insurance" is exactly like that. If we ALL paid flood insurance, it would cost us 2p each a year. If only those who live in flood plains pay it, they might as well just put it in the bank and pay costs of each flood as it happens because it's only the high-risk people who are subsidising the majority of the insurance anyway. Some countries have blanket car insurance, because of this - every driver pays exactly the same and is insured to the same level. They can buy MORE insurance if they want, but everyone benefits from the basic insurance and pays less than they otherwise would.

      And then people wonder why there are areas of London, say, where you cannot get insurance for your car because NOBODY there has insurance (Tottenham was in the news just last year for this - it's so hard to get insurance, because nobody else has it in the local area and it costs the insurer's money to pursue them when there's an accident, that nobody has insurance - something like 40% of drivers registered to Tottenham addresses are uninsured!).

      Insurance isn't about "you cost me more, so I charge you more". Insurance is a blanket cover that covers the total costs of everyone it insures, paid for by everyone contributing an equal amount. Anything else is red-tape and bullshit. Notice, then, that car insurance rising because women have the pay the same as men now (i.e. closer to "real" insurance), is red-tape and bullshit and not related to the legislation at all.

      Just wait for the trials about age discrimination on the same thing - why should someone get discriminated against because they are 20 with 10 years of driving experience, compared to someone who is 50 with 5 years of driving experience? And then they'll be a trial about where-you-live not being good enough to judge your insurance risk (especially if you drive around the country a lot), etc. etc. etc. and we'll slowly creep our way back to "proper" insurance.

    2. Re:Gender-equality by bryan1945 · · Score: 1

      Over here in the US, there is no equality in insurance. For example, there are different rates for men/women and young/old based on historical evidence. But if a bad woman drive has a few accidents, her rates are going to explode. Not sure where you're getting your medical insurance info from, but my wife who has diabetes pays the same amount as her healthy coworkers. And in the US you don't have to buy flood insurance. The thing is, if you pay your $5/month for flood, and you house is destroyed, the federal government comes in and pays the few $100k to fix you up, garnered from the whole country's tax dollars, so essentially everyone ends up paying for the flood insurance. If you don't buy it, and get wiped out, I hope you have stashed that few $100k in the bank, rather than paying $600 over 10 years for insurance.

      --
      Vote monkeys into Congress. They are cheaper and more trustworthy.
    3. Re:Gender-equality by FireFury03 · · Score: 1

      If we ALL paid flood insurance, it would cost us 2p each a year. If only those who live in flood plains pay it, they might as well just put it in the bank and pay costs of each flood as it happens because it's only the high-risk people who are subsidising the majority of the insurance anyway.

      I agree with everything you said right up to this point. I certainly think that discriminating against people based on something that is out of their control is bad and defeats the point of insurance. However, where something is within your control, there should be a penalty for making the more risky choice in order to incentivise people not to do it. If you're stupid enough to *choose* to buy a house that's built on a flood plain, you shouldn't expect those of us who picked a less risky location to pick up the tab for your bad choices. Building on flood plains is a really stupid idea (not only because you're likely to get flooded, but because it also produces new flood plains downstream, flooding previously safe properties), and the only way its going to stop is if there's a big penalty for doing it (being unable to insure a property would probably make people think twice before buying it, which would make builders think twice before building potentially unsalable properties in a crazy location).

      And then people wonder why there are areas of London, say, where you cannot get insurance for your car because NOBODY there has insurance (Tottenham was in the news just last year for this - it's so hard to get insurance, because nobody else has it in the local area and it costs the insurer's money to pursue them when there's an accident, that nobody has insurance - something like 40% of drivers registered to Tottenham addresses are uninsured!).

      The state of the UK car insurance industry is insane. The insurers claim that they need to increase premiums to cover the number of uninsured drivers, which only encourages more people to avoid insuring because they can no longer justify the increased price, so the premiums go up again, rinse-repeat. Add to that that the legal penalties if you're caught without insurance are often a fraction of what you would've paid for the insurance in the first place. And this is a huge problem for new drivers - a couple of years ago, out of curiosity, I looked at the price of insurance for new drivers with a 10 year old 1.0 litre Corsa and it was around £2000/year for third party only. What kind of new driver can afford that kind of money? Introducing new drivers to the idea that insurance is unaffordably expensive just trains them to avoid insuring, and they will likely continue for many years.

      Notice, then, that car insurance rising because women have the pay the same as men now (i.e. closer to "real" insurance), is red-tape and bullshit and not related to the legislation at all.

      I was interested that SwiftCover recently sent round a mailshot demanding that "due to recent antidiscrimination legislation" they require all their customers to provide additional information about themselves. Which I read as "because the legislators have stopped us discriminating against men, please provide more information about yourself so we can find something else to base our discrimination on."

  11. WE DON' T HAVE TO CARE !! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    We're the telephone company Apple !!

    (Snort)

  12. I'm confused by CodeheadUK · · Score: 2

    Apple fans always bang on about how Apple stores go the extra mile to fix problems and replace broken products. Customer care is always pushed as a big plus and one of the justifications for the 'premium' cost of the products.

    Are they lying? Or have the courts got it wrong?

    1. Re:I'm confused by Sigg3.net · · Score: 1

      Apple users accept. If Apple said it, it must be good and true.

      I support Apple products, and even when it is clear the user is screwed, s/he accepts it with a baffling air of gratitude. This has never happened with PC users so far.

      Must be PR.

  13. Apple :( by hocamnet · · Score: 1

    An unexpected move from apple..

  14. Re:Sue the Americans by ACluk90 · · Score: 2

    No, American companies are too ignorant to respect the local laws. If they sell millions of devices they are 'reminded' by a court ruling with a ridiculously small fine (given the extent of the infringement) and get a chance to correct their behaviour. Often they fail to do so and end up paying huge fines.

    On the other side, American companies see the Europeans as cash cows. What costs 500USD in the US often costs 500EUR=670USD in the Euro zone and often comes to the market later.

  15. You have not the slightest idea by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

    You have not the slightest idea of the concept of insurance but yet you try to explain it.
    Insurance is not a social safety net. Insurance is based on personal risk.
    Forcing people who are not living on flood plains to buy flood insurance so the premiums of those people living in risky areas has nothing to do with the concept of insurance. It's a subsidy for taking flood risk.

    Why don't you at least look up Wikipedia. You and the people who modded this Insightful.

  16. It's a bloody press release! by gnasher719 · · Score: 1

    This article is not based on any court papers that this Belgian consumer organization filed, but just on a press release! Since it is just a press release, they can add all the fluffy bits, like confusing "warranty" and "statutory rights", calling a case in Italy "precedent" when it is no such thing, and so on.

    And of course there will be tons of complaints about Apple's handling of warranties, because any bloody idiot dropping his iPhone into the toilet wants a free replacement from Apple and complains when they don't get one. (And insurers have found that the number of "accidentally" damaged iPhones more than doubles when a new model is released)

    1. Re:It's a bloody press release! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      of course I'm only commenting on the English here as I haven't read the untranslated release. there is no confusion between warranty and statutory rights, the later is the former. when you sell something you are declaring that it is fit for purpose (this is a warrant you are making). The Italian case certainly is a precedent, as the word means "went before" which it did. From my reading I do not see any implication or wording that indicates that that precedent is in anyway binding on the Belgium court.

      Phones do get dropped into toilets on a regular basis, if the phone can't survive this is it really fit for purpose?
      the insurers really should investigate more (but it's cheaper to just pay the claim) and prosecute those attempting this fraud to the fullest extent of the law.

  17. Know Your Implied Statutory Warranty Rights by CuteSteveJobs · · Score: 3, Informative

    In some countries (your mileage may vary) there is an implied statutory warranty that the product will operate properly for the reasonable lifetime of the product. This is ADDITIONAL TO the express manufacturer's warranty. It doesn't cover wear and tear and obviously doesn't cover abuse either, but does mean the product must function properly and do what it is supposed to do. If it doesn't, you are entitled to a remedy: a refund, replacement, etc., to be mutually agreed between you and the seller.

    Most consumers are ignorant of their statutory warranty rights, so when a manufacturer provides a 12 month warranty consumers think if it breaks a day after that they aren't covered. Not true, though they may have to approach the manufacturer directly instead of the retailer. Another is that when a manufacturer advertises "a lifetime warranty" you already have one by law anyway, so they are only telling you what they have to give you anyway. And finally it means that Extended Warranties are usually a complete waste of money: They are getting you to pay for a right you already have by law anyway.

    Again, your mileage may vary. Talk to your local consumer affairs bureau to find your local rules. Be warned that retailers can be real pricks about warranties , and sometimes consumer affairs will need to come in with a baseball bat and remind them if your statutory rights. Manufacturers would prefer it if you didn't know any of this. Also sometimes a manufacturer will insist you pay for return shipping or drop off at your own expense. Check your local laws: they might be obliged to pick up the cost or do this for you.

    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Uniform_Commercial_Code Implied Warranties US
    http://www.apple.com/au/legal/statutory-warranty/ Statutory Warranties AU
    http://www.dtvforum.info/index.php?showtopic=84941 Statutory Warranties AU
    http://www.consumerlaw.gov.au/content/the_acl/downloads/consumer_guarantees_guide.pdf Most Recent Laws AU
    http://au.news.yahoo.com/today-tonight/consumer/article/-/9803967/worthless-warranties/ Extended Warranty


    One bonus tip for reading this far: Merchants often trick people into accepting warranties with clauses waiving your statutory rights, no returns signs and the like. It often works by dissuading from trying, but if it goes to a small claims court the judge will draw a big line through them.

    1. Re:Know Your Implied Statutory Warranty Rights by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      One bonus tip for reading this far: Merchants often trick people into accepting warranties with clauses waiving your statutory rights, no returns signs and the like. It often works by dissuading from trying, but if it goes to a small claims court the judge will draw a big line through them.

      That doesn't apply to the EU, we have sensible laws that don't allow a person to sign away its statutory rights (i.e. statutory law trumps contract law).

    2. Re:Know Your Implied Statutory Warranty Rights by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      One bonus tip for reading this far: Merchants often trick people into accepting warranties with clauses waiving your statutory rights, no returns signs and the like. It often works by dissuading from trying, but if it goes to a small claims court the judge will draw a big line through them.

      Indeed, in England you cannot sign away your rights.

    3. Re:Know Your Implied Statutory Warranty Rights by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      in many EU countries (like here in the UK) the signs like "no returns" aren't just unenforceable, they're actually illegal!

  18. Except they are right you are wrong. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    The USA DEFINITELY AND KNOWINGLY ignore international law.

    Germany still wants some US forces people to come to Germany to give evidence in a death. Not face court charged, but to give evidence.

    USA got them back on base and shifted them back to the USA and refuse to let the German court summon them.

    1. Re:Except they are right you are wrong. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Sounds like local law not international.

      Let me know when all the countries of the EU agree to finally pay the WW2 debt they owe to the US that every single one of them except the Netherlands IIRC flatly said they were never going to pay.

    2. Re:Except they are right you are wrong. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      owe to the US

      do you have a source on that ?

    3. Re:Except they are right you are wrong. by Computershack · · Score: 1

      Let me know when all the countries of the EU agree to finally pay the WW2 debt they owe to the US that every single one of them except the Netherlands IIRC flatly said they were never going to pay.

      You are obviously completely ignorant of the fact that the UK paid you back some time ago.

      --
      I only please one person per day. Today is not your day. Tomorrow isn't looking good either. - Scott Adams
  19. You must remember this by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    This is a story about Apple being in the wrong and punished.

    Therefore there MUST be something sinister and wrong going on, because Apple are loveley smoochy bunnies and love all their customers, every one.

    You may be hearing echoes of "Mom" from Momcorp in reading the above. It is not a co-incidence...

  20. Similar. Not identical, idiot. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    1. Not a different legal system. Belgium and Italian law operate the same way.
    2. Both part of the EU
    3. Based on implementations of the same EU Directive.

    But this is something that says "Apple is in the wrong" and MUST be silenced. Pathetic.

    1. Re:Similar. Not identical, idiot. by Luckyo · · Score: 1

      Apple is in the wrong, and will likely be found to be guilty as it was in Italy. But this will happen in a different court, in a different country and based on a different law.

  21. Ignorance of the law is no defence. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Therefore if the manufacturer doesn't know that the product is supposed to be covered by a 2 year or whatever warranty, then they are guilty of FRAUD.

  22. You have not the slightest idea of what you say by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    National Insurance: 9% paid out of the paypacket of everyone (salaries between ~6000 and ~30000).

    Pays for National Health and Welfare.

    Social Security in the USA does the same thing.

    If insurance was solely risk, then house insurance would be miniscule since very few houses need claims on them.

    And if the insurer were doing their sums correctly, you'd be better off (by the cut of the insurance industry: they don't work for free, you know) putting the money to one side and when you do need to claim, getting it from your savings, which would more than cover your costs.

    1. Re:You have not the slightest idea of what you say by cloudmaster · · Score: 1

      It's perfectly legitimate to charge less to someone who's less likely to make a claim, and more to someone who's more likely to make a claim. The "higher risk" person might not have an accident, and the "lower risk" person might have an accident. Say an accident costs $100, and there are two people insured. The company might gamble that only one will have an accident. So, they charge both people $50. But maybe one person never leaves home; they could charge him $40 and the other person - who drives a car with underinflated tires and has an auto accident every 2 years - $70. Both people still save money over paying for their own accident, and the company makes money either way.

      The key here is that a company who can get a bunch of low-risk people in at a substantially lower rate than what those people would need to set aside, they will probably not have to pay out more than they took in. And that allows lower rates for low risks, which increases the number of low-risk people who may actually pay into the system without taking anything out. This is a self-feeding cycle. It doesn't take a genius to see that, with a large enough risk pool and reasonably accurate risk-assessment processes, everyone pays in less than they take out while the central organization still ends up making money.

      But fine, if you, AC, think that saving $100 back every 6 months will provide me with the 250,000 I carry in coverage for someone else's medical costs for car insurance, you go right ahead and think that. Never mind the 100,000 I carry in coverage to me for uninsured motorist damage. Lemme know when you need a place to stay after someone who has state-minimum 25,000 coverage (if anything) hits you and makes you get physical therapy for a few months; I'm sure their insurance and the money you "set aside" will cover all your medical bills and personal car replacement just fine. Have fun putting aside money for your house insurance, too, since everyone is just fine putting aside more than the full amount of their mortgage (to pay for "stuff" too) into a savings account *while* paying off the mortgage and buying stuff.

  23. Wait what? by Charliemopps · · Score: 2

    Apples commercial practices are misleading?!?! Next you'll be telling me they didn't invent the MP3 player, my mind is blown!

    1. Re:Wait what? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Somewhere in Cupertino, in the deepest, darkest basement of 1 Infinite Loop, a desperate, angry Tim Cook stands in a room lit only by the light from the screens of a ring of iPads, conducting an iSeance. Even from the outside, people walking through campus can still hear him screaming to someone (or something), "Damnit, Jobs, why doesn't this worthless Reality Distortion Field WORK any more?!?"

  24. Your correct, both systems got their plusses by SmallFurryCreature · · Score: 1

    The EU has remedies that protect the majority, the US that protect the minority. Broken almost 2 year old phone? Your better of in the EU where the 2 year BTW is a MINIMUM. For a washing machine, you can expect free repairs for the entire economic life of the device if it is reasonable to expect that it should last longer. Cars for instance have far long warranties mandated by law because a car is expected to last at least 10 years.

    In the US you are better off because you can sue if you sustain serious harm... of course, in the US you ALSO pay for your doctor needing to pay for massive malpractice insurance.

    It would certainly help if for instance the Dutch system allowed multi-miljoen dollar judgements, we are having a current case with a horror doctor where it has become clear that the institution supposed to regulate doctors failed completely and might even have outright conspired with the person that if he just left Holland and went to Germany to continue to subject patients to unethical treatment, they wouldn't try to stop him. A few millions awarded by the courts might... oh wait... that isn't how it works is it. The US is NOT a place nobody makes mistakes or is corrupt, instead all the lawsuits do is force doctors to cover every case, do every test regardless of cost because if they don't they are sued out of business. It is the SUE happy culture of the US that is the major reason its healthcare costs are so high.

    The real world is sadly to complex to say Y is better then X. Both the EU and the US got their massive downsides on this subject and in reality all you can do is hope IT doesn't happen to YOU or anyone you care about.

    --

    MMO Quests are like orgasms:

    You may solo them, I prefer them in a group.

  25. The UK only finished paying in 1997. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    And the only reason for that was because the price of gold was going up.

    That's right, more than 50 years later and FINALLY, your mercenaries were paid.

    Oh, but you DID keep several things

    a) the international currency
    b) patents on computers
    c) almost all your cities intact

    But thanks for obliquely admitting that you are just paid thugs.