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Can Employer Usurp Copyright On GPL-Derived Work?

An anonymous reader writes "I am a recent graduate, and I've been working on my own on a project that uses GPL-licensed libraries. Later a university department hired me, on a part-time basis, to develop this project into a solution that they needed. The project's size increased over time and soliciting help from the open source community seemed like the obvious thing to do. However, when I suggested this, my boss was not interested, and it was made clear to me that the department's position was that copyright of the whole thing belonged to them. Indeed, by default work created for an employer belongs to the employer, so I may have gotten myself in the same trap discussed here years ago. Even though I want to release my code to the public I don't know whether I have the legal right to do so. I did start the project on my own. And, since no written or verbal agreement was ever made to transfer copyright over to my employer, I question whether they can claim that they now own the extended version of the project. Also, the whole project relies on GPL libraries, and without those libraries it would be useless. Can they still claim copyright and prevent me from publishing the source code even though it is derived from GPL software?" Some early commenters on the submission pointed out that it matters whether the libraries were licensed under the LGPL vs. the GPL.

504 comments

  1. GPL Violation? by Z00L00K · · Score: 0

    The employer may be committing a GPL violation. You should bring that up with your employer and also inform them that it can cause a lot of badwill.

    --
    If builders built buildings the way programmers wrote programs, then the first woodpecker would destroy civilization.
    1. Re:GPL Violation? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 5, Insightful

      no GPL violation if they do not distribute. what are your grounds for suggesting this is a GPL violation ?

    2. Re:GPL Violation? by Edward+Teach · · Score: 2, Interesting

      If my understanding is correct (not guaranteed by any means), they would only be in violation if they released the binaries. Any work done before he worked for them is his copyright and he could release that but any work done after his hire is theirs and as long as they keep it in house, there is no violation.

      --

      Setting his threshold to 5, Sparky eliminated most of the trolls on /.

    3. Re:GPL Violation? by buchner.johannes · · Score: 5, Informative

      This is what it boils down to, and what people often forget or misunderstand about GPL. You can do with GPL code whatever you want internally as long as you don't distribute it. It is a license that specifies how the party someone distributes to has to distribute it when he/she does.

      The code OP wrote on his own is on his copyright and he can distribute under the GPL. The extensions he wrote for his employer are owned by the employer (he has the copyright). If he wants to distribute it, the employer has to respect the GPL.

      They can claim copyright because they own what you produced at the time you were employed there (usually, may depend on the contract).

      Since you are at a university it might be smart to see if there are any regulations or memos that recommend or require that department-developed software becomes open source. I know that some countries, particularly in the EU, see that tax-payed software should become publicly available. Try make some suggestions in this direction.

      --
      NB: The message above might reflect my opinion right now, but not necessarily tomorrow or next year.
    4. Re:GPL Violation? by HeronBlademaster · · Score: 1

      Honest question: does distribution internal to an organization count as distribution as described by the GPL? That is, if I have code subject to the GPL, and I distribute it to my employees without allowing them access to the source code, am I violating the GPL?

      This question may be easily answered by another read-through of the GPL, but I'm too tired to do that myself right now...

    5. Re:GPL Violation? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      From TFQ: ... it was made clear to me that the department's position was that copyright of the whole thing belonged to them
      Indeed, by default work created for an employer belongs to the employer, so I may have gotten myself in the same trap discussed here years ago. Even though I want to release my code to the public ...

      The employer seems to be sitting on the code, and the whole question about how to distribute it. So if they are using GPL parts (not just LGPL libs), they seem to be in violation.

    6. Re:GPL Violation? by rtfa-troll · · Score: 2, Interesting

      Honest question: does distribution internal to an organization count as distribution as described by the GPL? That is, if I have code subject to the GPL, and I distribute it to my employees without allowing them access to the source code, am I violating the GPL?

      This question may be easily answered by another read-through of the GPL, but I'm too tired to do that myself right now...

      First / correct answer: ask your lawyer. This is a question for lawyers

      second, more general useful and helpful but speculative answer. You probably don't mean "distribute it to my employees" you mean "install it on my computers which my employees use". In which case it's not a violation of the GPL. This is because it doesn't count as distribution because it is on your own computer and so you (the company) still really posses it. Full details of this may well vary from one state/country to another.

      --
      =~ s,(.*),<sarcasm>$1</sarcasm>,g if any_point_you_wish();
    7. Re:GPL Violation? by Statecraftsman · · Score: 1

      The GPL uses the terms convey and propagate rather than distribute. Propogation is what you're referring to and the way I read it with my non-lawyer eye is... if an organization holds copyright to their changes or is using a publicly available version of the program(and therefore source is available from other channels) they are not in violation of the GPL.

      My question to you is how are you able to possess code subject to the GPL yet deny your employees access to the source code? Why would you?

    8. Re:GPL Violation? by rtfa-troll · · Score: 3, Informative

      Any work done before he worked for them is his copyright and he could release that but any work done after his hire is theirs and as long as they keep it in house, there is no violation.

      This varies very much from country to country. In many European countries the work you do outside work is your own. In the US that should also be true, but your employer is allowed to create contracts which take away everything you should own. So, the summary doesn't give us enough information. You need to know a) where exactly this is happening b) what contracts were in place c) what exactly the guy did; what discussions he had and exactly what comments are in the code. Generally he shouldn't post that information since his posting would be discoverable in any lawsuit. He should discuss everything with his lawyer since, in civilised countries, that kind of discussion protects any speculative things he may say that might be harmful to him from being available to his opponents.

      --
      =~ s,(.*),<sarcasm>$1</sarcasm>,g if any_point_you_wish();
    9. Re:GPL Violation? by HeronBlademaster · · Score: 1

      I dunno, it was just a theoretical question. I might be too tired to think about anything legal...

      I suppose the issue might come up if you have code written by a parent company, who then gives the compiled program to a subsidiary, without also giving them the source code... but I'm just making stuff up as I go.

    10. Re:GPL Violation? by GNious · · Score: 1

      ..or if they distribute to students? That seems a likely scenario, and would invoke GPL requirements for providing source at requests

    11. Re:GPL Violation? by TwilightXaos · · Score: 1

      My question to you is how are you able to possess code subject to the GPL yet deny your employees access to the source code?

      This is just a thought, and IANAL so I could be completely wrong here.

      What if the organization, eg CorpInc, took software released under the GPL and made modifications to it. Then they installed the modified versions to their own computers. The modified version is clearly under the GPL, because it is a derivative work. However is CorpInc required to give it's employees that use those computers the source to the modified version? If they are, then by the terms of the GPL the employees can give the source, and binaries, to others.

    12. Re:GPL Violation? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Interesting

      That's mostly irrelevant. We can safely assume that his employer got the source code from him, so there is no GPL violation even if it applies.

      The trouble he got himself into is this: He (probably) still owns his own work prior to the employment. His employer likely owns the copyright to the work he did during his employment (depends on the contract). If he can't convince his employer to open-source the project, then his only option for continuing is to backtrack to the state the project was in before he started working for them. But then he'll have a hard time making any improvements from there, because he knows the source he wrote for the employer. He will knowingly or unknowingly create a derivative work.

      If you want to continue working on a project after employment which involves writing code for the same project, then you should write that into the contract: Either the code is open-sourced or you get to keep the copyright and license it non-exclusively to the employer. If you can get neither, then the project is no longer yours.

    13. Re:GPL Violation? by Zibri · · Score: 2, Informative

      This should answer your question: http://www.gnu.org/licenses/gpl-faq.html#GPLRequireSourcePostedPublic

      "The GPL does not require you to release your modified version, or any part of it. You are free to make modifications and use them privately, without ever releasing them. This applies to organizations (including companies), too; an organization can make a modified version and use it internally without ever releasing it outside the organization."

    14. Re:GPL Violation? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      If it is at a university, the computers are probably owned by individuals. It is typical that you are expected to use your own computer not paid for by the university to do work so that claim goes straight down the toilet.

    15. Re:GPL Violation? by Statecraftsman · · Score: 2, Informative

      Assuming the company owns the copyright to the modifications they made, no they wouldn't need to provide their modified source to their employees. One of them must have the source to have developed the modifications but there's no propagation in what you described. With the GPL, the copyright holder is the party of reference, not the coder, employee, PHB, or anyone else.

    16. Re:GPL Violation? by Zibri · · Score: 4, Informative

      Even better answer: http://www.gnu.org/licenses/gpl-faq.html#InternalDistribution

      No, in that case the organization is just making the copies for itself. As a consequence, a company or other organization can develop a modified version and install that version through its own facilities, without giving the staff permission to release that modified version to outsiders.

    17. Re:GPL Violation? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      >The code OP wrote on his own is on his copyright and he can distribute under the GPL

          Unless his contract of employment states otherwise, as many do.

    18. Re:GPL Violation? by fractoid · · Score: 2, Informative

      What if the organization, eg CorpInc, took software released under the GPL and made modifications to it. Then they installed the modified versions to their own computers. The modified version is clearly under the GPL, because it is a derivative work. However is CorpInc required to give it's employees that use those computers the source to the modified version? If they are, then by the terms of the GPL the employees can give the source, and binaries, to others.

      I don't believe so, since you have a company installing its own software on its own computers. That's not distribution/propagation/release/whatever.

      --
      Rampant carbon sequestration destroyed the Dinosaurs' tropical paradise. I'm here to help repair the damage.
    19. Re:GPL Violation? by gknoy · · Score: 1

      What level of granularity do we accept for a "company or organization"? Would the University of California, Berkeley, need to GPL something they are giving to other UC schools? In some ways, they're all part of the UC system, but I'm curious if UC Berkeley would be considered a separate organization from UC Riverside or UC Irvine.

    20. Re:GPL Violation? by fractoid · · Score: 1

      In the US that should also be true, but your employer is allowed to create contracts which take away everything you should own.

      I'm fairly sure that there are limitations on what sort of contracts you *can* make, in Australia if not in the U.S, to stop people from being tricked into crazy things. They can't enforce a contract that entitles your employer to harvest your organs, or that excludes you from ever working for anyone but that employer in your life. I'm pretty sure a contract that has fine print letting your employer take possession of your house and car, likewise, is not enforceable. And obviously a contract isn't enforceable if you have to break the law to fulfil it (unless of course it's the sort of contract with breach clauses involving your kneecaps and the wearing of concrete boots).

      --
      Rampant carbon sequestration destroyed the Dinosaurs' tropical paradise. I'm here to help repair the damage.
    21. Re:GPL Violation? by GNUPublicLicense · · Score: 1

      Your employees are internal... your users/clients are external... if you distribute a device to your users/clients, it's external and your must publish GNU (L)GPL code. One of the main purposes of the GNU (A)(L)GPL is to have a legal leverage in order to get optimal code.

    22. Re:GPL Violation? by doug · · Score: 0

      Under the GPL, if it has been distributed internally, then only those local users have the right to demand the source. The fact that one set of users has access to the product (and also the source) in no way affects any users not in that set. There is nothing in the GPL that says you have to make the product available to the whole world. It just says that if you do make it available, then the source has to be made available too.

      I have no idea if "making available" is to the individual or to the company for whom that individual works. But I'm not sure it matters. If they are using it as part of their job, then just put your foot down and say that they are not allowed to touch the source on company time. Since it was never distributed to them as individuals outside of work, just as employees, then I think you're safe.

      But this all begs the question: What are you trying to gain from this? Just grant them access and be done with it. Prohibit them from touching the source while on the clock, but let them do whatever they want outside of work. Who knows, one of them just might make the product better for everyone.

      - doug

    23. Re:GPL Violation? by uncqual · · Score: 1

      Ahh..., but is the accounting of time spent strong enough to protect the programmer?

      Work done on your computer on company (or University) time is typically the property of the company (or, in this case, the University) - utilization of any company (or University) resource is typically enough to make it a work product of one's employment. The question isn't if all resources used were company (or University) resources.

      If there is not strict time accounting (clock in/out and what you spent your time on while "at work") of both your professional time and your personal time and the code you're working on is generally the same as the code you work on at work, you're going to need a whole lot of high priced legal help to defend your position (and if you had the resources and inclination to pick a fight in this domain, you simply would have asked your attorney this question instead of asking us /. idiots).

      Generally, if you care, quit your position, wipe your hard drives, and in the future carefully partition your "volunteer" work and your paid work.

      Yep, it sucks -- but I've seen people spend a whole lot of money on lawyers for naught on cases like this. Or, just play the roulette wheel and figure that this code really isn't that important and no one is going to fight you over anything short of outright code theft.

      --
      Why is there an "insightful" mod and why isn't it "-1"? If I wanted insight, I wouldn't be reading /.
    24. Re:GPL Violation? by AlecC · · Score: 1

      Under the GPL, you have to distribute, or offer to distribute, the source to anyone to whom you distribute the binary, and with the right to redistribute in the same way. I this case, this would imply that the OP has to offer the source to all other departments that use the code, and that they then have the right to distribute as they see fit. However, they are presumably bound by the same university regulations. However, it would give the OP a way round a single uncooperative manager. If an internal user could be found with a more positive attitude to Open Source, that user could request the source and then redistribute it in any way compatible with the GPL i.e. return it to the OS community.

      --
      Consciousness is an illusion caused by an excess of self consciousness.
    25. Re:GPL Violation? by OeLeWaPpErKe · · Score: 3, Informative

      Actually the copyright on any code written "during work time" (or otherwise understood to be part of a job, be careful with that), is not the coder's to licence as he pleases, so it does not even matter what is in the employment contract. The code will be considered a "work for hire" (google that exact term for more information : it is the term used in copyright law, and is legal jargon)

      His employer owns all rights to the code, except for 2 things :
      1) the employer cannot deny the coder actually wrote that code (up-front attribution is not required, on-demand confirmation is required, e.g. "I want to hire person X, did he actually do the work in his CV on project Y ?" must be answered truthfully)
      2) the coder gets to show, demonstrate, explain the functionality of the code to anyone he pleases*, **
      (and -but be more careful- the coder is free to distribute extracts out of these materials for educational purposes)

      * which can include limited distribution, e.g. in a job interview conducted over mail, however it must be clearly understood to not be used for anything other than portfolio work

      ** this explain bit can be used to get the code into the GPL program legally. The essential point is that the coder gets the work in, with his only involvement being explaining what it does to someone else, WITHOUT exchanging any of the protected work. In response to specific questions you can then (afterwards) use things like pseudocode. The coder cannot legally do this himself, but there's no law against him guiding -no matter how closely- another to do it. Given legal precedent, it would be very wise not to touch the computer of the guy doing the commit for any reason. If possible, document the exchanges made (do them over email ?, note down somewhere (in your gmail box for example) that you talked over the phone and what you talked about, or provide small "meeting reports", again mailed to yourself, that'd be a great help to any lawyer if it ever becomes a legal case)

      Distribution, creation of derivative works (a second implementation of it by the same coder of the same thing would most likely be considered a derivative work, especially if parts of the code would turn out to match perfectly), and/or use in any manner other than described above is a violation of copyright law (and most likely also a serious violation of your employment contract)

      And, frankly, don't tell your boss you're doing this. There's no legal necessity here, just common sense. Oh nothing in this post is legal advice for any case at all, it is merely a small summary of part of copyright law for informational purposes. It might be wrong, not applicable in your state, ... so use at your own risk. Contact a lawyer for legal advice.

    26. Re:GPL Violation? by thegrassyknowl · · Score: 1

      >The code OP wrote on his own is on his copyright and he can distribute under the GPL

              Unless his contract of employment states otherwise, as many do.

      I'd say at a guess (IANAL) that the software has been "distributed" to the OP as a requirement of performing his work. The GPL allows him to then fork and continue to use that code for non-work related purposes - even releasing it off his own back under the terms of the GPL. Presuming that the compiled binary links in any form of GPL'd code this is all perfectly fine in my view. The only thing that would be not permitted is stealing the copyright and re-licensing the parts of it that he doesn't own the rights to. But given time he could re-implement those parts so he did hold the copyright to them.

      Of course, I am not a lawyer and the courts still do not fully grok the terms of software licensing and source code (black magic as far as they're concerned) so doing that could end badly even if the intent of the GPL is met.

      --
      I drink to make other people interesting!
    27. Re:GPL Violation? by HungryHobo · · Score: 3, Insightful

      Personally I think he'd be going at this from the human angle.

      It's a university?
      The careers of Academics are generally heavily based on publishing the work they've done with their names attached.

      For coders it's less explicit but having a large body of published work can also be important and academics generally get the idea of open source.

      Talk to some senior academics you get on well with.
      Talk about it the same way as you would if the university were not allowing you to publish research done on uni time.
      They may not like the idea and weigh in on your side which would be a big help.

      Worst case you don't really get anywhere.
      Best case some bullish professor will arrange things so your work gets published.
      You may end up with some academics name on the code along with yours.

      Storming about and arguing about who owns the code is very unlikely to do any good since you probably don't and the GPL doesn't help you on that score.

      Allies in the right place are worth a thousand lawyers.

    28. Re:GPL Violation? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Yes. There is no distinction between internal and external distribution. If you make the software available to someone else, it has to come with the code, the GPL license, etc.

    29. Re:GPL Violation? by pegdhcp · · Score: 1

      In Turkey, University owns anything and everything developed in campus, either for academic work and/or R&D projects. Usually developers are paid by companies established in University, for loyalty management porposes, if the product has a kind of commercial nature. In the commercial sense it is usually fair enough, assuming that professors really adds more value to the project than assistants. A similar assumption exists in RL companies, that Manager's added value is more important than engineer's...Unfortunately there are only a few academic instutions here that really understands FOSS concepts, a far as an instution can understand anything at all, given that there is no brain attached...

    30. Re:GPL Violation? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      In the US that should also be true, but your employer is allowed to create contracts which take away everything you should own.

      When I went to work for IBM, I was told to list any outstanding work I wished to keep control of. I was told that any future work I created, even on my own time, AS WELL AS any prior work I failed to list became their property.

      I have no idea whether there was any limit on the scope or kind of work involved,\ -- i.e. if I wrote a program to design needlepoint or jet engine parts. No mention was made of any exceptions based on whether they were interested in the product, as in, would it compete with anything they were doing.

    31. Re:GPL Violation? by grahamm · · Score: 1

      How does his contract of employment affect the copyright of code written, and licensed under the GPL, before the employment started. The OP stated that he was 'employed' to develop (ie adapt and extend) an existing solution to meet a specific need.

    32. Re:GPL Violation? by HungryHobo · · Score: 1, Insightful

      He owns what he wrote before he started.
      After he started it's likely that anything he did belongs to the university.

      The GPL has zero effect on this unless the uni ever want to distribute it externally.

    33. Re:GPL Violation? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      My company went round and round regarding this, as we have literally hundreds of subsidiaries. Most are either fully or partially owned by us. After much negotiation, our Linux vendor agreed with us that a 75% ownership of the subsidiary was enough to constitute "internal" distribution and thus did not trigger any GPL "giveback" requirements.

      Hint: We even consulted Eben Moglen, the pitbull lawyer used by the FSF.

    34. Re:GPL Violation? by grahamm · · Score: 1

      Plus, if the employer does not open source the project then the resultant code can only be used in-house as to propagate it would violate the GPL licence of the original code.

    35. Re:GPL Violation? by PAjamian · · Score: 1

      Honest question: does distribution internal to an organization count as distribution as described by the GPL? That is, if I have code subject to the GPL, and I distribute it to my employees without allowing them access to the source code, am I violating the GPL?

      Honest answer: No.

      --
      Windows is a bonfire, Linux is the sun. Linux only looks smaller if you lack perspective.
    36. Re:GPL Violation? by grahamm · · Score: 1

      Under the GPL, you have to distribute, or offer to distribute, the source to anyone to whom you distribute the binary,.

      It is often stated that you must offer to distribute the source any anyone to whom you distribute the binary, but GPL-2 requires more than this. It states (3.b) " Accompany it with a written offer, valid for at least three
      years, to give any third party," (My emphasis). So the requirement to provide the source code is not restricted to those to whom you distribute the binary but it must be made available to anyone who requests it.

    37. Re:GPL Violation? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It's a university?
      The careers of Academics are generally heavily based on publishing the work they've done with their names attached.

      That's only the actual academics at the university. The original question is about code developed for a university department, which sounds more likely to be an administrative function than an academic function. There may be reason or motivation to 'publish' on sourceforge etc (although academic publication generally means formally peer-reviewed), but not all aspects of university run on the publish-or-perish model, and some - like accounting - run on explicitly closed models.

    38. Re:GPL Violation? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      What if the organization, eg CorpInc, took software released under the GPL and made modifications to it. Then they installed the modified versions to their own computers. The modified version is clearly under the GPL, because it is a derivative work. However is CorpInc required to give it's employees that use those computers the source to the modified version? If they are, then by the terms of the GPL the employees can give the source, and binaries, to others.

      I don't believe so, since you have a company installing its own software on its own computers. That's not distribution/propagation/release/whatever.

      Well, it's distribution to themselves, so they would have to release the code to... themselves. :)

    39. Re:GPL Violation? by Dogtanian · · Score: 5, Insightful

      The blunt truth is that he made two stupid mistakes.

      1) He didn't discuss the university's position on this and get it made clear in the contract in the first place, and
      2) He came to Slashdot for legal advice.

      It's been shown countless times that Slashdotters in general *do not understand how law works*. They assume that one can deduce how the law works logically, and that's how it is.

      Well, it's not. The only way to know about how the law works is to learn how it works. It's not always logical, it's not always the way it *should* be (in a reasonable *or* in a logical world). I've actually been criticised for pointing out the latter, as if pointing out that the law doesn't work in that idealised way meant I endorsed its flaws (which is another stupid thing to do, but Slashdotters aren't always the detached paragons of common-sense that some would like to see themselves as).

      Even if they understand the GPL in isolation, this case requires one to know how this relates to employment laws, jurisdictions, "works for hire", blah blah...

      Bottom line- being an expert in IT and related fields does not qualify you to answer legal questions. IANAL, and neither are the vast majority of those contributing to this thread. And the problem is sorting out those who really *do* know what they're talking about from those who simply think they do.

      --
      "Slashdot - News and Chat Sites Deviant". (Click "homepage" link above for details).
    40. Re:GPL Violation? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      That's not his concern.

      We can look at an equivalent but less intermingled situation: Let's say Alice starts and publishes a GPL project and bases it on some GPL libraries. Bob takes A's code (and the libraries), develops a modified version and uses it in-house. What are Alice's rights towards Bob? None. What happens if Alice gets hold of Bob's improved version and publishes it? Bob sues Alice for copyright infringement and wins.

      The fact that in this case Alice is the one who creates the improved version is irrelevant because due to Bob being Alice's employer, it's as if Bob himself created the improved version. The latter depends on the contract of course: Work for hire or employment? Explicit provisions regarding copyright transfer in the contract? Most likely however it's Bob's copyright.

    41. Re:GPL Violation? by FellowConspirator · · Score: 1

      The employer can only claim copyright over the portion of the work that was created under their employ. However, the sticky bit is that they licensed the original work under the GPL, so they must not distribute their additional code and, if they do, they must make it available under the GPL AND share copyright on the code with the original author.

    42. Re:GPL Violation? by HungryHobo · · Score: 1

      Very true but it's still a worthwhile avenue to try since academics are more likely to see things in a more open-source friendly manner and often have at least some sway over the departments.

    43. Re:GPL Violation? by Attila+Dimedici · · Score: 1

      I do not know the answer to your question, but it depends on how the UC system is structured. The answer to the question depends on the answer to this, if UC Berkley files a patent, is the patent held by UC Berkley or by UC? If the answer is the former, then if UC Berkley modifies GPL code, they would need to distribute the source code along with the software if they give it to another UC school. If the answer is the latter, then they would not.

      --
      The truth is that all men having power ought to be mistrusted. James Madison
    44. Re:GPL Violation? by BarryJacobsen · · Score: 1

      Under the GPL, you have to distribute, or offer to distribute, the source to anyone to whom you distribute the binary,.

      It is often stated that you must offer to distribute the source any anyone to whom you distribute the binary, but GPL-2 requires more than this. It states (3.b) " Accompany it with a written offer, valid for at least three years, to give any third party," (My emphasis). So the requirement to provide the source code is not restricted to those to whom you distribute the binary but it must be made available to anyone who requests it.

      My understanding of this (IANAL) was that with each distribution of the product, you must accompany that specific distribution with an offer to provide the source to anyone whom requests it - i.e. each distribution comes with an offer to get the source code, which need not be excised by the original person who received the binary.

      Meaning if you're selling a product that is GPL'd and no one buys it, then you never have to give the source code to anyone who asks. If Company A buys it and Company B (no relation to company A) asks for the source then you don't have to give it to them as they don't have a written offer for the source code. If Company A buys it, gives their written offer of the source code to Company Z, then Company Z can ask for the source even though they didn't buy it.

    45. Re:GPL Violation? by Coren22 · · Score: 1

      IANAL, but my understanding is the same for US Universities, they own the work you do while you are in school. If you make a commercial product, they can demand a share of the money coming in if the work was done while a student.

      --
      APK likes to ask for responses to the same things over and over. Maybe he just likes the responses?
    46. Re:GPL Violation? by digitalunity · · Score: 1

      There are several issues here. The most pressing of which needs expert lawyer advice. When the software was given to the university, was there a transfer of copyrights? If not, did it have GPL notices intact?

      If the answers are "no" and "yes" respectively, the university may not be able to externally distribute their modifications without also licensing them under the GPL.

      What is definitely clear is that the university holds copyrights on anything he developed while on university time. The uni can do whatever they want with that code so long as they don't distribute it with the original GPL'd code. There are a lot of ways this can vary though. If the Uni's modifications are really binary dynamically loaded plugins, it's not so clear cut. A court might find that the plugins aren't derivatives, but original creative works instead.

      --
      You can't legislate goodness. Let each to his own destiny, by will of his freely made choices.
    47. Re:GPL Violation? by Ash+Vince · · Score: 1

      The employer may be committing a GPL violation. You should bring that up with your employer and also inform them that it can cause a lot of badwill.

      The problem with this is that they paid you to write the code. If a developer who worked for me suddenly started saying I had to release the code he had written as he had taken from a GPL project I would insist he went reworked the code to not use any contaminated code.

      The problem is that this may still not allow the university to close source the project and keep what they think they already own . If this was the case, then wave goodbye to your first graduate job as your manager is going to be pissed, even if it was his fault for not realising this was an issue sooner.

      The moral of this story is that you have to be very careful before you appropriate code from open source projects when doing commercial development. If you are being contracted to write something, it all depends on whether you will have copyright on the code after the work is finished or if it will belong to the client. If you working by the hour, then you employer will certainly expect to own 100% of the code after you finish so you need to check with management whether they mind publishing the source.

      Generally, the answer is that you should never even look at GPL code at work in case it gives you ideas. The employer can never usurp the GPL, but they can fire people or maybe even sue for damages if they think you have been dishonest about whether you were writing the code in the first place. I know that legally some of these thing may be arguable, but who wants to as legal arguments get expensive real quick.

      --
      I dont read /. to RTFA, I read /. to offend people in ignorance.
    48. Re:GPL Violation? by mysidia · · Score: 1

      1) the employer cannot deny the coder actually wrote that code (up-front attribution is not required, on-demand confirmation is required

      The Employer can say "I have no comment to make on that matter." And refuse to provide a yes or no answer, as to whether the coder wrote that code, without recourse by the employee.

      2) the coder gets to show, demonstrate, explain the functionality of the code to anyone he pleases*, **

      Not necessarily. Well, demonstrating functionality is probably 'safe', but only if there is not a NDA involved.

    49. Re:GPL Violation? by digitalunity · · Score: 2, Interesting

      I agree with #1, and sort of don't also. The university should have taken a look at the license on his software before committing time and resources to improving it. If it was GPL'd before employment(and had copyright notices intact), the Uni can't distribute derivatives without also licensing them under the GPL.

      I don't think there is a judge alive who would honor any submarine copyright-transfer terms of an employment contract, so unless he transferred them to the University with an intent to do so, he still owns the original works up to that first day of employment. The university cannot simply usurp his copyrights on the original works by employing him.

      Your rant is apt for a lot of cases, but this particular issue is something a lot of /.'ers really understand. Most lawyers, if you ask them about GPL and copyrights, their eyes will glaze over. This guy really needs to decide how important this is to his job.

      If push comes to shove, his job will be over but he can prevent the school from distributing his derivative works under other-than-GPL terms.

      --
      You can't legislate goodness. Let each to his own destiny, by will of his freely made choices.
    50. Re:GPL Violation? by mysidia · · Score: 1

      Only the portion of the software that was actually licensed under the GPL can be redistributed in that way.

      That would be the libraries the program links to. The ownership and licensing of even the code written by the person before being employed is potentially in question.

      Also, should he attempt to release any part of it, the employer may not like that -- it could result in disciplinary action if not legal action.

    51. Re:GPL Violation? by digitalunity · · Score: 1

      Propagation with subsidiaries varies by jurisdiction and case law. So this is a non-starter on slashdot.

      As far as the original question goes, no it's not a GPL violation. Many companies use GPL software without making the source code available to every employee. In fact, the ones that I've seen don't do it because they would prefer security through obscurity. If you know how their software works, getting privileges or access you shouldn't have is usually a bit easier.

      As far as company owned GPL software on the home computers of employees, that's a tricky one and there probably isn't one straight answer. Probably would vary by relevant case law.

      --
      You can't legislate goodness. Let each to his own destiny, by will of his freely made choices.
    52. Re:GPL Violation? by mysidia · · Score: 1

      Since he personally wrote the original code he adapted and extended while employed, the entire body of his work is potentially considered a part of the work for hire.

      In other words, the University could potentially lay copyright claim to all code he wrote, even the code he wrote before employment started.

      In that case, they could change the licensing from GPL to something else.

      And (at their leisure) change the code to not require any GPL libraries, or even ask their employee to do that.

    53. Re:GPL Violation? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      They can claim copyright because they own what you produced at the time you were employed there (usually, may depend on the contract).

      And there's the critical part; was he employed by the university, or was he hired as a contractor? If he was a university employee, the code he wrote belongs to the university and falls under whatever laws cover ownership of property developed by the university. If he was a contractor, then (at least in the US), then unless it was specifically agreed prior to the start of development that it was 'work for hire', or that the developer assign his rights in the software to the university, the developer owns the copyright on the software.

    54. Re:GPL Violation? by digitalunity · · Score: 1

      Close. They're not obligated to give the source code to recipients until it's requested. Small difference, I know, but it's more accurate.

      We have a similar system here in Minnesota called MNSCU. It's like 20 schools in a system. Here, I can say it would count as a conveyance. Each school is incorporated individually.

      If California is like that, the if UC Berkley gives a GPL program to another UC member school, they owe them source code also upon request. This depends also on case law from the 9th district. I don't have time to look it up right now, but if you wanted some cases to look at, just let me know.

      --
      You can't legislate goodness. Let each to his own destiny, by will of his freely made choices.
    55. Re:GPL Violation? by mysidia · · Score: 3, Informative

      That's not correct. Unless you did the work as a university employee, or someone compensated by the university for doing the work, there is no transfer of copyright or assignment of any rights, just because you were a student at the time.

      Now if you have been granted a scholarship, assistanceship, or employment with the UNI. There may be some term of the contract that assigns ownership to the university.

      There may also be some matters that have special terms -- for example, students conducting a masters or P.h.D. thesis, may be required to assign or sign certain rights to the school, over their final submission (such as the right to publish), before it can be accepted.

      But that is an exception to the rule.

    56. Re:GPL Violation? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      No. Go back to your basement.

    57. Re:GPL Violation? by porcupine8 · · Score: 2, Insightful

      While you have a point, and professors are more likely to be receptive to this kind of thing, publishing research is really the wrong metaphor here. It's more like a professor with a patentable invention - and these days, the patent almost always goes to the university automatically.

      --
      Warning: Apple/Nintendo fangirl. Likes her electronics cute & cuddly. May be rabid.
    58. Re:GPL Violation? by hairyfeet · · Score: 1

      Maybe I'm missing something here, so correct me if I'm wrong. But the TFA says the code was already GPL'd and they THEN hired him to refine what was already GPL'd. Now how exactly can they now claim ownership of a GPL'd work? I thought the whole point of GPL was to keep corporations from coming along and placing free code in lock down, ala BSD?

      Now I get that they can do what they want internally, hell they can claim they are king of the moon behind closed doors, who cares. But it seems to me if that code takes a single step out of that department it would be a clear GPL violation, and if it isn't, what exactly is to prevent ANY corp from just paying the writer of an original GPL software to write a single add on and then claim the whole thing for themselves?

      --
      ACs don't waste your time replying, your posts are never seen by me.
    59. Re:GPL Violation? by oracleofbargth · · Score: 2, Insightful

      This is a very good point. Make the right arguments about academic freedom with regards to your code. So long as the code is not an implementation of business logic, a university will be hard pressed to win an argument over your academic freedom to publish, particularly if you intend to publish in a manner which could bring more accolades to your university.

    60. Re:GPL Violation? by billcopc · · Score: 1

      So what constitutes distribution ? Obviously a commercially-developed piece of software has a purpose, whether internal or external.

      Is the act of deploying an app to corporate desktops considered distribution, in the eyes of the GPL ?

      What about software that provides a web interface ? Is that distribution ? In today's fad of SAAS and SAP, the lines are very blurry.

      --
      -Billco, Fnarg.com
    61. Re:GPL Violation? by john82 · · Score: 1

      Wish I had points today. That's one of the more worthwhile commentaries I've seen in a while.

      You realize, of course, that you'll tarred, feathered, put on the rack, then drawn, quartered and (worst of all) accused of being a Republican for suggesting that Slashdot posters don't know the law from a hole in the ground. Tsk, tsk.

    62. Re:GPL Violation? by postbigbang · · Score: 1

      Mod parent up. There's sufficient contention over the ownership of the copyright that even a fork might be the unowned derivative work of the poster.

      Playing the 'good guy' here might work, as in a post-employment appeal for use of the code, with employer copyright GPL'd credit. The university may have copyright but subsequent distribution of the code by the university could be questionable without distribution under the GPL. They may not want to distribute the code, believing it to be proprietary and of value to them. You still can't fork that code, only rewrite it, perhaps painfully, from stem to stern. Legal counsel might be well advised-- and cogent counsel at that. Most attorneys don't know copyright and GPL.... so a specialist might be advised.

      --
      ---- Teach Peace. It's Cheaper Than War.
    63. Re:GPL Violation? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It's a university?
      The careers of Academics are generally heavily based on publishing the work they've done with their names attached.

      Only a subset of employees at a University are academics.

      Non-academic employees generally include anyone on staff - which includes all IT personnel. We're employees that plan and work on IT projects according to project plans. We work to budgets, sign confidentiality agreements, get background-checked, and get paid a salary (or on an hourly basis).

      Yeah, there are academics all around - teaching, doing research, etc. But our job in IT is not to "get published" or to do research; It is to do a fucking good job supporting a substantial enterprise through technology.

      We in higher ed IT do it all, from in-the-classroom information technology to enterprise financials, from the data center to to staff desktops. But don't call us academics. That's a completely different job and career path. In higher education, IT serves its constituency. But that doesn't make us our constituency.

    64. Re:GPL Violation? by HungryHobo · · Score: 1

      Absolutely yet even when patenting it they still publish it.

    65. Re:GPL Violation? by TimSSG · · Score: 1

      At an University, are Students considered employees?
      No in most cases.

      I would say distributing to Students would count as
      distributing outside the organization.
      Especially if a usage few was involved.

      Tim S.

    66. Re:GPL Violation? by acidrainx · · Score: 1

      I don't know about these kinds of tactics. If you make a big deal about this, then you'll likely end up burning bridges. You need these people as a reference later in life. Since most new graduates are having a hell of a time finding work right now, you can't afford to be dicking around. You might win in the short term, but you'll lose in the end.

    67. Re:GPL Violation? by Okami+no+Kaze · · Score: 1

      Maybe I'm missing something here, so correct me if I'm wrong. But the TFA says the code was already GPL'd and they THEN hired him to refine what was already GPL'd. Now how exactly can they now claim ownership of a GPL'd work? I thought the whole point of GPL was to keep corporations from coming along and placing free code in lock down, ala BSD?

      Where this becomes a "gray area" is if the OP actually *published* or made available the original GPL'd work prior to starting at the Uni. TFA does not directly state if the OP published the original work.

      If the OP had not published the original work under the GPL, combined with any applicable employment contracts (including the "Employee Handbook" equivalent), then the university can make a case stating that the copyright belongs to them and they have full rights to determine the license. That is where lawyers and documentation get involved, and the case usually goes to he who has the highest paid legal team.

      If the OP published the original work under the GPL on an accessible site, then project creation dates, contracts, et cetera can be subpoenaed by the OP's attorney if the case goes to court, showing a full chain of ownership where the OP licensed the software to the Uni under the terms of the employment contract. However, the employment contact may include an "exclusivity clause" stating that any software licensing of preexisting works is made exclusively to the university, or, if unable to be made exclusive, cannot be incorporated into custom software created for and on behalf of the university. If there is an "exclusivity clause", then the OP may be in a whole heap of legal fecal matter that is on a collision course with the mass airflow device.

      Disclaimer : IANAL - Always follow up any information on the internet with a licensed attorney in your jurisdiction.

    68. Re:GPL Violation? by Alanonfire · · Score: 1

      I think it also depends on whether he was originally developing it on his own time or as coursework.

    69. Re:GPL Violation? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      IANAL, but if the university in question is in the United States, then the Bayh-Dole Act requires the university to grant the government a license if the research was funded by federal grants. Maybe it could be argued (by an actual lawyer) that this would constitute distribution under the GPL and then the project as a whole could be publicly released. Just a theory.

    70. Re:GPL Violation? by Creepy · · Score: 1

      yeah, but it would not be unprecedented to release the code under multiple licenses (e.g. MySQL) or change licenses to allow more commercial adaptation (e.g. Ogre).

      Also, just because it links to GPL libraries doesn't necessarily require it to be a GPL license, as there are exclusions for source libraries and general purpose tools (gcc, automake, etc). If he was the sole contributor to the GPL codebase, I imagine he would have full control over what license is used and if the university hired him, they might be able to dictate what license it falls under since it is at that point a work for hire. It sounds very dicey.

    71. Re:GPL Violation? by digitalunity · · Score: 1

      Not really. Unless there is a transfer of copyrights in writing, the university has zero control over the copyrights of the original works.

      They control the copyrights of the derivative works, which are the improvements made after he was hired. He can continue to release his original work under whatever license he wishes to, including licensing it to the university under BSD or closed source licensing, if he CHOOSES.

      The school doesn't get his copyrights just for hiring him unless that was in writing.

      --
      You can't legislate goodness. Let each to his own destiny, by will of his freely made choices.
    72. Re:GPL Violation? by digitalunity · · Score: 1

      It's not really a gray area. Under the Berne Convention(of which the US is a signatory), things are automatically copyrighted upon creation, published or not.

      If the source code had copyright notices in them stating the GPL is the license under which the code may be copied, then that is the way it is.

      Absense a copyright notice, the university is ipso facto violating the law by copying the source or creating derivatives at all. No copyright notice, under Berne Convention rules means "all rights reserved", meaning no copying or distribution at all.

      It's how the GPL works. If you choose to not accept the terms of the GPL, you can still use the software but you can't redistribute it since you have no other rights by law.

      I'm aware of university terms of employment and various state laws in many places will protect an employee from something like this. The employer typically does not get carte blanche rights to all copyrighted works created by someone simply for hiring them. There must be a arms length meeting of the minds for the employment contract to be valid.

      --
      You can't legislate goodness. Let each to his own destiny, by will of his freely made choices.
    73. Re:GPL Violation? by shentino · · Score: 1

      True, but a high powered legal department might muscle him out of his rights anyway.

    74. Re:GPL Violation? by TemporalBeing · · Score: 1

      That's not correct. Unless you did the work as a university employee, or someone compensated by the university for doing the work, there is no transfer of copyright or assignment of any rights, just because you were a student at the time.

      Actually it depends on the policies, etc. at the University, and yes - there are a number of colleges and universities in the US that take that stance - anything any student creates while a student (not an employee) at the college/university belongs to the college/university and not the student. Now, how well they enforce that, or how legal, etc. it is is a different matter. It also doesn't matter whether its for coursework, employment, or just plain on your own time. And a prudent student would ask before they enroll if they care, or check into it before it mattered. In this case, the poster may very well be out of luck.

      BTW, you don't need a written employment contract to require that everything you do as an employee belongs to the company you work for either. Same for students - your enrollment is sufficient to say that you agree with the policy, and therefore give up your rights. Don't like it - enroll elsewhere.

      --
      Truth is like the sun. You can shut it out for a time, but it ain't goin' away. - Elvis Presley (source: imdb.com)
    75. Re:GPL Violation? by shentino · · Score: 1

      I think the tricky part is that it was already under GPL before he got hired.

    76. Re:GPL Violation? by russotto · · Score: 1

      Since he personally wrote the original code he adapted and extended while employed, the entire body of his work is potentially considered a part of the work for hire.

      That is a stretch. The copryight in the original code existed before he was hired, and so could not have been a part of a work for hire. To transfer the copyright would have required a written instrument doing so (and the SCO case shows the courts take that clause very seriously indeed). You might find a judge who would agree with this, but I suspect it's quite literally unprecedented.

    77. Re:GPL Violation? by mysidia · · Score: 2, Informative

      BTW, you don't need a written employment contract to require that everything you do as an employee belongs to the company you work for either. Same for students - your enrollment is sufficient to say that you agree with the policy, and therefore give up your rights. Don't like it - enroll elsewhere.

      It's not the same. By law, when you do work for another company who commissions and pays for the work, if there is not a contract, then 'work for hire' is assumed. The company who paid for and commissioned the work receives the copyright.

      If you are a student, then you are not paid for any work. There is no automatic transfer of IP, regardless of someone else's "policy". By law a transfer of copyright can only be made with a signed agreement. There is no such thing as implicit transfer of ownership of copyright exclusive rights, there must be a signed contract.

    78. Re:GPL Violation? by spitzak · · Score: 1

      I knew this misconception was going to be the very first post!

      If the employer is not distributing the program then they are not violating the copyright. Since the GPL is an exception to copyright that allows you to violate it if you follow certain rules, it is entirely meaningless and without force if you are not violating copyright in the first place.

      The employee signed a contract that says the employer owns the copyright on their code. This means they cannot distribute the program without violating their employer's copyright, and probably other parts of the contract. The fact that some of the code is based on GPL is irrelevant, there is nothing the employee can do, except maybe try to convince their employer to release the source code to the program under the GPL.

    79. Re:GPL Violation? by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      I don't think there is a judge alive who would honor any submarine copyright-transfer terms of an employment contract, so unless he transferred them to the University with an intent to do so, he still owns the original works up to that first day of employment. The university cannot simply usurp his copyrights on the original works by employing him.

      Pre-disclaimer: This is all US Law, based on limited knowledge of facts, and is not legal advice. Consult a lawyer.

      No, they don't own any of the original copyright.

      This person was hired specifically to do this coding, and as a direct employee, this is one of the simplest cases of work for hire, and no contract terms are needed at all. All his work done in the scope of that employment is the property of the University. Full stop.

      Oddly enough, just like you can get hearsay by quoting yourself, you as employee are not the same as you prior to employment.

      There are now two owners of copyright to the work. The coder, and the employer.

      Coder is perfectly within his rights to take the work as it stood before being hired and forking from there, and distributing that to the world.

      He is not within his rights to take the work at any point after that, and distributing it to the world. (Even if the code was GPL licensed in the first place.)

      --
      WARNING! This girl exceeds the MAXIMUM SAFE standards established by the FDA for BRATTINESS
    80. Re:GPL Violation? by spitzak · · Score: 1

      Yes it would be a GPL violation if they distributed the program without the source code. But they are not distributing it!

      You are trying to make the "virus" false analogy. I myself am free to take a GPL program and write all kinds of derivatives on my computer and then delete the whole mess or leave it on that disk forever. You seem to think that I am somehow violating the GPL by not distributing my result.

    81. Re:GPL Violation? by gknoy · · Score: 1

      That's an interesting fine point. You only needto give source code when it's requested ... to people who had it distributed to them, right? So, once you've distributed a program (and code) to another person, you're not obligated to give ME the code? In a way that sounds counterintuitive, but I do like that it basically means you're not obligated to distribute your (derived) program.

    82. Re:GPL Violation? by cfulmer · · Score: 1

      It might be wrong, not applicable in your state, ... so use at your own risk. Contact a lawyer for legal advice.

      That's the best advice in your entire post. The rest of it... not so much.

    83. Re:GPL Violation? by WNight · · Score: 1

      The code will be considered a "work for hire"

      If he was hired to continue work on an open source project it's a totally different context than a random hire creating a new work while on the job.

      Not that they don't own the copyright to the work, just that under the implicit terms of employment he'd contribute that work under the GPL and merge it with the master project.

      They could decide to stop contributing at any time but it'd be a change in the terms of his employment and he could quit.

    84. Re:GPL Violation? by Dogtanian · · Score: 1

      I think the tricky part is that it was already under GPL before he got hired.

      Well, it's very complicated. To the best of my understanding, if the libraries were GPL and he distributed his original project (before his work with the Uni), the project as a whole must be GPL-licensed.

      To the best of my knowledge, the GPL itself does not affect the fact that you own the copyright on code that you wrote- it's just that if you want to distribute it integrated with GPLed code, you must make your own code available under the GPL.

      Since releasing one's work under the GPL doesn't preclude you from releasing it under other licenses (in addition to the GPL), I would assume it might be theoretically possible to take the code that *he* wrote, remove others' GPLed libraries, link against non-free/non-GPL libraries and release *that* under a non-GPL license.

      No big deal, as his original code is still- and will always be- available under GPL, but as copyright owner of the parts he wrote, he could use them as the basis of a non-GPL proprietary fork. (He doesn't require his own permission to distribute his own work, and so doesn't have to follow the GPL to redistribute it if it's shorn of GPL-only code by others).

      Now, it gets complicated if one considers whether the university's still using the GPL libraries, whether they "distributed" it at any point, etc. etc.

      There are two distinct issues- whether the code is (and can only be) GPL, and who owns the copyright on the guy's own stuff.

      As I said, if this had been an issue, he should have considered that before.

      This is intellectually interesting, but I wouldn't remotely suggest someone use my- or your- post as legal advice.

      In short, one should not use an Ask Slashdot for legal advice!

      --
      "Slashdot - News and Chat Sites Deviant". (Click "homepage" link above for details).
    85. Re:GPL Violation? by WNight · · Score: 1

      No, but he should get modded redundant because someone posts almost exactly the same thing in every thread. Not just law, but everything. "Slashdotter's aren't military experts/doctors/CPU designers/etc, so shutup and stop speculating."

      Well yeah, wow. Thanks. We'd so totally have gone out and bought swamp land on account of this thread if not for St. Dogtanian reminding us that we aren't lawyers.

      You're playing a cliched part too, there are always a few hangers-on who congratulate them on such a hard truth/worthwhile commentary/slashdot heresy/... without realizing it's just as recycled, trite, and ultimately wrong as what they rail against - while you may not be anything special, many commenters here are - lawyers, doctors, soldiers, etc.

      And thanks mom, but we know not to believe everything we read.

    86. Re:GPL Violation? by WNight · · Score: 1

      I'd like to take you up on the offer to purchase crack cocaine at discount prices.

      I mean, that is what you were alluding to when you said that they employer could potentially lay copyright claim to [...] even the code he wrote before employment started, right?

      Because there's no way asking someone to write version 2 implies you'd get ownership of version 1.

    87. Re:GPL Violation? by hairyfeet · · Score: 1

      Did you miss the "They can do what they want internally" part of my post? Nobody said they couldn't do what they want as long as it is NOT distributed because that is when the GPL kicks in. What I DID say was I kinda doubt the GPL has a loophole that big, otherwise any corp could just hire the author of an original GPL work, have him write and add-on for it, and then claim copyright over the whole thing as a "work for hire" and make the GPL no different than BSD.

      So sure, if all they are claiming is the work for hire he did internally? yeah, who cares. But from the sounds of TFA they are trying to claim THE WHOLE THING, which if it was previously released as GPL would be a big no no, otherwise the GPL isn't worth the paper its printed on.

      --
      ACs don't waste your time replying, your posts are never seen by me.
    88. Re:GPL Violation? by Dogtanian · · Score: 1

      I doubt many people *would* come to Slashdot for medical advice, and if they did they'd be rightly sceptical about it. And no-one's going to do an operation based on what they read here.

      Nor is anyone going to invade a small country based on what they read on Slashdot, nor Intel mistakenly use our ignorance as the basis for their next CPU family.

      But plenty of people *will* use half-baked legal advice as the basis of how they proceed with things that could come back and bite them on the backside badly later on. And for some reason, Slashdotters feel qualified to give out legal advice with an air of authority that they wouldn't (and couldn't) with medical advice.

      So it's the fact that legal advice given here is taken more seriously than it warrants, and that the people giving it (probably) genuinely believe that they know what they're talking about.

      Perhaps you know not to believe everything you read, but the general vibe I get is that those taking part in these discussions think they're doing so with the same level of expertise and authority that they can (usually rightly) apply to IT subjects.

      Contrary to what you say, aside from the odd "IANAL", there is relatively little acknowledgement of what I said in discussions like this.

      --
      "Slashdot - News and Chat Sites Deviant". (Click "homepage" link above for details).
    89. Re:GPL Violation? by Okami+no+Kaze · · Score: 1

      Actually, where the gray area becomes is how much capital the OP has to defend his copyright versus how much the university wishes to take it from him. I have personally witnessed where a company tried to steal the copyright from an employee because they published their work after starting, even though the employee started working on the project prior to joining the company. It became a very hairy mess because the burden of proof was then on the employee to prove that they started the project prior to joining the company. I never did hear how that turned out, as I left the company prior to the issue being resolved (and definitely because of that issue).

      I was also on the receiving end of similar treatment with a different organization; however that company's lawyers backed away very quickly. I published the project, including source code and binaries, on SourceForge several years before starting with the company. Thus the chain of ownership was very clear about that project.

      But, again, I am not a lawyer. This is just my personal experience with corporate corruption, and I presume that it extends to universities as well, since they are also trying to make a profit.

    90. Re:GPL Violation? by spitzak · · Score: 1

      You are right, I missed the part that some of the work was done before being employed by the company. I was under the impression that he was employed, took some GPL code, and wrote an appliation for internal use, and somehow thought that having used GPL code somehow overrode his employee's ownership of the resulting copyright.

      This is hardly GPL specific. If the author gave or sold the copyrights to their previous version to anybody else in any way, the company could not somehow rescind those rights from those others.

    91. Re:GPL Violation? by steveg · · Score: 1

      Huh? What university are you talking about?

      The computer I'm typing this on belongs to the university, and although I bring my laptop to work and occasionally do work on it as well, I may be the only one in my department that does so. Pretty much everybody here uses a university owned computer, exclusively. It's the same in all the departments on campus where I know anyone, so I'm going to generalize that to mean most all employees here. I can't believe we're very unusual.

      --
      Ignorance killed the cat. Curiosity was framed.
    92. Re:GPL Violation? by sumdumass · · Score: 1

      That's only if the code in question is contributed to by other sources then the employee.

      You see, where the break down in this is even though it's GPL'd, the owner of the copyright can license the code in ways inconsistent with the GPL. This is typically known as a dual license.

      I guess the real question here is if the implicit request of the code and continuation of the project, would that require a separate license for the GPLed code given that the author of the code is the employee and he took gainful employment based on that previous code itself. As an employer, one could easily make the argument that was implied with the hiring because his position and salary was based off access to the code and his continued work on the code for hire.

      If others owned the code, it couldn't be that simple because you can only assign rights to code you own. But seeing how it's implied that he was the author to date and the potential problems cropped up after asking for outside help, then it's reasonable to assume it was all his code. He may be forced to apply a separate license then the GPL to allow his work for hire code to be functional and all the GPL code that would apply is the code before the hire.

    93. Re:GPL Violation? by sumdumass · · Score: 1

      The school could get an implicit license by the nature of the employment. That is if he owned all the OSS code he was hired to work on and develop.

      You see, if I hire you to do something because you have X experience and I'm expecting to keep the fruits of your experience, then you need to license the amount of experience to me in order to retain the value of your contributions. So simply hiring him may have been enough to imply a license other then the GPL in order to retain the value and usage of the work for hire code if "his" code is in fact all "his" copyright (outside of the GPLed libraries).

      So yes, while they may not get his copyright, they make get a license to the work that allows it to be used outside of the GPL. If that is the case, then whoever owns the libraries will need to pursue the GPL violations if it doesn't fall into one of the exceptions.

    94. Re:GPL Violation? by digitalunity · · Score: 1

      The implied license doctrine would have been more applicable to SCO than to this scenario with the university. At least in SCO's case they could have lied through their teeth claiming they thought they were buying the copyrights too. Oh wait, they actually tried that and it didn't work.

      I just don't see the implied license doctrine working out for the university. The discussions leading up to his hiring would have really defined what the universities intent was when they hired him. If there were discussions about the university not just modifying, but also distributing the derivative software, then an implied license may exist. It's pretty slim that a judge would find that his direct employment creates an implied license of distribution rights for software he created before his employment.

      Good idea though. You're thinking creatively. Darl is that you?

      --
      You can't legislate goodness. Let each to his own destiny, by will of his freely made choices.
    95. Re:GPL Violation? by WNight · · Score: 1

      relatively little acknowledgement of what I said in discussions like this.

      How many posts do you want, in every thread, acknowledging our own frail mortal limits before we're properly humbled?

      I doubt many people *would* come to Slashdot for medical advice, and if they did they'd be rightly sceptical about it. And no-one's going to do an operation based on what they read here.

      I'm pretty sure I've seen threads on laser eye surgery. Cancer/chemo, I think... Certainly health and nutrition.

      Nor is anyone going to invade a small country based on what they read on Slashdot

      "We" invaded Iraq/etc, I don't intend to sign-up myself, but I would like to know as much as possible to make the best decisions here. It's not flashy like "the law" but it's life and death.

      So it's the fact that legal advice given here is taken more seriously than it warrants

      Medical people find medical shows worse (for TV crap) than other shows, you probably bitch at CSI.

      I don't think there's much difference in the help you get here on Slashdot for tech or legal. You wouldn't "take" advice you got here, you'd look it up and use it as the basis for study or to aid in consulting experts. It's like Wikipedia, a good first reference, and likely right if it sounds consistent, but with no guarantees that you aren't missing something.

      I don't think I'd learn architecture here but if my company were building an office I'd post an Ask Slashdot on what things a tech company doing XYZ needs to get in a new building, what things to look out for, etc.

      and that the people giving it (probably) genuinely believe that they know what they're talking about.

      Yeah, Homeopaths and chiropractors (seemingly) honestly believe their craziness.

      So? Just that it's harder to distinguish from true that way? Only if you think that someone believing something makes it true... I find it's usually easier because they'll indicate the circular nature of their proof (not understanding this is a weakness in it) and thus be easier to dismiss than a skilled liar.

      the general vibe I get is that those taking part in these discussions think they're doing so with the same level of expertise and authority that they can (usually rightly) apply to IT subjects.

      Yeah, we can. In any area other than *exactly* mine I have to listen to other people until I check things myself. Some things aren't documented in books precisely enough to answer a layman's question and I need to ask about them, other things are documented well, supported in other works, referenced in still others, etc. You follow?

      I know nothing about what you'd do to pursue a copyright claim from start to finish, and I don't expect Slashdot to help here - it'd be asking people to come up with an exhaustive list of things I need to do, not just point out likely things I missed. So I'd consult/hire a pro - with maybe a look through previous Ask Slashdots for tips on finding tech-savvy lawyers...

      Where my Slashdot legal degree would come in handy is kicking the pro's tires. For instance, I know the difference between a EULA and the GPL, if they don't, they don't know the area. Not that I wouldn't listen, but if they make and insist on newb misunderstanding of the issue...

    96. Re:GPL Violation? by mysidia · · Score: 1

      That is a stretch. The copryight in the original code existed before he was hired, and so could not have been a part of a work for hire.

      Basically: the derived work is not the same as the original work, the owner of the original work authorized the creation of a derivative, and the owner conveyed all his rights to the derived work through the employment situation. Rights to the derived work include rights to the original work, which are transferred, in the context of the derived work.

      It was a specially commissioned work: (1) they paid him to provide modified code.

      (2) The entire codebase was within the scope of his normal work for this employer.

      (3) He performed the work commissioned, and received payment.

      Therefore, we conclude that: (1) It was a work for hire; his derived work was a work for hire.

      And, because it was a work for hire, any copyright to the derived work from authorship is conveyed to the employer.

      The fact this work was derived from another work, and he may still own the copyright to the original work it was derived from;

      Does not necessarily mean he owns any copyright the derived work, even if it happens to contain the original work.

      Ownership of the derived work could have been entirely conferred, due to its work for hire status.

      This would be sufficient for the university to do as they please with it in terms of exercising the rights any business would reasonably expect to exercise, in regards to the use of a work they commissioned.

      He implicitly gave himself permission to create this derived work under the terms of employment, so he cannot make any claim of copyright infringement against himself for having created the derived work.

      And the ownership of the derived work being conferred based on 'work for hire' status, he cannot rightly claim infringement against the university, for any action taken with the derived work due to this situation where ownership of the derived work is assigned due to the 'work for hire' situation...

    97. Re:GPL Violation? by Kalriath · · Score: 1

      1) the employer cannot deny the coder actually wrote that code (up-front attribution is not required, on-demand confirmation is required

      The Employer can say "I have no comment to make on that matter." And refuse to provide a yes or no answer, as to whether the coder wrote that code, without recourse by the employee.

      Incorrect. It's not employment law that comes in here, it's Copyright Law. Basically, it irrevocably grants something called "moral rights" on works to the original author, no matter who the copyright itself is vested in. One of those rights is the right to be identified as the author of the work. Refusing to recognise the creator as the author of the work is a violation of Copyright Law.

      --
      For a site about things like basic rights, Slashdot users sure do like to censor "dissent".
    98. Re:GPL Violation? by sumdumass · · Score: 1

      The implied license doctrine would have been more applicable to SCO than to this scenario with the university. At least in SCO's case they could have lied through their teeth claiming they thought they were buying the copyrights too. Oh wait, they actually tried that and it didn't work.

      Lets not forget that this is about a license not the copyright itself.

      In the sco case, they actually attempted to assert ownership of the copyright itself, not that they had a license to suit their needs. I don't think the university would claims complete control, rather that they had a license that didn't remove their own control. In other words, the guy would have cross or dual licenses the software by the association leading to a work for hire. I can see the argument being made and working.

      I just don't see the implied license doctrine working out for the university. The discussions leading up to his hiring would have really defined what the universities intent was when they hired him. If there were discussions about the university not just modifying, but also distributing the derivative software, then an implied license may exist. It's pretty slim that a judge would find that his direct employment creates an implied license of distribution rights for software he created before his employment.

      Well, Here is the problem. the discussions didn't pertain to anything surrounding the license. The university can claim and assumption that they would have a license and the guy would have to claim nothing gave them that assumption. It would boil down to the lawyers presenting the case and who is the most believable concerning who knew what, expected what, and when.

      And here is the backing that would allow a judge to assume the license existed to distribute. If you clearly rent something, you know you will have to give it back. The condition of employment wasn't to rent part of the software and own only what was built from it, the condition was to hire the guy to bring this software to the department and build on it. Now where would the department get a right to build on the preexisting software? From the author, who did they hire, the author and copyright holder. Did they set terms that they only wanted to use it internally? No, not that the article mentions, so it's reasonable to believe that the employment compensation was for both rights to the software and improvements built on the software while in employ of the department. Otherwise, the improvements wouldn't be as valuable. This especially becomes the case if the employment was under the impression that the software was originally developed for a class in which they would already have a license according to the terms set forth for enrolement.

      Now I can't say for sure if this university has that policy, but they often so and that could lead to a license being implied regardless of what the intent is.

      Good idea though. You're thinking creatively. Darl is that you?

      I'm glad you're keeping your humor in this. However, it's not as funny as you might think considering some of the more recent court decisions that seem to defy common sense. I learned a long time ago, about any lawyer can construe about any situation any way they like. There is enough legal precedent behind this to allow an implicit license to win here. I guess the first thing the guy should do beside seeking competent legal counsel, is sit down with the employer to make sure they know what they got when he came on board and see if that differs from what they think they got.

    99. Re:GPL Violation? by Kalriath · · Score: 1

      Well, the New Zealand government believes it is one giant entity, so passing OSS software between departments does not amount to distribution - even if passing from the Ministry of Defense to the Ministry of Transport. Of course, they also state that there may be obligations if an OIA request is received relating to the software.

      --
      For a site about things like basic rights, Slashdot users sure do like to censor "dissent".
    100. Re:GPL Violation? by Kalriath · · Score: 1

      What about software that provides a web interface ? Is that distribution ? In today's fad of SAAS and SAP, the lines are very blurry.

      No. That's why the AGPL exists.

      --
      For a site about things like basic rights, Slashdot users sure do like to censor "dissent".
    101. Re:GPL Violation? by ingvar · · Score: 1

      That would depend on the employment contract. Until I had corporate legal amend my contract, anything copyrightable I did, between the moment of signing the contract and resigning my job, would've been the property of the company, if they wanted. With the amendment, only things done on company equipment or company time falls within the scope of being the company's.

    102. Re:GPL Violation? by mjwalshe · · Score: 1

      Any work done before he worked for them is his copyright and he could release that but any work done after his hire is theirs and as long as they keep it in house, there is no violation.

      This varies very much from country to country. In many European countries the work you do outside work is your own. In the US that should also be true, but your employer is allowed to create contracts which take away everything you should own. So, the summary doesn't give us enough information. You need to know a) where exactly this is happening b) what contracts were in place c) what exactly the guy did; what discussions he had and exactly what comments are in the code. Generally he shouldn't post that information since his posting would be discoverable in any lawsuit. He should discuss everything with his lawyer since, in civilised countries, that kind of discussion protects any speculative things he may say that might be harmful to him from being available to his opponents.

      Not in the UK I had a discusion with some one who is now high up in BT's HR dept (on the legal side). And he said in the UK work you do outside of work that is related to your day job - does belong to the employer.

      It will depends where your countries employment laws derive from with the USA and the UK sharing common roots aka the master and servant act

    103. Re:GPL Violation? by sproketboy · · Score: 1

      Define "distribute". They have a piece of software that they run somewhere? So it's not distributed if it used within the University? What if they have multiple campuses? I never understood the definition of distribute as it applies to GPL.

    104. Re:GPL Violation? by buchner.johannes · · Score: 1

      GPLv3 says: "To “propagate” a work means to do anything with it that, without permission, would make you directly or secondarily liable for infringement under applicable copyright law, except executing it on a computer or modifying a private copy. Propagation includes copying, distribution (with or without modification), making available to the public, and in some countries other activities as well."

      GPLv2 doesn't explain it explicitly as far as I saw right now.

      I would say distribution happens when two legal parties are involved (two people or two organizations). Computers don't really count (unless you e.g. deploy to a different organization, then implicitly another party is involved).

      --
      NB: The message above might reflect my opinion right now, but not necessarily tomorrow or next year.
    105. Re:GPL Violation? by shaitand · · Score: 1

      I think you are missing the part where he developed this code BEFORE working there. It isn't a work for hire unless he was hired before he wrote it.

      His employer doesn't get his preexisting copyright for free because they hire him to do work for hire on the project after the fact.

      Actually, work for hire or no, there is a strong argument that everything he did for them is a derivative work and therefore falls under his pre-existing copyright.

      Just because they hired the original author doesn't mean they get a license to use the work he owns for free and it certainly doesn't mean they get to take his copyright.

    106. Re:GPL Violation? by shaitand · · Score: 1

      "If the OP had not published the original work under the GPL, combined with any applicable employment contracts (including the "Employee Handbook" equivalent), then the university can make a case stating that the copyright belongs to them and they have full rights to determine the license. That is where lawyers and documentation get involved, and the case usually goes to he who has the highest paid legal team."

      If the OP did not publish, he still gained copyright at the point of creation. So if he didn't publish under the GPL and did not sign a contract granting the university the right to use the work in the first place then they don't even have the right to use the work internally let alone to usurp his copyright.

    107. Re:GPL Violation? by shaitand · · Score: 1

      He is also perfectly within his rights to sue the university for developing and using a derivative in the first place if he never granted them a license.

    108. Re:GPL Violation? by russotto · · Score: 1

      Ah, I see, you're arguing that the employer owns the entirety of the derived work, including those sections of the original work included within it, but the original author still has a (separate) copyright to the original work. Yeah, I can see them making that argument, but I think it conflicts with 17 USC 103(b), which states

      The copyright in a compilation or derivative work extends only to the material contributed by the author of such work, as distinguished from the preexisting material employed in the work, and does not imply any exclusive right in the preexisting material. The copyright in such work is independent of, and does not affect or enlarge the scope, duration, ownership, or subsistence of, any copyright protection in the preexisting material.

      The authors are not the same. The author of a work for hire is the employer (17 USC 201(b)). Therefore the original author still has the copyright on that portion of the derived work he created prior to his employment. Which means that unless he granted his employer license to distribute that work outside the confines of the GPL, they have no such license. Of course you could probably tie the case up for years arguing that he implicitly granted such a license.

    109. Re:GPL Violation? by TemporalBeing · · Score: 1

      BTW, you don't need a written employment contract to require that everything you do as an employee belongs to the company you work for either. Same for students - your enrollment is sufficient to say that you agree with the policy, and therefore give up your rights. Don't like it - enroll elsewhere.

      It's not the same. By law, when you do work for another company who commissions and pays for the work, if there is not a contract, then 'work for hire' is assumed. The company who paid for and commissioned the work receives the copyright.

      If you are a student, then you are not paid for any work. There is no automatic transfer of IP, regardless of someone else's "policy". By law a transfer of copyright can only be made with a signed agreement. There is no such thing as implicit transfer of ownership of copyright exclusive rights, there must be a signed contract.

      While IANAL (and I doubt you are either), that won't stop a University/College. You enroll in the school, and they'll argue that that is sufficient - and it probably is. You agree to their policy, just like you agree to the work policy.

      And, btw, there is no payment required. Otherwise unpaid interns and volunteers would keep their copyrights, etc. when they do work that is *uncommissioned and unpaid* for any entity (commercial or otherwise).

      And again, they'll simply come back with the statement of "don't like it, go to school elsewhere, your enrollment in the school is agreement to the policy to transfer the work to the school", and it'll _likely_ be upheld in court.

      It's akin to an employer changing the policy and saying "if you don't like the policy, then you are free to seek employment elsewhere", regardless of how legal/etc. the policy may be.

      The college/university may be relying on students not being able to fight it in court, but that doesn't change what is happening now.

      --
      Truth is like the sun. You can shut it out for a time, but it ain't goin' away. - Elvis Presley (source: imdb.com)
    110. Re:GPL Violation? by TemporalBeing · · Score: 1

      BTW, as far as the gov't is concerned you are employed as a Student at the school. So enrollment at the school is probably sufficient for the school to claim that (even though you are paying them) it is the equivalent of a work for hire relationship.

      --
      Truth is like the sun. You can shut it out for a time, but it ain't goin' away. - Elvis Presley (source: imdb.com)
    111. Re:GPL Violation? by mysidia · · Score: 1

      I think you are missing something... what happens at work isn't decided by policy, it's defined by Title 17 S201 of the law:

      (b) Works Made for Hire. — In the case of a work made for hire, the employer or other person for whom the work was prepared is considered the author for purposes of this title, and, unless the parties have expressly agreed otherwise in a written instrument signed by them, owns all of the rights comprised in the copyright.

      A very important requirement is the work has to have been prepared for them, meaning on their behalf, and intended to be used by them.

      And, btw, there is no payment required. Otherwise unpaid interns and volunteers would keep their copyrights, etc. when they do work that is *uncommissioned and unpaid* for any entity (commercial or otherwise).

      Well, there is no such thing as an 'unpaid intern'.. the practice of hiring someone but not paying is not legal under the labor laws.

      Volunteers might or might not be considered employees for purposes of the copyright act, it depends on the circumstances, CCNV v. Reid 1989. The volunteer is an employee if the organization has the right to control the manner and the means by which the work is created.

      Otherwise, the question of the status of copyright work created by volunteers is unsettled, and would be up to the courts to reach a decision.

      Work done by a student does not fit in here. Because (a) It is not prepared for the purpose of use by the university, and (b) The student is not an employee, since the university doesn't have a right to determine the conditions time/place under which they created the work, and (c) the student is not an employee legally.

      And again, they'll simply come back with the statement of "don't like it, go to school elsewhere, your enrollment in the school is agreement to the policy to transfer the work to the school", and it'll _likely_ be upheld in court.

      See, it doesn't matter what the school's policy is, there is no automatic transfer of copyright. This also goes back to Title 17 201 (e):

      (e) Involuntary Transfer. — When an individual author's ownership of a copyright, or of any of the exclusive rights under a copyright, has not previously been transferred voluntarily by that individual author, no action by any governmental body or other official or organization purporting to seize, expropriate, transfer, or exercise rights of ownership with respect to the copyright, or any of the exclusive rights under a copyright, shall be given effect

      The college/university may be relying on students not being able to fight it in court, but that doesn't change what is happening now.

      If the student does not bother to fight it, then the university wins by default, temporarily, but it's like that with any illegal activity. Eventually someone will stand up for their rights.

    112. Re:GPL Violation? by Dogtanian · · Score: 1

      How many posts do you want, in every thread, acknowledging our own frail mortal limits before we're properly humbled?

      None. Just one stating that "This thread is for entertainment purposes only. Any similarity to actual legal knowledge or insight is purely coincidental". :-)

      I don't think there's much difference in the help you get here on Slashdot for tech or legal. You wouldn't "take" advice you got here, you'd look it up and use it as the basis for study

      With tech advice, a significant minority here really know what they're talking about, another significant minority are flakey but make this clear, and some talk out of their backsides with authority.

      However, since there are a critical mass of people who know what they're talking about, they're frequently called on this.

      You wouldn't "take" advice you got here, you'd look it up and use it as the basis for study or to aid in consulting experts. [..] It's like Wikipedia, a good first reference, and likely right if it sounds consistent

      That works for tech for the reasons give above.

      It doesn't work for legal advice because there are too many people who don't know what they're talking about thinking they do and there are too few people who *do* know what they're talking about, and spotting them among the majority who *don't* is next to impossible.

      The most you can do with Slashdot advice is to spot when a legal issue is *totally* clear cut or when it might be a can of worms, but if you know enough to ask the question, you can probably figure out which of those it is.

      --
      "Slashdot - News and Chat Sites Deviant". (Click "homepage" link above for details).
    113. Re:GPL Violation? by TemporalBeing · · Score: 1

      And, btw, there is no payment required. Otherwise unpaid interns and volunteers would keep their copyrights, etc. when they do work that is *uncommissioned and unpaid* for any entity (commercial or otherwise).

      Well, there is no such thing as an 'unpaid intern'.. the practice of hiring someone but not paying is not legal under the labor laws.

      Yes, I am aware the Labor Department is looking into that. However, that doesn't mean they are not there. Various Federal Agencies (e.g. the FBI) have unpaid internships (know someone that's been through that!).

      It's also quite a common issue in the tech industry, and a few others. While I didn't take it I have had one company try to hire me that way; and for quite a few it is common practice. Not saying it's right, or legal - but it is there. I'm also aware (from when I was in college) that a number of my fellow students had the same issue - too many unpaid internships.

      Thus, why the gov't (Labor Department/whoever) is now looking into the practice. But needless to say, unpaid internships DO exist.

      Work done by a student does not fit in here. Because (a) It is not prepared for the purpose of use by the university, and (b) The student is not an employee, since the university doesn't have a right to determine the conditions time/place under which they created the work, and (c) the student is not an employee legally.

      While you could probably argue non-class creations (e.g. creating the next Microsoft from your dorm room) fit that, you'd be hard pressed to argue that classwork does not fit that - it's prepared per instruction (conditions of the work - requirements, time line, etc.) per the professor (basically your boss) for the purpose of the educational instituion (to teach you and others something), with deadlines, etc.

      BTW, 'student' is a legally recognized employment status.

      --
      Truth is like the sun. You can shut it out for a time, but it ain't goin' away. - Elvis Presley (source: imdb.com)
    114. Re:GPL Violation? by WNight · · Score: 1

      That works for tech for the reasons give above. It doesn't work for legal advice because [...]

      I think you overestimate the quality of the tech advice on here if you think it's much different.

    115. Re:GPL Violation? by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      He is also perfectly within his rights to sue the university for developing and using a derivative in the first place if he never granted them a license.

      The likelihood of that actually succeeding is pretty low, considering he was the one actually developing the derivative.

      Namely, he gave implicit permission.

      --
      WARNING! This girl exceeds the MAXIMUM SAFE standards established by the FDA for BRATTINESS
    116. Re:GPL Violation? by rtfa-troll · · Score: 1

      Basically they probably can't really do that in theory, but you have to remember the law does not really apply to IBM (their lawyers are too good), this is them being ethical and warning you in advance. You'd probably find that if you forgot something and went to your manager and explained, they would look it over and let you add it to the list later. If, however, it became an issue of conflict, they would assume you were lying and their lawyers would proceed to prove it, no matter what the truth was. So in a way it's really them just looking after you and making sure you have no illusions in the matter.

      --
      =~ s,(.*),<sarcasm>$1</sarcasm>,g if any_point_you_wish();
  2. Yes, but it may not mean what you think it means by XaXXon · · Score: 5, Informative

    All the work you did for them belongs to them. However, they may not be legally entitled to use it how they'd like. If it's based on GPL code and they don't want to release the whole thing under the GPL, they'll need to rewrite the sections under the GPL before they can have their way with it.

    Let's be clear. You have no rights to do whatever you want with the code you wrote for them.

  3. Talk to a lawyer by BadAnalogyGuy · · Score: 2, Insightful

    A lawyer will be able to help you.

    What you need to take away from all this is the same simple advice Homer gave Bart. "Never try"

    All you gain from trying to make this software GPL is a lot of heartache and lost time. In the worst case, you can lose a lot of money to lawyers and ultimately the whole source base and copyright.

    Was it worth it?

    1. Re:Talk to a lawyer by siloko · · Score: 1

      Wikipedia can help too!

    2. Re:Talk to a lawyer by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      A NORMAL human can read and understand the GPL. It just depends on the time they want to spend.

    3. Re:Talk to a lawyer by BadAnalogyGuy · · Score: 1

      A normal human will get reamed in court without a lawyer.

      And since this isn't a problem of GPL copyright but rather copyright ownership itself, a lawyer would be infinitely better to talk to than the bozos here on Slashdot.

    4. Re:Talk to a lawyer by Vectormatic · · Score: 1

      i dont even want to know how [citation needed] will hold up when this gets to court..

      off course it might hold up perfectly, in which case in weep for the justice system in whichever country the OP is

      --
      People, what a bunch of bastards
    5. Re:Talk to a lawyer by siloko · · Score: 1

      Well as a starting point Wikipedia is good enough. You say 'when this gets to court', which is far from likely given the scenario outlined in the summary. I get the impression that the summary poster is just fishing for pointers not recruiting a legal team ;)

    6. Re:Talk to a lawyer by Vectormatic · · Score: 1

      well i realize that, but misinformation in an early stage might seriously impact the outcome, i wouldnt base this kind of decision on wikipedia.. it is ok for the first five minutes, but he shouldnt take wikipedia and not look any further

      not a slam on you, just warning that wikipedia should never be your only source in any kind of serious situation

      oh, IANAL off course..

      --
      People, what a bunch of bastards
    7. Re:Talk to a lawyer by WindBourne · · Score: 1
      While it never hurts to talk to a lawyer, there is a simple answer for all of this.
      1. The original code base that he developed before the university hire IS GPL and belongs to him. He is free to do with it what he wants. Note, that the code is GPL as well, unless the author created a separate license for it.
      2. The extended code base that was created is ALSO GPL, but owned by the university. As long as they keep it in house, there is not a thing that the author can do. IOW, he does not dare release it, since he does not own it.
      3. IFF the university attempts to commercialize this, and releases it in any fashion (gives away, sells, etc), they will have to release it as well as GPL barring that either rewrite all of the libraries, or get permission from all to not release as GPL. ANY of the customers who get that source code can do with it as THEY see fit, including give it back to the author, or release it on the web.

      The GPL license is a simple thing. Now, the university, and/or the author may not like the outcome, but that is the gist of it.

      --
      I prefer the "u" in honour as it seems to be missing these days.
    8. Re:Talk to a lawyer by Svartalf · · Score: 1

      Everyone presumes that it'd be owned by the person paying the check.

      This is largely wrong in most jurisdictions. Unless there is an explicit work-for-hire clause stating what gets assigned to whom as a result of work done, there is only an interest to access and use that is given to the employer. Without it being declared work-for-hire explicitly and without the assignment requirements stated up-front, they don't own ANYTHING.

      --
      I am not merely a "consumer" or a "taxpayer". I am a Citizen of the State of Texas
    9. Re:Talk to a lawyer by idontgno · · Score: 1

      I don't know what you're thinking of when you say "most jurisdictions", but in the U.S., in an employer-employee relationship, a work for hire is "a work prepared by an employee within the scope of his or her employment". That's a quote from Section 101 of the Copyright Law of the United States. That's it. No extra "if it's in the contract" or other weasel words. Explicit, succinct, and definitive.

      OTOH, in a contractor or collaborator relationship, the definition of "work for hire" is a multi-part test. But in this case, I don't think that applies. Assuming the Anonymous Question Submitter is being literally accurate in his wording, he (she?) said "Later a university department hired me, on a part-time basis, to develop this project into a solution that they needed." (emphasis mine).

      So, of the two-part definiton of an employer-employee work for hire, "hired me" establishes the "employee" part of the equation*, and "to develop this project" is the "in the course of his or her employment" part.

      IANAL, but I can read. If the facts presented are accurate and complete, it's as cut and dried as the literal word of the law can be. (i.e., subject to interpretive modification by courts as their whim allows, but until the lawsuit is decided I have to assume the letter of the law is the law.)

      *maybe. The words "hired me" are occasionally used to described the contractor relationship as well. The distinction is itself an interesting body of rules and lawsuits, but I think the Internal Revenue Service guidance is illustrative. Interestingly, the burden of proof is on proving someone working for you is, in fact, an independent contractor. Lacking that, the default case is an employee.

      --
      Welcome to the Panopticon. Used to be a prison, now it's your home.
  4. Part-time employer lays claim to your other work? by Senes · · Score: 0

    Working for a university on a part-time basis.

    Seriously, how can they lay claim to work performed on one's own time if it's part-time? Besides; don't tell people what you're doing. Post it online without using your legal name or informing your employer. If by sheer coincidence they find it, it's already too late.

  5. Lawyer time? by gringer · · Score: 2, Insightful

    Even though I want to release my code to the public I don't know whether I have the legal right to do so.

    That sounds like "you need to talk to a lawyer" material.

    IANAL, but my guess is that if it's in your contract, you'll probably need to demonstrate that you weren't aware of that at the time you signed the contract in order to keep copyright (or control of licensing) on your work. However, given that they hired you to develop a GPL product, it seems silly that any extended code produced is not also GPL licensed.

    --
    Ask me about repetitive DNA
    1. Re:Lawyer time? by QuantumG · · Score: 4, Informative

      No. If I hire someone to extend the linux kernel (or something else that is GPL licensed), I own those changes. If I choose to distribute them, I'm required to distribute them under the GPL, but I am not obligated to distribute them and my employees have no right to distribute them. To put it simply: the code aint under the GPL until the copyright owner says it is. The copyright owner can even choose to distribute it under some other more restrictive license.. it would be a copyright violation, and third parties could possibly sue me, but that's my choice. Nothing is "automatically" GPL.

      --
      How we know is more important than what we know.
    2. Re:Lawyer time? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      my employees have no right to distribute them.

      If you allow them to work on the code they have written, you must provide it to them under some terms. In order to remain GPL-compliant, those terms must be the terms of the GPL, unless you are going to attempt to claim <insert local fair dealing-equivalent here> - and working on code for commercial development is not likely to meet those criteria.

    3. Re:Lawyer time? by QuantumG · · Score: 1

      No. You're on crack. Employees don't need to be "licensed" to develop code for me.

      --
      How we know is more important than what we know.
    4. Re:Lawyer time? by Rophuine · · Score: 1

      IANAL either, but my dad went through this (we're both software developers). (In Australia, at least, and barring contractual agreements to the contrary...) if you're working as a contractor, you own the code you write, but your client is entitled to exploit it for the purposes envisaged by the contract or agreement. If you're employed as ... well, an employee (which I assume is the case here), they own everything you write in the capacity in which they're paying you. You have no control, they own the copyright.

      That is entirely separate to what they can DO with the code once written, but that's between them and the licences on the code they're developing on top of. If you're an employee, it's also not your problem if they can't do what they intended to with it: the company made the decision to hire you, the company went down the path they did (even if you were the one deciding to).

    5. Re:Lawyer time? by geminidomino · · Score: 1

      No. You're on crack. Employees don't need to be "licensed" to develop code for me.

      Don't be so sure... that seems like the same kind of idiotic logic that lead to things like EULAs being valid because paging into RAM is "copying".

      Not saying it makes sense or that he's not on crack... just saying beware the lawyers...

    6. Re:Lawyer time? by Dustie · · Score: 1

      If you work on GPL material it is GPL whatever you do. You cannot distribute it under any other license. Doing so and saying it is a copyright violation "but hey sue me if you dare" is the same as saying you are aware it is GPL but you don't give a f***. Even though you don't give a f*** it is still GPL and you wouldn't stand a chance in court. You cannot change what others have decided about their code and that include how derived or extended works are licensed.

    7. Re:Lawyer time? by uglyduckling · · Score: 1

      Well, not necessarily so. If you're coding something that links agains some libraries in Linux, there's a good chance that some of them will be LGPL anyway. For the rest, if you've linked against something that's difficult to rewrite then you can contact the original author(s) and ask if they will license it to you under some other terms. If it's something relatively easy to rewrite then just go ahead and rewrite it.

      That's the big fallacy of the 'viral' GPL - it's a license, not the license for a given bit of code; in other words, the copyright owners of that code are at liberty to sell or give away some other license if they so choose. The only time people and companies every get in trouble is when they rush into using other people's code and then try to sort out licensing and copyright further down the line, which is just as problematic for non-free code.

    8. Re:Lawyer time? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Why not? When you give the code to the employees, copying takes place, and what is copied is a derived work based on something licensed under the GPL. What basis do you have to claim that there is a difference between an employee and any other legal person in this situation?

    9. Re:Lawyer time? by vrmlguy · · Score: 1

      Go read the GPL. A company is a single legal entity; giving a copy of a program to an employee is the same as you giving a copy to your safe-deposit box.

      --
      Nothing for 6-digit uids?
    10. Re:Lawyer time? by WindBourne · · Score: 1

      Actually, it IS automatically under the GPL code. However, GPL does not say that you MUST distribute your code to anyone that wants it. GPL says that if you give/sell application, that you must give source with it. As long as the employer does not transfer that application to a 3rd party, then this author has ZERO rights to it. Once the application is transfered to a 3rd party, then the 3rd party must be given the source code (all of it, including the extended), otherwise the university WILL be in the wrong. Once the 3rd party gets the application/source code, then they are free to do with it what they want, including transferring back to the original author, or releasing on the web.

      --
      I prefer the "u" in honour as it seems to be missing these days.
    11. Re:Lawyer time? by QuantumG · · Score: 1

      Sigh. No. If changes to GPL works were automatically licensed under the GPL then it would be impossible for anyone to violate the GPL by making changes. Ya know, it's 2010.. we've had the GPL for, what, 21 years? 19 if you're talking about v2. This stuff is LONG settled and the fact that so many people on Slashdot seem to be just completely IGNORANT is frightening.

      No-one can "automatically" license software you write under the GPL. Only the copyright owner can license the software and it must be done explicitly. If you don't want to be sued, you'll license your changes to GPL licensed software under the terms of the GPL, but it doesn't happen automatically.

      --
      How we know is more important than what we know.
    12. Re:Lawyer time? by Registered+Coward+v2 · · Score: 1

      Even though I want to release my code to the public I don't know whether I have the legal right to do so.

      That sounds like "you need to talk to a lawyer" material.

      IANAL, but my guess is that if it's in your contract, you'll probably need to demonstrate that you weren't aware of that at the time you signed the contract in order to keep copyright (or control of licensing) on your work.

      Your first statement is very correct, in light of your second. Once you sign a contract, saying "I didn't know" is not a very good defense. Having a lawyer look at a contract is a good idea, since they often point out nuances you would never pick up; and can answer questions and recommend changes to address your concerns prior to signing.

      --
      I'm a consultant - I convert gibberish into cash-flow.
    13. Re:Lawyer time? by grahamm · · Score: 1

      No. If I hire someone to extend the linux kernel (or something else that is GPL licensed), I own those changes. If I choose to distribute them, I'm required to distribute them under the GPL,

      The problem here, as I see it, is that the employer is claiming to own the copyright of the whole 'finished product' not just of the extensions written after employment started.

    14. Re:Lawyer time? by grahamm · · Score: 1

      Go read the GPL. A company is a single legal entity; giving a copy of a program to an employee is the same as you giving a copy to your safe-deposit box.

      True, but where you do get the permission to create that copy, whether to give to the employee or put in the safe deposit box? Creating copies is an act which requires the permission of the copyright owner. In the case of GPL's works this permission is conditional on obeying the terms of the licence.

    15. Re:Lawyer time? by orlanz · · Score: 1

      I think you are arguing on terms and definitions. For all practical purposes, your specific code is your own, but the the "derived" work overall is auto-GPLed. Cause in order to create your part, you need the GPL original. In order to use the GPLed original, you need a license that covers and allows you to use the original work. That GPL license for the original has severe restrictions, primarily on distribution and attribution of itself AND its derivatives. In the case of BSD, GPL, and others, the derivatives automatically have the licensing terms of the original applied to them. In some cases, the license doesn't restrict you from relicensing. Default US copyright law does restrict you (considers it equal to private property), public domain doesn't, and the GPL does only a little less so than default.

      If the derivative wasn't covered under the GPL, then what exactly are you in violation of when you distribute it? The license of utility is a precursor to the utility of the work. Not the other way around. You could argue that you changed a variable name, and you can do whatever you want with that specific string of characters, but to say that you can do whatever you want (legally) with the entire new work is an entirely different matter. The former is nothing but getting pedantic and immaterial to the reality at hand.

    16. Re:Lawyer time? by QuantumG · · Score: 1

      No. You're simply wrong and I don't have the time to explain why you're an idiot.

      --
      How we know is more important than what we know.
    17. Re:Lawyer time? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You're basically saying, 'Not if you feel like breaking the law.'

      It boils down to this:
      If you don't distribute it, it has no need for a license, anyway. If you do distribute this, legally, it must be GPL.

      Which is why the BSD license is so much better.

    18. Re:Lawyer time? by mea37 · · Score: 1

      You need a more precise understanding of what licenses are and what they do than you are demonstrating. At inception code has a copyright; it does not have a license. Even if it is derived from GPL code, it still does not have a license until the copyright owner licenses it to someone.

      If you were correct, then once I illegally distributed my modificiations under a non-free license, the people receiving it would have the same rights as if I had distributed it under the GPL. In reality they would not get such rights, nor would they have any cause of action against me. The only people with a cause of action against me would be the copyright holders of the original code, because I would have violated the license they gave me.

      Very few businesses will deliberately violate their software license, though, because they could lose the right to use the software (including their modifications) if the license is fully enforced. So GP's comment is not very practical, but it is still correct; whereas your comment is neither practical nor correct.

      What is both practical and correct is: if I make modifications to GPL code I am under no obligation to license my modifications at all. Submitter got into a situation of code ownership without fully understanding it, as many people do. The loophole submitter is hoping to use to escape that situation does not exist.

    19. Re:Lawyer time? by butlerm · · Score: 1

      you'll probably need to demonstrate that you weren't aware of that at the time

      If it is in written, signed contract, it doesn't matter whether you were aware of it at the time, unless the terms agreed to are illegal, unconscionable, lacking consideration, signed under duress, explained fraudulently, etc.

    20. Re:Lawyer time? by GasparGMSwordsman · · Score: 1

      Nothing is "automatically" GPL.

      That would be partially incorrect (assuming US jurisdiction). The moment you started modifing GPL code is the moment that you "chose" to license your new work under the GPL. You have no choice to not license it under the GPL and if you do break the license you will be guilty of copyright infringement. HOWEVER, until you distribute your modifications you have no obligations under the GPL.

      The GPL is very clear that any modification of GPL work is immediately covered under the GPL. Here is the excerpt from the GPLv2 section 5:

      5. You are not required to accept this License, since you have not signed it. However, nothing else grants you permission to modify or distribute the Program or its derivative works. These actions are prohibited by law if you do not accept this License. Therefore, by modifying or distributing the Program (or any work based on the Program), you indicate your acceptance of this License to do so, and all its terms and conditions for copying, distributing or modifying the Program or works based on it.

      You do have to be careful because the word distribute is a legal term and does not mean what you think it means most of the time. For example if I run company A and create a GPL modified work I can give any of my employees use that modified work without any obligation under the GPL.

    21. Re:Lawyer time? by GreyWolf3000 · · Score: 1

      I chalk it up to people not distinguishing between me using my brain and fingers to spring code into existence, and me putting the code I write up on an FTP site.

      Hint to orlanz and WindBourne: One is called "writing code," and the other is called "distributing code." When a company hires you to write code, they own the code you write. The company has a choice to distribute code to other people or not. If it never decides to distribute the code to other people, then the GPL never comes in to play.

      Other licenses do not work this way; a proprietary per-seat software license cannot be handed out to an arbitrary number of employees and used internally however the client company sees fit. It is because the GPL explicitly attaches itself to the act of distribution that a company can do whatever they want with GPL'ed code as long as they do not share it with anyone outside the company.

      --
      Slashdot: Where people pretend to be twice as smart as they really are by behaving like children.
    22. Re:Lawyer time? by foxed · · Score: 1

      IANAL either, but ignorance is no excuse. You sign a contract, you abide by it, whether you read it thoroughly or not.

    23. Re:Lawyer time? by mvdwege · · Score: 1

      The moment you started modifing GPL code is the moment that you "chose" to license your new work under the GPL.

      Wrong. The moment you start distributing your modified GPL code is the moment you have to explictly put it under the GPL or a compatible license.

      I am starting to understand QuantumG's exasperation.

      Mart

      --
      "I know I will be modded down for this": where's the option '-1, Asking for it'?
  6. Your employer owns your work... IN THEIR EMPLOY by gavron · · Score: 1

    HAD you done this on your OWN TIME using your OWN RESOURCES then this isn't part of the "temporary employment" you were in.

    Sadly, you didn't. While you included open-source projects to be successful faster... the end result has a copyright owned by your employer.
    THEY CANNOT use this without properly administering the rights of the open-source projects they use. These are license-dependent... and I'm guessing by your email that some? or all? are GPL.

    It's a thorny issue, but there is an EASY ANSWER and a HARD QUESTION.

    EASY ANSWER: Your university can contribute YOUR contributions under the GPL and open-source it.

    HARD QUESTION: Which licenses of the software you used have conditions which PREVENT that software from being used in a software program/package with a conflicting license, and which NON-conflicting license would your "temporary employers" be willing to live by so that they can continue to use it.

    Otherwise, your "temporary employers" are in potential violation of the licenses of the software included in the package they are using.

    Nobody said this was simple.

    E

    1. Re:Your employer owns your work... IN THEIR EMPLOY by ducomputergeek · · Score: 1

      If you were hired to create an internal project that is going to be used for internal purposes and not distributed to third parties in any way, then the university can keep the code they paid you do develop as an employee without ever having to release the source code.

      --
      "The problem with socialism is eventually you run out of other people's money" - Thatcher.
    2. Re:Your employer owns your work... IN THEIR EMPLOY by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Funny

      How do you explain Wayne Newton's POWER over millions?

      It's the MOUSTACHE. Have you ever noticed the way it radiates SINCERITY, HONESTY & WARMTH?

      It's a MOUSTACHE you want to take HOME and introduce to NANCY SINATRA!

      -- Zippy the gavron

  7. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by XaXXon · · Score: 3, Informative

    I'd also like to note that I work for a large company that knowingly pays me to do exactly this all day. I write proprietary software using GPL libraries and such all day. We just don't distribute it.

  8. It was GPL before, so is GPL now by Alain+Williams · · Score: 1
    You say that you started the project before you went to work to the employer, it was GPL at that point. He cannot change the license for the code that existed at that point. Due to the nature of the GPL: new code that is added will also have to be GPL, ergo the whole thing is GPL.

    What does your contract of employment say ? Does it say anything about copyright ? Did you read it before you signed ?

    Do you want to continue to work for someone who attempts to steal your property ?

    1. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by QuantumG · · Score: 5, Informative

      He doesn't need to change the license.

      1. Alice starts a GPL project.
      2. Bob hires Alice to write an extension to the GPL project.
      3. During her employ (or before, it doesn't matter) Alice uses some GPL libraries written by Claire.
      4. Alice leaves Bob's employ.

      FACT 1: Bob owns all the changes Alice made while in his employ.
      FACT 2: Alice had no right to distribute changes owned by Bob.
      FACT 3: Bob is not obligated to distribute the changes.
      FACT 4: As the GPL only relates to distribution, not use, Bob is free to use the software.
      FACT 5: If Bob later distributes the changes without placing those changes under the GPL, both Alice and Claire can sue him.

      Nothing "automatically" becomes GPL software.

      --
      How we know is more important than what we know.
    2. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by dudpixel · · Score: 2, Informative

      This isn't stealing. Almost all programming jobs will contain a clause saying your employer owns any code you write while you are at work there. It sucks sometimes but it is sort of fair depending on how you look at it. The whole notion of working for an employer revolves around you giving up something in exchange for money. In this case it is your freedom and your intellect/creativity/etc.

      The issue here is that if your employer does not wish to make your changes public (and comply with the GPL) then these changes need to be removed from the public work...so that the public work can still meet the terms of the GPL.

      They can indeed continue to use it in-house provided it is not "distributed" from one party to another.

      As correctly pointed out in other posts in this thread, the GPL only comes into play when the work is copied/distributed. You can do whatever you like with GPL code in-house. It is only when you later distribute that work to another party, that you become bound by the terms of the GPL.

      Also consider this: Releasing code publicly that your employer owns the copyright to, is actually stealing from your employer.

      --
      This seemed like a reasonable sig at the time.
    3. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I love the explanation, i can understand that :-)

      Now what happens if Alice is not hired to write code changes but to do something else (manage their server let's say), and feels like helping claire and the world and write GPL code. Can Bob take over that code too ?

    4. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by 517714 · · Score: 1

      Copied/Distributed? If we use the RIAA's and Business Software Alliance's theories on that one and conclude that you can't run or compile the software without doing these, we must then conclude that the GPL is always applicable to any changes in the software.

      --
      The US government have made it clear that we have no inalienable rights; any we do not defend vigorously will be taken.
    5. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      FACT 6: if the Bob is a big enough entity then the FSF may decided to sue Bob

    6. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by GlassHeart · · Score: 1

      No, Alice owns nothing in your scenario, and has no standing to sue. Claire's copyright was violated if Bob distributes it outside GPL terms, so she can sue.

    7. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by QuantumG · · Score: 1

      Depends on your employment agreement and the jurisdiction.

      Typically, though, if you're doing anything your employer might like to claim you should probably get an explicit written disclaimer of interest in the project from them. If you're worried that they might say no, then you should be really worried :)

      --
      How we know is more important than what we know.
    8. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by blackraven14250 · · Score: 1

      That depends on the employment contract. If it says "code produced while under the employ of .company. belongs to .company.", then it's Bob's, regardless as to whether it was written in free time or not. If it says "code produced during working hours at .company.", then it's Alice's. The phrasings I'm using may not be 100% correct, as IANAL, but the general idea is there.

    9. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by dudpixel · · Score: 1

      yeah I thought of the ramifications of the terminology as I was typing it.

      I'm not a lawyer, but this may be a "grey area" of the GPL.

      I do not believe that compiling or running the software would be in any way violating the spirit of the GPL however.

      Provided you use the GPL as it was intended, you should be pretty safe I'd imagine.

      --
      This seemed like a reasonable sig at the time.
    10. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by blackraven14250 · · Score: 1

      That depends on the employment contract. If it says "code produced while under the employ of .company. belongs to .company.", then it's Bob's, regardless as to whether it was written in free time or not. If it says "code produced during working hours at .company.", then it's Alice's. The phrasings I'm using may not be 100% correct, as IANAL, but the general idea is there..

    11. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by QuantumG · · Score: 1

      Alice owned the copyright on the work before Bob hired her.

      Linus Torvalds started the Linux kernel project.. he later went to work for Transmeta.. Transmeta didn't suddenly become the owner of the Linux kernel. I don't know if I can dumb this down for you any more.

      --
      How we know is more important than what we know.
    12. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by Kjella · · Score: 2, Interesting

      No, Alice owns nothing in your scenario, and has no standing to sue.

      True, but the Alice/Bob/Claire situation doesn't match the summary:

      "I am a recent graduate, and I've been working on my own on a project that uses GPL-licensed libraries. Later a university department hired me, (...)

      Unless the hiring agreement contained an explicit copyright assignment, anything he contributed before he got hired will give him standing to sue if they violate the GPL.

      --
      Live today, because you never know what tomorrow brings
    13. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by QuantumG · · Score: 2, Informative

      It's not a gray area as the GPL explicitly says that it does not cover use, only distribution.

      --
      How we know is more important than what we know.
    14. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Could use more CARS.

    15. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by Dustie · · Score: 1

      Right, except for the fact that it is GPL software all the time. You can use it, change it, toss it around, print it and rescan it to code or even try to eat it. It is still GPL. You don't have to release the code but the code you don't have to release is GPL. Distribute it or not, that does not change the license. Distribution is not some magic trick that adds a layer of license to the code.

    16. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by QuantumG · · Score: 1

      Umm.. no. If I extend a GPL work my code does not magically become GPL licensed. This is a myth that is parodied around for the benefit of anti-GPL shills. The only way code I write can become GPL licensed is if I license it that way, explicitly. If I distribute something that is derived from a GPL licensed product then you may say that I am now required to license it under the GPL, but I am perfectly within my rights to tell you to bugger off. If you have standing, you might sue me, and I might have to pay you damages, but the work still won't be GPL licensed until I license it as such.

      --
      How we know is more important than what we know.
    17. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by fractoid · · Score: 1

      The whole notion of working for an employer revolves around you giving up something in exchange for money. In this case it is your freedom and your intellect/creativity/etc.

      Usually, on the face of it, what you're giving up is eight hours of your creative time. Trying to sneak a clause in the fine print entitling them to 100% of your creative output is just deceitful. If they want every single piece of creativity I come up with, on my own time, while I'm employed at the company, then they'd have to pay me more than three times what they're paying now.

      --
      Rampant carbon sequestration destroyed the Dinosaurs' tropical paradise. I'm here to help repair the damage.
    18. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by uglyduckling · · Score: 1

      That depends entirely on step 2. If Alice was hired to, e.g. develop the website for Bob's company, and she used a MS SQL Server database, the employer would understand that they bought a license to use MS-SQL and don't actually own it. If Alice instead used MySQL, the employer would probably still understand that they are using someone else's software. Suppose Alice wrote an extension to MySQL in order to make the website more efficient - would Bob's company own the code that Alice has written? I think the answer is - it depends.

      Going back to the beginning, suppose Alice wrote detailed notes on how to set up something complicated with MS-SQL, in order to keep her on the right track whilst setting up the server for Bob's company. When the contract is over, Alice then publishes that as a book. Should Bob's company claim that those notes should actually belong to them? I think the answer is - it depends.

      That's why you need a contract in the first place. My understanding is, that in most industries a company would expect to pay a huge amount extra for exclusivity on a bespoke work. If I hire someone to come and install a conservatory on my house, and they come up with some good ideas during that install, I don't expect them to hand over all the plans and promise to forget the ideas when they finish the job. If you hire in contractors to design and build something, usually you have to pay a lot more to own the design as well as that specific implementation.

    19. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by QuantumG · · Score: 2, Insightful

      Uhhh.. "it depends" is always the answer.. but in general work for hire is owned by the employer. And as for the first two situations you described, they're identical. Whether Alice is extending MySQL-commercial-license vs MySQL-GPL-license is irrelevant, Bob owns the work Alice does. I think you're as confused as the other people I've replied to, and I wish people on Slashdot would learn to read the entire thread before replying..... but I'll repeat. If I extend a GPL licensed work, I own my own work, it is not licensed under the GPL until I do so explicitly. It does not automatically become GPL licensed.

      --
      How we know is more important than what we know.
    20. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by Narcocide · · Score: 1

      According to the employment contract Bob made Alice sign, probably. Luckily Alice probably knows that's unenforceable in the state of California.

    21. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by Calinous · · Score: 1

      He'll have to prove that his work was done before his employment

    22. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Releasing code publicly that your employer owns the copyright to, is actually stealing from your employer.

      Licensing (ex. copyright) violation is not stealing. Licensing violation means breaking a set of rights pertaining to the use (in the large sense) of a certain resource. Stealing means misapropriating funds or goods.

      The important distinction comes for the fact that the concept of property cannot be applied to information. You cannot own information, at most you can own the rights to manipulate that information. "Intellectual property" is a non-sense.

    23. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      I am not sure about facts 2 and 5:

      FACT 2: Alice had no right to distribute changes owned by Bob.

      We are not talking about changes, but about the complete derived work, which is based on GPL code, whose copyrights belong partly to Bob and partly to the original authors. It is not clear to me at all why Alice shouldn't have the right to distribute the full work.

      FACT 5: If Bob later distributes the changes without placing those changes under the GPL, both Alice and Claire can sue him.

      Since Alice doesn't own the copyrights, what gives her the grounds to sue?

    24. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by QuantumG · · Score: 1

      Gah. I wish Slashdot readers would read the whole thread before replying. But hey, I'll answer your questions.

      We are not talking about changes, but about the complete derived work, which is based on GPL code, whose copyrights belong partly to Bob and partly to the original authors. It is not clear to me at all why Alice shouldn't have the right to distribute the full work.

      Because Bob owns parts of the work and Alice doesn't have permission to distribute those parts of the work. If Bob decides to grant Alice permission to distribute the work then he must do so under the terms of the GPL, but he is not required to grant that permission, and has not.

      Since Alice doesn't own the copyrights, what gives her the grounds to sue?

      Alice owned copyright on the work before being hired by Bob. Unless she transferred the copyright of that work to Bob she still owns some rights to the work. But as I said in step 1, she licensed those rights under the GPL, so Bob has the right to use the work (under any conditions, the GPL makes no restrictions on use) and has the right distribute the work, under the terms of the GPL.

      --
      How we know is more important than what we know.
    25. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Informative

      Also consider this: Releasing code publicly that your employer owns the copyright to, is actually stealing from your employer.

      I see by your /. id that you may have just arrived this afternoon, but how can you not already understand the legal difference between "stealing" and simple "copyright violation"?

    26. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by kangsterizer · · Score: 1

      actually it's interesting because the whole product *is* GPL software, distributed or not. That's why if it gets distributed, they have to give the source code.

      However the whole argument is, if they remove all previous GPL parts before distributing, it becomes non-GPL software.. or does it?
      In practice it does not matter I suppose, no one has seen the code distributed thus it's not considered GPL. But legally it would be interesting to know.

      (copyright is flawed)

    27. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by QuantumG · · Score: 0

      No, and as I've said, oh, I don't know, 5 times now in this thread.. my changes to a GPL licensed work never automatically become GPL licensed. I must explicitly license them under the terms of the GPL before I distribute them or I will be violation of the copyright. As so many of you seem to have a problem understand this, I'll dumb down this situation for you too.

      1. Alice writes some GPL code.
      2. Claire writes some extensions to Alice's code, she provides those changes to Bob in binary form but only provides the unmodified source code.
      3. Bob demands that Claire provide the full source code under the GPL.
      4. Instead, Claire offers to provide Bob the modifications but only under a restrictive license.
      5. Bob accepts the code and then distributes the combined work under the GPL.
      6. Claire sues Bob for copyright infringement. Bob argues that Claire's code was under the GPL and so he had the right to redistribute the work. The court finds in favor of Claire.
      7. Bob gets pissed, goes to talk to Alice. Alice sues Claire for copyright infringement. The court finds in favor of Alice.
      8. Bob fails to get legal advice and distributes the combined work under the GPL again.
      9. Claire sues Bob again, the court finds for Claire.
      10. Alice sues Claire again, the court finds for Claire because Alice has already sued Claire once for the distribution to Bob, and cannot sue her again.

      Bob dies poor and alone.

      --
      How we know is more important than what we know.
    28. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by jimicus · · Score: 1

      There is another issue, which hasn't been discussed yet:

      Bob does own the changes Alice made but Bob may not even be aware that Alice has used GPL libraries written by Claire.

      Given the original question specifically said "my boss was not interested, and it was made clear to me that the department's position was that copyright of the whole thing belonged to them.", this is a very important point.

    29. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It does exactly match the summary, he would be Alice in this example.

    30. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by QuantumG · · Score: 1

      Yes, no doubt if they distribute the software they may discover Claire comes knocking... but there's also the distinct possibility that no-one will care, or they'll never distribute the software. Either way, the our Ask Slashdoter should hope he doesn't become involved, cause it will no doubt be in an overall negative capacity.

      --
      How we know is more important than what we know.
    31. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by SydShamino · · Score: 1

      Alice owns the code she wrote in step 1, before Bob hired her, unless the copyrights were transferred.

      Unless Bob scrubs all of Alice's pre-employment code from the file, when Bob distributes with a different license Alice could sue him.

      --
      It doesn't hurt to be nice.
    32. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      He was hired, in part, on the basis of said previous work.

    33. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      In short. You sue for copyright infringemnet. Not conversion.

    34. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by optikos · · Score: 1

      On what basis in the GPL (or some other body of legal obligations that could somehow supersede the terms of the GPL) would the court use to find in favor of Claire and Alice? Using the terms of the GPL, the court would find in favor of the opposing party in each of your posited court cases. You must be thinking that there exists an effective legal argument that dismantles the terms of the GPL. Please reveal your legal logic.

    35. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by optikos · · Score: 1

      There exists multiple scopes of distribution: distribution to people within the university (to which the rest of this posting refers) versus distribution to humankind (to which you are referring). The users of the executable in the university are entitled by the GPL to request and obtain the source code to the entire now-GPLed executable. No user of this executable, now in possession of the source code, needs to comply with any more-restrictive legal terms than were contained in the GPLed libraries. Then, neither the university nor the author can restrict that user from distributing the executable and source code worldwide, because no one can further restrict copying of the executable or its source code beyond the restrictions on the GPLed libraries. Effectively, there is no such thing as "internal use" that is not "distribution" (FSF's not-legally-binding statements to the contrary not withstanding).

    36. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      If you take a work distributed under the GPL and extend it, you certainly own your own work.

      That's only half the story, though. In this situation, the only license that gave you the rights to extend it in the first place is the GPL - and that license binds you to using the GPL if you distribute. You don't have to distribute, which means you may not hit the provisions that require you to use the GPL if you distribute, but the derivative work as a whole is bound by the GPL. If it weren't, you wouldn't have the right to make it in the first place.

    37. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by GasparGMSwordsman · · Score: 1

      Nothing "automatically" becomes GPL software.

      Again this is incorrect. The act of modifying the code in the first place, places all modified work under the GPL. Under US law you CAN NOT modify GPL covered code without legally placing those modifications under the GPL. See GPLv2 section 5 below. However facts 1 through 5 are accurate. In addition Alice would also own the copyright to all code written prior to her employment by Bob unless an agreement specifically transferred those copyrights.

      5. You are not required to accept this License, since you have not signed it. However, nothing else grants you permission to modify or distribute the Program or its derivative works. These actions are prohibited by law if you do not accept this License. Therefore, by modifying or distributing the Program (or any work based on the Program), you indicate your acceptance of this License to do so, and all its terms and conditions for copying, distributing or modifying the Program or works based on it.

      And again, there is a big difference between being licensed under the GPL and having an obligation under the GPL.

    38. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by GasparGMSwordsman · · Score: 1

      distribution to people within the university (to which the rest of this posting refers) versus distribution to humankind (to which you are referring). The users of the executable in the university are entitled by the GPL to request and obtain the source code to the entire now-GPLed executable.

      If the "users within the university" are part of that organization then no distribution has occurred (assuming US jurisdiction). That is one of the very few things that is legally clear about the meaning of the word "distribution". Distribution only occurs when a transfer occurs from one legal entity to another. An employee acting as an agent of his employer is considered to be legally the same entity as his employer. Hence no distribution has occurred.

      It gets interesting when you think of subcontractors, students, faculty and the like who are not just employees. In most conditions however they would still be considered part of the same legal entity (meaning no distribution has occurred).

    39. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by GlassHeart · · Score: 1

      Oh, quite right. I had looked only at the "FACTS" you listed, and missed the steps. Indeed Alice would own copyright to the parts she wrote outside Bob's employment. Sorry for the distraction.

    40. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by calmofthestorm · · Score: 1

      It's the TFA we don't read, not the comment we reply to...you must be new here;)

      --
      93rd rule of Slashdot: No matter how obvious my sarcasm is, my comment will be taken seriously by someone.
    41. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by optikos · · Score: 1
      IANAL. Let's step through the rights-to-copy exactly as we would step through lines of code in a debugger.

      I agree with you under GPLv3 (iff the university has a side contract, as mentioned below) because of the following explicitly-stated term, because the university is allowed to have a separate side-agreement outside of the GPL that imposes additional restrictions on conveyance, where conveyance, distribution, and propagation are all precisely-defined distict, non-congruent terms:

      GPLv3sect2para1:Those thus making or running the covered works for you must do so exclusively on your behalf, under your direction and control, on terms that prohibit them from making any copies of your copyrighted material outside their relationship with you.

      Note that the legally-operative terms in this portion of this paragraph are "convey[ance]" and "copy[ing]" and (in the sentence preceding my quotation above) "propagat[ion]", not distribution.

      But the wording of the GPLv2 says otherwise in the following scenario (zero-based paragraph numbers in GPL sections):

      GPLv2sect3para0:You may copy and distribute the Program (or a work based on it, under Section 2) in object code or executable form under the terms of Sections 1 and 2 above provided that you also do one of the following:

      Note the "and" in the first sentence quoted above. This sentence parses in many states of the USA as "You may copy the Program in object code or executable form" and separately "You may distribute the Program in object code or executable form". Let's for this entire posting of mine use the prior poster's (PP's) school of thought that distribution occurs only when the Program leaves the perimeter of the university's legal enity. Let's focus entirely on non-distributive (PP's definition) copying within the university. In my scenario (which might not be exactly the OP's scenario, but which might be enlightening to OP nonetheless), the author's manager has some university employee install the OP's GPLed executable on each of 100 university-owned machines' local hard disk, as as officially mandated act of the university not involving the original author, so that the university is clearly performing the act of copying under their own right-to-copy. The program is copied onto 100 computers' local hard drives instead of being served from a single copy on a remotely-mounted filesystem. The university was permitted to perform this copying via the university's own separate right-to-copy (which is distinct from the OP's right-to-copy, and which is clearly not a distribution, using PP's definition) quoted above only if the university does a, b, or c below.

      GPLv2sect3para0.a: a) Accompany it with the complete corresponding machine-readable source code, which must be distributed under the terms of Sections 1 and 2 above on a medium customarily used for software interchange; or,

      GPLv2sect3para0.b: b) Accompany it with a written offer, valid for at least three years, to give any third party, for a charge no more than your cost of physically performing source distribution, a complete machine-readable copy of the corresponding source code, to be distributed under the terms of Sections 1 and 2 above on a medium customarily used for software interchange; or,

      GPLv2sect3para0.c: c) Accompany it with the information you received as to the offer to distribute corresponding source code.

      Oddly under PP's definition of "distribute", observing the clear basis of a, b, and c on "distribut[ing]" "source code" rather than merely "conveying" or "copying" source code, the university is now required to distribute the Program outside the confines of the university even though all origin & destination parties to the 100 copies are within the university. Wow! But I digress, let's

    42. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by GasparGMSwordsman · · Score: 1
      Most of my comments are more correct if we are talking about the GPLv2. The GPLv2 uses the word "distribution". This word as defined by US Federal law requires that a transfer occurs between two legal entities. Even the GNU faq includes this bit (although they ignore many possibilities where off site contractors would be legally considered part of the same entity):

      http://www.gnu.org/licenses/gpl-faq.html#InternalDistribution

      Is making and using multiple copies within one organization or company "distribution"?

      No, in that case the organization is just making the copies for itself. As a consequence, a company or other organization can develop a modified version and install that version through its own facilities, without giving the staff permission to release that modified version to outsiders.

      However, when the organization transfers copies to other organizations or individuals, that is distribution. In particular, providing copies to contractors for use off-site is distribution.

      There is also the issue that to be considered distribution under US law the transfer must be legal. If an employee gives you a copy but they did not have the legal authority to give it to you, no distribution has occurred (it would be theft in that case).

    43. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by asdfghjklqwertyuiop · · Score: 1

      You're right the bob owns the work he commissioned, but you're forgetting that in the US, Bob needed Alice's permission to produce the derivative work in the first place. If Alice didn't grant Bob that permission any other way, and IF there's no law or anything that says Alice implicitly granted Bob rights to make derivatives of her own copyrighted work by choosing to work for him, then the only way bob had permission to produce that derivative work was by accepting the terms of the GPL.

      That is all hypothetical, however. The GPLv3 explicitly grants people the right to produce "private" derivative works (section 2, paragraph 2) and I believe GPLv2 said you can instead accept the terms of a later GPL if you want to.

    44. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by GasparGMSwordsman · · Score: 1

      GPLv2sect3para0:You may copy and distribute the Program (or a work based on it, under Section 2) in object code or executable form under the terms of Sections 1 and 2 above provided that you also do one of the following:

      Note the "and" in the first sentence quoted above. This sentence parses in many states of the USA as "You may copy the Program in object code or executable form" and separately "You may distribute the Program in object code or executable form".

      Two more points.

      First off, and means AND not OR. No jurisdiction in the US, be it State or Federal is confused upon those two. If you disagree, please cite a case in which such confusion occurred.

      Second, Copyright is a Federal law in the US and not under the jurisdiction of any State. In the unlikely instance that some State did have an issue with the language, it would not matter. In Federal law the term "distribution" is vague in many aspects but clear in this one.

    45. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by optikos · · Score: 1

      The GPL FAQ's "internal distribution" section is best a friend-of-the-court brief and at worst an extraneous statement outside of the court in which the OP's parties would be litigating, if in a conservative-/constructionist-law state. Unless the copyright of the OP's GPLed libraries is owned by the FSF (e.g., GCC, Emacs), then FSF has, of their own volition, no standing in OP's would-be court case other than filing friend-of-the-court briefs.

      Under the code of law in multiple states in the USA (i.e., the more conservative ones, such as Texas, Indiana), the contract or license says what the written words of it say. No other material may be brought in unless there is a demonstrated ambiguity within the wording of the contract or license. What I am showing via the trace of statements is the legal debugger in my post earlier in this thread is that the legalese of the GPLv2 (and GPLv3 without the OP's university having a side contract with the 100 users) is not ambiguous at all! Even the layman can follow it quite easily in my trace of statements in the legal debugger. The wording of the GPL is quite clear and the wording of the GPL stands as is without supplement. Hence, FSF can talk themselves blue in the face outside of the GPL about so-called internal distribution, because much of the GPL is based, not on distribution, but on copying, conveyance, and propagation. (All of) copying, (all of) conveyance, and (much of) propagation have nothing to do with the internal versus external nature of distribution that you & FSF's GPL FAQ are focusing on, because. they. are. not. the. word. "distribution".

      Why is "distribute" not utilized instead at every place that "copy", "convey", and "propagate" are utilized? In a conservative-law state, this is because the authors of the GPL obviously meant something quite different than "distribute" or else they would have used their own free will to chose the word "distribute" and never chosen to put the words "copy", "convey", or "propagate" into the GPL. In a conservative-/constructionist-law state, the author of a contract or license cannot claim that unambiguous wording means something other than what is clearly stated, because the judge & jury are required to say, in effect, "Well, if you meant to say something different, then you should have overtly stated something different." Under conservative constructionist law, if the party authoring the contract or agreement meant "distribute" then the party should have used the word "distribute" instead of "copy", "convey", or "propagate". The words "copy", "convey", and "propagate" mean something entirely different than "distribute". Therefore, the locations at which "copy", "convey", or "propagate" appear mean something entirely different at the phrase-level and statement-level and paragraph-level than had only "distribute" been used instead.

      Limiting the trigger of legal obiglations to merely distribution as the sole trigger is quite horribly misrepresenting what the words of the GPL quite clearly say in conservative-/constructionist-law states. Unless the words of the FSF FAQ overtly appear within the GPL, those words on the FAQ are irrelevant to the OP's would-be court case in a conservative-law state (unless some lawyer finds some ambiguity to hang their hat on in the clear and unambiguous trace of statements in the legal debugger that I showed in my prior posting on this thread). If the FSF wants to say something normative about internal distribution versus external distribution, then FSF must overtly put such statements in the GPL itself. Indeed, I claim that FSF's will is quite clear as stated in existing wording of the GPL as shown by my trace of the legal debugger earlier in this thread. In conservative-law/constructionist-law states, the GPL says what the GPL clearly states without any further explanation needed or permitted.

      In a nonconstructionist liberal-law state, the judge & jury have far greater latitude to interpret the contract or license far beyond

    46. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by GasparGMSwordsman · · Score: 1

      Under the code of law in multiple states in the USA (i.e., the more conservative ones, such as Texas, Indiana), the contract or license says what the written words of it say.

      I find it amusing that you keep stating that a given State's laws would require a specific interpretation. Again, in the United States, copyright is defined in Federal law. It has its origins in Article I, Section 8, Clause 8 of the Constitution. It is further defined in Title 17 of the USC.

      This particular issue is entirely and solely within Federal jurisdiction, in plain terms, it does not matter what a given State's laws are.

    47. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by QuantumG · · Score: 1

      In step 6 the court finds for Claire because Bob is claiming he had a license (the GPL) and Claire is claiming that she never licensed her changes under the GPL. The court will look at the explicit license of Claire (which is proprietary) and declare that Bob violated the terms of the license.

      In step 7 the court finds for Alice because Claire violated the terms of license that Alice distributed the software to Claire under (the GPL).

      In step 9 the court finds for Claire for the same reason as in step 6. Bob is an idiot who doesn't learn his lesson or get legal advice.

      In step 10 the court finds for Claire because Alice has no established that Claire has engaged in new distribution since step 6.

      Pretty simple.

      --
      How we know is more important than what we know.
    48. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by gnasher719 · · Score: 1

      Again this is incorrect. The act of modifying the code in the first place, places all modified work under the GPL. Under US law you CAN NOT modify GPL covered code without legally placing those modifications under the GPL. See GPLv2 section 5 below. However facts 1 through 5 are accurate. In addition Alice would also own the copyright to all code written prior to her employment by Bob unless an agreement specifically transferred those copyrights.

      I can take GPL's code, modify it, and distribute it without providing my own code under the GPL license. By doing so I commit copyright infringement. That doesn't change the fact that my code isn't licensed under the GPL, and if you distribute it (under the GPL or not), then you commit copyright infringement as well.

    49. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by dudpixel · · Score: 1

      my understanding is (at least with my contract here in australia) that they do only own the rights to code I produce while I am physically at my workplace.

      I do code in my spare time and I don't think my company could care less what I do with it...

      --
      This seemed like a reasonable sig at the time.
    50. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by dudpixel · · Score: 1

      hey I do understand the difference, but it was a reference to the earlier post which claimed the employer was "stealing" the employee's code.

      My /. id is at least a couple of years old. My karma is Excellent. I'm guessing from your use of AC that yours is not.

      --
      This seemed like a reasonable sig at the time.
    51. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by optikos · · Score: 1

      Yes, I agree, and means AND. Under that provision of the GPL, A) the recipient of the Program may copy the Program and B) the recipient of the Program may distribute the Program. The meaning of "and" neither overtly states nor implies that if the recipient copies the Program, the recipient must also distribute the Program beyond the perimeter of recipient's legal authority. "Right A and Right B is conferred" means: "Right A is conferred" and in addition "Right B is conferred". Exercising Right A does not force the anyone to exercise Right B or vice versa, as if the wording had been "Right A iff Right B is conferred" instead. I have various rights under the U.S. Constitution, all effectively conjoined by "and". Just because I exercise my free-speech rights does not require me to exercise my right to bear arms. They are separate rights that are both conferred to me, which I may exercise or not independently at my own free will.

      I agree that copyright enforcement itself is a matter of federal law under US Code. But the precise meaning of the license is a matter of contract law. Except in federal-zone territory (DC and territories) and litigation involving the federal government as a party, contracts are interpreted under state law, based largely on British common law predating the formation of the USA in 1776 (Decl of Independence) or 1781 (Art. of Confed. ratification) or 1792 (Constitution ratification), take your pick, because contract interpretation was a right of the Crown that the states inherited that was not explicitly conferred on the federal government by the federal Constitution. Yes, of course, doling out the civil remedies & criminal penalties for infringement are a matter for the federal courts, but, as I was consistently showing in my prior posts along this thread, the interpretation of contracts must be conducted in every court (including the federal courts) under some single state's law in any one court case. This is why the federal government always wants all 50 states to enact the same edition of the Uniform Commercial Code so badly, to iron out some (but not all) of the wrinkles among the 50 states' codes of contract law. In proprietary EULAs, it is often considered wise for the wording of the EULA to overtly pick the county & state & nation to serve as the single jurisdiction's code of law is to be used to interpret the contract. Instead, (other than calling out WIPO in GPLv3) the GPL omits any overt choice of jurisdiction of whose code of law is to be utilized to interpret the contract. This omission does not restrict the interpretation of the terms of the contract to only the federal courts; rather, this omission opens up the possiblity that either party may initiate litigation in any (or all) of a wide variety of different courts among a wide variety of different codes of law. So the choice of which code of law to use to interpret the GPL's contract itself is its own separate dispute (in addition to the merits of the case) that can arise in some future GPL litigation.

    52. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by mvdwege · · Score: 1

      Wrong. You are going in the right direction, but you overlook one thing: Alice has already granted permission to modify the work, by explicitly licensing it under the GPL. Bob has a license to produce a derivative work, and that derivative work belongs to him.

      Bob, however, cannot distiribute that derivative work, as his original license does not give him permission to do that, unless he also distributes his source.

      Mart

      --
      "I know I will be modded down for this": where's the option '-1, Asking for it'?
    53. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by asdfghjklqwertyuiop · · Score: 1

      ...Yes, that's what I said.

    54. Re:It was GPL before, so is GPL now by mvdwege · · Score: 1

      On a second reading, yes, you did. Sorry. You were a tad unclear though.

      Marr

      --
      "I know I will be modded down for this": where's the option '-1, Asking for it'?
  9. Ask a lawyer by QuantumG · · Score: 5, Informative

    Gah. Every time this kind of story gets posted to Slashdot we go through the same conversations.

    You entered into the employment and provided them with the code base, they most likely have a claim to it.

    All the work you did for them is work-for-hire, they own it.

    There's nothing wrong with using GPL libraries for internal proprietary software.. the GPL is a *distribution* license, you haven't said anything about distribution so I'm assuming they're not distributing it, in which case the GPL is irrelevant.

    There's lots and lots of source code in the world, plenty of it is free for you to hack on, move on.

    --
    How we know is more important than what we know.
    1. Re:Ask a lawyer by Hognoxious · · Score: 1

      Is it fair to say that the project has been forked? One branch would be the one developed at the university. The other would be the last snapshot before his employment started, plus any changes made independently (perhaps by other people - I can see that stuff done by him in is own time might be a grey area).

      --
      Confucius say, "Find worm in apple - bad. Find half a worm - worse."
    2. Re:Ask a lawyer by Rakshasa+Taisab · · Score: 1

      It's not as clear as that.

      He developed the project on his own, _then_ got hired to improve it. Likely he messed up and therefor it's legally confusing. Had he made clear at the start that what he was providing was the service of improving his _own_ project and that those changes belonged to him, then there would be no problems.

      This all depends on what was said when he was hired; did the university say they wanted to pay him to improve the project, or did they say they wanted to hire him so he would write code for them? Since it was his own project initially the former claim could very well work.

      --
      - These characters were randomly selected.
    3. Re:Ask a lawyer by QuantumG · · Score: 4, Interesting

      Actually, what matters is whether or not he distributed the software, preferably under a GPL license, before he was employed. If not, then there's simply no record that he ever did any work before he went to work for them. Whereas if he had distributed it them he could go to that other person and get a copy of the software from them.

      --
      How we know is more important than what we know.
    4. Re:Ask a lawyer by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      This post is really insightful.

      If the guy has a copy of his previous work (done in his spare time) in sourceforge of google code, then he can just "checkout" the last released version (under some kind of GPL license) and use it.

      Now, the question is what kind of license did he used to provide his software to his employees. It is possible that he did not use GPL. But if he released the same software as GPL somewhere else, he *might* be in a position to claim that his software was GPLd when he provided it to his employers.

      I agree with the majority here, TALK TO A LAWYER!

    5. Re:Ask a lawyer by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Your assumption that there is no record may be faulty. He states that the employer was interested in his project and hired him to expand on it. If he has a record of this fact (email discussing this etc) there's still a record that he did some work before entering employment.

    6. Re:Ask a lawyer by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      He states that the employer was interested in his project and hired him to expand on it. If he has a record of this fact (email discussing this etc) there's still a record that he did some work before entering employment.

      This won't change the fact that any of the work he did after being hired is owned by the employer. Depending on how good his internal versioning is, it may be very difficult to determine which lines of code are GPL-by-prior-release and which lines are work-for-hire. The long and short is, if the employer wants to be vicious, the employee needs some way of documenting what he owned before accepting employment. That fraction of the project he can release and continue to distribute under GPL and develop after leaving the employer. However, the employer, if he wants to be vicious, is likely to have grounds for infringement if the employee re-develops what he did for that employer and subsequently releases software functionally equivalent to the employer's software

    7. Re:Ask a lawyer by hey! · · Score: 1

      You're absolutely right. As far as you go.

      What you don't say is that it is just plain stupid for a university to modify GPL'd code but to forbid the person doing the modification to cooperate with the community maintaining that code. Not illegal. Not immoral. Just plain dumb as in against their obvious self-interest.

      If this were twenty years ago, they might be a point. What is the GPL thing? What does it legally obligate us to do? What liability does it open us up to? But it's 2010, and bolder organizations (including many universities) have benefited from cooperation on on GPL'd projects.

      If this were a commercial company where priority #1 was simply swiping the lunch money of competitors working in the same market space, there'd be a point. We can't let those guys get our super-duper modifications, that's our competitive advantage. But it's not a commercial company we're talking about. It's a university. Even though universities do of course compete for funding and students, it's not supposed to be anything that allows you to stick a thumb in the other guy's eye is a good thing. You don't misrepresent other scholars' work or tear down their reputation simply because it is convenient to you. You don't hold your own work closely to your vest, restricting the academic freedom of your own community. In any case, I've seldom seem modifications so super-duper that they are really worth protecting this way -- which is why commercial outfits can and do cooperate with other companies in a plus sum fashion on this kind of thing. If you're looking to a near term exit strategy, maybe selling yourself to a VC or a bigger fish, it's understandable that you might look at monetizing everything you can think of. But that doesn't apply to the university.

      Contributing and cooperating with the open source/free software community is the course of action that is most in the university's self-interest, the one that gives the greatest bang for the buck. It's also the choice most consistent with a university's values of scholarship, openness, and academic freedom.

      --
      Post may contain irony: discontinue use if experiencing mood swings, nausea or elevated blood pressure.
    8. Re:Ask a lawyer by Fallen+Kell · · Score: 1

      Actually, unless the employer has patents on it, or it is a direct line for line copy, he is free to re-invent the wheel, if it is a logical progression of the work. Just look at MS Office, OpenOffice, SunOffice, and the like, and you will see that people are free to create software that has similar function. While the employer does own the copyrights for the work created when he was in employment, it can't re-distribute or sell the software unless all the GPL code is removed or they GPL their changes to it.

      --
      We were all warned a long time ago that MS products sucked, remember the Magic 8 Ball said, "Outlook not so good"
    9. Re:Ask a lawyer by butlerm · · Score: 1

      If not, then there's simply no record that he ever did any work before he went to work for them

      Legally, he doesn't need a record of any kind. If he did any work before he was hired, and his employment contract did not specify a transfer of existing copyrights, he owns the copyright to all of his previous work.

      Of course, records would help. Dated backups, documentation files, comments in source code, original copyright statements, emails, etc. He doesn't actually need to have distributed the software to anybody.

    10. Re:Ask a lawyer by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You entered into the employment and provided them with the code base, they most likely have a claim to it.

      All the work you did for them is work-for-hire, they own it.

      I am also not a lawyer, but if he/she was hired to extend the project, doesn't that mean that the OP can claim that means the code base that existed up to that point was and still is his/hers, and the work-for-hire is the extension? Shouldn't transfer of copyright to the original work (that automatically belongs to the creator) be explicitly transferred in the employment contract (or separate contract)?

    11. Re:Ask a lawyer by celtic_hackr · · Score: 1

      First off, if you can prove a chain of title for the code you wrote before joining them, then that code is yours. Examples of proof would be :you registered the code with the copyright office, you distributed the code someplace, you mailed yourself a copy in a certified letter and it's never been opened, you've had a copy of the code notarized. any of those will stand up in a court, and no sane business or lawyer would launch a case based on that. However, as Groklaw has shown, there is no shortage of insane idiots willing to sue over things they know they don't own. On a further note, your copyright cannot be transfered to them simply by you letting them use it to develop with. Copyright can only be transfered by the execution of a writing. Some states have stricter requirements. Like California.

      Secondly, any code you've added to that code since you joined your company is likely to be found work-for-hire and you don't own it. While, I say likely, take that as meaning: "I wouldn't touch your code with someone else's 10 foot pole". You screwed up by not specifically listing your code when you got hired. I have always done this.

      Third, as long as the company isn't distributing the code, like in a product they make, they do not have to release it under GPL. The specific "GPL" licenses vary in regards to that, so you need to look to the license of each piece to draw a conclusion.

      Lastly, the company cannot and does not own the whole thing. Any GPLed code belongs to it's author. They cannot claim it as their own, only the modifications you made to it. Also, your original code is yours, but the problem is can you actually prove what code is yours? Without proof you have nothing, especially if the company says you didn't bring in any code of your own. Do you have proof they asked you to develop this code, that you had already written?

      Disclaimer, "Dude you need to talk to a lawyer. and I ain't one."

    12. Re:Ask a lawyer by Ungrounded+Lightning · · Score: 1

      Actually, unless the employer has patents on it, or it is a direct line for line copy, he is free to re-invent the wheel, if it is a logical progression of the work.

      No, he's not.

      Other people are free to reinvent the wheel. HE is not free to reinvent the same wheel HE invented as a work-for-hire. That wheel is his employer's until somebody NOT in his employer's employ reinvents and releases it.

      --
      Bantam Dominique roosters crow a four-note song. Once you've heard it as "Happy BIRTHday" you can't NOT hear it that way
    13. Re:Ask a lawyer by judolphin · · Score: 1

      As an independent software contractor, I can assure you that software is not "work for hire". Look it up.

      --
      The Institute of Incomplete Research has determined that 9 of out 10
  10. If project is not distributed, GPL doesn't apply by Bananenrepublik · · Score: 4, Informative

    If your project is only used internally, i.e. if it's not distributed, the GPLedness of the libraries you're using plays no role. If you're not distributing, the GPL places no restrictions whatsoever on what you do with the libraries. Now, since you started the project before getting paid to do so, it might be the case that the step where you so to say 'gave' it to the university counts as distribution, and then there would be no alternative to an at-least-GPL-Free license for your project, but that is something you should ask a lawyer about, not slashdot.

  11. i guess you got yourself in trouble by someone1234 · · Score: 1

    You could have just transferred the generic part of the code back home.
    No one would have given a damn.
    You could even truly claim, you worked on the stuff on your free time.
    Somethings it is better for both parties to not talk about the issues.

    --
    Patents Drive Free Software as Hurricanes Drive Construction Industry
  12. IANAL but... by wolrahnaes · · Score: 1

    1. The code you wrote is probably your employer's.
    2. The rest (the GPL code you used) is not.

    This means that to distribute the code you wrote they would need to abide by the terms of the GPL or rewrite all of the GPL parts. I've heard solid arguments in both directions as to whether internal corporate use counts as distribution, but when talking internal only it may be a moot point if none of the other users care to request the source.

    If binaries are being distributed outside your organization without the offer of source and such, it's a clear cut violation.

    --
    I used to get high on life, but I developed a tolerance. Now I need something stronger.
    1. Re:IANAL but... by tamyrlin · · Score: 4, Informative

      According to the GPL FAQ over at gnu.org, internal corporate use does not count as distribution: http://www.gnu.org/licenses/gpl-faq.html#GPLRequireSourcePostedPublic

    2. Re:IANAL but... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I think he understands that the code he wrote WHILE EMPLOYED is his employers.

      The question is does his employer have claim on the code he wrote BEFORE starting employment.

      So for example :
      1. I had a class foo, with 2 functions : func1() and func2(). I developed these in my time on top of the GPL code.

      2. I get hired to extend MY class, so now I have a class foo with functions : func1(), func2(), func3(), func4().

      3. My employer claims ownership over the everything.

      What is obvious is that the employer can and should claim func3() and func4() - they paid for it.

      The OP should have also claim to func1() and func2() as he did them on his own time.

      By the GPL, if he used his code (func1(), func2()) for his employer, that means that he has redistributed it right?(correct me if I'm wrong someone, IANAL). So does that mean that the OP is in fact in breach of the GPL (if he hasn't released his original changes?)

      Can he release his code up to the moment of getting hired, under GPL without pissing his employer off?

    3. Re:IANAL but... by QuantumG · · Score: 4, Informative

      I've heard solid arguments in both directions as to whether internal corporate use counts as distribution,

      By whom? The only time I've ever heard anyone suggest that internal corporate use counts as distribution was by the MySQL morons as an attempt to scare up business. The FSF even came out against them saying they were wrong and their arguments were damaging to the community.

      --
      How we know is more important than what we know.
    4. Re:IANAL but... by mr_mischief · · Score: 1

      Released his changes to whom? I'm sure if he's being paid to improve the work he has provided the work to the employer. You never need to "publish" source code to follow the GPL. You only need to provide the source to those to whom you provided the binaries and third parties who ask for it after receiving the binaries from someone.

      If the uni never distributes the binaries, then the OP never has to provide the source to anyone other than the uni.

    5. Re:IANAL but... by Jedi+Alec · · Score: 1

      So? According to US media, a situation where the vast majority of knowledgable folks think one thing and 1 total fucking nutcase thinks the other is a controversy. Doesn't matter whether there's actual proof of anything, there's a "debate" going on.

      --

      People replying to my sig annoy me. That's why I change it all the time.
    6. Re:IANAL but... by wolrahnaes · · Score: 1

      Didn't know that. In that case, the whole thing seems pretty open-and-shut.

      --
      I used to get high on life, but I developed a tolerance. Now I need something stronger.
    7. Re:IANAL but... by wolrahnaes · · Score: 1

      I forget who, but after seeing the FSF GPL FAQ links posted by the other replier and others, obviously I'll default to the position of those who wrote the license. I still stand that one way or another it would be mostly a moot point, as I doubt many people would take their employer to court over being refused access to the source of an internal application.

      --
      I used to get high on life, but I developed a tolerance. Now I need something stronger.
    8. Re:IANAL but... by Courageous · · Score: 1

      The question is does his employer have claim on the code he wrote BEFORE starting employment.

      Well; they hardly need a claim, as that code is GPL'd, I am to understand. Once they have a copy of a GPL'd work, if they wish to use it internally, they can do so.

      But let's suppose it were not GPL'd. And let's say they wished to disseminate this code in some form. Suppose a former employee came at them and said, "well when I wrote this, I put in copyrighted works that are not yours to disseminate without tellin' ya. So you can't." The lawsuit on this would be a terrible stinger, mon. It's made of lose.

      As for whether or not the OP will or will not "piss off" his employer for distributing work prior to employment, I won't comment, except to say that I do think he has the legal right to do so. I would suggest that some documentation that this was all true as of that date would be wise.

      C//

    9. Re:IANAL but... by butlerm · · Score: 1

      On the contrary: The code he wrote, on his own, before getting hired is almost certainly his. The code he wrote while employed is his employers. The code third parties wrote is of course the property of neither. All else being equal.

      It is worth noting that while he does not have the right to distribute the work he did for his employer, unless the original code he wrote was clearly licensed to his employer under the GPL or comparable license, his employer may not have the right to prepare derived works of anything that contains his original code either.

    10. Re:IANAL but... by GasparGMSwordsman · · Score: 1

      One word, jurisdiction. Depending on where you live (I am talking about what country) the word "distribution" has a different legal meaning. Under US law it is pretty clear that inter-company use is not distribution. If you are living in Singapore, maybe this would be a GPL violation.

  13. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by mindstrm · · Score: 5, Informative

    Before they can have their way with it, yes - but they can use it internally - just as I can make derived works from GPL code and use them however I want, myself or in my company. What I can't do is distribute it, sell it, etc... but if I base my employers in-house time-tracking system on some GPL code - the company is under no usage restriction whatsoever, and is under no obligation to share those changes with anyone else.

    If they do want to distribute the stuff outside their organisation, they'll have to do so under the terms of the GPL - other than that scenario, they can do whatever they want internally.

  14. Short term career by LostMyBeaver · · Score: 2, Insightful

    Well, I'd say that there are multiple issues at hand. First of all, I'm pretty sure you can release the original code that was around before you started the job without any issues. If you were to release the additions and modifications you made after the employment started, that code is rightfully theirs. After all, they hired you to work on the project for them, they didn't contract you to make changes to your open source project.

    Location is an issue that might come up with the GPL. Different countries would interpret the GPL differently. Just because it's been tested (more or less) in the states doesn't mean that it's been tested elsewhere. Given the time of your posting, I'm assuming you're somewhere outside of the U.S. and therefore the requirements of the GPL aren't necessarily clear.

    I had a similar project at one point. I would never use the GPL as I believe in free software, so I use a modified BSD license. But when my employer decided they didn't want to continue making my code open, I wrote it over (it was only 15,000 lines, so it took a few weekends) and BSD'd it. It's still not as complete as the original, but it's functional enough to be useful to others now.

    I recommend that you keep in mind that you work for your employer and if you feel your employer has violated your trust, you're welcome to leave. Additionally, if you violate their trust, they're welcome to release you from your agreement.

    While it may be legally OK to release the code as GPL, it doesn't mean that your employer will agree with your decision and may decide that they'd prefer to work with someone who's more attuned to their wants and needs.

    1. Re:Short term career by adamofgreyskull · · Score: 1

      I had a similar project at one point. I would never use the GPL as I believe in free software, so I use a modified BSD license. But when my employer decided they didn't want to continue making my code open, I wrote it over (it was only 15,000 lines, so it took a few weekends) and BSD'd it. It's still not as complete as the original, but it's functional enough to be useful to others now.

      Wait. What? Your employer had released it under a BSD license? So you had to re-write it? I don't understand. Surely if it had been released under a BSD license, you could just take the most recent BSD licensed version and maintain it in your spare time? I've never made anything of note, and I probably wouldn't release under the BSD license if I had, but even I am pretty sure that you can't revoke it after the fact. It wouldn't be much of an open source license if you could. Can you explain your circumstances a little better?

      Was it a BSD licensed project before you started work for your employer? Or did you produce it in it's entirety while working there, and they released it under the BSD license?

    2. Re:Short term career by saiha · · Score: 1

      I applaud you on recoding/releasing your code as BSD. My previous company did all of their open source work under a BSD license which was (imo) great for both the community and its employees.

    3. Re:Short term career by LostMyBeaver · · Score: 1

      Well, I released the rewrite under the BSD license. I did the rewrite on the weekends, on my time. I cleared that with my boss before hand. He seemed ok with it as long as it wasn't our production code.

      The project wasn't licensed as BSD or GPL before hand, but 12,000 lines of it came with me to the job. He seemed to feel that since our product was now based on it, that he should have control over whether it would be open sourced.

      They didn't want the responsibility of maintaining an open source project. Given the complexity of the code involved (real-time multimedia processing etc...) they felt that there was a much higher likelihood that instead of receiving the benefits of the open source community, they would instead bare the burdens of it. In hindsight, the point was valid. They had nothing to gain from open sourcing, so they'd prefer that it weren't a distraction.

      As a result, I spent my weekends rewriting instead of improving what we had, but it also gave me a great sandbox to experiment in. This way I was making major architectural modifications to the open source project... (which I just check isn't even online anymore :() so this way I was able to prove the code before implementing the changes in the company's product.

      I'm doing something similar now, actually writing a C++ alternative to GStreamer, having a blast doing it and although I maintain two copies (one for the office, one for my open source project) it's great since the open source to-be implementation is really very versatile while the one we use at work is more specialized as it is optimized to work on DSPs (which require entirely different optimizations from x86). I'm looking forward to releasing it soon as well. So far, it's a pretty reliable platform for IPTV (transport stream, mpeg-2, mpeg-4 etc...) and it's REALLY easy to code for. It'll be modified BSD something like "if you use it, please put my name in the license somewhere" kind of thing.

    4. Re:Short term career by tburkhol · · Score: 1

      I had a similar project at one point. I would never use the GPL as I believe in free software, so I use a modified BSD license. But when my employer decided they didn't want to continue making my code open, I wrote it over (it was only 15,000 lines, so it took a few weekends) and BSD'd it. It's still not as complete as the original, but it's functional enough to be useful to others now.

      I'm pretty sure, if your former employer wanted to push the issue, that they could successfully sue you for infringement on those 15,000 lines. It's just not possible for you to independently develop something you've already developed - there's no way you can prove you didn't enter the 'new' code from a flash drive, or from your own memory, nor that you would even have thought of the new bits without the suggestion of the employer. The intellectual property of code is not in the time it takes to type lines into an editor but in the creativity of the algorithm and solution that the lines of code represent.

    5. Re:Short term career by LostMyBeaver · · Score: 1

      True, but in my case, it was an issue of trust. They knew me well enough to know that I wouldn't infringe.

      Of course, if I pissed someone off along the way, which with my "charming" personality certainly is something to be concerned about, then I'd have to worry. So, it really depends mostly on whether I can keep my mouth shut long enough not to make enemies in the wrong places.

      Been doing this for 17 years now... the hardest thing I ever learned in my career is that I am not actually God... next I'll have to learn that I'm not one of his disciples either hehe

    6. Re:Short term career by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You rewrote 15k lines of code in a few weekends? Wow.

    7. Re:Short term career by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      How do you write something over? At what point does "copying over" change to "writing over"?

      Additionally, aren't most contracts written in such a way that you can't even distribute works in the same area as what you normally work on? For instance, if I'm a dev writing Windows kernel code, I can't, on the side, write an application that uses undocumented hooks into the OS.

  15. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by mindstrm · · Score: 1

    Right - which is perfectly acceptable.

  16. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by pwizard2 · · Score: 1

    It seems to me like the best way to avoid this sort of problem is to fork the original project and develop each version in parallel. (basically, keep development separate at all times, no code sharing between the two AT ALL after the fork, etc.) That way, you get to keep control over your version and the employer gets their own customized version with all the necessary proprietary enhancements. Sure, it's double the work, but everybody wins and gets what they want. Since the pre-existing GPL code in the proprietary version is also in the original version, (assuming you release it at some point) it probably wouldn't be a GPL violation, but I could be wrong.

    --
    "It is a denial of justice not to stretch out a helping hand to the fallen; that is the common right of humanity."
  17. If you are a contractor... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Informative

    you own your work by default. This applies in the absence of any other agreement. If you are an employee, your employment contract may override this.

    1. Re:If you are a contractor... by Rophuine · · Score: 2, Informative

      In Australia, there's a legal precedent saying that code written by an employee is owned by the employer, even if the employment contract doesn't mention it.

    2. Re:If you are a contractor... by Willbur · · Score: 3, Informative

      It is legislation, not case law. Section 35(6) of the Australian Copyright Act 1968: "Where a literary ... work ... is made by the author in pursuance of the terms of his or her employment by another person under a contract of service or apprenticeship, that other person is the owner of any copyright subsisting in the work ... ." Computer Software is a 'literary work' for the purposes of the act.

      Note that it isn't all code written by an employee, just code written for your job.

      IANAL, but you can look at the law yourself: http://www.austlii.edu.au/au/legis/cth/consol_act/ca1968133/s35.html

    3. Re:If you are a contractor... by QuantumG · · Score: 2, Informative

      Contractors are not employees.

      But the other point about this that is never mentioned is that contractors implicitly give licenses to whoever is paying them. Without a written contract that license is often interpreted VERY broadly.

      --
      How we know is more important than what we know.
    4. Re:If you are a contractor... by Rophuine · · Score: 1

      And it's been tested in court, which is what I really meant: I'm not sure what the correct term would be. I don't recall the parties, but I followed the case with interest in the late 80s or early 90s.

    5. Re:If you are a contractor... by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      Contractors are not employees.

      And East Germany was a democratic republic.

      What something is "named" has nothing to do with what it is. In this case, someone may create a contract with someone that declares them a contractor, but functionally makes them an employee. Such a person is an employee.

      This individual appears to have been hired directly as an employee to do this work. The work for hire doctrine in any common law country should full cover this situation as the most basic of cases.

      --
      WARNING! This girl exceeds the MAXIMUM SAFE standards established by the FDA for BRATTINESS
  18. 2 separate issues by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    As said previously. anything you did on your employer's time using their resources is automaticaly copyrighted to them. You just work for them. Its a standard clause in all job contracts (you can hope yours did not have this specified and get away with it but i doubt it). Even a clerk all the spreadsheets i create to make MY job easier in matter of fact belong to the company. So if I miraculously discovered the cure for cancer using these spreadsheets I have to fortfeit that discovery and rights to the cure to the company that I work for. Sure we sell tyres but copyright rules in contracts are rules :)

    However as far as the finished product being marketable and made profit from by your employer. That is a licencing issue on its own. Unless your employers's project fully commits to the GPL therefore keeping in line with the libraries licences then there should be no problem. If they want to branch off and breach the licences then they will have to remove the libraries that are in breach and wind another way to make it work. Or code their own.

  19. You missed the most important point by phantomfive · · Score: 1

    Is your company distributing the binaries? If not, then they have no obligation to release the code. The GPL allows for modification and use within a company. It also never says that you must release your code freely on the internet, only that you must provide the source code to people who receive the binaries (if they ask for it). Once again, if your company isn't releasing binaries, they have no obligation.

    --
    Qxe4
    1. Re:You missed the most important point by GORby_ · · Score: 1

      Well, maybe he should just ask whether he can have a copy of the software for home use on his private computer. If they agree, wouldn't that make them distribute the code, thus explicitly requiring them to provide the source code under the GPL?

    2. Re:You missed the most important point by phantomfive · · Score: 1

      lol sure, but I wouldn't dare to do that without getting it in writing (or at least an email)

      --
      Qxe4
  20. Why wasn't this taken care of in the contract? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    According to your post, you were hired to work specifically on your project that you already started on your own. And you didn't think that ownership of the copyright would be a problem? It didn't occur to you that you needed to put that in your work contract?

    Never bring any code you did at home to work without a written agreement that it belongs to you. Never even use an open-source software that you have contributed to.

    Exact laws will vary from place to place which is why you need to get a lawyer, but in general it's very common that anything you do at work as well as anything work related you do at home belongs to your employer by default. If the line between work and your own projects becomes slightly blurry you need a written agreement to avoid any misunderstandings.

  21. Short Answer: Yes by nebosuke · · Score: 1

    Yes, they absolutely own the copyright if the terms of your employment make the software you write on the job a work for hire (almost certainly the case unless you have an explicit exception in your employment contract).

    They also cannot legally violate the GPL, but they will not even if they keep the source unpublished as long as they provide the source code with any binary distribution to another party.

    The key here is that the GPL does not force you to distribute the source unless you distribute the binaries--and even then, you only need to provide the source to the people to whom you distributed the binaries.

    1. Re:Short Answer: Yes by RivieraKid · · Score: 1

      The key here is that the GPL does not force you to distribute the source unless you distribute the binaries--and even then, you only need to provide the source to the people to whom you distributed the binaries.

      That's true only if you distribute the source alongside the binaries. If you distribute the binaries with an offer to provide the source, then you are, infact, required to provide the source to anybody (regardless of if you distributed the binaries to them) who requests it for a minimum of three years.

      --
      "Necessity is the plea for every infringement of human freedom. It is the argument of tyrants; it is the creed of slaves
  22. What fun... by nedlohs · · Score: 1

    They own the parts you wrote as an employee of theirs. They don't own the parts you wrote before being an employee of theirs - though have fun proving which parts are which...

    No you can't publish the source code that they own or release it under the GPL. If they distribute it then they will need to in order to comply with the license of those libraries and of the portion you wrote before being their employee (though I can see an argument that since you used that code in your work for them you gave them a license to use it as they see fit, not sure if that would fly though). They might never distribute it though.

    Yes, IANAL. Yes, trusting me for legal advice would be really stupid. Yes, those are just my opinions and understandings of how these things work.

  23. Personal and Private fork? by DigiShaman · · Score: 1

    I have no clue about the legal matter. However, if you're going to use your own code for employment, perhaps you should have taken a snapshot of it, and forked it?

    Basically, whatever progress you did from the beginning belongs to the company while being paid on the clock. Your original code prior to employment belongs to you. But I seriously doubt you can go back and implement their code or process back into your original pre-fork code.

    --
    Life is not for the lazy.
  24. Yet once more: talk to a lawyer by Estanislao+Mart�nez · · Score: 1

    I can't stress enough that the people who are suggesting talking to a lawyer are right.

    Still, if I may hazard a guess, if you started the project before you were hired, and you have a standard relationship to your employer, there's a good chance that both you and your employer have a claim to the overall work, because it contains parts that you wrote on your own, and parts that you wrote as their employee. In this case, then yeah, you don't have ownership nor license to the parts that they own--and over time, those parts may have become inseparable from the original parts that are yours.

  25. The copyright is not a problem by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    They can have it, and they have the right to own it.

    However, if there's even a tiny little bit of GPL code involved, they'll have to release the software under the GPL to their users and provide them with a means to access the sources. That, however, doesn't mean they have to distribute it.

    What kind of software are we talking about?

  26. Can you prove any of it? by topham · · Score: 1

    Can you prove that you started the project as a GPL project?

    Even if you do, can you prove your employer knew it was a GPL project and would continue to be so?

    Otherwise, you've created an unlicensable project. However, unless they distribute it (out side of their organization) they can keep using it as-is.

  27. This is a nice question by mukund · · Score: 1

    Say you work for a big company like Google or Goldman Sachs, and their magic secret program uses libraries and other code distributed under the GNU GPL license.

    They are under no obligation to publish as they use the code internally and do not distribute anything.

    What if an employee leaves the company and takes the code to the magic secret program with him? It uses GNU GPL licensed code, which grants _him_ a license to redistribute it, because he has a copy of the program already.

    --
    Banu
    1. Re:This is a nice question by Drgnkght · · Score: 2, Informative

      Just a guess, but I'd say their lawyers would nail said employee to the proverbial wall. Theft of trade secrets comes immediately to mind. Bear in mind that, as a company employee, the fact that he has a copy of the code/binary in his possession does not count as distribution. As I understand it, this is because he would be considered as part of the corporate "person" while under the employment of the said corporation. If he leaves the company with the code in his possession it would almost certainly be considered theft and not distribution. This would leave him with no rights to the code at all.

    2. Re:This is a nice question by xelah · · Score: 1

      What if an employee leaves the company and takes the code to the magic secret program with him? It uses GNU GPL licensed code, which grants _him_ a license to redistribute it, because he has a copy of the program already.

      The GPL grants him a licence to redistribute the GPL licensed code, not the magic secret program. Just because you include something licensed to you under the GPL in something you've written doesn't mean that anyone you give that something to is automatically licensed by you to redistribute the whole thing to others. You might be breaking the GPL granted to you by the original author when you do that, but that doesn't mean that the person you've given it to is not breaking YOUR copyright when he redistributes it.

      And if you're a corporation and the redistributor is an employee then you can easily ruin his life by arguing over it in court, even if you lose or drop your case. Besides, do you REALLY want a dispute with your employer or manager over it, even if it's much lower level than that? Or even if you're technically right? (Or it might be that your employer doesn't really care, and that the manager concerned just doesn't want to take any risks himself by authorizing something he doesn't have to and doesn't help him get his job done).

      It also makes it very important that you read your contracts of employment carefully. Some claim copyright over everything you produce, in the course of your employment or otherwise. I doubt that this is some secret plot to take over your life and I can't imagine that employers really want to own every love-letter and slashdot post you write, rather that it's just safer and easier from the drafter's point of view (one less thing to argue over in court, one less potential loophole, one less thing you might get wrong).

    3. Re:This is a nice question by urulokion · · Score: 1

      Say you work for a big company like Google or Goldman Sachs, and their magic secret program uses libraries and other code distributed under the GNU GPL license.

      They are under no obligation to publish as they use the code internally and do not distribute anything.

      What if an employee leaves the company and takes the code to the magic secret program with him? It uses GNU GPL licensed code, which grants _him_ a license to redistribute it, because he has a copy of the program already.

      No. The departed employee doesn't has a right to distribute the derivative code of the orignal GPL'ed code. The employer owns the copyright of the all of the changes from the base GPL code. Only the copyright owner can choose to distribute the code, or not. The employee would be in big trouble. He is guilty of theft (or whatever form of misappropriation) from his employer.

    4. Re:This is a nice question by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      What if an employee leaves the company and takes the code to the magic secret program with him? It uses GNU GPL licensed code, which grants _him_ a license to redistribute it, because he has a copy of the program already.

      If the "magic secret program" was developed using GPLed source which legally belongs to the company, for which it was work-for-hire, the employee has no right to the code and no right to distribute it. Only if the legal owner (the company) has the right to distribute the code. If they use the work-for-hire internally, they have no obligation to distribute it.

  28. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    I thought the GPL only applied if you wanted to distribute your code, if you keep it in house (which your employer wanted to do?) Then it doesn't matter, but if the sold it to another party they would have to release the source code...

  29. Employee or Contractor? by cgenman · · Score: 1

    Are you an employee or a contractor? As an employee, the onus to fall on the right side of the GPL probably falls on your employer. But as a contractor, you yourself might be legally responsible for proper adherence to legal rules around the GPL. They are, after all, hiring you to know this stuff.

    As for ownership of the code you created before you were hired: ask HR for a copy of your contract. There is probably a clause in there granting them specific rights, but they might not cover everything. They will definitely walk away with a license for everything and ownership of the code that you created for them, but they might not own the code that you created before you were hired.

    And if they don't want you to, you can't published the extended version of the code. They definitely own that. And welcome to the new academia, where all knowledge is a secret to be jealously guarded.

  30. copyrights and contracts by Spazmania · · Score: 1

    IANAL and this is not legal advice. If you really care about this, you should pay for advice from someone who is a lawyer.

    That having been said...

    Any software you produced for them for which you directly received W-2 wages belongs to them regardless of the terms of the GPL. It is entirely their choice whether or not to release it under the GPL. They may or may not be violating the GPL if they do not, however any damages from that violation will be monetary; they will not compel the software be released under the GPL.

    Any software you produced during hours for which you did not receive a wage reported on an IRS form W-2 almost certainly still belongs to you, regardless of any papers you may have signed prior to writing it. They can't stop you from releasing it, but they can very likely release you from their employ and/or withdraw any other association you may have with them if you do.

    A letter from GNU's lawyer to their lawyer can go a long way towards resolving the matter. Writing such letters is one of the reasons the GNU folks keep a lawyer in their employ. Avail yourself of the benefit.

    --
    Moderating "-1, Disagree" is simple censorship. Have the guts to post your opinion.
    1. Re:copyrights and contracts by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It is entirely their choice whether or not to release it under the GPL.

      Correct, except for the last three words.

      They may choose not to release it. However, if they choose to do so, they must release it under the terms of the GPL, providing source as required. They may not lock up the source under any more restrictive license.

    2. Re:copyrights and contracts by Spazmania · · Score: 1

      No, the last three words are correct too. They may be violating some copyrights if they refuse to release their code under the GPL but they can still refuse to do so. The GPL does not (and legally can not) automatically license their new code under the GPL as it is created or distributed. It can only make doing so a condition for lawfully redistributing the base code.

      I'm picking a nit here, but it's an important nit. If you were to take the code which they refused to license under the GPL and distribute it yourself, *you would be violating a copyright as well.*

      --
      Moderating "-1, Disagree" is simple censorship. Have the guts to post your opinion.
  31. IANAL by jschottm · · Score: 2, Interesting

    IANAL. If you care about this, get one.

    Is the project really worth the trouble? Both you and the department failed to take the proper steps when you were hired. If you push the issue, they may fire you. You'd likely be blackballed from ever working for the university again. If the matter goes to court, you might scare off future employers down the line. Companies get very scared at the idea of someone introducing GPL poisoned (their frame of mind, not mine) code into their products without disclosing it.

    Unless this is some amazingly cool and important project, it might be worth just taking it as a lesson learned. Don't ever use code that requires a license in your employers' software without documentation (and for something like this, keep an extra copy at home), especially if it's something you wrote. Cover Your Ass (CYA).

    Down the line after you leave the university's employment you might go back to your code prior to be hired and release that but it still might be pushing it. You might be legally right but that doesn't mean that you can afford a Pyrrhic victory.

    Did you begin the project as a student (prior to being paid), particularly in any way related to a class? If so, some universities attempt to apply IP ownership to students' work.

    From my understanding of the GPL, you were fine creating software that relied on GPLed libraries and not GPLing it, provided you didn't release it. The place where it kicks in is when you distribute (say, to the university). At that point, you were obligated to put your code under the GPL. Did you do so and if so, was it formal?

    Assuming that there's no student clause, you own the copyright on everything you wrote prior to them hiring you. They most likely own everything after that. For you to have legally distributed the initial code to them, it would have to have been GPLed. If it wasn't formally GPLed, they could try to put you on the hook for using unlicensed software in what you wrote for them.

    They could GPL their portion of it and everything would be solved. Or they could eliminate all of the original code and still use the GPL library and be legal so long as they don't distribute it.

    1. Re:IANAL by butlerm · · Score: 1

      From my understanding of the GPL, you were fine creating software that relied on GPLed libraries and not GPLing it, provided you didn't release it. The place where it kicks in is when you distribute (say, to the university). At that point, you were obligated to put your code under the GPL.

      Unless he distributed binaries to the university that were compiled and linked before being hired, or modified versions of the GPL libraries themselves, no such obligation applies. The GPL kicks in when you distribute a derived work. A collection of unmodified source files is no such thing.

    2. Re:IANAL by jschottm · · Score: 1

      What on earth gives you that idea? Please show me any language in the GPL that specifies compilation that supports your claim.

      By that logic, nothing written in a non-compiled language could ever be GPLed. Code that requires GPLed libraries to compile are derived works, that's the entire reason why the LGPL was created was to have an exception to that.

    3. Re:IANAL by butlerm · · Score: 1

      Which idea? What claim? All I said was that a collection of unmodified source files is not a derived work.

      Code that requires GPLed libraries to compile are derived works

      On the contrary, a derived work is created when such code is compiled and linked with code under another license. Prior to compilation and linking, not in the slightest. And compilation only matters if the header file contains substantial code in its own right (inline functions, exotic macros, C++ templates, etc).

      The only way new source files would be a derived work would be if it was substantially similar to (i.e. "copied from") another work, and that similarity was not a matter of functional necessity.

      The idea that compatibility creates derivation is one of the most irrational and legally unsupportable ideas ever conceived. If it were made the law of the land, the software industry (among others) would be dropped dead in its tracks.

  32. the open source licenses are not EULA's by Tei · · Score: 1

    You can get a GPL program, put a Public Domain part, add a Very Closed Source code, compile the whole thing, and work with it. You can't distribute the result, but you can use the result.

    You can make a GPL program, get hired to continue working on this program, add a Public Domain part, add a Very Closed Source code... and the result can be distributed only if you donated to your employer your work wen you was hired. So probably can't be distributed.

    IANAL.

    --

    -Woof woof woof!

  33. Not GPL vs. LGPL by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Some early commenters on the submission pointed out that it matters whether the libraries were licensed under the LGPL vs. the GPL.

    I'm part of the IANAL chorus, but I still have to say that I think these early commenters are wrong. GPL vs. LGPL is about licensing, i.e., permission granted by the copyright holders, directly or indirectly, to make use of a work in a given fashion. The main questions that the submitter has are about the actual copyright, i.e., who has the right to license or forbid others' use of the work.

  34. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by HeronBlademaster · · Score: 5, Interesting

    Is it possible to do two distinct forks simultaneously, if you're the one doing the coding on both forks? Couldn't your employer argue that your contributions to the personal fork are inevitably derived from the code you wrote for their fork? And if you write your fork first, and then soon thereafter write the employer's fork, isn't the employer's fork inevitably derived from your personal fork, since you wrote both?

    I think a single person simultaneously (or even with weeks) writing both forks is a bad idea, at least from a legal "who owns this code" standpoint.

  35. I'm not sure... by Dayofswords · · Score: 1

    " I've been working on my own on a project that uses GPL-licensed libraries."
    " since no written or verbal agreement was ever made to transfer copyright over to my employer, I question whether they can claim that they now own the extended version of the project.
    assuming you licensed it under the GPLv3

    No, you were not employed by them at the time and had licensed it under the GPL. When they hired you, no copyright is transfered. even if you did build on the software it was GPL and has to stay GPL which means you have copyright over the entire code, except for the libraries. while you transfer copyright to your employer on code you make during your employment, they have to agree to the GPL to modify it and thus the copyright goes back to you.

    GPL Quote:
    9. Acceptance Not Required for Having Copies.

    You are not required to accept this License in order to receive or run a copy of the Program. Ancillary propagation of a covered work occurring solely as a consequence of using peer-to-peer transmission to receive a copy likewise does not require acceptance. However, nothing other than this License grants you permission to propagate or modify any covered work. These actions infringe copyright if you do not accept this License. Therefore, by modifying or propagating a covered work, you indicate your acceptance of this License to do so.
    -END-

    basically, they can have copies, they can run it, but they can not modify it unless they agree. if they do not agree they may not modify it and use it or it breaks copyright. since they are modifying it they have agreed, so you should be allowed to release it as you wish.

    BUT:
    if he does give it to someone to work on it who is directly under the control of him and they do not give it out to some one, then it may not be a violation

    GPL Quote: ... This License acknowledges your rights of fair use or other equivalent, as provided by copyright law.

    You may make, run and propagate covered works that you do not convey, without conditions so long as your license otherwise remains in force. You may convey covered works to others for the sole purpose of having them make modifications exclusively for you, or provide you with facilities for running those works, provided that you comply with the terms of this License in conveying all material for which you do not control copyright. Those thus making or running the covered works for you must do so exclusively on your behalf, under your direction and control, on terms that prohibit them from making any copies of your copyrighted material outside their relationship with you.
    -END

    I'm not in anyway close to a lawyer =p
    so you may want to call the SFC and ask them about it
    http://www.softwarefreedom.org/about/contact/

    --
    Someday we'll hit the human carrying capacity. And the band will just play on.
  36. my thoughts by LetterRip · · Score: 1

    NAL, but here is my interpretation

    1) The work you did prior to being employed by them belongs to you. Unless you agreed to assign those copyrights beforehand they have no rights to that code. In practice proving what was yours before hand might be difficult.
    2) The work you did for them is a derivative work. While they have rights to the new code (depends on the specific laws but generally that is the case), they have no right to your original code so it might well be useless without the original code.
    3) The GPL clause only kicks in on distribution - non distributed changes are not required to be GPLed
    4) If they use the GPL librarys and distribute the code, then they would be obligated to distribute the code changes

  37. Where did you develop the initial code? by xploraiswakco · · Score: 1

    "I am a recent graduate, and I've been working on my own on a project that uses GPL-licensed libraries..."

    Where you started with coding can have some issues too, if the code you developed on your own was also developed on university computers they may have some claim to that too, especially if you developed the code for an assignment or something similar. This too can be dependant on factors such as the country you are in, and how it may relate to the license the libraries are under.

    In the end, as long as the employer has no intention of distributing your code, then they own all the code you have developed for them, and as for GPL or LGPL licensed libraries, there should be no violation issues.

    1. Re:Where did you develop the initial code? by xploraiswakco · · Score: 1

      I forgot to add, what also needs to be remembered is that Universities make a lot of money from Patents and Copyrights on work they have done through research and other means, so it make plenty of sense that a University is less likely to be interested releasing code under BSD or GPL type licenses.

  38. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by MichaelSmith · · Score: 2, Insightful

    I'd also like to note that I work for a large company that knowingly pays me to do exactly this all day. I write proprietary software using GPL libraries and such all day. We just don't distribute it.

    That could come back to bite them quite badly. What if one department gets spun off as an independent business at some point in the future? Not solving this problem up front could create some hidden costs for your employer.

  39. Your employer owns the work they pay you to do by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Why is code so different? I worked on a construction site. I would like to open the building up to shelter the homeless, but now my employer is saying that the building I worked on belongs to them!!!

  40. Release it and damn their eyes by Rogerborg · · Score: 0, Troll

    Your employer is (very likely) paying you out of my tax money. I - and you, and her, and everyone else - owns that code, not them.

    --
    If you were blocking sigs, you wouldn't have to read this.
  41. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by rtfa-troll · · Score: 1

    All the work you did for them belongs to them.

    You don't know that. You are just guessing. He was "hired" but what does that mean? What does his contract say? Lots of people are hired to work on things which don't belong to their employer. He says "I did start the project on my own. And, since no written or verbal agreement was ever made to transfer copyright over to my employer"; that means that their software is a derivative work of software which is legitimately his copyright. Who owns the development after that point may be more complex. Most likely them. Depending on where he is he should probably resign now and send a cease and desist notice asking them to immediately destroy all unlicensed copies of his software. It's probably a complex decision which will depend exactly on what who said to who when, but on the information in the summary you can't make that decision.

    --
    =~ s,(.*),<sarcasm>$1</sarcasm>,g if any_point_you_wish();
  42. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by SplashMyBandit · · Score: 1

    Yes, the the employer has no rights to the code written *before* you were hired. That is copyright to you. All the stuff you wrote while working for them is theirs.

  43. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by tapanitarvainen · · Score: 1

    All the work you did for them belongs to them. [...] You have no rights to do whatever you want with the code you wrote for them.

    It depends on the jurisdiction, and possibly what kind of employer it is. In particular governmental and some other public employers have restrictions in some countries - e.g., in Finland university teachers and researchers have copyright to what they create in their work. Also, there may be nationally binding agreements with trade unions that have similar effects on some professions.

    As a rule, though, with a private employer, and in some countries with all, you are right.

  44. Legal questions should be answered by a lawyer by hackerjoe · · Score: 4, Informative

    This is a question that can only really be answered by a lawyer familiar with your circumstances and the laws in your jurisdiction. For example, by default, in Canada, if you're hired as a contractor to produce a work, you retain the copyright on that work (or so I was taught in my 100-level Business Law class). However, I don't believe this is true in the US. It's also not true in either country if you're hired as a salaried employee.

    But really, plenty of other people will be offering legal advice, and the reality is that this matter won't go to court because it's not worth the time or money for you or the university. You can get a lawyer's opinion that you're in the clear to release your work, but even that's only so helpful to you -- if you threaten or bully your employer, that may just set them against you. (On the other hand, it may be just the thing! Maybe they need to see that you won't be pushed around. Different people respond to different tactics.)

    The most elegant solution to your problem is politics. Convince your boss's boss and your boss's respected colleagues that your work would be better off shared -- people's opinions are ultimately derived from the opinions of the people they respect. You've made good use of an open-source base, right? Make sure they understand that there's value in tapping into that community. Allay their fears. Show them the positive side. Get people on your side.

    If you can swing this right, it won't matter what the legalities are because the one of the university's officers will sign a waiver disclaiming interest in the code and you'll be in the clear for sure -- and your boss will be pleased at having done something good.

    Sure, you should have got the signature before you started working; then you wouldn't have to spend cycles on this problem. Still, it may be fixable.

    And if that doesn't work, just remember: the implementation is twice as good and ten times as quick to write when you've done it once before!

    1. Re:Legal questions should be answered by a lawyer by butlerm · · Score: 1

      in Canada, if you're hired as a contractor to produce a work, you retain the copyright on that work... However, I don't believe this is true in the US.

      It is true in the US as well. Contractors automatically retain copyright unless otherwise provided for by contract. That doesn't mean the customer won't have an implied license, of course, just not the copyright.

  45. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    That could come back to bite them quite badly. What if one department gets spun off as an independent business at some point in the future? Not solving this problem up front could create some hidden costs for your employer.

    why would this be an issue? I believe the GPL only obligates the distributor to provide source code to the distributee, not the rest of the world. Assuming said spinoff gets to retain access to the source code and modify the product however they want internally, then there is still no violation.

  46. The contract didn't convey copyrights by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 2, Informative

    The contract didn't convey copyrights, therefore the copyrights are still his, NOT his employer.

    Copyrights must be transferred by explicit contract. Not "oh, you paid me, so I guess your demand must be right".

    Since the work contains GPL stuff, the university get a non-transferrable license to the combined work and a transferrable right to distribute/sell to others under the GPL.

    Absent any contract specifying ownership transfers, it's still the author owns copyright.

    NOTE: if the university don't abide by the GPL they are in license violation even if the contract DID convey copyrights unless they have the GPL part taken out.

    This is no different tan any other copyright license.

    1. Re:The contract didn't convey copyrights by Rary · · Score: 1

      If he's a contractor, then the contract must be explicit, but if he's an employee, it's automatically considered "work-for-hire", and therefore the employer is the legal "author" of the work.

      --

      "You cannot simultaneously prevent and prepare for war." -- Albert Einstein

  47. Doesn't matter what they want by Nitage · · Score: 1

    It doesn't matter what they want - you're in a much stronger position than them.
    The copyright on the original, developed before you were employed by them, very probably belongs to you. The final project is a derived work of this original. Distribution of a derived work requires the consent of the copyright holder of both the original and derived work - you can prevent them from distributing the project at all (even internally) by refusing to grant a license of the original work. Simply 'remind' them that they do not currently have the right to use the final project at all.

  48. An easier problem than they have with BSA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 2, Informative

    An easier problem than they have with BSA. After all, the spun off company won't have the original license and that original license will have the parent company on it not the spin-off. Therefore they'll need a new license for all commercial software.

    This is an additional cost for the company when spinning off a branch.

    NOTE: the GPL is satisfied if BOTH the parent and the spin-off get GPL rights to the code. This doesn't cost anything.

    1. Re:An easier problem than they have with BSA by bws111 · · Score: 1

      The BSA 'problem' is actually much easier for businesses to deal with. All they have to do is pay, and the problem goes away. With GPL you have the much more distasteful requirement to give up YOUR work, which may represent a significant investment and may contain things you consider trade secrets. Furthermore, the spun off company can do anything they want with that code, including release it to your competitors. I have been involved in a situation where the presence of GPL code was the deal breaker, as the spun off company required the application, and the parent was not willing to give up their IP. In that case, the solution was to remove all the GPL bits and use closed-source libraries. The lesson coming out of that was 'don't use GPL code period'.

    2. Re:An easier problem than they have with BSA by spitzak · · Score: 1

      What a load of bullshit.

      The breakup contract could have contained a requirement that the spun off company only use the application for internal use and never distribute it.

      You are lying and this is a piece of FUD.

    3. Re:An easier problem than they have with BSA by bws111 · · Score: 1

      Please point to the section of the GPL that authorizes that. The lawyers in this case said that the spin-off would amount to a redistribution (it is now a different company, same reason they would need new commercial licenses). The GPL (V2) explicitly says:

      6. Each time you redistribute the Program (or any work based on the Program), the recipient automatically receives a license from the original licensor to copy, distribute or modify the Program subject to these terms and conditions. You may not impose any further restrictions on the recipients' exercise of the rights granted herein. You are not responsible for enforcing compliance by third parties to this License.

      Notice that 'you may not impose any further restrictions' line. There goes your contract.

    4. Re:An easier problem than they have with BSA by spitzak · · Score: 1

      That's bogus, your reading would disallow internal redistribution of the program, which the FSF has clearly stated is allowed.

    5. Re:An easier problem than they have with BSA by Kalriath · · Score: 1

      It's allowed because internal distribution of the program is not distribution - it's within a single legal entity.

      The GP's claim is at first glance correct, however a lawyer would need to confirm it. Such as the GP's employer's lawyers.

      --
      For a site about things like basic rights, Slashdot users sure do like to censor "dissent".
  49. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    That could come back to bite them quite badly.

    FUD.

    It'll get sorted out like any other license problem, commercial or non-commercial. It's no big deal.

  50. The specifics matter... a lot. by Just+Brew+It! · · Score: 1

    It is impossible to say what's right here without knowing a lot more about the situation. Are the libraries GPL or LGPL licensed? Are you merely linking with the libraries, or is this product a modified version of one or more of the libraries? Is it being distributed outside your employer's organization, or only being used internally?

  51. One quibble by Estanislao+Mart�nez · · Score: 1

    1. Alice starts a GPL project.
    2. Bob hires Alice to write an extension to the GPL project.
    3. During her employ (or before, it doesn't matter) Alice uses some GPL libraries written by Claire.
    4. Alice leaves Bob's employ.

    FACT 1: Bob owns all the changes Alice made while in his employ.
    FACT 2: Alice had no right to distribute changes owned by Bob.
    FACT 3: Bob is not obligated to distribute the changes.
    FACT 4: As the GPL only relates to distribution, not use, Bob is free to use the software.
    FACT 5: If Bob later distributes the changes without placing those changes under the GPL, both Alice and Claire can sue him.

    This strikes me as mostly correct, except that it's not clear to me that (1) is quite accurate in the submitter's case. We don't have the details here, but my money would be that the submitter's situation is more like the following: when Alice started using her original code under the employ of Bob, she didn't tell Bob in any way that she was licensing that code to him under GPL--and in fact, I would bet that there was no conversation about licensing at all. So Bob has some sort of implicit, non-GPL license to Alice's original code, that allows him to at least use the code and modify it for his own uses.

    The legal resolution of this situation would come down to either getting Alice and Bob to explicitly agree after the fact on what that license is, or failing that, having a judge decide it. My guess, however (and I am very much NAL), is that Bob can't claim that he has an implicit license to distribute Alice's code, since the contract between them (I guess) doesn't give Alice any special consideration that could be construed as compensation for granting such a license. In simpler terms, if Bob wants to claim strong rights over Alice's original code, and he can't prove that she explicitly granted him those rights, he better be able to prove that at least he somehow paid or compensated him for that code beyond what he paid her to extend it.

  52. Fork it! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Fork it from the version before they hired you.

  53. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by SuperDre · · Score: 0

    But I think you misunderstand something.. You can perfectly write proprietary software using GPL libraries and distribute it, the only part which you also need to publish is any alterations to the used libraries. So if you only USE libraries you can keep your own code closed source (or not distribute the sourcecode)..

  54. Mod Parent Up by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    If they do not distribute the extensions to the public, then you have no right to publish it. If, however, they distribute the extensions in any form, they must comply with the licenses of the libraries you referred to (the ones your project originally relied on.) If those libraries are GPL, they must include all their code under GPL (and if those libraries are LGPL, they must not statically link them.)

    I'm assuming here that you never publicly released the code you worked on before you were hired; in this case, your code was never released so it was never under any license, and you would have a hard time proving which parts of the code belong to you. As others have said, the most important part here is whether you actually released any source code before you were hired.

  55. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by gnasher719 · · Score: 2, Insightful

    That could come back to bite them quite badly. What if one department gets spun off as an independent business at some point in the future? Not solving this problem up front could create some hidden costs for your employer.

    One thing to remember if you don't worry about the source code itself, but about obligations that you might enter into by using GPL'd software: By distributing executable + source code _together_ you have done everything that the GPL demands from you. Nobody has any rights towards you at all. So if you spin off another company, give them the executable and the source code.

    If you don't do it that way, then suddenly _anybody_ in the world has the right to request source code from you.

  56. Internally? by Weezul · · Score: 1

    I'd say most people interpret the GPL's distribution requirements as only applying once the project has been distributed externally.

    --
    The Christian religion has been and still is the principal enemy of moral progress in the world. -- Bertrand Russell
  57. FSF has no automatic standing to sue. by Estanislao+Mart�nez · · Score: 2, Informative

    FACT 6: if the Bob is a big enough entity then the FSF may decided to sue Bob

    The FSF does not have standing to sue unless they own Alice's work that Bob is distributing. Alice would have to assign copyright of her code to the FSF for them to be able to do so.

  58. Do a "code rewrite" by GC · · Score: 1

    Leave the university and do a "code rewrite", as long as they can't prove you copy and pasted the work that you did under their employment, they have little legal standing and unless this is a real programming gem I doubt they will send the lawyers after you... just look at what happenned to SCO.

  59. You do not have the right to release the code by abigsmurf · · Score: 1

    Even if they do violate the GPL and distribute the program, you do not have any right to release the code against your employer's wishes (only a judge has the ability to force the release of code). If you do so, you will be sued or possibly charged under trade secret laws.

    Everything you've coded is your employer's property and although the GPL may supersede their ownership rights, there is still a hierarchy of rights of which you are not a part of.

    1. Re:You do not have the right to release the code by mikechant · · Score: 1

      Even if they do violate the GPL and distribute the program, you do not have any right to release the code against your employer's wishes (only a judge has the ability to force the release of code).

      Wrong. No judge has the ability to force the code release. The judge can order:
      a) Damages (for distributing a derived work of someone else's GPL code without permission - the 'permission' being dependant on following the GPL - i.e. the damages are for past copyright violation)
      b) Cease and desist (stop distributing the derived work, - i.e. you must stop current and future copyright violation in relation to the GPL code without permission to distribute).

      The employer/defendant can *volunteer* to the plaintiff to provide the relevant source of the entire derived work in order to persuade the plantiff to withdraw their case. The judge *cannot* (legally) force the employer to release any source code which they hold the copyright to.

      Everything you've coded is your employer's property and although the GPL may supersede their ownership rights

      As per above, the GPL never supercedes your ownership rights for code you hold the copyright for.

      The GPL is really quite simple in respect of legal penalties. In the event of violation, standard copyright law applies.

  60. what's yours is yours. by cas2000 · · Score: 5, Interesting

    consult a lawyer, but IMO the key thing you said is:

    "I did start the project on my own. And, since no written or verbal agreement was ever made to transfer copyright over to my employer, I question whether they can claim that they now own the extended version of the project."

    it was yours to start with. they paid you to do some extra work on it. there was no transfer of license.

    they may "own" any of the work-for-hire stuff you did while employed by them (depends on the nature of the employment - usually, in simple terms, if you're a contractor, you own your work but if you're an employee, they do) BUT THEY DO NOT OWN THE COPYRIGHT, AND THEY DO NOT OWN YOUR PRIOR WORK.

    BTW verbal agreements are worth the paper they're written on - doesn't matter what they claim you said, if they can't produce a signed transfer agreement, it means nothing. same as if an employer verbally agrees that you will get paid quadruple for working overtime, unless that's standard practice where you work it's unenforcable unless it's in writing. and same as if the salesman says you can opt out of the contract at any time for any reason without penalty - if it's not what the contract says, it means nothing.

    never trust a verbal agreement. they're worthless. this is true anywhere, not just in employment.

    BTW, crap like this is why i *NEVER* sign an employment agreement without carefully looking at the clauses to do with ownership of work. if it says anything other than "what i do during work time on work equipment is yours, what i do on my time on my own equipment is mine" i send it back for another edit. i've had one or two bosses quibble about that until I ask them if they want to start paying me for 24 hours a day rather than 7.25.

    (that question was always a good answer to the occasional managerial whinges about long hair and beard too)

    1. Re:what's yours is yours. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 5, Interesting

      never trust a verbal agreement. they're worthless. this is true anywhere, not just in employment.

      Unless you're getting married, which - at least in Australia if not other jurisdictions - is legally defined as a verbal agreement.

    2. Re:what's yours is yours. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      IAAL, but not yours. This is not legal advice, if its worth anything to you, hire a lawyer.

      I'd be careful to say verbal contracts are unenforceable. They can be enforceable. True, there are cases where you have both a written and verbal contract and the verbal contract is unenforceable. But that's more likely the result of an integration clause in the written contract which says briefly, "only the written contract matters and replaces anything before (including prior written contracts and things said on the side)."

      The biggest issue with verbal contracts is that it becomes "he said, she said." However, if both sides agree something was said, then you may be bound by that.

      Of course, the biggest reason you should get anything in writing is it prevents a whole lot of legal fees trying to prove something in court.

    3. Re:what's yours is yours. by noidentity · · Score: 1

      Before he started the project, there were the GPL libraries, whose copyright is held by some third party. Once he started it, he added code whose copyright he holds. Now the company has added its own code. The author doesn't own this new code, regardless of whether he wrote it, since it was a work-for-hire. Thus the only the latest version of this project can be distributed is if all three copyright holders allow it. The first two do, but the third (the company) does not, therefore this three-party-contributor project cannot be distributed. Again, who wrote the third additions is irrelevant, just who holds the copyright to it.

    4. Re:what's yours is yours. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      consult a lawyer, but IMO the key thing you said is:

      "I did start the project on my own. And, since no written or verbal agreement was ever made to transfer copyright over to my employer, I question whether they can claim that they now own the extended version of the project."

      it was yours to start with. they paid you to do some extra work on it. there was no transfer of license.

      they may "own" any of the work-for-hire stuff you did while employed by them (depends on the nature of the employment - usually, in simple terms, if you're a contractor, you own your work but if you're an employee, they do) BUT THEY DO NOT OWN THE COPYRIGHT, AND THEY DO NOT OWN YOUR PRIOR WORK.

      They may not even own the work done for them unless they had a work for hire agreement. Given this: "And, since no written or verbal agreement was ever made to transfer copyright over to my employer, " I would say it's all the OPs. Still, consult a lawyer if it comes down to it.

    5. Re:what's yours is yours. by Pharmboy · · Score: 1

      I believe that an "oral contract", as it is called in the US, is never considered valid for longer than one year, and is hard to enforce as the two people often disagree as to the content of the agreement.

      There is also an old expression here in the states: "An oral contract isn't worth the paper it's written on."

      --
      Tequila: It's not just for breakfast anymore!
    6. Re:what's yours is yours. by BitZtream · · Score: 1

      f you're a contractor, you own your work but if you're an employee, they do) BUT THEY DO NOT OWN THE COPYRIGHT, AND THEY DO NOT OWN YOUR PRIOR WORK.

      Not sure what country you live in, but in most cases if you're hired to do work, the employer gives you a specific task and you work on it, the employer pays you for it, the copyright automatically transfers to the employer, its an assumption the law makes in order to cut down on a bunch of paperwork.

      Only on slashdot would it be assumed to be any other way.

      BTW verbal agreements are worth the paper they're written on

      Wrong. In most states in the US and many other countries around the world verbal agreements are just as enforcable as a written contract. All you need is proof, such as a recording or a wittness. This is why cell phone companies require you to call in and listen to their agreements and press 1 or whatever before you sign the paper contract as well. Verbal contracts are VERY enforcable. As long as you can prove your side (or they can prove theirs).

      BTW, crap like this is why i *NEVER* sign an employment agreement without carefully looking at the clauses to do with ownership of work.

      Common sense is why you shouldn't sign anything you haven't read and understood completely. Doing otherwise makes you an idiot.

      --
      Persistent Volume manager for Kubernetes - https://github.com/dwimsey/openshift-pvmanager
    7. Re:what's yours is yours. by godrik · · Score: 1

      In french laws, there a bunch of "oral contract". Actually, buying a sandwich is an oral contract according to french law.

    8. Re:what's yours is yours. by steelfood · · Score: 1

      I have one word: infidelity.

      You can't trust a verbal agreement. That's why people who have stuff to lose get prenuptials.

      --
      "If a nation expects to be ignorant and free in a state of civilization, it expects what never was and never will be."
    9. Re:what's yours is yours. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Well yeah but that's because if you don't stick to your vows your SO can make your life a living hell...be a bitch 24/7...and blame it all on you.

    10. Re:what's yours is yours. by ari_j · · Score: 1

      Pet peeve: Written agreements are verbal, too. Unwritten agreements can be either oral (what the parent meant to refer to) or tacit. Only tacit agreements are nonverbal.

      Oral agreements are very much enforceable as a general rule in common law countries, such as England, the United States, Canada, and Australia. The question is whether a specific oral agreement is enforceable, and that depends on a variety of factors in all those places. What makes oral agreements worth less (note the space) than written agreements is not that they are oral but rather the difficulty of proving exactly which words are part of the agreement.

      For that reason, when it comes to copyright to work that you are doing and started before you were hired, you really do want a written contract that spells out exactly who owns the copyright to which things. Of course, the submitter didn't mention how much work he had actually done before he was hired to finish it, and that's going to be a major concern. If you made a couple of UML diagrams and created a MySQL database with a few tables but didn't write any application logic, it's going to be hard to claim copyright to the code you wrote for the project. If it was all done other than a user-friendly interface and they hired you to make the UI, then it's a different situation altogether.

  61. Read your contract first! by mcvos · · Score: 1

    You should have read your contract before you signed it, but if you didn't, then now is definitely the time to do it.

    Does the contract say anything about who owns the code you write during working hours? Does it say anything about who owns the code you write during off-hours? And, since the project was apparently based on a private project that existed before employment started, does the contract say anything about that?

    If the contract doesn't say anything, then the employer probably doesn't own any of the pre-existing code, and can only use it with your permission (though you should always check what kind of weird legalities exist in your legislation). Maybe permission was implicitly given, but who knows, it might still give you some leverage. You might be able to claim that your implicit permission was based on the equally implicit assumption that the rest of the code would become part of the same (open source?) code base.

    1. Re:Read your contract first! by znerk · · Score: 2, Interesting

      You might be able to claim that your implicit permission was based on the equally implicit assumption that the rest of the code would become part of the same (open source?) code base.

      Oooh, that could be a sweet end-run.

      --
      This work is licensed under a Creative Commons Attribution 3.0 Unported License.
    2. Re:Read your contract first! by Glonoinha · · Score: 1

      He could go all SCO on them and decide after the fact to charge them $700 per user for license fees on the original (pre-employment) code ... probably get him fired, but if there are 5000+ users of the code it would be worth it.

      --
      Glonoinha the MebiByte Slayer
    3. Re:Read your contract first! by eleuthero · · Score: 1

      only if he's content never to work in his chosen field anywhere ever again... blackballing is still done... 3.5 mil is not much of a retirement nest egg if you are only recently a college grad

    4. Re:Read your contract first! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Assuming a moderate return of 8% (which would probably be more in reality, since the market is so low at this point), it's pretty substantial.

      Tuition costs, what? $35,000 a year with no financial aid at a top-level college?

      If he can't make at least a 1% annual return on that money, he's pretty dumb. So why not go back to college?

    5. Re:Read your contract first! by eleuthero · · Score: 1

      sorry... I was thinking of the government taking half (1.75 mil left) and then thinking of other costs he would have to face before he could use any of it... and by using it, he would lose the needed 3-5% for inflation ... but you are right... he should be fine. ... just depressed and annoyed at having no ability to work in his chosen field.

    6. Re:Read your contract first! by rtfa-troll · · Score: 1

      Once he has an independent income, he can volunteer work on open source projects until he gets to the point of being a well known maintainer for an important part of something valuable. At that point he should be able to pick up plenty of freelance work.

      --
      =~ s,(.*),<sarcasm>$1</sarcasm>,g if any_point_you_wish();
  62. The code still belongs to them under any license by bug1 · · Score: 1

    "the department's position was that copyright of the whole thing belonged to them"

    It doesnt matter what license the department releases the code under, it will still belong to them, only a license transfer will make it not theres.

    If they merge other peoples copyrighted work with theres then neither party owns the copyright to the whole thing.

    Maybe suggest releasing the code but maintain there own seperate fork, it would provide some accountability/transparency, might help with feedback and bug reports.

    It could allow "outsiders" to experiment in taking the code in new directions that management are risk/averse to, if it works out then the company can implement feature/idea with there own money (being careful not to infringe).

  63. employee vs contractor by WarJolt · · Score: 1

    work done as an employee is typically owned by the employer, but it's my understanding contractors own the copyright unless specified in the contract. They are self employed and can distribute code with whatever terms they agree upon.

  64. it depends on many things... by GNUPublicLicense · · Score: 1

    It depends on the country laws, contract and employer.

    My contract is based on french telecom legal template which says:
    - code specific to the assigned work: all copyrights belong to the employer.
    - code *not* specific to any assigned work:copyrigths are shared by the employer and the employee (you need an agreement to work on that code). Namely if the employee departs from the company, he will keep the copyrights.

    Of course, there may be more about this in the french law (I was told, french copyrights on code always belong to the employee). And of course, an employer aware of the open source ways would let the copyrights go to the employee or at least be shared.

    The main issue with the shared copyrights: the employer would have the right to close the code produced by the employee. And that's a very big issue for GNU GPL coders! You know... those guys who want to have the best open source code installed by default on all systems.

  65. Black knight solution: by e70838 · · Score: 1

    Use the identity of someone else to contribute to the GPL project.

  66. Oh, of course -copyright- belongs to them... by SharpFang · · Score: 1

    But they MUST keep the code GPL, because it's based on GPL code.
    GPL clearly states even the owner of copyright on given work can't remove GPL from it.

    By hiring you to continue to work on a GPL'd code, they set themselves up for it. The code still IS GPL.

    The worst they can do is to keep it "closeware", e.g. GPL code used only internally, never distributed at all. But if even one copy ever "leaks", it's out in the wild and free for all.

    --
    45 5F E1 04 22 CA 29 C4 93 3F 95 05 2B 79 2A B2
    1. Re:Oh, of course -copyright- belongs to them... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      GPL clearly states even the owner of copyright on given work can't remove GPL from it.

      That's a little bit misleading. As the sole author you'd be in possession of an unlicensed version of the program and you could give that to the employer instead. It doesn't matter if the source files have some random text prepended to them (such as the GPL).

    2. Re:Oh, of course -copyright- belongs to them... by SharpFang · · Score: 1

      Yes, still -
      1. -YOU- decide which version you give the employer, unless they asked for non-GPL one explicitly. You can retroactively decide which one was that. They can't retroactively request you to change.
      2. If your work is derivative of other GPL'd works, you don't have any unlicensed versions.
      3. If you received any community contributions, they were to GPL'd version.
      4. Even then the snapshot from the moment your employer first asked you for continued development can be released as GPL.

      and besides, them being an educational institution means them withholding the data from the public goes against being funded from the public money.

      --
      45 5F E1 04 22 CA 29 C4 93 3F 95 05 2B 79 2A B2
    3. Re:Oh, of course -copyright- belongs to them... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Well, I don't disagree with any of that. Just pointing that the excuse "Oh, I would happily let you proprietarize my software, but I'm not allowed to" isn't necessarily true.

    4. Re:Oh, of course -copyright- belongs to them... by butlerm · · Score: 1

      But if even one copy ever "leaks", it's out in the wild and free for all.

      Not true. There is no such thing as a viral license. The only remedy against violation of the GPL is to sue the violator. Then if they remedy the problem by licensing their additions under the GPL, you can use it. Until then, you are just violating their copyright as well as the copyright of the original contributors. Nothing is ever automatically placed under the GPL.

    5. Re:Oh, of course -copyright- belongs to them... by Lunix+Nutcase · · Score: 1

      GPL clearly states even the owner of copyright on given work can't remove GPL from it.

      Bullshit and even if it did say such a thing it would be unenforceable. The copyright owner to a piece of software can change the license at any time on their whim no matter what the original license or any subsequent licenses it is changed to. What the GPL says is that you can not revoke the GPL license off of previous versions of the work.

    6. Re:Oh, of course -copyright- belongs to them... by SharpFang · · Score: 1

      ...or derivatives of GPL versions.

      Guy A writes a nice small program. He releases it under GPL, then promptly dies under a bus. Now guy B takes over the development. Nope, he can't revoke GPL.

      The whole gist of "changing the license" is possible only if you're the original author and didn't use contributions or other GPL code in your project: you hold a "closeware" app and two branches: proprietary and GPL. You don't develop any of the branches only the closeware, and just branch out new versions. (in practice there is no 3 code bases... but you can't relicense 3rd party contributions to your GPL codebase as proprietary.)

      --
      45 5F E1 04 22 CA 29 C4 93 3F 95 05 2B 79 2A B2
    7. Re:Oh, of course -copyright- belongs to them... by SharpFang · · Score: 1

      Wait, am I violating their copyright on a code they keep in violation of license they got that code under?

      If I steal a bag of cocaine from a drug dealer, can the drug dealer ask the Police for help in recovering the stolen property?

      --
      45 5F E1 04 22 CA 29 C4 93 3F 95 05 2B 79 2A B2
    8. Re:Oh, of course -copyright- belongs to them... by Lunix+Nutcase · · Score: 1

      Guy A writes a nice small program. He releases it under GPL, then promptly dies under a bus. Now guy B takes over the development. Nope, he can't revoke GPL.

      Which is an entirely different situation then to what I responded. You stated that the GPL deprives the owner of the copyright to a work the right to relicense their code to another license. This is flat out false and is an unenforceable clause.

    9. Re:Oh, of course -copyright- belongs to them... by butlerm · · Score: 1

      Wait, am I violating their copyright on a code they keep in violation of license they got that code under?

      "Keeping" code is not a violation of a license like the GPL. Distributing a derived work without providing source code and similar license terms is. If you distribute that same derived work prior to the grant of such a license, now you are violating multiple copyrights - those of the original authors and those of the new ones. Both could sue you and win.

    10. Re:Oh, of course -copyright- belongs to them... by SharpFang · · Score: 1

      Guy B turns the tiny proggy into a huge application of which the original is maybe 1% of functionality.
      He has all the copyright on the remaining 99% of the code. Nope, can't de-GPL.
      Worse, he can't even rewrite the remaining 1% now to remove GPL. The rest of the application contracted GPL from that piece virally.

      --
      45 5F E1 04 22 CA 29 C4 93 3F 95 05 2B 79 2A B2
  67. Re:IANAL either but. by gd23ka · · Score: 1

    If they own the copyright they can choose not to license it under the GPL to the public. They can then choose to delete the
    entire source tree. I'm not too sure if they can't also compile the source files into binaries but assuming they can, where the
    buck stops is linking with GPL licensed code that is not explicitly covered by the LGPL. Right. No linking allowed. Whatever
    they do, if the executable contains GPL licensed code they can not run it. Even debugging the program and even if they
    step only through non-GPL code, it's not permissible. To the IANAL who said the GPL kicks in when you distribute it, that
    is not true. You shall have no use of GPL code even for internal in-house purposes unless you fulfill all stipulations in the GPL.
    For example when you modify GPL code (a single character in a source file is enough) and even if you just use that in-house
    you are required to publish the modification or the license grant by the copyright holder is null and void.

    In short they can either try and replace whatever GPL code there is if that's at all feasible or they can choose to scrap it
    entirely. If the portion of code that is _possibly_ owned by the university is useful or can be easily made useful by itself
    then they are free to do that as well and choose to do with that what they will.

  68. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Rene+S.+Hollan · · Score: 0, Troll

    You have to distribute source with binaries or offer to provide source to anyone who asks, good for three years. (at least for GPL 2). There is a small exception for academic institutions to only have to provide source to direct recipients of binaries, IIRC. Been a while since I read the GPL.

    --
    In Liberty, Rene
  69. Re:Part-time employer lays claim to your other wor by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    How intelligent - suggesting that someone blatantly violate copyright law in order to release code they don't own the rights to under GPL...

  70. I may be being a bit pedantic here but by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Did you start the project as part of your course, or was it totally outside the University? Your post suggests that it was outside of Uni but if it was for your final year project or some such thing, then the Uni probably own it all, not just the parts you implemented while working as a staff member. I remember that all the code I wrote for any course work was owned by the Uni not me. Somewhere in the course literature there is the small print that few people read, usually at some point above where you sign your name.

  71. They might own teh copyright by Chrisq · · Score: 1

    As I see it the situation is this:

    Poster has small GPL project
    Poster takes employment to develop project into a solution
    Employer claims copyright of solution and original GPL code incorporated


    Now as the author of the code the poster could release it to someone on terms other than GPL (dual licensing). The question is whether he has done so, intentionally or otherwise. It is certainly possible that the contract of employment said that all the copyright of all sources used in the solution will belong to them. The only ting they can't do is remove the GPL from the original project, other people will still have the right to use and develop that.

  72. Try to get permission to copy just one time by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    If you can prove that your program is a modification of a GPL'ed program or if it uses GPL (not LGPL) libraries, then getting permission to give away, or even better, sell, just one copy of the program to another entity, would mean the source could be free afterwards: you would have the obligation to hand over the source under GPL as well.

    So try to find a party that will buy the software, and would free the source afterwards.

    Please note, that it's not enough to sell the software within your university; nor would it help to sell the software to another party that is not interested in freeing the source (because that would just get you two organisations using your imprisoned code).

  73. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by aiht · · Score: 1

    That's LGPL.

  74. There's a lesson here... by SmarterThanMe · · Score: 1

    Any time you work where you are producing intellectual property, you should insist on conditions (on paper) that allow you to retain rights where they are generated. If you have a brain that they want badly enough, they're not going to say no. I do (admittedly I don't work with FOSS) and no employer has worried about it yet.

  75. IANAL but I've read the FAQ by jschottm · · Score: 1

    For example when you modify GPL code (a single character in a source file is enough) and even if you just use that in-house
    you are required to publish the modification or the license grant by the copyright holder is null and void.

    You're wrong.

    http://www.gnu.org/licenses/gpl-faq.html#GPLRequireSourcePostedPublic

    "The GPL does not require you to release your modified version, or any part of it. You are free to make modifications and use them privately, without ever releasing them. This applies to organizations (including companies), too; an organization can make a modified version and use it internally without ever releasing it outside the organization."

  76. depends where you wrote it by Bizzeh · · Score: 1

    if you wrote the software using the employers time and resources, its their project and you had no right to decide on the licence without their consultation anyway. if you wrote it on your own time and resources and you decided that the GPL was the licence to go with, you have a conflict or interests in bringing that software into your employer. the only real way to get around this is to have two seperate branches of the product, the closed product for the employer and the open source gpl version that you produce in your own time

  77. The FSF has advice on this by janwedekind · · Score: 1

    I hope http://www.gnu.org/philosophy/university.html helps. You may also ask the funding body for help if it is an external one. Finally there is the Freedom Of Information Act. But first try to resolve this within the institution you are working for. Resolving means that you get a copyright disclaimer.

  78. It seems pretty clear by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    You can do whatever you want with the code you originally brought into the project.
    What you have developed since is basically just a huge patch for which the copyright belongs to your employer.

    Thei are not in GPL violation as long as they do not distribute the software.

    Your employer is wrong, when he states that the have copyright of the whole thing. They don't own your original code, but it doesn't really matter much.

  79. It's not yours IT's MINE! by Ozlanthos · · Score: 1

    Why dumbasses fall for all that "your work done here doesn't belong to you" bs, I will never know. Unless you expressly give ownership of your copyrighted works over to your employer via contract or other legally-binding paperwork, if it is your "original work" IT IS YOUR IP!!! As it is "your" IP, they have no right over it's use (unless you've entered into a service contract or licensing agreement previous to it's creation), or distribution! However in the case of GPL libs and such, I believe that even "YOU" are not legally capable of re-distributing it (unless you've credited the "creator" with contribution ($$$) or attribution (some note in your code attributing the material's creation to it's "real" creator) , so your employer's claim of ownership of the GPL'd sections is faulty and moot.

    -Oz

  80. Key words: by znerk · · Score: 1

    The key words here are:

    no written or verbal agreement was ever made to transfer copyright over to my employer

    No contract = no copyright transference. I am not a lawyer, I am not your lawyer, talk to a lawyer before doing anything else; but in my opinion, the employer doesn't have a leg to stand on in this instance.

    --
    This work is licensed under a Creative Commons Attribution 3.0 Unported License.
    1. Re:Key words: by butlerm · · Score: 1

      no written or verbal agreement was ever made to transfer copyright over to my employer

      As I understand it, it is impossible to transfer a copyright with a verbal agreement:

      "A transfer of copyright ownership, other than by operation of law, is not valid unless an instrument of conveyance, or a note or memorandum of the transfer, is in writing and signed by the owner of the rights conveyed or such owner's duly authorized agent." (17 USC 204)

  81. Original code is yours by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Release the code you wrote before you were employed as GPL licensed code. That code belongs to you, you can do what you want with it, and while they might like to claim ownership of it, the only way they can do that, is if you give it to them. Read through your contact as well . . . .

  82. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Informative

    I don't know which country you are in but in the UK for example, this is just not true. Copyright absolutely rests with the creator unless there is an explicit transfer of ownership stated in the employment contract. Any part of the work he created before joining them is his. Anything he created while working for them only belongs to them if the appropriate clause is in the employment contract.

  83. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by wrook · · Score: 1

    This is somewhat pedantic, but I think it is important to point out that you are writing free software. You are giving your "customer" (i.e., employer) all the freedoms necessary to be free software. You're even giving them the copyright (I assume). You can't get any more free than that from your perspective. Whether or not they choose to distribute it further is their business. They are perfectly free to do so under the GPL. But they don't have to if they don't want to. That is their freedom.

    Of course it is also proprietary, meaning that your employer holds exclusive rights to the software and these freedoms. Because they are the only users of the software, free and proprietary are not mutually exclusive. Again, while this pedantic, I think it's important for people to understand what "free as in freedom" really means. Doing what you are doing is perfectly fine from a free software perspective.

  84. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Gaygirlie · · Score: 1

    This is somewhat confusing to me. The person in this question started the project on his own, BEFORE he started working for the university. As such, shouldn't he still own the copyright for it unless he explicitly transferred the copyright over to them?

    Atleast all the code he had written before he started working for them are his as far as I can understand, but how about the code he has written afterwards? It is still part of a project he started and owned.

  85. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by KDR_11k · · Score: 1

    Also doesn't every recipient of the binary+source get permission to redistribute that?

    --
    Justice is the sheep getting arrested while an impartial judge declares the vote void.
  86. Universitys and interlectual copywirght. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Universitys automaticaly hold interlectual copywright over any application that has been created during your time at university or at least mine did.

  87. One hint: by Schoenlepel · · Score: 1

    Read your contract. What does it say about copyrights?

    By the way: where are you located? If you're in the EU, chances are you own the copyrights.

    In short: read up on local authors rights and copyrights. Trademark laws do not apply.

    Also, do you work on this project in your own spare time? If so, chances are you can shove the GPL down the throat of your employer.

  88. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Pharmboy · · Score: 2, Informative

    Also doesn't every recipient of the binary+source get permission to redistribute that?

    Yes, they retain that right. The main point he was making is that you are only required to make the source code available to someone you gave the binaries to, not the general public. That is one point of the GPL that often gets misunderstood, you do not have to give your GPL code to the public per se, only to those who you selected to have the binaries. If they further distribute the binaries, you are not responsible to provide the source code to those 3rd parties. This means you can sell GPL binaries, and only provide direct copies of the source to those customers, and never the "public". This is a feature of the GPL, not a bug.

    --
    Tequila: It's not just for breakfast anymore!
  89. SCO as an example WRT Written Instruments by bmo · · Score: 1

    And, since no written or verbal agreement was ever made to transfer copyright over to my employer, I question whether they can claim that they now own the extended version of the project.

    In the US, transfer of copyright must be in writing. They do not own what you created on your own unless you sign something. A contract upon hire would have taken care of this. If you signed no such contract, they own bupkis.

    Let me reiterate:

    The default with regards to copyright law is that the author has copyright and it *must* require a *written instrument* to sign over copyright. The law is _very_ clear on this issue.

    This is what SCO tried to get around with the Asset Purchase Agreement. Since there was nothing saying they bought Novell's copyright to SysV Unix, they don't own it. They lost twice, once in front of a judge as a summary judgment, and later in front of a jury.

    Don't be bullied.

    Don't put up with this shit.

    --
    BMO

  90. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Jedi+Alec · · Score: 1

    You give them the source? Unless they then also intend to distribute it, what's really the problem.

    --

    People replying to my sig annoy me. That's why I change it all the time.
  91. I think that depends... by AlgorithMan · · Score: 1
    IANAL, but I think
    • if you started the project and worked on it on your worktime AFTER they hired you, then I think you didn't have the right to put the project under the GPL in the first place.
    • if you started the project and released it under the GPL BEFORE they hired you, well then I think you can release the code, because legally you did nothing but work on an open source project (like they told you to! so they can't demand the salary back because you "worked on your own stuff instead of doing work for them" or so) whose license FORCES you to release the code... they can't force you to violate the license-terms of the project, even if you are the guy who has the right to change the license - doing this was not part of your contract (right?).
    • IF your contract includes that you sign the whole project over to them, then you can't do anything, because in that case, they can revoke the license - but not retroactive! you can start over the work (on your free time) on an old version of the code and release anything that you do on your free time from that point. you can go back to the last version before they officially revoked the license.

    again, IANAL, but I think this is the way the legal system sees it...

    or to phrase this in a more technical way:
    person X releases a project P under the GPL
    Y hires a set of people Z to work on P. they develop P'
    the contract between Y and Z basically says that the people in Z sign their ip rights to the code they developed on their worktime over to Y (I think this is the point where they think you signed ALL rights to the project over?)
    but because of the license, Y must release P' to X

    I don't think this circumstance changes, just because X \in Z...

    --
    The MAFIAA is a bunch of mindless jerks who will be the first up against the wall when the revolution comes
    1. Re:I think that depends... by butlerm · · Score: 1

      because legally you did nothing but work on an open source project

      Sorry, No. Everything an employee does is a "work for hire" unless otherwise provided for by contract.

      whose license FORCES you to release the code

      Not true. You could sue them and win, and they still wouldn't have to license their additions under the GPL. They could just pay monetary damages and refrain from further outside distribution.

  92. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by vrmlguy · · Score: 1

    You have to distribute source with binaries or offer to provide source to anyone who asks, good for three years. (at least for GPL 2). There is a small exception for academic institutions to only have to provide source to direct recipients of binaries, IIRC. Been a while since I read the GPL.

    You need to go re-read the GPL then. Let me help, here's the relevant part of GPL 2:

    3. You may copy and distribute the Program (or a work based on it, under Section 2) in object code or executable form under the terms of Sections 1 and 2 above provided that you also do one of the following:

    a) Accompany it with the complete corresponding machine-readable source code, which must be distributed under the terms of Sections 1 and 2 above on a medium customarily used for software interchange; or,
    b) Accompany it with a written offer, valid for at least three years, to give any third party, for a charge no more than your cost of physically performing source distribution, a complete machine-readable copy of the corresponding source code, to be distributed under the terms of Sections 1 and 2 above on a medium customarily used for software interchange; or,
    c) Accompany it with the information you received as to the offer to distribute corresponding source code. (This alternative is allowed only for noncommercial distribution and only if you received the program in object code or executable form with such an offer, in accord with Subsection b above.)
    The source code for a work means the preferred form of the work for making modifications to it. For an executable work, complete source code means all the source code for all modules it contains, plus any associated interface definition files, plus the scripts used to control compilation and installation of the executable. However, as a special exception, the source code distributed need not include anything that is normally distributed (in either source or binary form) with the major components (compiler, kernel, and so on) of the operating system on which the executable runs, unless that component itself accompanies the executable.

    If distribution of executable or object code is made by offering access to copy from a designated place, then offering equivalent access to copy the source code from the same place counts as distribution of the source code, even though third parties are not compelled to copy the source along with the object code.

    The relevant parts of GPL 3 are sections 4 through 6, but they only add to the older license. In particular, they allow distribution via the Internet, but they do not force such distribution; you can always use the older methods.

    --
    Nothing for 6-digit uids?
  93. Two issues here by RichiH · · Score: 1

    First: If the project was under the the GPL and the libraries are under the GPL, the result must be under the GPL.

    Second: Depending on where you live, you might or might not have given over the rights to your employer. You need to take your contract to a lawyer in your country and ask them. As usual, slashdot is _not_ the place to get specific legal advice; we can just blabber about generalities.

    Thing is: The GPL does not matter unless you distribute the software to anyone. Before that, the licence does not matter. So you need to check the _second_ point first. When/If you release the software and the libraries are GPL, it's a clear-cut case.

    No idea if your employer can go after you for "wrongfully leading them to believe they owned this stuff" though...

  94. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Insightful

    Pardon my bluntness, but that's relativist bullshit. The code is written by an employee of a company which has no intention of publishing its own software under an open source license. I emphasize the ownership because it is not the programmer's code at any time. He does not write free software which he licenses to the company, which then merely chooses not to redistribute. He's an employee of the company, so the program is effectively the company's creation. If you write a program on your own time intending to sell binaries and to never show the source to anyone, are you writing open source software? No, the act of publishing the source with the rights to make changes to it is what makes software open source. In fact, all software is created as proprietary software as a result of copyright law.

  95. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by knarf · · Score: 1

    If it's based on GPL code and they don't want to release the whole thing under the GPL, they'll need to rewrite the sections under the GPL before they can have their way with it.

    ONLY if they want to distribute the code. If they only want to use it in-house they can lock it up in chains of gold for all the GPL cares. The GPL is a copyright license and thus only deals with limiting COPY rights, not with limiting USE rights. That is what EULA's are for...

    It is important to make this distinction. By not making the distinction you only play into the hands of those who wish to denounce the GPL and other free software licenses. They could use your lines to show the dangers of using these licenses, even though what you say is wrong.

    --
    --frank[at]unternet.org
  96. Depends on the date? by nicc777 · · Score: 1
    I would say that you should be able to release all your independent work done PRIOR to them hiring you, as that you own.

    But then again, can you survive a law suit? Do you want to fight them if they just fire you? Probably not - and most of these corporate types know it.

    --
    Need an ISP in South Africa?
  97. teach them a lesson by Aurisor · · Score: 2, Interesting

    So, as I understand it, there are 3 pieces of software here. First are the GPL libraries; let's call them 'A'. Then, you have the software you did as a hobbyist, let's call that 'B'. Finally, you have the work for hire, called 'C'. C depends on B, and B depends on A.

    It's clear that they own C, and there's nothing you can do about that. On the other hand, you own B. If you publicly distributed B under the GPL, you are probably screwed here. In that case, there's nothing to distinguish B from A, and your only recourse might be some technicality in the GPL. For example, if you used the GPL v3, you may be able to use the stuff about software patents to prevent your university from using it.

    However, if by releasing B under the GPL you mean you just used GPL software and considered it free, you may be able to turn around and teach them a lesson here: assert ownership over B, and demand that they produce written proof otherwise. You could demand that C be open-sourced in return for being allowed to use B.

    That being said, though, you were stupid to do closed-source work on your own open-source project. Not only will you have to fight for access to your own work, your knowledge of the closed-source work will probably 'taint' any contributions to the open-source one to such a degree that they could probably claim work you do on it, even if it's off their payroll.

    In the future, don't be so trusting of your employer. When I do open-source work for hire, I create a private github account and make the repo publicly available and GPL-licensed from day one. All of my work on the clock is then contributing to an externally owned and operated repo.

    Oh, and I get the corporate overlord's approval of open-sourcing the thing in writing.

    1. Re:teach them a lesson by Stumbles · · Score: 3, Informative

      You are absolutely wrong about A and B. You need to go read the GPL terms. If someone uses or releases code under GPL and his company chooses to use his GPLed code, then that company has to make the source available under the same terms they got the code, ie GPL. The only exception I am aware of is this; if you use GPLed code and as long as you DO NOT DISTRIBUTE it, then you are not obligated to make the source code available.

      --
      My karma is not a Chameleon.
    2. Re:teach them a lesson by Aurisor · · Score: 1

      You ought to read the damn summary before you go around telling people what they're wrong about. The GPL only mandates source code disclosure for *EXTERNAL* distribution. There's no indication here that the app was distributed at all, let alone distributed outside the university.

      Furthermore, if we assume, as you did, that the software *had* been distributed, the submitter's dilemma is moot since the derived work would be violating the license of the GPL'd libraries upon which the submitter's work is based.

      Next time, read a little more carefully before clicking that submit button.

    3. Re:teach them a lesson by BitZtream · · Score: 1

      So basically you said 'must' then contridicted it with a very clearly 'not must' statement. Good job, you cleared up nothing.

      --
      Persistent Volume manager for Kubernetes - https://github.com/dwimsey/openshift-pvmanager
    4. Re:teach them a lesson by swillden · · Score: 1

      You ought to read the damn summary before you go around telling people what they're wrong about. The GPL only mandates source code disclosure for *EXTERNAL* distribution. There's no indication here that the app was distributed at all, let alone distributed outside the university.

      It may not be that simple.

      When the poster wrote his initial code, he was not an employee of the university. He was probably a student, and if the initial work was an assignment the university may have some rights to it (I don't know if they do; I know some universities claim they do). If it wasn't an assignment, but instead something he did purely on his own, then clearly they have no rights to that code. It's also possible that when they hired him to work on it, the contract may have transferred his rights to them. I think that's unlikely, but possible.

      If they have some legal ownership of the code via either of those routes, then you're right, there was no distribution. If the original code is purely his, however, then he distributed it to the university. Under what license? If he didn't provide them with some other license, didn't assign copyright, and if the code had GPL notices, etc., in the initial distribution, he may be able to argue that he gave it to them under the GPL. It gets harder parse out if he never gave them a copy of the original code, only the modified code as it was after he'd started working under contract to them.

      Another issue that could matter is if he'd distributed it to someone else before he gave it to them. If, for example, he'd begun hosting the work on sourceforge, github or the like, as a public project, before starting work as a contractor, that previously-created work was already distributed under the GPL, and that can't be taken back. Anyone who received a copy of that code (including, probably, the hosting site), is free to distribute it as GPL -- including back to the author, if he's subsequently handed over his copyrights to the university (unless he's contractually barred)!

      If he continued hosting the work on the public server even after his employment began, and he had permission from his employer to do so -- even if the employer merely knew about it and didn't tell him not to, since that would seem to be implicit permission -- then all of the code has been distributed as GPL, including the portion that is clearly owned by the university. If they tried to go after anyone who'd gotten it that way for copyright infringement, there'd be a clear estoppel argument.

      If this is important, the poster really needs to get a lawyer to look over the details. They matter.

      --
      Note to ACs: I usually delete AC replies without reading them. If you want to talk to me, log in.
    5. Re:teach them a lesson by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      In that case, there's nothing to distinguish B from A, and your only recourse might be some technicality in the GPL. For example, if you used the GPL v3, you may be able to use the stuff about software patents to prevent your university from using it.

      The employer owns C. C is not under GPL3, and it doesn't even matter if C is being used internally, the GPL doesn't come into play until the code in question is distributed. And using the patent clauses for what is purely a copyright issue? It'll never fly, and I don't suspect you'd retain your "employed" status very long after trying it.

      However, if by releasing B under the GPL you mean you just used GPL software and considered it free, you may be able to turn around and teach them a lesson here: assert ownership over B, and demand that they produce written proof otherwise. You could demand that C be open-sourced in return for being allowed to use B.

      It doesn't work that way.
      The GPL is still converned by copyright law. The author owns any copyright associated with new code added to a GPL project, since this is a work for hire, those copyrights belong to to the emplouer. Changes are a bit trickier, but since the author in this case owns the copyrights to B to begin with, and thus would otherwise still own the copyrights associated to the modified code, the employer ows the chanes as well. And then there's the part about how the GPL doesn't come into force unless the derivative work is being distributed. You can assert your ownership over B all you want, B isn't the issue here, C. You can demand that C be open source, but it nevertheless belongs to you emploter, they're under no obligation to do it, and those whole bit aboput demanding as much in return for using B? You licensed B under the GPL, they already possess sufficient permission for using it, and one could argue that you're in violation of the GPL for placing extra restrictions on the use of B.

      In the future, don't be so trusting of your employer.

      This isn't an issue of trust. It's an issue of law, really. It's a work for hire, you have no claim of ownership. If you want to retain your copyrights, go freelance.

      Oh, and I get the corporate overlord's approval of open-sourcing the thing in writing.

      Damn right you get approval first an foremost, otherwise you'd get nailed to the wall, and you damn well know it.

    6. Re:teach them a lesson by butlerm · · Score: 1

      If he didn't provide them with some other license, didn't assign copyright, and if the code had GPL notices, etc., in the initial distribution, he may be able to argue that he gave it to them under the GPL

      Unless there was a written transfer of copyright, he didn't "give" the original code to them at all. If there wasn't a GPL notice or verbal license to similar effect, at best they have some sort of implied license to his original code. If he quits, they may not be able to legally continue to prepare non-trivial derived works, even internal ones.

      If anything it is best for his employer if there is a written software license to his original code, because otherwise they could be seriously limited in what they can do.

  98. Their contractee HAS a license: GPL by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Their contractee HAS a license: GPL

  99. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    This means you can sell GPL binaries, and only provide direct copies of the source to those customers, and never the "public". This is a feature of the GPL, not a bug.

    Yes. Because the customer has the right to redistribute the code, the GPL makes it difficult to enforce the sole-source model that proprietary software business models depend on. So, GPL distribution seems generally to get conceptually simplified to 'author releases for free to everyone.' There's nothing to prevent the author from charging $10k/copy (as long as he includes the source), and the purchaser turning around and distributing the exact same thing for $0. In the case of a spin-off, one imagines that whatever motivates the original company to retain the GPL-derived software internally will provide similar motivation to the spin-off.

  100. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Pharmboy · · Score: 2, Informative

    Someone else answered it in a long fashion, but to put it short: You only have to provide the source code to those entities you provided the binaries to, NOT the general public. Otherwise would create an undue burden on the original programmers.

    If you make Program A, give me a copy with source, and I sell the binaries for $10 each (or just hand them a disk free), you are NOT responsible for providing the source code to those customers, *I* am, and you would have the legal right to force me to give them the source code since *I* distributed the binaries. I don't have to provide a copy of the source to anyone else, only those I gave/sold the original binaries to.

    --
    Tequila: It's not just for breakfast anymore!
  101. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Thing+1 · · Score: 1

    If they do want to distribute the stuff outside their organisation, they'll have to do so under the terms of the GPL - other than that scenario, they can do whatever they want internally.

    Is it not considered "distributing the binary" when I as an employee run some customized software on my company-provided machine?

    Should I as a human have the right to the source code at that time that the binary is distributed to me?

    Or does corporate personhood take precedence?

    --
    I feel fantastic, and I'm still alive.
  102. YES by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Absolutely the answer this this guys question is YES.

    Why is such a plainly simple question even on slashdot?

    Better yet why are people arguing about things that are directly covered the the basic FAQ?

  103. Your employer needs to read the GPL by Stumbles · · Score: 1

    In a nutshell, no they cannot. If they do, first they are in violation of the GPL and if they continue, then they themselves are in violation of Copyright laws.

    --
    My karma is not a Chameleon.
  104. Post Secondary Hates the GPL by Murdoch5 · · Score: 1

    A few years ago, 2 I think, I was working on some code for a prof to help a robot play soccer. At the time it was just assigned to us and he screwed off and didn't really talk to use for a month. He gave my partner and myself a lib to do Image Capture that was HIGHLY proprietary and actually sucked unbelievably bad. My partner and I said screw it and picked up a GPL licensed image capture lib and started to program, when I was done I released all the code I had done to a public code forum to share it. When my prof found out he went insane, he was so pissed it was kind of funny. He kept telling us that open source is a really bad idea and we should have known better then to use GPL code. I told him to F*** off and we passed. The year after I was working for another prof doing some more code but she wasn't in my field. Again I grabbed some GPL code spun up the solution, released it and gave it to her. She was so afraid people would now hack into her software because it was public code she refused to use it and told me I should have known better. Again I told her to F*** off and I passed. The main point is that Prof's seem to hate Open Source, not all of them but enough of them. They just can't admit it's a better way of thinking, kind of like the church and science, science the better way and the church well it did kill people for saying the earth wasn't the centre of the universe (very intelligent).

    1. Re:Post Secondary Hates the GPL by godrik · · Score: 1

      well, I would say those prof's hated GPL. All the academics I worked with are either not releasing software or releasing it under GPL or BSD (or Cecill in France).

    2. Re:Post Secondary Hates the GPL by Murdoch5 · · Score: 1

      I've received so much hassle from profs, the programming course has profs that even talk down to open source and Linux. (of course the funny thing is the profs computer actually blue screened when he tried to defend microsoft and closed source code).

    3. Re:Post Secondary Hates the GPL by godrik · · Score: 1

      Wow, that's kind of stupid. Most teacher would love open source. It is such a large source (no pun intended) of information for students. They can have a look at tons of source codes and use plenty of different tools...

  105. See this is why... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    My employer FORBIDS me to use ANY GPL code for this reason. Doing so is cause for immediate termination and grounds for legal action. He doesn't even want me LOOKING at GPL code because of the risk of contamination - I am not to run Linux or work on any GPL projects even in my off-time because of the risk of contamination of GPL-covered code into our projects.

  106. This is really simple by SwashbucklingCowboy · · Score: 1

    1. You own the code created prior to you beginning work for the university.

    2. You and the university co-own the final code (as it was derived from your code) UNLESS some employment agreement you signed gave them sole ownership when you began work (unlikely).

    3. And yes, absolutely the university can not release the source even if it uses GPL libraries. People constantly get this wrong. The university is only required to release the source to the project if it DISTRIBUTES the code outside of the university. And then it need only distribute the code (or least offer to distribute the code) to those whom it distributed binaries. It is not obligated to distribute the source to the general public, at least not because of the GPL.

  107. university employee? by negrace · · Score: 1

    If this is a university, publish it under GPL/BSD. You guys are public employees and all your work are belong to us.

  108. I can not believe the absurdities mentioned on /. by Hurricane78 · · Score: 1, Flamebait

    [Disclaimer: This is not a troll or a flame. I’m just really shocked.]

    I can not believe the utter absurdities mentioned on Slashdot.
    Most comments seem to say something like “The code belongs to $someone”.
    Now read that again: The code belongs to...?? Code belongs??

    What the hell?
    It feels like the FUD and propaganda of the **AA have completely succeeded in brainwashing people that you could actually own information. What an absurd concept!
    How can you possess something that can not be stolen? How the hell do you own something, that you can not control? I mean, not ever! If you pass it one, your control is gone. If not, you can not prove its existence. It is not a physical object. You can’t possess it. You can own the container. Or offer the service that produces it. But that’s something different. All the premises required for something to be ownable, are not fulfilled for information.

    It just makes so sense. How can grown up people with a healthy sense of reality believe such fantasies?
    I know that all humans start believing something, when they just hear it often enough. That’s kind of a side-effect of us being social beings. But come on. This is like believing in Santa. Or God. Or saying that you own happiness. Or the color magenta. You know: Things that would have gotten you locked away 100 years ago, and certainly require therapy nowadays.

    I’m sad. Because it feels like they have won, and we are to blame, because we the experts — of all people — bought into their lies. We were supposed to be the last defense. Am I now really standing alone??
    Oh well. At least they have to walk over my dead body before I give up.

    --
    Any sufficiently advanced intelligence is indistinguishable from stupidity.
  109. The Elephant in the Room by kgo · · Score: 1

    Depending on the circumstances, the employer may or may not be legally entitled to use the code how they like. But there's enough discussions here on what constitutes development. But...

    The developer may not have been legally entitled to collect a paycheck to work on GPL software on company time.

    You hear horror stories all the time going everywhere from rent-a-coder to some utility bundled on the Microsoft CD, where the employer had the expectation that they owned the code, only to find out a developer cheated and used some GPL code.

    Since the developer even said that there was no written of verbal agreement with the company, the default assumption would be that they are paying you to write code that they will own.

    I don't want to get into legal quibbles here, but the developer has basically defrauded the company if he got paid to deliver code that they can't use because of the license.

    --
    Can you construct some sort of rudimentary lathe?
    1. Re:The Elephant in the Room by Svartalf · · Score: 1

      Since the developer even said that there was no written of verbal agreement with the company, the default assumption would be that they are paying you to write code that they will own.

      Actually, you've got it opposite. It can be assumed that they will have an interest in the code (i.e. a license to use, possibly even a license to publish...) but it can NOT be inferred that the rights transfer as a work-for-hire unless there is an explicit agreement for the same. No written/verbal agreement that the work was for-hire means that it wasn't. What isn't written down or at least stated never happened in the legal world. And verbal agreements don't carry anything of weight when compared to written ones. Lacking a written agreement, the University may not have a leg to stand on as it wouldn't be a work-for-hire regardless of the "understanding" they might have had.

      --
      I am not merely a "consumer" or a "taxpayer". I am a Citizen of the State of Texas
    2. Re:The Elephant in the Room by butlerm · · Score: 1

      Lacking a written agreement, the University may not have a leg to stand on as it wouldn't be a work-for-hire regardless

      It depends on whether the developer was an employee or a contractor. If an employee, the University doesn't need any sort of agreement. Everything done by an employee in that capacity is automatically a work for hire unless otherwise provided for by contract.

      If the developer was a contractor, the presumption is reversed. A contractor retains copyright to all of his work unless otherwise provided for by contract. Most contracts for hourly software development work specify intellectual property transfer of the rights with regard to that work. Although only rarely do they do so with regard to any pre-existing work, for obvious reasons.

  110. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Attila+Dimedici · · Score: 1

    Is it not considered "distributing the binary" when I as an employee run some customized software on my company-provided machine?

    Should I as a human have the right to the source code at that time that the binary is distributed to me?

    Or does corporate personhood take precedence?

    No it is not considered "distributing the binary", as long as it is only installed on the company owned machine. If I write some code and install it on my computer, it is not distributing the code if I let you use it on my computer. It only becomes distributing when I allow you to install it on your computer. It is not about "corporate personhood" (except in so far as that applies to ownership issues), it is about who owns the computer the code runs on.
    This gets more complicated when one organization rents computers from another, I do not have an understanding of the different permutations that come into play in that sort of circumstance.

    --
    The truth is that all men having power ought to be mistrusted. James Madison
  111. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Interesting

    First of all, I don't think judges and courts like tricks. They can just say they don't buy it. (Though I've never actually known a judge.)

    I would also think that by working for an employer, you granted them the copyright and/or license to use that work, previous licenses notwithstanding. I don't know that the employee can distribute the work either, as the new and improved version isn't the same work as the original, and to my way of thinking, the employer owns the copyright to the new version and has a royalty-free license to use the old version. I don't think a court would buy the argument about simultaneous forks.

  112. Contract or not by hesperant · · Score: 1

    Because you did not sign a contract concerning the code or project then it would seem the following scenario best fits you.
    Any code produced prior to employment can be applied under any license you wish it is owned by you and protected by lack of contractual agreement, this also forces code written afterwords to be GPL'd as part of the project.

    Remember it is true that any work produced while getting paid is the product of the payer unless otherwise noted, they cannot simply assume the body of work as their own. They may attempt to argue legal custody so keep this in mind (and maintain your documentation). You own any code produced prior to employment (as long as you were accurate in your story): You can counter argue that they attempted to use employment as a means to acquire the project sans contract and thus have no legal right to it. You can also argue that they hired you for coding but not the specific code and because you have a prior body of work that goes into the project in deed like a book, you own the code (all of it) and they are licensed to use it for the duration of employment at the cost of employment. A more liberal interpretation may also take you to copy write. Code is writing for a computer to interpret and should fall under the copy write category. As an author is hired to produce a book you are hired to produce a program. Because the core code and in deed original versions of this application fall under a private enterprise you can argue ownership; now that said, this can effect your employment opportunities negatively.

          A good idea might be to engage in contract talks for the employer to purchase ownership or license with a limit to duration the right to keep your original code from GPL. While I am a giant fan of GPL, I do recognize the needs of employment and if they are wishing to in truth own the code, make sure you get a solid of what it is worth now and with possible future earnings in mind. Having them agree to contract with term limits allows you to give them decision rights on licensing for the duration of your contract (do not make it indefinite) and gives them time to have the original base code or ideas replaced by their own closed source work. Your work is worth something, get a lawyer (of your own not the company/employers) to write out an equitable contract.

  113. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    If you don't do it that way, then suddenly _anybody_ in the world has the right to request source code from you.

    Or you could go with the third option of exec + written notice that allows on-demand access to source for 3 years. It seems everyone always forgets about this method.

  114. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by BitZtream · · Score: 2, Insightful

    You can try, then when you go to court, the judge will smack you in the face for trying to sneak around your legal obligations.

    When you write something on your own with clear knowledge of the requirement for your employment, using knowledge you gained FROM your employment, you have a really HARD time trying to convince the court that it really was 'your' work.

    The government and courts have been dealing with people far sneakier than you for several thousand years.

    --
    Persistent Volume manager for Kubernetes - https://github.com/dwimsey/openshift-pvmanager
  115. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Svartalf · · Score: 1

    Perversely, it's not QUITE that simple.

    Unless there is a work-for-hire clause in the contract or employment agreement, it can be said that they may have an interest in the rights on the code in question , but it can't be said that they actually OWN it unless you've got one of those clauses in place or an explicit assignment of rights in play. Moreover, there may be explicit restrictions on the work-for-hire aspects. Some will lay claim to anything you come up with, regardless of whether it had anything to do with your work or while not on the clock- others will only lay claim to the work you directly do for the employer and variations on a theme in-between.

    Now...most employers have work-for-hire clauses in the mix, so that's where your assumption comes from. But it's not a foregone conclusion, nor is the one you stated a foregone one.

    --
    I am not merely a "consumer" or a "taxpayer". I am a Citizen of the State of Texas
  116. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Svartalf · · Score: 1

    It all rests in what his employment agreement/contract states. If it lays claim to any intellectual "property" work while under their employ, that explicit transfer will have been deemed to have transpired. Depending on that, is whether they actually have a claim on things here or not.

    --
    I am not merely a "consumer" or a "taxpayer". I am a Citizen of the State of Texas
  117. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by BitZtream · · Score: 1

    You and most other commercial developers who actually need to eat.

    I only release my work under a BSD license for this very reason.

    It means my boss doesn't give a shit what I write at home as long as its not related to our core business. He rests safe in the knowledge that any thing I make at home and use at work is safe to be used at work.

    It also means I get contributions back from professional developers at other businesses who use my code (and our companies code, some of which is BSD/Apache/MIT licensed).

    If we used (L)GPL, no one would want anything to do with our code, and everyone would be poorer for it.

    --
    Persistent Volume manager for Kubernetes - https://github.com/dwimsey/openshift-pvmanager
  118. Check with your Tech Transfer Office by fsharp · · Score: 1

    Check with your school's Technology Transfer group. While it is true that Universities generally want control over everything created while you are working for them, most of the time the value to the University is not worth their time or trouble. If your work will generate actual revenue for the University (revenue that will actually offset the work involved in licensing and all that), they'll be very interested. If not, they will most likely leave it up to you to do with it what you will. At least that is how it works at my school.

  119. Is it a public university? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    If the university is funded even partially by the state, in my view, anything they create is public property.

    Some academics may disagree, but academics are a lot of self-righteous elitist jerks anyway.

  120. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Work for hire still would trump that. His motivation for developing the code is due to requests from his employer. Building two forks & then claiming 1 for me 1 for you still doesn't obviate the motivation for the code.

  121. IANABM by Kidbro · · Score: 4, Informative

    I am not a bookmark manager, but what the hell. Those folks actually spent a bit of time thinking about this shit, you know. If you're still confused after reading the FAQ, direct your question to GNU or FSF, not bloody slashdot.

  122. He already knows the answer, he's looking for a by BitZtream · · Score: 1

    loophole.

    Indeed, by default work created for an employer belongs to the employer

    Thats from the summary ... the guy already knows the answer, he just doesn't want to accept it and is hoping slashdot can give him some way to get around the agreement he made with his employer.

    Good job there buddy, you've just shown the world you have no intention of keeping your word or honoring your obligations.

    --
    Persistent Volume manager for Kubernetes - https://github.com/dwimsey/openshift-pvmanager
    1. Re:He already knows the answer, he's looking for a by butlerm · · Score: 1

      You should read the summary. The question he is asking is whether the university owns the final combined version. Even if they have clear license to his original code, they do not own it unless there was a written transfer of copyright.

      You have made some serious accusations in your comment, without any sort of evidence. In other contexts, that could get you sued for slander. Which promise or obligation is he breaking?

      He wrote original software. Did they acquire the copyright from him? Do they have a clear license so that they do not need to? If anyone is violating the law here, it is employer by making the legally unjustifiable claim that they now own the derived work en toto without a written transfer of copyright from him.

      Without such a transfer, he retains a copyright over his original contributions, they are his, he was never paid for them, and anything they do with that code is subject to some sort of license from him, implied or otherwise. If they want clear title, they should pay for it.

    2. Re:He already knows the answer, he's looking for a by Todd+Knarr · · Score: 1

      Note what the guy said: he wrote the original code before they hired him. At least under California law the situation is clear: his employer does not own the code (the fact that he signed an agreement saying otherwise is irrelevant, see 2870(b)). His employer does own any code written after they hired him, but they only get a license to the preexisting code.

      If he's not in California the situation's less clear, his state may or may not address the issue explicitly. At that point you want a qualified attorney before you proceed.

  123. GPL is a *COPY*-right license. by DrYak · · Score: 1

    What if one department gets spun off as an independent business at some point in the future?

    If that department needs to distribute copies of the software : Then yes. Big problems.
    (Copies need to be made of the software, and therefore the copyright law kicks in : You can't make copy of things you don't own, unless you have a license. And the program's current copy license [GPL in this context] gives you authorisation to make copies, but only if you also hand over the code and anything else needed so the others can play with it).
    So the new company must rewrite the GPL parts or find LGPL/BSD alternative or release the source of everything linked against the libraries.

    If that department only continues using it internally : then not a lot a problem. They still can use it.
    (Usage is not controlled by copyright licenses, these control only copies. EULA *could* address usage, but they are not considered valid in lots of juridictions).
    The only problem that arises is that after the split, the parent university and the new private company won't be able to send each other copies of the software, so development will need to be forked.
    (Although, sending *patches* and compiling on its own might be legal).

    That's why it's preferable to use *L*GPL or BSD components for proprietary projects.
    LGPL will work like the GPL be only at the level of the component. So if a library is linked against a whole project, only modifications to the library itself needs to be released - the rest can remain under any proprietary license.
    BSD will let the company re-license the thing to something else, if they want.

    --
    "Sufficiently advanced satire is indistinguishable from reality." - [Tips: 1DrYakQDKCQ6y52z6QbnkxHXAocMZJE61o ]
  124. If they're willing to pay for a rewrite, go for it by krunk7 · · Score: 1

    Explain the GPL, that your work is based on pre-existing GPL source and what that means (that modifications to it are also GPL). Make it clear that they are not required to expose/distribute the source unless they distribute it. If they're still staunchly against GPL'ing the code. Proceed to explain that in order to break away from the GPL code, you'll have to start from scratch and find lgpl or bsd libraries to replace the gpl ones or write them yourself. Give an honest assessment of how long it would take you to start the project over like this. They're your employer, if they're willing to pay for closed source and absorb the overhead of not leveraging open source libraries then go for it! More money for you. :)

  125. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Insightful

    Can they still claim copyright and prevent me from publishing the source code even though it is derived from GPL software?

    Anyone can CLAIM copyright to anything.

    Preventing you from publishing the source would only be accomplished by a judge ruling in a court case. It's that simple.

    Ownership of copyright can be determined by a judge, too.

    That said, if the company knowingly employed you to work on a GPL'd product, their ownership of the copyright may be more difficult to present to a judge.

  126. Employment Contract - Lose Rights to Old Code by Kagato · · Score: 1

    You could end up quite screwed here. Just because you GPL'd something doesn't mean it's always and forever GPL. This is not to say what's already been released as GPL can be taken back. That pee is already in the pool so to speak. However, as long as you are the copyright holder you're free to license the code as you see fit. The GPL doesn't lock you in unless you assign the rights to FSF or something. The problem you run into is you may have signed an employment agreement that compels you to transfer code ownership. As such you can lose the copyrights to code you have authored before your employment because of your employment agreement. It's also important to remember, even if state laws give you rights, those rights are not free. You need money to defend those rights.

    The long and short of it is don't mix your open source project with work for hire projects without a specific rider on your employment agreement that spells out ownership in exacting terms.

  127. There are 2 levels of copyright I believe by cervo · · Score: 2, Interesting

    Level 1) If I read the summary correctly, you wrote some code before you came to your employer. If you GPLed that code, then the code written prior to your employ is yours to do with as you want. Unless you somehow signed something to give rights over to your employer.

    Level 2) Any changes you created to the project while under the employ of your employer. These belong to him/her/it. You cannot distribute them without permission. If your employer does distribute the code, because of the GPLed libraries and stuff, the employer must provide source code. But if your employer does not distribute the code, then he/she/it is free to keep it a secret and not release it. These are the rights under the GPL, it mostly protects the rights of an entity that the software is distributed to. But without distribution it doesn't apply.

    I'm definitely not a lawyer. But it seems to me your best options are the following:
    1) negotiate to buy a license to the software. If you get your employee to distribute it to you somehow, then you can demand the source and you are free to do what you want with it (via the terms of the GPL the employer cannot revoke your right to modify the code if you have the program distributed to you).
    2) if your employer ever creates a commercial product from your code, buy it and then demand the source code and you are free to do what you want. If your employer ever makes a commercial product cheaply, buy a copy and then demand the source code, under the terms of the GPL

  128. Yes. They can. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    And, since no written or verbal agreement was ever made to transfer copyright over to my employer, I question whether they can claim that they now own the extended version of the project. Also, the whole project relies on GPL libraries, and without those libraries it would be useless. Can they still claim copyright and prevent me from publishing the source code even though it is derived from GPL software?"

    Any work for hire legally belongs to the employer, no verbal or written contract is necessary. (Unless you're freelancing, in which case you retain your copyrights). In this case, all of the changes you make belong to your employer, all new code you write belongs to your employer, you have no legal claim to the code, and as such, you cannot release it to the public without your employer's consent.

    That the base libraries are GPL-licensed is inconsequential, as long as they keep the code internal, the GPL does not come into play. Even with straight up open source projects, the GPL is still governed by copyright law, and the actual copyrights to the code belong to the authors/contributers, this is why the FSF once upon a time, would encourage open source developers to re-assign their copyrights to the FSF, both for legal putposes, and because the copyright holder retains the right to relicense their code as they please, GPL or not. This is also why some companies working with open source (Sun comes to mind (OpenOffice and possibly OpenSolaris as well work this way), MySQL-AB may have done this as well) requires for external contributors to sign over their copyrights.

    The GPL, again, is governed by copyright law, and contrary to popular misconception, it in no way circumvents copyright. You can't even technically fork the code in question (to release it to the public that way) because the code you wrote, that belongs to your employer, probably is not under the GPL, and despite what the GPL says about derivative works, and how such circumstances don't/can't legally occur "in the wild", the code isn't "in the wild", the GPL doesn't apply when the code isn't distributed - You can, of course try anyway, and argue that the GPL still applies, but you can expect your employer's lawyers to nail you to the wall for it.

  129. All that matters is your IP agreement by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    All that matters is the IP agreement (if any) you signed when you went to work, and the related question of whether you can prove that you were working on this project before you started. The actual question is whether your Employer has a right to use your software which you started before you went to work and which therefore cannot be a work for hire. At the same time you MAY NOT own your subsequent work which may belong to your Employer (in some jurisdictions various types of work for hire do NOT create "works for hire", and extending something may qualify; talk to a lawyer). Lacking an IP agreement you will negotiate one. You will state that it was your intention (perhaps even clearly) to release your work as Open Source, and they will state their intention to keep it proprietary, and you will negotiate a solution or your work will disappear into a rights hole. A judge should think that obviously you meant to implicitly license your work to your employer, but will not assume you implicitly meant to transfer copyright. It really comes down to how much your positions matter to you and your employer. If you convince the judge that you accepted employment under the impression that your open source work would remain open source (and if your employer is a university this may seem like a reasonable assumption), you may prevail simply. good luck.

  130. Employed? The changes are theirs... by hattig · · Score: 1

    The company hired you to improve an already existing piece of work.

    It is irrelevant whether or not you created that work in the first place, as you say that there is no agreement to transfer copyright, etc, to the university of the system you had written before. Therefore if the previous system was GPL, the university should make its changes GPL, or negotiate with the author of the original system (you) for its own license.

    Using GPL libraries shouldn't be a problem however. Indeed as an internal project they can make their own changes and not release them anyway.

    I think you'll have to suck it up for now, the university owns the work you've done. Of course if the university is publicly funded, then really it is the taxpayer that owns it, but know how that goes in general. Just take the money they're paying.

    Once you've finished doing the changes, you can go back to the previous version that is yours, and add in the new features again, from scratch, building upon the knowledge and experience you got from doing it before!

  131. FOIA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Is it a public university? Was it a publicly funded project? Does your state have a FOIA statute?

  132. Copyright and Employment laws by atisss · · Score: 1

    You should actually read your local copyright law, because it can depend.

    Out here, in Latvia the copyright always belongs to author (developer), unless specifically stated in employment contract.

    So, the company can use the code you written for them, they are granted rights do distribute, etc, but you're still the copyright owner - and you can release it as GPL or whatever you wish.

  133. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Let's be clear. You have no rights to do whatever you want with the code you wrote for them.

    Be careful now, that isn't always true. This work is GPL-necessary because of the external libraries, is it not? Normally a company developing software will be shuffling it around internally and making lots of copies, and this isn't a problem for copyright because the copyright is owned by the company. If the software is GPLed it isn't a problem either because redistribution is free. However, it does require compliance with its terms -- which means that if the company has provided you at any point with a copy of the software (i.e. it has gone through their hands and back), it is only allowed to do so under the terms of the GPL, and under those terms you have the right to redistribute. Of course, as always, talk to a lawyer first etc., but the point is "you have no rights" is rarely the truth.

  134. Two possible cases: by GNUALMAFUERTE · · Score: 1

    1) If your libraries where GPL and properly published before starting to work with this guys:
            They can either use the code only in-house, and never distribute it, or distribute it under the GPL.
    2) If your libraries where LGPL, and properly published before starting to work with this guys:
            They can distribute the code under any license they want, and link it to your LGPL libraries.

    In any case, they do not own the code for your libraries. You can still do whatever you want with them.

    --
    WTF am I doing replying to an AC at 5 A.M on a Friday night?
  135. Work For Hire by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    A "work made for hire" is— (1) a work prepared by an employee within the scope of his or her employment; or (2) a work specially ordered or commissioned for use as a contribution to a collective work, as a part of a motion picture or other audiovisual work, as a translation, as a supplementary work, as a compilation, as an instructional text, as a test, as answer material for a test, or as an atlas, if the parties expressly agree in a written instrument signed by them that the work shall be considered a work made for hire. (17 U.S.C. 101)

    As usual, incorrect information and faulty assumptions abound on Slashdot about what the law is and means. There is nothing in your post that should make you assume your employer owns anything. Two part analysis:

    1) Does the work created prior to your employment fall w/in any category described in section 2 above? No. Your employer doesn't own it.
    2) Does the work created while under employ fall within the scope of the work you are hired to do? It is unclear from you post if they hired you to do this, or if they asked you to take this on as an academic project separate and apart from your job responsibilities? If no, then you are the owner. If yes, your employer may be the statutory author of contributions you've made to the work as an employee acting within the scope of your employment.

    That's the correct answer to your question.

  136. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by tomhudson · · Score: 1

    Anyone following the SCO case would know that in the US, copyright transfer can ONLY be done with an explicit writing.

    Saying that the Uni has an "interest" in code written before he was hired is just posturing. There is no such thing in law as an "implicit copyright transfer" - SCO tried to argue that, and failed.

    I'm amazed at how quickly people forget ...

  137. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by optikos · · Score: 1

    Then "internal use only" that supposedly lacks distribution effectively does not exist unless all members internal to the organization enter into (and never violate) an agreement to never convey/propagate/distribute the GPLed code, which is the entire executable and all of its source code now (not merely the GPLed libraries).

    But then again entering into such an agreement is itself a violation of either GPLv2 or GPLv3 because neither you nor your university can impose more-restrictive legal terms than was contained in the GPLed libraries, even for users within your department or your university. So any person in the university who has access to the binaries can request the source and then convey/propagate/distribute both the binaries and the source code worldwide without any restriction whatsoever (until the GPLed libraries are replaced by nonGPLed libraries). Effectively, legally (FSF's nonbinding legal advice notwithstanding), there exists no such thing as "internal use" that assures a lack of conveyance/propagation/distribution in an attempt to not comply with the GPL's terms.

  138. IANAL by FencingLion · · Score: 2, Informative

    This sort of question is exactly what the Software Freedom Law Center is for.

    --
    Just keep swimming.
  139. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    If this university department is the same department/school that you graduated from, they potentially own rights to what you created while you were a student as well.

  140. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by optikos · · Score: 1

    Why can't that employee use the GPL to demand the source code to that supposedly "internal only" executable? Then, why can't that employee say "The GPL prohibits adding more-restrictive terms to the executable than the terms of the GPLed libraries." and then say "Prohibiting me from distributing this now-GPLed executabile and its source code worldwide is itself an additional restriction that neither the author nor the university can impose on me." And then convey/propagate/distribute the executable and its source code worldwide. The bits & information want to be free.

  141. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by angel'o'sphere · · Score: 1

    If you don't do it that way, then suddenly _anybody_ in the world has the right to request source code from you.

    Sorry, that does not make any sense to me. How do you come to that idea?

    angel'o'sphere

    --
    Cost free eBook I read (by iBook/Kobo/Amazon/ObookO/Gutenberg etc.): "The Green Odyssey" by Philip Jose Farmer.
  142. IANAL but this seems common sense... by WebCowboy · · Score: 1

    IANAL, but my guess is that if it's in your contract

    From the original post:

    And, since no written or verbal agreement was ever made to transfer copyright over to my employer, I question whether they can claim that they now own the extended version of the project.

    The software in question began as a hobby project by a graduate student "on his own". It was based upon GPLed libraries of code by others (who have their own copyrights on that code) as well as code he developed prior to his employment (on which he holds the copyright).

    Though any code this person developed under the employ of the university (ie. on their dime) is most likely under the copyright of said employer there was no agreement to transfer copyright of any PRE-EXISTING code and the employer cannot limit the original copyright holder's distribution rights.

    HOWEVER, any derivative work done on the employer's dime WOULD have the employer's copyright attached. So, although the university has NO right to block the distribution of the ORIGINAL code or the unmodified libraries on which it is based it CAN prevent the derivative work from being distributed. The university should be aware that by employing this student and using his GPLed code as the basis for the derivative work they've agreed to the terms of the GPL. Those terms give the university full rights to restrict or permit distribution as they see fit. BUT because they are bounded by the terms of GPL if the university decided to sell or otherwise distribute this product to anyone else THEY MUST DO SO UNDER THE SAME GPL TERMS. This means full disclosure of source code to those that receive the software plus the rights to redistribute under GPL terms. If they make binary-only copies or place furher restriction that is copyright violation and software piracy no different than downloading a cracked Windows 7 torrent.

    The path of least legal resistance would be to capitulate and let the university have what they have, but to release the code as it existed before the term of employment started as a project on sorceforge or google code or wherever as the basis of a "community development" fork. Because no transfer of copyright agreement was signed the employer would have no recourse, however if you want the added functionality of the later product it would have to be re-implemented in a meaningfully different way.

    If you have the time and money or a generous lawyer friend (right there next to your hen's tooth lol) then it might help to remind the those employers who are resistant to the isea of the terms of the GPL, just in case their reasoning behind blocking distribution is because they want to commercialise the software itself. However, they might have legitimate reasons to keep the software to themselves. For example, the nature of the software's functionality might betray a proprietary business or technological process, or some other "trade secret". GPL is there to protect the freedom of software, not to thumb the nose of all IP law and ruin business plans.

  143. linking exception? by NAR8789 · · Score: 1

    Did he modify the libraries he's using? Is he sure it's actually GPL and not LGPL or even MIT or BSD? And in particular that there isn't a reasonable linking exception? My impression from the summary is that he's merely linking said FOSS libraries, and my (much less founded) impression from casual observation is that using FOSS libraries is usually ok so long as any modifications made to the libraries and redistributed are done so following any viral licenses that might apply.

  144. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by martyros · · Score: 1

    But the question here is whether they can claim copyright on the code he wrote before he was working for them. I think the answer is no; I have a friend who successfully claimed personal ownership of patents that a university wanted dibs on for similar reasons. In that case, the code he wrote while employed by them is owned by them, but can't be distributed (probably even internally -- you are making copies, after all) without putting it under the GPL, unless they hire someone to re-write all the code they don't own.

    But of course, the correct answer is always, "Consult a lawyer".

    --

    TCP: Why the Internet is full of SYN.

  145. it depends by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    If you are an employee, then the software you wrote for them belongs to them. If you were a contractor, then the work you wrote for them belongs to you. Any GPL software that is published MUST REMAIN GPL. Attempts to claim proprietary rights to GPL software have failed before. Its a place even Microsoft will not touch. If they use it for their own use, they can do whatever they like. Attempts to publish GPL software as proprietary, will get a call from Harald Welte at GPL-violations.org. The next call will then be from one of two sets of lawyers. It could be the Free Software Foundation calling, the Electronic Frontier Foundation, or Eben Moglen (depending on exactly how nasty things are getting). Being a university, I suspect that they already know about this. If they don't they either are not much of a university, or they are in for a world of hurt.

  146. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by mattbee · · Score: 1

    If it's not screamingly obvious, Google run their own Linux kernel, which probably contains more secret sauce than anything else they've written.

    --
    Matthew @ Bytemark Hosting
  147. Not sure but by Anon-Admin · · Score: 1

    If I read this right, you started the project on your own. When the university found it they brought you on to develop it.

    If you had already released it via GPL then, to my understanding, it was a pre-existing work product and they can not claim ownership of it. Already being GPL'ed it should have been understood that the work being done would not violate the existing licensing.

    IANAL but I do know that a company can not hire you then claim ownership of work you did before you were hired.

  148. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by mmkkbb · · Score: 1
    --
    -mkb
  149. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by GooberToo · · Score: 1

    If it's based on GPL code and they don't want to release the whole thing under the GPL, they'll need to rewrite the sections under the GPL before they can have their way with it.

    I do want to point out the key to your entire statement there. The key word is, "release." If they want to use the effort for internal consumption, they are free to do so and are not required to every make the code publicly available. But, assuming the code is GPL'd, if they are publicly releasing binaries, they are legally obligated to provide the source.

  150. And again by tuomoks · · Score: 1

    If you work in a country which has signed the international copyright agreement - the copyright belongs to creator and can only transferred by an explicit contract, implicit doesn't work. Especially photographers have won many cases in court - why anyone even tries anymore is beyond me!

    One common mistake here is mixing copyright, license, ownership, etc. Think about a painting made by order - it's almost impossible to move the copyright but, of course, whoever ordered it owns the painting. Totally different issue. But don't try to copy it - the artist will come after you very fast! Yes, we have built a complicated world.

    Now - QuantumG is right, read the replies. GPL is a distribution license, period! Very nice, very easy to understand license - except if brainwashed by marketing or "free software" sides! As a copyright owner you can select whatever license, change it whenever you want but (in most cases) can't take back old except if there is a contract agreed by both sides (!!) which includes the clause of license revocation.

  151. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Rene+S.+Hollan · · Score: 1

    O.K. So the exception is for non-commercial redistribution under 2(c) if one received it under 2(b).

    2(b) is a bugaboo for many commercial interests: they generally don't mind providing source on demand, but prefer to only have to do it to those to whom they have licensed binaries and not all comers as 2(b) allows.

    GPL 3 is more liberal and business friendly in this regard.

    --
    In Liberty, Rene
  152. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Rene+S.+Hollan · · Score: 2, Interesting

    No. You read GPL 2 2(b) incorrectly.

    If you provide binaries and source, then you are correct.

    But, if you provide binaries and an offer of source that offer is transferable. Then, anyone who gets binaries from anyone else can demand source from you.

    --
    In Liberty, Rene
  153. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    In that case, the code he wrote while employed by them is owned by them, but can't be distributed (probably even internally -- you are making copies, after all) without putting it under the GPL, unless they hire someone to re-write all the code they don't own.

    Under US Federal jurisdiction it is clear* that the GPL allows for unrestricted copying and use within an organization of GPL code without any obligation to any third party. If that organization distributes it to anyone outside of the organization then they would have obligations under the GPL. This was part of the intent of the GPL by the way.

    *The number of words in the GPLv2 with no legal consensus on what they mean is staggering. "Distribution" for example has some defined meaning, however about half of the questions you might have about the meaning are completely undefined.

  154. Split horizon by shentino · · Score: 1

    Up until the point where you got hired the work was entirely yours.

    At the moment they picked you up, your contributions became work for hire and they became a secondary contributor with you as their agent.

    The code is jointly owned by you and the university.

    Them hiring you doesn't trump any of the work you did solo before getting the job.

    Just the same though, getting your neck breathed down by a high powered legal department can change things in a hurry. Unless you have solid proof you worked on it before getting hired they will most likely be able to muscle you out of your rights anyway.

  155. general public license license? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    "uses GPL-licensed libraries. "

    That phrase was brought to you by the department of redundancy department.

  156. Re:I can not believe the absurdities mentioned on by Frank+T.+Lofaro+Jr. · · Score: 1

    The code doesn't technically belong to anyone, but the rights to it do.

    --
    Just because it CAN be done, doesn't mean it should!
  157. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by snowgirl · · Score: 1

    Is it possible to do two distinct forks simultaneously, if you're the one doing the coding on both forks? Couldn't your employer argue that your contributions to the personal fork are inevitably derived from the code you wrote for their fork? And if you write your fork first, and then soon thereafter write the employer's fork, isn't the employer's fork inevitably derived from your personal fork, since you wrote both?

    I think a single person simultaneously (or even with weeks) writing both forks is a bad idea, at least from a legal "who owns this code" standpoint.

    Following this suggestion is asking for legal troubles.

    It's difficult to separate when you're validly allowed to develop for the open fork, and the employment fork.

    However, if you want massive legal bills, this could work exactly the way you're describing it.

    --
    WARNING! This girl exceeds the MAXIMUM SAFE standards established by the FDA for BRATTINESS
  158. Um isn't that really a question for a lawyer? by Stan92057 · · Score: 1

    Um isn't that really a question for a lawyer? I know here at Slashdot we all consider ourselves lawyers,but the fact remains we are not lol.

    --
    Jack of all trades,master of none
  159. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by HeronBlademaster · · Score: 1

    It wasn't a suggestion... I was pointing out exactly what you're saying - it's a bad idea. Read my last sentence again.

  160. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by calmofthestorm · · Score: 1

    Of course if you didn't sign it away, you retain copyright over what existed before you joined.

    --
    93rd rule of Slashdot: No matter how obvious my sarcasm is, my comment will be taken seriously by someone.
  161. Re:I can not believe the absurdities mentioned on by snowgirl · · Score: 1

    While I understand the idea of copyrights not being bogus.

    There is a legal framework, which we are dealing with.

    That legal framework describes ownership of interests to distribute a work.

    Actually, there are numerous incorporeal/non-physical interests that can be transfered and traded, and IP rights are not the only ones.

    Real property oddly enough functionally amounts to a set of interests and rights rather than the actual property itself.

    --
    WARNING! This girl exceeds the MAXIMUM SAFE standards established by the FDA for BRATTINESS
  162. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by snowgirl · · Score: 1

    *facepalm*

    --
    WARNING! This girl exceeds the MAXIMUM SAFE standards established by the FDA for BRATTINESS
  163. GPL limits rights that employee has to transfer by waterbear · · Score: 1

    The employer can only claim copyright over the portion of the work that was created under their employ. However, the sticky bit is that they licensed the original work under the GPL, so they must not distribute their additional code and, if they do, they must make it available under the GPL AND share copyright on the code with the original author.

    Yes, and perhaps another way of putting it is like this. The contract between the employer and employee can obligate the employee to transfer his rights. But in such a transfer the employer can't receive wider rights than the employee had in the first place before he handed them over.

    -wb-

    1. Re:GPL limits rights that employee has to transfer by shaitand · · Score: 1

      The employee is the original author, he has the full rights granted by copyright not the subset granted by the GPL. The original author is not bound by the GPL, only people who receive the work from the original author are bound by its terms.

    2. Re:GPL limits rights that employee has to transfer by Stephen+Samuel · · Score: 1
      The GPL does not prevent dual licensing of code that someone owns the copyright for.l

      In other words, for code produced by the employee, that can be provided free of GPL, but outside code that's GPL can't be....

      if the employer can figure out a way to distribute the resulting code without any outside GPL code, then there's no reason to GPL it. .... but if the code depends on GPL library code, then I'd say that the only way to distribute the code would be in source format (or possibly unlinked binaries that don't include any of the libraries).

      IANAL

      --
      Free Software: Like love, it grows best when given away.
  164. Easy workaround: by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Here is an easy workaround: request copies of the binary and / or source sent to a home email address, under some pretense. Quit the company before the email is sent. Congrats, you now have full distribution rights.

  165. There are many issues here ... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Fundamentally, the appearance of wrong doing is important not just wrong doing. You should take that into account along with the worth of the code. This is your reputation.

    Now, the code you wrote before you joined the department you own. Unless there was a written conveyance of that copyright (which likely also included a special payment to you, a registration cost for you, etc). I am assuming they don't own it for another reason you haven't mentioned like you used their equiptment, or some student code you agreed to allowed them to claim ownership of your work while attending their school, etc ...)

    Now, you may or may not have entered into a verbal agreement to license the code to them if that was a condition of hire. (likewise for copyright, but it sounds like you know you didn't enter an agreement to transfer that) ... You should formalize that if you did.

    Technically you've likely never officially licensed some amount of code to them, and they own enhancements on your older code.

    My opinion is given them a free non-revokable license to the original code (MIT, BSD, apache, etc) and take a loss on the rest. You can then redistribute the old code. Then they know what they own, you know what you own, and both of you know what needs to reimplemented to have a single copyright.

    Your next project's code will be better. My advice: Protect your reputation and let people know you are serious about these things and 'straight' laced. Don't bully people, just do what is right and proper.

  166. Two cents or so by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    I'm not a lawyer, and hate acronyms, but this is my two cents of understanding here:

    1) You worked on this project (henceforth "the Project") for personal reasons and on personal time.
    2) You were later hired to develop the Project into a specific solution (henceforth "the Solution") required by a local university (henceforth "the University").
    3) The Solution's size became daunting and you felt it would be wise to publish it to the open source community (henceforth "the Community").
    4) You proposed to your project lead that the Solution be published to the Community.
    5) Project lead made it clear that this is unacceptable, and that the Solution is sole copyrighted property of the University.
    6) You still wish to release the Project to the community.

    Assuming this is all accurate, then I believe that sole and exclusive copy-right relative to the Project as it existed prior to your employment by the University is yours and yours alone. You are free to release to the Community the Project as it existed prior to your employment by the University, and leave the University in possession of a fork or branch of the Project which meets the Solution they employed you to produce. This is my understanding.

    As a university, they have little to gain by holding any sort of research they engage in back from the public. It is likely that releasing the Solution to the Community would result in termination, but as long as there is proof that the Project predates your work on the Solution, they would have no reason and (I believe) poor legal footing if they attempted to stop you from releasing your work on the Project before they employed you. Of course, you are obligated to inform them that under the terms of the GPL, which covers the Solution due to being incorporated in the Project and, by extension, the Solution which is derived from the Project, that if this Solution's binaries ever leave University hands in any way (whether it is sold or distributed for free), the University is required to provide full access to all of the source code. Their only recourse to this is to rewrite the entire Solution to use nothing under the GPL, and you are probably free to tell them that you will not be involved in such a project.

    Likewise, you probably ought to make full disclosure if you do release the Project as it existed before the University hired you. It's only common sense and manners (though, admittedly, a "bad idea") to tell the University that though they are not allowing release of the Solution, you are going ahead and releasing all work you did on the Project before the University employed you to create the Solution. Provide a time frame in which the University may object and show you what they consider to be part of the University's copyright within the Project's source code, along with documentation that their claims are accurate, and make clear that when this time frame ends, all copyright of the remaining source code for the Project belongs to you. Make sure it's a reasonable time frame for them to review and verify that the Solution you produced for them is a derivative of your Project, and that anything within the solution that matches up with the Project originated first in the Project before you worked for them to create the Solution, and that they are only able to lay claim of copyright on portions of the Solution which you produced while explicitly in their employ.

    Best advice: Visit a lawyer and see if he or she will represent your concerns in this when you tell the University. Preferably, of course, a copyright lawyer. If you lawyer up on this, the university may back down quietly and either allow release of the Project as it was before they employed you, or the Project stripped of the specifics of the Solution, or maybe even the Solution itself. Get other faculty and staff members on your side, if you can, and you may be able to avoid the need to lawyer up by getting the faculty and staff to put pressure on the University (or at least the department) to be fair with their use of open source or licensed coding work. After all - they paid you to build on an existing program, not to build a new one from scratch.

  167. Why do employers pull this crap by Bobb+Sledd · · Score: 1

    Why do employers pull this crap of "everything you create I own."

    There's usually a little agreement they try to make you sign that gives them the right to do this. Now I don't do GPL, but my software is not exclusively owned by my customers either. So I just cross that thing right out on the page and tell them:

    "I'm sorry, I cannot agree to this portion -- it would be impossible for me to abide by this agreement because I already have a large library of well-written and tested software functions and routines and algorithms that I use and share across projects outside of your business that my other previous customers have already paid for the right to use. And I am not going to sit in a chair and re-invent a SSN checking algorithm or a phone number validator simply because you want exclusive rights to it when the work has already been done, and been done better (I'm totally not interested in re-inventing wheels). But also in return you will someday get the benefit of something someone else previously paid for as well. So you see, I cannot possibly give you EXCLUSIVE rights to my work because they already don't exist. Now, I will be happy to provide you a license and/or right to use/sell the software I create, but this is simply the best I can offer."

    They usually just initial the section I cross out and go with it. It's not worth a fight for them, and I won't take a job that would force me to do that. And I suggest you shouldn't either.

    --
    "They said I probly shouldn't fly with just one eye," "I am Bender. Please insert girder."
  168. Trade Secrets by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    It can be vague and State-dependent, but code developed for an employer can be considered a trade secret. Discussing it in the wrong context can be considered "breach of a confidential relationship" and raise the possibility of getting sued. The main issues here are whether aspects of the code are "valuable" "secrets". The fact that this code is not published makes the actual code secret. If the secrecy adds value to the product (like the formula to Coke) then it is possible to breach that relationship. As long you are not revealing specific code or data, the discussion is most likely fine. This is discussed briefly in the excellent book, "Intellectual Property and Open Source". I would love to see a broader discussion, it wasn't enough to answer my questions on the topic...

    A similar case where you might get into trouble discussing the code is if it is a national secret. I recall a case a couple years ago where an academic scientist discussed non-classified publicly available information with his Chinese student (regarding a flight system, I think) and ended up in jail for revealing national secrets because of a small related grant he had worked on.

  169. Talk it out. It works sometimes. by SETIGuy · · Score: 1

    Since this is way down at the end you'll never see this advice.

    Sit down with your boss and talk it out. If your boss doesn't understand the GPL, explain it to him. Explain that if the University plans to distribute this as non-free software, you will need to reimplement a significant portion of the code. Give him an estimate of the time you would need to do it. If they are selling it, make sure you are on the author list registered with the University intellectual property office.

    If he doesn't plan to distribute it, ask why not. Are their trade secrets in the code? How much time would it take to remove them? Who paid for this code? Do they require open distribution?

    If you were hired because of your work on these libraries, your employer should have understood the licensing issues in using them in advance. Also let them know you were never told to avoid GPL libraries in your development efforts.

    Final effort, if you can't reach an agreement, and your employment has ended, contact the University's legal department and tell them that you are worried that you boss will be illegally distributing this software. They aren't going to take your side, and they aren't going to give you GPL distribution. But they will make sure that your boss doesn't distribute this software.

  170. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by nametaken · · Score: 1

    Eh, this whole conversation really begins and ends with, "Not enough information".

    What parts did you do before they hired you. Did you release that under GPL? Obviously the stuff you did for them belongs to them, but there may be limitations on their ability to distribute it. Is it worth creating another example of "poisoning" code with the GPL virus? It may well be spun that way.

    Maybe your code just isn't worth a black eye or even the cost of a court battle? Too little info all around.

  171. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Attila+Dimedici · · Score: 1

    Because from the legal definition of "distribute", if the University owns the computer that the software is on, they haven't distributed it. So, the employee has no legal basis for demanding the source code.

    --
    The truth is that all men having power ought to be mistrusted. James Madison
  172. You own the part you did before they hired you. by John+Hasler · · Score: 1

    They own the part you did after. However, they cannot distribute the combined work without your permission. If the program includes any GPL code written by anyone else they cannot distribute the program without either complying with the GPL or getting the author's permission. If the program links to any GPL libraries (not LGPL) they cannot distribute it without complying with the GPL.

    --
    Warning: this article may contain humor, sarcasm, parody, and perhaps even irony. Read at your own risk.
  173. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    "Let's be clear. You have no rights to do whatever you want with the code you wrote for them."

    What if they distribute the code to *HIM* -- then the GPL gives him rights. No?

  174. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by gnasher719 · · Score: 1

    Why can't that employee use the GPL to demand the source code to that supposedly "internal only" executable? Then, why can't that employee say "The GPL prohibits adding more-restrictive terms to the executable than the terms of the GPLed libraries." and then say "Prohibiting me from distributing this now-GPLed executabile and its source code worldwide is itself an additional restriction that neither the author nor the university can impose on me." And then convey/propagate/distribute the executable and its source code worldwide. The bits & information want to be free.

    If your company provides you with a copy of Microsoft Word for you to use, you have no rights to that copy. Just try quitting your job and demanding that you can take that copy of Microsoft Word with you. If your company provides you with a copy of some GPL'd software for you to use, you have no rights to that copy either.

    Should you take it on yourself to distribute the software then you are in deep shit. The GPL puts requirements on people making copies. The company didn't make copies, so there are no requirements on them. You made the copies, so you have to provide people with the source code, but you can't - the source code isn't yours, and your company will likely not be sympathetic with your cause.

  175. Affero GPL? by kasper_souren · · Score: 1

    IANAL, but the Affero GPL might offer interesting solutions to this issue. It could be interesting to build on software available under the Affero GPL and run the software you're developing as a service from the beginning. That way a third party might have the right to get a copy of the software and the source code, or not, IANAL.

  176. I have the same question in a different scenario.. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Similar but subtly different.

    I developed some software privately for several years, that I then brought to my current employer. I have continued to develop it there partly in work time, partly in my own time.

    I now want to distribute it but am concerned what claims my employer may have. The main points about this:

    • I did not distribute the tool internally. It is a tool only I use.
    • I was not hired do develop software, but I use the tool to do what I was hired for more efficiently.
    • Only my immediate boss is aware of the software, but I would rather declare it than not

      My employer is a university so I am hoping they will be agreeable to open sourcing it, but I want to understand my rights (if any) before discussing it.

  177. SCO solved this question by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Did not Judge Kimball rule that as the law states "must have written and exact" text that copyright was transferred.

    If you have proof of you prior code [all of it] they have no "global squatting rights" to it, the we own everything you have done non-sense.

    Now what you did from the time forward, and this is still contested if you do something after hours, belongs [copyright] to them.

  178. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by jrumney · · Score: 1

    If it's based on GPL code and they don't want to release the whole thing under the GPL, they'll need to rewrite the sections under the GPL before they can have their way with it.

    Or they can choose not to release it and just use it internally. Nothing in the GPL forces you to release your derived work - only if you do, it must be compatibly licensed.

  179. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Pharmboy · · Score: 1

    I'm pretty sure that "having access" is not the same as "distributed to". If it is used internally in any organization, the IT dept. would "have access", for instance. The GPL only covers distribution, and if they are only using it within the organization (even if in different buildings or cities) then the GPL never comes into effect.

    Best example is Google, who has many data centers, thousands of tech's who have access, running GPL code on tens of thousands of boxen. They never have to release kernel modifications at those locations because they aren't "distributing" the code, just using it within their own organization, in many different locations. They are NOT "distributing" it to those locations or anyone else, so the GPL never comes into play.

    And the organization CAN make it a requirement that you never release any code that you are being paid to produce, even if it is for a program under the GPL. You don't own the code you produce for pay, the company does. Even if you own the original code, you don't own the changes (unless contract says otherwise) so you wouldn't have the authority or ownership to release any changes to the original base code, and technically, those changes are NOT forced to be licensed under the GPL until you distribute them. If you never distribute them, and then replace all previous GPL code with proprietary code, then it can be distributed under any license you wish, even though you developed it (but didn't distribute it) using GPL code.

    The GPL doesn't restrict USAGE, only distribution. As to usage, it says you don't need a license to use it unrestricted, and this includes using it as a base for other programs under a different license as long as you remove the GPL portions before distributing.

    --
    Tequila: It's not just for breakfast anymore!
  180. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    lulz

  181. GPL would take second place in work you don't own by lpq · · Score: 1

    This varies from state to state.

    In california it's a use of common sense.

    If you do it on your own time and and on your own equipment, AND it is not something that could be considered your principle line of work for the company, then you are clear by law (though they can still take you to court and make your life miserable).

    BUT if any of the above are not true, they may have some partial or complete interest in your work.

    IF you work developing game code and develop a game engine, then they might have claim to that,
    but if you develop database code or compilers, then more likely not.

    Not all states have their head screwed on str8 in this regard.

    In some states, contracts to prohibit re-employment in the same field (so you don't take company secrets to a competitor) after you leave for a year or more are legal, but not in California. California realizes that in our economy, you walk out one door and into another at the drop of a hat. That DOESN'T mean that taking of previous company secrets is ok -- just that it will be presumed that you will keep your prior employers secrets, secret.

    In short...you'll have to check your state laws.

  182. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Phopojijo · · Score: 1

    I think the point moreso stands that the GPL says that if you are unable to fulfill this license, you can't use the accompanies software in the first place. So it's not "What do I do in this pickel between my employer and the license now?" -- it is "I shouldn't have taken this contract" (or at least fulfilled it in a different way)

  183. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by optikos · · Score: 1

    GPLv2sect3para0 You may copy ... the Program (or a work based on it, under Section 2) in object code or executable form under the terms of Sections 1 and 2 above provided that you also do one of the following: [3 ways of making source code available]

    Let us reword that quotation: OP's university may copy the Program only if the OP's university enacts one of the GPLv2's 3 ways of accompanying that copy with source code or the offer to obtain the source code. Via the wording of this quotation, no distribution outside of the of the OP's university is needed to trigger this provision. Copying of any kind triggers the source-code obligation.

    GPLv3sect6para0 You may convey a covered work in object code form under the terms of sections 4 and 5, provided that you also convey the machine-readable Corresponding Source under the terms of this License, in one of these ways: [5 ways of making source code available]

    Let us reword that quotation: OP's university may convey the Program only if the OP's university enacts one of the GPLv2's 3 ways of accompanying that copy with source code or the offer to obtain the source code. Via the wording of this quotation, no distribution outside of the of the OP's university is needed to trigger this provision. Conveying of any kind triggers the source-code obligation.

  184. SourceForge by krischik · · Score: 1

    He'll have to prove that his work was done before his employment

    This is why my private projects always start with a visit to the "Create a new project page" on SourceForge. That way no one can take them away from me.

  185. I'm a law student . . . by basename · · Score: 1

    And this question is governed by the work made for hire doctrine (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Work_for_hire). Ownership depends on whether you are an employee or an independent contractor. Which of these two you are depends on separate analysis. If you are an employee then the boss owns the lot. However, if you can prove that you are an independent contractor, then the code belongs to you because it is not in the 9 statutorily-defined categories in Section 101 of the Copyright Act. Interesting question. -- Noah Note: I am not an attorney and the preceding comment is NOT intended as legal advice.

  186. Copyright and common sense by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    IANAL, get your own lawyer, etc. etc ...

    This seems to be a copyright case, and the GPL issue is just confusing here.

    1 - The copyright of your original code was not transfered to anyone unless there is a specific contract signed by you stating that. I assume that your employment contract did not mention this code, and if so the original code's copyright is yours.

    2 - The copyright of the work you did while employed at the university is (usually) copyright of the university. HOWEVER this is only the bits of code you did while working there. The remainder is still yours. AND...

    3 - copyright of a derivative work is stil owned by the copyright owner of the original work. You are the copyright owner of the entire package. At most the university may be able to claim joint ownership due to the new bits added, but NOT sole ownership.

    1+2+3 means that in litigation you would be able to stop them doing anything with that code. However (because of 2) they would also be able to stop you releasing the whole thing. They could not stop you from releasing the original code (because of 1).

    So in litigation you can reach a deadlock and stop their interests. However this is a case of common sense, above all. Do you want to litigate against your employer? Almost surely you will lose your job in that case. The best way out of this, as some have also said, is to talk it out with the employer, making your point that it would be better for everyone that this is open source. If your direct supervisor (project manager, prof, etc) does not give in, try to talk with someone else, like people in the research office or maybe even a Dean. They may have solutions (and they don't want a fight), but when you do try not to be adversarial or it will just make people against you before they hear your points.

    Note: I know this story too well: I am a Prof, and in the past have done the same thing as you (ie take code that I own copyright across several employers). Fortunately I got a letter from my first (uni) employer stating that the copyright of the code was mine, and from then on I have the proof of ownership established and any of the other employers just have to live with that. Now the code is joint owned by me and a few other employers... (and is open source)

  187. You won't like this, but ... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Honestly, if you were working for me, I would fire you. I am a licensing and IP expert (I do that for a living). You had no right building a GPL based project for an employer without their permission. Most employers go way out of their way to avoid copyleft licenses that will result in their having to comply with terms that are not favorable to them. As for the many uninformed opinions here, such as "contractors are not employees," etc ... there is some truth to that, but then you are under contract.

  188. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by urbanYeti · · Score: 1

    Have to disagree - I've been exactly there - though I'm in Canada. I would expect the legality to be very similar where you are though, so this may be worth looking into. I think what others may be overlooking is the fact that this was done for a university. With respect to the creator of the work, educational institutions generally do not have, and should not try to enforce IP ownership in the same ways that private companies do. In this case the employer does own rights on the work since they paid you for it, but as the originator you also retain rights to it. Search your university's charters for the term 'sponsored research'. I would say that either you or the university could redistribute the work, but that it would have to be done under the terms of the GPL. Within that framework you could even profit from the work provided that you do it transparently and in good faith - which means informing the other party of your actions.

  189. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Pharmboy · · Score: 1

    I think you meant GPL2 3(b), but I stand corrected. You have to make a written offer valid for 3 years from the date of your original distribution. I am not sure how this would be enforced if the first party is the original author, as the only person who can legally force the first party to comply is the copyright owner, (such as in this current discussion). I'm not even sure how you could prove the date of the original distribution (1st party to 2nd party), making this a difficult provision to enforce. It can't possibly mean 3 years from the distribution from 2nd party to 3rd party, as that could take place 5 years after the 1st party to 2nd party distribution.

    This means that *technically*, the original author can be in violation of his own license, by simply refusing to provide source to a third party.

    --
    Tequila: It's not just for breakfast anymore!
  190. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Rene+S.+Hollan · · Score: 1

    Yes, GPL2 3(b).

    Clearly if the distributer is the copyright holder, yes, no one other than him can enforce the license, and, as the copyright holder, he can relicense as he wishes. So, the paradox of being in violation of his own license does not apply.

    However, where one combines code with GPL2 code, and distributes the combination, one MUST distribute under the terms of GPL2, and the copyright holders of the OTHER parts of the combination can enforce the license on the distributer.

    This holds for ALL (re)distributors.

    So, if C adds code to GPL2 code copywrighten by A and B, and distributes the result on Jan 1, 2010, he must include an offer good to Dec 31., 2012 to provide source to all comers who show they have binaries and a copy of C's offer. This is because GPL2 requires C's offer to be transferrable.

    Now, if D further redistributes binaries received from C, he must either (a) provide source (which he got by holding C to his offer), or (b) provide his own offer good for three years from when D distributed (and this is true for every time D distributes), or (c) transfer C's offer (and only if D's distribution is non-commercial).

    I agree that if the offer does not specify an expiration date, determining what it is requires determining when the distribution occurred. While a small burden, it is not impossible to demonstrate by a preponderance of the evidence.

    This can actually be a pain in some cases where commercial interests want to distribute code licensed necessarily under the GPL, but have not yet developed the means to neatly package source and a convenient build mechanism. The classic example is a firm distributing GPL works in progress to contractors.

    I asked RMS about that situation, and his position was that if the contractors were using their own computers and not computers provided by the firm that hired them, it was considered distribution. Neither of us is a lawyer, but I think that position is correct.

    I've also been in positions where recipients of GPL code did not want source and we did not want to provide an offer (to comply with the GPL) because we did not like the transferability provisions. In the end we shipped them a CD and offered to pay return shipping for them to send it back to us at their discretion.

    --
    In Liberty, Rene
  191. The answer is simple by Zaphrod · · Score: 1

    Ask them nicely if you can have a copy of the software for personal use, get it in writing. If they give it to you then they have distributed and assuming that the GPL would apply to that code if distributed then you can do what you like with it.

  192. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Pharmboy · · Score: 1

    Thanks for the detail info, that is one of the nuances of the GPL that isn't obvious at first glance. I still have one problem that you are free to ignore if it doesn't interest you, but the issue seems real, even if unlikely. Here is the oversimplification to be perfectly clear in my meaning:

    Bill writes a program and gives only Alice the binaries but no source. Bill has included a copy of the GPL license with the binaries and it is obviously GPL licensed. One year later, Alice needs to modify the source, and asks Bill to comply with GPL 2, 3(b) and provide a copy. Bill says he changed his mind about the license and it is now closed source and refuses to give Alice a copy of the source. He offers to sell her a restricted copy for $50,000 instead.

    Bill can't relicense the copy he gave to Alice after he has already distributed it, that would be taking away Alice's right to redistribute under her current GPL licensed copy. He can change the license on FUTURE copies that HE distributes only, but he can never "unlicense" a copy that has knowingly and deliberately distributed under the GPL in a retroactive way. (This would be true regardless of the license, even Microsoft only changes the license with click through updates that you can refuse) Alice is metaphorically held hostage if she can't take legal action against Bill for refusing to comply with the GPL. Even though she is not the owner of the copyright, she can show she has been harmed by Bill's refusal to comply with the license of the software she received.

    While not a common situation, the more the GPL gets used, particularly on smaller 'for hire' projects, the more likely this situation could occur. Perhaps the program made Alice $1M on her servers, and Bill just wants a cut, the reason doesn't matter. While it is easy to say "always get the source when you get the binaries", it is easy to overlook on a busy project when you hear "I will send it in the mail next week" and you aren't expecting to make changes any time soon.

    Academic, perhaps, but troublesome. Thanks.

    --
    Tequila: It's not just for breakfast anymore!
  193. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Rene+S.+Hollan · · Score: 1

    That's easy. Bill gave Alice a license which gave her certain rights, including the right to demand source from Bill. She has a cause of action if he refuses under contract law (IF money or other "consideration" changed hands making it a binding contract).

    Basically. Bill's rights stem from his copyright, and Alice's rights stem from the license Bill gave her.

    Now, because Bill wrote the code all by himself, he is not obliged to license it to Alice under those terms. In fact, he can license it to Alice under restrictive terms, and to others under the GPL, and Alice could not demand he provide her source because her license did not give her that right. Further, she couldn't demand anyone who DID license the code under the GPL give her source either because they did not distribute to her!

    Of course, if distribution is widespread, Alice might be able to get a copy of the source eventually, but she has no right to it.

    Now, lets say Bill licensed the code to Alice under GPL2 3(b) because he had to in order to distribute to her as a "derived work" of someone else's GPL2 licensed code and no money changed hands. It would be questionable if Alice had a cause of action against Bill for violating the license. But, the copyright holders would have a cause of action against Bill for violating their copyright even if no money changed hands when their code was distributed to Bill, because his right to redistribute derived works was restricted by the license he got.

    So, you can't violate a copyright without a license (which does not require consideration), but you can't enforce a license you receive without having paid consideration for it. One can freely give up rights without consideration, but one can not enforce rights gained unless they paid consideration. At least that's as far as my NAL understanding of contract law goes (there being an implied contract when the license is granted in exchange for money or other consideration).

    --
    In Liberty, Rene
  194. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Rene+S.+Hollan · · Score: 1

    Oh, Alice having "no right" to source above, means she has no cause of action to demand it. She does have a right to have it if she obtains it through someone other than Bill.

    Basically, if I say you can do something, and you do it, you can do so with impunity: I can't change my mind after the fact unless I rescind my permission. But, if I promise you something (future delivery of source on demand under GPL2 3(b)), and you don't pay me consideration, you can't enforce that promise. Others, however, may.

    In fact, GPL has specific sanctions for those that do not redistribute according to the terms of the license: their right to future redistribution can be explicitly rescinded. Further, statutory sanctions under copyright violation can also apply.

    --
    In Liberty, Rene
  195. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by optikos · · Score: 1

    GNUv3sect6para0You may convey a covered work in object code form under the terms of sections 4 and 5, provided that you also convey the machine-readable Corresponding Source under the terms of this License, in one of these ways: [5 methods of providing the source code]

    Why are you fixated on the word "distribute"? Instead, you should be fixated on the word "convey" as actually used in GPL as quoted above. Legally "conveyance" does not need an underlying "distribution", even though usually "distribution" needs an underlying "conveyance". Please read the GPL itself. But don't take my word. Let's use the GPL's own definition of "convey" and "propagate" to see whether there exists a method of conveyance in which no distribution occurs or whether there exists a method of propagation in which no distribution occurs.

    GPLv3sect0para5 To “propagate” a work means to do anything with it that, without permission, would make you directly or secondarily liable for infringement under applicable copyright law, except executing it on a computer or modifying a private copy. Propagation includes copying , distribution (with or without modification), making available to the public, and in some countries other activities as well.

    GPLv3sect0para6 To “convey” a work means any kind of propagation that enables other parties to make or receive copies. Mere interaction with a user through a computer network, with no transfer of a copy, is not conveying.

    If the university has copied OP's Program from whereever OP stored the Program to the local hard disk of at least one user's computer and granted that user at least read permission to the Program that "enables" that user, "a third part", "to make ... copies", then by GPLv3sect0para6 the OP's university by an overt act of its own volition has triggered the source-code obligation to that user via mere copying/conveyance to that user's local hard disk without any distribution whatsoever outside the OP's university. That user shall now be in possession of all members of the set {OP's university-paid-for/university-copied binary, OP's university-paid-for source code, OP's pre-employment source code, underlying GPLed libraries' source code}. (Unless that user has consumated a signed side contract with the OP's university outside of the GPL as per GPLv3sect2para1sentenceFinal), under the freedom-rights granted transitively by the chain of copiers via the provisions of the GPL, that user then may now publicly distribute to humankind the OP's binary and OP's source code from which this binary is derived as a derivative work.

    Source-code freedoms preserved transitively without distribution performed by OP's university itself or by OP herself. QED. The bits & information want their freedom. IANAL.

  196. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Attila+Dimedici · · Score: 1
    No, they haven't as has been stated by the people who wrote the GPL.
    You actually quoted the relevant section

    GPLv3sect0para6 To “convey” a work means any kind of propagation that enables other parties to make or receive copies. Mere interaction with a user through a computer network, with no transfer of a copy, is not conveying.

    The user in your scenario who is using the software on a University computer has not received a copy of the software. The copy of the software is on the University computer.

    --
    The truth is that all men having power ought to be mistrusted. James Madison
  197. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Malvineous · · Score: 1

    But what happens if I release a GPL'd library, and your company uses it in their product? Once they have split and distributed the source + binary to the spinoff company, this means a program using my GPL'd library has been distributed. Does that mean I, as the library author, am also entitled to a copy of your source?

  198. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by optikos · · Score: 1
    I don't need any FSF priesthood who wrote the GPL to tell me what English words mean. The words of English alone tell me what the words of English mean without the aid of you or FSF or FSF's legal counsel or RMS himself to act as interpreter or translator of my own native language to me. The words of the GPL license contract mean what the words themselves mean without further explanation or spin or politicizing or propaganda or agenda or any other extraneous gratuitous distractions from parties who might have their own skin in the game and thus might like to see one interpretation or the other prevail. In the principles of Aristotle and Ayn Rand: A is A; it is what it is. The truth of the words in the GPL is the truth of the words in the GPL. Open your eyes & your mind and read the text of the GPL itself.

    GPLv3sect6para0 any any any any kind of propagation that enables enables enables enables other other other parties to make make make make ... copies copies copies copies [obligates the propagator to make the source-code available in one or more of 5 listed ways]

    What on earth do you think that "any", "enables", "other parties", and "make copies" mean in my scenario in a prior posting along this thread other than the following: A) If the OP's university were to have installed OP's binary Program on the local hard drive of the computer that the university authorized that user to utilize, and B) if the OP's university were to have granted read permission to OP's binary Program files on the local hard drive of the computer that the university authorized that user to fully utilize, and C) if there were to have not existed a side-agreement contract between the OP's university and that user that would have prohibited that user to make further copies of files on that local hard drive (especially copies that fall outside of the perimeter of the university), then under concomitant A & B & C the OP's university would have made a copy---where that act of copying is permitted only under the terms & provisions of the GPL---for which the university is legally responsible under the law (i.e., meeting the GPL's definition of "propagation"). In this scenario, did the OP's university lock down OP's binary Program out of sight of the user and throw away the key? No, in this scenario the university overtly granted read/copy permission to the files of OP's binary Program on the local hard drive that the university provided to the user.

    The university rolled out the royal red carpet to the user to enact the very purpose of the GPL: to get the source code so that the user can maintain the user's own software freedom herself. Let us count the threads in this red carpet. The university funded the development of a GPLed Program. The university continued funding the development of that GPLed Program after being advised of the underlying GPLed libraries that cause the whole binary Program to be GPLed, rather than replace the GPLed libraries with non-GPL analogues. The university provided the user with a separate univerisity-owned computer, rather than merely an account on a time-share minicomputer, which could have permitted the university to avoid making the local-hard-drive copy by utilizing a single shared instance of the binary Program. The university provided that computer with local hard drive, rather than merely a diskless-booted remote filesystem, which likewise could have permitted the university to avoid making the local-hard-drive copy by utilizing a single shared instance of the binary Program. Did the OP's university make a policy prohibiting the use of OP's binary Program punishable by the death penalty? No, the university overtly authorized university personnel to copy the GPLed binary Program onto that hard drive, which can be performed legally only via compliance with

  199. Re:Yes, but it may not mean what you think it mean by Attila+Dimedici · · Score: 1

    You are absolutely correct to conclude your post with "QED. IANAL", because your reasoning clearly demonstrates that to be the case.

    --
    The truth is that all men having power ought to be mistrusted. James Madison