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Old-School Slashdotter Discovers and Solves Longstanding Flaw In Basic Calculus (mindmatters.ai)

Longtime Slashdot reader johnnyb (Jonathan Bartlett) shares the findings of a new study he, along with co-author Asatur Zh. Khurshudyan, published this week in the journal DCDIS-A: Recently a longstanding flaw in elementary calculus was found and corrected. The "second derivative" has a notation that has confused many students. It turns out that part of the confusion is because the notation is wrong. Note -- I am the subject of the article. Mind Matters provides the technical details: "[T]he second derivative of y with respect to x has traditionally had the notation 'd2 y/dx 2.' While this notation is expressed as a fraction, the problem is that it doesn't actually work as a fraction. The problem is well-known but it has been generally assumed that there is no way to express the second derivative in fraction form. It has been thought that differentials (the fundamental 'dy' and 'dx' that calculus works with) were not actual values and therefore they aren't actually in ratio with each other. Because of these underlying assumptions, the fact that you could not treat the second derivative as a fraction was not thought to be an anomaly. However, it turns out that, with minor modifications to the notation, the terms of the second derivative (and higher derivatives) can indeed be manipulated as an algebraic fraction. The revised notation for the second derivative is '(d 2 y/dx 2) - (dy/dx)(d 2 x/dx 2).'"

The report adds that while mathematicians haven't been getting wrong answers, "correcting the notation enables mathematicians to work with fewer special-case formulas and also to develop a more intuitive understanding of the nature of differentials."

222 comments

  1. Slashson by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Shouldn't that be Slashson rather than Slashdottir? Of course I haven't checked Johnny's gender.

  2. Seems quite a lot larger... by SuperKendall · · Score: 1, Insightful

    I appreciate the new form is technically more accurate but the expansion is pretty large compared to the original form... I wonder if the extra length doesn't wash out the understandability gains you get out of the original form.

    --
    "There is more worth loving than we have strength to love." - Brian Jay Stanley
    1. Re: Seems quite a lot larger... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You can't just go ahead and make up words.

    2. Re:Seems quite a lot larger... by Shane_Optima · · Score: 1

      I think the understandability of the new form would be better than the old, because the old way ways "you can treat the derivative as a fraction, except not really (you can't do foo and bar)", which was confusing. Presumably the new form will simplify to the old representation in many cases (which is why the old way was used) and people will be able to understand this and understand when the old way would be sufficient.

      That said, I haven't taken ordinary differential equations in eons and I'm not gonna brush up on it just to puzzle this one out, as interesting as it sounds.

    3. Re:Seems quite a lot larger... by Spazmania · · Score: 1

      For every complex problem there is an answer that is clear, simple, and wrong.

      That this basic calculus equation was wrong is my new excuse for why I suck at calculus.

      --
      Moderating "-1, Disagree" is simple censorship. Have the guts to post your opinion.
    4. Re:Seems quite a lot larger... by Rockoon · · Score: 1

      .....given that the original form is too verbose, it is no surprise that longer algebraic constructions are also too verbose

      The problem with both these forms is that while this may be how the theory-side thinks of it, its not how the applied side thinks of it. Trying to get from a relation stated in the original notation, to an applied calculation via algebra, leads nowhere. The second "notation" is clearly a minefield for any applied guy (*) even if algebraic manipulations are now valid.

      (*) most of the hundred million programmers worldwide are applied guys

      --
      "His name was James Damore."
    5. Re:Seems quite a lot larger... by johnnyb · · Score: 5, Informative

      This is my thought as well. Interestingly, I developed this while writing a book (Calculus from the Ground Up) to use for my homeschool co-op calculus classes. I was trying to find a good way to explain the notation, and I literally had 20 calculus books that I read through trying to find a good explanation for the standard notation in any of them. None of them even attempted an explanation, just "this is the way it is, but don't treat it as a fraction." So, I tried to deduce the notation myself. That's when I realized that it was not just limited, it was actually wrong. So I wrote the paper and finished the book (it's Appendix B in the book).

    6. Re: Seems quite a lot larger... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Seems cromulent to me.

    7. Re:Seems quite a lot larger... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I appreciate the new form is technically more accurate but the expansion is pretty large compared to the original form... I wonder if the extra length doesn't wash out the understandability gains you get out of the original form.

      What a way to complicate calculus. If you want to a precise mathematical definition of a differential (to any order) look to exterior calculus. Otherwise just use the old physical interpretation of dx = small quantity when dealing with first order differentials. Trying to "simplify" d^2/dx^2 to have the same simple physical interpretation of d/dx is a fool's errand. It does nothing but complicate and obscure the real meaning of the second derivative (which is a vector valued map). And then what do you do with the third, fourth, nth derivative anyway ?

    8. Re: Seems quite a lot larger... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It would enbiggenize the vocabulary.

    9. Re:Seems quite a lot larger... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      For every complex problem there is an answer that is clear, simple, and wrong.

      Sure there is, but in this case the answer is more complex than the standard one. And it can't be generalised when dealing with third, fourth and by extension nth order derivatives. So the "solution" is pretty useless.
      The first derivative is a special case because you can identify the differential with a derivative. And therefore the linear map (ie the differential) can be identified with f'(x) the derivative of f at point x.
      When doing higher order derivatives the situation changes.
      Mathematicians are not stupid, they have a good notation for differentials and they understand the difference between the differential, the dx (which is a linear form) and the derivative.
      All the notational problems with calculus stem from the fact that these notations are several centuries old and are predicated on the idea that infinitesimals were real things. Infinitesimals do not exist within standard analysis. Any quantity that is arbitrarly small and yet different from zero (which is the definition of an infinitesimal) is a contradiction in terms. Hence the necessity to jump through hoops to give an operational (and purely symbolic) understanding of dx as used in calculus.

    10. Re: Seems quite a lot larger... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

      The way I studied it - it was never a notation. The second order derivative was just a derivative of the derivative, there was no expression for it. Though that was in the former eastern block.

    11. Re:Seems quite a lot larger... by Obfuscant · · Score: 2, Interesting

      because the old way ways "you can treat the derivative as a fraction,

      Except the second derivative notion isn't a fraction. It's a way of writing "the second derivative of Y with respect to X" in a short form. Not all '/' create "fractions". Unless, of course, you want to argue that I'm putting a lot of "< divided by quote>" fractions in my /. postings.

      The error is not in the notation, it's in the inability to overload the / operator when dealing with more complex and abstract mathematical concepts. It's like not being able to differentiate between "e as a variable" and "e as a constant". Do you ever think the the mass of an object times the speed of light squared is equal to ~2.718? Einstein says so, it must be true.

    12. Re:Seems quite a lot larger... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Can I use the "e constant as a variable"? Or am I fishing for worms?

    13. Re: Seems quite a lot larger... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      there was no expression for it.

      I believe it's called contract for difference...

    14. Re:Seems quite a lot larger... by johnnyb · · Score: 3, Interesting

      Except that, in the first derivative, it *is* used as a fraction. Otherwise you couldn't reformulate your equation for integration (i.e., you have to multiply both sides by dx, which is treating it as a fraction). So, to say that in one case, it is a fraction, but this next case it isn't, but still written as a fraction, even though it *could* be written as a fraction, but we just decided not to, seems strange, at least to me.

    15. Re:Seems quite a lot larger... by itamblyn · · Score: 1

      Your result is awesome. Well done.

    16. Re:Seems quite a lot larger... by Obfuscant · · Score: 0

      (i.e., you have to multiply both sides by dx,

      I cannot remember EVER having to multiply "both sides" of anything by "dx" to do an integration. Maybe "new math" forces this.

    17. Re: Seems quite a lot larger... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 2, Insightful

      Yes, you do, to integrate dy/dx = x, you would multiply both sides by dx, cancelling out the denominator in dy/dx to form, dy = x dx. Throw both sides under an integral sign and go! You just memorized the rules with no understanding of why it worked...

    18. Re:Seems quite a lot larger... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I guess I don't get it: I get that there's a "correction" to be made, but to me this is like trying to write better poetry by using more perfect spelling and grammar. There's a reason we use idiom in our language -- idiom is powerful. Perhaps it is the discussions of why the notation is *not* correct that lead to a deeper understanding of the meaning/reason for the notation, and the insights regarding what calculus is about. I worry that having a "correct" notation may just allow us to teach more rote calculation techniques, while not promoting understanding. Yep, I get the irony, and I do, in fact, believe that thinking about and/or discussing why something is wrong can provide deep insight.

      I could be wrong...time will tell. Anyway, well done: whether it proves helpful or not, it's a useful line of investigation.

    19. Re:Seems quite a lot larger... by phantomfive · · Score: 1

      Now I don't feel bad that the notation never made any sense to me.

      --
      "First they came for the slanderers and i said nothing."
    20. Re: Seems quite a lot larger... by Darinbob · · Score: 1

      It's not a new word, it's just part of a confusing notational system that arose from the philosophical attitudes of English teachers to not give such words the same ontological status as words from a dictionary.

    21. Re: Seems quite a lot larger... by nakedhitman · · Score: 1

      I'm very interested in your book, as I regret having never taken calculus. I do travel rather a lot though, and have little space for physical books. By chance, would you consider selling it in ebook form?

    22. Re:Seems quite a lot larger... by Tomahawk · · Score: 1

      From the abstract on the paper:

      "This leads to an overall simplification in working with calculus for both students and practitioners, as it allows items which are written as fractions to be treated as fractions. It prevents students from making mistakes, since their natural inclination is to treat differentials as fractions.Additionally, there are several little-known but extremely help"

      and

      "Since many in the engineering disciplines are not formally trained mathematicians, this also can prevent professionals in applied fields from making similar mistakes."

      The paper itself seems quite easy to read too. It's available here: http://online.watsci.org/abstr...

    23. Re:Seems quite a lot larger... by Tomahawk · · Score: 1

      Damnit... I wish comments could be edited on this...

      "...Additionally, there are several little-known but extremely helpful formulas which are straightforwardly deducible from this new notation."

    24. Re: Seems quite a lot larger... by johnnyb · · Score: 2

      The problem with e-book math books is trying to make it look right on a small screen. If you just want a PDF of it, send me an email and I'll send you one, especially if you consider telling other people how great it is. Unfortunately, you can't just tell Amazon to take your PDF and make it an e-book :(

    25. Re:Seems quite a lot larger... by azcoyote · · Score: 1

      Awesome! I'll have to recommend your book to my homeschool co-op. I was especially impressed that you noted that the problem of the original notation derived from a philosophical cause. Too many people do not realize that philosophy plays into science and mathematics, even in how we conceptualize objective facts and concepts.

      --
      Incipiamus, fratres, servire Domino Deo, quia hucusque vix vel parum in nullo profecimus.
    26. Re: Seems quite a lot larger... by the+phantom · · Score: 1

      No... if I wanted to solve that DE, I would integrate both sides with respect to $x$. On the right, the integral is easy enough to compute. On the left, it comes down to an application of the fundamental theorem of calculus. The Leibniz notation is convenient in this case, since it lets you treat the differential as a number, but the usual exposition relies on actual theorems which justify this kind of manipulation. It should also be noted that Abraham Robinson went over this in the 60s...

    27. Re:Seems quite a lot larger... by bugs2squash · · Score: 1

      you can still use notations like f''(x) for brevity.

      --
      Nullius in verba
    28. Re:Seems quite a lot larger... by jbengt · · Score: 1

      "d^2/dx^2" is just a shorthand way of writing "d(dy/dx)/dx". Just do the calculations in the order of the parentheses. I fail to see the problem with that. Am I missing something?

    29. Re: Seems quite a lot larger... by bugs2squash · · Score: 1

      I've seen many explanations of "integration by substitution" that involve treating du/dx as a fraction where u is substituted for an inner function - It's described as applying the differentiation chain rule in reverse.. It seems to be the standard way of teaching it.

      --
      Nullius in verba
    30. Re: Seems quite a lot larger... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You can't use e constant as a variable because you declared it to be constant. But you can use e as a variable. You just shouldn't unless the context makes it clear that you're doing that.

      If you just need 5 unknown constants, you're probably better skipping e and heading straight to f though.

    31. Re: Seems quite a lot larger... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Integration no, but it comes up in differential equations and when doing linearizations.

      The notation on question never made much sense to me as it lacks internal consistency. Also, you have similar problems whenever you get cute with exponents. Sin^-1 (x) has similar issues as you just have to know that that isn't an exponent even though any other number where the -1 is is an exponent. It's worse as we have other options for the inverse and reciprocal that are unambiguous.

    32. Re: Seems quite a lot larger... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You need some way of describing that for when some wiseacre teacher wants you to do the 800th derivative of X^900. You could theoretically also need it if you're doing Taylor polynomials.

      Notating it as a derivative of a derivative sort of works, but it gets out of hand quickly. Hence why other ways of notating that were created.

    33. Re:Seems quite a lot larger... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I fail to see the problem with that.

      Your restatement of the problem is correct and clear. Now just carry through the calculation and you'll get johnnyb's solution.

      Am I missing something?

      Just the chance to beat johnnyb to publication.

    34. Re:Seems quite a lot larger... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      Thank You Thank You Thank You!

      Your insights here and incredibly helpful at helping calculus make sense (coming from someone who was a math major in college).

      Going over it with my kid who's starting calculus now.

    35. Re: Seems quite a lot larger... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I don't see why people ever used that notation anyway. Just use double prime for crying out loud. It is infinitely easier to write, and conveys the point just fine.

    36. Re:Seems quite a lot larger... by ron_ivi · · Score: 1

      like trying to write better poetry by using more perfect spelling and grammar

      Let's run with your analogy.

      The current situation - with the misleading notation - is as if all poetry in history was written using future-tense.

      The new recommended notation is like adding the ability to write the correct tenses in poetry.

      Sure, you can still use the rough approximation old notation (and many teachers will); just as you can still write poetry that only uses future tense.

      This guy empowered us to now use the more correct notation that implies the meaning we intend.

    37. Re:Seems quite a lot larger... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It's only confusing if you are a bit thick and cannot comprehend how it is a symbolic representation rather than a precise fraction.

    38. Re: Seems quite a lot larger... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The constant could be within the allowable parameters of the variable. It could be the reference, or bias of the variable.

    39. Re:Seems quite a lot larger... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Cool! thank you for doing this. Would love to read your book

  3. Summary's accuracy seems questionable by JoshuaZ · · Score: 5, Informative

    There's no "flaw" in calculus. They've proposed a notation which if one used it would allow a broader range of formal manipulations to be valid. This is interesting but it isn't groundbreaking.

    1. Re:Summary's accuracy seems questionable by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Indeed; did he "Discover" the flaw or is the problem is "well-known"?

    2. Re:Summary's accuracy seems questionable by jgtg32a · · Score: 1

      Sounds like it is well known and he came up with a patch that covers all/more of the special cases.

    3. Re:Summary's accuracy seems questionable by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      But the headline isn't as good as "SLASHDOT REINVENTS CALCULUS!"

    4. Re:Summary's accuracy seems questionable by Guybrush_T · · Score: 1

      Well I could argue there was a component missing (d2y/dx2 was there but not -(dy/dx)(d2x/dx2)), hence it was a fundamental error that was causing d2y/dx2 to be a notation instead of a mathematical object, while looking like a mathematical object.

      If it was called something like (dx/dy)" maybe I would have agreed this is only a notation. But d2y/dx2 is weird enough that it pretends to say something .. which happens to be wrong.

    5. Re:Summary's accuracy seems questionable by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I discovered that Plank's constant is not, in fact, constant

      You can search for some of my other posts on the subject, but suffice it to say: mathematicians have been lying to us for years. It's good they're finally being called out on it.

    6. Re:Summary's accuracy seems questionable by sexconker · · Score: 2

      It's well known to most students who took a calculus course and then took the next level calculus course.
      Suddenly your d and dx start doing weird shit, and they can't do other shit you've been told to do with them, then you find yourself questioning WTF the d or the x actually mean, and then you wonder why you never thought d/dx was just 1/x, and you realize your teacher / professor can't explain it either.

      If you don't grok the fundamental theorem of calculus, you'll never grok d/dx and the bullshit that has been done with them. If you do grok it, you learn to ignore the bullshit and separate those symbols from the rest of the algebraic manipulations they're mixed up in.

    7. Re:Summary's accuracy seems questionable by johnnyb · · Score: 4, Interesting

      It's a bit of both. Some of the facts of the matter were known, but it was assumed that this was just "the way it was". That is, no one considered it an open problem. For instance, we view the inability to divide by zero just a fact of mathematics, not a flaw. Likewise, this was not known to be a flaw, it was just assumed that this was the way things worked.

      If you need to point to a definitive flaw, it was in our understanding of how it was supposed to work - the relationship between our understanding and the notation. Once *that* flaw was discovered, the actual notation just spilled right out. That is, the flaw was that people were *not* treating dy/dx *sufficiently* as a fraction, due to 19th century preferences against infinitesimals. Once you realize that dy/dx really is a fraction, and has to be treated accordingly, everything automatically works.

      It's almost humorous because there was no real advanced work to do. Literally everything needed is available in intro calculus. The problem was (a) the mathematics community had a habit of *not* treating dy/dx as a fraction, and (b) new students who didn't know better were simply taught *what* to do, not *why* to do it, and continued to repeat the mistake for over a century.

    8. Re: Summary's accuracy seems questionable by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Give mathematicians a break, they're still being audited, and the report on them is having the proof of their guilt redacted.

    9. Re: Summary's accuracy seems questionable by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Homeschooler "discovers" page 32 of InPrincipia.

      Hell, even Feynman talked about notation in his pop lit books.

    10. Re:Summary's accuracy seems questionable by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Uh, huh?

      How do you first learn about dy / dx? As an example involving delta(y) / delta(x), with delta(x) an integer. Literally as a fraction.

    11. Re:Summary's accuracy seems questionable by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      There is no difference between "notation" and "mathematical object". dx/dy is not a fraction. d^2x/dy^2 is not a fraction. If we are taking things literally, why can't I cancel the d's and infer that dy/dx = y/x? Oh, so multiplication notation is to be ignored when appropriate, but division lines need be be taken literally every time? By the way, d2x/dx2 = 0, so there is nothing "missing". There is no error.

    12. Re:Summary's accuracy seems questionable by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      So I wasn't crazy for preferring the g''(x) version!

    13. Re:Summary's accuracy seems questionable by jbengt · · Score: 1

      By the way, d2x/dx2 = 0, so there is nothing "missing".

      Considering that, if actually defined, dx/dx should be 1, I would have thought that d^2x/dx^2 = d(dx/dx)/dx = d(1)/dx, which would be the limit of 1/dx as dx goes to zero, which would be undefined or infinity.

    14. Re: Summary's accuracy seems questionable by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It works, but it's less complete. It lacks information about what your independent variable is, which can be an issue at times.

      Dy/DX is more complete and less ambiguous as you're explicitly starting what with respect to what.

    15. Re:Summary's accuracy seems questionable by johnnyb · · Score: 1

      Not quite. d(1) *is* zero. The differential of a constant is zero, basically by definition. If e is an infinitesimal, 0/e is still zero. However, d^2x/dx^2 != d(dx/dx)/dx. d(dx/dx)/dx, using the new notation, is "d^2x/dx^2 - (dx/dx)(d^2x/dx^2)", which is obviously zero by inspection.

  4. First Post by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Florence Doyle: "Forgive and forget."

    1. Re: First Post by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Sure dude

  5. I have ... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    ... a license plate for my Porsche that reads 'DV DT'. I suppose now I just can't go out and get 'D2V DT2' for my BMW.

    1. Re: I have ... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

      That would make you a jerk.

    2. Re: I have ... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Lol!!! I see what you did there!!

    3. Re:I have ... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      There is a corvette convertible that takes I-294 occasionally with the license plate DDTDXDT. Kinda appropriate if you ask me.

  6. Congrats by yodleboy · · Score: 4, Interesting

    Figured I'd better say congratulations before the inevitable flood of people shitting on your contribution to math gets up to speed.

    1. Re:Congrats by johnnyb · · Score: 5, Interesting

      Thanks! I appreciate it. Given that this was my first peer-reviewed mathematics paper, I had no idea how long the process was. I submitted the paper over a *year* ago. The necessary changes were minor. But the actual time it took to go through the process was excruciating. I'm happy to finally be on the other side :)

    2. Re:Congrats by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You should be proud.

      Papers take a long time, but a year is much higher than the norm.

      Surely many people have came up with the same solution. Lone snarky math undergrads of brilliance and frustration. The hardest part of contributing is convincing others. You most certainly did good work and more importantly, earned attention for it. Now the field is improved.

    3. Re:Congrats by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Apply the notation to some differential equations. Also, look up formulas for curvature.

    4. Re:Congrats by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

      You bastard, now every student will need to buy a new textbook next year! ;)

    5. Re:Congrats by Dr.+Bombay · · Score: 1

      My first paper in chemistry was submitted to the Journal of the American Chemical Society.
      The review took over a year. This was before the internet and the editor dropped the ball. At that time,
      it was bad form to ask the editor about the status of your submission as the process was already slow and
      you did not want to pester the editor and get it treated more slowly.
      Email has changed the whole process, but some journals are still slow.

      Congratulations on the acceptance of your paper.

    6. Re:Congrats by johnnyb · · Score: 2

      My coauthor has been doing this to good effect. His book "Controllability of Dynamic Systems: The Green's Function Approach" utilizes it. My role in mathematics is primarily in teaching high schoolers, so I don't spend a lot of time with differential equations. That's also the reason I *have* a co-author. I needed someone to tell me I wasn't crazy :)

    7. Re: Congrats by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      My understanding from math authors is that a year is not unusual even with Internet submissions. I think for 2 related reasons (the first may not apply here), 1) it's often difficult to find reviewers willing and qualified to evaluate the paper depending how niche, and 2) they will want to work along with you through the math themselves. I haven't read the paper to see if 2 applied...

    8. Re:Congrats by Paxinum · · Score: 0

      A year is not unheard of at all. I would say most of my papers take 8-14 months to get from submitted to published (I do math research professionally). The paper is well-written, and it would be a great reference to include in calculus classes. Notation is indeed much more important than we think - choosing the right notation to express thoughts can really simplify problems.

    9. Re:Congrats by Actually,+I+do+RTFA · · Score: 1

      Can you give some examples of special cases that are avoided by your notation?

      --
      Your ad here. Ask me how!
    10. Re:Congrats by serviscope_minor · · Score: 1

      I submitted the paper over a *year* ago. The necessary changes were minor. But the actual time it took to go through the process was excruciating.

      Apart from a few exception, yeah submitting papers takes aaageeess. Basically (and this has nothing to do with you or the quality of your work), no one wants t oread your paper. I mean people accpet they need to read and review papers as part of the academic papers, but no one WANTS to do it.

      Half of it is they want to be doing their own research. The other half is that 80% of everything is crap including the papers they have to review. Not only that, some papers are great and it's an easy accept. Some are terrible and it's an easy reject. The rest are kind of shitty and you have to put a lot of effort in reading a shitty paper to decide which side of the line it falls, especially to reject since you should give reasons.

      When your paper lands in their inbox, there's an 80% chance it's one of those.

      So reading papers is time consuming so the journals give people plenty of time to read them, say, 6 weeks. Then inevitably what happens is the reviewer in question will not get to it during then time and will find a few hours after the second reminder. It's embarrassing after that.

      Then the journal must let it compost for a while.

      Then the unpaid editors have to process that, check the reviews, and decide what to do etc etc.

      --
      SJW n. One who posts facts.
    11. Re:Congrats by Ami+Ganguli · · Score: 1

      This is indeed very cool. I just skimmed the paper (so far), but I fundamentally like the idea that not treating dx/dy as a fraction is just a historical artifact.

      Bought your book.

      --
      It is tempting, if the only tool you have is a hammer, to treat everything as if it were a nail. - Abraham Maslow
    12. Re:Congrats by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I'm not trying to be mean, but to math people this is pretty cringey except inasmuch as we understand it to be "lies to children" in the context of helping non-math-people feel better about using mathematics to do calculations. Math people do not think in ways that would be helped by this contribution... it's essentially taking a clear and correct abstraction and muddying it so that you get a difficult, but correct, concrete tool. Math people hate tools but love abstractions.

    13. Re:Congrats by johnnyb · · Score: 1

      I recently had another paper which sat for 4 MONTHS in the editors inbox, before he decided he just wasn't interested.

      What needs to happen is to have a small change in policy like this:

      1) You can submit to multiple journals at once
      2) A journal makes an offer to send it for review
      3) Accepting an offer @2 requires that you remove your submission from other journals

      Then the procedure goes on as before. This will prevent editors from wasting everyone's time.

      What's super-super frustrating is that I had a *different* paper that got rejected because it needed a proof of a result, but the proof was outside the scope of the first paper. So, I have a different paper that was waiting an extra 4 months because it needs this other paper to be reviewed first.

      The only reason I don't just self-publish everything is that peer review helps me convince myself that I'm not crazy.

    14. Re:Congrats by johnnyb · · Score: 1

      Anywhere where you have a second derivative where the variable with which you are taking the derivative with respect to is dependent on another variable. You would previously have to use Faa di Bruno's formula to properly take care of this situation. Now you can just do algebraic manipulations.

  7. Re:And in a sane curriculum by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Newton wasn't merely "smart."
    Say what you want about him, but he was definitely a genius in every sense of the word.

  8. Uh by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    There is value in looking at notation with a fresh eye. But usually better notation is more compact not more verbose. For example, we went from writing "et" to writing "+" because we wanted less writing. Einstein convention for tensor derivatives is another good example of a useful innovation which condensed writing. These guys missed the memo on why people invent shorthand notation in the first place. Next time I need an example of pathologically useless research I will point to this paper.

    1. Re:Uh by sexconker · · Score: 1

      Nah. He's right. The current notation is bullshit. It looks like standard algebra and people try to manipulate the symbols as such.
      I mean, you could shorten d/dx to 1/x, right?

    2. Re:Uh by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

      Nah. He's right. The current notation is bullshit. It looks like standard algebra and people try to manipulate the symbols as such.
      I mean, you could shorten d/dx to 1/x, right?

      The current notation is mathematically correct. It express that fact that the second derivative is the incremental limit of the first derivative.
      The new notation for d^2/dx^2 loses the corect mathematical meaning and gains nothing of value.

      d^2/dx^2 (f) (x) = lim (h->0) (d/dx (f)(x+h) - d/dx (f) (x))/h

    3. Re:Uh by Obfuscant · · Score: 1

      The current notation is bullshit. It looks like standard algebra and people try to manipulate the symbols as such.

      And that's why they call it "learning calculus" instead of "coming up with calculus all on your own". Not understanding how something works or what the terms mean can lead to horrible results.

    4. Re: Uh by Kohlrabi82 · · Score: 1

      Finally the first commenter who knows what dy/dx really is. It is the limit of an expression containing a fraction, so not a "real" fraction in algebraic sense.

  9. pi by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    While we're at it, pi should really be 2*pi.

    1. Re: pi by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      No it shouldnâ(TM)t faggot.

  10. Re:And in a sane curriculum by gweihir · · Score: 0

    Not that much. Privileged and had time. The adoration some people have for him is not founded on facts.

    --
    Most ACs are not even worth the keystrokes to insult them. Be generically insulted by this and ignored otherwise.
  11. The long term flaws in calculus teachers are... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    The long term flaws in calculus teachers are:
    - They are often mathematics majors who have no idea how the math works in the real world.
    I learned more about how to use calculus in a 30 minute conversation with an mechanical engineering student than I did in a full year of classes.
    - They often do not understand what the math actually does, only how to get the 'answer.'
    The joke of "If the result isn't 1, -1, or 0, the answer is not correct" applies.

    And please stop calling Calculus "math." That is similar to calling a paramecium a primate. Calculus is -not- math, but a shorthand developed to shrink massive amounts of mathematics down to a manageable size.

  12. This is Racist by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    All things are racist. We must stamp out racism. Kill all white people. Destroy Calculus. The only thing that matter is Hip Hop and Womens / Transgender rights.

    Unless the story is talking about a world famous wrapper, or the oppression of women by white men, the story is racist and must be banned by Amazon, Slashdot, and Pay-Pal and any other influential media outlet.

    End Racism. End Mathematics and white imperialism

  13. Ugh by sexconker · · Score: 2

    The d, dx, dy, etc. are not things to be generally operated on.
    Writing the second derivative as d^2 / dx^2, or worse, d^2y / dx^2 is doubly absurd. (I'm using the ^ to denote supersripting, not exponentiation.)

    d represents the instantaneous rate of change (which itself is a flawed concept - a rate of change cannot be instantaneous as a rate depends on the passage of time), dx represents that instantaneous rate of change of x. d/dx represents the instantaneous rate of some value, possibly some value dependent on x, with respect to the instantaneous rate of change of x. dy/dx, dv/dt, etc. are all the same deal. That rate of change of some variables with respect to other variables.

    What is that instantaneous rate of change? The slope of a line (plane, or whatever if you've got more free variables) tangent to your function at a given point, presuming such a thing exists.

    How do you determine that tangent line? You take the target point and some point h past it ((f(x) vs f(x+h)) (or before it!) and determine what the line does when you consider h approaching 0. You make sure you can define that shit from both ends and both ends agree. If that works out, have a limit, you've got a derivative, and baby, you've got the fundamental theorem of calculus goin'.

    Whoever tried to slap that shit together as a fraction or take shortcuts and try to manipulate those symbols in a way that looks sort of like algebraic manipulation is a clown. Trying to fix that is going to be an uphill battle, but using more of the busted notation isn't really the solution.

    1. Re:Ugh by Rockoon · · Score: 1

      Whoever tried to slap that shit together as a fraction or take shortcuts and try to manipulate those symbols in a way that looks sort of like algebraic manipulation is a clown. Trying to fix that is going to be an uphill battle, but using more of the busted notation isn't really the solution.

      100% agree.

      The thing is, superior notations are right in front of us. Programmers use a variety of them every day.

      --
      "His name was James Damore."
    2. Re:Ugh by BKX · · Score: 4, Insightful

      dy/dx doesn't represent instantaneous rate of change. That would be nonsense. The d in dx and dy means "small difference that will eventually go to zero". This is why dy/dx is a fraction. It represents the limit of a small change in y divided by small change in x, as the changes go to zero. This is why we teach students about the limit definition of the derivative as being what the derivative really is. As far dy and dx being tricks of notation, they're really not. They really are small changes. There's no instantaneous rate of change. dy and dx are always finite real numbers. They never actually become zero. dy/dx is the ratio that is approached as they get smaller and smaller.

      As far as this guy's new version of the second derivative, I call bullshit. I seriously doubt that this is correct. And the notation d^2y/dx^2 actually makes sense when you think about. It's really just d(dy/dx)/dx, that is, a small change in dy/dx divided by a small change in x, where dy/dx is a small change in y divided by a small change in x. Writing it in the other way is just a good way of doing it. If you draw out what this means graphically, is becomes clear that it's really a small change between two consecutive small changes in y divided by two small changes in x, that is d(dy)/dx^2, hence d^2y/dx^2.

      This guy's new version, on the other hand, doesn't make sense at all. I mean, how do you get that from taking the derivative of the first derivative. Let's take a pretty standard function: x=1/2*t^2+2*t+12. x'=t+2; x''=1, whereas his version would be x''=1-t, which doesn't make any sense, unless he has completely redefined everything. I mean, d^2y/dx^2 would have to be something like 2t+5 and d^2x/dx^2 would have to be something like 2, and then we get x''=2t+5-(t+2)*2. I didn't read the paper so I don't know what it would actually be, but there's no doubt that x''=1, so if his method is to make any sense at all it would have to give the same results in the end. I just don't see how it could.

    3. Re:Ugh by bugs2squash · · Score: 1

      embrace the suck, apply powers to other math operators, eg: 1 +^2 3 = 7

      --
      Nullius in verba
    4. Re:Ugh by functor0 · · Score: 1

      I don't think you're applying the formula correctly. If you read the paper, you'll see that if you're viewing t as the independent variable in your case, then the d^2*t term is 0 and so x''=1 as expected. An advantage of this new notation is that one doesn't need to pick the independent variables ahead of time, you can just take the differentials and then decide later on which variables to make independent.

    5. Re:Ugh by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      No, dy/dx is the limit of delta y / delta x as delta x approaches zero (delta y may or may not approach zero depending on the continuity of the function). We use dy/dx to indicate the limit. You are wrong about the "small changes" part for y.

    6. Re:Ugh by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      As far as this guy's new version of the second derivative, I call bullshit.

      Ok.

      I seriously doubt that this is correct.

      Alright.

      This guy's new version, on the other hand, doesn't make sense at all.

      Uh-huh.

      I didn't read the paper

      Ah. Well, then, that settles it.

  14. Re:And in a sane curriculum by TeknoHog · · Score: 5, Informative

    The messed up notation by Newton is not used and instead the much saner stuff from Riemann is used. Newton was smart, but a hack and a crank. And he tried to suppress Riemann notation. Mathematics would probably have done better without Newton.

    Surely you mean Leibniz (1646-1716), not Riemann (1826-1866).

    --
    Escher was the first MC and Giger invented the HR department.
  15. Except the notation isn't "dy/dx", it's "d/dx" by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

    "d/dx" is an operator on functions that has about a half dozen tidier, less-confusing alternate notations, while "dy/dx" is a limit of a ratio of nonzero numbers that is misleadingly written as a fraction because people in the 18th century weren't as bothered about the whole 'dividing by zero' thing.

    The fact that algebraically treating dy/dx as a fraction works in any situation at all is a minor stroke of luck that honestly should be concealed, since thinking that way already hurts the progress of a huge number of basic calculus students. It's analogous to the fact that undefined algebraic manipulations with zero/infinity work often enough to make them tempting to use. In professional hands "wrong" calculations like this can sometimes point the way to the right ones, but for students it's just a terrible idea all around to even bring it up.

    1. Re:Except the notation isn't "dy/dx", it's "d/dx" by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The problem here is that when students are taught about the slope, they aren't necessarily taught that the slope is effectively the conversion factor between the units on the independent variable side and the ones on the dependent variable side. It's both the rate of change of a straight line and also can be treated as a fraction, regardless of whether the denomenator is not 1.

      In terms of the dy/dx, you do have to be mindful that it's the limit, not literally dy/dx. But, once you accept the notion that the limit is meaningful, treating it like a fraction follows from that logically. Failing to accept that would result in a paradox as you couldn't move two points on the same line to be on top of each other which would run completely counter to the existence of that limit. But, since the limit exists, you have to be able to treat the dy/dx as a fraction, otherwise it would imply that the point slope formula breaks when the points are indistinguishably close together. Which would imply the limit didn't exist.

      Confusing.

      Which is a pretty big problem as linearizations are incredibly important and are verifiable without necessarily having an advanced degree.

      There are few, if any, corner cases where you can't treat dy/dx as a fraction that come up in the classes where this confusion is likely to be a problem.

  16. (d 2 y/dx 2) – (dy/dx)(d 2 x/dx 2) by JSG · · Score: 1

    Call differentiation "quark" instead. The new form for d2y/dx2 could be called a double quark or "fred" for short or f for really short. For really rigorous treatment call it f(x). In the UKoGBnNI it shall be known as noddy on Tuesdays unless the year is 2022.

    1. Re:(d 2 y/dx 2) – (dy/dx)(d 2 x/dx 2) by tepples · · Score: 1

      In the UKoGBnNI it shall be known as noddy on Tuesdays unless the year is 2022.

      In your notation, what's Big Ears?

      (And what's Mr. Wobbly Man?)

  17. Good job kid... apk by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    See subject: YOU & "your kind" (hard workers/dedicated/focused) I have the UTMOST respect for - I can't say the same for many!

    * MY HAT'S OFF TO YOU BOY!

    (This sometimes (many times due to ASSHOLES) f'd up world NEEDS MORE FOLKS LIKE YOU...)

    APK

    P.S.=> People like YOU help make the world a BETTER place & per Ted Williams (a great RECENT inspiration to me), a quote:

    "We have an OBLIGATION to make something BETTER if you KNOW that YOU can"

    You have... apk

  18. this is actually useful by epine · · Score: 3, Informative

    It took me a few minutes to get to the nub of the matter.

    If you're mentally reading the notation d^2 y / dx^2 as the second derivative of y divided by dx squared, you're doing it wrong.

    Because what this notion really intends to mean is d(d(y)/dx)/dx, which as the paper points out is a different order of operation.

    A more compact notation less misleading than the traditional d^2 y / dx^2 might be (d/dx)^2 dy, which expands via two repeated function applications to d(d(y)/dx)/dx, with the underlying operations now in the right order.

    Calculus was never my best thing, so I might be all wet, but it seems to make sense.

    I never liked the dx/dy notation much, regarding it more as a cryptic code than anything conceptually helpful (when its not cryptic, it's not helpful, because that's the common case you already know).

    With the right lambda notation (riffing on what I proposed above) the fundamental operator nature of d() could be correctly expressed, even if you don't want into these algebraic manipulations, which mostly strike me as far too detailed and tedious.

    1. Re:this is actually useful by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      "Calculus was never my best thing." We can tell.

    2. Re:this is actually useful by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      (/ (d (/ (d y) (d x))) (d x)) is best.

    3. Re:this is actually useful by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Unfortunately when one goes into research mode, he or she normally do not think about teaching the subject. A poet writes a poetry using his imagination, but interpreters have their own views. Even algebra has not been easily explained so that it can be learned and used by all students.While only alphabet symbols could be used to express algebraic relationship, such as a+b=5, a=3, what is b=?
      and then move on to x=5=10, what is x=? , later (x+y)^2. But if one does not restrict the variables as only alphabets, this funny equation: (Apple+Banana)^2 will not be Apple^2+ Banana^2+2 (Apple x Banana). Yet text book writes did not understand what Musa al-Khwarizmi[ did not write a text book. So, the problem ov teaching mathematics is not that it is difficult rather "why" is not addressed and with simple real life examples are not introduce before abstract notation are introduced to model them. Anyway, text books are terrible, best teaches in general do not write text books , text book writes are not the best teachers.- a sad life lesson

    4. Re:this is actually useful by Cederic · · Score: 1

      You twisted deviant.

      I'm so glad your kind never gained a foothold in modern computing.

  19. Re:And in a sane curriculum by kamapuaa · · Score: 1

    Thanks for your opinion on the history of Calculus, person who is not even aware of the most basic of facts and provides no real rationale.

    --
    Slashdot: providing anti-social weirdos a soapbox, since 1997.
  20. Well thank by ArchieBunker · · Score: 2

    god that's settled. Now we can figure out that P=NP problem that nobody can give a coherent answer on why its even a thing.

    --
    Only the State obtains its revenue by coercion. - Murray Rothbard
    1. Re:Well thank by phantomfive · · Score: 1

      Now we can figure out that P=NP problem that nobody can give a coherent answer on why its even a thing.

      I think that problem is you tbh, if you don't understand it.

      --
      "First they came for the slanderers and i said nothing."
    2. Re: Well thank by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

      P=NP when N=1 or P=0

    3. Re:Well thank by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      If P = NP, then obviously N=1.

    4. Re:Well thank by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Yes, to be fair, NP being, or not being equal to P is a pretty big deal, as all of cryptography is based on the assumption that it is not equal.

      The not knowing the answer is because it is hard (NP hard?!?, I'll see myself out).

  21. Re:And in a sane curriculum by Lanthanide · · Score: 1

    Unfortunately we can't go back through history and give every single human who ever lived privilege and time to see what they're capable of.

    So we can only assess those who have made prominent contributions. There are many others who had privilege and time and still didn't contribute what Newton did, so it's still fair to call him a genius.

  22. Linear regression stumper by Tablizer · · Score: 3, Interesting

    I have a "math issue" that has stumped most of my professors and online math forums. Linear regression typically uses the "least squares" algorithm. However, the power of 2 seems arbitrary to me, and possibly over-emphasizes outliers.

    One professor at first said that the power of 2 makes the "best fit" in an objective sense, but later admitted that he doesn't really know, and couldn't find an answer before the end of the semester.

    While it is true that the power of 2 may simplify the computation process*, that doesn't necessarily means it produces a better result in terms of line or curve fitting. Now that we have computers to do the number crunching, perhaps it's time to embrace arbitrary or different powers (superscripts).

    (Disclaimer, I'm not a math expert.)

    * In other words, power-of-2 produces the simplest known algorithm. But my question revolves around best data fit, not computational resources nor algorithm or formula brevity. Note that when using other powers, one may have to add an absolute value function because power-of-2 automatically provides the equivalent. I actually did a simulation that tested different powers; "blurring" known datasets and seeing which power best matched the original. I couldn't find any significant difference, but probably didn't try enough samples. I tested with fractional powers also, such as 1.5, 2.5, etc.

    1. Re:Linear regression stumper by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Did you try power-of-pi? Cause that sounds most scrumptious.

    2. Re:Linear regression stumper by Mendenhall · · Score: 5, Informative

      It's not arbitrary. There's actually a good reason for minimizing (y-yobs)^2, assuming that your observations have a Gaussian distribution. The resulting estimators provide a maximum likelihood estimator of the parameters of the distribution, if and only if it really was Gaussian. Thus, of course, if it isn't Gaussian (outliers of various sorts, et.c), the x^2 may not be the best bet. There is an entire field of 'robust estimators' of quantities, which are more resistant to outliers than least squares. There are also cases in which the underlying distribution is pathologically different from Gaussian; it could be Lorentzian (Cauchy), in which case it is so completely unlike a Gaussian, it doesn't even have a defined standard deviation (it is infinite). There are weighted methods which can fix this too.

      So, in short, least squares is the right answer (in the sense that it yields results which provable have the maximum likelihood describing the data at hand) if you have a perfect Gaussian variate; otherwise, it may well not be.

    3. Re:Linear regression stumper by Tablizer · · Score: 1

      Chairman of the FCC? Heck no, don't give him any more power.

    4. Re:Linear regression stumper by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I'm going to give you my answer to this, it may or may not help you find what you're looking for.

      The power of two is not arbitrary in a sense that "it only works for the power of 2, and no other known exponent in the universe". It is arbitrary, in that any *even* power would suffice. And, if you've ever done it by hand, nobody would want to perform all the extra algebra that comes with the chain rule if it could be avoided otherwise. The role that squaring the residuals performs, is to prevent the errors from disappearing all-together. This of it as making the distances scalar, instead of 'vector like'. For example, what if we wanted to minimize the sum of the residuals, instead of the sum of the square residuals, and the residuals were always the same distance from the function you were fitting to? You could possibly have a sum of zero naturally, because some would be over estimates of the function, and some would be underestimates. That throws the denominators in some of the terms of the least squares theorem into 'oh shit, can't have that' mode. That's why the residuals are squared.

      It does have the effect you're describing, and the least squares theorem is just one method of fitting. It's perfectly normal to use other methods, such as minimizing the maximum deviation, ie you minimize the largest residual to your function via absolute value of the deviations. It's closely related to least squares for sure, but not exactly the same. There's applying exponential weights to residuals instead of solely relying on the square residuals, so that they're weighted however you choose, etc.

      I'm not sure how exactly you performed a 1.5 minimization, seeing as how you get complex numbers in cases, but I'd be happy to hear more about what you tested.

      Hope that provides some insight!

    5. Re:Linear regression stumper by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Actually I think the choice of 2 is related to central limit theorem and an underlying assumption that the experimental noise is Gaussian distributed.

    6. Re:Linear regression stumper by sfcat · · Score: 1

      I have a "math issue" that has stumped most of my professors and online math forums. Linear regression typically uses the "least squares" algorithm. However, the power of 2 seems arbitrary to me, and possibly over-emphasizes outliers.

      One professor at first said that the power of 2 makes the "best fit" in an objective sense, but later admitted that he doesn't really know, and couldn't find an answer before the end of the semester.

      While it is true that the power of 2 may simplify the computation process*, that doesn't necessarily means it produces a better result in terms of line or curve fitting. Now that we have computers to do the number crunching, perhaps it's time to embrace arbitrary or different powers (superscripts).

      (Disclaimer, I'm not a math expert.)

      * In other words, power-of-2 produces the simplest known algorithm. But my question revolves around best data fit, not computational resources nor algorithm or formula brevity. Note that when using other powers, one may have to add an absolute value function because power-of-2 automatically provides the equivalent. I actually did a simulation that tested different powers; "blurring" known datasets and seeing which power best matched the original. I couldn't find any significant difference, but probably didn't try enough samples. I tested with fractional powers also, such as 1.5, 2.5, etc.

      Those other exponents probably also work. That term is just to help estimate the slope but any exponent > 1 would likely work there. Its just that its impractical for a variety of reasons including the fact that linear regression is just too simple a model for anything but the simplest use cases. Other techniques which aren't built upon linear regression are used instead so nobody studies this. You very well might be right about outliers for some use cases but it doesn't matter as other techniques are already much better than your minor improvement to a model that's rarely used in practice due to its extreme simplicity.

      --
      "Those that start by burning books, will end by burning men."
    7. Re: Linear regression stumper by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      In prediction, minimizing mean squared error is based on the idea that the marginal loss from an incorrect estimate increases as the error gets bigger. Up to a scaling factor, quadratic loss functions work quite well for this. You might look up MAD (minimum absolute deviation) as an alternative.

    8. Re:Linear regression stumper by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I think the point is to over-emphasize outliers, which helps with comparing a datum with the standard deviation. It's been a long time since I did statistics, but it can make it easier to exclude outliers and noise. There are also problems where regression can fit multiple functions, and using the wrong algorithm or an algorithm the wrong way can lead you to incorrect curve fits and/or incorrect conclusions. Generalized best data fit is an open question I've also had, but more about taking data and extrapolating what the underlying function actually is. You've got a good question, though, and you should keep asking until you find the right answer.

      Good luck!

    9. Re:Linear regression stumper by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

      Computers are binary. They're good at powers of 2.

    10. Re:Linear regression stumper by Tablizer · · Score: 1

      Damn, there goes my Nobel Prize! Back to Muggleville for me. Hex on your family for 1.9 generations.

      What would be an example of the kind of output flaw that could be created by using say 1.1 as the exponent, assuming a Gaussian distribution? Use an exaggerated example or data points if necessary.

      Anyhow, thanks for the response. I appreciate it, and may just cancel the hex.

    11. Re:Linear regression stumper by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

      Think Pythagoras theorem in multiple dimensions eg, r = sqrt(u^2 + v^2 + w^2 + x^2 + y^2 + z^2) for the underlying reason.

    12. Re:Linear regression stumper by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Other exponents "work" and are occasionally used. The formula for the normal distribution is 1/\sqrt{2\pi} \exp( - x^2 / 2), the exponent of "2" in "x^2" in "exp( - x^2 / 2) is the same as the 2 in the least squares formula, as Mendenhall mentioned.

      The most common is by far 2, but also common is 1 (minimizing the sum of the absolute values of the errors). This is a natural part of what is being called "median based" statistics, as opposed to the familiar "mean based" statistics. The formulas are much less manageable, but in the age of Intel, they are not prohibitively so. I'm sure it's all built into R.

      I can also imagine using an exponent of "infinity", which amounts to minimizing the largest error, but I don't think I've ever actually done it.

    13. Re: Linear regression stumper by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The answer to your question requires quite a bit of measure theory. It is likely, assuming that your professor has a PhD in Mathematics, has no clue how to explain it to someone who doesn't already have about a year's worth of graduate level Analysis.

    14. Re:Linear regression stumper by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      All the fancy statistical analysis is nice, but I'm pretty sure the idea has been around as a basic concept of (linear) algebra since before the field of statistics existed.

      Here's how the idea works: Suppose you have 2D data X, and you want to produce 2D set of candidate points P. What's a good measure of (X - P)? Well humans like to use the standard distance metric, which is just the square root of the sum of the square of all individual differences (X - P), or sqrt( (x0 - p0)^2 + (x1 - p1)^2 + ... (xn - pn)^2 ). Linear regression essentially just solves for a linear equation F that generates a P with a minimum distance to X.

      tl;dr: The original idea is based on distance. The fact that it's proven to be optimal (MLE) for Gaussian distributions is just icing on the cake. :)

    15. Re:Linear regression stumper by serviscope_minor · · Score: 1

      However, the power of 2 seems arbitrary to me, and possibly over-emphasizes outliers.

      It's not arbitrary, and yes it does emphasise outliers.

      This is going to be hard to explain given slashdot's formatting ability but here goes...

      For least squares, the assumption is that the noise is Gaussian, where every datapoint has the same (unknown) noise variance. If you have some linear function of parameters f(a), what you're doing is finding the a that maximises the probability of observing the data.

      Assume you have datapoints d_i taken at positions x_i, and a linear function f(x; a) (vector valued a), which in a simple case is f(x;a) = a_1 x + a_2, i.e. the recognisable equation for a straight line.

      If your data is gaussian, the probability of observing a point is based on the Gaussian distribution:

      P(d_i | x_i,a) = exp(-(d_i - f(x_i;a))^2 / 2s^2) / Z

      where s is the standard deviation and Z is the gaussian normalizing constant which I'm too lazy to write out since it vanishes soon anyway. For all the data, you multiply the probabilities:

      P(d|x,a) = P(d_1 | x_1,a) * P(d_2 | x_2,a) * ...

      You want to find the a that maximizes that. log is monotonic, so if you maximize log(w) you also maximize w, so take the log, making the products sums, and making the exps disappear. Also the position of the maximum is not affected by adding a constant or scaling, so we simply remove all constant multiples and scales. That results in:

      argmax_a -(d1 - f(x1;a)^2 - (d2 - f(x2;s)^2 - ...

      (argmax being meaning return the a that maximizes the expression).

      Well, now turn the maximum into a minimum and flip the signs and you have least squares.

      You're right about the computational aspect, efficient solutions for linear least squares do exist which make it particularly appealing. It also has a single global minimum which is not only tractable but easy to find. Any power less than 1 does not in general have a tractable, guaranteed solution.

      You're also right that you can use other powers, and in fact other functions completely. In general though you can substitute into the expression whatever probability distribution your data does come from. If it's not Gaussian, it will probably have fat tails and therefore the result will be robust to outliers. You can then optimize directly using some numerical method. It's best to take logs and minimize if you don't want to run badly into floating point trouble.

      The easiest is to use downhill simplex (fminunc in MATLAB/octave), since it's derivative free. Or you can compute derivatives and use one of the many fine off the shelf general function optimizers. Or you can use iterative reweighted least squares, which is usually pretty efficient for least-something problems.

      Now you've also wound up in the whole field of robust statistics and M-estimators.

      Anyway your intuition is mostly correct here: if you have outliers you need something robust to outliers, and with the computational power we have now we can (and do) do things more involved thatn least quares, though often related.

      One thing though about the best known algorithm: as your algorithms get robust you get local minima, in which case you can find a better solution given a decent starting point, but you (provably in many cases) can't guarantee you'll get the globally optimal solution.

      So, to get a decent solution you need a good starting point. For that, you either need a good guess (often really not hard) or failing that, an algorithm like RANSAC is really really good.

      Here's a fun addition/side/related point. Take the simplest possible version of what you have above, i.e. a slope of 1 and you're just trying to find the shift. In other words you don't expect the data to vary so you're finding just the central position in some way. With Gaussian noise (least squares) you get the mean dropping out of the squation. With a 2 sided Laplacian (exp(-|x|), rather than exp(-x^2)) you get the median. And as the power goes towards 0, you get the mode.

      --
      SJW n. One who posts facts.
    16. Re:Linear regression stumper by bungo · · Score: 1

      Good answer.

      I'd go a step further and say that the purpose of linear regression is to see if there is a relationship in the data, and not to provide an actual answer to what the relationship exactly is.

      In the real world, data relationships are rarely linear and distributions are often not known or are approximated. A linear regression will give you an idea on what is going on. The real relationship maybe too complex to ever know.

      So, using least squares, well, it's probably good enough or at least a good start and certainly good enough for use in school.

      --
      "The best part? I became an ordained minister while not wearing pants." -- CleverNickName
    17. Re:Linear regression stumper by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Why not post this question on https://math.stackexchange.com/ ?

      Even if you've just got a reasonably satisfactory answer, you'd be likely to get a range of thoughts about it.

    18. Re:Linear regression stumper by Ihlosi · · Score: 1
      However, the power of 2 seems arbitrary to me,

      It is not arbitrary!. Using the power of two allows a simple, possible even trivial analytical solution of the problem (Matlab and similar have it built-in and can do it in a single line).

      Of course you could use other norms to minimize the regression error - l1 norm, linf norm or any other norm in between, or even any other norm you can come up with. But in these cases, you end up with optimization problems that do not have analytical solutions and require iterative approximation of the real solution (unless the problem is simple enough that it can be solved by inspection).

      Reference: "Convex optimization" by Stephen Boyd and Lieven Vandenberghe.

      The book covers regression problems with other norms than the l2 norm.

    19. Re:Linear regression stumper by gotan · · Score: 1

      But what is the "best data fit"?
      That depends on the kind of data, the kind of errors one expects and the properties the fit should have.

      Linear regression yields a result with some well known properties, e.g. the resulting linear function passes through the center of gravity. Maybe that's a desirable property. In other cases the y_i could be the result of a measuring process with a gaussian error distribution (where larger errors become more unlikely). Due to the central limit theorem that is often the case, or at least a good approximation. AFAIK in that case linear regression is the best fit (for a linear dependency).

      Let's look at the 1D case: for a number of x-values one seeks "the best fit" X by minimizing some kind of "error sum".

      If the errors are the absolute error so Sum |x_i-X| then the "best" X will be the median (and for an even number of values it'll be somewhat undefined).
      If you sum the squares: Sum (x_i-X)^2 then the "best X" will be the average of the x_i.

      So it might make sense to use a different criterion if there is a good reason to use another kind of "fit", but in many cases linear regression really is what you want, in some others it probably is, and in most of the rest it's still good enough.

      --
      "By the way if anyone here is in advertising or marketing... kill yourself." -- Bill Hicks
    20. Re:Linear regression stumper by jbengt · · Score: 1

      Using 1.1 as an exponent doesn't play well with errors that have a negative sign.

    21. Re:Linear regression stumper by Tablizer · · Score: 1

      I'm not sure how exactly you performed a 1.5 minimization

      Brute force: shifting the line around incrementally and computationally until an approximate minimum was achieved. Yes, I know it's only an approximation, but it should have been good enough to detect any clear pattern if one existed.

      I did assume rough boundaries/limits to avoid problems such as multiple candidates and division by zero. Thus, I wasn't testing every possible slope or line, just those "in the ballpark". (Perhaps "least squares" is handy for at least limiting one to a workable sub-set of alternatives when using similar techniques to avoid complex numbers etc.)

      As mentioned, a clear pattern did not emerge. If there are benefits of a different exponent, they were not obvious in my simulation. That may be the main reason "2" is still the king of the hill: the alternatives are computationally more expensive/tricky with only minor benefits, if any. I was going to use more trials and finer grain increments to see if I could tease out minor patterns, but never finished the mass-computational version of the project.

  23. Re:And in a sane curriculum by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Newton would never have made that stupid mistake.

  24. Re:And in a sane curriculum by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Physicist here -

    I'd like to know, specifically, what is messed up about Newton's notation? It's less print, at one dot instead of four additional symbols. It's meaning is as clear, as the dot over the variable indicates its derivative w/r/t time. It has its shortcomings for sure, but to say it's messed up is a little ... pre-calc student mentaility.

    Can it be used for multivariate calculus? Nope. Does anyone really know what his anti-derivative sybmol is? Doubt it. And saying that mathematics would have been better off without one of the greatest minds in recorded history is a little ... college algebra, if you get my drift.

    *Takes fanboy hat an leaves.

  25. It's a complete nonsense. by porky_pig_jr · · Score: 2

    Leibniz' notation is normally treated as a "suggestive kind", never to be understood literally. The origin of notation d^2/dx^2 goes from applying d/dx to d/dx, but d/dx only means "a derivative w.r.t. x" and nothing else. Sometime taking this notation literally and doing manipulations as if it were the regular fractions work (and that's b.t.w. is attributed to the early discoveries of many differentiation and integration rules), but it doesn't work most of the time. Any decent book on Calculus should point out that fact. Working with fractions helps to discover some rules, yes, but it's never rigorous, it's more like discovering something in a heuristic way, but then you still need a rigorous proof and that involves going back to basic definition of limits, not arguing in terms of "infinitesimals" (yes, I'm aware of Robinson's "non-standard calculus", but IMHO it's not a mainstream approach. Cheers.

  26. Re: Golly Miss Molly... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    You can't fix calculus

  27. Delta square x over delta y square IS retarded... by XArtur0 · · Score: 1

    but Lagrange's notation > Leibniz's notation anyhow.

    If you want to do wizardry by manipulating the notation itself, then by all means use '(d 2 y/dx 2) - (dy/dx)(d 2 x/dx 2)'.

    Kudos to johnnyb

  28. Newton and _Leibnitz_ both useful by Roger+W+Moore · · Score: 4, Informative

    The messed up notation by Newton is not used and instead the much saner stuff from Riemann is used.

    The advantage of the Newtonian notation is that it is a lot faster and easier for, unsurprisingly, basic Newtonian mechanics where you only really differentiate with respect to time. This is why it is used extensively in this area of physics. Leibnitz's (not Riemann's!) notation is a lot more versatile which is not surprising: Leibnitz was a mathematician who was interested in the abstract concept whereas Newton was a physicist who only developed calculus so he could describe mechanics and so did not really need a broader, more flexible notation.

    It is actually quite a common that fundamental physics can find itself ahead of maths. For example String theory today is really a joint venture between maths and physics since they are having to develop the maths needed to describe the physical models they work on.

    Finally, Newton was neither a hack or a crank but he was a somewhat evil genius. He could be quite nasty and viscous, sometimes in extremely petty ways. For example he discredited Leibnitz and he fell out with Robert Hooke and had all contemporary portraits of him destroyed which so angered a modern artist that she spent the time an effort painting multiple portraits of Hooke from contemporary descriptions so that, today, there are more portraits of Hooke than Newton!

    1. Re:Newton and _Leibnitz_ both useful by gweihir · · Score: 0

      Finally, Newton was neither a hack

      As a mathematician, he was most definitely a hack. Or he just did not care, which is about as bad. As a physicist he was probably somewhat better.

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    2. Re:Newton and _Leibnitz_ both useful by DCFusor · · Score: 1

      Yup, viscous as molasses on a cold day.

      --
      Why guess when you can know? Measure!
    3. Re: Newton and _Leibnitz_ both useful by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0, Informative

      Dude, shut the fuck up. You're a self important prat.

    4. Re: Newton and _Leibnitz_ both useful by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Internet keyboard warrier strikes again.

    5. Re:Newton and _Leibnitz_ both useful by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      A biographical podcast (I think it was this episode of the Cosmic Perspective) about Newton suggested that he made his calculus notation so difficult so that other people would have a hard time understanding it. This was because someone had criticized some his previous work. He figured if people couldn't understand his work they wouldn't be as likely to come up with a detailed criticism of it.

    6. Re:Newton and _Leibnitz_ both useful by Roger+W+Moore · · Score: 1

      As a mathematician, he was most definitely a hack. Or he just did not care...

      He was not a mathematician: he was a physicist. He only developed the mathematics needed to describe his physics so why should he care about maths beyond that when that wasn't what he was interested in? Complaining he was a poor mathematician would be like claiming you are a poor journalist for starting a sentence with 'or'.

    7. Re:Newton and _Leibnitz_ both useful by gweihir · · Score: 1

      Would make perfect sense. What a twat.

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    8. Re:Newton and _Leibnitz_ both useful by gweihir · · Score: 1

      Did you miss what the story was about?

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    9. Re:Newton and _Leibnitz_ both useful by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

      Finally, Newton was neither a hack

      As a mathematician, he was most definitely a hack. Or he just did not care, which is about as bad. As a physicist he was probably somewhat better.

      He was far from a hack in mathematics. Just read Principia Mathematica and you'll realise the geometric tour de force he did to show that the universal law of gravitation is inversly proportional to the square of distance between the objects.
      Calculus can be traced back to the greeks that developped the method of exhaustion. In the 17th century understanding of functions, curves, limits and whatnots was to put it bluntly severly lacking and immersed in philosophical debates about the nature of infinitesimals etc.... If you wanted a correct rigorous proof in mathematics it had to be done geometrically. And that's what Newton did. Calculus started to become rigorous in the early 19 century with Cauchy. And it still took another century to really really put calculus/analyis on a firm rigorous foundation.

      People should really study the history of science and epistemology before spouting such idiocy as Newton was a hack. He wasn't, he was a man of the 17th century. He was in part alchemist. And as human being he was a terrible person. But that takes nothing away from his scientific accomplishements.

    10. Re:Newton and _Leibnitz_ both useful by Roger+W+Moore · · Score: 1

      It was about mathematical notation and Newton's mathematical notation for calculus is still used by physicists today because it is so convenient. This does rather suggest that his notation was aimed at physics and that he was a physicist. The only reason you have a problem with him is that you are trying to make him out to be something he was not.

    11. Re:Newton and _Leibnitz_ both useful by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It was about mathematical notation and Newton's mathematical notation for calculus is still used by physicists today because it is so convenient. This does rather suggest that his notation was aimed at physics and that he was a physicist. The only reason you have a problem with him is that you are trying to make him out to be something he was not.

      Newton's notation is quite lacking, even in classical Newtonian physics. It only works if you consider functions that depend explicitely on time and only on time. You cannot deal with composition of functions with Newton's notation because you cannot apply the chain rule with it. Consider a vector field v function of x, y, z and t where x, y, and z are functions of t.
      What is dv/dt ? Good luck finding the result with Newton's dot notation.

    12. Re:Newton and _Leibnitz_ both useful by Tyler+Durden · · Score: 1

      Newton was most definitely a mathematician. He held the Lucasian Chair of Mathematics at Cambridge for a number of years. He also developed mathematics outside of what he needed to describe his physics, such as finding the infinite series necessary to expand (a+b)^n where n is negative, or a fraction.

      Also consider this quote about Newton from Leibniz himself: "Taking mathematics from the beginning of the world to the time when Newton lived, what he had done was much the better half."

      --
      Happy people make bad consumers.
  29. Old School by fahrbot-bot · · Score: 2

    Old-School Slashdotter Discovers and Solves Longstanding Flaw In Basic Calculus

    Can occasionally be heard yelling at younger mathematicians: "Get off my lambda"

    --
    It must have been something you assimilated. . . .
    1. Re:Old School by jrumney · · Score: 1

      I'd always dismissed old folks groanings about how easy the kids have it compared to their day. I went all the way through K12 and university with a fairly heavy calculus component to my degree, without ever encountering the second derivative of y with respect to x, and I'm not exactly young. But this guy considers this to be "elementary" calculus, so his old elementary school must have been hard core.

    2. Re:Old School by johnnyb · · Score: 2

      You never did a second derivative test to determine whether you are at a local minima or maxima?

      Most intro calculus books at least show the notation for the second derivative. However, it is true that they rarely take it far enough to hit any problems with the notation.

      I actually figured this out while trying to find a good way to explain the notation to my students, which is a homeschool co-op class (I have a range of 9-12 graders - the 9th grader is an exception, but she is ridiculously smart). I read through numerous calculus textbooks trying to find the justification for the notation, and none of them even attempted it. So, I decided to try it out myself, and found out that the standard notation was wrong.

    3. Re:Old School by primebase · · Score: 1

      I'm just impressed that there's anyone still left around here with a lower user# than mine! Congratulations on your innovation and publication!!

    4. Re: Old School by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I am sorry for you that even after all these Slashdot comments explaining what the notation means and how it got to be that way, you still don't understand. You remain ignorant.

      If the "fractional appearance" of the derivative operator ( d/dx ) bothers you, you should think instead in terms of a different form for that operator that I have seen (very rarely, though): Dx
      where the x is supposed to be a subscript.

      Example: Dx y

      Again, imagine the x as a subscript.

      The derivative is not a fraction, although its definition INVOLVES a fraction: it's more than that. The fractional notation is just a reminder of it.

    5. Re: Old School by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Using that notation.

      Dx2 y

      is the second derivative of y with respect to x.

      It's just shorter to use that superscripted number 2 than to indicate you are taking the derivative of the derivative. It's purely a notational convention, not exponentiation.

    6. Re: Old School by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Sorry the notation didn't display right.
      The x is supposed to be subscripted, the 2 superscripted.

    7. Re: Old School by johnnyb · · Score: 1

      If you read my paper, I actually suggest this as a shortened form of my own. This notation is Arbogast's, and is woefully underused. I show how to interconvert between Arbogast notation and my own in the paper.

  30. Now I understand why I kept failing calculus by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    It had nothing to do with my stupidity. What a relief.

  31. Standard form just as accurate by Roger+W+Moore · · Score: 2

    I appreciate the new form is technically more accurate

    It's only technically more accurate if you read the standard form as a fraction. If you actually read the standard form as intended - a notation indicating the second derivative of y with respect to x - the standard notational form is just as accurate as is the Newtonian notation of dots to denote derivatives with respect to time.

  32. UGH by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Sure, because that bullshit is better. Fucking morons...

  33. Re:And in a sane curriculum by gweihir · · Score: 0

    It is not. His contributions are verifiable not that good in quality (see the the story, for example) and there was a lot of low-hanging fruit around. For calculus, he did only the simple, standard-space version (and did it badly), while Riemann did a far more general and superior version basically at the same time. Calling Riemann a genius may or may not be justified, but Newton does not make it into that group.

    --
    Most ACs are not even worth the keystrokes to insult them. Be generically insulted by this and ignored otherwise.
  34. Re:And in a sane curriculum by gweihir · · Score: 1

    I mean the Riemann Integral. But you are correct, differentiation came first.

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  35. Re:And in a sane curriculum by gweihir · · Score: 1

    He could not have. He was dead at the time all information became available. But you seem to be stupid, so you are probably incapable of understanding causality.

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    Most ACs are not even worth the keystrokes to insult them. Be generically insulted by this and ignored otherwise.
  36. Now I gotta toss my calculators by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Man, thanks for nothing.

  37. Re:And in a sane curriculum by gweihir · · Score: 1

    It does not work for almost all cases. (Mathematical "almost all".) And it does not warn you of it. It is basically not mathematics, but clever shifting around of symbols with pitfalls which works purely by accident. Not a good thing.

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  38. Why is this here? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    This article is not actually relevant to mathematicians (who already know how to interpret and how not to interpret mathematical symbols, and would never make the mistakes described in the article). That probably explains why the paper was published in a low-impact math journal (which generally have much lower quality/significance standards than high-impact journals)

    I don't think this story would have been posted if the article wasn't written by a 'slashdotter' -- and I'm not sure if that aspect alone is enough to make it newsworthy for nerds. (It's definitely not 'stuff that matters')

  39. Re:And in a sane curriculum by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    you might actually be retarded

  40. Ehh, sorry. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Ehh, apologies to the author of this paper, but he seems to not understand the standard notation of derivatives. When we were taught in high school, literally the first thing we were told was "it's not a fraction". If you never see it as a fraction, you don't try to treat it as one and everything is fine in the world - I actually liked working with derivatives, although the notation definitely could have been better.

  41. Re:And in a sane curriculum by sfcat · · Score: 2

    The messed up notation by Newton is not used and instead the much saner stuff from Riemann is used. Newton was smart, but a hack and a crank. And he tried to suppress Riemann notation. Mathematics would probably have done better without Newton.

    Riemann lived 2 centuries after Newton. And your conclusions aren't correct, they aren't even wrong!!!

    --
    "Those that start by burning books, will end by burning men."
  42. What about partial derivatives? by leehwtsohg · · Score: 1

    Very cool! I think the paper will help me understand more deeply problems with the notation I've fought with many times!
    However, I'm a bit disappointed that the notion of partial vs. full derivative wasn't raised, which I think is very relevant to the question...

    1. Re:What about partial derivatives? by johnnyb · · Score: 4, Interesting

      I've actually got a second paper on partial derivatives just about ready to go. It was originally part of this paper, but it got a little long, and I wanted to rethink and clarify a few concepts. Anyway, partial differentials have the same notational problem *plus* one more. The problem is that there are several partial differentials which all go by the same name. Once you name them properly (i.e., give them each a distinct name) the problems go away.

    2. Re:What about partial derivatives? by kackle · · Score: 1

      Well, congratulations, and thank you for putting forth the extra effort to help (future) mankind.

    3. Re:What about partial derivatives? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Can you think of an explanation why (E/S) (S/V) (V/E) = -1 ?

    4. Re:What about partial derivatives? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Oh great, slashdot can't do unicode in 2019 either. Think of the partial derivative when you read "p":

      (pE/pS) (pS/pV) (pV/pE) = -1 ?

  43. Re: And in a sane curriculum by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

    Exactly! If gweiher here had more time on his hands, he would have written supercalculus by now. But no, his solemn duty to try to top dead people on Slashdot takes up his otherwise suuuuper valuable time.

  44. Math notation problems by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    It's great, math notation has long been ambiguous, and hinders learning. Thankfully programming languages are the new notation.

    1. Re: Math notation problems by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Because of ambiguity, equations need verbal explanatory info.
      At the simplest level, what does A + 1 = B mean, for example?
      What is A? What is B?
      You need some explanation. After that, you can use the math notation, and you are off to the races.

    2. Re:Math notation problems by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It's great, math notation has long been ambiguous, and hinders learning. Thankfully programming languages are the new notation.

      Yeah well the same problems afflict programming languages. If you are manipulating expressions like x = x+1 as a purely symbolic mathematical expression your program is going to die a fierry blue death at the very least.

  45. Wohoo by ememisya · · Score: 1

    Congratulations dude!

  46. Re:And in a sane curriculum by gweihir · · Score: 0

    Sure, if retarded people can get engineering PhDs from one of the best tech universities of the planet, you may be right. Alternatively, I have a clue of what I am talking about and you are just full of it.

    --
    Most ACs are not even worth the keystrokes to insult them. Be generically insulted by this and ignored otherwise.
  47. Could I get that explained... by HotNeedleOfInquiry · · Score: 1

    In the form of a frog meme?

    --
    "Eve of Destruction", it's not just for old hippies anymore...
  48. Re:And in a sane curriculum by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Dead people doesn't make mistakes.

  49. Not since the 70's by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    I bumped my head on a glass table today, oh it hurt, big lump.

  50. Re:And in a sane curriculum by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Uhh, you don't actually know that.

    Someone may have done that, and we're looking at the result....

  51. Re:And in a sane curriculum by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Thanks for your opinion on that post, person who makes sweeping, unpleasant and nonspecific allegations about the person, rather than stating what is wrong and why. Actually, not thanks. Your post is an example of why the internet is shit, even in intellectual discourse.

  52. No accuracy in notation by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    If you don't understand that notation is just a way of calling things and that there's no question about its accuracy, just its convenience, you're a moron. Let me fix your notation again: call g(f) the second derivative of f at x. Done. Again: call it d^2(f,x) or Hess(f)_x (for Hessian). It's all the same. Just a matter of taste. Totally not worth my time or this spot on slashdot.

    1. Re: No accuracy in notation by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Of course the guy would also have to provide a "solution" for the multidimensional (and infinite-dimensional) case.

    2. Re: No accuracy in notation by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      He would also have to first understand the definition of differentials before he starts trying to manipulate them algebraically.

    3. Re: No accuracy in notation by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Here's a thought:
      Stop abusing mathematical operators (e.g. division)
      That's why CS is flourishing and mathematicians can't get jobs. It's NOT just a matter of taste, it's a matter of applying your own rules and not just making shit up when convenient.

    4. Re: No accuracy in notation by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Anonymous Coward in a few seconds

      Here's a thought:
      Stop abusing mathematical operators (e.g. division)
      That's why CS is flourishing and mathematicians can't get jobs. It's NOT just a matter of taste, it's a matter of applying your own rules and not just making shit up when convenient.

  53. Re: And in a sane curriculum by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Sounds awfully unfair to say that Newton's contribution were "low hanging fruit." Ever heard of Columbus's egg?
    His understanding of gravitation was definitely revolutionary and groundbreaking.
    Also, comparing him to Riemann, who lived some 150 years later, also seems totally unfair.

  54. Re: And in a sane curriculum by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Ok, so perhaps it's more accurate to say that you are overly pretentious and self-centered. Note: I am not the original AC replying to you, but your arrogance and apparent dislike for Newton, combined with your inability to recognize contemporaries 100+ years apart, compelled me to respond.

  55. Sigh. by ledow · · Score: 2

    Often in maths, a mere change of notation, analogous equation in another field, or just looking at things in a slightly different way will open up whole new areas of maths.

    Fermat's Last Theorem took forever to prove and the proof relies on translating the problem to a completely unrelated area of maths, solving it there, and then translating the results back.

    And if you do things like use polar coordinates, etc. some areas of maths burst open with good sense and nice equations.

    Something as simple as a notation change can work wonders. But this is just for convenience of amateurs who don't understand what a derivative actually is and does. It's like saying "Don't use the word multiplication for vectors, because it's not the same as for scalars". We know. Anyone handling it knows. Anyone dumb enough to confuse the notations is going to find out very quickly that nothing works. Sure, it might help if you've literally never done those kinds of equations before, but likely then you'll not be making any ground-breaking mathematical discoveries any time soon.

    Things don't tend to survive hundreds of years for no reason, especially when they are one pen-stroke away from being changed, and have themselves gone through several notational iterations in their time.

    I got through a degree in maths without thinking "Well, this notation is stupid", including three years of advanced calculus.

    If you don't understand the notation, that's the very least of your worries as regards actually doing any calculus.

    1. Re:Sigh. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Even if all this change in notation does is help more people understand calculus who might not otherwise, it is still a worthwhile endeavor.

    2. Re:Sigh. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I think this is intended to help newbies, not people with a degree in maths. The latter is a really small minority.

    3. Re:Sigh. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Even if all this change in notation does is help more people understand calculus who might not otherwise, it is still a worthwhile endeavor.

      Calculus is basically Mathematical Analysis minus the rigour. Is it any surprise then that students have difficulties when manipulating mathematical notation in a purely symbolic intuitive way when they aren't taught what the notation actually stands for ?
      In my view it's stupid to teach students calculus and then mathematical analysis a second time. Do it right the first time. Teach them mathematical analysis (with different amounts of simplifications according to the audience that you're lecturing to but never ever take the rigorous part out of analysis).
      Integration, differentiation, Taylor expansions, differential equations etc... it was all taught to me in a first year mathematical analysis course. Everything was demonstrated rigorously. Then when I attended physics classes I was hit with calculus type reasonings. But at least you understood the mathematical underpinnings even if you didn't use them anymore. Any STEM (except maybe biology) student should have at least one mathematical analysis course under his belt.

    4. Re:Sigh. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I got through a degree in maths without thinking "Well, this notation is stupid", including three years of advanced calculus.

      Interesting. I could not get though a CS degree without thinking "this has nothing to do with computers or science... this is fucking math." Somehow slashdot and the government is convinced CS is not math, but instead programming (or wtf software engineering?) and tech support, and further, that symbolic logic (Philosophy) is not math. Happily abandoned CS (during 2nd semester year 2 calc) with a math minor, and finished my degree in Philosophy, just so I could prove them all wrong. Took me a decade to get out of shitty Tier 2/3 tech support jobs, but I did retire quite early, mostly because math is everywhere.

      Hey kids, fuck CS, they are lying to you, it is nothing but math. Get an economics degree you fools!

    5. Re:Sigh. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Where's your paper?

  56. Re:And in a sane curriculum by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    It does not work for almost all cases. (Mathematical "almost all".) And it does not warn you of it. It is basically not mathematics, but clever shifting around of symbols with pitfalls which works purely by accident.

    What a load of rubbish. Many books on mechanics use this notation (particularly when using the Lagrangian and Hamiltonian formalisms). It even shows up in Jackson's Classical Electrodynamics. No problems.

  57. bullshit paper with undefined notation by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Contradicts itself and introduces confusing undefined notation in several spots. citation from paper:

    citation 1:

    "The first derivative is d y/ d x = 3x 2 . The second derivative is d 2 y/d x 2 = 6x.
    Say that it is later discovered that x is a function of t so that x = t 2 . The problem here is that the chain rule for the second derivative is not the same
    as what would be implied by the algebraic representation."

    No the problem here is you didn't read carefully what dy/dx means and try to calculate as if were numbers and quotients.

    citation 2:

    "In this case, since dx/d x reduces to 1, the expression is obviously zero. However,
    in (5), the term d 2 x/d x 2 is not itself necessarily zero, since it is not the second
    derivative of x with respect to x."

    Make up your mind: is this notation second derivative or is it not.
    If you write paper state CLEARLY at BEGINNING what is the DEFINITION of notation you use. Otherwise you end up with undefined fog where everything can mean whatever you feel like it should mean. And first 3 pages are useless philosophical blabber full of imprecisions and fog.

    And this is why you don't learn from quacks, you will only waste your time.

  58. Not a Flaw in Basic Calculus by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Sensationalist garbage. There is not a flaw in basic calculus that these geniuses fixed.

    They just took something that was perfectly well-understood be literally everyone who has ever done calculus and made it pedantically more "correct," and a lot more difficult to express.

    We have got to figure out how to stop letting pedants like this get published.

  59. You Is Many Smaht by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Perhaps you can explain to us clueless troglodytes how you are not the pompous, self-important, cum guzzling, cock sucking, piece of human detritus that you appear in every way to be.

  60. Re: The long term flaws in calculus teachers are.. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    symbole manipulation.
    anything with those symboles inside is useless and could be viewed as a whole car but in pieces.
    or as a way to tell you something but you have to assemble it youself.
    obviously every equation with those symboles can be turned into a whole working car.
    i prefer a whole working car when purchasing then getting a DIY errector set ^_^

  61. (d/dy)[B.S.] by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    y =f(x)
    0th derivative: (d/dx)^0 [y]
    1st derivative: (d/dx)^1 [y]
    2nd derivative: (d/dx)^2 [y] which is same as the classic notation. ^ is used as exponent.

  62. this is absolute AWESOME by aod7br7932 · · Score: 1

    Will revolutionize calculus teaching

  63. 3rd and 4th? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Is there a rule to generate any "nth" level of derivation? Might be helpful.

  64. Similar solution was proposed in 1993 by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Look into
    Computers Math. Applic. Vol 26 No 3 pp95-105, 1993
    under the title
    Revised Notation for Partial Derivatives
    by W.C. Hassenpflug
    It suggests a way to handle derivatives so that algebraic operations can be consistent.
    It deals with first derivatives and Jacobian. But the methodology is extensible.
    I'll finish going through Mt Bartlett's article, and see where they are the same and where they differ.

    1. Re:Similar solution was proposed in 1993 by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Mr Bartlett and Mr Hassenpflug are complimentary. Mr Hassenpflug's article addresses mainly the use of correct and novel notations, but still acceptable, in order to deal with first order derivatives properly and algebraicly. Mr Bartlett does not introduce new symbols but instead addresses mainly the algebraic issues of the second derivatives.
      The two work are complementary, in a field in bad needed of correct and consistent synthesis.
      The inconsistencies pointed by the two articles have led to too many errors.
      It is nice to see that these "difficulties" still hitch enough to have Mr Bartlett do something about them.
      Thank you Sir.

  65. Re: And in a sane curriculum by gweihir · · Score: 1

    There is a strong indicator: Leibnitz did the same thing independently at the same time. If you factor in that the scientific community was pretty small back then, that means the prerequisites were all there, the question had been asked and it just took somebody to put it together. That makes the results a "good" scientific result, but not a "genius level" one. And I am not talking about his contributions to physics, I am talking about his contributions to calculus, see the original story.

    As to Riemann, I confused him with Leibnitz.

    --
    Most ACs are not even worth the keystrokes to insult them. Be generically insulted by this and ignored otherwise.
  66. Re: And in a sane curriculum by gweihir · · Score: 1

    And alternatively, I really know what I am talking about and regard ACs as basically scum. However, I cannot see how you come to "pretentious", unless you are an authoritarian follower that things people that have a name may not be criticized. Is that it? Newton was so great, nobody is allowed to criticize him? That would be a pretty bad stance. As for "self-centered", were to you see any evidence for that?

    So I got confused on a name in the history of mathematics. But this is /. and I did not look it up to make sure. It is a data point, not something that requires insight.

    BTW, I do not "like" or "dislike" Newton. That is you projecting. I am of the opinion that the formalism he created for calculus is pretty bad and he did a huge disservice to a lot of people by creating and pushing it and trying to suppress better alternatives. This is something I am qualified to judge. Decidedly a negative contribution to calculus overall.

    I am also wondering why you post as an AC. /. has pseudonymity. Use it. If you are scared of the NSA, they can already identify anything you post, AC or not.

    --
    Most ACs are not even worth the keystrokes to insult them. Be generically insulted by this and ignored otherwise.
  67. Equation (4) by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    I think the lhs of equation (4) should be:

    dy/dt - (dy / dt) * (dt/dt)

    instead of

    dy/dt - (dy / dt) * (dx/dx)

    1. Re:Equation (4) by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Something went wrong (slashdot does not support unicode U+00B2)

      d^2y/dt^2 - (dy / dt) * (d^2t/dt^2)

      instead of

      d^2y/dt^2 - (dy / dt) * (d^2x/dx^2)

  68. Differential Forms rediscovered? by unhandyandy · · Score: 1

    How does this differ from the Grassmann algebra of differential forms? https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/...

    1. Re:Differential Forms rediscovered? by unhandyandy · · Score: 1

      In differential forms d^2 x = 0. On page 6 of this paper it is implied that d^2 x != 0, but no discussion is given of what the value might be or how to calculate it. This goes along with avoidance of the semantics of the d operation. I think the paper is thought provoking, but I don't think cluttering formulas up with terms like d^2 x / dx^2, to which no meaning is attached, is helpful, particularly with new students.