Slashdot Mirror


The Tuesday Birthday Problem

An anonymous reader sends in a mathematical puzzle introduced at the recent Gathering 4 Gardner, a convention of mathematicians, magicians, and puzzle enthusiasts held biannually in Atlanta. The Tuesday Birthday Problem is simply stated, but tends to mislead both intuitive and mathematically informed guesses. "I have two children, one of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?" The submitter adds, "Believe it or not, the Tuesday thing is relevant. Well, sort of. It's ambiguous."

981 comments

  1. Well? by MistrX · · Score: 0, Offtopic

    Slashdot answer in 3..2..1..

    1. Re:Well? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      49%

    2. Re:Well? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Slashdot answer with a number of wrong answers in 3..2..1..

      FTFY

    3. Re:Well? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 3, Informative

      13/27

    4. Re:Well? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 2, Funny

      Only if you believe in randomness. If the other child in fact is a boy the probablility for it is 1.

    5. Re:Well? by aliquis · · Score: 1

      25%?

      Chance of one children being a boy = Roughly 50% (F or M)

      Chances of two children both being boys = Roughly 25% (FF, FM, MF or MM)

      One is a boy => Requirement for the second to be a boy is that both are boys = 25% chance?

    6. Re:Well? by repapetilto · · Score: 2, Interesting

      Indeed, is everyone drunk or something...

      First, The question doesn't say the other (this does not mean older or younger...) child was not born on a Tuesday, maybe the questioner meant to include this info but they failed to.

      Second, the probability that the other child is a boy is either 1 or 0, it's something that has already occurred... The questioner probably meant to ask "What is the probability that if you guess the other one is a boy you will be correct?"

      So if we correct the question to read as it was likely intended to be read:
      "I have two children, one of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday. The other child is not a boy born on a Tuesday. What is the probability that you will be correct if you guess that my other child is a boy?"

      So you think to yourself, well assuming boys pop out of that mom just as easily of girls and doesnt prefer to do it any particular day of the week, that means its 1/7 chance it might have happened on any given day and the likelihood it was a boy is 50:50 for 6 days of the week and then 0 for tuesday. So you multiply .5 by 6, add zero, and take the average (divide by 7) to get 3/7.

      The real confusion occurs due to the use of odd numbers... Imagine a world where everything was found in sets of twos, people had 2 heads, 4 arms, etc. They would always be dealing with eating animals that were siamese, if they wanted to hunt by throwing rocks or whatever each siamese would throw a rock so they would use two rocks. In this world I would say that what we call the number 2 would actually be like their number 1, and what we use as unity, or one, would be for the siamese called a half. Therefore their numberline would go 0, .5, 2, 2.5, 4, 4.5, 6, 6.5, 8, etc.

      This is actually more reflective of reality in that, deep down, math and counting are extensions of logic, and the fundamental unit of logic is a true-false statement which is basically a set of 2. True is only 1/2 of the total possibilities for any given logical statement. For example say you have counted one rock, what that actually represents is both having one rock in your presence butt also, concurrently, not having counted other than one rock, so in essence you have counted two different things and are representing them with a number supposed to correspond with one thing. Wouldnt it make more sense to just use "two" to represent the one thing youve counted?

      The probability of guessing correctly by saying the second child is a boy would therefore be 1/2(6), or 3, divided by 6 and a half, which gives you 6 out of 12 and 1/2 odds.

    7. Re:Well? by A+Nun+Must+Cow+Herd · · Score: 2, Informative

      If you ignore the Tuesday bit, then eliminating the option that you know is not possible (FF won't work since one child is a boy) you have three options remaining, each with equal probability, giving 33% chance.

      Or to put it another way: If it was 25% chance like you say then so is FM and MF. There are no other possibilities so it should add up to 100%, but you only get 75%...

    8. Re:Well? by aliquis · · Score: 1

      Don't know if that made much sense?

      But:
      Chance of one child to be a boy? 50%
      Chance of two children to both be boys? 25%

      Chance that the second of two children is a boy? 50%
      Chance that the second of two children is a boy AND that the first one is a boy? 25%

      But things like this always fuck me up, because I find it hard to tell if the other statement matters or not.

      Oh the shame to be wrong on Slashdot if I where (was? ;D) :D ... because one also want to ask oneself "but what are the chance that a children, regardless of what has happened is a boy?"

    9. Re:Well? by riegel · · Score: 1

      (FF, FM, MF or MM)
      FF is not possible
      FM is not possible

      --
      http://p8ste.com - Web based Clipboard
    10. Re:Well? by DocDJ · · Score: 1

      First, The question doesn't say the other (this does not mean older or younger...) child was not born on a Tuesday, maybe the questioner meant to include this info but they failed to.

      It's not part of the problem that only one of the children can be born on a Tuesday, you might be dealing with two boys of differing ages, both of whom were born on a Tuesday. In Keith Devlin's analysis (which is correct, given certain assumptions about the problem), there is only one outcome where there are two boys born on a Tuesday. This is why, once you've accounted for this by enumerating the outcomes where the elder child is a boy born on Tuesday, you can't count it again when enumerating the outcomes for the younger child.

    11. Re:Well? by repapetilto · · Score: 2, Insightful

      Here is the list of outcomes if it is possible for both boys to have been born on a Tuesday:

      Girl on Monday, Boy on Tuesday
      Girl on Tuesday, Boy on Tuesday
      Girl on Wednesday Boy on Tuesday
      Girl on Thursday, Boy on Tuesday
      Girl on Friday, Boy on Tuesday
      Girl on Saturday, Boy on Tuesday
      Girl on Sunday, Boy on Tuesday

      Boy on Monday, Boy on Tuesday
      Boy on Tuesday, Boy on Tuesday
      Boy on Wednesday Boy on Tuesday
      Boy on Thursday, Boy on Tuesday
      Boy on Friday, Boy on Tuesday
      Boy on Saturday, Boy on Tuesday
      Boy on Sunday, Boy on Tuesday

      If having a boy or girl is equally likely (we dont do any weighting), then the chance its a boy is therefore 7/14=1/2. If you couldnt have two boys on Tuesday it would be 6/14=3/7. Please point out where this analysis goes astray.

    12. Re:Well? by aliquis · · Score: 1

      Boho, crap, so wrong as always :D

    13. Re:Well? by aliquis · · Score: 1

      But can one assume they wasn't possible when one look at the bigger picture / the chance of both being boys?

      Or is that just wrong and one only should care about the current situation?

      And if you where to decide on 50% would that be because the first kid being female options isn't valid longer since the first one was a boy, or is it rather because it's 50% chance that the second one is a boy regardless of anything else?

    14. Re:Well? by suso · · Score: 3, Insightful

      My older brother and I were both born on Tuesdays.

    15. Re:Well? by ticklemeozmo · · Score: 4, Informative

      This is a gambler's fallacy problem. The more tangents you throw at it, the closer you get to .5 (50%), while never reaching it. This is the limit, why? Because there's only two potential outcomes for the other child: boy or girl.

      What you (or the website you copied and pasted the ratio from) fail to take into account (and why it's a Gambler's fallacy problem) is that when involving chance, anything that happened in the past is completely irrelevant to future probables. I could roll a die 99 times, and get 6, the probability of getting 100 6's when I've already got 99 6's is still 1 out of 6, not 6^100.

      The reason the chi square doesn't come into play here is because it doesn't MATTER the order. Has she said "What is the probability my SECOND-BORN was a boy?" it would be perfectly logical to write the square because the boy who was born on Tuesday could be either the first born or the second born, she never stipulated.

      We can say that the boy, who was born on a tuesday, was also a Gemini. Does this change the ratio? No, the probability of having two boys is still 50-50%, because the unknown only has two possible outcomes: boy or girl.

      --
      When modding "Informative", please make sure it both has a source and IS actually informative.
    16. Re:Well? by ceoyoyo · · Score: 4, Informative

      Failed to read the article, hey?

      You're absolutely correct IF you assume that the man is just describing one of his children. That is the logical interpretation of the problem. However, if someone went out and specifically selected a family with at least one boy, the probability of the other child being a girl is not 50% - the population in question has been artificially depleted of girls because the criteria excluded all two-girl families.

    17. Re:Well? by Hylandr · · Score: 1

      Shame shame shame...

      The answer of course, is 42...

      Silly birds off with you!

      - Dan.

      --
      ~ People that think they are better than anyone else for any reason are the cause of all the strife in the world.
    18. Re:Well? by mcvos · · Score: 4, Informative

      Read the article. Whether the answer is 50% or not depends on the context, and that context is not specified in the problem.

      If you meet the person with his son, and he tells you that that son is born on a Tuesday, then the chance of the other kid being a boy is 50%. If you see him as one of the thousands of parents who have two children, at least of which is a boy who's born on a Tuesday, the chance of the other kid being a boy is 13/27.

    19. Re:Well? by mcvos · · Score: 1

      (FF, FM, MF or MM)

      FF is not possible

      FM is not possible

      Why is FM not possible? The M is a boy, isn't it?

    20. Re:Well? by Janek+Kozicki · · Score: 1

      (1/2)*(1/7)*6+(1/7)*(1/2)=1/2

      that's my bet.

      You were thinking

      (1/2)*(1/7)*6+(1/7)*(1/4)=13/28

      but this is wrong. You already know that it was a boy, so the 1/4th doesn't apply. Yes, there's 1/4th chance that there are two boys (or two girls). But since you already know it's a boy - you only go down the probability tree from there, and the other branch is discarded.

      --
      #
      #\ @ ? Colonize Mars
      #
    21. Re:Well? by mcgrew · · Score: 1

      Actually it's more like 49%, since there are slightly more girls than boys. I was surprised that I got this one so easy, this kind of puzzle usually discombobulates me.

    22. Re:Well? by Eponymous+Coward · · Score: 1

      According to the article, you have enumerated almost half of the possibilities. What if the second boy wasn't born on a Tuesday, then the first one must have been.

      From the article:

      Now suppose that the older child isn’t a boy born on Tuesday. The younger child then must be, of course. Now we count up the possibilities for the sex and birth day of the older child. If she’s a girl, she might have been born on any day of the week, generating seven more possibilities. If he’s a boy, he could have been born any day except Tuesday. (Otherwise this case would already have been counted in the first scenario: the older child a boy born on Tuesday). This second scenario generates just six, rather than seven, more possibilities.

    23. Re:Well? by amstrad · · Score: 0
      Because you are negleting the order of birth. You are counting, for example, "Older boy on Monday, younger boy on Tuesday" and "Younger boy on Monday, older boy on Tuesday" as the same event and they are not.

      The correct enumeration of events are as follows:

      If older boy is born on tuesday:

      7 possibilities of younger girls
      7 possibilities of younger boys

      If older boy is not born on Tuesday

      7 possibilities of younger girls
      6 possibilities of younger boys (because you have been told that at least one boy was born on tuesday)

      There are 27 total possible events, 13 of which are both boys.

    24. Re:Well? by prionic6 · · Score: 5, Informative

      Assuming 50/50 chance of boy or girl and a 1/7 chance of each weekday, let's look at the general population of families with two childs:

      B1B1 B1B2 B1B3 B1B4 B1B5 B1B6 B1B7
      B2B1 B2B2 B2B3 B2B4 B2B5 B2B6 B2B7
      B3B1 B3B2 B3B3 B3B4 B3B5 B3B6 B3B7
      B4B1 B4B2 B4B3 B4B4 B4B5 B4B6 B4B7
      B5B1 B5B2 B5B3 B5B4 B5B5 B5B6 B5B7
      B6B1 B6B2 B6B3 B6B4 B6B5 B6B6 B6B7
      B7B1 B7B2 B7B3 B7B4 B7B5 B7B6 B7B7

      B1G1 B1G2 B1G3 B1G4 B1G5 B1G6 B1G7
      B2G1 B2G2 B2G3 B2G4 B2G5 B2G6 B2G7
      B3G1 B3G2 B3G3 B3G4 B3G5 B3G6 B3G7
      B4G1 B4G2 B4G3 B4G4 B4G5 B4G6 B4G7
      B5G1 B5G2 B5G3 B5G4 B5G5 B5G6 B5G7
      B6G1 B6G2 B6G3 B6G4 B6G5 B6G6 B6G7
      B7G1 B7G2 B7G3 B7G4 B7G5 B7G6 B7G7

      G1B1 G1B2 G1B3 G1B4 G1B5 G1B6 G1B7
      G2B1 G2B2 G2B3 G2B4 G2B5 G2B6 G2B7
      G3B1 G3B2 G3B3 G3B4 G3B5 G3B6 G3B7
      G4B1 G4B2 G4B3 G4B4 G4B5 G4B6 G4B7
      G5B1 G5B2 G5B3 G5B4 G5B5 G5B6 G5B7
      G6B1 G6B2 G6B3 G6B4 G6B5 G6B6 G6B7
      G7B1 G7B2 G7B3 G7B4 G7B5 G7B6 G7B7

      G1G1 G1G2 G1G3 G1G4 G1G5 G1G6 G1G7
      G2G1 G2G2 G2G3 G2G4 G2G5 G2G6 G2G7
      G3G1 G3G2 G3G3 G3G4 G3G5 G3G6 G3G7
      G4G1 G4G2 G4G3 G4G4 G4G5 G4G6 G4G7
      G5G1 G5G2 G5G3 G5G4 G5G5 G5G6 G5G7
      G6G1 G6G2 G6G3 G6G4 G6G5 G6G6 G6G7
      G7G1 G7G2 G7G3 G7G4 G7G5 G7G6 G7G7

      Each outcome has P = 1/(7*7*4) = 1/196

      Let's only look at the families with (at least one) tuesday boy:

           B1B2
      B2B1 B2B2 B2B3 B2B4 B2B5 B2B6 B2B7
           B3B2
           B4B2
           B5B2
           B6B2
           B7B2

      B2G1 B2G2 B2G3 B2G4 B2G5 B2G6 B2G7

           G1B2
           G2B2
           G3B2
           G4B2
           G5B2
           G6B2
           G7B2

      Of these 27 families, 13 have another boy. So P = 13/27.

    25. Re:Well? by mcvos · · Score: 4, Informative

      You're right! Pretty amazing, considering the article gives the correct answer and explains it pretty thoroughly. Even when you think: "But wait! Can't you look at it some other way?", the article does just that.

      Really, this time it pays to RTFA.

    26. Re:Well? by ShadowRangerRIT · · Score: 1

      If you want to be really pedantic, at birth, there are more boys than girls. Girls constitute a majority of the population because boys die more often, but at birth, the ratio is skewed in favor of boys. So even being a pedantic pain in the ass, you've made assumptions that invalidate your argument.

      --
      $_ = "wftedskaebjgdpjgidbsmnjgcdwatb"; tr/a-z/oh, turtleneck Phrase Jar!/; print
    27. Re:Well? by takowl · · Score: 2, Insightful

      IANA mathematician, but: if you also list the probabilities for the Boy on Tuesday being the first child, you get 28 possibilities, of which 14 have two boys (giving you 1/2 again). However, then you've listed "Boy on Tuesday, Boy on Tuesday" twice, although there's no reason for it to be more likely than any of the other possibilities. So if you remove the duplicate, you get 13/27, as stated.

      If, on the other hand, it stated that the younger child was a Boy born on a Tuesday, your list would apply, so the probability of two boys would be 1/2.

    28. Re:Well? by jonbryce · · Score: 1

      It is more like 51% since there are slightly more boys born than girls. The girls live longer which is why the female population is higher, but that is at the old women end of the spectrum.

    29. Re:Well? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      "This is why, once you've accounted for this by enumerating the outcomes where the elder child is a boy born on Tuesday, you can't count it again when enumerating the outcomes for the younger child."

      Why should you make two cases where one is older and one is younger? One is older, one is younger, it is not stated which is which, so the chance is not affected.

      If you say that "a" boy is born on a tuesday and the other kid could be older or younger, born on a tuesday or not, boy or girl then the possibilities become:

      Girl on any day, Boy on Tuesday
      Boy on any day, Boy on Tuesday

      If you say that ONE boy is born on a tuesday (excluding that TWO can be), it's another thing.

    30. Re:Well? by bsDaemon · · Score: 3, Funny

      ...what that actually represents is both having one rock in your presence butt also...

      I'm sure glad I don't have a rock present in my butt...

    31. Re:Well? by camperdave · · Score: 1

      The order of birth is irrelevant. Child B in his list is the Tuesday born boy. That leaves only child A, a girl born on any day, or a boy born on any day.

      --
      When our name is on the back of your car, we're behind you all the way!
    32. Re:Well? by A.+B3ttik · · Score: 0, Redundant

      You don't take into account which one is older/younger.

      Older Girl on Monday, Younger Boy on Tuesday
      Older Girl on Tuesday, Younger Boy on Tuesday
      Older Girl on Wednesday Younger Boy on Tuesday
      Older Girl on Thursday, Younger Boy on Tuesday
      Older Girl on Friday, Younger Boy on Tuesday
      Older Girl on Saturday, Younger Boy on Tuesday
      Older Girl on Sunday, Younger Boy on Tuesday

      Younger Girl on Monday, Older Boy on Tuesday
      Younger Girl on Tuesday, Older Boy on Tuesday
      Younger Girl on Wednesday Older Boy on Tuesday
      Younger Girl on Thursday, Older Boy on Tuesday
      Younger Girl on Friday, Older Boy on Tuesday
      Younger Girl on Saturday, Older Boy on Tuesday
      Younger Girl on Sunday, Older Boy on Tuesday

      Older Boy on Monday, Younger Boy on Tuesday
      Older Boy on Tuesday, Younger Boy on Tuesday*
      Older Boy on Wednesday Younger Boy on Tuesday
      Older Boy on Thursday, Younger Boy on Tuesday
      Older Boy on Friday, Younger Boy on Tuesday
      Older Boy on Saturday, Younger Boy on Tuesday
      Older Boy on Sunday, Younger Boy on Tuesday

      Younger Boy on Monday, Older Boy on Tuesday
      *[Already counted in the above, and thus not repeated here]
      Younger Boy on Wednesday Older Boy on Tuesday
      Younger Boy on Thursday, Older Boy on Tuesday
      Younger Boy on Friday, Older Boy on Tuesday
      Younger Boy on Saturday, Older Boy on Tuesday
      Younger Boy on Sunday, Older Boy on Tuesday


      Note that "Older Boy on Tuesday, Younger Boy on Tuesday" would, by intuition, be counted twice. But it's not. So you end up with 13/27 probability that the unmentioned child is a Boy, 14/17 probability that it is a girl.

    33. Re:Well? by ticklemeozmo · · Score: 2, Funny

      My older brother and I were both born on Tuesdays.

      Nothing to see here, just a systemic anomaly. Move along, now.

      --
      When modding "Informative", please make sure it both has a source and IS actually informative.
    34. Re:Well? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The math still works.

      50% of the children in the population are boys born on Tuesday. If genders are equally distributed among the rest 25% are girls, and 25% boys.

      To make this interesting one would have to specify that the second child is not a boy born on Tuesday, because then you'd have 7 days of girls and only 6 days of boys.

    35. Re:Well? by Culture20 · · Score: 1

      Order is Irrelevant. The question ask for the probability of the sex of the "other" child, not second child. It's like saying "One of my children's eyes are blue. He's a boy. What are the chances that a specific pregnant rural family in Russia will have a girl?"

    36. Re:Well? by DocDJ · · Score: 1

      Please point out where this analysis goes astray.

      Gladly. The available outcomes are actually:

      1. 1. Girl on Monday, Boy on Tuesday
      2. 2. Girl on Tuesday, Boy on Tuesday
      3. 3. Girl on Wednesday Boy on Tuesday
      4. 4. Girl on Thursday, Boy on Tuesday
      5. 5. Girl on Friday, Boy on Tuesday
      6. 6. Girl on Saturday, Boy on Tuesday
      7. 7. Girl on Sunday, Boy on Tuesday
      8. 8. Boy on Monday, Boy on Tuesday - BB
      9. 9. Boy on Tuesday, Boy on Tuesday - BB
      10. 10. Boy on Wednesday Boy on Tuesday - BB
      11. 11. Boy on Thursday, Boy on Tuesda - BB
      12. 12. Boy on Friday, Boy on Tuesday - BB
      13. 13. Boy on Saturday, Boy on Tuesday - BB
      14. 14. Boy on Sunday, Boy on Tuesday - BB
      15. 15. Boy on Tuesday, Boy on Monday - BB
      16. 16. Boy on Tuesday, Boy on Wednesday - BB
      17. 17. Boy on Tuesday, Boy on Thursday - BB
      18. 18. Boy on Tuesday, Boy on Friday - BB
      19. 19. Boy on Tuesday, Boy on Saturday - BB
      20. 20. Boy on Tuesday, Boy on Sunday - BB
      21. 21. Boy on Tuesday, Girl on Monday
      22. 22. Boy on Tuesday, Girl on Tuesday
      23. 23. Boy on Tuesday, Girl on Wednesday
      24. 24. Boy on Tuesday, Girl on Thursday
      25. 25. Boy on Tuesday, Girl on Friday
      26. 26. Boy on Tuesday, Girl on Saturday
      27. 27. Boy on Tuesday, Girl on Sunday

      Note that there are only 27 outcomes as both boys being born on a Tuesday is only one outcome, not two. There are 13 outcomes labelled BB, so the probability of having two boys is 13/27. Hope that's clear now.

    37. Re:Well? by fortapocalypse · · Score: 1

      This is a gambler's fallacy problem.

      I agree. They have a problem and they need to admit it.

    38. Re:Well? by jonadab · · Score: 1

      > Because there's only two potential outcomes for the other child: boy or girl

      It's not quite a fair coin toss, though. The ratio of males to females is a big higher than 1:1 among children (and much lower among the elderly, though that's less relevant to the question). Of course, this is assuming that the speaker is human...

      --
      Cut that out, or I will ship you to Norilsk in a box.
    39. Re:Well? by Eponymous+Coward · · Score: 1

      The order isn't irrelevant for the answer, but it is relevant when enumerating all the possibilities. RTFA, it does a very good job of explaining it.

    40. Re:Well? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 3, Informative

      Assuming 50/50 chance of boy or girl and a 1/7 chance of each weekday, let's look at the general population of families with two childs:

      B1B1 B1B2 B1B3 B1B4 B1B5 B1B6 B1B7
      B2B1 B2B2 B2B3 B2B4 B2B5 B2B6 B2B7
      B3B1 B3B2 B3B3 B3B4 B3B5 B3B6 B3B7
      B4B1 B4B2 B4B3 B4B4 B4B5 B4B6 B4B7
      B5B1 B5B2 B5B3 B5B4 B5B5 B5B6 B5B7
      B6B1 B6B2 B6B3 B6B4 B6B5 B6B6 B6B7
      B7B1 B7B2 B7B3 B7B4 B7B5 B7B6 B7B7

      B1G1 B1G2 B1G3 B1G4 B1G5 B1G6 B1G7
      B2G1 B2G2 B2G3 B2G4 B2G5 B2G6 B2G7
      B3G1 B3G2 B3G3 B3G4 B3G5 B3G6 B3G7
      B4G1 B4G2 B4G3 B4G4 B4G5 B4G6 B4G7
      B5G1 B5G2 B5G3 B5G4 B5G5 B5G6 B5G7
      B6G1 B6G2 B6G3 B6G4 B6G5 B6G6 B6G7
      B7G1 B7G2 B7G3 B7G4 B7G5 B7G6 B7G7

      G1B1 G1B2 G1B3 G1B4 G1B5 G1B6 G1B7
      G2B1 G2B2 G2B3 G2B4 G2B5 G2B6 G2B7
      G3B1 G3B2 G3B3 G3B4 G3B5 G3B6 G3B7
      G4B1 G4B2 G4B3 G4B4 G4B5 G4B6 G4B7
      G5B1 G5B2 G5B3 G5B4 G5B5 G5B6 G5B7
      G6B1 G6B2 G6B3 G6B4 G6B5 G6B6 G6B7
      G7B1 G7B2 G7B3 G7B4 G7B5 G7B6 G7B7

      G1G1 G1G2 G1G3 G1G4 G1G5 G1G6 G1G7
      G2G1 G2G2 G2G3 G2G4 G2G5 G2G6 G2G7
      G3G1 G3G2 G3G3 G3G4 G3G5 G3G6 G3G7
      G4G1 G4G2 G4G3 G4G4 G4G5 G4G6 G4G7
      G5G1 G5G2 G5G3 G5G4 G5G5 G5G6 G5G7
      G6G1 G6G2 G6G3 G6G4 G6G5 G6G6 G6G7
      G7G1 G7G2 G7G3 G7G4 G7G5 G7G6 G7G7

      Why are you assuming that order matters, but boys are interchangable? If we label the child that was mentioned in article as A and the other one as B then B2B2 splits into two cases when A has an older brother and when he has a yonger brother, therefore we get:


      B2B1 B2B2 B2B3 B2B4 B2B5 B2B6 B2B7

                B1B2
                B2B2
                B3B2
                B4B2
                B5B2
                B6B2
                B7B2

      B2G1 B2G2 B2G3 B2G4 B2G5 B2G6 B2G7

                G1B2
                G2B2
                G3B2
                G4B2
                G5B2
                G6B2
                G7B2

      Of these 28 families 14 have another boy, so P=14/28=1/2

    41. Re:Well? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      What you (or the website you copied and pasted the ratio from) fail to take into account (and why it's a Gambler's fallacy problem) is that when involving chance, anything that happened in the past is completely irrelevant to future probables. I could roll a die 99 times, and get 6, the probability of getting 100 6's when I've already got 99 6's is still 1 out of 6, not 6^100.

      The existence is 99 consecutive 6s implies that your assumption of fair die is incorrect.

    42. Re:Well? by radtea · · Score: 1

      However, if someone went out and specifically selected a family with at least one boy, the probability of the other child being a girl is not 50% - the population in question has been artificially depleted of girls because the criteria excluded all two-girl families.

      This is the crux of the problem: the choice of the population and the information provided to you by the twit who thinks this is an interesting way to spend time.

      The cannonical form of this problem is, "If at least one of my children is a boy, what is the probability the other is a girl?" The answer is not necessarily 50%, depending on information that the person stating the problem has not provided and you have no way of knowing.

      The usual answer that is claimed to be "correct" is 66%, since you have four cases: bb, bg, gb, gg, but the last case is excluded by the formulation of the question.

      But suppose that the question was formulated by flipping a coin and picking from these cases randomly, and then posing the question in terms of boy or girl on that basis. One way of doing that would be to split the above list in half:

      bb, bg | gb gg

      and ask "At least one of my children is a boy..." in the first case and "At least one of my children is a girl..." in the second case.

      Mathematicians will complain that this isn't "fair", and they would be right.

      But then I have to ask: why is this problem always stated in terms of the child of known sex being a boy? Do mathematicians always and only have male children? In that case the probability of the other child being a girl would be zero!

      --
      Blasphemy is a human right. Blasphemophobia kills.
    43. Re:Well? by Chapter80 · · Score: 1

      Indeed, is everyone drunk or something...

      Second, the probability that the other child is a boy is either 1 or 0, it's something that has already occurred...

      ...snip...

      The probability of guessing correctly by saying the second child is a boy would therefore be 1/2(6), or 3, divided by 6 and a half, which gives you 6 out of 12 and 1/2 odds.

      Using this logic, what's the probability that I won the lottery last week? 50/50?

    44. Re:Well? by BasilBrush · · Score: 2, Informative

      It's not that the order in time is especially relevant. It's that the identity of the child matters. You could call them child A and child B, and list the permutations, and the answer would still be 13/27. Child A being born on a Tueday are NOT the same set of permutations as child B being born on a tuesday. They have to be listed separately so that duplicate permutations can be removed from the list. That's what makes the difference.

    45. Re:Well? by Chapter80 · · Score: 3, Funny

      We can say that the boy, who was born on a tuesday, was also a Gemini. Does this change the ratio? No, the probability of having two boys is still 50-50%, because the unknown only has two possible outcomes: boy or girl.

      Did I win the lottery last week? The unknown only has two possible outcomes: I won or I lost.
      Therefore, based on your math, my odds are 50-50%.

      University of Phoenix online wants their diploma back. :-)

    46. Re:Well? by lanceblack · · Score: 0

      This problem is gaining far too much currency on the Interwebz. It is stated too vaguely to be considered mathematically rigorous. It is not a mathematics problem; rather, it is an exercise in sophistry.

      --
      "Ignorance more frequently begets confidence than does knowledge." Darwin
    47. Re:Well? by bonkeydcow · · Score: 1

      You're right the question posed in the topic is not really the question at all. I hope someone gets fired over that blunder!

    48. Re:Well? by tehcyder · · Score: 1

      Really, this time it pays to RTFA.

      Well I seem to be blocked, so that's out. Is it a US only site or something?

      --
      To have a right to do a thing is not at all the same as to be right in doing it
    49. Re:Well? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Chiild A is the boy born on Tuesday. The question is about Child B. The answer is 6/13.

    50. Re:Well? by mdwh2 · · Score: 1

      If order doesn't matter, then consider the basic question, where no information is offered: IfI have two children, what's the probability that I have two boys? Let's list the possibilities without taking order into account:

      Boy, Boy
      Boy, Girl
      Girl, Girl

      So it's 1/3? Well no, there's overwhelming acceptance that the probability is 1/4, because order does matter. Note that ordering doesn't have to be by the age of child - that's just a convient way of ordering. We could equally order then by their name alphabetically, or whatever. But in probability, some notion of ordering is important. Consider the same question with randomly selected blue and green balls - the probability of selecting two blue balls is still 1/4, not 1/3, because the ordering matters, even though neither ball has an "age".

      That's not to say I've wrapped my head round the paradoxes presented by these problems. But it's not as simple as saying ordering doesn't matter - if we ignore ordering, we get into far more obvious problems.

    51. Re:Well? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      What a load of bullshit. The number of people on this site posting with complete confidence about stuff where they don't have a clue is staggering. This is reminiscent of when Blizzard posted their April's Fool Day joke that 0.9 repeating = 1.0 and everyone on their forums debated it. Guess what: you guys here are every bit as clueless as they were. The professional mathematicians who came up with these problems specifically to highlight counter-intuitive examples in probability know what they are doing, and when your intuition disagrees, the whole point is it's wrong.

      Because there's only two potential outcomes for the other child: boy or girl.

      So they should be equal probability? No. Just because there are two events does not mean they are equally likely.

      I could roll a die 99 times, and get 6, the probability of getting 100 6's when I've already got 99 6's is still 1 out of 6, not 6^100

      This has nothing to do with past influencing future, it has to do with knowledge about what happened in the past. Using your example:
      The probability of getting exactly 99 sixes when you roll 100 times is exactly 5 (# of values for other roll) * 100 (# of places it could have happened) * (1/6)^100.
      The probability of getting exactly 100 sizes when you roll 100 times is exactly (1/6)^100.
      Don't believe me? Write a program. See what you get.
      Now probability of getting 99 sixes is 500 times higher than probability of getting 100 sixes.
      So if you have one piece of information, which is when you rolled, you got either 99 or 100 sixes, the probability you get 100 sixes is just 1/501.

      The reason the chi square doesn't come into play here is because it doesn't MATTER the order.

      What in the holy name of fuck does chi square have to do with anything?

      We can say that the boy, who was born on a tuesday, was also a Gemini. Does this change the ratio? No, the probability of having two boys is still 50-50%, because the unknown only has two possible outcomes: boy or girl.

      Yes it does, that's the whole point of this second version of the problem. That whoosh you heard was the whole exercise going over your head.

      http://xkcd.com/54/

    52. Re:Well? by ceoyoyo · · Score: 1

      The way the question is almost always worded (including in this case), there is at the very least a strong implication that you're talking to a random person who is telling you about his kids, in which case the sex of the other child is independent of the sex of the child he's telling you about.

      You have to jump through verbal hoops to actually state the situation unambiguously in the way the usual answer assumes. Someone has to go out and specifically select a person who has at least one child of a particular, predetermined sex, and introduce that person to you. Once you add all that detail to the question it's pretty clear something is going on, which takes all the fun out of it for people who like silly puzzles, but does turn it into a meaningful lesson about selection bias.

    53. Re:Well? by Intron · · Score: 1

      Wow. There must be 100 posts before someone clearly and simply states the correct analysis.

      --
      Intron: the portion of DNA which expresses nothing useful.
    54. Re:Well? by prionic6 · · Score: 1, Insightful

      But if you split one of those cases in two, each has only half the chance of occuring in the first place.

    55. Re:Well? by Overzeetop · · Score: 1

      The chances are identical then, when considering any day of the week, not just tuesday, and also in the case of a girl born on tuesday (or any day). The fallacy comes from stipulating that one of your children is a boy, not that it occurs on a particular day.

      --
      Is it just my observation, or are there way too many stupid people in the world?
    56. Re:Well? by Junta · · Score: 1

      One way of doing that would be to split the above list in half:

      bb, bg | gb gg

      and ask "At least one of my children is a boy..." in the first case and "At least one of my children is a girl..." in the second case.

      I don't see how you think you've changed the problem. If you are grouping 'bg|gb' as one group on par with bb and gg, first that's 3/4ths of the group count and the middle group is twice the size of the other groups. If you are saying that bg, bg is one group, and gb gg is another group, then "at least one of my children is a boy' would describe the entire first group and half of the second, making the grouping meaningless. If you are saying the goal is to pick which half of the | describes it, then using the unordered information provided, the probability of guessing the correct side can be 2/3rds.

      You haven't changed the problem in any way whatsoever..

      --
      XML is like violence. If it doesn't solve the problem, use more.
    57. Re:Well? by JTsyo · · Score: 1

      From the article, you also have to take into account that it was the older boy that was born on Tuesday.

    58. Re:Well? by Skuld-Chan · · Score: 1

      I would RTFA but the site has been broken all morning - I think they pulled the article.

    59. Re:Well? by PlaneShaper · · Score: 0

      Let's only look at the families with (at least one) tuesday boy:

          B1B2
      B2B1 B2B2 B2B3 B2B4 B2B5 B2B6 B2B7
          B3B2
          B4B2
          B5B2
          B6B2
          B7B2

      B2G1 B2G2 B2G3 B2G4 B2G5 B2G6 B2G7

          G1B2
          G2B2
          G3B2
          G4B2
          G5B2
          G6B2
          G7B2

      Of these 27 families, 13 have another boy. So P = 13/27.

      Only half of the parents with two boys born on a different day would give you information about the boy born on Tuesday.

      Therefore, in these 12 cases: B2B1, B1B2, B2B3, B3B2, B2B4, B4B2, B2B5, B5B2, B2B6, B6B2, B2B7, B7B2...

      Only 50% of the parents would tell you they had a son born on Tuesday, the other 50% would give you a different day of the week. That reduces 6 cases from both the set of 13 BB sets and the set of 27 parents telling you about their kids.

      This leaves you with 7/21, or 1/3.

    60. Re:Well? by mcvos · · Score: 1

      No. I live in Europe and had no problem reading it.

    61. Re:Well? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      This analysis adds in an irrelevant variable to cause the result to shift only slightly from the previous analysis. No part of the problem states that the order of birth matters, so why include it in the list of possibilities? There are MANY factors you could list but don't because they're not relevant.

      What about the matrix that splits things again between dark or light hair color of the children? Then you'll shift the denominator yet again due to the occurances where both boys have the same value. Any binary attribute (with actual or contrived 50/50 odds) could be applied to this approach, but you'd just continue to trend toward 1/2.

    62. Re:Well? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Every male member of my family born on a Thursday in the past three generations wears corrective lenses, every male who was not born on a Thursday does not.

      Now that's what I call a neat coincidence!

    63. Re:Well? by mcvos · · Score: 2, Informative

      I'm still able to reach the site. Here's the entire text:

      When intuition and math probably look wrong
      A twist on the Two Children Problem shows how information can steer what looks probable.
      By Julie Rehmeyer

      I have two children, one of whom is a son born on a Tuesday. What is the probability that I have two boys?

      Gary Foshee, a puzzle designer from Issaquah, Wash., posed this puzzle during his talk this past March at Gathering 4 Gardner, a convention of mathematicians, magicians and puzzle enthusiasts held biannually in Atlanta. The convention is inspired by Martin Gardner, the recreational mathematician, expositor and philosopher who died May 22 at age 95. Foshee’s riddle is a beautiful example of the kind of simple, surprising and sometimes controversial bits of mathematics that Gardner prized and shared with others.

      “The first thing you think is ‘What has Tuesday got to do with it?’” said Foshee after posing his problem during his talk. “Well, it has everything to do with it.”

      Even in that mathematician-filled audience, people laughed and shook their heads in astonishment.

      When mathematician Keith Devlin of Stanford University later heard about the puzzle, he too initially thought the information about Tuesday should be irrelevant. But hearing that its provenance was the Gathering 4 Gardner conference, he studied it more carefully. He started first by recalling a simpler version of the question called the Two Children Problem, which Gardner himself posed in a Scientific American column in 1959. It leaves out the information about Tuesday entirely: Suppose that Mr. Smith has two children, at least one of whom is a son. What is the probability both children are boys?

      Intuition would suggest that the answer should be 1/2, since the sex of one child is independent of the sex of the other. And indeed, had he been told which child was a boy (say, the younger one), this reasoning would be sufficient. But since the boy could be either the younger or the older child, the analysis is more subtle. Devlin started by listing the children’s sexes in the order of their birth:

      Boy, girl
      Boy, boy
      Girl, boy

      Since one child is a boy, we know that girl, girl isn’t a possibility. Of the three approximately equally likely possibilities, one has two boys and two have a girl and a boy — so the probability of two boys is 1/3, not 1/2, Devlin concluded.

      He used this same method on the Tuesday birthday puzzle, enumerating the equally likely possibilities for the sex and birth day of each child and then counting them up.

      If the older child is a boy born on Tuesday, there are 14 equally likely possibilities for the sex and birth day of his younger sibling: a girl born on any of the seven days of the week or a boy born on any of the seven days of the week. (This analysis ignores minor differences like the fact that slightly more babies are born on weekdays than on weekend days.)

      Now suppose that the older child isn’t a boy born on Tuesday. The younger child then must be, of course. Now we count up the possibilities for the sex and birth day of the older child. If she’s a girl, she might have been born on any day of the week, generating seven more possibilities. If he’s a boy, he could have been born any day except Tuesday. (Otherwise this case would already have been counted in the first scenario: the older child a boy born on Tuesday). This second scenario generates just six, rather than seven, more possibilities.

      Since each of these cases is (approximately) equally likely, we can compute the probability by dividing the number of cases in which there are two boys by the total number of cases. The total number of cases is 27: 14 if the older child is a boy born on Tuesday and 13 if the older child isn’t. In 13 of those cases both children are boys (7 if the older child is a boy born on Tuesday and 6 if he isn’t), yielding a probability of 13/27.

      Devlin w

    64. Re:Well? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Informative

      It goes astray where you are assuming the 2nd child is the one born on a Tuesday. What your list should look like is:

      1 Girl on Monday, Boy on Tuesday
      2 Girl on Tuesday, Boy on Tuesday
      3 Girl on Wednesday Boy on Tuesday
      4 Girl on Thursday, Boy on Tuesday
      5 Girl on Friday, Boy on Tuesday
      6 Girl on Saturday, Boy on Tuesday
      7 Girl on Sunday, Boy on Tuesday

      8 Boy on Monday, Boy on Tuesday
      9 Boy on Tuesday, Boy on Tuesday
      10 Boy on Wednesday Boy on Tuesday
      11 Boy on Thursday, Boy on Tuesday
      12 Boy on Friday, Boy on Tuesday
      13 Boy on Saturday, Boy on Tuesday
      14 Boy on Sunday, Boy on Tuesday

      15 Boy on Tuesday, Girl on Monday
      16 Boy on Tuesday, Girl on Tuesday
      17 Boy on Tuesday, Girl on Wednesday
      18 Boy on Tuesday, Girl on Thursday
      19 Boy on Tuesday, Girl on Friday
      20 Boy on Tuesday, Girl on Saturday
      21 Boy on Tuesday, Girl on Sunday

      22 Boy on Tuesady, Boy on Monday

      23 Boy on Tuesday, Boy on Wednesday
      24 Boy on Tuesday, Boy on Thursday
      25 Boy on Tuesday, Boy on Friday
      26 Boy on Tuesday, Boy on Saturday
      27 Boy on Tuesday, Boy on Sunday

      27 possibilities, 13 of them are 2 boys.

      As lots of people have said, the wording/situation is ambiguous, but this is the correct analysis for the statement: Assuming subsequent children have independent birthdates and genders, and assuming the probability of being a boy is 1/2 and the probability of being born on a Tuesday is 1/7, what is the probability of a 2 child family having 2 boys given that they have at least one boy born on a Tuesday.

    65. Re:Well? by Culture20 · · Score: 1

      The order is totally irrelevant for even enumerating the possibilities. The author of the article is a dimwit. The question is: What is the probability of the sex of the other child? That will always be 50/50. What if the first child was listed as an unknown sex? Does that suddenly magically make the probability of the other child's sex more 50/50? The question was worded incorrectly to reach the answer in the article. You're looking at [b,b][b,g][g,b][g,g], while failing to realize that since order is irrelevant, [b,g] and [g,b] are the same thing. Your choices are between [b,g] and [b,b]

    66. Re:Well? by repapetilto · · Score: 1

      well did you or didnt you?

    67. Re:Well? by PlaneShaper · · Score: 1

      I know I'm replying to my own post, but I wanted to point out that the result would be 13/27 if you *asked* the parent if they had a son born on Tuesday. In this case, the question is posed by the parent, meaning they made the conscious choice (assumed 50%) to pick Tuesday over the day of the week of their other son in cases with 2 boys born on different days.

      The real riddle isn't the idea that you need to interpret a set of data, that's (relatively) easy. It's actually identifying which set of data you have presented to you.

    68. Re:Well? by empgodot · · Score: 1, Insightful

      the dad of B2B2 is twice as likely to appear in your test group than the other dads, which makes it 14/28 = 1/2

    69. Re:Well? by ChromaticDragon · · Score: 1

      Two six-sided dice.

      Chance of a sum of seven?

      Are there 36 possible outcomes? Really? Why? We're only interested in the sum. Addition is commutative. We don't care about order.

      So again are there really 36 possible outcomes?

      If you're attempting to count possible sets and [3,4] is the same as [4,3] to you, then maybe not. But if you're attempting to calculate probabilities of rolling a seven, you'd better be clear that there are 36 possible outcomes and you must count [3,4] separate from [4,3] as you calculate your probabilities.

      Or... chuckle... come on over here and let's start some serious gambling...

    70. Re:Well? by prionic6 · · Score: 1

      You're right, and now that I read the article again, this is actually explained there pretty well... But your point goes only half way, because the selection of telling of a boy affects this exactly in the same way as you explained for the weekday, so that the result in the end is P=1/2. Just as intuition would suggest. I think.

    71. Re:Well? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You forgot to count B2B2 twice. He could have introduced either of those two boys.

      Put another way, in your list there are 28 boys born on Tuesday. Of those 28, 14 have brothers. So P = 14/28, or 50%.

    72. Re:Well? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Finally a clear and indisputable answer

    73. Re:Well? by Actually,+I+do+RTFA · · Score: 1

      Did I win the lottery last week? The unknown only has two possible outcomes: I won or I lost. Therefore, based on your math, my odds are 50-50%.

      And I buy four lottery tickets a week. Woo-hoo, I won twice!

      --
      Your ad here. Ask me how!
    74. Re:Well? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The odds of you winning the lottery from a single play are not 1:2, whereas the odds of having a boy is 1:2. I'm sure you are nitpicking the GP's grammar in some way, but his intent was clear enough to not warrant the sarcasm :P

    75. Re:Well? by tomhudson · · Score: 1

      The problem "solution space" overlooked the first thing that I thought of that would skew answers - twins. So the odds in the "solution" are wrong.

      Current odds of twins 1/33

      Identical twins 1/250.

      And if you're OctoMom ...

    76. Re:Well? by RJFerret · · Score: 1

      Don't forget intersex, hermaphrodites and other non-boy/non-girl sexes!

    77. Re:Well? by PlaneShaper · · Score: 1

      Exactly what I'm talking about!

      Because out of the 14 BG/GB combinations, 50% of them would be telling you about their *girl*

      That pulls 7 out of the total set, and leaves 7/14 being the probability for 2 boys.

      I cheated though, because I've already read this blog:
      http://blog.tanyakhovanova.com/?p=221

      It's from a couple months ago and summarizes several solutions also seen in this thread. But it's easier to get people to pick up the concept that it's just a trick question designed to get you to determine your dataset.

    78. Re:Well? by tempest69 · · Score: 1

      Ok, the 1/3 was making the most sense to me and the Tuesday thing bugged me. So I coded the possibilities and did some grepping. storm@octopus:~$ perl BGB.pl | grep -v G[1-7]G | grep B2 | grep -c -v G 13 # -v is the not operator so number of boy-boy options storm@octopus:~$ perl BGB.pl | grep -v G[1-7]G | grep B2 | grep -c G 14 # Expected from article. storm@octopus:~$ perl BGB.pl | grep -v G[1-7]G | grep B[1-3] | grep -c G 42 storm@octopus:~$ perl BGB.pl | grep -v G[1-7]G | grep B[1-3] | grep -c -v G 33 # but if he said mon tue or wednesday, the numbers move toward 1/3 storm@octopus:~$ Storm

    79. Re:Well? by enjerth · · Score: 1

      Devlin started by listing the children’s sexes in the order of their birth:

      Boy, girl
      Boy, boy
      Girl, boy

      Since one child is a boy, we know that girl, girl isn’t a possibility. Of the three approximately equally likely possibilities, one has two boys and two have a girl and a boy — so the probability of two boys is 1/3, not 1/2, Devlin concluded.

      All this analysis appears to be over-complicating the problem. But I'll see if I can play the game, too.

      While it's true that g/g is obviously eliminated, the boy MUST be either the younger or the older. Since he's either one or the other, we can infer that either b/g or b/g is also impossible. If he's older, then g/b is not possible, and if he's younger, then b/g is not possible. One of them is not possible, even though we don't know which one it is.

      So we have:
      Boy > boy
      OR
      Girl > boy | boy > girl.

      The woman cannot have girl > boy if the boy is older or boy > girl if the boy is younger.

      I conclude intuition is correct, 1/2.

    80. Re:Well? by lordholm · · Score: 1

      I believe the reasoning here is completely flawed:

      The list should be:
      _Boy_, girl
      _Boy_, boy
      Boy, _boy_
      Girl, _boy_

      Where the precondition is one of the underlined ones. Thus the probability become 1/2 that the other kid is a boy.

      The thing is, if the "girl, boy" event differs from "boy, girl", then "_boy_, boy" must differ from "boy, _boy_".

      --
      "Civis Europaeus sum!"
    81. Re:Well? by camperdave · · Score: 1

      Why 6/13? Clearly it's either a boy born on one of the seven days, or a girl born on one of the seven days. Or are you falling into the trap that just because one of the boys is born on Tuesday that the other can't be born on Tuesday as well? It's a riddle. If both boys were born on Tuesday, the statement that one of them was born on Tuesday is true. It's the same as the two coin/30cents/not a nickel riddle.

      --
      When our name is on the back of your car, we're behind you all the way!
    82. Re:Well? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Your third and fourth blocks of data are erroneous. At the point that you determined that one was a boy you threw out the alternate ordered permutation. Including the two sets of ordered permutations is deceiving yourself. The odds are 0.5.

    83. Re:Well? by crossword.bob · · Score: 1

      The thing is, if the "girl, boy" event differs from "boy, girl", then "_boy_, boy" must differ from "boy, _boy_".

      This is incorrect; you can distinguish boy < girl from girl < boy by comparing the ages. Underlining one or the other doesn't alter the number of states for the system, boy < boy counts only once.

    84. Re:Well? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Assuming 50/50 chance of boy or girl and a 1/7 chance of each weekday, let's look at the general population of families with two childs:

      You just selected based on having a Tuesday Boy. The question was phrased "I have a boy .." or "Mr. Smith" has a boy. The selection criteria was parentage, not day of birth. The whole point of the article is that the non-intuitive behavior only has statistical significance if it was also part of the selection criteria.

      If phrased as "I' (a specific family with a known number of already conceived children), and assuming exactly two children, then the answer would be 1/2 (independent probability). If it was a random family chosen among two-children families, it would be 1/3 (because girl-girl should be normally distributed at 1/4 probability, but has been removed in this random case).

      13/27 is only valid if the question was "If I randomly selected a two-adult, two-child family with one boy born on a tuesday, what is the probability that the other is also a boy?". Which was the general thrust of the article; ambiguity in the question may or may not be relevant depending on the selection criteria.

    85. Re:Well? by itsdapead · · Score: 1

      The answer of course, is 42...

      Well spotted... strange how so many people seem to think that was just goofy British humour and miss the important point about making sure you know what the question means before trying to calculate an answer.

      --
      In a survey of 100 programmers, 111111 thought that duck-typing was a good idea.
    86. Re:Well? by h4rm0ny · · Score: 1


      Bah. It's a 50:50 chance - we all know this. Clearly what this demonstrates is merely that the laws of mathematics are wrong!

      --

      Aide-toi, le Ciel t'aidera - Jeanne D'Arc.
    87. Re:Well? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Actually, the GGP's post cited a wikipedia article in a "know-it-all" fashion, and then proceeded to claim that the reason the probability was "50-50%" was "because the unknown only has two possible outcomes".

      The Wikipedia article that HE referenced even mentions the possibility that "outcomes may not be equally probable".
      So, the GGP was blatantly wrong.

      The reason why the odds are 50-50 are because the probability of the event (of having a boy) is (approximately) 50%.
      The reason is NOT, as the poster claimed, "because the unknown only has two possible outcomes".

    88. Re:Well? by h4rm0ny · · Score: 1


      Actually, I'm going to give a less glib answer now. Somebody tell me if it's wrong. The whole thing hinges on firstly, the other child being 50:50 boy or girl (we'll ignore twins, triplets, etc. and that society generally has a slight gender imbalance) and secondly, this business about the possible ordering of the children: (boy,girl),(boy,boy),(girl,boy). The thing is, that whilst the first probability is relevant, the second one is entirely contingent on the first and has no bearing of itself. The correct possibilities are:
      Other child a boy (one sub-possibility: boy-boy, at 100%)
      Other child a girl (two sub-possibilities: girl-boy and boy-girl, at 50%/50%)

      So the probabilities for the girl-boy and the boy-girl are actually 25% each, adding up to 50%, so it's still 50:50 whether it's a boy or a girl. These people seem to have just taken three permutations and said that they have equal probabilities with no foundation for saying so.

      --

      Aide-toi, le Ciel t'aidera - Jeanne D'Arc.
    89. Re:Well? by ticklemeozmo · · Score: 1

      You're absolutely correct IF you assume that the man is just describing one of his children. That is the logical interpretation of the problem. However, if someone went out and specifically selected a family with at least one boy...

      I hate to be a smart ass on this one... but the question was posed by a man who was just describing (at least) one of his children.

      --
      When modding "Informative", please make sure it both has a source and IS actually informative.
    90. Re:Well? by UnknownSoldier · · Score: 1

      > While it's true that g/g is obviously eliminated, the boy MUST be either the younger or the older.

      Can't RTFA, but does the problem explicitly rule out twins?

    91. Re:Well? by UnknownSoldier · · Score: 1

      The article doesn't mention C-Section wasn't a possibility, therefore it is possible for both to be the same age.

    92. Re:Well? by enjerth · · Score: 1

      I'm just trying to show that the over-analysis was incomplete.

      Truly, probability doesn't change even when you add a ton of irrelevant data. Having seven boys does not one bit affect the sex of the next child. If it doesn't affect the sex, then it doesn't change real probability.

      Statistics is the art of crafting convincing lies.

    93. Re:Well? by sexconker · · Score: 1

      This is long, but please read it for an ACTUAL EXPLANATION of what is going on.

      -----
      You are invited to a party by an old friend. When you show up, he opens the door and welcomes you.
      -----
      Hello and welcome to my home.
      As we get the party started, I would like to play a little game that I think you will enjoy. All my guests today have played this game and I'd love for you to play too.

      First I would like to introduce you to my family.
      I have two children. I'd like to see if you can guess whether they are a boy or girl before you meet them.
      Let us bring one out shall we? Have you made your guess? What do you think the odds are? I assure you, we're a perfectly normal family.

      Here's Chris, my son. Did you guess right? The odds of being correct were 1 in 2, of course.

      Next, I'd like you to meet my other child. Would you care to guess again? What are the odds this time?

      Two children can of course be:

      Boy Boy @ 1/4
      Boy Girl @ 1/2
      Girl Girl @ 1/4

      Given that Chris is my son, what are the odds that my other child is a boy?

      Simple intuition may suggest that the odds are 1 in 2. But let's try math, shall we?
      We all know that P(Y|X) = P(XY)/P(X).

      If we let
      X = That I have at least 1 boy
      Y = That both are boys

      Then
      P(X) = 3/4
      P(XY) = P(Y) = 1/4
      P(Y|X) = 1/4 / 3/4 = 1/3

      Aha! We see that the odds are indeed 1 in 3 that my other child is also a boy. This also works out intuitively. I assure you I brought out my children in a random order. Given that one of my two children is a boy, we know that there are 3 possible outcomes, and all are equally likely. Only one of those outcomes is that both are boys, and as such, the odds are 1 in 3!

      Now, as you make your guess shall we put a wager on the outcome?
      If you wager $100 that my other child is a girl, I'll pay you $60 if you are right.

      Given the odds, you're expected winnings are (2/3 * 60) - (1/3 * 100) = $7.66 .

      You can of course, take the other bet, that my other child is a boy.
      If you wager $100 that my other child is a boy, I'll pay you $200 if you are right.

      Given the odds, you're expected winnings are (1/3 * 200) - (2/3 * 100) = $0.00 .

      Would you care to make the wager? Which one?

      Ah, here's my wife now with my other child, Alex.
      As you can see, she's due any day now. Then we'll know the result of our wager!
      -----
      Your host thinks he's pretty clever. After you agree to take the first wager, he reveals that all the other guests have done the same thing, and that he stands to make quite a decent amount of money off of tonight's party, since he has invited 100 guests.

      He's trying to trick us. We're guests at his party, and he's giving us two wagers. With the odds he suggests, the smart guests will take the first wager, that his other child is a girl, because it has a higher expected payout.

      When he reveals that his wife is still pregnant, and that the sex is unknown, our intuition kicks in again. Strongly. You KNOW that there is a 50/50 chance on the sex of that child. Thus, the odds he gave you in the wager are skewed. The the first wager is skewed in his favor (you expect to lose $20), while the second wager is skewed in your favor (you expect to gain $50).

      The man is offering the wager to all the guests at the party, which we now know to be a baby shower.

      But where did the reasoning he offered, and that you agreed with, go wrong? The fact that the sex of the unborn child is not known makes no difference, as the man assured us he brought forth his children randomly. Indeed, he could have brought out his pregnant wife and asked you to wager if his other child would be of the same or opposite gender. He could have walked through the same reasoning, stating "If this child is born a boy, then..." and "If this child is born a girl, then...", with both cases yielding the same 1 in 3 outcome as he presented to you initially.

      The problem here is that there are not four differ

    94. Re:Well? by bgspence · · Score: 1

      You are making the assumption that the probability of having a boy is the same of having a girl. This is not true.

      But, assuming it is you still have a problem with identical twins. You can break the set of all families into two sets, One those without identical twins and another those with identical twins.

      Your tables are valid for the set of families who do not have identical twins. The probabilities for them is granted to be equal for each instance of your set of possibilities.

      With the case identical twins there are seven groups of BB and GG, only one of which occurs on a tuesday. So you have a p = 1/2 for those families with identical twins.

      You then need to modify your total result to include both probability cases based on the probability of identical twins occurring in your set of families.

      Then you will need to adjust things for the case of identical twins having different birthdays because they were born around midnight.

      Then you need to adjust these results to take into account the probabilities of births which are performed by inducing labor or performed by surgery. This will alter the assumption that births occur with equal frequency on each day of the week.

    95. Re:Well? by bgspence · · Score: 1

      And, we are of course assuming the children being mentioned are the currently living children. It would be common to not mention those who have died. The probabilities for deaths of children are probably not evenly distributed for each sex, and probably vary according to age.

      You then need to apply the distribution of these death probabilities by sex and age to the distribution of possible child ages for the set of families with non identical twins.

      And, we haven't even mentioned transgendered children.

    96. Re:Well? by sexconker · · Score: 1

      You are wrong.
      The chance is 50%, regardless.

      Look at the non-day-of-week version.
      A person with two children has either:

      B B
      B G
      G B
      G G

      Given that they have at least one boy, what are the odds of both of them being boys? 1 in 3.
      This makes perfect sense, and works out mathematically.
      P(AB) / P(B) = P(A|B)
      1/4 / 3/4 = 1/3

      The trick is that revealing a child is not the same as stating a given condition. And no, it has nothing to do with order or whether or not the reveal is random.

      In a reveal situation:

      B B 1 (both boys, revealed boy 1)
      B B 2
      B G 1
      B G 2
      G B 1
      G B 2
      G G 1
      G G 2

      The question (without the day-of-week stipulation) is asking: Given that I have 2 children, and that I have shown you a boy, what are the odds that my other child is a boy (and thus both children are boys)?

      Count em up. Do the math.

      2 children, 1 reveal = 8 states, listed above.
      4/8 states = showing a boy.
      2/8 states = both children are boys.

      Count. 2 out of 4 states satisfy the rules.

      Try math.
      A = Both boys. 2 out of 8 states
      B = Shown a boy. 4 out of 8 states
      P(AB) = P(A) (If A is true, B MUST be true). 2/8

      P(AB) / P(B) = P(A|B)
      2/8 / 4/8 = 2/4 = 1/2

    97. Re:Well? by steelfood · · Score: 1

      Right, it's 14/28 ((7 days * 2 kids * 1 sex) / (7 days * 2 kids * 2 sexes ) or 1/2), but because boy 1 on tuesday and boy 2 on tuesday is counted twice in this instance, you lose one from both numerator and denominator.

      --
      "If a nation expects to be ignorant and free in a state of civilization, it expects what never was and never will be."
    98. Re:Well? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Girl on Saturday, Boy on Tuesday

      Hey, that's me!

    99. Re:Well? by ceoyoyo · · Score: 1

      No, that's my interpretation of the question too. The article describes how the originator didn't think of the straightforward interpretation, or didn't realize it implied different probabilities.

      The order of the children doesn't come into it though - it's purely a matter of selection bias.

    100. Re:Well? by chaboud · · Score: 1

      You are correct. Both the article and the slashdot posting are somewhat misleading (almost intentionally).

      I'd expect a disproportionately low number of slashdotters to be fooled by this kind of nonsense.

      This is akin to saying that a house could fall on my head today or not. Since there are only two possibilities, there's a 50/50 chance that a house is going to fall on my head today.

      That's clearly intuitively wrong, and it's mathematically wrong as well. Similar math teasers (like proving that 1 = 2) have existed for eons. This plays on a common probabilistic mistake, taking the likelihood of some compound situation (two boys) and applying those odds to a situation in which you already have some information determined.

      The child you met on the street (boy born on Tuesday) is a coin flip that you've already seen (heads). The child you haven't met is a coin that you're going to flip in the future. The coin flip is 50/50.

    101. Re:Well? by CoffeeDog · · Score: 1

      You failed to see that the independent events are conditionally dependent on having a particular outcome. Since you like the dice example:

      Say I have a cup with 2 fair 6 sided dice. I roll them and turn over the cup so you can't see them. I peek under the cup, look at both dice, and without changing either die I slide out one of the dice to reveal that is a 6. Do you think the odds of the other dice being a 6 is still 1/6? No, it's 1/11 and here's the breakdown:

      Odds of not rolling any 6s: 25/36 (I can't reveal a 6, so these cases are impossible as I showed you at least one 6)
      Odds of rolling exactly 1 6: 10/36 (I reveal the 6 and the other die is not a 6)
      Odds of rolling exactly 2 6s: 1/36 (I reveal either 6 and the other die is a 6)

      It's like a mini Monty Hall problem. The key is that I have advanced knowledge of the outcome all the events and selectively reveal information. The only way the die I revealed is a 6 and the in the cup is a 6 is if I rolled double 6s to begin with (odds 1/36), and by revealing one of the a dice as a 6 I eliminate 25 of the possible cases to make the remaining odds of double 6s 1/11, which is still worse than 1/6 on an independent roll.

    102. Re:Well? by DamienRBlack · · Score: 1

      You are incorrect. This isn't semantics, or improper reasoning. If you actually look at real two children families with at least one boy, only one third (or something very close) of them are two boy households. That is simply fact, not one possible mathematical interpretation. I shall explain below, further below I will show you one situation where your reasoning does work. Hopefully you will be able to see the difference.

      Of all two children households, their oldest is either a boy or a girl, with 50% chance (simplifying slightly). Their youngest is a boy of a girl, with 50% chance. Therefor of all 2 children households:

      50% have one boy and one girl
      25% have two girls
      25% have two boys

      But, we are removing the families with two girls, because we are only looking at households with at least one boy. Therefor:

      2/3 have one boy and one girl
      1/3 have two boys

      So you see, given our set the odds of "the other child being a boy" or, put better, the odds that the household is a two boy household, is 1/3. This isn't semantics, this is how actual household data would be distributed in reality.

      Now to clarify why we get this unintuitive result I will give another situation, one we would encounter day-to-day. I meet my neighbor Scott. Scott has his son with him. I say, "Hey I knew you had two kids but I didn't know one of them was a boy!". Scott says, "Yes, indeed, now to test if you have a real understanding of statistics I have a question for you: what are the odds my other kid is a boy?"

      I know Scott's household is a two family household, and I know that the two girls option is off the list. So once again we are at this statistical point:

      2/3 chance of one boy and one girl
      1/3 chance of have two boys

      But this time I can't stop there. Because I have one further piece of information, he has one of his kids with him and that is how I know he is a boy. One kid has been selected. Now, I'm going to assume his selection was more or less random in regards to gender. That is to say, I am assuming Scott doesn't prefer to hang out with boy children more than girl children, and that he selected which kid was with him with 50/50 randomness. So our new breakdown is thus:

      1/3 chance of one boy and one girl, with the boy being introduced
      1/3 chance of one boy and one girl, with the girl being introduced
      1/3 chance of have two boys, with one of the boys being introduced

      Now, we know the theoretical girl was not introduced, so we can scratch the second option of the list, it isn't part of our set. After doing that, you can see that the more intuitive answer of 50% has been reached. But don't confuse this example with the one above. In the original, there would be factual evidence that of two kid households with at least one boy, only 1/3 will have two boys.

      Bends the mind around a little, doesn't it? A seemingly statistically insignificant fact like circumstance actually affects the hard numerical realities.

    103. Re:Well? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Do you have a reading comprehension problem or did you just pick a random post to reply to?

    104. Re:Well? by Peach+Rings · · Score: 1

      A helpful analogy from the comments is:

      -You come across a guy on the street who happens to have one of his two children with him, and it's a boy. That has no impact whatsoever on the gender of his other child, it's still 50/50.

      -You call a guy up on the phone (he has 2 kids) and ask "Is either one of your kids a boy?" He answers yes. What does that mean for the gender of the other child?

      Firstborn|Secondborn
      Boy Boy (possible, the other child is a boy)
      Boy Girl (possible, the other child is a girl)
      Girl Boy (possible, the other child is a girl)
      Girl Girl (Impossible)

      So in 2/3 cases the other child is a girl.

      Another insight from the comments:
      The tuesday thing is a constraint on the boy. It's unlikely that any given boy is born on a tuesday. So a boy-boy pair is much more likely to have a tuesday-born boy than a less boy-populated boy-girl pair.

      Again though, it's a question of whether you happen to come across a guy on the street with a random one of his boys, or if you specifically ask him if any member of his kids is a tuesday-born boy.

      Having the person volunteering this information, as if "tuesday born boyness" is a desirable quality, and if none of his children had it he wouldn't be bragging about it, makes it sort of fall into the second category.

    105. Re:Well? by Peach+Rings · · Score: 1

      First, The question doesn't say the other (this does not mean older or younger...) child was not born on a Tuesday, maybe the questioner meant to include this info but they failed to.

      Wrong.

      The real confusion occurs due to the use of odd numbers... Imagine a world where everything was found in sets of twos, people had 2 heads, 4 arms, etc. They would always be dealing with eating animals that were siamese, if they wanted to hunt by throwing rocks or whatever each siamese would throw a rock so they would use two rocks. In this world I would say that what we call the number 2 would actually be like their number 1, and what we use as unity, or one, would be for the siamese called a half. Therefore their numberline would go 0, .5, 2, 2.5, 4, 4.5, 6, 6.5, 8, etc.

      This is actually more reflective of reality in that, deep down, math and counting are extensions of logic, and the fundamental unit of logic is a true-false statement which is basically a set of 2. True is only 1/2 of the total possibilities for any given logical statement. For example say you have counted one rock, what that actually represents is both having one rock in your presence butt also, concurrently, not having counted other than one rock, so in essence you have counted two different things and are representing them with a number supposed to correspond with one thing. Wouldnt it make more sense to just use "two" to represent the one thing youve counted?

      The probability of guessing correctly by saying the second child is a boy would therefore be 1/2(6), or 3, divided by 6 and a half, which gives you 6 out of 12 and 1/2 odds.

      How did this wall of babbling nonsense earn an Interesting mod point?

    106. Re:Well? by mestar · · Score: 1

      Two children can of course be:

      Boy Boy @ 1/4
      Boy Girl @ 1/2
      Girl Girl @ 1/4

      This is where your first mistake is. We already met one boy.

    107. Re:Well? by NoOneInParticular · · Score: 1

      I could roll a die 99 times, and get 6, the probability of getting 100 6's when I've already got 99 6's is still 1 out of 6, not 6^100.

      And here is where mathematics and the real world depart. If I roll a die 99 times, and it comes up '6' all 99 times, I would no longer assume that the die is fair and would expect the die to come up with '6' almost surely the next time.

    108. Re:Well? by mestar · · Score: 1

      The dad of B2B2 is also twice as rare as B1B2 for example. That takes it back to 13/27.

    109. Re:Well? by mestar · · Score: 1

      >>The real confusion occurs due to the use of odd numbers...

      Lol at this from the gp.

    110. Re:Well? by vivian · · Score: 1

      This problem has not been stated sufficiently clearly in the summary:

      "I have two children, one of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?"

      The way I read it, the answer is 50%, if we assume that the distribution of sexes is even - with the first sentence only there to mislead.
      The problem should have been more clearly stated - for example:
      "If I have two children, what is the probability that both are boys if one is a boy born on a Tuesday?"

      The original question does not tie the first sentence into the probability question correctly. You might have well asked
      "I have two children, one of whom is a boy with red hair. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?"

      I am not generally picky about grammar, but in this case, where the question is obviously designed to be some sort of "trick question", the submitter has to be a much more careful in how the question is stated.

    111. Re:Well? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The full answer is over in prionic6's fine post, but I figured I'd chime in with a more direct answer about why your analysis had trouble. In short, the issue is that each of the possibilities that you list does not have an equal likelihood of happening. Consider birth order. There's only one way to have two boys born on Tuesday, but there are two ways for every other option. Consider a boy on Monday and a boy on Tuesday: (1) first born Monday, second born Tuesday; (2) first born Tuesday, second born Monday.

      So it turns out that your list is complete, but the two Tuesday boys line occurs once, while every other line occurs twice. You can see that pretty well in prionic6's breakdown. In your list, if you put a 2* in front of every line except the two Tuesday boys, and then you see the 27 total (13 of which have a boy on Tuesday).

    112. Re:Well? by B'Trey · · Score: 1

      It's wrong. Suppose that you randomly selected 100 families with two children. We're ignoring all the things that you mention above and assuming that gender distribution 50:50. Statistically speaking, our 100 families would consist of 25 boy/boy, 25 boy/girl, 25 girl/boy and 25 girl/girl. We assign a number from 1 to 100 to each family, write that number on a series of cards, and you randomly select a card and hand it to me. I look at it, see the number, and announce that the family has at least one boy. What are the odds that they have two boys? What are the odds that they have a girl and a boy? There are 25 girl/girl cards, but you know you did not pick one of them, so they can be ignored. So you know you picked one of 75 cards. Of those 75 cards, 25 are boy/boy, 25 are boy/girl and 25 are girl/boy. So there is a 25/75, or 1 in 3 chance that you picked a boy/boy card. There's a 50/75 or 2 in 3 chance that you picked a card with a boy and girl combination.

      --

      "The legitimate powers of government extend only to such acts as are injurious to others." Thomas Jefferson.

    113. Re:Well? by trout007 · · Score: 1

      This is similar example of the gamblers fallacy. This is when you have a really random event such as gender of a child. Knowledge you have of the past or existing events have no effect on future or unknown events. So a balanced die will come up 1 1/6th of the time. If you roll it and 1 comes up 5 times in a row it doesn't mean anything for the next roll the probability of the next roll coming up 1 is 1/6. Now if before you started you asked what are the odds that the die will come up 1 6 times in a row it is 1/46656. The main thing is asking if the event is random.

      I know this because I worked as a manufacturing engineer and used statistical process control. The basis for this is that you don't have to measure every part if your process is in control and all variations are random. You can then randomly select parts and measure them to prove the rest of the parts are good with a high level (6 sigma) of probability. The critical assumption is that the process is in control and there are tests that are used to determine if you are in control (The variations are random).

      --
      I love Jesus, except for his foreign policy.
    114. Re:Well? by tomhudson · · Score: 1

      The problem with that is that the distribution of sexes is not 50-50 to begin with.

    115. Re:Well? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      But it seems everyone is forgetting that once you choose a family with a boy that it's twice the probable that you picked the boy-boy family vs girl-boy or boy-girl family. Therefore, the probability that the second child is a boy 50%.

      First prior to any knowledge
      Girl-Girl (25%)
      Girl-Boy (25%)
      Boy-Girl (25%)
      Boy-Boy (25%)

      Pick a family with one of the 4 boys.
      Girl-Girl(0%)
      Girl-Boy(25%)
      Boy-Girl(25%)
      Boy-Boy(50%)

    116. Re:Well? by beleriand · · Score: 1
      When you divide the problem that way, you get the two cases which equal likelyhood:

      in case mentioned boy is older:
      B, B p = 1/3
      B, G p = 2/3

      in case mentioned boy is younger:
      B, B p = 1/3
      G, B p = 2/3

      Why is it in both cases 1/3 vs. 2/3, and not, as you claim, 1/2. You have to look at the probability distribution of the underlying set. It is:
      B, B = 1/4
      B, G = 1/4
      G, B = 1/4
      G, G = 1/4

      So all have the same likelyhood. In our breakdown into the two paths "younger and older" above notice how "B, B" is mentioned in both of them. Since "B, B" will occur on average just as often as "B, G" or "G, B", all the "B, B" cases will be split between the "boy younger" and "boy older" path, and it's probability of occurring in either path is thus halved when compared to it's alternative

      When all Probabilitys are added up, the end result for the probability that you get B, B is the same.
      p = 1/2 * p[path 1] + 1/2 * p[path 2]
      p = 1/2 * 1/3 + 1/2 * 1/3 = 1/3

    117. Re:Well? by h4rm0ny · · Score: 1


      Then the question is incorrectly phrased in two ways. Firstly, it omits the fact that there are 100 families all with two children only and that the parent concerned is a parent in one of these families. Secondly, the question is about whether or not one has guessed correctly, not what the child actually is.

      --

      Aide-toi, le Ciel t'aidera - Jeanne D'Arc.
    118. Re:Well? by Capsaicin · · Score: 1

      The problem with that is that the distribution of sexes is not 50-50 to begin with.

      Parent specifically included the assumption that "the distribution of sexes is even," so yes it is 50-50 by definition. Of course the distribution based on the data of actual births might not be, but to point that out would be impertinent.

      --
      Better to be despised for too anxious apprehensions, than ruined by too confident a security. --Edmund Burke
    119. Re:Well? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      the relative ages of the children does not matter (and the conjurer forgot the case of twins)

      Even if born by C-section, one twin emerges before the other. Twins are younger/older siblings.

    120. Re:Well? by mcvos · · Score: 1

      Can't RTFA,

      Yes you can. I just posted it as your GP.

    121. Re:Well? by tomhudson · · Score: 1
      Even if you assume a 50-50 distribution in the general population, it won't be in this specific problem because of identical twins (1 in 250 births). That means that since you have one boy, there is a 1 in 250 chance that he's part of a pair of identical twins.

      In other words, there will be a 0.2% bias towards a second boy, as opposed to what you would expect without the "twin effect".

    122. Re:Well? by Capsaicin · · Score: 1

      Devlin started by listing the children's sexes in the order of their birth:

      Boy, girl
      Boy, boy
      Girl, boy

      This is incomplete. The identified boy is marked in capitals:

      BOY, girl
      BOY, boy
      girl, BOY
      boy, BOY
      ... the relative ages of the children does not matter

      You're right, the relative ages don't matter and that's why Devlin's list is complete, and we need not distinguish between BOY, boy and boy, BOY.

      Assuming male/female births is a coin-toss, any mother having a child has a 50% chance of having a boy, and a 50% chance of having a girl, for both the first and second children. Which gives us 4 possible combinations of 1st and 2nd children: (girl, girl); (girl, boy); (boy, boy) and (boy, girl). Since we are told that this is not a (girl, girl) family, this leaves the 3 possibilities listed by Devlin, and with 2 chances in 3, that the other sibling is a girl.

      --
      Better to be despised for too anxious apprehensions, than ruined by too confident a security. --Edmund Burke
    123. Re:Well? by mcvos · · Score: 1

      the boy MUST be either the younger or the older. Since he's either one or the other, we can infer that either b/g or b/g is also impossible.

      No you can't, because you don't have that information. He can be either the older or the younger, or they can even be the same age. As long as you're not talking about a specifically identified boy, the chance is 1/3.

      If he's older, then g/b is not possible, and if he's younger, then b/g is not possible.

      But because we don't know, they're still both possible.

    124. Re:Well? by mcvos · · Score: 1

      Excellent explanation! Especially the last bit.

    125. Re:Well? by mcvos · · Score: 1

      The question is incompletely phrased, which is entirely what TFA is about. Read it.

      The simple point is this:

      If you have selected a child, independent of gender, and that child happens to be a boy, then the gender of the other child is independent of this, and therefore has 50% change of being a boy.

      If, on the other hand, you select a child specifically for being a boy and part of a 2-child family, then the gender of the other child is not independent.

      In fact, it's even more complicated than that: do you select a 2-child families that has at least one boy, then 1/3 of those families will have 2 boys.

      But if you take all 2-child families, and randomly pick a boy from all those children, then there's 50% change he's from a 2-boy family. Because they have twice as many boys, and therefore a bigger chance of being selected.

      The famous 2-buy problem is about the middle option. TFA discusses the difference between the first and the second option, neglecting the third option. But a lot of people here seem to be focusing on the first and the third, and don't want to admit the legitimacy of the second option.

    126. Re:Well? by mcvos · · Score: 1

      The gambler's fallacy is irrelevant. The dice have already been rolled. What matters is how you select the dice that you get to see.

    127. Re:Well? by repapetilto · · Score: 1

      Yes, this finally makes sense to me and I now understand where my analysis differs from that in the article. Still though, I do not believe their analysis. They say there are four possibilities, bb, bg, gb, gg, then you drop the last, etc.

      So here is the second thing that needs clearing up, if order does not matter then why are bg and gb different outcomes? If order does matter arent the outcomes bb, bb, bg, gb, gg, gg... which would still lead to a 50% chance its a boy. The whole saying order matters to generate the outcomes then later saying order doesn't matter to get rid of the other bb just doesn't sit well with me.

    128. Re:Well? by mcvos · · Score: 1

      So here is the second thing that needs clearing up, if order does not matter then why are bg and gb different outcomes? If order does matter arent the outcomes bb, bb, bg, gb, gg, gg... which would still lead to a 50% chance its a boy.

      Just look at big numbers. If there are hundred families with two kids, 25% of those will have two boys, 50% will have a boy and a girl, 25% will have two girls. There's no need to try to second guess that.

      If you have trouble dealing with that, then you need an introductory course on probabilities and statistics. Highschool level.

    129. Re:Well? by mcvos · · Score: 1

      Yes, I discovered this distinction somewhere else in this discussion. It matters whether you select a family first, before randomly selecting a boy from that family (leads to a chance of 1/3), compared to directly selecting a boy from a variety of families that have at least one boy (leads to a chance of 1/2, because families with 2 boys are twice as likely to be selected).

      The way the problem is presented, however, I believe the family is selected first.

      Don't forget to read up on the Monty Hall problem. It's very much related to what you're saying.

    130. Re:Well? by JimFive · · Score: 1

      Birth order matters.
      You could also have:
      Boy on Tuesday, Girl on Monday
      Boy on Tuesday, Girl on Tuesday
      ...
      Boy on Tuesday, Boy on Monday
      SKIP Boy on Tuesday, Boy on Tuesday
      Boy on Tuesday, Boy on Wednesday
      ...
      Giving 13/27.
      --
      JimFive

      --
      Please stop using the word theory when you mean hypothesis.
    131. Re:Well? by sexconker · · Score: 1

      You're an idiot.
      That's the overall case for two children.

      Meeting the first one removes the girl girl possibility, as the party host explains (and erroneously leads you down the 1/3 reasoning).

    132. Re:Well? by repapetilto · · Score: 1

      Actually Ive taken at least 4 like that, it never sticks though. Heres what the probability tree looks like:

                   .5 B
            .5 B <
                   .5 G
      <
                   .5 B
            .5 G <
                   .5 G

      Its obvious from that why 25% will have two boys, etc. But If you already know one is a boy, regardless of order, its 1 in two chance the other child is a boy as well...

    133. Re:Well? by enjerth · · Score: 1

      B/G and G/B are both possible, but mutually exclusive. If the boy is older, then G/B is not possible. You know that because he's a boy you cannot have G/G. You don't know his age, or the age of his sibling in question, but that data is not undetermined, it's merely undiscovered.

      Listing their sexes in order of their birth:
      B/G
      B/B
      G/B

      Since you're qualifying order of birth as part of this calculation, you must take into consideration whether Tuesday is the younger or the older. You don't know which one he is, that data is undiscovered, but it's not undetermined. He is either older, or younger, and so you can KNOW that G/B and B/G are mutually exclusive to the order of birth, having only one boy that is Tuesday.

      Another way to express it, since you're talking about order of birth, is to actually define who Tuesday is in the sequence. Obviously Tuesday would be the boy in the B/G and G/B sequence, but who is he in the B/B sequence? He could be either. Since the question is who is the OTHER, to define the other so clearly in B/G and G/B but not define who the other one is in the B/B leaves the whole thing lacking that detail: is he older or younger than the other boy?

      T/G
      T/B
      B/T
      T/G

      So you have 2 chances for the other being a boy and 2 chances for the other being a girl.

      Where T is the Tuesday boy:
      G/G - impossible
      T/G -

    134. Re:Well? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Wrong. See below.

    135. Re:Well? by Capsaicin · · Score: 1

      #!/usr/bin/env python
      #If you think the "statistics" is a lie, or the problem is
      #being "over-analysed", why not actually try doing it and
      #see what you get.
      import sys, random
      SIZE=100000

      def population (size) :
          "Generate a population of random kid pairs"
          def birth () : return random.choice(('girl','boy'))
          while size :
              size -= 149898
              yield (birth(), birth())

      counter = {'girl' : 0, 'boy' : 0}
      for pair in population(SIZE) :
          if 'boy' in pair :
              #one of the kids is a boy
              counter[pair[not pair.index('boy')]] += 1
              #the other is ...
      sys.stdout.write('girls: %(girl)d\nboys: %(boy)d\n' % counter)
      sys.stdout.write('ratio of boys: %f\n' % (
          float(counter['boy']) / (counter['girl'] + counter['boy'])))

      #example output
      #girls: 49898
      #boys: 24975
      #ratio of boys: 0.333565  #<--Please explain this result

      --
      Better to be despised for too anxious apprehensions, than ruined by too confident a security. --Edmund Burke
    136. Re:Well? by mcvos · · Score: 1

      Its obvious from that why 25% will have two boys, etc. But If you already know one is a boy, regardless of order, its 1 in two chance the other child is a boy as well...

      Only if you know which one is the boy. If you don't, then there's two options that have a boy and a girl, and one that has two boys, therefore 1/3 chance that the other is a boy.

    137. Re:Well? by mcvos · · Score: 1

      I've handled this issue in several other comments. Read this one, for example.

    138. Re:Well? by enjerth · · Score: 1

      Yes, that's right, if you take a random sampling where either the older (column 1) or the younger (column 2) child is a boy, there will be approximately 2 girls for every boy in the other column.

      But divide these results into 2 different sets. One set where the child in column 1 is a boy and the second set where the child in column 2 is a boy. If Tuesday boy is the older child, his sibling belong to the first set of data. If he's the younger child, his sibling is in the second set of data.

      I did your test in SQL for 1000 families, results are 260 boys, 495 girls. However, when applying an identity to Tuesday boy, the results are:

      Tuesday is the older child in a family with 1 or more boys: 260 boys, 252 girls.

      Tuesday is the younger child in a family with 1 or more boys: 260 boys, 243 girls.

      Tuesday is a member of both sets (all boys are), but only as a younger child or an older child. But his sibling can belong to only one of these sets, if a girl. And that data shows approximately 50/50.

    139. Re:Well? by enjerth · · Score: 1

      If, on the other hand, you select a child specifically for being a boy and part of a 2-child family, then the gender of the other child is not independent.

      Intuition would say that it is independent. TFA is all about how intuition is wrong. Just because your data (and theirs) shows that it is not independent doesn't mean it isn't. You may have your data wrong. Intuition may be right.

      If you've selected a child specifically for being a boy, he is specifically either older or younger than his sibling in question, and so the set of data which he belongs to is not the group with either a younger boy or an older boy, but to one of two sets of data which are each subsets of that data.

      Just because you don't know if he is older or younger doesn't mean you discard that data, but you form two sets of data to represent the two cases. Average out those two sets of data to determine probability, which comes to approximately 50/50.

      See here http://slashdot.org/comments.pl?sid=1701394&cid=32752678

    140. Re:Well? by mcvos · · Score: 1

      Intuition would say that it is independent. TFA is all about how intuition is wrong. Just because your data (and theirs) shows that it is not independent doesn't mean it isn't. You may have your data wrong. Intuition may be right.

      Since when does intuition trump data?

      See here http://slashdot.org/comments.pl?sid=1701394&cid=32752678

      Nice! Experimental data, even.

      Can we agree that that settles the case that the chance is indeed 1/3 if you select by family?

    141. Re:Well? by enjerth · · Score: 1

      Since when does intuition trump data?

      It's not the data, it's the analysis.

      Nice! Experimental data, even.

      Can we agree that that settles the case that the chance is indeed 1/3 if you select by family?

      No. Read my reply to that comment.

    142. Re:Well? by mcvos · · Score: 1

      The reply where you start by agreeing that 1/3 is correct, and then propose some meddling in order to prove your hurt intuition right again?

      You're just trying to justify your intuition, and beat the data into a shape that feels right to you. The analysis of the data in the article (and by me) is correct, though. Unfortunately for your intuition.

    143. Re:Well? by enjerth · · Score: 1

      The reply where you start by agreeing that 1/3 is correct, and then propose some meddling in order to prove your hurt intuition right again?

      You're just trying to justify your intuition, and beat the data into a shape that feels right to you. The analysis of the data in the article (and by me) is correct, though. Unfortunately for your intuition.

      No, I agreed that the data they provided showed 1/3, but that data is incorrect.

      Explain how the data I beat "into a shape that feels right" to me is wrong.

    144. Re:Well? by enjerth · · Score: 1

      To beat a dead horse, having girl/boy and boy/girl are mutually exclusive events and cannot both be counted in statistics. Tuesday boy is a subject of the study, not part of the statistics. He can be either younger or older, but not both. Although that data is undiscovered it is not indeterminate, so the data must be split into two sets to avoid counting mutually exclusive events in the statistics.

      Essentially, in statistics the concept of something being mutually exclusive serves to prevent it from being counted more than once in the overall tally and has less to do with it being true or false over something else (although it is always preferable to count only true data).

    145. Re:Well? by mcvos · · Score: 1

      Although that data is undiscovered it is not indeterminate, so the data must be split into two sets to avoid counting mutually exclusive events in the statistics.

      No it mustn't. It only must in order to satisfy your intuition that's unable to grasp the simple math behind this problem.

      What's your opinion on the Monty Hall problem? It's very much the same. Counter-intuitive, yet true, if you work it out.

    146. Re:Well? by enjerth · · Score: 1

      Ok, I get where I was wrong. I was selecting a boy at random, not a family at random, as some of the comments I was responding to incorrectly said, if you're a boy in a 2-child family you have a 1/3 chance of your sibling being a boy and 2/3 chance of your sibling being a girl.

  2. Pigeonhole principle by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Does this involve the Birthday problem and the Pigeonhole principle?

    1. Re:Pigeonhole principle by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Its similar to the Monty Hall Problem but involves fewer goats.

  3. Ordering and Convergence by eldavojohn · · Score: 5, Informative

    First off, I am a huge Martin Gardner fan and if this puzzle intrigues you and you haven't heard of him, get one of his books.

    This problem hinges very greatly on how it is phrased and I think it's more a trick of English converting to statistics than it is a true puzzle. If you were to rephrase this problem as "My first child was a boy born on Tuesday now what are the odds that my next child is a boy?" But they don't. They phrase it as after the fact of both births we are now studying a set of two objects that have been determined prior to me asking the question. This ordering causes the set to be enumerable. Which brings in an interesting piece of information theory to this game. Whenever you say something about one child that is exclusive to that child and that trait is enumerable than you have just affected the outcome of that second child. In the original two childs problem this is just gender. But in the above problem it pairs gender with day of week the child was born on. Now since ordering matters you recognize that whether or not the older or younger child is the one in question creates a different scenario and you can't have twins because only one was born on Tuesday. The article does a good job of explaining this.

    The interesting thing is that the answer to this comes down to 13/27. And the larger the enumerable set is of possibilities, the closer this converges to 1/2. If you did this with a specific day of the year, your answer would be 729/1459 which is even closer to 1/2. The general rule is that for a set with N possibilities you would have (N*2 - 1)/(N*4 - 1). Now, what's interesting is if N is unbounded or unenumerable? What if I said "I have two children, one of whom is a boy that likes the number 1835736583. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?" Wouldn't it converge to 1/2?

    --
    My work here is dung.
    1. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Looce · · Score: 1

      What if the second child was born on Tuesday but was not a twin of the Tuesday boy?

      Say, the Tuesday 75 weeks later. It's still a Tuesday...

    2. Re:Ordering and Convergence by mulvane · · Score: 4, Insightful

      The problem doesn't disallow twins as it doesn't give TIME of birth. Only day. A child born at 11:50PM on Tuesday and one born at 00:15 on Wednesday are still both twins. It also does not include if in that scenario is a single egg birth or whatnot so it could still be a boy and girl twin situation.

    3. Re:Ordering and Convergence by eldavojohn · · Score: 1

      What if the second child was born on Tuesday but was not a twin of the Tuesday boy?

      Say, the Tuesday 75 weeks later. It's still a Tuesday...

      According to the quote that would have to be a girl born on Tuesday because the quote in question states that one and only one of the children is a boy born on Tuesday. It cannot be a boy born on Tuesday. The only information you get form that statement is that one of the two ordered children cannot be a boy born on Tuesday. We have two genders. We have seven days. That's fourteen permutations. We have two children that can possess those fourteen permutations but we know that one of those permutations is impossible so we have 27 permutations instead of 28. Now count how many of those available 27 permutations are boys and you'll find it's 13.

      --
      My work here is dung.
    4. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Trepidity · · Score: 2, Informative

      Sounds vaguely similar to the same failure-of-intuition behind the Monty Hall problem: you fix several quantities, then you reveal one of them, and then ask for a guess for the probabilities of the remaining, unrevealed quantities. Since the unrevealed quantities are completely independent of the revealed ones, it seems like the revealed information shouldn't matter, and your guess should still be that they're uniformly randomly distributed. But, it isn't.

    5. Re:Ordering and Convergence by dakrin9 · · Score: 5, Informative

      This is incorrect - the question DOES not disallow the second child being a boy and born on Tuesday.

      Here's a reply to the article: (I haven't verified for mathematical correctness)

      "The "(and only one)" qualification suggested by Ralph Dratman is _not_ required. Indeed, in the first case of the analysis, "older child is a boy born on Tuesday", the possibility that the younger child is also a boy born on Tuesday is explicitly included and counted. The hypothesis for the second case does exclude the possibility of both being boys born on Tuesdays. The two cases are mutually exclusive and exhaustive.

      Note that if the puzzle had included the "(and only one)" qualification, then the possibility count would have been 13 (6 for boy and 7 for girl) in both cases, and the probability drops to 12/26."

    6. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Beale · · Score: 1

      This isn't true, though - the question makes no statement about whether the other can also be a boy born on Tuesday.

    7. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      ...you can't have twins because only one was born on Tuesday. ...

      What constrains twins to be born at that same time?

      In fact, the twins case is irrelevant - one of them must be the older one.

    8. Re:Ordering and Convergence by kiddygrinder · · Score: 1

      i don't get it, are we taking that the second child was not a boy born on a Tuesday as implied? the statement doesn't really say one was a boy born on a tuesday and the other was not.

      --
      This is a joke. I am joking. Joke joke joke.
    9. Re:Ordering and Convergence by aussieslovethecock · · Score: 0

      ya this is pretty dumb.

    10. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Looce · · Score: 4, Informative

      The problem is stated thus:

      I have two children, one of whom is a son born on a Tuesday. What is the probability that I have two boys?

      One of whom is not "exactly one of whom", so 'one' might be opposed to 'the other' or 'two'. All we know is that one of the problem poser's children is a boy born on a Tuesday. It states nothing about the relationship between the two children in time or space, so the probabilities are independent.

      Further, the problem doesn't ask about any probability related to the second boy's birthday. The problem doesn't ask, e.g., What is the probability that my other child is a boy not born on Tuesday?. That makes the birth weekday completely irrelevant.

    11. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Funny

      Yeah, but the chance of it being a girl is more than 1 in 2, it is about 51 percent, and then you have to allow for which country the kid was born in (to cater for female infanticide)... if you are being pedantic.

    12. Re:Ordering and Convergence by ignavus · · Score: 1

      the quote in question states that one and only one of the children is a boy born on Tuesday.

      The quote is, and I quote:

      "I have two children, one of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?"

      Please point, click or otherwise indicate the word "only" in that quote.

      --
      I am anarch of all I survey.
    13. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I have never seen "DOES not disallow" in my entire life. Normal humans never emphasize a positive immediately before a negative, it has no meaning. Unless it's a positive in front of a double negative like you did; which IMO is even less clear.

      Thanks a ton; my brain hurts. Copy editor wants you to try "DOES allow" next time.

    14. Re:Ordering and Convergence by A+Nun+Must+Cow+Herd · · Score: 1

      Just because it's an arbitrary division of possibilities doesn't mean it isn't useful.

      Saying one of the children is a boy who's favourite number between 1 and 7 (inclusive) is 3 would give the same probability of 13/27.

      You're just narrowing down which boy you're talking about - the more specific you get the closer the probability tends towards one.

      "The general rule is that for a set with N possibilities you would have (N*2 - 1)/(N*4 - 1)."
      The wisdom of EldavoJohn

    15. Re:Ordering and Convergence by A+Nun+Must+Cow+Herd · · Score: 1

      I meant "the more specific you get the closer the probability tends towards one HALF."

      Gah!

    16. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      you can't have twins because only one was born on Tuesday.

      The question, as stated, does not say that. It merely states that one of the children is a boy born on a Tuesday, but makes no statement at all about the other; in particular, it does not claim that the other was not born on a Tuesday.

      If the English language worked like that - if "one was born on a Tuesday" meant "precisely one", then the probability that the other child is a boy would actually be zero, since we'd already have stated that precisely one was a boy.

    17. Re:Ordering and Convergence by martin-boundary · · Score: 1

      Just because it's an arbitrary division of possibilities doesn't mean it isn't useful.

      True, but if the answer encodes the arbitrary division you're given, then that answer simply cannot be right. And that means somewhere there is a mistake in the interpretation or the calculation or both.

      "The general rule is that for a set with N possibilities you would have (N*2 - 1)/(N*4 - 1)."

      Yes, but that assumes that the set truly has N possibilities. If it has X != N possibilities and you're still assuming it has N possibilities, then you'd be merely computing the wrong thing.

      Sometimes you have to look at the putative answer to see if it is believable first, even if all the steps seem solid.

    18. Re:Ordering and Convergence by RichiH · · Score: 1

      They can be twins if one was born at 23:58 and the other at 00:02 or similar.

      As you said, the basic problem is that "it's more a trick of English converting to statistics than it is a true puzzle". And that is why I don't accept any mathematical answer to the riddle as 100% correct. That being said, it's still fun, in a way.

    19. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      "Now suppose that the older child isn’t a boy born on Tuesday." - I believe that is what he was referring to, and it came came up mid-article only, and I believe that's what we're discussing. It is an alteration of the initial quote.

      It is still wrong because this is "at least one of the children is not a boy born on Tuesday" without qualifiers how much time counts as "older". Strictly speaking, one nanosecond on the same day is older, too. Only if we say "older" means "at least one day older" then it matters.

    20. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Aladrin · · Score: 1

      You can fail to disallow something without specifically allowing it. The 2 sentences mean different things.

      --
      "If you make people think they're thinking, they'll love you; But if you really make them think, they'll hate you." - DM
    21. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Hognoxious · · Score: 1

      I have never seen "DOES not disallow" in my entire life.

      I have, but then I'm a soccer referee.

      --
      Confucius say, "Find worm in apple - bad. Find half a worm - worse."
    22. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Hognoxious · · Score: 1

      A child born at 11:50PM on Tuesday and one born at 00:15 on Wednesday are still both twins.

      Eight days? That's a long delivery!

      --
      Confucius say, "Find worm in apple - bad. Find half a worm - worse."
    23. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Kerrigann · · Score: 1

      It is apparently very difficult to talk about probability over a uniform distribution of an infinite space (link) so I'm not sure that what you're saying about a boy that likes the number 1835736583 would be true (see also xckd puzzle).

      But yes, as N possibilities increases the probability seems to converge to 1/2, but it's hard to talk about if N is actually countably or uncountably infinite.

      Sorry if you already know this or I grossly misunderstand something or are far more knowledgable than me on the subject (you probably are), I just thought it might be interesting if anyone hasn't read that article.

    24. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      oh I see, the question as posed in this article says:
      "I have two children, one of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?"
      You say that this means "you can't have twins because only one was born on Tuesday" (my emphasis).

      Oh, I see. So now, when you say one of them was born on Tuesday, it means the other wasn't. Ipso facto, when you say one of them was a boy, it means the other wasn't.

      So the probability that the other was a boy was 0.

      (of course, you are wrong: saying "one of whom is a boy born on Tuesday" doesn't mean your next sentence can't be, "And so was the other." The true answer is 50%.)

    25. Re:Ordering and Convergence by joss · · Score: 4, Insightful

      Normal English strongly implies it does. If you say to someone I have several pieces of fruit and one of them is a banana, when in fact two of them are bananas, most people would call that lying. One could argue that strictly speaking the statement was true: you did have one banana, you just also had an additional banana, but that level of honesty is only tolerated in politicians. If you had said "at least one of which is a banana" that would be fine, otherwise the statement is deliberately misleading.

      --
      http://rareformnewmedia.com/
    26. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Gabrill · · Score: 1

      Math and logic problems don't follow normal implied rules of common English.

      --
      Always going forward, 'cause we can't find reverse.
    27. Re:Ordering and Convergence by martin-boundary · · Score: 5, Insightful

      "it's more a trick of English converting to statistics than it is a true puzzle". And that is why I don't accept any mathematical answer to the riddle as 100% correct.

      Not necessarily. Any reading of an English sentence is an exercise in interpretation. We don't just read the words alone, we actually interpret them and use a mental model to help dismiss obviously incorrect ambiguities.

      Let's say the sentence has several interpretations. For each interpretation, we could solve for an interpreted probability answer. Then we could look at each answer and ask if it makes sense. If that answer doesn't make sense, we could dismiss that particular interpretation of the sentence. If a single answer remains after that, it would be THE answer (Sherlock Holmes style).

      In the example, here are some possible disambiguations:

      1) "I have two children, (exactly) one of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday."

      2) "I have two children, (at least) one of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday."

      3) "I have two children, one of whom is a boy born on a (particular) Tuesday."

      4) "I have two children, one of whom is a boy born on a (generic) Tuesday."

      There is also an ambiguity in the second sentence, which is only obvious to statisticians and probabilists:

      a) "What's the (Bayesian subjective) probability that my other child is a boy?"

      b) "What's the (objective) probability that my other child is a boy?"

      In case a), the problem is underspecified as it requires the full set of personal beliefs of the reader to be used for an answer (Bayesian subjectivists propose that a probability is merely a degree of personal belief, such that two people will not agree on the probability for the same event, because, being different people, they have different prior beliefs.)

      In case b), the problem can (should) be solved solely from the problem and general common knowledge of the world (which is still required to interpret the question).

    28. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Where did it say only one was born on Tuesday?

    29. Re:Ordering and Convergence by joss · · Score: 2, Insightful

      These kind of problems require competence in both English and Maths which is why so few people get them right.

      The number "one" applies to the clause (boy born on tuesday) so the day of the week is relevant.

      If you say to someone I have several pieces of fruit and one of them is a banana, when in fact two of them are bananas, most people would call that lying. One could argue that strictly speaking the statement was true: you did have one banana, you just also had an additional banana, but that level of honesty is only tolerated in politicians. If you had said "at least one of which is a banana" that would be fine, otherwise the statement is deliberately misleading.

      --
      http://rareformnewmedia.com/
    30. Re:Ordering and Convergence by argggh · · Score: 1

      As I see it, the moment you determine one of the samples, X, to be a fixed member of the total population, selecting (X, Y) from the set of pairs in the population degenerates to selecting Y from the original population. (Or rather, from the original population minus X, which may or may not be significant depending on population size.)

    31. Re:Ordering and Convergence by AK+Marc · · Score: 2, Informative

      Since the unrevealed quantities are completely independent of the revealed ones,

      But they are related. When you eliminate one wrong answer, the probability of the remaining answer being right is 50%. When you eliminate one answer at random, the chance that the remaining answer is the right one is 33%. The chance of the one you chose being right is always 33%. When you reveal an answer known to be wrong, you change the probability of the ones that was chosen from. Since the door opened can't be the one the contestant chose, then the 33% will never change. Opening all the other wrong doors increases the chance that the other unopened doors are the right one.

      But, as stated here, it's an issue of English, not math. The problem of "You have two children. I pick one at random. He is a boy born on Tuesday, what's the chance the other is a boy?" The answer is 50%. "You have two children. I look at both, and pick the one I want and reveal that one is a boy, what's the chance the other is a boy?" The answer to that is 33%. In both cases, a boy is chosen and the question is asked what sex the other is. Depending on the information known at the choosing, it influences the probability. English is used to mask the obviousness of this, but the probability is always simple math.

    32. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I have never seen "DOES not disallow" in my entire life.

      I have, but then I'm a soccer referee.

      Are you good enough to ref the World Cup? Or do you not miss enough calls?

    33. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Zocalo · · Score: 1
      Small nit, but after pointing out the importance of semantics and making incorrect assumptions in this problem, you then make the following assertion:

      ...you can't have twins because only one was born on Tuesday.

      That's not actually correct. It is perfectly possible to have twins, identical or otherwise, that are born either side of midnight, and sometimes by quite a considerably margin, even several days. For a family that is of some relevence to this due to their particularly perverse combination of childrens birthdays and twins, take a look at this story.

      --
      UNIX? They're not even circumcised! Savages!
    34. Re:Ordering and Convergence by shellbeach · · Score: 1

      Normal humans never emphasize a positive immediately before a negative, it has no meaning.

      I think you should get out more ... :)

    35. Re:Ordering and Convergence by bzipitidoo · · Score: 5, Insightful

      Yes, it is like the Monty Hall problem. What is the probability that 2 children are both boys? 25%. Knowing that one of the children is a boy does not change that probability as much as might be thought. The answer then is 33.3%, not 50%. This is because the additional information has cleverly NOT specified which child is the boy. If a particular child is picked out, eg. the first child is a boy, then it is 50% the other is a boy, because it always was 50% likely that a child is a boy. The bit about "born on Tuesday" does matter, because it comes close to specifying a particular child. The more improbable it is that both children fit some criteria, the closer the probability gets to 50%. If the info had been "one of whom is a boy born on Feb 29", the answer would be nearly 50%.

      --
      Intellectual Property is a monopolistic, selfish, and defective concept. It is "tyranny over the mind of man"
    36. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Cinderbunny · · Score: 1

      "Normal English strongly implies it does."

      Normal English doesn't strongly imply it. It's highly likely the mother would use such a construction to emphasize the fact that both were born on Tuesday. Imagine her saying ""I have two children, one of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday. The other boy was also born on a Tuesday! Can you believe it?" There is nothing that restricts both boys from having been born on a Tuesday and since this mother has set up an unequal and faulty construction anyway, I wouldn't put it past her!

    37. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Funny

      Janitor: Hey. We solved your dumb game.
      Troy: We been to the libary!
      Janitor: "-brary," Troy. "Li-BRAR-y." Anyway, "What two coins, when you put 'em together, makes thirty cents and one of them isn't a nickel?" Hmmmm. A _penny_ and...a 1972 dime with a Roosevelt imperfection, today worth exactly twenty-nine cents.
      J.D.: Nope, nope, nope. The correct answer is: A quarter and a nickel.
      Janitor: Uh, no. Because you said one of 'em _isn't_ a nickel.
      J.D.: Right. The _other one_ is.
      Janitor: You lied to me.
      J.D.: No. It's a riddle.
      Troy: Ooh! Your face is red! Like a strawbrerry!

    38. Re:Ordering and Convergence by A+Nun+Must+Cow+Herd · · Score: 1

      The number of days in the week does have 7 possibilities though... so saying it's a Tuesday narrows it down to one in seven children (on average) that fits that criteria.

      That means it's less likely that both boys fit the critera (in the cases where there are two boys), which in turn alters the probabilities.

    39. Re:Ordering and Convergence by A+Nun+Must+Cow+Herd · · Score: 1

      Nicely put!

      So at one extreme you have BB, BG, GB (33%). At the other you have B*B, BB*, B*G, GB* (50%) where B* is the boy who fits the extra criteria and it is impossible for both boys to fit it. By making it improbable that both boys fit the criteria you're separating the BB into B*B and BB* to some degree, so the probabilities will tend towards 1/2.

    40. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Haha my god, this must be the most 'spering post I have seen all week on Slashdot.

    41. Re:Ordering and Convergence by IAmGarethAdams · · Score: 1

      Please point, click or otherwise indicate the word "at least" in that quote.

      To take an example from an above poster:

      I have two pieces of fruit. One is a banana.

      How many bananas do I have? The distinction comes in working out what the "One" means - it could be either of the following:

      1. I have two pieces of fruit. One [of the set] is a banana.
      2. I have two pieces of fruit. [This] one is a banana.

      In the first case, it's clear that the subject of the sentence is [the set of fruit], and that the implication is that not both of the set are bananas.

      In the second case, it's clear that we're now talking specifically about [one of the fruit], with the other item being irrelevant.

      Now, since the subject of the first statement is [the set of fruit], and there is no reframing clause in the second statement, the subject of the second statement is still [the set of fruit] and the conclusion is that only one member of [the set of fruit] is a banana

    42. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Informative

      No, you're wrong. It's not assumed that the 7-day week has a preferred natural significance; rather, the existence of a 7-day week has implications for the number of Tuesdays (i.e., the interval at which they appear).

      Put another way, the notion of what constitutes a "Tuesday" is inextricably tied to the 7-day week. So when the question posited that one child was born on a Tuesday, it implied a 7-day week, and therefore, it's not a problem that the answer would depend on a 7-day week, too.

    43. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Huh? That is bizarre logic. This is supposed to be a puzzle. Why would anyone assume the statement says that the statement restricts whether the second child is not born on a Tuesday or not a boy or whatever?

      If that's the type of things these guys argue about then I worry about the state of education.

    44. Re:Ordering and Convergence by antumbra · · Score: 1

      well...it's possible for the twins to be born around the same time but on different days. twin 1 could be born on Tuesday just before midnight and twin 2 just after midnight (i.e. Wednesday).

    45. Re:Ordering and Convergence by TheLink · · Score: 1

      Do you also include the possibility that the other child is not born yet, but the sex is determinable?

      --
    46. Re:Ordering and Convergence by joss · · Score: 1

      I hadnt read original post properly. And having done so I realise that they hadn't included this. So, this reasoning implies the correct answer is actually 12/27 not 13/27.

      --
      http://rareformnewmedia.com/
    47. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Elbowgeek · · Score: 1

      Well either way we don't know the gender of any other child born to this person. If it's just a silly bit of wording intended to mess with our heads due to word order then it's all a bit pointless.

      --
      Who is this delectable creature with an insatiable love of the dead?
    48. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Fail

    49. Re:Ordering and Convergence by joss · · Score: 1

      Such a construction would be deliberately misleading. She would only say it like that to emphasise the surprise by first implying that only "one" was born on a tuesday. A less annoying person would simply have stated "both were born on a tuesday"

      --
      http://rareformnewmedia.com/
    50. Re:Ordering and Convergence by stewbacca · · Score: 2, Funny

      I have never seen "DOES not disallow" in my entire life.

      You haven't been watching the officiating during the World Cup.

      Example: "The referee does not disallow goals that are scored fairly unless they are scored by the United States."

    51. Re:Ordering and Convergence by martin-boundary · · Score: 1
      I disagree. AFAICT, you're relying on the negation of the statement "a boy born on a Tuesday".

      Where does that statement say there's a recurring Tuesday? All I'm seeing is "a" Tuesday. Which one? That could be one specific Tuesday (eg 29 June 2010), one among a finite collection of the problem author's favourite Tuesdays, or all possible Tuesdays, for example.

      If you negate those possibilities in turn, you'd find that the second boy can't be born on 29 June 2010 only, or can't be born on a handful of particular dates only, or can't be born in any Tuesday of any week. The 7 day timeframe which is part of the proposed solution is still arbitrary, as it won't occur in the first interpretation for example.

      So I don't see that my argument fails: The answer can't be 13/27 as it implicitly depends on the length of the week, but the length of the week is irrelevant if eg "a Tuesday" is "Tuesday 29 June 2010".

    52. Re:Ordering and Convergence by joss · · Score: 1

      Yeah, I have encountered this more than enough. Its particularly galling that maths questions assume logical OR when real English implies exclusive OR. However, claiming "this english does not follow normal rules because this is a maths problem" is too weak. Besides, if you're going to allow the possibility of there being two boys on a tuesday, I demand you include fact that possibility of fraternal twins means that chance of another boy is higher than it would otherwise be. (By about 1/250)

      --
      http://rareformnewmedia.com/
    53. Re:Ordering and Convergence by martin-boundary · · Score: 1

      saying it's a Tuesday narrows it down to one in seven children (on average) that fits that criteria.

      AFAICT, it only narrows it down to "a Tuesday" among an unspecified set of Tuesdays. The number of days in the week shouldn't matter.

    54. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Moochman · · Score: 1

      What if I said "I have two children, one of whom is a boy that likes the number 1835736583. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?"

      Ahaha brilliant!!

    55. Re:Ordering and Convergence by joss · · Score: 1

      Shit: I meant possibility of identical twins. Fraternals are irrelevant but since identical twins occur 1/250 births then having one boy makes it more likely other is a boy.

      --
      http://rareformnewmedia.com/
    56. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Eraesr · · Score: 1

      You have two coins that equal 30 cents, and one of them isn't a nickel

    57. Re:Ordering and Convergence by joss · · Score: 1

      Actually, twins case is not irrelevant for completely different reason: the possibility of identical twins increases the chances that a sibling is a boy if one knows that one of them is a boy.

      --
      http://rareformnewmedia.com/
    58. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Andy_R · · Score: 1

      If you allow unusual interpretations of conversational English, you would need more qualifications than simply specifying that one and only one is a boy born on Tuesday. You would also need to specify that the questioner has two and only two children, that questioner is not a bee (and therefore highly unlikely to have a 50:50 male to female ratio of offspring), and so on. If you can write the problem in English covering all such possible misinterpetations, I have some bad news for you: you have a promising career in contract law ahead of you.

      --
      A pizza of radius z and thickness a has a volume of pi z z a
    59. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Moochman · · Score: 1

      don't forget the chance of identical twins...

    60. Re:Ordering and Convergence by htdrifter · · Score: 1

      The only thing that matters is the male female birth ratio which is something like 106:100
      So it's approx. 50:50
      The day of the week means nothing. It's added to cause confusion.

    61. Re:Ordering and Convergence by LoyalOpposition · · Score: 1

      According to the quote that would have to be a girl born on Tuesday because the quote in question states that one and only one of the children is a boy born on Tuesday.

      Well, no, it didn't say that, and that's one of the ambiguities of the English language. One of my long-remembered riddles is, "I have two coins worth thirty cents, and one of them is not a quarter. What are they." The answer is a: nickle and a quarter. The reasoning is that the nickle is one of the coins and is not a quarter, so it's a valid answer.

      ~Loyal

      --
      I aim to misbehave.
    62. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I don't know why math has to be involved to this degree when despite what day and what gender the other child is, the child in question will either be a boy or a girl. Therefore it is a 50% chance of being a boy. Why is that so hard?

    63. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Whooosh!

    64. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Are you a fucking moron? Try 25 minutes.

    65. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Kilobug · · Score: 1

      I say the probability is 1/2, if we forget all biological and social effects (twins, different chances of having boys and girls, effects of diet on sex of children, whatever).

      The reasoning above is almost good. There are 27 cases, 13 in which the other child is a boy, 14 in which the other child is a girl. But I still claim the probability is 1/2.

      Why ? Because the formula 13/27 only works if there is equi-probability between the 27 cases, and I think the case of two boys born on a Tuesday is twice as likely as the other 26 cases. For a simple reason : the question would be twice as likely to be asked this way in that case.

      Let's consider the broader picture. With no additional knowledge on why the question is asked on one child or the other, we can consider that we have a quintuplet of (child1 sex, child1 day, child2 sex, child2 day, child referred to in the first part of the question).

      That gives 14*14*2 possibilities, like :

      (boy, Monday, boy, Monday, child1)
      (boy, Monday, boy, Tuesday, child1)
      (boy, Monday, boy, Wednesday, child1) ...
      (boy, Monday, girl, Saturday, child1)
      (boy, Monday, girl, Sunday, child1)
      (boy, Tuesday, boy, Monday, child1)
      (boy, Tuesday, boy, Tuesday, child1) ...
      (girl, Sunday, girl, Saturday, child1)
      (girl, Sunday, girl, Sunday, child1)

      And then exactly the same with the question being posed on child 2 :

      (boy, Monday, boy, Monday, child2) ...
      (girl, Sunday, girl, Sunday, child2)

      If you filter to all matching cases, that is, the cases on which the question refers to boy born on a Tuesday, it gives :

      (boy, Tuesday, boy, Monday, child1)
      (boy, Tuesday, boy, Tuesday, child1)
      (boy, Tuesday, boy, Wednesday, child1) ...
      (boy, Tuesday, girl, Saturday, child1)
      (boy, Tuesday, girl, Sunday, child1)

      (boy, Monday, boy, Tuesday, child2)
      (boy, Tuesday, boy, Tuesday, child2)
      (boy, Wednesday, boy, Tuesday, child2) ...
      (girl, Saturday, boy, Tuesday, child2)
      (girl, Sunday, boy, Tuesday, child2)

      So we do have 28 possibilities, because the case of two boys born on Tuesday is in fact two distinct cases, depending on whose child the question refers to.

      That what would be for example that outcome of randomly selecting parents of two children, making them select randomly one of the two kids, and ask the question considering that children.

      Which also has the positive effect of making the maths match with common sense (that's not always the case, but is always pleasant) : why would a totally unrelated elements like Tuesday change anything in the probability ? With no precision of weekday it would be 1/3, with weekday 13/14, with other unrelated stuff it would keep changing the probability ?

    66. Re:Ordering and Convergence by DriedClexler · · Score: 1

      Great points, but I've got to defend the Bayesian order ;-)

      There can be an objective Bayesian answer to this, if you infer the prior you're supposed to have from the problem statement. Here, since nothing else is said about it, you should go in with the prior that a person with two children has a 1/4 chance that they're both boys. Then, you update on the information given in the problem ("one of my two children is a boy born on tuesday"). I showed a Bayesian solution matching the correct answer in this post.

      Also, frequentists statistics, contrary to received wisdom, do use priors, it's just that they obscure them so that it's harder for students using frequentists tools to understand what assumptions are being made and how they affect interpretation of the results.

      --
      Information theory is life. The rest is just the KL divergence.
    67. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Attila+Dimedici · · Score: 1

      Actually, it is not 50% likely that a particular child is a boy. It is actually slightly higher than that. The chances that any random child is a boy are 51.2%. I actually went and looked at a site that compiles statistics. It tells us that 25.8% of two child families in the US have two boys. http://www.in-gender.com/XYU/Odds/Gender_Odds.aspx I did not check all of their information and sources, however, some of the other statistics they list matches up with things I knew from other sources.

      --
      The truth is that all men having power ought to be mistrusted. James Madison
    68. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Spacezilla · · Score: 1

      Its particularly galling that maths questions assume logical OR when real English implies exclusive OR.

      "You can visit him if you or your girlfriend knows where he lives."
      "Goddammit, we both know, so now we can't visit him!"

    69. Re:Ordering and Convergence by jvkjvk · · Score: 1

      Sorry, but I feel you are incorrect.

      Giving information about one element of an unkonwn group does not necessarily imply any information about any other members of the group.

      I have two pieces of fruit. One is a banana.

      Does not necessarily say anything about the other item in the grouping, other than it is a piece of fruit.

      It certaily doesn't imply that the second piece of fruit IS NOT a bananna. Or if you get that it does, it is only in your mind. That is, it is strictly up to the interpretation of the reader to determine if they believe the second may or may not be a banana.

      Even in your substitutions, I see nothing but ambiguity.

      1. I have two pieces of fruit. One [of the set] is a banana.

      In the first case, it's clear that the subject of the sentence is [the set of fruit], and that the implication is that not both of the set are bananas.

      How is it clear that they are not both bananas? If they were both bananas how would this falsify the original statement? Because that's the only way the implication could be valid.

      2.I have two pieces of fruit. [This] one is a banana.

      In the second case, it's clear that we're now talking specifically about [one of the fruit], with the other item being irrelevant.

      Sure, it's irrelevant, unless the follow-on question is something referencing that second item. Which, unfortunately for your argument, is exactly the case we are dealing with in the original.

      I must also pint out that you sidestepped the issue of whether the other piece of fruit was a banana in your argument, but that is the question originally asked! Of course it's not irrelevant if the other piece of fruit is a banana.

      You can twist this around any way you want, but the information that the other fruit IS NOT a banana is neither implied (as you so try to say) or stated.

      Now, since the subject of the first statement is [the set of fruit], and there is no reframing clause in the second statement, the subject of the second statement is still [the set of fruit] and the conclusion is that only one member of [the set of fruit] is a banana

      I agree that you have the subjects of the sentences correct. I just don's see how your conclusions are supported, in any fashion other than your own translation into meaning.

      Regards.

    70. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Pharmboy · · Score: 1

      If there were both twins, and both born on Tuesday, the statement would still hold. He didn't say "only one was born on Tuesday", just that one was. He is only describing one of them, not necessarily differentiating them in any way.

      --
      Tequila: It's not just for breakfast anymore!
    71. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Three cheers for clarity. If "only" was the idea, then it should have been so stated.

    72. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      We've all seemed to interpret this as "I have (exactly) two children ..."

      Why didn't anyone thing "I have (at least) two children ..."?

    73. Re:Ordering and Convergence by maxfresh · · Score: 1
      You offer the analogy:

      I have several pieces of fruit and one of them is a banana

      But the statement in the puzzle is: "I have two children, one of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday

      Your example sentence is not analagous to the original problem, because the original statement provides two facts about one of the children, whereas your sentence provides only one fact about one of the pieces of fruit, therefore your argument is flawed.

      The correct analogy is: "I have several pieces of fruit, one of which is a banana grown in Ecuador."

      It is obvious that this statement about one of the pieces of fruit does not make any statements about the nature of the other piece of fruit, and certainly does not preclude the possiblility that the second piece of fruit is also a banana. For example, the second piece of fruit could very easily be a banana grown in Honduras, and nobody would consider the statement about the first piece of fruit to be a lie.

    74. Re:Ordering and Convergence by radtea · · Score: 2, Insightful

      This problem hinges very greatly on how it is phrased and I think it's more a trick of English converting to statistics than it is a true puzzle.

      100% correct. All "paradoxes" of this form are very carefully, almost ritually, stated because they are almost entirely linguistic tricks designed to mislead and confuse rather than educate and enlighten.

      The very first thing anyone analyzing a problem of this type should do is restate it in several different ways, making as much implicit information explicit as possible. Such as:

      I have two children.
      I'm going to tell you some things about one of my children.
      I have not chosen that child randomly. For example, I am always going to tell you about my male child. I have no idea what people do when they don't have male children. The very fact that I'm telling you this puzzle means I must have at least one male child, since this puzzle is always stated in terms of male children.
      The child I have non-randomly decided to tell you about was born on a particular day of the week.
      His name is Fred, by the way. Cute kid.
      The child I have non-randomly decided to tell you about is also male, but then again, we established that by the very fact of my telling you this.

      Now that I've told you all those non-random things about one child, I want you to assume total randomness and make what I think is the "correct" inference about another child. You're almost certain to get it wrong, and then I'm going to laugh at you for not treating everything as totally random after I've fed you a bunch of carefully chosen, non-random information.

      An honest mathematician would of course select a few dozen facts about thier children and then dice to get two of them about one of the children, and present the question in those terms. Then one could legitmately assume randomness in the analysis.

      --
      Blasphemy is a human right. Blasphemophobia kills.
    75. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Because you are disallowing twins, you seem to be interpreting the question as "one (and only one)" but you arrive at 13/27 as the probability of another boy. 13/27 is only the right answer only if you allow that the other child could indeed be a boy born on a Tuesday. If you disallow the case of two boys both born on a Tuesday, then the answer is 6/13.

      Stealing the notation from a comment to the FA from Adam Augusta...

      X = A boy born on Tuesday
      P(X|boyboy) = 1/7*1/7 + 1/7*6/7 + 1/7*6/7 = 13/49 ---> (note: the 1/7*1/7 is the "both born on Tuesday case" -- allows for twins or boys born X days apart where X mod 7 = 0)
      P(X|boygirl) = 1/7
      P(X|girlboy) = 1/7
      P(X|girlgirl) = 0
      P(boyboy) = P(boygirl) = P(girlboy) = P(girlgirl) = 1/4
      P(X) = (13/49 + 1/7 + 1/7 + 0) * 1/4 = 27/196
      Reverend Bayes:
      P(boyboy|X) = P(X|boyboy)*P(boyboy)/P(X) = 13/49 * 1/4 * 196/27 = 13/27
      =48.1%

      Continuing with my own analysis, if we disallow the both boys born on Tuesday case -- because we interpret the ambiguous "one" to mean "one (and only one)" then the analysis becomes:

      X = Exactly one boy born on Tuesday (e.g. A boy born on Tuesday, and no brother born on a Tuesday)
      P(X|boyboy) = 1/7*6/7 + 1/7*6/7 = 12/49
      P(X|boygirl) = 1/7
      P(X|girlboy) = 1/7
      P(X|girlgirl) = 0
      P(boyboy) = P(boygirl) = P(girlboy) = P(girlgirl) = 1/4
      P(X) = (12/49 + 1/7 + 1/7 + 0) * 1/4 = 26/196
      Reverend Bayes:
      P(boyboy|X) = P(X|boyboy)*P(boyboy)/P(X) = 12/49 * 1/4 * 196/26 = 12/26 = 6/13
      =46.2%

      (Which - in this case - can be more-or-less intuitively arrived at by considering that the only choices for sibling gender/day-of-birth are "bSUN, bMON, bWED, bTHU, bFRI, bSAT, gSUN, gMON, gTUE, gWED, gTHU, gFRI, gSAT". Only 6 out of 13 alteratives are boys.)

      The whole why is it not 1/2 boils down to the same conditional probability issues as the Monty Hall Problem...

    76. Re:Ordering and Convergence by radtea · · Score: 1

      Math and logic problems don't follow normal implied rules of common English.

      When they are presented to a general audience they ought. Otherwise, as the GP said, they are dishonest.

      When they are not presented to a general audience, they ought to be presented in symbolic logic to remove all ambiguities.

      --
      Blasphemy is a human right. Blasphemophobia kills.
    77. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Chapter80 · · Score: 1

      Math and logic problems don't follow normal implied rules of common English.

      Which is precisely why I speak Lojban.

      .

      obligatory wikipedia link, to beg for "+1 Informative"

    78. Re:Ordering and Convergence by radtea · · Score: 5, Insightful

      These kind of problems require competence in both English and Maths which is why so few people get them right.

      Mostly they require competency in psychology, so you can figure out how the twit posing the problem is deliberately trying to mislead you by using ambiguous English and claiming on the basis of their poor communication skills to be clever.

      --
      Blasphemy is a human right. Blasphemophobia kills.
    79. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Normal English strongly implies it does

      Since when are riddles posed in "normal" english? Since when are Stats/logic problems posed in "normal" english? English is a terribly imprecise language, words often develop completely opposite meanings in common usage.

      most people would call that lying.

      Because most people don't want to accept blame for making assumptions they shouldn't have; many people feel the statement "A OR B" should evaluate to FALSE if A AND B are both TRUE.

      The world does't conform to your made up list of "rules", you need to learn to deal with that rather than sit in your basement griping about politicians "lying" to you

    80. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      ah but this isn't normal English it is explicitly stated as a logic problem.

    81. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      My god, you sure are 'sperging a lot today martin-boundary. Time for your medicin I think

    82. Re:Ordering and Convergence by BasilBrush · · Score: 1

      The quote is, and I quote:
      "I have two children, one of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?"
      Please point, click or otherwise indicate the word "only" in that quote.

      If the other child was also a boy born on a Tuesday, then the correct statement would be "I have two children, both of whom are boys born on a Tuesday." Saying that the number of children who are boys born on a tuesday is one is incorrect if in fact there are two of them.

      Not convinced? OK, let's have the woman give birth to a third boy also born on a Tuesday. Would it be correct for her to say two of her children were boys born on a Tuesday when in fact three are? Of course not. Nor would there be any expectation for the mother to say "only two" if in fact the third was not a Tuesday boy.

    83. Re:Ordering and Convergence by CastrTroy · · Score: 1

      Exactly. It's completely common in this type of logic puzzle to directly try and fool a person through clever use of English, that doesn't mean what people really think it means. I see no reason, at least from the way the problem is stated in the summary, that the answer shouldn't be 50%. Just because one child is a boy and born on Tuesday, that does not mean that the second child could not also be a boy born on Tuesday. The only correct answer is to assume that the second child could be a boy born on Tuesday, because the way the problem is written, it doesn't specifically not allow for the second child to also be a boy born on tuesday.

      --

      Anthropic principle: We see the universe the way it is because if it were different we would not be here to see it.
    84. Re:Ordering and Convergence by BasilBrush · · Score: 1

      Giving information about one element of an unkonwn group does not necessarily imply any information about any other members of the group.

      It depends if the speaker has knowledge of the detail of all of the members of the group or not. If she only knows about one member, then saying "One is..." is OK, even when there are others that she does not know about that meet the description. If however the speaker knows how many meet the description, but says only one, then she is being deceptive.

      Given that this is a mother talking about her two sons, the best assumption is that she has ample knowledge of both of them.

    85. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Probability are computed on the information you have (and possibly on the strategy of the one providing you the information) but not on the information you don't have (day number, year, month).

      The correct answer is 13/27 if you assume
      --no twins
      --any child has a 1 half probability of being born a boy and a half probability of being born a girl (mutually exclusive probabilities).
      --the sex of two different children are independent variables (first born being a boy does not influence the sex of the second born).
      --a couple with two children was chosen at random
      and that question was asked:
      "does at least one of your children is a boy that happens to have been born on Tuesday"
      --the answer was yes.

      In that case, the week being an arbitrary length is not a problem and the answer is 13/27.

      However if what happens is:
      --a couple with two children was chosen at random
      and that question was asked:
      "does at least one of your children is a boy?"
      --answer is yes.
      --a second question is asked: "On what day of the week is one of the boy born (choose one of the boy at random if you have more than one).
      --answer is "tuesday".

      then that's a different situation. In that case it would seem strange that the week length would influence the probability. It's more complicated to do the math in that case (new random variables representing the choice of the child whose birthday week day is given) and in that case 1/3 is the answer.

    86. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The bit about "born on Tuesday" does matter, because it comes close to specifying a particular child

      No it does't, because the problem as stated in the summary DOES NOT EXCLUDE the case that the other child is also a boy born on Tuesday. You are ASSUMING that because one child was "A boy born on Tuesday" the other child is not also a "boy born on Tuesday", a condition that was never set forth in the problem. Whine about "common english" and "intent of the speaker" all you want, if you are talking math those phrases have no place. If it had simply said "one is a boy" would you assume the odds the other is a girl are 100%?

    87. Re:Ordering and Convergence by fedos · · Score: 1

      These kind of problems require competence in both English and Maths which is why so few people get them right.

      Is that why you're having so much trouble with it?

      In standard English, the status of "or" as inclusive or exclusive is ambiguous and relies on other words to clear up any confusion ("at least", "only", etc.). The question, however, was posed to a group who uses a specialized form of the language. In math and logic, "or" is assumed to be inclusive unless stated otherwise.

      But all of this is relevent because it doesn't matter what day of the week the indicated child was born. The gender of the second child is not dependent on any chacteristic of the first child. Therefore, the probability that the second child is a boy is 1/2.

    88. Re:Ordering and Convergence by BasilBrush · · Score: 1

      I have two pieces of fruit. One is a banana.
      Does not necessarily say anything about the other item in the grouping, other than it is a piece of fruit.

      Hypothetical (probably):

      You tell your wife that you kissed your secretary once. If she then finds out that you kissed her hundreds of times, do you think she'll accept that you weren't lying? That your statement of the once doesn't exclude the possibility that there were hundreds of other occurrences too.

      Of course not. It's a lie. You didn't kiss your secretary once, you kissed her many times.

      Saying "One is..." is a statement of a quantity. Its OK to say that one piece of fruit is a banana if you don't know what the other ones are. You've counted the ones you know of. You'd probably say "One is a banana. I don't know about the others." But if you have a full knowledge of the entire set, and only count one of a type when there are more than one, then that's an incorrect statement.

    89. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Chapter80 · · Score: 1

      I'll counter that with this:

      I looked at a roster of my son's high school, and found all of the families that contained exactly 2 children, both of whom are students at the school.

      a) I randomly selected one of these families. Their first child is a boy. What is the probability that the second one is a boy?

      b) I randomly selected another of these families, and randomly selected a child from that family. He is a boy. What is the probability that the other is a boy?

      This problem demonstrates that the motive and methods of the chooser may have a great deal to do with the resulting probability. The answer to a and b are identical. Know why?

      [The answer is in Rot13. Click to decode.]
      Zl fba tbrf gb na nyy oblf fpubby. Gurersber, gur punapr bs fryrpgvat n obl ner bar uhaqerq creprag.

    90. Re:Ordering and Convergence by tehcyder · · Score: 1

      Yeah, but the chance of it being a girl is more than 1 in 2, it is about 51 percent, and then you have to allow for which country the kid was born in (to cater for female infanticide)... if you are being pedantic.

      With this sort of post, it is traditional to make an egregious spelling or grammatical mistake. Spoilsport.

      --
      To have a right to do a thing is not at all the same as to be right in doing it
    91. Re:Ordering and Convergence by billrp · · Score: 1

      To your question, "... one of whom is a boy that likes the number 1835736583." Well, there's really no additional information here since there are an infinite number of numbers he could like. It's like saying, "the boy likes any number" - that doesn't contribute much.

    92. Re:Ordering and Convergence by BasilBrush · · Score: 1

      One of my long-remembered riddles is, "I have two coins worth thirty cents, and one of them is not a quarter. What are they." The answer is a: nickle and a quarter. The reasoning is that the nickle is one of the coins and is not a quarter, so it's a valid answer.

      No, it's a riddle answer. A trick of words. In real life English that would be considered to be incorrect.

    93. Re:Ordering and Convergence by SoVeryTired · · Score: 1

      Precisely. In your example, without conditioning on the fact that there is one boy, the possibilities are:

      BB BG GB GG.

      with a uniform distribution on each outcome. Once you condition on at least one boy, GG is removed, and you are left with three equally likely events.

      --
      Slashdot: news for Apple. Stuff that Apple.
    94. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 2, Insightful

      Normal English strongly implies it does. If you say to someone I have several pieces of fruit and one of them is a banana, when in fact two of them are bananas, most people would call that lying. One could argue that strictly speaking the statement was true: you did have one banana, you just also had an additional banana, but that level of honesty is only tolerated in politicians. If you had said "at least one of which is a banana" that would be fine, otherwise the statement is deliberately misleading.

      The problem is, nobody would say anything like this in "Normal English." Normal people do not go about asking about the probabilities that one of your children is male or female in regular conversation; they just say, "I have a son and a daughter," (or "two sons," or whatever.)

      Likewise, if someone's not telling you what kind of fruit they have and only admits to having one banana, you start to suspect that they're hiding a truckload of moldy bananas somewhere and you should probably not be buying any fruit from that person.

    95. Re:Ordering and Convergence by joss · · Score: 1

      The correct analogy is: "I have several pieces of fruit, one of which is a banana grown in Ecuador."

      Sure, you could also have a banana grown in Honduras, but going on from that if you amongst your fruit you had 2 "bananas grown in Ecuador" then your original statement was deliberately misleading.

      Furthermore, I don't see how they can possibly have it both ways. The original statement was:
      "I have two children, one of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?"

      So, one could equally well argue that there is nothing in the statement that specifies that the parent has exactly two children. He says he has two children, but what if he has two children and some additional children that he hasn't mentioned yet.

      --
      http://rareformnewmedia.com/
    96. Re:Ordering and Convergence by zzsmirkzz · · Score: 1
      In my hand I have two coins totaling $0.55. One of them is not a nickel. What are the two coins?

      What's the answer to this riddle, and why is it correct and but its not correct when applied to this instance.

      If you say to someone I have several pieces of fruit and one of them is a banana

      I'm sorry but that's not what was said, let me rephrase for you; I have several pieces of fruit; one of which is a banana. This says nothing to what the other pieces of fruit are, some might also be bananas. You implying that it means exactly one is a banana is just that, your implication/assuming which could very well be wrong.

    97. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Insightful

      Normal English strongly implies it does. If you say to someone I have several pieces of fruit and one of them is a banana, when in fact two of them are bananas, most people would call that lying. One could argue that strictly speaking the statement was true: you did have one banana, you just also had an additional banana, but that level of honesty is only tolerated in politicians. If you had said "at least one of which is a banana" that would be fine, otherwise the statement is deliberately misleading.

      I've taken too many tests where the wording is intentionally ambiguous in this way, in order to make sure the student pays close attention to the exact words used and answers the question asked. There are oftentimes additional, not necessarily relevant facts included in the question. Now, in normal conversation, I can see this being deceptive (I hear lawyers get paid well for such tactics) but this appears to be an academic question.

      "I have two children, one of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?"

      This gives one general fact: "I have two children"
      It gives a specific fact about one of them, which may or may not have anything to do with the other: "one of whom is a boy"
      It gives another specific fact about that same one, which may or may not have anything to do with the other: "[who] was born on a Tuesday."
      It then asks a question: "What's the probability that my other child is a boy?"
      As far as my [perhaps flawed] reasoning can see, the question could simply be, "What's the probability that a child is a boy?", that is, any child.

    98. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Radtoo · · Score: 1

      "Now suppose that the older child isn’t a boy born on Tuesday." <- simply put, this part does now specify something about Tuesday. It comes later in the article... as a second problem.

    99. Re:Ordering and Convergence by omnichad · · Score: 1

      So the real problem are all other logic puzzles - that often use misleading words to actually mean the opposite of what is implied.

    100. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      actually it's 49% likely that a given child will be a boy. Human sex selection is weighted slightly in favor of the X chromosome. This trait was selected millions of years ago to help perpetuate the species.

    101. Re:Ordering and Convergence by zzsmirkzz · · Score: 1

      Because that would require injecting ambiguity that doesn't exist. You don't say I have two when you have 3 unless you are lying. On the other hand saying something about "one of whom" does not say anything about the other, you are more specifically describing one of them. Any extrapolation of the other from the information given about one of them, is simply incorrect; jumping to conclusions if you will.

    102. Re:Ordering and Convergence by SoTerrified · · Score: 1

      because it always was 50% likely that a child is a boy.

      Actually, the human sex ratio is generally rounded off to be 105 boys to 100 girls. That's if you're talking about true birth ratio. If you add sex-selective abortion and infanticide, common in some countries, the current world wide sex ratio is estimated at 107 boys to 100 girls.

      But it's never been 50%.

    103. Re:Ordering and Convergence by IAmGarethAdams · · Score: 1

      Maybe you are correct in a world where every statement is a lateral thinking problem.

      But in a regular statement about "the number of bananas in a set of fruit" or "the number of people in a family who are boys born on a Tuesday", the fact that the given answer is "One" indicates that the answer is not "Two" or in fact "an unknown number greater than or equal to one". If you lived your life thinking like that then you'd very rarely be sure about anything.

      The base problem here was introduced as a mathematical problem, not a lateral thinking problem.

      Also, so we're clear where I was coming from:

      2. I have two pieces of fruit. [This] one is a banana.

      In the second case, it's clear that we're now talking specifically about [one of the fruit], with the other item being irrelevant.

      [...]
      I must also p[o]int out that you sidestepped the issue of whether the other piece of fruit was a banana in your argument, but that is the question originally asked! Of course it's not irrelevant if the other piece of fruit is a banana.

      Yes, I left that unanswered here because (as I followed on to explain) this interpretation isn't one we can realistically apply. If we did ever reach interpretation number 2 then all of the lateral thinking answers supplied elsewhere would apply, and I don't have any argument with that.

    104. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 2, Interesting

      The comment you quoted is incorrect. There are 28 combinations of boy/girl and day of the week, but only 27 unique combinations. Here they are:

      1 Boy Thu, Girl Sun
      2 Boy Thu, Girl Mon
      3 Boy Thu, Girl Tue
      4 Boy Thu, Girl Wed
      5 Boy Thu, Girl Thu
      6 Boy Thu, Girl Fri
      7 Boy Thu, Girl Sat
      8 Boy Thu, Boy Sun
      9 Boy Thu, Boy Mon
      10 Boy Thu, Boy Tue
      11 Boy Thu, Boy Wed
      12* Boy Thu, Boy Thu
      13 Boy Thu, Boy Fri
      14 Boy Thu, Boy Sat
      15 Girl Sun, Boy Thu
      16 Girl Mon, Boy Thu
      17 Girl Tue, Boy Thu
      18 Girl Wed, Boy Thu
      19 Girl Thu, Boy Thu
      20 Girl Fri, Boy Thu
      21 Girl Sat, Boy Thu
      22 Boy Sun, Boy Thu
      23 Boy Mon, Boy Thu
      24 Boy Tue, Boy Thu
      25 Boy Wed, Boy Thu
      26* Boy Thu, Boy Thu
      27 Boy Fri, Boy Thu
      28 Boy Sat, Boy Thu

      Note that Boy-Thursday-Boy-Thursday occurs twice (12 and 26). The article (and the quoted comment) incorrectly ignores the second instance because it is not unique, leaving only 27 combinations. The assumption they make is that Boy-Thursday-Boy-Thursday is equally as likely as the other 26 options, which is not true. In fact, the Boy-Thursday-Boy-Thursday is twice as likely because you do not know which son was introduced.

      If the second Boy-Thursday-Boy-Thursday is included, the probably that the other child is a boy becomes 14/28, or 50%.

    105. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Monkeedude1212 · · Score: 1

      Your error is that the proposed problem is worded in such a way that they are not actually dependant on each other. It's like the old "I have two coins in my pocket, which add up to 10 cents. One of them is a nickel. What is the other coin?" They are both Nickels, even though they make it sound like the other one could not be a nickel, it doesn't actually say that.

      It is entirely possible for them both to be boys born on a Tuesday. The proposed question does not disallow that at all.

    106. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      No. The Monty Hall problem is wrong.

      Suppose you pick door number 1, and Monty opens door number 3, which has a goat. THEN Monty asks you if you want to switch. At that point the first game is over and a new one (the real one) begins. Door number 3 IS NOT PART of the second game. There are two possibilities in the second (real) game, not three. The car is behind either door number 1 or door number 2.

    107. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Sethumme · · Score: 1

      Nonsense. MOST (non-mathematical) word puzzles are based on challenging assumptions inherent in colloquial English. They are designed to be misleading.

      • "Two halves make a whole, so you climb through the whole."
      • "The doctor is the boy's mother."
      • "His hair didn't get wet because the man was bald."
      • "Bob and Jan are fish."

      Whenever a puzzle is presented as a simple setup, the puzzler should always consider each word as a clue. With regards to the given puzzle, the puzzler naturally assumes in colloquial English that, if the speaker mentions a set of characteristics applying to a group, the speaker would not intentionally leave out members of the group that have those same characteristics. In my opinion, that's a typical assumption challenged by word puzzles.

      Consider this statement: "I have two children with birthday parties coming up during the week. One of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday. The other is also a boy born on a Tuesday, but he's already graduated college so we don't need to get him a clown." It's not improper, just inefficient.

    108. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Actually,+I+do+RTFA · · Score: 1

      The probability depends on how you determined to decide to specify that one was a boy. In the case where you give your first-born's sex, it's 50-50 (well, 51-49). In the case where you decide that to correct gender-equality in these problems, you decide to mention if it's a girl if at all possible, then it's 100%. There are a couple of other possibilities, but all trickier.

      --
      Your ad here. Ask me how!
    109. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Sethumme · · Score: 1

      That's the perfect riddle to demonstrate the nature of the problem everyone's been discussing.

    110. Re:Ordering and Convergence by the_one(2) · · Score: 1

      Obligatory xkcd comic
      ...
      I'm sorry but it's obligatory!

    111. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Bazinga!

    112. Re:Ordering and Convergence by jd · · Score: 1

      There's probably further skew in the statistics for children born close to the same time, since there are two possible paths by which you can get both children to be the same gender and only one path for a different gender. (You can't just tally up the paths, as they're not of equal probability.) There may be all kinds of other factors which could be included. Since we've only just discovered that chimera are more common than previously thought, it seems reasonable to suggest that we don't know all the factors involved. In consequence, although there is an exact answer, it is not currently knowable beyond a certain point. Every answer given is going to be based on a model that is simplified to the point of being inexact (probably good enough, but inexact nonetheless).

      --
      It's a small world and it smells funny; I'd buy another if it wasn't for the money; Take back what I paid (SoM)
    113. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Chris+Burke · · Score: 1

      The problem is stated thus:

      I have two children, one of whom is a son born on a Tuesday. What is the probability that I have two boys?

      One of whom is not "exactly one of whom", so 'one' might be opposed to 'the other' or 'two'.

      Pfft.

      If you accept that "one of whom is a son born on a Tuesday" might not mean "exactly one boy born on Tuesday", then you must also accept that "I have two children" might not mean "exactly two children".

      In which case, the probability of having two boys could be much higher, though it depends on whether you take "two boys" to mean exactly two or at least two. :P

      This is a perfect example of why trying to establish the single precise meaning of a standardly ambiguous English sentence so often fails and is almost always pointless. Because the pedantic literalism is only applied to whatever the person analyzing it wants to, because 99% of the time we don't understand language in that fashion and it takes a specific intent to break out of that natural understanding.

      Further, the problem doesn't ask about any probability related to the second boy's birthday. The problem doesn't ask, e.g., What is the probability that my other child is a boy not born on Tuesday?. That makes the birth weekday completely irrelevant.

      But if you say there's exactly two children, and at least one is a boy born on Tuesday, then out of the general population of such families, there are more where the second child is a girl than a boy.

      --

      The enemies of Democracy are
    114. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Chris+Burke · · Score: 1

      It's not a second problem, it's evaluating the other half of the problem. In probability it's often useful to split up the problem into multiple parts. So first they consider the case where the oldest is a boy born on Tuesday, then consider the case where that isn't true and therefore the youngest must be, then add all the possibilities up and eliminating duplicates.

      In the first case, there's no restriction on the youngest child, so the possibility of the youngest also being a Tuesday-boy is counted there. In the second case, you've specifically disallowed the oldest to be a Tuesday-boy (or alternatively, you allow it, but since you've already counted it once in the first case, you don't count it again in the second).

      The sum of the two is the answer.

      --

      The enemies of Democracy are
    115. Re:Ordering and Convergence by ILMTitan · · Score: 1

      "You can visit him if and only if you or your girlfriend knows where he lives."
      "Goddammit, we both know, so now we can't visit him!"

      Fixed

    116. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Mab_Mass · · Score: 1

      This problem hinges very greatly on how it is phrased and I think it's more a trick of English converting to statistics than it is a true puzzle.

      I would quibble a bit with your wording here, but I think that this is the key observation. I think that the fact that this entire problem hinges on the slight ordering of a few key pieces of information is what makes this a puzzle and not a real exercise in probability theory.

      This is why I don't like puzzles. Most of the time is spent decoding the clever trick of the person framing the puzzle and not spent on "real" issues. Of course, some think that finding the clever trick IS the fun, but that isn't my cup of tea...

    117. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Chris+Burke · · Score: 1

      This gives one general fact: "I have two children"
      It gives a specific fact about one of them, which may or may not have anything to do with the other: "one of whom is a boy"

      As you interpret it, the question is not equivalent to "what's the probability that any given child is a boy?" The answer is actually the one given in the article. Based solely on knowing that at least one child is a boy born on a Tuesday -- "at least" coming from your interpretation that the fact about the one boy doesn't imply anything about the other like "not a boy born on tuesday" -- then you can calculate that out of the potential families of that type, there are more where the second child is a girl.

      However, the reason why the statement of the problem sucks and trying to language-lawyer it down sucks is because there's no particular reason to assume "one of whom is a boy born on Tuesday" doesn't mean exactly one Tuesday-boy, yet at the same time assume "I have two children" does mean exactly two children.

      --

      The enemies of Democracy are
    118. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Chris+Burke · · Score: 2, Informative

      Yeah, say what you will about the Monty Hall problem, but at least it is stated clearly and is actually trying to trip up your intuitive understanding of probability, not your intuitive understanding of English. :P

      Though of course, the Monty Hall problem as given could be considered wrong because Monty later said he would usually only offer the contestant the chance to switch their choice if their first guess was correct. But hey, that's just funny.

      --

      The enemies of Democracy are
    119. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The riddle is phrased in a shitty way, most of the ambiguity could be cleared up with a well placed comma.

    120. Re:Ordering and Convergence by zill · · Score: 1

      Exactly. For the record I think saying "one of them is a banana" when you have two bananas is correct and unambiguous.

    121. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Rantastic · · Score: 1

      When you eliminate one wrong answer, the probability of the remaining answer being right is 50%.

      This is a common misconception. When you eliminate 1 wrong answer, the probability of the remaining unchosen answer being correct is 2/3, not 1/2.

      Wikipedia offers a simple explanation: "...switching loses if and only if the player initially picks the car, which happens with probability 1/3, so switching must win with probability 2/3."

      --
      Ask Slashdot: Where bad ideas meet poor googling skills.
    122. Re:Ordering and Convergence by severoon · · Score: 1

      It's easy to create counterintuitive probability problems like this by altering the sample space. (Like the famous Monty Hall problem--by the way, if you've ever had a problem visualizing the MHP and don't find the answer intuitive, let me know and I'll post the "proper" way to look at that problem to make it clear.) The problem comes in in the problem statement when the sample space is ambiguous or misleading. If the problem statement seems to clearly say one thing but can actually be parsed for a less likely alternate meaning, isn't this just making the problem difficult by engaging a form of lying?

      For example, here's an impossible problem: I flip a fair coin, what is the probability that it comes up heads? Answer: 100%. It's fair in that both sides are equally likely to come up, but that doesn't mean it has a heads side and a tails side, it's a fair two-headed coin. By letting the reader make an assumption about what is meant by "fair," have I created a devious problem here, or have I just lied in the problem statement?

      These brain teasers have always seemed problematic for me because they require the "right amount" of skepticism at the right level from the person that's supposed to answer...but there's no information about what that right level of skepticism is. If I can't trust you to completely formulate a sensible problem statement, then where do I draw that line? Would it be a good response to the problem for me to just outright accuse you of lying about the basic facts of the problem? "How do I know the guy has at least one son? Just b/c you said so? But I can't trust you not to mislead me, so...where does that leave us?"

      --
      but have you considered the following argument: shut up.
    123. Re:Ordering and Convergence by rgviza · · Score: 1

      Actually one of the poser's children is a "son" born on Tuesday, not a boy born on Tuesday. In your probability equation you need to define when a boy becomes a man (often defined by culture) and factor this into the equation. You also need to define whether "children" means "offspring" or "non-adult offspring".

      There's a lot more than meets the eye to this problem, some of which is open to interpretation by the problem solver, and must be defined within any solution which you arrive at. Some of this I've mentioned above, but to figure out the probability of an offspring being a boy you'd need to define the maximum age of a human being, which you can average, but then you need to define whether we are dealing with a particular country, or the entire world, and the maximum recorded age or average max.

      There are too many undefined variables to accurately calculate the probability that the poser has 2 boys based on the information given in the problem.

      --
      Don't kid yourself. It's the size of the regexp AND how you use it that counts.
    124. Re:Ordering and Convergence by jvkjvk · · Score: 1

      I simply do not agree that it is deceptive.

      If the statement is true no matter the makeup of the other item, how can it be deceptive?

      You are getting into really interesting territory to say that even knowingly excluding some factual piece of information is deceptive if the statement you make is still irrefutably true.

      You are then talking about the deception of truth, which is an internal matter.

      In other words, you are simply deceiving yourself by adding more information to the factual statement than it contains and then saying it is deceptive when the truth doesn't match your fantasy.

      Regards.

    125. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Chris+Burke · · Score: 1

      For the record I think saying "one of them is a banana" when you have two bananas is correct and unambiguous.

      But I would only say "I have two fruits and one of them is a banana" if exactly one of them was a banana (otherwise I'd say "I have two bananas"), so your interpretation that I meant "at least one banana but possibly two" would be wrong.

      Because you can't know whether the person uses the sentence in your way or my way without them explicitly telling you (i.e. providing extra information not in the original sentence), the sentence is inherently ambiguous.

      The vast majority of English sentences are ambiguous, and it takes quite a bit of care to craft them so they aren't. Most of the time, we need context to distinguish. For example, was the person given a bag with two random fruits in it, and they've only looked at one of them so far? Did you ask them if they had a banana you could have, and saying "I have one banana" would imply that your request would deprive them entirely of bananas? Are they the kind of jerk who uses ambiguous language to trick people?

      Without context, you can't resolve the ambiguity. Acting like there is exactly one "correct" interpretation of an ambiguous sentence is foolhardy.

      --

      The enemies of Democracy are
    126. Re:Ordering and Convergence by ComputerGeek01 · · Score: 1

      Ambiguous Statement != Clever Puzzle Statisticians != Mathematicians You should never have a scenario where you can say "I did the math perfectly but I might still be wrong".

    127. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      good analysys, however "one child is a boy" does not imply that the other isn't!!

    128. Re:Ordering and Convergence by jvkjvk · · Score: 1

      But in a regular statement about "the number of bananas in a set of fruit" or "the number of people in a family who are boys born on a Tuesday", the fact that the given answer is "One" indicates that the answer is not "Two"...

      But we weren't given that. You would be correct if that were the case, but it is not.

      We are not given that the set ONLY contains one boy, born on tuesday.

      We are given the fact that the set contains one boy that was born on Tuesday.

      There is a logical and mathematical difference between these two.

      One allows for another boy, born on Tuesday or not.

      The other does not.

      The base problem here was introduced as a mathematical problem, not a lateral thinking problem.

      You are trying to say that a mathematical forumluation of the question MUST follow the first form. I am saying that you are wrong, and that it does not necessarily follow - that one can construct the mathematical argument based on the second form and still be correct.

      Please indicate why you believe the superiority of one form over the other.

      Regards.

    129. Re:Ordering and Convergence by cgenman · · Score: 1

      My reading, of their analysis, and correct me if I'm wrong:

      They start with the assumption that the older child is either the boy born on Tuesday, or not. And they enumerate each set of options for the other child.

      If the elder is a boy born on tuesday, the younger child is either a boy born any day of the week, or a girl born any day of the week. That's 14 possibilities.
      If the elder is not the boy born on tuesday, the younger child must be. Then the elder is either a girl born on any day of the week, or a boy born on any day BUT tuesday.

      They then add up all the possibilities, and sure enough one possibility is missing. You get a 13/28 chance of a boy, rather than a 14 / 28 (1/2, or 50%).

      The problematic seeming part, in my opinion, is that we're assuming all of these possibilities to be equal. Instead of saying that "The elder is a boy born on tuesday, or the younger is a boy born on tuesday" we're saying that "the elder is the boy born on tuesday, or he isn't." Those are not mathematically equivalent. Assuming the boy was chosen at random, and that both children could fit the same description (which we assume in the prior analysis), there is a 1/14 chance that if the older boy is not the boy randomly selected to be described, he will still meet that description anyway. This is an assumption which is missing from the above analysis. Conveniently, this perfectly fills the expected possibility gap, and gets us to 1/2.

      Another analysis would say that either the elder is a boy born on tuesday, or the younger is a boy born on tuesday. Then the possibilities would be
      Elder BTuesday + Younger B SMTWTFS G SMTWTFS
      or
      Younger BTuesday + Elder B SMTWTFS G SMTWTFS

      If they do declare exclusivity (one is a boy born on Tuesday, and the other is not), which is not listed in the problem, then of course the extra information will take out some possibility of the other child being a boy. Seeing as how boys are born on 1/7 of the days, you'd expect to see 1/7th less than expected boys, while girls would retain their full normal share. But the way the prior analysis is done, they seem to be assuming exclusivity in one part of the problem but not the whole thing.

      Again, please correct me if I'm wrong.

    130. Re:Ordering and Convergence by maxfresh · · Score: 1

      "I have several pieces of fruit, one of which is a banana grown in Ecuador."

      It may well be that the second piece of fruit was also grown in Ecuador, just like the first one was, but I simply don't know, so I don't make any statement about its country of origin, nor do I ask you to make any assumption or draw any inference about its country of origin. Therefore, this statement isn't deliberately misleading, because I don't know the country of origin of the second piece of fruit, as it doesn't have a country of origin sticker on it. My statement is totally true and complete to the best of my knowledge, and does not deliberately withold any information.

      The way I see it, the fact that I stated that the country of origin of the first piece of fruit is Ecuador does not imply or require that the second piece of fruit is or is not from Ecuador also.

      The way I read and analyze the sentence is that it is conveying complete information about just one piece of fruit, and no information at all about the other piece of fruit. I don't think that it's correct to assume any facts or restrictions not explicitly stated.

      Likewise, in the original problem, "I have two children, one of whom is a boy born on Tuesday. What is the probability that the other is also a boy?"

      The parent may not know what day of the week their other child was born on, for many reasons, such as separation due to war from the pregnant mother before the child was born. The father may have escaped from the conflict with one child, and only know from witnesses that his pregnant wife was captured and gave birth to a child while in a prison camp. The child born in prison may have been born on a Tuesday too, but the father doesn't know, and doesn't say. So his statement is totally true and complete to the best of his knowledge. But we can't assume that his statement says anything at all about the day of birth of the second child, nor use it in our calculation of the probability that he or she is a boy.

    131. Re:Ordering and Convergence by InvisibleBacon · · Score: 1

      Seems like a lot of people commenting in the article were confused about this. I think the temporal aspects throw people off. They think, well one is born first, it would be the gambler's fallacy to say that has any effect on the other. When you think of the problem in terms of a finite set of possibilities, and you are choosing one, it becomes clearer. Here's another example of the problem:

      You have a bunch of marbles, each is a color: green or red, and each is either solid or dotted. Given any set of two marbles, there are 16 possible unique sets:
      red/solid, red/solid
      red/solid, red/dotted
      red/solid, green/soid
      red/solid, green/dotted
      red/dotted, red/solid
      red/dotted, red/dotted
      red/dotted, green/soid
      red/dotted, green/dotted
      green/solid, red/solid
      green/solid, red/dotted
      green/solid, green/soid
      green/solid, green/dotted
      green/dotted, red/solid
      green/dotted, red/dotted
      green/dotted, green/soid
      green/dotted, green/dotted

      If one marble is red/dotted, what is the probability that the other is red?
      Here are all the sets in which one marble is red/dotted:
      red/dotted, red/solid
      red/dotted, red/dotted
      red/dotted, green/soid
      red/dotted, green/dotted
      red/solid, red/dotted
      green/solid, red/dotted
      green/dotted, red/dotted

      Out of these 7, 3 of the other marble is red. Thus a probability of 3/7 that the other is red. However, if you were to randomly draw a marble from the bunch, that marbles color or texture would have no effect on the next marble drawn from the bunch.

    132. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Normal English strongly implies it does

      I strongly disagree. In fact I have had this question in Math and English quizzes all through out High School (granted that was some time ago) and the answer was always consistent.

      If you say to someone I have several pieces of fruit and one of them is a banana, when in fact two of them are bananas, most people would call that lying.

      You are making two separate and not exclusive statements:

      1) I have several pieces of fruit.
      2) One of them is a Banana.

      What you are NOT saying is the nature of any of the rest of them. You are selecting a specific singular object and identifying it. Notice that in the second statement there is no reference to any other items. There is nothing to syntactically connect statement 2 to any other item other than the singular "one Banana."

      If you had said, "I have one Banana" then it would be a clear statement. What your sentence means is, "one of my possessions is a Banana."

    133. Re:Ordering and Convergence by jvkjvk · · Score: 1

      Mathematics doesn't really deal with lies by omission.

      The reason you see a lie is because of your preconceptions of the entire situation, secretary, infidelity, etc. It is a lie because the other person perceives it as such, but may not rise to the fact of mathematical falshood.

      You appear to be deriving the "fact" that the other piece of fruit is not a banana, since that is never directly stated.

      Such a derivation is inherently suspect, as it was never included in the base data.

      Saying "One is..." is a statement of a quantity.

      It is really no such thing. The statement does not QUANTIFY the number of bananas in the set, is QUALIFIES the set as having at least one banana.

      Regards.

    134. Re:Ordering and Convergence by GasparGMSwordsman · · Score: 1

      Your trying to make your preference in English usage into a rule that does not exist. There is absolutely nothing incorrect about saying, "One of my children is born on Tuesday. My other child is also born on Tuesday."

    135. Re:Ordering and Convergence by crossword.bob · · Score: 1

      In fact it is ambiguous. Disregarding sex, "one was born on a Tuesday" could either mean "the set of my children that were born on a Tuesday is non-empty", or "the cardinality of the set of my children that were born on a Tuesday is one".

      A logician (in his/her day-job) would assume the former; most people in conversation would assume the latter. The former (adding boy/girl back into the mix) yields the answer 13/27, as the article states; the latter 6/13.

      This neglects statistical deviations on the days of the week, and the boy:girl ratio. Also one other complication alluded to in the (probably apocryphal) tale of the mathematician who, when asked if his new-born child was a boy or a girl replied "Almost certainly".

      (Apologies if this was covered in TFA; it doesn't seem to like me.)

    136. Re:Ordering and Convergence by cgenman · · Score: 1

      I'll be damned. Since futzing about with the kids possibilities seemed too indirect, I just wrote the following program to enumerate all 196 possibilities. As it turns out, I'm just wrong.

      var child1Gender:Array = new Array("boy", "girl");
      var child2Gender:Array = new Array("boy", "girl");
      var child1Week:Array = new Array("monday", "tuesday", "wednesday", "thursday", "friday", "saturday", "sunday" );
      var child2Week:Array = new Array("monday", "tuesday", "wednesday", "thursday", "friday", "saturday", "sunday" );

      var totalCombinations:Number = 0; //should reach 196
      var validCombinations:Number = 0; //number where one child is a boy on tuesday
      var boyBoyCombinations:Number = 0; //combinations where both are boys // Enumerate through the possibilities
      for( var c1g:Number = 0; c1g child1Gender.length; c1g++ ){
              for( var c2g:Number = 0; c2g child2Gender.length; c2g++ ){
                      for( var c1w:Number = 0; c1w child1Week.length; c1w++ ){
                              for( var c2w:Number = 0; c2w child2Week.length; c2w++ ){
                                      totalCombinations++; //Is this a valid combination?
                                      if( ( child1Gender[c1g] == "boy" && child1Week[c1w] == "tuesday" ) || ( child2Gender[c2g] == "boy" && child2Week[c2w] == "tuesday" ) ){
                                              validCombinations++;
                                              if( child1Gender[c1g] == "boy" && child2Gender[c2g] == "boy" ){
                                                      boyBoyCombinations++;
                                              }
                                      }
                              }
                      }
              }
      }
      trace("Total Combinations (should be 196): " + totalCombinations );
      trace("Valid Combinations: " + validCombinations);
      trace("Boy / Boy Combinations: " + boyBoyCombinations);

      That gives 27 total combinations, 13 of which are boy / boy. Or, there is only a 48% chance that the other child is a boy. Damned enumerability.

    137. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Radtoo · · Score: 1

      Right, I apologize. It is the second half of the evaluation, not a second problem.

    138. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      How is that 8 days? After 11:59PM Tuesday, you get 00:00AM Wednesday, GP has a 25minute difference between the births.

    139. Re:Ordering and Convergence by cgenman · · Score: 1

      Having the machine spit out the possibilities:

      boy monday : boy tuesday
      boy tuesday : boy monday
      boy tuesday : boy tuesday
      boy tuesday : boy wednesday
      boy tuesday : boy thursday
      boy tuesday : boy friday
      boy tuesday : boy saturday
      boy tuesday : boy sunday
      boy wednesday : boy tuesday
      boy thursday : boy tuesday
      boy friday : boy tuesday
      boy saturday : boy tuesday
      boy sunday : boy tuesday
      boy tuesday : girl monday
      boy tuesday : girl tuesday
      boy tuesday : girl wednesday
      boy tuesday : girl thursday
      boy tuesday : girl friday
      boy tuesday : girl saturday
      boy tuesday : girl sunday
      girl monday : boy tuesday
      girl tuesday : boy tuesday
      girl wednesday : boy tuesday
      girl thursday : boy tuesday
      girl friday : boy tuesday
      girl saturday : boy tuesday
      girl sunday : boy tuesday

      Notice that Tuesday / Tuesday is swallowed within two separate runs. Intuitively, you'd expect 4 sets of 7 possibilities: Boy Tuesday Boy MTWTFSS, Boy MTWTFSS Boy Tuesday, Boy Tuesday Girl MTWTFSS, Girl MTWTFSS Boy Tuesday. But from a top-down view, any overlap between those sets can't count twice, so you lose one of the Boy MTWTFSS / Boy Tuesday sets. Instead of 28 full possibilities, you get 27, and instead of 14 boy / boy sets you get 13... Thanks to having to remove 1 redundant option from the expected set.

      Which is, as it turns out, exactly what the original analysis said (though without calling out why). So it is completely correct, and I stand (err, sit) corrected.

    140. Re:Ordering and Convergence by BasilBrush · · Score: 1

      If the statement is true no matter the makeup of the other item, how can it be deceptive?

      It's not true, unless the other item doesn't qualify.

      In other words, you are simply deceiving yourself by adding more information to the factual statement than it contains and then saying it is deceptive when the truth doesn't match your fantasy.

      No, I'm simply pointing out that in real life people don't mean what mathematicians seem to think they mean.

    141. Re:Ordering and Convergence by BasilBrush · · Score: 1

      Saying "One is..." is a statement of a quantity.
      It is really no such thing. The statement does not QUANTIFY the number of bananas in the set, is QUALIFIES the set as having at least one banana.

      No, that would be "At least one is..." One is... on it's own is a very clear statement of quantity. It's unambiguous in as far as it describes a set whose contents is known by the speaker. If there are two red apples, and the speaker knows it, and he says "One apple is red" then everyone but a mathematician would call him a liar. 2 Apples are red.

      What we see here is that mathematicians have slipped into a way of speaking English that does agree with the way everyone else uses it.

    142. Re:Ordering and Convergence by cgenman · · Score: 1

      I crunched the numbers. There are only 196 permutations, few of which are valid, so one could probably do so by hand.

      http://slashdot.org/comments.pl?sid=1701394&cid=32733372

      His phrasing is weird. The analysis would have been a lot more obvious if he had said "Either the older child is a boy born on tuesday, or the younger child is a boy born on tuesday", and then removed the possibility of a Boy Tuesday / Boy Tuesday birth from the second set, since it was already counted in the first set.

    143. Re:Ordering and Convergence by TheLink · · Score: 1

      I like the Monty Hall explanation which involves the extrapolation to 1 million doors. 999999 goats and 1 car.

      You pick a door, then Monty opens up all the other doors showing goats, except one (and your door of course) and asks if you'd like to switch to his particular unopened door.

      The odds that you picked the car at the first go is 1 in a million. The odds that his unopened door contains a car is pretty high.

      And yah, just a few changes to the rules or case and the whole thing changes. So I agree with your remarks on a sensible problem statement.

      If the problem statement is good enough to write a computer program to simulate it, then it's easier to test it ;).

      --
    144. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Spacezilla · · Score: 1

      It's still OR, not XOR. :)

    145. Re:Ordering and Convergence by cgenman · · Score: 1

      Here is a simpler version: I have two children. One of my children is a boy. What is the possibility that the other one is a boy too?

      Before you say 50%, let's rephrase the question in two steps: I have two children. What is the possibility that both of my children are boys? Knowing that I don't have two girls, now what is the possibility that both of my children are boys?

      The possibility set for children is
      Boy Girl
      Boy Boy
      Girl Boy
      Girl Girl

      Thanks to that last piece of information, we can eliminate Girl / Girl from the list of options, which leaves us with
      Boy Girl
      Boy Boy
      Girl Boy

      There is only one possibility out of three with Boy / Boy, which only gives us a 33% chance of a Boy Boy. People intuitively expect to be able to say "If child 1 is a boy, then child 2 should be a boy or a girl. If child 2 is a boy, then child 1 is a boy or a girl. Therefore, boy boy happens 50% of the time." But that's wrong, as you're counting the single possibility of Boy / Boy twice.

      The problem above is exactly the same, except with an additional day of the week tacked on. The possibility of a boy born on Tuesday can only be counted once. You'd expect it to have no relevance, but since you don't know WHICH boy is born on tuesday, you have to look at the overall possibilities. And looking at overall, if the first child is a boy born on tuesday, there are 7 possibilities for boys and 7 for girls for the second child. It's almost the same thing for the second child, but you have to remove one of the Boy Tuesday / Boy Tuesday possibilities since you already counted it in the first set. That leaves 6 / 7.

      The bigger the set of additional information that you tack on, the closer that possibility will approach 50%. But it is never quite 50%, because there is always that one reduntant possibility that you have to eliminate from the problem set.

    146. Re:Ordering and Convergence by joss · · Score: 1

      If the statement is ambiguous, then the fucking answer is ambiguous too ("consistency is key" after all) . If one took the statement to mean 'exactly one' instead of 'at least one' the answer comes out to 12/27 not 13/27. Its a probability question so should I have to consider the probability the question meant one thing and weigh that against the probability it meant the other thing.. fine... are we supposed to give an answer of c. 12.3/27 ?

      This problem is interesting enough without the unnecessary ambiguity which does nothing but invalidate the answer so the statement should be stated unambiguously by just saying 'at least one' .

      --
      http://rareformnewmedia.com/
    147. Re:Ordering and Convergence by severoon · · Score: 1

      Yep, that's the one. The subtlety there is when people extend the problem, they still have Monty only open 1 of the other doors showing a goat (out of the million). The correct extension of the problem that makes the change obvious, though, is to have Monty open all remaining doors other than the one you picked and the one with the prize (or, in the case you actually did pick the correct door to start, the one you picked and one randomly selected one with a goat behind it).

      --
      but have you considered the following argument: shut up.
    148. Re:Ordering and Convergence by mea37 · · Score: 2, Insightful

      This problem (and related problems) are almost always poorly phrased. However, your assertion that failure to ask about the day-of-week of the 2nd child's birth makes the day-of-week of the 1st child's birth irrelevant is incorrect, if the problem is understood as it was intended. And actually my own phrasing there is a bit poor there, because the crux of the problem is that there is no ordering - no "1st child" and "2nd child".

      A better (or in any event less misleading) phrasing would be: "There are two children. It is a given that one of them is a male born on Tuesday. What are the odds that both are males?"

      IMO the most explicit way to state the problem is: Take a large number of 2-child families. Dismiss any of them that do not have at least one male child who was born on a Tuesday. Randomly select one of the remaining families. What are the odds that the family you've selected has two male children?

      In that phrasing, it's easier to see why the answer is less than 50% (since I didn't distinguish one child from the other you can't treat their genders as independent events) but more than 25% (the demographics of the families you dismiss are skewed). The "birthday" factor changes the skew, so it is not irrelevant.

      It is a common complaint among those who don't reach the correct answer, that this isn't really the question that was asked. It is; it was just asked poorly.

    149. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Chris+Burke · · Score: 2, Informative

      No it does't, because the problem as stated in the summary DOES NOT EXCLUDE the case that the other child is also a boy born on Tuesday. You are ASSUMING that because one child was "A boy born on Tuesday" the other child is not also a "boy born on Tuesday", a condition that was never set forth in the problem.

      Yes it does matter, and no he's not assuming that. Even though it is possible for both children to have the qualification "born on Tuesday" or "born on Feb. 29th", this information does "come close" to specifying a particular child because you're given that one of them has it, and the odds of the other also having it are low (1/7 or 1/1461). That's why he said "comes close to specifying" and not "does specify".

      Notice in the solution to the problem in RTFA, how you first assume the oldest child is the Tuesday-boy, then enumerate all cases (including another Tuesday-boy) for the first child. Then you enumerate all cases where the youngest child is the Tuesday-boy, and the oldest isn't, because you already counted that case. That's where the difference from 50% comes from.

      Make the case even more rare like a leap-year-boy, and you'll be eliminating one tiny case from thousands, and be very close to 50%.

      --

      The enemies of Democracy are
    150. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Chris+Burke · · Score: 1

      Nope. Sex selection at birth is weighted towards males (likely because the Y chromosome is lighter so the sperm are faster) by about 1%. Living population is weighted towards females by about 1% because males die earlier.

      --

      The enemies of Democracy are
    151. Re:Ordering and Convergence by starfishsystems · · Score: 1

      This is what I was thinking also. The scenario of twins adds to the set of options that are enumerated, and therefore seems to shift the probability.

      But the whole "who was born first" enumeration is a red herring to begin with. It artificially classifies the solution space into a small number of elements in which we're told that one element must be excluded because of the constraint that at least one child is a boy.

      It's important to notice that, somewhat like Zeno's Paradox, this subdivision into particular elements is not implied by the problem statement. Who said anything about older and younger? It would be just as valid to consider every possible time delta between the birth of one child and another. This goes to eldavojohn's question about what to do when N is unbounded or unenumerable. In the limit, the excluded element has no weight, and the probability converges to 1/2 as intuition suggests.

      --
      Parity: What to do when the weekend comes.
    152. Re:Ordering and Convergence by jvkjvk · · Score: 1

      No, I'm simply pointing out that in real life people don't mean what mathematicians seem to think they mean

      Now, THAT i can get behind.

      Of course, in real life people don't mean what any other person thinks they mean.

      Luckily, the original statement had to do with mathematics, specifically probability, so perhaps you can cut some slack for strictly sticking to what was written, rather than what might have been meant by what was written?

    153. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Intron · · Score: 1

      It's like the difference between being clear and failing to be unclear. Clear?

      --
      Intron: the portion of DNA which expresses nothing useful.
    154. Re:Ordering and Convergence by DarwinSurvivor · · Score: 1

      Actually, it's not necessarily 50%. There are 4 equaly possible scenerios prior to the initial reveal. 2 boys, a boy and a girl, a girl and a boy, 2 girls (order matters). Because of this there is a 1/4 chance both are boys, a 1/2 chance there is one of each (because there are 2 ways to have one of each) and a 1/4 chance of both being girls. After the initial one is revealed to be a boy, that elliminates the 2 girls scenerio leaving "2 boys", "a boy then a girl", "a girl then a boy" (note, the order is the order of birth, NOT the order of relelation). This leaves a 1/3 chance the other is a girl and a 2/3 chance it's a boy.

      This however depends on whether the first child being a boy was random or if they handpicked a scenerio where the first was a boy or if they handpicked a scenerio where the first COULD be a boy.

    155. Re:Ordering and Convergence by DarwinSurvivor · · Score: 1

      Strange, all statistics I've seen about that (and that they told us about in science class way back when) stated that there are about 51.6% girls...

    156. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      By what logical equivalence do you rephrase "one of my children" to "my first child"? This completely changes the problem. Maybe this is what you were trying to say, but then you can't use the word "rephrase". Rephrasing is using different words to say the same.

      and you can't have twins because only one was born on Tuesday

      Nowhere does it say that _only_ one was born on a Tuesday. In fact the given solution factors in the possibility that both are Tuesday boys. Read the author's reply in the comments.

    157. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I'm sure you're just trying to be funny, but I'm gonna take you seriously for a sec.

      Suppose I told a speech-giver to represent my company at a stockholders meeting and I wanted him to be as unclear as possible about the dire situation my company was in so that the stockholders wouldn't know what to really think.

      Suppose this speech-giver walks out onto the stage and says "The company's fucked. You're all fucked. Sell as fast as you can."

      Sure, while it wouldn't be incorrect for me to say to him "you were clear," it would be more meaningful in the context to say "you failed to be unclear."

      So, um, yeah.

    158. Re:Ordering and Convergence by AK+Marc · · Score: 1

      You are right. I was confusing the multiple problems in my head. The chance you chose right is frozen at 33%, and whatever is left must add up to 100%.

    159. Re:Ordering and Convergence by 1729 · · Score: 1

      There are two possibilities in the second (real) game, not three. The car is behind either door number 1 or door number 2.

      If I buy a ticket for this week's lottery, one of two things will occur:

      a) I will win the jackpot
      b) I will not win the jackpot

      There are two possible outcomes here, yet the probability that I win is (unfortunately!) not 1/2.

    160. Re:Ordering and Convergence by ChaosDiscord · · Score: 1
    161. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Attila+Dimedici · · Score: 1

      There are 105 boy babies born for every 100 girl babies.

      --
      The truth is that all men having power ought to be mistrusted. James Madison
    162. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Jack9 · · Score: 1

      I have 2 coins totaling 11 cents. One of them is not a penny. Yawn. Syntactic games, to frustrate. Here's your prize for being a troll.

      --

      Often wrong but never in doubt.
      I am Jack9.
      Everyone knows me.
    163. Re:Ordering and Convergence by 1729 · · Score: 1

      --no twins

      You don't need to exclude fraternal twins, since they are no different in terms of gender distribution than non-twin siblings. Identical twins, however, do violate the assumption that the gender probabilities are independent.

    164. Re:Ordering and Convergence by BasilBrush · · Score: 1

      Luckily, the original statement had to do with mathematics, specifically probability, so perhaps you can cut some slack for strictly sticking to what was written, rather than what might have been meant by what was written?

      What was written is "ONE is..." Not "two are", or "one or more". My interpretation is the correct one as written.

    165. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Eminor · · Score: 1

      The article first went off the rails when considering the order the children were born in. You can do that, but you have to do it right. They came up with the answer 1/3. I get 2/4. Here's how to do it properly: Label the child we know to be a boy as A. The child without a known gender is B.

      Boy-A Boy-B
      Boy-A Girl-B
      Boy-B Boy-A
      Girl-B Boy-A

      2/4 = 1/2 as initial intuition expects. Math works as long as you break down the problem correctly, if you don't, you get funny answers like 1/3.

      Now let's do the day of the week thing with the boy being born first on Tuesday:

      Boy-A Girl-B-S
      Boy-A Girl-B-M
      Boy-A Girl-B-Tu
      Boy-A Girl-B-W
      Boy-A Girl-B-Th
      Boy-A Girl-B-Fr
      Boy-A Girl-B-Sat
      Boy-A Boy-B-S
      Boy-A Boy-B-M
      Boy-A Boy-B-Tu
      Boy-A Boy-B-W
      Boy-A Boy-B-Th
      Boy-A Boy-B-Fr
      Boy-A Boy-B-Sat

      Chances are 7/14. Filp around who was born first and add it in: 14/28. Even if we're not allowed to use Tuesdays for child B, we get 12/24 which is 1/2 as expected.

      Even expert mathematicians slip up some times. You need to count each and every pair, and not exclude any that 'look' like they've already been counted.

    166. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You could apply your reasoning to the entire question, and argue that the other child must be a girl born on a day other than Tuesday, because the speaker would otherwise be "lying", because he/she did not state "at least one of whom is male and at least one of whom was born on Tuesday".

      I interpret the statement in a way that allows the other child to be of any gender or birth date.

      The Monty Hall question is quite different, because the revelation comes after choice.

    167. Re:Ordering and Convergence by SpaceCadets · · Score: 1

      Love it! I was trying to remember what episode it was on so I could post it, but you beat me to it! 3 Jan Itor!

    168. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      What about caesareans? In MacBeth they're not counted as births. They're apparently at 31 percent.

    169. Re:Ordering and Convergence by mestar · · Score: 1

      You've made an error in your enumeration.

      You listed only cases where one of the boys was born on Tuesday. But that list is just a subset of a longer list that has all the possible combinations. In that complete list Boy-Tue, Boy-Tue pair only appears once.

      So, in making your subset, you listed one element twice. This is wrong.

    170. Re:Ordering and Convergence by mestar · · Score: 2, Informative

      You are wrong.

      >Label the child we know to be a boy as A.

      Lets do that.

      >The child without a known gender is B.

      >Boy-A Boy-B
      >Boy-A Girl-B
      >Boy-B Boy-A
      >Girl-B Boy-A

      But, why did you list the Boy - Boy combination twice? If you have two children, there are 4 possible orders for them to be born, all equally likely:

      1 Boy-Boy
      2 Boy-Girl
      3 Girl-Boy
      4 Girl-Girl

      Just because in case (1) you can label any of the two boys as boy A, is not a reason to list that combination twice in your list of possible birth orderings. Therefore your list should be:

      Boy-A Boy-B (or Boy-B Boy-A if you label the other boy as A)
      Boy-A Girl-B
      Girl-B Boy-A

      1/3 is 1/3, as is correct.

      You are confused by the fact that having two boys, you have a choice of which one you label as A. This does not make this option twice as likely as you have presented it.

    171. Re:Ordering and Convergence by gumbi+west · · Score: 1

      You can actually set up the Monty Hall problem to be that switching is always bad (per your example) and always good (opposite example), and then using linear combinations, any probability between.

    172. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Orestesx · · Score: 1

      Totally agree. I always felt like I was trying to be "tricked" in my probability classes.

    173. Re:Ordering and Convergence by B'Trey · · Score: 1

      The fact that the number of days in a week is arbitrary is completely irrelevant. If there were eight days a week, then could make the same calculations, substituting the number eight for seven in the calculations. Yes, the results would be different but that's because the information you were provided is different. In this case, the day the son was born is narrowed to one in seven. If there were eight days a week, it would be narrowed to one in eight.

      The number of sides on a die is arbitrary as well. There are dice with 4 sides, 8 sides, 10 sides, 20 sides, etc. On a six sided die, the chance of rolling a one is one in six. On a ten sides die, it's one in ten. Just because a six sided die is an arbitrary choice doesn't mean that one can't calculate odds based on that number. So long as you know the size of the die being used, the odds are directly calculable. So long as everyone understand the number of days in a week, the odds can be calculated based on that as well.

      --

      "The legitimate powers of government extend only to such acts as are injurious to others." Thomas Jefferson.

    174. Re:Ordering and Convergence by A+Nun+Must+Cow+Herd · · Score: 1

      OK, try this way then: the ratio of Tuesdays to all possible days is what matters. I.e. the probability that both boys meet the critera is much smaller (i.e. both born on Tuesday).

      There are two extremes for this sort of problem:

      1) You know one is a boy, but you have no information to say which. Then the probability the other is a boy is 1/3. (This is counter intuitive, but Devlin explains it well).

      2) You know the youngest is a boy. Then the probability the oldest is a boy is 1/2.

      When you have an extra piece of information, the chance that it might apply to both children affects the overall probability, and you get a value between 1/3 and 1/2. The day of the week is unlikely to be the same for both (ignoring twins), so it's close to 1/2.

    175. Re:Ordering and Convergence by jvkjvk · · Score: 1

      It's quite funny that you said this:

      No, I'm simply pointing out that in real life people don't mean what mathematicians seem to think they mean.

      And then go on to say:

      My interpretation is the correct one as written.

      You interpretation is not the "correct one".

      Your interpretation may be A correct one but is certainly not THE correct one.

      Should I point out that in real life there are multiple real meanings to any specific English sentence?

      Back to the full original quote:

      I have two pieces of fruit. One is a banana. How many bananas do I have?

      In fact, using standard English interpretations it becomes even less probable that your interpretation is correct with these particular sentence structures.

      All the other English statements that you are trying to use as examples do not fully follow this form, and trying to use them as substitutes for the original is probably an issue.

      Now, if you can come up with a cogent reason why you are correct (and why no other interpretation is correct), using the original full quote, I would be very impressed.

      Don't count on me holding my breath, though, because I don't believe you can.

      Regards.

    176. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Eminor · · Score: 1

      If I already have a boy, and I'm having another child which I don't yet know the gender, the chances of it being a boy are 50/50. This is essentially the situation described: guess the gender of one person.

      I'm saying that IF you want to consider the order that the children are born in, and that order is unknown, we get the following pattern:

      known-gender-male unknown-gender
      unknown-gender known-gender-male

      Plug your possible values into the above template and you get:

      known-gender-male male?
      male? known-gender-male
      known-gender-male female?
      female? known-gender-male

      If your going to count the known male twice in one scenario (a know male and a female) why wouldn't you count it twice in the other (a known male and a male).

      You really have to be careful to be consistent. Either order matters or it doesn't.

      If no order matters, it male-male vs male- female. Other wise it's known-male-female and female-known-male vs known-male-male and male-known-male. You can't half ass it. It's one or the other.

    177. Re:Ordering and Convergence by random_ID · · Score: 1

      ...but that level of honesty is only tolerated in politicians...

      And engineers who speak with more accuracy than common sense...

    178. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      So we if we don't know which child is the known boy we get this:

      known-boy girl
      girl known-boy
      known-boy boy
      boy known-boy

      That's 2/4 = 1/2. You can't say position of the known boy is important when the other is a girl without giving importance to the known boy when the other is a boy.

    179. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Eminor · · Score: 1

      You know, If someone told me they had two children and one of them was a boy and it turned out both of them were boys, I'd consider that lying to. But this is a puzzle. We are trying to figure out the likely hood of the other child is a boy. Therefore common English/courtesy/straightforwardness does not apply. And so I wouldn't assume that the other child couldn't be born on a Tuesday.

    180. Re:Ordering and Convergence by JimboFBX · · Score: 1

      This follows into the gambler's fallacy though; the idea that an event of the past determines the odds of a non-affected event of the future. (i.e. I rolled 1 3 times so the odds of rolling 1 must be less than it was before)

      The real logic is:

      Tuesday is irrelevant. The odds of the days being different carries no bearing towards the sex of the child. It would require more information for it to be meaningful (such as, they were born on different days of the week). In twins, it is possible that one child is born on one day and the other isn't. Likewise, it is possible to have twins of opposite sexes. Thus day is irrelevant here too.

      The odds of picking children are (sex, birth order):
      B1 B2 - picked first boy out of 2 boys
      B2 B1 - picked second boy out of 2 boys
      B1 G2 - picked first born child (boy) and left girl
      B2 G1 - picked second born child (boy) and left girl
      G1 G2 - not possible
      G2 G1 - not possible

      Eliminate the times when both are girls and you are given 4 choices, and looking at the unpicked child, 2/4 are boys. So the odds are 1/2, which logically makes sense. The fact that adding an irrelevant piece of information changes the number just proves the logic is WRONG. Always check your logic by sticking things in a vacuum. I.E., if I didn't know what the child's sex was, would the odds change? They shouldn't. If you tell me and I close my ears, the odds are still the same.

    181. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I disagree. I have several pieces of fruit. And I've told you about one of them. (Its a banana). Not deliberatly misleading, indeed only misleading if your grasp of English is poor. (or any language with similar traits)

    182. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Gr8Apes · · Score: 1

      Normal English strongly implies it does. If you say to someone I have several pieces of fruit and one of them is a banana, when in fact two of them are bananas, most people would call that lying. One could argue that strictly speaking the statement was true: you did have one banana, you just also had an additional banana, but that level of honesty is only tolerated in politicians. If you had said "at least one of which is a banana" that would be fine, otherwise the statement is deliberately misleading.

      No, there's nothing wrong with saying that. All that has been said is that one fruit is confirmed to be a banana. What if they had a bag of fruit, pulled one out and said "one is a banana"? Context alone would disprove your point.

      --
      The cesspool just got a check and balance.
    183. Re:Ordering and Convergence by BasilBrush · · Score: 1

      "I have two pieces of fruit. One is a banana. How many bananas do I have?"
      All the other English statements that you are trying to use as examples do not fully follow this form, and trying to use them as substitutes for the original is probably an issue.

      "One is..." is exactly what I have been using as an example. Everything I've explained to you applies to those 3 sentences. Perhaps English isn't your first language.

      Now, if you can come up with a cogent reason why you are correct (and why no other interpretation is correct), using the original full quote, I would be very impressed.

      Already done. That you can't or don't want to understand is neither here nor there.

    184. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Given that the whole article is about challenging assumptions, you are failing large.

    185. Re:Ordering and Convergence by GigaplexNZ · · Score: 1

      You mean England, right? Take a look at their recent loss to Germany.

    186. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Why are there 800something more replies?

    187. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I think he was a goalkeeper, but things kept flying over his head.

    188. Re:Ordering and Convergence by jvkjvk · · Score: 1

      The more that I think of it, in the original construct the more I believe you are wrong.

      "I have two pieces of fruit. One is a banana. How many bananas do I have?"
              All the other English statements that you are trying to use as examples do not fully follow this form, and trying to use them as substitutes for the original is probably an issue.

      "One is..." is exactly what I have been using as an example. Everything I've explained to you applies to those 3 sentences. Perhaps English isn't your first language.

      Oh, if that were only the case.

      In English, we have this nifty concept called "context" in the context of those three sentences, it becomes increasingly unlikely that there is one and only one banana.

      This is largely due to the question being posed in the third sentence.

      Now, if you can come up with a cogent reason why you are correct (and why no other interpretation is correct), using the original full quote, I would be very impressed.

      Already done. That you can't or don't want to understand is neither here nor there.

      As I thought, you decline. I perfectly understand your point, it's just wrong.

      All of your other examples are missing the particular contextual structure of the quote. Trying to "explain" "One is..." all by itself is simply not enough without looking at the context it is being used in.

      In this case, since the third sentence is the question that it is, that third sentence throws doubt into any certainty that there is only one banana.

      You are incorrect in how you parsed the original quote. You have focused on one part of the quote and made it much more important than it is in context. In fact, the third sentence hints that the other fruit may very well be a banana.

      Am I clear yet? I hope so. This grows tiresome.

      Perhaps English is not your first language?

      Regards.

    189. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You are assuming that girl and boy are the only birth sex options. This is not true. I believe 1/10 births have some degree of sexual ambiguity ranging from under-developed genetalia of various degrees to hermaphrodism. This, of course, only touches on physical sex, and it's not clear in the stated problem if gender identity should be considered.

    190. Re:Ordering and Convergence by AP31R0N · · Score: 1

      This is why double negatives are so stupid. When someone says "It's not bad", they are NOT saying it is good. They are merely excluding the Bad from the quality spectrum. It could be OK or horrific.

      --
      Utilizing the synergization of benchmark e-solutions to pre-workaround action items!
    191. Re:Ordering and Convergence by JimFive · · Score: 1

      That answer is WRONG [...] The number of days in a week is arbitrary.

      The arbitrariness of the demographic factor doesn't matter. The question would be more formally phrased as:
      Given all of the families that have two children, [at least] one of which is a boy born on a Tuesday. What fraction of those families do we expect to have two boys?

      Notice how much easier the problem becomes when you take it out of the "personal anecdote" category and phrase it as a statistical question. You just enumerate all of the possible child pairs that have one boy born on a Tuesday (which works out to be 27) then you count how many have two boys(13), and you have your answer.
      --
      JimFive

      --
      Please stop using the word theory when you mean hypothesis.
    192. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Your analogy is just plain stupid.

      If there are two possible combinations in a given lottery, the probability one ticket winning is indeed 1/2.

      Can you not read? Let me repeat it for you. In the Monty Hall problem, there are in fact two doors to choose from - not three. Everything that happens before Monty asks if you want to switch you choice IS NOT PART OF THE GAME.

    193. Re:Ordering and Convergence by 1729 · · Score: 1

      Your analogy is just plain stupid.

      If there are two possible combinations in a given lottery, the probability one ticket winning is indeed 1/2.

      Can you not read? Let me repeat it for you. In the Monty Hall problem, there are in fact two doors to choose from - not three. Everything that happens before Monty asks if you want to switch you choice IS NOT PART OF THE GAME.

      You're wrong. (This can be seen by simply enumerating the possibilities.) To connect this to the lottery example, suppose there are n total combinations, and you pick combination A. Then the lottery sponsor tells you that all of the remaining combinations, except for some specified combination B, are definitely not winning combinations. Are combination A and B now equally likely to be winners? No! Since there are n possible choices and you picked 1, the sponsor can ALWAYS pick n-2 of the n-1 that remain and guarantee that those are losing combinations. This doesn't change your odds of winning. Combination A has a winning probability of 1/n, and thus combination B has a probability of 1-1/n.

    194. Re:Ordering and Convergence by mr_stinky_britches · · Score: 1

      "Normal English strongly implies it does."

      Normal English doesn't strongly imply it. It's highly likely the mother would use such a construction to emphasize the fact that both were born on Tuesday. Imagine her saying ""I have two children, one of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday. The other boy was also born on a Tuesday! Can you believe it?"

      There is nothing that restricts both boys from having been born on a Tuesday and since this mother has set up an unequal and faulty construction anyway, I wouldn't put it past her!

      You seem confused. She would be more likely to say something along the lines of "Both are boys born on a Tuesday!".

      --
      Censorship is obscene. Patriotism is bigotry. Faith is a vice. Slashdot 2.0 sucks.
    195. Re:Ordering and Convergence by Chris+Burke · · Score: 1

      Probability is always conditional based on knowledge available at the time.

      You may as well have said that the probabilities of a and b are the same by revealing the sex of the other child to be female in both cases. That would fix the probability of a second boy at 0, but that doesn't mean it was the answer to a or b, because it's a different problem.

      Similarly, you can't say the answer to "what are the odds that I rolled a 1 on this fair six-sided die?" isn't 1/6 by then revealing that you'd already rolled the die and gotten a 2.

      --

      The enemies of Democracy are
    196. Re:Ordering and Convergence by DarwinSurvivor · · Score: 1

      Well, my bad. I guess you (I) learn something new every day.

  4. Lies, dam'd lies... by c0lo · · Score: 1

    and statistics (umm... probability juggling based on hind-sights).

    --
    Questions raise, answers kill. Raise questions to stay alive.
  5. Let's try it without reading TFA by Shin-LaC · · Score: 5, Informative

    Let's assume that, if I have two children, it is equally probable that they are born as boy+boy, boy+girl, girl+boy, girl+girl. If I have one boy, girl+girl has probability 0, and the other options are equally likely, so they have probability 1/3. If it is known that I have a boy, there is 1/3 probability that the other is also a boy.

    X=one boy is born on a tuesday
    P(X|boyboy) = 1/7 + (6/7*1/7) = 13/49
    P(X|boygirl) = 1/7
    P(X|girlboy) = 1/7
    P(boyboy) = P(boygirl) = P(girlboy) = 1/3
    P(X) = (1/7 + 1/7 + 13/49)/3 = 9/49
    Using Bayes's theorem:
    P(boyboy|X) = P(X|boyboy)*P(boyboy)/P(X) = 13/49 * 1/3 * 49/9 = 13/27

    Which is different from 1/3. So yes, the weekday of birth is significant.

    1. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by mrvan · · Score: 1

      You miss one thing: if you have two children, there is a X% chance that they are twins. IF they are twins, they have a close to 100% probability of sharing a birthday, and a >50% probability of sharing gender (identical twins share gender, non-identical share gender in 50% of cases).

      Some googling says:
      P(identical twins) ~ .4%
      P(non-ident twins) ~ 2.6%

      The maths involved are left as an exercise to the reader :-)

    2. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by cjnichol · · Score: 2, Insightful

      I'm still not convinced about the 1/3 probability that the second is a boy in the original problem (ie. without the day of the week). If the order matters when the other child is a girl, why doesn't it matter when the other child is a boy? That is, if we know one child is a boy, let's call him Ba, why don't we have the following possibilities with non-zero probabilities: Ba + Bb, Bb + Ba, Ba +Ga, Ga + Ba

    3. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Yes it is, because "Entropy". Information theory gives a perfect explanation for this kind of puzzles.

    4. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      if I have two children, it is equally probable that they are born as boy+boy, boy+girl, girl+boy, girl+girl.

      Except that , in real life, it is not equally probable. Ratio is 51/49. If you had a boy, chances are you'll have another.
      http://www.in-gender.com/XYU/Odds/Gender_Odds.aspx

    5. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by Trepidity · · Score: 1

      Shouldn't ordering matter in the first part? You're told that the first child was a boy, so of the four ordered possibilities (boy, boy), (boy, girl), (girl, boy), (girl, girl), you can eliminate both (girl, boy) and (girl, girl).

    6. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by cjnichol · · Score: 3, Informative

      He has already had the children and he is only telling you that at least one was a boy. He didn't say which.

    7. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by Shin-LaC · · Score: 1

      Yes, there is an assumption that the weekday of birth of a child is independent from that of its siblings, and uniformly distributed. The twin thing is only one of many factors that can violate one or both of these assumptions.

    8. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by Trepidity · · Score: 1

      Hmm, somehow I misread that several times in the problem statement. I could've sworn it said, "he has two children, the first of which was a boy born on a Tuesday". But then clearly the problem would be much less paradoxical, so makes more sense now.

    9. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by ((hristopher+_-*-_-* · · Score: 1

      I'd go with 1/2.

      I'm no statistician, but why compare the odds of a series?

      If I flip a coin, does the previous 10 flips impact the result of particular flip? No.

      Even using the odd's of a series, if you put in boy(tuesday)+girl, and girl+boy(tuesday), then why don't you use boy(tuesday)+boy and boy+boy(tuesday) also?

    10. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by Shin-LaC · · Score: 1

      So yes, the weekday of birth is significant.

      To clarify: I mean, of course, that the fact that the weekday of birth is specified is significant. It doesn't matter whether that day is Tuesday, Friday, or even Monday. (Assuming uniform probability of childbirth across weekdays, etc.)

    11. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Let's assume that, if I have two children, it is equally probable that they are born as boy+boy, boy+girl, girl+boy, girl+girl. If I have one boy, girl+girl has probability 0, and the other options are equally likely, so they have probability 1/3. If it is known that I have a boy, there is 1/3 probability that the other is also a boy

      There is a mistake in your opening argument, if you don't know the sex of any of the two children (child A and child B) the probability is equally A=boy+B=boy, A=boy+B=girl, A=girl+B=boy or A=girl+B=girl. If we say that child A is a boy that rules out A=girl,B=girl and A=girl, B=boy which just leaves us with boy, boy and boy girl. a porbility of 1/2 not 1/3

      If you've already specified one child as being a boy the other one can only be a boy or a girl. It can't be a boy, a boy or a girl.

    12. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by cjnichol · · Score: 1

      I still think that ordering should matter in the first part though (I posted right before you it seems). Why does the order matter if the other child is a girl but not if it is a boy?

    13. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by William+Robinson · · Score: 2, Insightful

      You are good:) I have a question.

      I met my girlfriend on Thursday. She is receptionist. What is the probability of my second girlfriend being supermodel?

    14. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Of course it is. The addition of the born on Tuesday part makes the problem *less* interesting. Suppose I said, "I have two children, one of whom is Jesus". Now, this precondition is very strong, and its probability is very low. The probability of both children being Jesus is zero or virtually zero. So the other child will not be Jesus and we don't have to consider it - answer degenerates to about 0.5.

      The problem "I have two children, one of whom is a boy" is more interesting because the pre-condition appears to skew the probability for the other child. But that's only because both precondition and final test relate to the same thing - the population of boys in the family.

      Adding the Tuesday or Jesus conditions tends to separate the precondition from the final test by making the precondition probability (very) small compared to the (prior) test probability, simplifying the calculation and getting us back to (about) 0.5.

    15. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The probability of one boy being born on a Tuesday given two boys? I figure there are two ways to figure this out.

      The way you did it, there is a 1/7th chance of the first boy landing on a Tuesday. Then you add the chances of the first boy being born on a Wed-Mon & the second boy being born on Tuesday, which is 6/7 * 1/7, that is, 6/7 for boy 1 and 1/7 for boy 2.

      But, a much simpler way I'd do it would be to see that there are 6/7 * 6/7 possible ways for two boys to NOT be born on Tuesdays at all, and just subtract that from 1.

      So, does that make me weird for looking at it that way. Probability isn't my strong suit.

    16. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by Zelos · · Score: 1

      If it is known that I have a boy, there is 1/3 probability that the other is also a boy.

      I'm confused. Say we took 900 families with two children, one of whom is a boy. Are you saying that we would expect 300 of them to be (boy,boy) and 600 would be (boy, girl)?

    17. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by FeepingCreature · · Score: 1

      That is beautiful - and yes; of the three (out of four) events that can make you eligible for inclusion in the 900 (boy, then girl; girl, then boy; boy, then boy), two include a girl. What makes this counterintuitive is that you treat children as unordered, but they're not - in fact, your (boy, girl) case actually mixes (boy, girl) and (girl, boy), which are both equally probable.

    18. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by CProgrammer98 · · Score: 1

      yes.

      --
      And the people shall be oppressed, every one by another, and every one by his neighbour Isaiah 3:5
    19. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by ray-auch · · Score: 1

      Your question is unanswerable as it is based on a false premise.

      This is /.

      You don't have a girlfriend.

    20. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You win. And now I know there is at least one person on slashdot who isn't a complete moron.

    21. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by Shin-LaC · · Score: 1

      That is, if we know one child is a boy, let's call him Ba, why don't we have the following possibilities with non-zero probabilities: Ba + Bb, Bb + Ba, Ba +Ga, Ga + Ba

      If you write it that way, then the probabilities are 1/6, 1/6, 1/3, 1/3 respectively. It is, in fact, twice as likely to have a boy and a girl (in whatever order) than it is to have two boys, no matter what you call them.

    22. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by zippthorne · · Score: 1

      Wait a minute...

      Are you making a pop music reference?

      --
      Can you be Even More Awesome?!
    23. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by jimicus · · Score: 5, Interesting

      It's playing games with words and attaching significance to two sets that in any practical case I can think of would be considered one.

      The argument is that if you were to consider it as a set, there are four possible ways for your children to be distributed:

      1. (Boy, Boy)
      2. (Boy, Girl)
      3. (Girl, Boy)
      4. (Girl, Girl)

      We already know that your children can't possibly fall into the fourth set, and so looking at the sets it appears that the probability should be 1/3. But this misses one minor point - you've added an extra set which only makes sense if you wish to attach significance to the order in which the children were born (Sets 2 and 3). But as soon as you do attach that significance, the information you are given in order to establish the probability of any particular outcome (eg. the boy is older) allows you to eliminate two sets rather than just one.

    24. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Sorry, can't resist this one.

      I met my girlfriend on Thursday. She is receptionist. What is the probability of my second girlfriend being supermodel?

      You're on /., therefore the probability tends towards zero.

    25. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Yes the weekday is significant but not as significant as the age of the boy's. You also have to factor in that there globally are about 105-107 boys born for every 100 girls. At age of 36, women outnumber men and at the age of 100, women outnumber men eight to one. So in order to calculate a better answer you need to add the fact that they all three seem to be alive. Unfortunately I don't have the math for it.

      http://www.sixwise.com/newsletters/05/06/22/why-are-more-boys-than-girls-being-born.htm/

    26. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by beh · · Score: 1

      It's still 50/50...

      The original set is at fault - if you accept both 'boy/girl' and 'girl/boy' (because the Tuesday boy could have been born before the girl, or be born after the girl), then we also need TWO boy/boy combinations:

          boy(Tuesday) / boy(any-day)
          boy(any-day) / boy(Tuesday)
          boy(Tuesday) / girl
          girl / boy(Tuesday)

      and it's back to 50/50...

    27. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by wickerprints · · Score: 1

      Frankly, I'm more concerned that you'd name a boy "Ba."

      In all seriousness, though, your reasoning is flawed because observing the event "Ba + Bb" is equivalent to observing "Bb + Ba" under the conditions of the problem, whereas "Ba + Ga" and "Ga + Ba" represent distinct events. To help you understand why, suppose I have a penny and a nickel, both of which are fair. I flip both coins but I don't show you the outcome. At this point, you know that there are four equally likely outcomes (P,N) = (H,H), (H,T), (T,H), (T,T). Now suppose I tell you that at least one of the two coins has landed heads. You can eliminate only the last outcome (T,T). The other three remain equally likely. Reversing the ordering does not create any new outcomes in the event space because (P,N) completely and uniquely specifies the outcome.

    28. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by Golden_Rider · · Score: 1

      That is beautiful - and yes; of the three (out of four) events that can make you eligible for inclusion in the 900 (boy, then girl; girl, then boy; boy, then boy), two include a girl.

      What makes this counterintuitive is that you treat children as unordered, but they're not - in fact, your (boy, girl) case actually mixes (boy, girl) and (girl, boy), which are both equally probable.

      Maybe I am confused, but wouldn't then (boy,boy) also include the two cases (boy, boy) and (boy, boy) (i.e. the son which is shown could be the older or the younger child, and the other one also a boy), which are ALSO equally probable? So you have four event: this boy then other boy, other boy then this boy, boy then girl, girl then boy. Two of these caves have a boy as the other child, other two cases have a girl as the other child.

    29. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by Roxton · · Score: 1

      Our calculations differ on one point.

      P(X|boyboy) = 1/7*1/7 + 1/7*6/7 + 1/7*6/7 = 13/49
      P(X|boygirl) = 1/7
      P(X|girlboy) = 1/7
      P(boyboy) = P(boygirl) = P(girlboy) = 1/3
      P(X) = (13/49 + 1/7 * + 1/7) * 1/3 = 9/49
      Reverend Bayes:
      P(boyboy|X) = P(X|boyboy)*P(boyboy)/P(X) = 13/49 * 1/4 * 49/9 = 13/36
      =0.361111

      P(boyboy) with no conditions is 1/4, not 1/3, right?

    30. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by impaledsunset · · Score: 1

      I don't think I get it. How about this one?

      X = I have a boy
      P(X|boyboy) = 1
      P(X|boygirl) = 1
      P(X|girlboy) = 1
      P(X|girlgirl) = 0
      P(boyboy) = P(boygirl) = P(girlboy) = P(girlgirl) = 1/4
      P(X) = 3/4
      Using Bayes's theorem:
      P(boyboy|X) = P(X|boyboy)*P(boyboy)/P(X) = 1 * 1/4 * 4/3 = 1/3

      X = I have a boy born on tuesday
      P(X|boyboy) = 1/7 + (6/7*1/7) = 13/49
      P(X|boygirl) = 1/7
      P(X|girlboy) = 1/7
      P(X|girlgirl) = 0
      P(boyboy) = P(boygirl) = P(girlboy) = P(girlgirl) = 1/4
      P(X) = (1/7 + 1/7 + 13/49)/4 = 27/196
      Using Bayes's theorem:
      P(boyboy|X) = P(X|boyboy)*P(boyboy)/P(X) = 13/49 * 1/4 * 196/27 = 48.1%

      I still believe both of the interpretations are incorrect, and the Tuesday information is irrelevant, because it should be completely independent of the sexes of the children, and I believe both and I are making an error. The problem is that I just don't see it.

    31. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by Shin-LaC · · Score: 1
      There are no games with words: the problem statement is perfectly clear if you read it carefully.
      We are only separating the cases by order of birth to help you understand how the probabilities work out. We could just as well say that there are three cases:
      1. "two boys", with probability 1/4
      2. "two girls", with probability 1/4
      3. "a boy and a girl", with probability 1/2

      The last case is twice as likely as either of the others because the two births are independent events (by assumption; in real life there is probably a slight correlation, girl births are more likely than boy births, etc., but it doesn't deviate very far from that).

      If you're still unconvinced, look at this: http://codepad.org/kMVsqzyT

    32. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by Qbertino · · Score: 1

      This is, by far, the most subtle, elegant and superior form of bragging I've ever witnessed in my 10 years on the slashdot community. Congratulations, sir. I am - positively - impressed. Well done. :-)

      --
      We suffer more in our imagination than in reality. - Seneca
    33. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by bzipitidoo · · Score: 1

      But order is exactly what we are sneakily not being told, and why the probability in the basic problem is 1/3. We only know that one of the children is a boy. We weren't told which one. Of the 4 possibilities of the gender of 2 children, the extra information only eliminates 1, not 2 as it would if it specified which child was a boy. Think of it this way: "I have 2 children. I do not have 2 daughters."

      --
      Intellectual Property is a monopolistic, selfish, and defective concept. It is "tyranny over the mind of man"
    34. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by Timmmm · · Score: 1

      Simple solution, enumerate all the equally likely possible configurations:

      Child1 = Boy born on Tuesday and Child2 = any of:
      Boy_monday, Boy_tuesday, Boy_wednesday, Boy_thursday, Boy_friday, Boy_saturday, Boy_sunday,
      Girl_monday, Girl_tuesday, Girl_wednesday, Girl_thursday, Girl_friday, Girl_sarturday, Girl_sunday.

      Also the following (note that we don't count Boy_tuesday, Boy_tuesday twice):

      Child2 = Boy born on Tuesday and Child1 = any of:
      Boy_monday, Boy_wednesday, Boy_thursday, Boy_friday, Boy_saturday, Boy_sunday,
      Girl_monday, Girl_tuesday, Girl_wednesday, Girl_thursday, Girl_friday, Girl_sarturday, Girl_sunday.

      Now count the number of boy-boy results (13) and the total (27) to give the answer:

      13/27.

    35. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by Roxton · · Score: 1

      Oops.

      P(X|boyboy) = 1/7*1/7 + 1/7*6/7 + 1/7*6/7 = 13/49
      P(X|boygirl) = 1/7
      P(X|girlboy) = 1/7
      P(X|girlgirl) = 0
      P(boyboy) = P(boygirl) = P(girlboy) = P(girlgirl) = 1/4
      P(X) = (13/49 + 1/7 + 1/7 + 0) * 1/4 = 27/196
      Reverend Bayes:
      P(boyboy|X) = P(X|boyboy)*P(boyboy)/P(X) = 13/49 * 1/4 * 196/27 = 13/27
      =0.481

    36. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by Shin-LaC · · Score: 1

      Having a boy and a girl is twice as likely as having two boys. You are right when you say that the son being talked about could be the older or the younger: this is taken into account in the calculation P(X|boyboy) = 1/7 + (6/7*1/7) = 13/49, which says that either the first boy was born on a tuesday (1/7), in which case we need not look at the second, or he wasn't (6/7), in which case we check whether the second was (1/7). This covers all cases where "I have a son who was born on a Tuesday", without counting twice the case where I have two sons who were both born on Tuesday.

    37. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      No, the original problem (w/o Tuesday twist) is ambiguous:

      First POV: Speaker thought of one of his kids, and noted he was a boy. What are the odds the other kid is a boy? Clearly, 50 percent (ignoring certain theories about gender correlation in births).

      Second POV: The conversation came around to boys, and the speaker confirmed he was a father of at least one boy. What are the chances the other kid is a boy? One in three.

      The revised problem is ambiguous in the same way. People can argue from these respective POVs for hours.

    38. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by antonyb · · Score: 1

      Wrong, because in your first two lines you've got boy(tuesday) / boy(tuesday) once per line. These are identical, so there are only 27 distinct options, not 28.

    39. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by impaledsunset · · Score: 1

      I actually understood my own result:

      If I told you "One of them is a boy, what is the chance that the second is a boy?", I'm asking you what's the chance that both children have the same sex when I have excluded one of the equal possibilities, thus the answer is 1/3.
      If I told you "The first is a boy, what is the chance that the second is a boy?", I'm asking you what is the sex
      of a specific child, thus the answer is 1/2.
      If I told you "One of them is born on Tuesday and is a boy", I almost specified which child is a boy, and I'm asking about the sex of the other one, thus the result is close to 1/2, but not exactly since the two children might be born on the same day (in which case it is unknown which child is with the given sex).

    40. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by srjh · · Score: 1

      I'll accept that this is largely a semantic argument, not a logical argument.

      But the thing is that in almost every statement of both the "one of my children is a boy" and the "one of my children is a boy born on Tuesday", significance is attached already. There's the child being described, and the child being asked about. Because the word "other" is being used, these two children are not the same. Any information you give about the first child has nothing at all to do with the gender of the second child.

      One of my children I am giving you useless information about. I am asking you to guess the gender of the other one.

      If it was stated as:

      "At least one of my children is a boy born on Tuesday. What is the probability that I have at least one girl?"

      The 13/27 answer would be perfectly fine. This phrasing might not be as interesting, but at least the answer is correct.

    41. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      How about we express the question this way: I have a boy born in Thursday, And I have another child. What is the probability of my having two sons?

      So are the two questions the identical? So are the answers the same? I'm not sure...

    42. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Can you explain how P(boyboy)=1/3?
      I think it should be 1/4. If its 1/3, you assume that you already know one of them is a boy... so that would be P(boyboy|boy) and not P(boyboy)!

      I computed this:

      P(boyboy|X)=P(boyboy /\ X) / P(X)
                                        =(1/2 * 1/2 * 1/7 * 5/7 *2 + 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/7 * 1/7) / (1/2 * 1/7) = 11/14

      However that doesnt equal what the article says. Can anyone explain?

    43. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by Roxton · · Score: 1

      You're right, it's 1/4. It's weird that the parent got the right answer anyways.

      I think I got it right here:
      http://science.slashdot.org/comments.pl?sid=1701394&cid=32728606

      The fundamental thing is that if your selection criteria is biased against boys (We only support realities where a boy is born on a Tuesday), then more boy-boy pairs survive.

    44. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by DriedClexler · · Score: 1

      Alternate method, using my favored version of Bayes's Theorem:

      O(H|E) = O(H) * P(E|H) / P(E|~H), where O = odds, i.e. P = 1/(1+O)

      Here:
      H = I have 2 boys.
      E = I have (at least) one boy who was born on a tuesday

      Prior should put 1/4 chance on a given person with two children having 2 boys.
      O(H) = 1/(4-1) = 1/3

      P(E|H) = one minus the probability both of the boys were born on non-Tuesdays
      = 1 - (6/7)^2 = 13/49

      P(E|~H) probability of E given that you're in some part of the outcome space that does not have two boys. 2/3 of this space has one boy and one girl, and each boy/girl combination has 1/7 chance of the boy being born on tuesday.

      P(E|~H) = (2/3)( (1/2)(1/7) + (1/2)(1/7) ) = 2/21

      O(H|E) = (1/3) * (13/49) / (2/21) = 13/14

      Convert back to probability: P(H|E) = 13/(14+13) = 13/27

      --
      Information theory is life. The rest is just the KL divergence.
    45. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by mcvos · · Score: 1

      Which explains exactly why the answer is 13/27.

    46. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by nschubach · · Score: 1

      "Pop Music" is an oxymoron.

      --
      Every time I start to have faith in humanity, I ruin it by driving to work between 7 and 8 am.
    47. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      without the tuesday, you conlcude that there is a 1/3 probability that the other child is a boy. but that's true only if the family is the only familiy in the world.... but, if you assume that there are 1 billion families in the world (each one with two childs)... then the probability is again 1/2.

      with tuesday, same reasoning, 1/2 probability.

    48. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Here's the part I don't get with this Tues puzzle and the article. When order was considered in the analysis (ie allowing boy/girl, girl/boy), the puzzle was changed and there is a missing option.

      There are really 5 possibilities when considering order:
      1. Boy(Tues), Boy
      2. Boy, Boy(Tues)
      3. Girl,Boy
      4. Boy,Girl
      5. Girl,Girl

      Eliminate #5, and you have 2/4 or 50%.

      If you don't consider order, there are only 3 options:
      1. Boy, Girl
      2. Boy, Boy
      3. Girl, Girl

      When you eliminate #3, it is still 50%.

    49. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by PlaneShaper · · Score: 1

      13/27 doesn't scale. In the set of all parents with two children, where at least one of which is a boy, it is assured that a boy is born on a particular day of the week.

      If those parents each came up to you individually and provided you the statement, "I have two children, one of whom is a boy born on [day of week]," then every single parent would be assigned a probability of 13/27 for the other child to be a boy. (Assume that with a large enough sample size, the cluster of parents with two boys born on separate days of the week would evenly split their decision of which day of the week to inform you of.)

      The analysis given argues that each case would have a 13/27ths probability of the child you were not informed of being a boy. Yet the group as a whole is determined to only consist of 33.33% parents with two boys.

      On an individual basis, if the group was a perfect sample containing 189 cases, split evenly among the 7 days of the week, then 91 cases would be classified as having 2 boys using a 13/27 probability, when in actuality only 63 cases would have two boys.

      Since the individual probability that has been assigned doesn't scale to the known probability of the entire group, then it must be incorrect. The probability the other child is a boy is 1/3, the day of the week is meaningless information.

    50. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by Attila+Dimedici · · Score: 1

      The problem is that unlike a coin flip, the gender of a child is not a truly random event and it is well known that the gender of the first gender effects the probability of which gender the second child will be. For example in the U.S., a two child family is 25.8% likely to consist of two boys, but only 22.0% likely to consist of two girls.

      --
      The truth is that all men having power ought to be mistrusted. James Madison
    51. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by TeethWhitener · · Score: 1

      Would your response be different if the question was thus: "I have two children, one of which was a boy born on a Tuesday. What is the probability that my other child was born on a Tuesday?"

    52. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by SpurtyBurger · · Score: 1

      What about hermaphrodites, you insensitive clod?!

    53. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by rwv · · Score: 1

      "I have two children, one of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?"

      I have a boy, there is 1/3 probability that the other is also a boy.

      I question your logic.

      The other can be: Girl born on Saturday, Sunday, Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, or Friday.

      Or: Boy born on Saturday, Sunday, Monday, Wednesday, Thursday, or Friday.

      7+6 possibilities... 6 which have the other child being a boy. So the math should be 6/13 (46%) chance that the other kid is a boy.... not 13/27 (48%) (which is listed several times in the previous threaded discussions.

    54. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by PlaneShaper · · Score: 1

      "I have two children, one of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?"

      I have a boy, there is 1/3 probability that the other is also a boy.

      I question your logic.

      In a group of 1,000 sibling pairs, the following is the "perfect" breakout:
      250 - Older Boy, Younger Boy
      250 - Older Boy, Younger Girl
      250 - Older Girl, Younger Boy
      250 - Older Girl, Younger Girl

      Once the statement is made, "I have a boy," it eliminates the two girl set, leaving only 750 sets of siblings evenly divided into thirds.

    55. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by rwv · · Score: 1

      Once the statement is made, "I have a boy," it eliminates the two girl set, leaving only 750 sets of siblings evenly divided into thirds.

      That analysis is definitely flawed because gender is an independent variable. And age of the children is not part of the question. And this analysis completely ignores the prompt that "one boy was born on Tuesday". Normally, I'd say that giving unnecessary information is part of good problems, but the summary states, "Believe it or not, the Tuesday thing is relevant." So I need to refute ANY answer that doesn't consider day of the week in it's analysis (which is the majority in this discussion).

    56. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      This is another situation. Question was:
      "does at least one of your children is a boy born on Tuesday"

      Not:
      "does at least one of your children is a boy. Among the boy you have give the day of the week one of them is born (choose aboy at random if you have more than one boy).

      Twho different situations.

    57. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      But this misses one minor point - you've added an extra set which only makes sense if you wish to attach significance to the order in which the children were born

      Actually, the order of the births doesn't really matter; the significant part is that there are two distinct people, each of which could be either a boy or a girl. Your sets are of the form (Child 1, Child 2), but that doesn't imply Child 1 is older or younger than Child 2, simply that they're different people.

      I suppose you could combine 2 and 3 into a more generic (one boy and one girl) set if you like, but then you need to assign weighted probabilities to each set as your new set would be twice as likely as either of the others. I think most people find it much simpler to figure out the probabilities by picking some order and enumerating all of the possibilities (as you've done), as then each set carries an equal weight.

      Either way, the answer comes out the same way: two sets (one with two boys and weighted at 1; the other with one boy and one girl, but weighted at 2) gives 1/3, as does three equally-weighted sets with only one having two boys.

    58. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Second POV: The conversation came around to boys, and the speaker confirmed he was a father of at least one boy. What are the chances the other kid is a boy? One in three.

      You forgot to remove half of the boy/girl probability; the odds are still one in two. The boy/girl combinations include child A = boy / child B = girl and child A = girl / child B = boy. Once it is confirmed that either child A or child B is a boy, only one of the two cases can be true. This methodology also leads you to the 13/27 result with Tuesday in the mix because you end up with two cases of child A = boy on Tuesday / child B = boy on Tuesday when you break out all of the possibilities. A probability of 13/27 results if you reduce the set by one to remove the duplicate, otherwise you get the expected 14/28. The only item up for debate is whether removing the apparent duplicate is warranted.

    59. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by Imrik · · Score: 1

      He didn't miss it, he specifically stated the problem in a way that avoids that particular point.

    60. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      This is wrong because boy+boy should be listed twice (or EITHER but not BOTH of (girl+boy, boy+girl) should be listed).

      We've REFERENCED one boy when saying he was born on a Tuesday. The FOUR possible cases as then:

      BOY+girl
      girl+BOY
      BOY+boy
      boy+BOY

      Since (boy+girl and girl+boy take into account the ordering of the children, both boy+boy possibilities have to be listed)

      And then of course the probability is back to 50%

    61. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by stephenn1001 · · Score: 1

      You should try serializing it: 1) You have sex (unlikely with the /. crowd) 2) You produce a child that is a boy 3) You have sex again 4) Now, for some reason, the chance of it being a boy has decreased to be less than 50%. What happened? Did all the boy sperms get used up on the first child?

    62. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by DavidTC · · Score: 1

      Indeed, and that's what I thought that people were going to be talking about, but instead they're yammering about dates, which I don't understand at all.

      The implication seems to be that the other child can't also be a boy on Tuesday, which is just stupid. Yes, if you go around listing things in English, and don't include all of them, you're trying to mislead...

      ...but this is a standard math question 'I have two children, one is a boy', and the odds, in that case, are well understood in math to be 1/3 that the other is a boy. So apparently it's okay to use math to solve that 'misleading' question, where you 'undercounted' the boys you have, but when we add 'on Tuesday', we suddenly have to evaluate it entirely different and assume that you didn't 'undercount' the boys born on Tuesday?

      That makes no sense. The entire point of these categories of questions is that they are logic puzzles, not things people walk around saying in real life.

      In real life, if someone stays they 'have two kids, and one is a boy', the other is a girl, because people do not randomly pose logic problems for other people. Likewise, in real life, someone would say 'I have two kids, and the boy was born on Tuesday', with the implication that the other is a girl and not born on Tuesday. Note 'the', not 'a'. Or they'd say 'the youngest boy'. Real people do not actually keep you guessing as to whom they're talking about.

      These, OTOH, are puzzles,and we have to calculate what could hypothetically be true, not what a sane person would be meaning if they said that.

      --
      If corporations are people, aren't stockholders guilty of slavery?
    63. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by DavidTC · · Score: 1

      Yes, but that's not what we did.

      What if we took 1200 families with two children, and then asked all the ones with at least one boy to step forward?

      Of all the families that stepped forward, 1/3 would have boy + girl, 1/3 would have girl + boy, and 1/3 would have boy + boy. (And girl + girl, of course, would not have stepped forward.)

      Ergo, 2/3, or 600, of them would have a boy and a girl.

      --
      If corporations are people, aren't stockholders guilty of slavery?
    64. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by DarwinSurvivor · · Score: 1

      For argument's sake let's assume the fact that the first was a boy was entirely random (the question very well may have stated girl). This throws the "elliminate 1" theory right out the window because half of the boy/girl and girl/boy mixes would have been caught by the "one is a girl" side of the question. This leaves half the mixed scenerio with all the boys scenerios, leaving once again a 50/50 shot.

      Does anyone else's head hurt yet? :(

    65. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It's playing games with words and attaching significance to two sets that in any practical case I can think of would be considered one.

      The argument is that if you were to consider it as a set, there are four possible ways for your children to be distributed:

      1. (Boy, Boy)
      2. (Boy, Girl)
      3. (Girl, Boy)
      4. (Girl, Girl)

      We already know that your children can't possibly fall into the fourth set, and so looking at the sets it appears that the probability should be 1/3. But this misses one minor point - you've added an extra set which only makes sense if you wish to attach significance to the order in which the children were born (Sets 2 and 3). But as soon as you do attach that significance, the information you are given in order to establish the probability of any particular outcome (eg. the boy is older) allows you to eliminate two sets rather than just one.

      yes, in fact you introduce a fourth set:

      Boya, Boyb
      Boyb, Boya
      Boya, Girla
      Girlb, Boya

      Where Boya is the particular boy you mention in the original problem. The introduction of this set, and the fact that all four are equal in probability makes it a 50%/50%.

      This problem is silly. By saying that you have a boy, one can intuitively conclude that the boy was born at some point, and thus has a birthday. That birthday could be on a tuesday. This information is absolutely irrelevant to the sex of the second child, regardless of which was born first or second.

      QED, stop arguing about this waste of time problem.

    66. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by gumbi+west · · Score: 1

      Part of the reason it's confusing is because if you have a boy on a Tuesday and then decide to ask people after the next is born, "I have two children, one is a boy born on a Tuesday" then the probability of two boys is 50%. But, if you would say that if either of your children were a boy born on a Tuesday, then you are back to 13/27.

      The reason the person asked the question they way they did matters. I really think it is all about communicative ambiguity.

    67. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by FeepingCreature · · Score: 1

      Nope. Read what I said. I didn't consider any son being picked, but events that could move a family into the list we consider. Of those events, the case of "first a boy, second a boy" is half as likely as "first boy, then girl, OR first girl, then boy". Because of this, you will find twice as many (unordered) boy/girl in your set than boy/boy.

    68. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by JimFive · · Score: 1

      Even using the odd's of a series, if you put in boy(tuesday)+girl, and girl+boy(tuesday), then why don't you use boy(tuesday)+boy and boy+boy(tuesday) also?

      Because boy(tuesday)+boy and boy+boy(tuesday) both include the possibility of boy(tuesday)+boy(tuesday). So you have:
      Bt + G = 7 possibilities
      Bt + B = 7 possibilities
      B + Bt = 7 possibilities
      G + Bt = 7 possibilities
      Minus 1 Bt + Bt to prevent double counting gives 27 possibilities of which (Bt+B) + (B+Bt) - 1 have two boys.
      --
      JimFive

      --
      Please stop using the word theory when you mean hypothesis.
    69. Re:Let's try it without reading TFA by PingPongBoy · · Score: 1

      A conditional probability situation ...

      The probability of the second child (though not necessarily born earlier or later) being a boy is 1/2 given whatever you want to say about the other child. That is the intuition, and that is the driver of many of the other arguments posted.

      Conditional probability: P(A | B) = P(AB) / P(B)

      OK. That's the theory

      A simple breakdown:

      A = is boy
      B = is boy born on a Tuesday

      (A more complex breakdown might involve all people, then ask who is a child and who is too old to be a child... But let's not worry about that too much, as there's enough fun already.)

      P(B) is relevant? Really? Maybe ... What is P(B)? After a good night's sleep, I have some wild ideas to mention.

      Intriguingly, what is this probability of anyone being a boy born on a Tuesday? Of all the people in the world wiggle yourself if you are such a dude! So by the frequency interpretation of probability, take the entire human population of the world past and present. Categorize people according to gender and day of week born. Count the ones that are male and gladly pay you Tuesday for a hamburger today. Divide by the entire population - that is the probability P(B)

      Quantum mechanics and fate aside, isn't P(A|B) = 0.5? After all, what linkage is there between A and B? Based on probability from population, P(A|B) ought to be population of boys (past and present) divided by number of all people (past and present). In the statement of the situation, there's no stipulation that the children are the offspring of the same parents even. They could merely be two kids together for a moment. P(AB) is the probability of being a boy together with another boy Tuesday. Wouldn't he rather be with a girl Friday? Let's contemplate the probability of that.

      --
      Know your pads. One time pad: good for cryptography. Two timing pad: where to take your mistress.
  6. Rubbish by Dynamoo · · Score: 0
    Someone who comes up with convoluted maths like that is probably the same type of person who thinks that they have a system to beat the roulette wheel.

    Let's examine the question again: "I have two children, one of whom is a son born on a Tuesday. What is the probability that I have two boys?" .. this is the same as saying "I have just tossed a 10 pence coin and it has come up heads, what is the probability that another coin toss will come up heads?". The answer is 0.5, because the second result is not influenced in any way by the first result (except in strictly biological and not mathematical circumstances).

    Roulette is a similar game of probability - 18 red and 18 black numbers plus one (or two) zeroes. If you ignore the zeroes for the moment, then you could also say "I just played roulette and got a red 7. What the probability that I will get two reds?" Here the answer would be 0.5 again (if you ignored the zeroes). Of course in real life, the zero or zeroes exist and THAT is why the house always wins..

    --
    Never email donotemail@WeAreSpammers.com
    1. Re:Rubbish by Maddog+Batty · · Score: 1

      Maths fail..

      .. this is the same as saying

      No it isn't. Go and read the article again.

      --
      wot no sig
    2. Re:Rubbish by Securityemo · · Score: 2, Interesting

      Well, if it isn't the same as saying that, then it's a distortion of information expression or an error in method, in the sense that the mathematics don't fit reality when it's your intention that they do so?

      --
      Emotions! In your brain!
    3. Re:Rubbish by guyminuslife · · Score: 4, Informative

      "I have two children, one of whom is a son born on a Tuesday. What is the probability that I have two boys?" .. this is the same as saying "I have just tossed a 10 pence coin and it has come up heads, what is the probability that another coin toss will come up heads?

      No, it isn't. It's the same as saying, "I have just tossed a quarter twice, and given that it came up heads at least once, what's the chance it that it came up head both times?"

      We can do an analogue, but not in the way you're saying. I.e., "I have just tossed a coin and it came up heads, what's the chance it will come up heads if I toss it again" == "I have just had a kid and it's a boy, if I have another kid, what's the chance it will be a boy" == 50%

      If you don't understand the problem, that's fine. It's counterintuitive, these things usually take a second look. If you don't understand the problem and you want to claim the solution is incorrect because you don't get it, well, that's something else entirely.

      --
      I don't believe in time. It's a grand conspiracy designed to sell watches.
    4. Re:Rubbish by ArsenneLupin · · Score: 2, Informative

      . this is the same as saying "I have just tossed a 10 pence coin and it has come up heads, what is the probability that another coin toss will come up heads?"

      Nope, it is equivalent to "I have just tossed a 10 pence coin twice, and I tell you that it has come up heads at least once, what is the probability that it has come up heads twice".

      The 2/3 vs 1/3 probability hinges on the fact that the ordering of the kids is not defined.

      If the kid's father told you "my oldest child is a boy", then you would be right.

      Unfortunately, any defined order can play that role ("the first of his kids that I met in person", "the first of his kids that he mentioned", ...), which makes this problem so hard to grasp. Depending on exactly in which context he mentioned that one of his kids was a boy may change the probability of the other being a boy too from 1/2 to 1/3 or any value in between.

    5. Re:Rubbish by guyminuslife · · Score: 1

      Actually, I made a mistake up there...on the first line, I meant to take the Tuesday thing out. For reasons that are explained in the article.

      --
      I don't believe in time. It's a grand conspiracy designed to sell watches.
    6. Re:Rubbish by Joce640k · · Score: 4, Informative

      Nope.

      "I have just tossed a 10 pence coin and it has come up heads, what is the probability that another coin toss will come up heads?"

      Is *not* the same as:

      "I just tossed two coins and one of them was heads, what is the probability that the other one was heads as well?"

      --
      No sig today...
    7. Re:Rubbish by CProgrammer98 · · Score: 2, Informative

      ""I have just tossed a 10 pence coin and it has come up heads, what is the probability that another coin toss will come up heads?""

      Umm no, if you look at the original problem, "one of my 2 kinds is a boy, what's the probability both are boys" is like saying "Ive've tossed a coin twice, at least one of which was heads, what;s the probability that both were heads?" - so here the possibilities are H H / H T/ T H of which only one of the 3 is both heads so it's 1/3rd.

      It's not saying, "the first guy was a boy - or in your analagy, the first coin toss was heads" - where you would be right, the chance of the second child being a boy, or the second coin toss being heads would be 50% - it's a different problem.

      --
      And the people shall be oppressed, every one by another, and every one by his neighbour Isaiah 3:5
    8. Re:Rubbish by eloisefreya · · Score: 2, Insightful

      I agree - by saying "one of whom" doesn't in English preclude the fact that both of them could be boys born on Tuesday!

    9. Re:Rubbish by Stray7Xi · · Score: 2, Insightful

      I'm at a company picnic and I have 5 employees sitting around. I need 2 more players for the women's volleyball team, so I take 2 of the women away. What is the sex distribution of the rest? The issue is I'm cherrypicking based on a condition. Here the condition is clear: I'm picking based on sex.

      The confusion in the Tuesday problem comes in because the condition doesn't appear relevant. Who cares about Tuesday?? The assumption is he picked one of his kids to talk about.

    10. Re:Rubbish by Hognoxious · · Score: 1

      But yet we interpret the "two children" as meaning exactly two.

      --
      Confucius say, "Find worm in apple - bad. Find half a worm - worse."
    11. Re:Rubbish by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      "I have two children, one of whom is a son born on a Tuesday. What is the probability that I have two boys?" .. this is the same as saying "I have just tossed a 10 pence coin and it has come up heads, what is the probability that another coin toss will come up heads?

      No, it isn't. It's the same as saying, "I have just tossed a quarter twice, and given that it came up heads at least once, what's the chance it that it came up head both times?"

      Not quite: It's the same as saying "I have just tossed a quarter twice, and one of the tosses came up heads. What's the chance it that it came up head both times?"

      The extra "given that" wording you've inserted changes the meaning in a crucial way.

      The phrasing used by the OP doesn't say "given that".

      The answer to the problem depends crucially on what would have happened if the person posing the question had two girls (or if both tosses came up tails).

      Option 1: They pose the inverse question "I have two children, one of whom is a girl.... What is the probability that the other child is a girl/boy?" CORRECT ANSWER 1/2

      Option 2: They don't pose any question. CORRECT ANSWER IS 1/3.

    12. Re:Rubbish by eloisefreya · · Score: 2, Insightful

      But yet we interpret the "two children" as meaning exactly two.

      "two children" is an unambiguous statement ... it can't mean one child, it can't meant three children, neither can it mean two dogs.

      "one of whom" can be ambiguous ... it can mean only one (of the children), or just the one I am describing. Nowhere in the original statement is it said that the second child was not a boy born on a Tuesday. You can argue it's implied, but it's not stated.

      Just because you say that the first child was a boy born on a Tuesday doesn't mean that the second can't be the way the statement is worded. This is a mathematician using English badly to prove his point!

    13. Re:Rubbish by Hognoxious · · Score: 1

      "two children" is an unambiguous statement ... it can't mean one child, it can't meant three children

      If "one" can mean at least one, with the possibility of more, then "two" can mean at least two, with the possibility of more.

      It must be consistent for all values of X. Why is X == 1 a special case?

      --
      Confucius say, "Find worm in apple - bad. Find half a worm - worse."
    14. Re:Rubbish by grumbel · · Score: 1

      You can read "one of whom" as "at least one of whom" or as "exactly one of whom", "one of whom" alone doesn't really tell you much about the other kid, as it only refers to the first.

    15. Re:Rubbish by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Don't get distracted by the pretty math. The fact is if you factor in birth order there are four possibilities:

      boy (Tuesday), girl
      girl, boy (Tuesday)
      boy (Tuesday), boy
      boy, boy (Tuesday)

      This should make intuitive sense. The statement "I have one son and one other child, there is a 2/3 chance my other child is a girl" necessarily leads to the conclusion "I am a boy with one sibling, there is a 2/3 chance my sibling is female."

    16. Re:Rubbish by nschubach · · Score: 1

      Why does it matter what order they are in. You only have two. If you have two sticks of different color and you put one in a box before the other and shake the box, it doesn't change the outcome of pulling out the red stick.

      --
      Every time I start to have faith in humanity, I ruin it by driving to work between 7 and 8 am.
    17. Re:Rubbish by nschubach · · Score: 1

      Because he didn't say, "Take two of my children."

      He said, "I have two children."

      --
      Every time I start to have faith in humanity, I ruin it by driving to work between 7 and 8 am.
    18. Re:Rubbish by ArsenneLupin · · Score: 1

      If you have two sticks of different color and you put one in a box before the other and shake the box, it doesn't change the outcome of pulling out the red stick.

      Probability is all about what you know and what you don't.

      Of course, if you already have the info that both sticks are of a different color, then the probability of pulling out another red stick (boy) after you've already got a red one is exactly 0.

      However, if you only knew that:

      1. There are only red and blue sticks
      2. The box contains two sticks
      3. There is (at least) one red stick in

      ... then the probability for the other to be red as well would indeed be only 1/3.

      The key here however is how you find out about 3. If it is by pulling out one stick, you'd have established an order (the order with which you pull sticks out), so the probability for the other one to be red would only be 1/2.

      However, if the (trustworthy) game-show host would tell you that there is (at least) one red stick in the box, this wouldn't establish an order among sticks, and so the probability of their being 2 red sticks would be only 1/3.

    19. Re:Rubbish by nschubach · · Score: 1

      I'm applying the sticks in the above equation to the children. (and I admit, I did say they were a different color which I should retract.)

      We know there are two sticks. Let's assume (because using color can equate to millions of results) that you know the only colors that exist are red and blue.

      The question can be rephrase to:

      I have two sticks of which one is red that I pulled out on Tuesday. What's the probability that the other stick is red?

      It is in fact, 50%. It's either red or blue. You don't know that they are different colors.

      There were two sticks in the box. The possible combination pairs would be:
      red - red
      blue - blue
      red - blue

      By pulling out a blue stick, you eliminate red-red leaving only two possibilities.

      The one solution gets everything wrong by deducing order.

      ie:

      girl - girl (can't exist)
      boy - boy
      boy - girl
      girl - boy (irrelevant, we already cover this situation above... by ordering them you've put weight on there being different sexes.) [this was my original point]

      So there are only two outcomes. You have two boys or a boy and a girl.

      --
      Every time I start to have faith in humanity, I ruin it by driving to work between 7 and 8 am.
    20. Re:Rubbish by jim_v2000 · · Score: 1

      I don't get it. He tells us that he has a boy. So that leaves two possibilities. He has a boy-boy or a boy-girl. That 1/2.

      --
      Don't take life so seriously. No one makes it out alive.
    21. Re:Rubbish by jim_v2000 · · Score: 1

      How is that not the same? Either way, once you know that one coin is heads, the only two options left are HH or HT.

      --
      Don't take life so seriously. No one makes it out alive.
    22. Re:Rubbish by blueg3 · · Score: 1

      There are three options: HT, TH, and HH, each with equal probability. All three can be described as "one of them was heads".

      It's easier to visualize if you make them different coins. The stated problem is equivalent to, "I just tossed a quarter and a dime. One of them was heads; what is the probability the other was heads as well?"

      With no information, there are four equally-probable scenarios: QH/DH, QH/DT, QT/DH, QT/DT. The information provided (one of them was heads) eliminates the QT/DT possibility. So there are three equally-probable scenarios, only one of which fits the description of "the other is heads".

    23. Re:Rubbish by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Using that knowledge, you can toss one coin from each hand simultaneously and only by looking which way another coin came up, you can 2/3 of the time predict the state of the other coin.. ..because hey, there's only 1/3 chance of it having the same side up! =P

    24. Re:Rubbish by Beerdood · · Score: 1

      Nope... it's still 50% The statement "I've tossed a coin twice, at least one of which was heads, what's the probability that both were heads?" is still 50%, given that one of them was heads. The false premise here is that there are 3 possibilities :

      H H
      H T
      T H

      when in fact there are 4 :

      H h
      h H
      T h
      h T

      The lowercase h represents the one that's guaranteed heads. The false assumption here is that equal weight is given to H / h, when in fact it represents 2 possible choices - the result being discussed where "at least one of which was heads" could have been the first toss or second toss.

      If the first toss was the heads being referred to, then the 2nd toss could be either heads or tails (h H or h T). If the second toss was the heads being referred to, then the first toss could be either heads or tails (H h or T h). Either way you look at it, it's still 50%

      --
      Global warming and other natural disasters are a direct effect of the shrinking number of pirates - Gospel of the FSM
    25. Re:Rubbish by bgspence · · Score: 1

      But, the question more properly is "I have just tossed a 10 pence coin twice and it came up heads once on a Tuesday, what is the probability that the coin toss will came up heads?" And you might also ask where did it land!

    26. Re:Rubbish by guyminuslife · · Score: 1

      Here's the way to look at it:

      Suppose you took all of the people in the world who have 2 children and started tallying the genders of the older child and the younger child. You would get these results, in roughly equal proportions:

      1) Older=boy, younger=boy
      2) Older=boy, younger=girl
      3) Older=girl, younger=boy
      4) Older=girl, younger=girl

      1/4 of these families have two boys, 1/4 have two girls, 1/4 of them have an older boy and a younger girl, and 1/4 of them have an older girl and a younger boy. So 1/2 of families with two children have one boy and one girl. This, I think, makes sense to everyone. If you don't specify that at least one of the children is a boy, then the chance of them having 2 boys is 1/4.

      If you do specify that one of the children is a boy, then you can eliminate the girl-girl scenario. So then you're looking at the following possible outcomes:

      1) Older=boy, younger=boy
      2) Older=boy, younger=girl
      3) Older=girl, younger=boy

      So really, instead of having only two possibilities (boy-girl or boy-boy), there are 3 possibilities---boy-girl, girl-boy, and boy-boy. Each of them being equally likely. So the chances of them having 2 boys is actually 1/3.

      The reason everyone thinks that the answer is 1/2 is because they think that the two children are distinguishable. They're not, in the problem given; you're not stipulating that Child A is a boy, you're saying that at least one of Child A or B is a boy. If you distinguish the children by saying something like, "My older child is a boy" then the gender of the younger child becomes independent, and is exactly 1/2.

      That's what makes the Tuesday birthday problem so interesting. Usually, if we want to distinguish between the children, we use their ages, because this gives them perfect distinguishability. (You don't have 2 oldest children, for instance.) By saying that one of them is a boy born on Tuesday, you're giving that child more specific attributes, also making them more distinguishable.

      If you say, "I have two children, one of whom is a boy named Bartholomew, who won the lottery in 2009, and was born on the day the Berlin Wall came down," then you've made an almost perfect distinction between the children, and the chances of the other child being a boy are very, very close to 0.5.

      --
      I don't believe in time. It's a grand conspiracy designed to sell watches.
    27. Re:Rubbish by jim_v2000 · · Score: 1

      If you already have an H, TH is not longer an option for you. You're left with HH and HT.

      --
      Don't take life so seriously. No one makes it out alive.
    28. Re:Rubbish by jim_v2000 · · Score: 1

      Age doesn't matter to the question. You either have a boy and a girl or a boy and a boy. In this case, BG and GB are the same outcome.

      --
      Don't take life so seriously. No one makes it out alive.
    29. Re:Rubbish by mlynx · · Score: 1
      The puzzle is based around the possible sets of siblings. You have to understand that.

      I like to look at it as coins. Take a 10 cent coin and a 5 cent coin with distinct heads or tails. There are the following possible combinations:

      10 | 5
      H | H
      H | T
      T | H
      T | T

      They are very distinct in the sense that if we toss the coins, we have a 25% chance of any combination appearing. If we're told that in a given toss, there was one that was heads and are now asked what is the probability of the other being heads, it is one in 3 since we've eliminated the third option.

      The point is, the boy/girl combinations really are distinct and unique outcomes that do factor into the overall probability.

    30. Re:Rubbish by guyminuslife · · Score: 2, Informative

      Nope. Wrong. Age does matter. Not because it correlates with gender or anything, but because it makes the two children distinguishable. (E.g., one of them must be the older child, one must be the younger.)

      You don't have to distinguish them with ages. You could distinguish them with height, e.g., "the taller child is a boy" or anything else.

      Probability in this case is about how much information you have. The more information you have, the more you can refine your results. If I know that a parent has two children, then I can give the probability of both children being boys depending on how much information I have:

      no further information -> .25
      one child is a boy (but we don't know which one) -> .333
      one child is a boy (and we do know which one) -> .5
      one child is a boy, and so is the other child -> 1.0
      one child is not a boy -> 0.0

      TFA does a pretty good job of explaining why people have such a hard time understanding this. The reason is that they assume that the parent is picking a child at random and then stating their gender. That's not the process. If they choose one of their children at random and she happens to be a girl, they skip over her and then state the gender of the other child.

      --
      I don't believe in time. It's a grand conspiracy designed to sell watches.
    31. Re:Rubbish by blueg3 · · Score: 1

      Incorrect! TH is only not an option if the *first* one is necessarily H. If you flip both coins and say "one of them is heads", you're not specifying which is heads.

      (On the other hand, if you flipped two coins, picked one arbitrarily, and said whether it was heads or tails, it wouldn't influence the probability of the other.)

    32. Re:Rubbish by jim_v2000 · · Score: 1

      The probability of any kid being a boy is 0.5. The gender and age of any of your other kids is irrelevant. You can keep playing number and word games if you like, but the question is "What's the probability that my other child is a boy?" It's 0.5.

      "TFA does a pretty good job of explaining why people have such a hard time understanding this."

      Yes, he admits that people have a hard time because it's bullshit: "The difficulty of these problems is rooted in their artificiality: In real life, we almost always know why the information was selected, whereas these problems have been devised to eliminate that knowledge."

      --
      Don't take life so seriously. No one makes it out alive.
    33. Re:Rubbish by guyminuslife · · Score: 1

      What's interesting is that you're claiming that the math behind this is a "number game" and yet you're arguing about numbers. With that approach, you could claim that the probability is 150%, and of course, since you apparently disdain mathematics, you wouldn't accept any proof otherwise.

      So my alternative theory to TFA is that you have a hard time understanding this because you simply don't want to.

      --
      I don't believe in time. It's a grand conspiracy designed to sell watches.
  7. The difference between a man and a woman by dimethylxanthine · · Score: 5, Funny

    This reminds me of a famous joke and variations thereof, (at least around eastern europe):

    A man is asked on the street: What is the probability you will come across a dinosaur on the street today?

    The man replies: less than 0,000000001%

    When a woman is asked the same question, she replies:

    50% - I either will or I won't.

    So, really, it depends on who you ask.

    1. Re:The difference between a man and a woman by dexmachina · · Score: 1

      I had a friend in high school who genuinely did believe that the probability of anything occurring was 50% because "either it happens or it doesn't"

    2. Re:The difference between a man and a woman by stewbacca · · Score: 1

      Nice one!

    3. Re:The difference between a man and a woman by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It's true when time is infinite.

    4. Re:The difference between a man and a woman by noidentity · · Score: 1

      So if we asked what the probability is that a coin will land on heads, tails, or on its edge, we'd get 1/3, because we don't know which it will be?

    5. Re:The difference between a man and a woman by dimethylxanthine · · Score: 0

      An average woman wouldn't be that smart. Although you never know on ./...

    6. Re:The difference between a man and a woman by L4t3r4lu5 · · Score: 1

      Surely the man wouldn't have expressed a probability as a percentage? :D

      --
      Finally had enough. Come see us over at https://soylentnews.org/
    7. Re:The difference between a man and a woman by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Actually you are wrong. This is due to ambiguity.

      Anyhow, the correct result needs to account for the following:
      Q: "I have two children, one of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?"
      A: "Did the other child have a sex change? What are the odds that a boy has a sex change, a girl has a sex change?"
      "Besides Boy and Girl, what other outcome(s) is(are) possible? (hermaphrodite)"
      "The odds of a boy and a girl both being born from the same woman/man pair is not 50%. What is that couples P(boy)?"

      The shear amount of assumptions that must be made just to attempt to solve this problem are quite numerous - each one invalidates any possible answer.

    8. Re:The difference between a man and a woman by dexmachina · · Score: 1

      Not quite...when time is infinite, the probability of anything that's possible happening eventually is 1.

  8. When the OP Is a spoiler by CuteSteveJobs · · Score: 1

    > The submitter adds, "Believe it or not, the Tuesday thing is relevant. Well, sort of. It's ambiguous."

    Why even say that? Anyone who does these puzzles likes to figure it out by themselves.

    1. Re:When the OP Is a spoiler by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I politely disagree. This is a medium of limited interactivity, and puzzles are often about figuring out which parts of the given information is relevant. Therefore, the instinct of pretty much everybody is to say, "well, the Tuesday thing obviously doesn't matter". There's still more than enough of a puzzle left if you explicitly say that all given data are important.

    2. Re:When the OP Is a spoiler by tgd · · Score: 1

      It wasn't a post about the puzzle, it was a post about the counter-intuitiveness of the puzzle.

  9. its a bunch of stupid by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    yea it would be 49% since women make up 51% of the population...
    hear that men we are minorities... get your ObamaCheck at the door...

  10. What's counterintuitive about it? by Securityemo · · Score: 1

    I have absolutely no knowledge of statistics, but why would you assume that just because one of the boys where born on tuesday, that one of his siblings then couldn't be?

    --
    Emotions! In your brain!
    1. Re:What's counterintuitive about it? by Maddog+Batty · · Score: 2, Informative

      Compare these two questions:

      "I have two children, one of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?"

      "I have two children, one of whom is a boy. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?"

      Most people would think that the being born on a Tuesday bit was irrelevant and would make no difference to the answer. In fact it makes a big difference to the answer.

      --
      wot no sig
    2. Re:What's counterintuitive about it? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      "One" in this context is being taken to mean "exactly one" not "one or more". The difficulty in the problem comes from this language trick and not the probability calculations.

    3. Re:What's counterintuitive about it? by iamweasel · · Score: 1

      That's what I thought as well. While I'm not a native english speaker, I don't think "one of whom" rules out the possibility that the other is as well.

    4. Re:What's counterintuitive about it? by BoberFett · · Score: 1

      Don't try to think too hard about it, statisticians think about these kinds things in order to convince themselves that they're more intelligent than people who actually do something worthwhile with their lives. From the original problem:

      "Suppose that Mr. Smith has two children, at least one of whom is a son. What is the probability both children are boys?"

      They then go on to list options of:

      Boy, girl
      Boy, boy
      Girl, boy

      when birth order has nothing to do with the original question. Options one and three are the same choice, because birth order wasn't in question so the options are really:

      Boy, girl
      Boy, boy

    5. Re:What's counterintuitive about it? by Securityemo · · Score: 1

      ...Ah, now I see it. But it's still ambigious wether the speaker means that the other child couln't be born on a tuesday. "One and exactly one" would have solved the problem, right? Or expressing the problem in lojban (presumably; i don't know any lojban either. Anyone up for a shot at it?)

      --
      Emotions! In your brain!
    6. Re:What's counterintuitive about it? by X0563511 · · Score: 3, Insightful

      This is a question written in purposely misleading English.

      This, in other words, is a shit question.

      --
      For large sets, this will be our guide even unto death, for the LORD will work for each type of data it is applied to...
    7. Re:What's counterintuitive about it? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You're still missing the point. This isn't a trick question about the exact interpretation of the English phrase used. The other child can be born on a Tuesday, and the answer is still very unexpected.

    8. Re:What's counterintuitive about it? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      when birth order has nothing to do with the original question.

      Just because it wasn't mentioned, doesn't mean it isn't relevant.

      so the options are really: Boy, girl, or boy, boy

      Your mistake is that you are blindly counting options without considering if the options are equally likely.

      Is the probability that you get struck by lightning today 1/2, because you either will or won't?

      Assuming that the probability of a single child being a boy is 1/2, and that the sex of a child is independent of the sex of its siblings, then the possibilities BB BG GB GG are equally likely. And that is why "1/3" is correct and you are wrong.

    9. Re:What's counterintuitive about it? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      No, that is exactly why people should not play gambling games :-)
      If you toss a coin twice, the chances of getting one head and one tail is 2 in 4, not 1 in 3.
      Because the equally likely possibilities are HH HT TH TT and two of those are good.
      But serious mathematicians in 18th century (IIRC) got that wrong by thinking that HT and TH were the same.
      So *if* we take all the families in the country, eliminate all those that do not have exactly 2 kids, eliminate all those that do not have at least one boy, we should expect around 1 in 3 of them to have 2 boys.
      But in real life this would be affected by infant mortality and various other non-mathematical things.

    10. Re:What's counterintuitive about it? by IAmGarethAdams · · Score: 1
      I also posted this above, sorry if you read it already: To take an example from an above poster:

      I have two pieces of fruit. One is a banana.

      How many bananas do I have? The distinction comes in working out what the "One" means - it could be either of the following:

      1. I have two pieces of fruit. One [of the set] is a banana.
      2. I have two pieces of fruit. [This] one is a banana.

      In the first case, it's clear that the subject of the sentence is [the set of fruit], and that the implication is that not both of the set are bananas. In the second case, it's clear that we're now talking specifically about [one of the fruit], with the other item being irrelevant. Now, since the subject of the first statement is [the set of fruit], and there is no reframing clause in the second statement, the subject of the second statement is still [the set of fruit] and the conclusion is that only one member of [the set of fruit] is a banana

    11. Re:What's counterintuitive about it? by mcvos · · Score: 1

      It's not purposely misleading English, it's just English. It's just that English (or any natural language) happens to be a poor medium for discussing statistics.

    12. Re:What's counterintuitive about it? by skelterjohn · · Score: 1

      Just because you don't care about birth order doesn't mean it is irrelevant to the likelihoods.

    13. Re:What's counterintuitive about it? by ilguido · · Score: 1

      The questioner knows that this statement is misleading and, while he could be more precise, he chooses to be not: so it's purposely misleading. To say the truth the problem is ill posed.

    14. Re:What's counterintuitive about it? by mcvos · · Score: 1

      To say the truth the problem is ill posed.

      Well yeah, but that issue is already discussed in TFA.

    15. Re:What's counterintuitive about it? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      If you actually tried to "think hard" about the question enough to consider probability and not equivocal "options" you would see that the first list is a list of equal probability outcomes. 0.5 probability of the first event * 0.5 probability of the second event = 0.25 for that outcome. The ordering doesn't matter, so you collapse the list by adding the probabilities for equivalent outcomes (not ignoring them as if they were all the same). You result in a 0.5 probability for (boy, girl) and 0.25 probability for (boy, boy). The order is not stated in the answer, but is important for not fucking up by ignoring the relative occurrence of outcomes.

    16. Re:What's counterintuitive about it? by jim_v2000 · · Score: 1

      I still don't get it, and I'd be glad if someone could explain.

      The entire first statement seems irrelevant, since the question is "what is the probability that my other child is a boy?" The probability of any child being a boy is 1/2. The two events are entirely independent. It's like saying "I flipped a coin on Tuesday and it was heads. What's the probability of another coin flip being heads?" The answer is always going to be 1/2. The first coin flip has no effect on the second. The day of the week has no effect on the coin flip. What am I missing here?

      --
      Don't take life so seriously. No one makes it out alive.
    17. Re:What's counterintuitive about it? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Exactly. Anyone can write a question in such piss-poor english that nobody can understand it.

      "If you can greatest number of people, what happened to the ostrich?"

    18. Re:What's counterintuitive about it? by DavidTC · · Score: 1

      The fact the answer is the same doesn't mean the odds are, you loon.

      But, anyway, if you live in a universe where all people listed have at least one boy, the answer is 1/2.

      If you don't, the answer is 1/3.

      You think the question is actually implying that, for this question, you're in such a restricted universe. The question the way you phrased it actually is implying such a universe, because the premise is 'two kids, at least one boy'.

      But just saying things as part of the hypothetical doesn't make them the 'actual' odds. If I say 'Suppose Mr. Smith won the lottery. What is the probability that he won the lottery?', that doesn't actually demonstrate anything about the odds of winning the lottery.

      You get an entirely different answer if you list people who have two children, and then pick someone who has at least one boy out of that list. (Or, pretend to be such a person selected from the list, as the question here is.) There are four possible combinations, and you are filtering out one of them. These results in two answers with girls, and one answer with only boys.

      If you don't believe me, take two coins, and flip them. If they are both tails, discard them. If there is at least head, record how many heads there are. You will find that you get twice as many head+tail as you do head+head.

      Most of the debating over the issue is which hypothetical universe exactly, is being calculated. Is this a universe consisting of people we selected who had two kids who had one boy? (Aka, no girl + girl parents exist.) In which case, yup, 50/50. Or is this a universe consisting of people who had two kids and then removed one part of them from the possible answers? (Aka, the real universe.)

      --
      If corporations are people, aren't stockholders guilty of slavery?
  11. Good job. by neoshroom · · Score: 1

    Nice work! I read the article and it agrees with your math. 13/27 is exactly what the author concludes.

    --
    Big apple, new Yorik, undig it, something's unrotting in Edenmark.
  12. Shorter summary by williamhb · · Score: 5, Funny

    As the article notes, it depends what you mean by "one of", (specific one vs "at least one"), and quibbling mathematicians don't always pick the most common interpretation.

    In other news, an aeroplane carrying a hundred mathematicians crashed with no survivors; their university made a press release stating that one of its mathematicians died in the crash.

    1. Re:Shorter summary by stewbacca · · Score: 1

      That is an excellent point. "One of" could mean the other is a girl, which makes the chances of the second one being a boy 0%.

      I like this answer the best. I also have a BA in Liberal Arts, so of course I wouldn't even being to broach the math portion of the question. If you can kill the math part with English, then I'm all for it!

    2. Re:Shorter summary by camperdave · · Score: 1

      "One of" in statistics and logic problems (and especially in riddles) means "at least one of" unless it is qualified further, eg: "Only one", or "Exactly one".

      --
      When our name is on the back of your car, we're behind you all the way!
    3. Re:Shorter summary by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      As the article notes, it depends what you mean by "one of", (specific one vs "at least one"), and quibbling mathematicians don't always pick the most common interpretation.

      In other news, an aeroplane carrying a hundred mathematicians crashed with no survivors; their university made a press release stating that one of its mathematicians died in the crash.

      For some reason, the news stories yesterday said that U.S. Senator Byrd died that day... not that Byrd and about 57 million other people died that day.

    4. Re:Shorter summary by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The joke is 1 as in 1.0, or 100%. Had half of them died, they would have said 0.5.

  13. Probability by neoshroom · · Score: 4, Informative

    This is kind of like saying "I flip a coin. What is the chance it lands heads facing up?"

    And you say "50%."

    And I say, "Incorrect. There is a very small chance it will land balanced perfectly on it's side, so both the chance of heads and the chance of tails is under 50%."

    --
    Big apple, new Yorik, undig it, something's unrotting in Edenmark.
    1. Re:Probability by Hognoxious · · Score: 1

      Has anyone ever seen that happen? Apart from coins like the "Thatcher" (British pound coin), it's almost impossible to stand them on their edge.

      --
      Confucius say, "Find worm in apple - bad. Find half a worm - worse."
    2. Re:Probability by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Or there is no land because we are in space?
      Or a bird grabs it in midair?
      Or I grab it midair?
      Or the coin has only tails?

    3. Re:Probability by dargaud · · Score: 2, Interesting

      There is a very small chance it will land balanced perfectly on it's side

      Has anyone ever seen that happen?

      Yes, I've had that happen once with a 10Fr coin (very similar in shape to the current 1 euro coin). The ground was irregular which probably helped a lot.

      --
      Non-Linux Penguins ?
    4. Re:Probability by Karganeth · · Score: 1

      This is kind of like saying "I flip a coin. What is the chance it lands heads facing up?"

      And you say "50%."

      And I say, "Incorrect. There is a very small chance it will land balanced perfectly on it's side, so both the chance of heads and the chance of tails is under 50%."

      If you said "I flip a fair coin..." then saying that it may land on its side would be wrong. But when modelling the probability of some actual even happening in the real word (where no perfectly fair things, such as fair coins, exist) you should consider as much as you can. The more the better. There IS a chance it could land on its side.

    5. Re:Probability by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Yes, the correct answer is obviously "it depends on the properties of the specific coin and the manner in which you flip it".

    6. Re:Probability by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      While you were being snarky, you misspelled "its". Now you just look like a dumb-ass.

    7. Re:Probability by DMorritt · · Score: 0

      Also, there is another chance, one that the coin disappears entirely, since atoms can just *disappear*, there is a possibility that all the atoms in the coin just vanish at the same time. The possibility of the coin being stolen mid air also rises the closer you get to a beach, as pesky seagulls see you flipping a coin, who would blame them for mistaking it for a thin shiny chip? Then the outcome would be N/A.

    8. Re:Probability by Damnshock · · Score: 1

      Furthermore, you could even be wrong there: who says both said of the coin are exactly the same? In fact, they usually are not ;)

      Maybe one of the sides has more than a 50% due to it's shape...

    9. Re:Probability by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      This happens quite often with pound coins (fat fucks with a small diameter).

      You'd probably need to know what coin was being flipped; circular coins are more likely to land - and remain - on their edge than your heptagons, nonagons and whatever else you have. Mildly frustrating that Opera's spell check doesn't recognise Nonagon as a word, by the way. :)

    10. Re:Probability by Daimanta · · Score: 1

      "This is kind of like saying "I flip a coin. What is the chance it lands heads facing up?"

      And you say "50%."

      And I say, "Incorrect. There is a very small chance it will land balanced perfectly on it's side, so both the chance of heads and the chance of tails is under 50%."
      "

      You never specified anything about the coin. If you would say it was a fair coin, I would indeed say that the chance of head coming up is 0,5.

      In any other case you ask me a question without giving any information. The coin might well be 1cm thick, which increases the chance to land on its side by several orders of magnitude. It can also be a coin with two heads, making it (near) 1 chance of heads facing up(then again, is this a theoretical coin or a real one).

      Furthermore, the chance of a (real) coin landing on one side more than the other is 1 due to the inequalities in a real coin.

      --
      Knowledge is power. Knowledge shared is power lost.
    11. Re:Probability by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Then I say: "A coin landing on it's side is not a valid flip. Please reflip."

    12. Re:Probability by ctchristmas · · Score: 1

      So as far as gender goes, does that mean that the equivalent to the coin landing "balanced perfectly on it's side" is a... err... has both parts?

    13. Re:Probability by jez9999 · · Score: 1

      The ground was irregular which probably helped a lot.

      Was it soft mud?

    14. Re:Probability by dargaud · · Score: 1

      Well... no. But that would make for some fuzzy logic stats: well it landed at 43deg and stayed like that, so I win!

      --
      Non-Linux Penguins ?
    15. Re:Probability by Monkeedude1212 · · Score: 1

      I've seen a Loonie* land on its side and roll into a desk, bump, and stop, sitting there upright.

      *It's a Canadian Dollar. Don't ask about the name, its supposed to be after The Common Loon, which is the bird on the coin, and not about a mental case... We were probably drunk, you know how these things go.

    16. Re:Probability by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I've had a british 1 pound coin (those are quick thick) drop from a table, roll around a bit on my laminate floor, and then end up staying on its edge.

      Of course I immediately ran a series of tests trying to reproduce, where I dropped the same coin multiple times, to no avail.

    17. Re:Probability by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Then I ask you "what is the probability of me punching you in the face for being a smartass?" and before you answer I punch you in the face for being a smartass - the probability is 100%.

    18. Re:Probability by Quirkz · · Score: 1
      I dropped a penny from a height of about two feet and had it land on edge once. I should note this wasn't a proper flip, just a penny that fell out of my hand as I was scooping up change. It landed atop a wooden table, though, not on muddy ground or anything where sticking on edge might make sense.

      I have to say it was VERY unsettling, and I looked around to see if something unusual was going on, like maybe I'd fallen into the Twilight Zone and time had stopped, or people with cameras were going to jump out and laugh about the joke.

    19. Re:Probability by SharpFang · · Score: 1

      13/27 = 0.(481), which is pretty far from 1/3 = 0.(33) this problem would yield without Tuesday, and almost 2% away from the intuitive 1/2, way better chance than coin's edge.

      --
      45 5F E1 04 22 CA 29 C4 93 3F 95 05 2B 79 2A B2
    20. Re:Probability by dracocat · · Score: 1

      This is kind of like saying "I flip a coin. What is the chance it lands heads facing up?"

      And you say "50%."

      And I say, "Incorrect. There is a very small chance it will land balanced perfectly on it's side, so both the chance of heads and the chance of tails is under 50%."

      I would agree with your comment if you could flip a coin a 100 times and have it land that way at least 3 of those 100 times.

    21. Re:Probability by traztx · · Score: 1

      Can I presume that you are not asking the question as an astronaut during a space walk? In that case, a flipped coin is likely to orbit the Earth until it is destroyed in a collision with space junk or decays and burns up during reentry.

    22. Re:Probability by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      not really. its more like saying "I flipped a coin twice and it landed heads one or more times, what is the chance it landed heads the other time?"

      and then the next variation being "I flipped a coin on two days, or twice on the same day. it landed heads on a day when it was a tuesday, what is the chance it landed heads on the other day?"

    23. Re:Probability by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      That is, again trickery with English language.

      If you would ask me this question, I'd assume a "fair" coin, i.e. two outcomes (heads or tails)

      You deception is the fact you're implying an "unfair" coin.

      But then I can continue this none-sense and say that in this case there is always a probability that the coin will freeze in midair. Or will be stolen by a third party, etc.

      If you don't state you assumptions and definitions, I will use my own.

    24. Re:Probability by neoshroom · · Score: 1

      While you were being snarky, you put a period outside of a quote. Now you just look like a dumb-ass.

      --
      Big apple, new Yorik, undig it, something's unrotting in Edenmark.
  14. Summary misstates the problem by bjourne · · Score: 1, Informative

    The problem stated in the article is: "Suppose that Mr. Smith has two children, at least one of whom is a son. What is the probability both children are boys?" This is a different scenario than what is stated in the summary: "I have two children, one of whom is a boy. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?" In the first scenario, the probabilities are dependent on each other because it is not stated whether the first or the second child is the boy. In the second problem, it is given that the FIRST child is a boy. But that does not affect the odds of the second child which should therefore be 0.5.

    1. Re:Summary misstates the problem by tomtomtom777 · · Score: 4, Insightful

      "I have two children, one of whom is a boy. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?" ... it is given that the FIRST child is a boy.

      I must admit that English is not my native tongue but I fail to see how this gives that the FIRST child is a boy. Doesn't "one of whom" implies that it can be either the first or the second?

    2. Re:Summary misstates the problem by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      The problem stated in the article is: "Suppose that Mr. Smith has two children, at least one of whom is a son. What is the probability both children are boys?" This is a different scenario than what is stated in the summary: "I have two children, one of whom is a boy. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?" In the first scenario, the probabilities are dependent on each other because it is not stated whether the first or the second child is the boy. In the second problem, it is given that the FIRST child is a boy. But that does not affect the odds of the second child which should therefore be 0.5.

      No, the two statements are generally equivalent.

      The phrase "at least one of" simply more accurately reduces ambiguity that is available in the second. The extra ambiguity is added into the second version is that it could potentially mean "I have two children, only one is a boy."

      --
      WARNING! This girl exceeds the MAXIMUM SAFE standards established by the FDA for BRATTINESS
    3. Re:Summary misstates the problem by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Its not stated the first child is the boy at all. It states one of which.. That could be the first, second, or in the case of 20 kids number 17.

    4. Re:Summary misstates the problem by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      This is identical, then, to another probability problem involving coin tosses

      "I have two coins. I flip them and hide the results from you. One of the coins is heads. What is the probability that the other coin is heads?"

      Phrased this way, the probability is 1/3. The straightforward way to phrase the question is "what is the probability that both coins are heads" but then there is less of a riddle involved.

    5. Re:Summary misstates the problem by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You're getting too literal.

      When people say the "First" child, they mean the first one mentioned in the problem (the "one of whom"), not necessarily the first one born.

    6. Re:Summary misstates the problem by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The next sentence refers to "the other child", therefor the previous sentence must have been describing a specific child whom we are not concerned with.

    7. Re:Summary misstates the problem by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Not my native tongue either, but familiar enough with it. In English, you can say either "oldest (or eldest) child" or "first born". The combination "first child" isn't used to denote the oldest child. However, bjourne wrote about two children in one sentence, and subsequently referred to the first of those two, i.e. the first child mentioned in the previous sentence.

      Doesn't mean bjourne is right, though. The fact that the first one is a boy is not independent from the gender of the second. Boy/boy families are twice as rare as boy/girl families - write it out.

    8. Re:Summary misstates the problem by bjourne · · Score: 1

      Me neither, but the question is "What's the probability that my other child is a boy?" which I read as "the probability that the child, other than the one just mentioned, is a boy." But maybe the riddle was about parsing ambigous English sentences and not about math.

    9. Re:Summary misstates the problem by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Yes, and it doesn't preclude the remaining child from also being a boy born on Tuesday. People may make this assumption as part of their social post processing of the sentence, but strictly speaking, this is a false assumption.

    10. Re:Summary misstates the problem by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Your interpretation depends on your assigning the definition of "first child" in the other poster's comment to mean "the firstborn child," when he may well have meant "the first one mentioned in the problem," of whom we have no idea of the relative age.

    11. Re:Summary misstates the problem by baerm · · Score: 1

      "I have two children, one of whom is a boy. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?" ... it is given that the FIRST child is a boy.

      I must admit that English is not my native tongue but I fail to see how this gives that the FIRST child is a boy. Doesn't "one of whom" implies that it can be either the first or the second?

      I am a native English speaker. "One of whom... my other... ", does not indicate a birth order. [unless there is an English dialect I'm unaware of that requires that any time you speak of more than one child in a sentence, you must talk about them in birth order. :) ]

      In fact, for word problems, the reader can not count on anything that is not explicitly stated. For such questions, this phrasing implies a purposeful lack of information regarding birth order.

    12. Re:Summary misstates the problem by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Your English is fine. There is nothing to suggest that the first child is a boy. The answer to your question is "yes, it can be first or second".

      Hey, Bjourne (GP), can you explain why you thought otherwise?

    13. Re:Summary misstates the problem by tomtomtom777 · · Score: 1

      You have read correctly. When it is given that one of the children is a boy there is no difference between the statement that "the other child is a boy" and stating "both children are boys". There is no ambiguity there.

  15. Slight of hand? by mlush · · Score: 1
    Devlin started by listing the children’s sexes in the order of their birth: Boy, girl Boy, boy Girl, boy

    I think he is leaving out an option when working out the permutations The given boy (born on Tuesday) is different entity from his sibling so that gives 4 options and a 1/2 chance?

    Named Boy, girl
    Named Boy, boy
    boy, Named Boy
    girl, Named Boy

    1. Re:Slight of hand? by Seth024 · · Score: 1

      But your permutations aren't equally likely!

      Prob[boy,girl] = Prob[boy,boy] = 1/3

      Prob[boy,girl] = Prob[Named Boy, girl]
      but Prob[boy,boy] != Prob[Named Boy, boy]

      It's the "you're wrong or you're right => 1/2" all over again.

    2. Re:Slight of hand? by mlush · · Score: 1

      But your permutations aren't equally likely!

      I'm not sure what your getting at here.

      The other sibling can be born either before or after the Tuesday Boy. that's a 50:50 chance.

      The other sibling can either be a boy or a girl that's ~50:50

      this gives 4 outcomes
      Other child is a girl born before the Tuesday Boy
      Other child is a boy born before the Tuesday Boy
      Other child is a girl born after the Tuesday Boy
      Other child is a boy born after the Tuesday Boy

      Two outcomes result in the other child being a boy two a girl

      which of these is more likely?

      Prob[boy,girl] = Prob[boy,boy] = 1/3 Prob[boy,girl] = Prob[Named Boy, girl] but Prob[boy,boy] != Prob[Named Boy, boy] It's the "you're wrong or you're right => 1/2" all over again.

    3. Re:Slight of hand? by Fingerbob · · Score: 1

      I think this is the key thing that is missing from the originally stated problem.

      the actual selection set before removing girls is:

      girl (named), girl
      girl, girl (named)
      girl (named), boy
      girl, boy (named)
      boy (named), girl
      boy, girl (named)
      boy (named), boy
      boy, boy (named)

      and then we're saying "the named child is definitely a boy" which removes:

      girl (named), girl
      girl, girl (named)
      girl (named), boy
      boy, girl (named)

      leaving the following four (equally likely) selections:

      girl, boy (named)
      boy (named), girl
      boy (named), boy
      boy, boy (named)

      meaning the collapsed (boy, boy) option isn't a 1/3 probability at all, it's 1/2.

    4. Re:Slight of hand? by ObsessiveMathsFreak · · Score: 1

      You would be right if the question had been phrased "I have two children and Dennis is my son. What is the probability that he has a brother?". And by the way, this is exactly how most people will read the question as "boy" is generally understood to refer to a specific instance, not a template. Dennis here is indeed a named boy, distinct from all other boys (and girls).

      But the question was not meant to be understood in this way by the questioner (who was out to fool people). The question can be read in this this way (and if so the questioner gets to feel smug about themselves). "I have two children and I have at least one son. What is the probability that I have two sons?".

      So to clarify. Most people will effectively understand the question to mean:
      1) "I have two children and a boy is my son. What is the probability that he has a brother?"
      The questioner will claim that his question really meant:
      2) "I have two children and I have at least one son. What is the probability that I have two sons?"
      Two very different questions with two different answers (1/2 and 1/3 respectively). The problem here is less people's mathematics than the imprecision of the questioner.

      In fact, reading the actual question:
      "I have two children, one of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?"
      This to me appears closer to 1) rather than 2) above. The boy in this question seems to me to be a particular instance rather than an element of a group.

      --
      May the Maths Be with you!
    5. Re:Slight of hand? by mlush · · Score: 1

      I still don't get it. In either case the gender of one child is known, the gender of the other child can be one of two options where does the third option come in?

    6. Re:Slight of hand? by ObsessiveMathsFreak · · Score: 1

      In either case the gender of one child is known...

      Not exactly. In one case this is so; the gender of one child is known. But in the other the gender of a (specific) child is known. The difference here is between saying something about a set of elements and saying something about an instance of an element. One allows the element to bet any element in the set, but the other explicitly fixes the element, amount (I believe) to sampling without replacement before the question is even posed.

      --
      May the Maths Be with you!
  16. 0.5 by greekBruin · · Score: 1

    What a silly problem! Of course the answer is 0.5 and all the other information is irrelevant to the problem! Can you imagine what kind of silly math the author would do in the following "problem"? "I have two children, one of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday, in November, on a full moon night. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?"

    1. Re:0.5 by guyminuslife · · Score: 1

      No, it's slightly less than 0.5. If you add more caveats, it gets closer to 0.5.

      --
      I don't believe in time. It's a grand conspiracy designed to sell watches.
    2. Re:0.5 by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      No, it's not 0.5 and yes, adding further restrictions would change the probability.

      Why, because we have selected families with at least 1 boy, so we have 2/3rd that are boy/girl and 1/3rd boy/boy. Out of the families with 1 boy and 1 girl, the probability that the boy is born on a Tuesday is 1/7, but the boy/boy families have more probability that one of the boys is born on a Tuesday (13/49, since you basically get two chances to fulfill the condition). So it becomes actually very intuitive that the probability of the other child being a boy increases when you add this condition.

    3. Re:0.5 by X0563511 · · Score: 1

      I agree. None of that garbage has anything to do with the other child, of whom no information is given whatsoever.

      --
      For large sets, this will be our guide even unto death, for the LORD will work for each type of data it is applied to...
    4. Re:0.5 by phoebe · · Score: 1

      Both the linked article and the article that links to are overly verbose answers that skim the purported issue of whether two boys born on a Tuesday should be counted as two equal probabilities or one.

      sciencenews.org:

      If he’s a boy, he could have been born any day except Tuesday. (Otherwise this case would already have been counted in the first scenario: the older child a boy born on Tuesday). This second scenario generates just six, rather than seven, more possibilities.

      maa.org:

      When I tell you that one of my children is a boy born on a Tuesday, I eliminate a number of possible combinations, leaving the following: First child B-Tu, second child: B-Mo, B-Tu, B-We, B-Th, B-Fr, B-Sa, B-Su, G-Mo, G-Tu, G-We, G-Th, G-Fr, G-Sa, G-Su. Second child B-Tu, first child: B-Mo, B-We, B-Th, B-Fr, B-Sa, B-Su, G-Mo, G-Tu, G-We, G-Th, G-Fr, G-Sa, G-Su. Notice that the second row has one fewer members than the first, since the combination B-Tu + B-Tu already appears in the first row.

      It would appear a fallacy to eliminate both B-Tu/B-Tu pairings, it is briefly discarded. However the difference of 7/378 to the answer (1/2 to 13/27) which is negligible.

    5. Re:0.5 by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      What about if you dress the second child entirely in pink, because that's their favorite color?

    6. Re:0.5 by greekBruin · · Score: 2, Insightful

      It is amazing that people get confused by this!!!! Consider the following: "I have two children, one of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday. What's the probability that my other child is a boy? The other child was born on a Wednesday!" What does the day has to do with the genre? Nothing!!! There is nothing to add, subtract, divide or anything! It's a very silly problem. It only proves that common sense is not so common!

    7. Re:0.5 by A+Nun+Must+Cow+Herd · · Score: 2, Informative

      ... and that "common sense" leads to an incorrect answer.

      The first step is to see that if one of the children is a boy, then the probability that they both are is 1/3 not 1/2.

    8. Re:0.5 by Xest · · Score: 1

      No, it apparently proves that some people like yourself as so incapable of seeing the argument, and understanding the resultant math that underlies that argument that you'll go to the extreme of declaring everyone else, including people that are almost certainly far smarter than you as being wrong.

      Go read the discussion about it rather than sit puzzling yourself over it declaring the rest of the world wrong in the process.

      Your ignorance of a subject doesn't make everyone else wrong about it.

    9. Re:0.5 by nu1x · · Score: 1

      Hehe, yes, it is interesting how a mind is clouded by verbalities - I am not a native english speaker, and I looked at the problem - first instinct - why of course, 1/2.

      Then, some arguments almost convinced me of those silly fractional probabilities.

      Then I realised:

      IFF is known that one of set a and b a is a boy, then, chance of 2 boys is 1/2, because it boils down to sets of a=boy b=boy, a=boy b=girl. Only two sets, ordering is NOT important to the task at hand. It is just a pile of verbal diarrhea, is all.

      IFF is un known whether a or b is of any particular gender, then there exist 3 sets (a=boy b=boy, a=boy b=girl, a=girl b=girl), giving it a chance of 1/3.

      Simple, unless you're a lwayer, which I'm starting to suspect many people are INTRINSICALLY.

      P.S.: Also, if you want to imply that clause "one" of the boys is constricting, then the chance that there are 2 boys = 0, but I'm only lavyerbating here :P

      --
      I have nothing to lose but my bindings.
    10. Re:0.5 by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Um, no. Even without the "Tuesday" part, the answer is 25%. The possible outcomes for two children are: (B, B), (G, G), (B, G), and (G, B). There is 1/4 chance that the first child is a boy and so is the second child. This is a common "trick" question is Statistics.

    11. Re:0.5 by Xest · · Score: 1

      The argument is in the ambiguity of the statement, many people are trying to map to the real world, but the point is that you can build an argument based off a literal reading of the statement that does in fact 13/27, and after much debate amongst the math community this has in fact found general acceptance as the correct answer.

      The debate arises largely because of a clash between the ambiguity and impreciseness of language and the preciseness of math, but the answer stems from logical reasoning eliminating the ambiguity of language with assumptions where required. This of course means where people make opposing assumptions- sometimes without even realising it then they come up with a different answer, many simply don't even understand the arguments at all and ignorant insist they are correct as was the case with the person I responded to above originally.

    12. Re:0.5 by nschubach · · Score: 1

      Only if you use the Devlin's logic in the story where the every possible combination is:

      boy - boy
      boy - girl
      girl - boy
      girl - girl

      You are putting extra weight on the "boy - girl" combination. There are really only three possible solutions:

      boy - boy
      girl - girl
      boy - girl (or girl - boy if you prefer...)

      By pointing out one boy you know it's not a "girl - girl" outcome so that leaves you with two options:

      boy - boy
      boy - girl

      --
      Every time I start to have faith in humanity, I ruin it by driving to work between 7 and 8 am.
    13. Re:0.5 by greekBruin · · Score: 1

      It is a flaw in the original article.

      The question is about the genre of the other child, no matter what day it was born. So, the days are irrelevant. It's meaningless to multiply irrelevant data.

      If the question was "What is the probability the other child is a boy born on a Sunday", then days would be relevant.

      The author misleads the audience, like a magician. The whole problem is just a trick for people who know nothing about statistics. Statistics 101 says: do not mix uncorrelated data!

    14. Re:0.5 by greekBruin · · Score: 1

      No, the ambiguity is completely irrelevant.

      It doesn't matter what day the boy was born. It doesn't matter what month, what time, if it was raining etc.

      Those things have nothing to do with the genre of either child.

    15. Re:0.5 by A+Nun+Must+Cow+Herd · · Score: 1

      But if I say that the youngest is a boy, then the probability that the oldest is also a boy is 1/2 (not 1/3). If I just say one of the children is a boy, with no other information, then I could be refering to either one in the boy/boy case, and the probability is 1/3 of both being boys.

      Being younger or older is independent of the gender, but does affect the statistical outcome.

      It's not easy to understand (and goes against instinct, especially as the pieces of information appear unrelated), but I wouldn't call it a trick.

    16. Re:0.5 by A+Nun+Must+Cow+Herd · · Score: 1

      You're implying in a random sample of 1000 pairs of children, 1/3 will be boy/boy, 1/3 girl/boy and 1/3 girl/girl...

      That's incorrect - 1/2 of the pairs will be one girl and one boy. It's pretty easy to write some code to generate random pairs to convince yourself of this.

    17. Re:0.5 by greekBruin · · Score: 1

      No, it does not. It is the trick of a magician to draw your attention to irrelevant information. And to lie to you.

      The ratio 1/3 is also wrong. If the youngest is a boy, then the probability for the oldest to be a boy is 1/2. Because those things are completely independent. You do not have joint probabilities in this problem. It does not matter if the youngest is boy, girl, older, younger, black or white ... it does not influence the gender of the other kid, so you do not multiply anything. You multiply probabilities only when you want to find joint probabilities, for example "what is the probability for the first kid to be a boy AND the second to be a girl?".

      This is similar to "gambler's fallacy". Look it up!

    18. Re:0.5 by A+Nun+Must+Cow+Herd · · Score: 1

      This has nothing to do with the Gambler's fallacy.

      You're right that if the youngest is a boy, then the probability that the oldest is a boy is 1/2.

      However if you only know one is a boy, and you don't know which that one could refer to, then the probability the other is also a boy is 1/3.

      Take 1000 pairs - on average you get 500 pairs of one girl one boy, 250 of two boys, and 250 of two girls. If you know that one is a boy that means it must be one of the 750 made up of 250 boy/boy and 500 boy/girl. Since 250 of the 750 are two boys you have a probability of one in three that it's two boys.

      You don't have to take my word for it - it's easy to write simulations to demonstrate that this is the case. There's even one posted in the comments to this story. :-)

    19. Re:0.5 by Xest · · Score: 1

      It's only irrelevant to you because you're choosing to discount it from the problem hence the ambiguity you deny exists. But as it is part of the question, your discounting of the information makes you interpretation far less correct than one that does take account for it, and the solution that does take account of all the information is the one that is accepted as most correct- the result being 13/27.

      It sucks for you if you don't get it, but quit pretending you're some super genius that gets it whilst no one else, even some of the most skilled mathematical minds on the planet do. You're not that genius, you clearly don't understand the problem, and you are wrong.

      If you don't understand maths and have no intention of learning maths and it's relation to the real world then fine, but don't pester everyone else with your ignorance declaring your ignorance as the one true way.

      To give you another example that might fry your brain and help you realise your lack of understanding of the subject. Can you for example explain the following? It's a good place for you to start such that you can then work from there:

      The probability of flipping a coin and getting heads 11 times in a row is 1 in 2048. So why if you flip a coin 10 times, and get heads every time, is the chance of your next flip being heads also 1 in 2?

    20. Re:0.5 by greekBruin · · Score: 1

      Yes, exactly! The probability of your next flip being heads is also 1 in 2!

      It does not matter what happened in the past, the probability of those events are now 1 (one!) and do not influence future events.

      You are right that "the probability of flipping a coin and getting heads 11 times in a row is 1 in 2048". But, this is the joint probability for multiple events to occur. However, each flip coin has probability of 0.5. No matter how many coins you have flipped before, no matter how many coins you will flip after.

      That's elementary statistics. Please ask any professor. I used to teach probabilities in the past.

    21. Re:0.5 by greekBruin · · Score: 1

      Both you and the other user (Xest), confuse joint probabilities for multiple independent events, with probabilities for a single independent event. The probability of a single independent event does not change. This is elementary probability theory.

      Perhaps a simple example will help you. Let's say that your wife is pregnant with your first child. The probability to be a boy is 0.5. The child is born and it is really a boy. Congratulations! Now the probability to be a girl is zero! Some years later your wife is pregnant again. What is the probability to have again a boy? Well, it is again 0.5! Some assume that we have to multiply 0.5*0.5=0.25. No, that's wrong! The probability for the first child to be a boy is now 1 (one!) since it is a known fact! The probability for the first child to be a girl is zero. So, even if you want to multiply, you should do 1*0.5=0.5 and you get the same result.

      However, this way of thinking is wrong anyway, because it is confusing. We do not have joint probabilities here. There is no way that a previous child can influence the gender of the next child. You should not multiply anything because there is no causal relationship. It does not matter if it is your first, second or tenth child. There is always probability 0.5 for the next child, no matter how many children the woman had before. This is common sense, and it is also formal mathematics.

      It is different when you want to compute JOINT probabilities, that is TWO or more events to happen simultaneously. Yes, the probability to have two boys is 0.25. But if you KNOW that one is a boy, then you do not have joint probabilities any more. You just have the probability for one child to be a boy, that's 0.5. If you insist to use joint probabilities, then you have to multiply by one 1*0.5=0.5. It is a completely different question to ask "what is the probability for two random human beings to be two males?" and different if you ask "what is the probability for one random human being to be a male?". The second question has always probability 0.5, since it's a random human being.

      The problem as it was stated was full of mistakes. Probably intentional, to confuse the readers and generate discussion. There is no trick at all, it is just bad mathematics.

    22. Re:0.5 by greekBruin · · Score: 1

      And let me point again that it is wrong to mix joint probabilities when you don't have too.

      In the example I gave above, you arrive to the correct conclusion by giving one to the probability of the first child to be a boy.

      However, it is wrong and stupid to compute JOINT probabilities, what what you want is single probabilities. If nothing else, you may have no way to compute the joint probability!

      For example, if you state "I have two children, one of whom is a boy born during a storm. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?"

      Well, it is 0.5, you do not have to compute any joint probabilities. Because obviously the storm does not influence the gender of the child in question. It does not even influence the gender of the first child! It is just irrelevant information. It is just like saying:

      "I have two children, one of whom is a boy and I like ice cream. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?"

    23. Re:0.5 by Xest · · Score: 1

      Okay good, so you grasp that.

      Now, back to The Tuesday Birthday Problem the fundamental point is that the day of the week does matter, this is precisely the point of the argument. The most correct interpretation of the sentence when you chisel away at the ambiguities of it is that it is part of the problem, which is precisely why it's a problem involving both days of the week AND gender.

      Throw away your preconceptions of whether or not time effects gender and so forth because they're causing you to make assumptions that lead to false conclusions about the problem, look at the problem in isolation taking into account what you've just said to me, and what I've said in the paragraph above.

      Do you get it now?

    24. Re:0.5 by greekBruin · · Score: 1

      No, you are wrong!

      The question of the problem is "What's the probability that my other child is a boy?"

      The day of the week is irrelevant to the question, irrelevant to the answer.

      It is not a matter of preconceptions, it is a matter of mathematics, elementary mathematics. If I tell you "I have a red square with a side of 1m. It is important that the square is not blue. What is the area of the square?". The answer is 1m^2 and has nothing to do with color. I am just trying to trick you. It might be important for aesthetic reasons that the square is red, so I am not lying to you, but this information has nothing to do with the area.

      Did you notice the word "magicians" in the original story? That's the key. It's a very simple problem in mathematics, BUT the magician tries to confuse you. It is really elementary. And apparently it works with a lot of people. That's very interesting!

    25. Re:0.5 by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It's not just Nun Cow Herd and Xest - professional statisticians (such as the one this article is about) come to the same conclusion.

      You're pretty dedicated to your viewpoint, but that doesn't mean it's right.

    26. Re:0.5 by Xest · · Score: 1

      It's clear you're incapable of coping with the given question, so I'll try a different tact. I'm intrigued:

      - Do you disagree with the accepted answer to the Monty Hall problem (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Monty_Hall_Problem) too?

      - How do you justify to yourself that you are right about this when your viewpoint is in conflict with some of the greatest living mathematical minds today? Do you believe you're perhaps the greatest living mathematical mind today and the others are simply wrong and don't understand the thinking and math behind the 13/27 solution?

  17. another way of looking at it? by A+Nun+Must+Cow+Herd · · Score: 1

    I'm trying to understand this in laymans terms. Is this a valid way to interpret it? If you know that a specific child is a boy (e.g. the youngest), then the probability the other one is a boy is 1/2. If you only know that one of the two children is a boy, and you don't know which, then the probability they are both boys is 1/3. So the more you pin down details towards identifying a specific child is a boy the closer the probability tends towards 1/2 for both boys. In this case you're specifying a day, and as that reduces the ambiguity a lot it gets you quite close to 1/2.

  18. Other problems by Exitar · · Score: 2, Insightful

    "I have two children, one of whom is a boy born in the first day of the year. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?"
    "I have two children, one of whom is a boy born in January. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?"
    "I have two children, one of whom is a boy born in Winter. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?"

    Do they give different probabilities?

    1. Re:Other problems by A+Nun+Must+Cow+Herd · · Score: 1

      Yes.

      It's P=(4x-1)/(2x-1) where x is the number of options for the extra information.

      So first day of year, x=365, (ignoring leap years),
      born in January x=12,
      winter x=4.

    2. Re:Other problems by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      That's 1/P not P ;-)

    3. Re:Other problems by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      No, they give EXACTLY the same probability.
      The day of the week, the season, the month, the colour of the father's underwear - all are UTTERLY IRRELEVANT.
      The probability is exactly the same, always, regardless of how much irrelevant detail is added.
      It is ALWAYS 1/3.
      Period.
      Always.

    4. Re:Other problems by joss · · Score: 1

      Shouting, and the use of terms like 'Period.' doesn't make you right, it only emphasises your personality type: arrogant (and wrong). For this reason, one should always mistrust someone who ends with an emphatic "Period." It alerts you to someone so sure of themselves they refuse to put mental effort into considering things which makes their conclusions less trustworthy.

      --
      http://rareformnewmedia.com/
    5. Re:Other problems by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      If I was hearing these problems in a regular conversation, I admit that my assumption would be that the questioner is implying that _only_ one of the children is born in the first day of the year/january/winter.

      However... since I know that this is a math problem, and in all my experience most math problems are tricky, especially by the use of throwing in irrelavent data into the question, I see the sentences as exactly how they are written without assuming facts from implications. Therefore, birth day of week, birth month, birth season, etc of the first boy is irrelevant data meant to throw off my logic. In fact, since the question doesn't specifically indicate any relationship between the afore mentioned child and the 'other' child, I can throw out most of the entire first sentence. This leaves us with the following _relavent_ information:

      "I have two children. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?"... or more simply: "What's the probability that my child is a boy?"

      Answer: 1/2

      Again, this is based on the universal assumption that all mathematicians are sneaky.

    6. Re:Other problems by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Only if you assume that the other son can't be born on Tuesday (or in January, or on the same date, or in the same season) if he's older. That's the mistake the author made; he allowed for two boys being born on the same day if the second one is younger, but excluded the case where's he's older. Since we don't know if the one we've met is younger or older than his sibling we have to count both cases, and the probability comes to P=14/28=1/2, just like we'd expect.

      If we made the same mistake with with day of the year would it would result in P=729/1459, with months it would come out to P=23/47, with seasons it would be P=7/15. In all of these cases, though, correctly counting both BoyBoyTime instances would result in the expected, and correct, P=1/2.

  19. So we're just missing the implication? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0, Informative

    So the fact that they told us that the one kid was a boy born on a Tuesday is irrelevant.

    The REAL issue is that we too easily miss the implication here: the OTHER kid *can't* be a boy born on Tuesday (or he'd have said that he has two such kids). Given that information, which rules out one of the possibilities, it is now not quite as much of a surprise that you get a chance not equal to 50%.

    1. Re:So we're just missing the implication? by CProgrammer98 · · Score: 1

      no, go read the article again. the solution DOES include the possiibility the the other child is also a boy born on a tuesday.

      --
      And the people shall be oppressed, every one by another, and every one by his neighbour Isaiah 3:5
  20. General case by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    In the more general (mathematical) case, that is: I say: "my boy has [something with chance p of having]" if and only if I have a boy that has that 'something' and I have exactly two children and having 'something' is independent for each child. What is the chance of the other child being a boy?
    Let's work it out, there are a few possibilities for the sexes:

    M&M = 1/4
    F&M = 1/4
    M&F = 1/4
    F&F = 1/4

    The last is not going to work. There are four possibilities for 'having:'

    H&H = p^2
    N&H = p(1 - p)
    H&N = p(1 - p)
    N&N = (1 - p)^2

    Now combine them we see that if we take together M&F and F&M (there is no inherent difference) we get a few possibilities:

    M&M and H&H, N&H, H&N
    M&F and H&H, H&N.

    Compute the probabilities of being to say the statement is:

    1/2*1/2*(p^2 + 2p(1 - p)) +
    2*1/2*1/2*(p^2 + p(1 - p)) =
    p-p^2/4

    And the probability of there being another boy (independent of the statement) is:

    1/2*1/2(p^2 + 2p(1 - p)) = p/2-p^2/4

    And the probability of there being another boy is:

    (p/2-p^2/4)/(p-p^2/4) = (p-2)/(p-4)

    p = 1 and p = 1/7 gives the expected answer and as p -> 0, (p-2)/(p-4) -> 1/2 (because when p = 0 it is 1/2 and it is continuous on the interval [0, 1]). But p cannot be zero, or at least then the statement would never be said, so: (p - 2)(p - 4) is a strictly decreasing function from {0, 1] to [1/3, 1/2}.

  21. Principles of Restricted Choice by tangent3 · · Score: 3, Insightful

    This is related to the Principle of Restricted Choice often seen in Contract Bridge.

    If the parent has two boys born on a Tuesday, he could equally have declared the other boy as being born on a Tuesday. In a parallel universe, the other boy would have been declared as being born on a Tuesday, whereas if only one of the child was a boy born on Tuesday nothing would have changed in any of the other parallel universes. Therefore the effect is the probability of 2 boys borne on Tuesday has been halved, resulting in 13/27 probability of the second child being a boy.

    1. Re:Principles of Restricted Choice by baffled · · Score: 1

      so while the concept of parallel universes is necessary to comprehend statistical analysis, this does not indicate parallel universes actually exist, only that reality acts as if they do. kind of like an invisible friend..

      sorry, it's early, and after reading the article and the comments I still don't see a consensus on whether the second child can also be a boy born on a tuesday. is this an interesting statistical analysis or an interesting english analysis?

    2. Re:Principles of Restricted Choice by A+Nun+Must+Cow+Herd · · Score: 1

      That Bridge article is harder to understand than the answer to this pair of children problem ;-)

    3. Re:Principles of Restricted Choice by nu1x · · Score: 1

      If the parent has two boys born on a Tuesday, he could equally have declared the other boy as being born on a Tuesday.

      What is the probability of that ?

      --
      I have nothing to lose but my bindings.
    4. Re:Principles of Restricted Choice by skelterjohn · · Score: 1

      What is the difference between parallel universes existing, and reality acting as if they do?

  22. It's easy by RenHoek · · Score: 0

    While it's true that the Tuesday remark adds something to the dataset, it doesn't however influence the probability of the sex of the next child.
    Just like the sex of the first child doesn't affect the sex of the second child.

    So in the end, it's going to be a 50% chance.

    It's like asking, "I threw up a coin yesterday and it landed up heads. What is the chance it will land heads up today?"
     

    1. Re:It's easy by RenHoek · · Score: 1

      Ah right.. I get it.. while previous statement is 100% correct and true, the Tuesday statement does put down restrictions on the second child and thus reducing the 50% chance..

    2. Re:It's easy by Looce · · Score: 1

      I don't know about the chance of it landing heads up, but if you threw it up, it has a rather high chance of being damaged by your stomach acid...

    3. Re:It's easy by MMC+Monster · · Score: 1

      Exactly. The second child is not a boy born on a Tuesday.

      --
      Help! I'm a slashdot refugee.
    4. Re:It's easy by CProgrammer98 · · Score: 1

      "it doesn't however influence the probability of the sex of the next child."

      Except the problem doesn;t state that the son born on a Tuesday is the FIRST child. It could be the second, Actually the original prblem of "at least one of my two sons is a boy" is more like asking "I threw a coin up yesterday and also today, on at least one of the throws it landed up heads, what is the chance both of the throws landed up heads" giving the set {HH, HT, TH} of the 3 members, only one is HH so it's 1/3

      --
      And the people shall be oppressed, every one by another, and every one by his neighbour Isaiah 3:5
    5. Re:It's easy by impaledsunset · · Score: 1

      You're misreading the question. If you exclude the Tuesday part (which I still don't get, and I still doubt), the question is not what's the chance that the second child is a boy, which would be 50%. The question is what is the chance that both kids have the same sex. Since the fact that one of them is a boy doesn't bring any new information to the table about they being the same sex or not, the probability remains the same -- 1/3.

    6. Re:It's easy by Barny · · Score: 1

      No, that outcome is not specifically disallowed.

      It only states that one is a boy, he was born on a Tuesday.

      --
      ...
      /me sighs
    7. Re:It's easy by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      What's more important than Tuesday is whether or not you ate toast the morning of conception. Seriously the answer is fallacy to weigh a day so much as part of the problem without knowing more. The answer doesn't account for more than one spouse, i.e. the kids are half-siblings. Or that the answer is 100% because they were both adopted and the parent wanted all boys. On and on, maybe the speaker is lying. The fact is the supposed "answer" is wrong because it weighs an ASSUMPTION as fact without taking all the possibilities into account, some of which are not stated but can't be ignored.

      Even on the lying part the answerer is forced to ignore the possibility and ASSUME the speaker is not. Why am I forced to assume it is not possible that he/she is not lying. The statement makes no indication one way or another.

      Another commenter said, "you can't have twins because only one was born on Tuesday". The entire statement is an assumption. We don't know if they were twins both born on Tuesday, or if one was born on Monday 11:58p and the other at 12:05a Tuesday. Again not knowing any of that information how can you assume "you can't have twins".

      Another problem with the supposed "answer" is the fact we have no way to verify WHO was born on Tuesday, the parent, child #1, or child #2, it is COMPLETELY WRONG to make an assumption that is was a child that the statement is referring to. Reread the statement, the parent is talking about himself/herself and his/her 2 children, a group of people, "one of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday". You see the problem. It is entirely possible he is talking about himself. Don't tell me it's impossible to still be a boy and have children, physically it's not kids have kids; what's the record 6-8 yrs old?, culturally it's not(didn't have his right of passage yet or whatever; hence still a boy), maybe it was an older brother who took over the title after the parents died in a car crash.

      You can not pick and chose what you want to out of the problem(statement) to use when developing your answer.

      The problem is this is a problem of writing unambiguous English language sentences more than a probability problem. In other words mathematicians trying to be smart and sneaky in doing so including ambiguity into the statement. Their official answer is wrong, sort of. Rewrite the statement and get back to me. Oh but that's not any fun...having a clear concise English language sentence, it gives away the answer.

      Here's another way to put it, it's an answer, it's possible, so is 50%, so is any number I pick, even a random number, they are all technically correct some more than others, a probability of probabilities if you will. It all depends on what assumptions you want to take into account. As such, the official answer is only one of many correct answers. I can hear you all now, "you can't just..", yes I can, I just did.

      For all of you still in school don't let your professor get away with this crap. Make them rewrite it clearly, it might take a paragraph to do it, but make them do it. Otherwise their official answer is no more right than one that weighs other possibilities.

    8. Re:It's easy by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Not quite. Your analysis of the 1/2 chance would be correct if the statement had been that the first child is a boy. However, that is not what the statement was. The statement was that *one of two* children is a boy. The probability that both children are boys is then only 1/3.

      Why?

      There are for scenarios: BB, BG, GB, GG (where B is for boy, G is for girl). The statement excludes the scenario GG, so now only three equally likely scenarios are left. The probability of BB is therefore 1/3.

      The counterintuitive thing is that the Tuesday information then *increases* the probability that both children are boys. This can be somewhat explained by saying that the Tuesday information "narrows down" which one of the children is a boy. Imagine that after you heard the information, you met one child of the family and it happened to be a boy. Then you cannot be certain whether this is "the other child" or not. However, you could ask the child whether it was born on a Tuesday. If it wasn't then you know for a fact that the family has two boys.

    9. Re:It's easy by Reaper9889 · · Score: 1

      He might be. The question does not say one way or the other.

      The idea is that there are 198 posibillities for two children and the day they are born (as in: the first is a boy on a monday the second is a girl on sunday - there are 198 different statements like that). If you go through it you will see that excatly 27 of them contains a boy on a tuesday. Of those 27, 13 had two boys. Each of the events are equally likely - well not in the real world, but it would require a bit more info otherwise. So you end up with 13/27.

      A non-numerical version goes as follows. To easen the reading I will use unordered pairs:

      There are three sets. A set where the boy on a tuesday is born first, F, one there he is born second, S, and one where there are two boys on a tuesday, B. The S and F are equally large and the number of girl boy pairs are equally large in both (similary for boy boy pairs), but they contain a slightly larger probabillity for boy, girl pairs over boy, boy pairs(because neither S nor F contains two boys on a tuesday - they are in B - but they DO contain the posbillity that it is a boy on a tuesday and a girl on a tuesday). The difference is excatly such that if you add B to e.g. F the numbers of boy, girl pairs are equal to the number of boy, boy pairs. Therefore you will have a slightly larger probabillity for girl, boy pairs (because the number of boy, boy in F+B is equal to the number of boy, girl in F+B, but the number of girl, boy pairs are slightly larger than the number of boy, boy pairs in S).

    10. Re:It's easy by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Wrong

      In the first case you've already tossed two coins and you know one was head. Probability both are heads is 1/3.

      In the second case you're about to toss a coin and p(head) is 1/2.

      Difference is in the first case either coin can be the head; in the second case you know the first coin is a head.

      "It's easy" is not a good title for posts about counterintuition in probability.

    11. Re:It's easy by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It's like asking, "I threw up a coin yesterday and it landed up heads. What is the chance it will land heads up today?"

      No it isn't. That misses the whole point of the (rather silly) problem. The correct comparison whould be : it's like asking "I threw a coin twice yesterday. On one of those throws it landed up heads. What is the chance that the other throw also landed up heads?"

    12. Re:It's easy by nu1x · · Score: 1

      > He might be. The question does not say one way or the other.

      What is the probability of that ?

      --
      I have nothing to lose but my bindings.
    13. Re:It's easy by nu1x · · Score: 1

      > The question is what is the chance that both kids have the same sex.

      No, the question is what is the chance they're both boys ?

      We know that one is a boy. Ordering and extraneous info is actually irrelevant. There are two possible sets -- boy boy and boy girl.

      the chance is 1/2. Always. NO information is given about the second child, implicitly or explicitly. Anything else is mere trickery of the language -- "could have meant", etc. Logic has no place for ambiguity.

      --
      I have nothing to lose but my bindings.
    14. Re:It's easy by nu1x · · Score: 1

      > I threw a coin twice yesterday. On one of those throws it landed up heads. What is the chance that the other throw also landed up heads?

      Correction -- The question would be, what is the chance that they both landed up heads, and if one is known heads, there are only two sets, heads heads and heads (what we will call headless for this discussion). Otherwise, you're correct, and I am appaled at the state of discussion and people willingly putting up with verbal diarrhea and ambiguities to MIS explain a definition of simplicity in the form of a puzzle.

      --
      I have nothing to lose but my bindings.
    15. Re:It's easy by impaledsunset · · Score: 1

      Out of all fathers of two kids, 1/2 have a girl as the first one, and the other 1/2 - a boy. Same for the second one.

      This makes 4 groups of fathers that have two kids:

      1. boy, boy - 1/4
      2. boy, girl - 1/4
      3. girl, boy - 1/4
      4. girl, girl - 1/4

      That's something I don't think you'd doubt.

      If I tell you my first child is a boy, this means I'm either from group 1, or from group 2. Which means that the chance that the second child is a boy is 1/2.

      If I tell you that one of my child is a boy, I'm either from group 1, 2 or 3. If you do the counting, you'd find that only 1/3 of the parents from those groups have their second child being a boy, too!

    16. Re:It's easy by Attila+Dimedici · · Score: 1

      You're misreading the question. If you exclude the Tuesday part (which I still don't get, and I still doubt), the question is not what's the chance that the second child is a boy, which would be 50%. The question is what is the chance that both kids have the same sex. Since the fact that one of them is a boy doesn't bring any new information to the table about they being the same sex or not, the probability remains the same -- 1/3.

      Actually, the probabilty changes and is therefore 33% (not quite 1/3). If we do not know the sex of either child, the odds of both of them being boys is 25.8%, the odds of them being a girl and a boy is 52.2%.
      If we were to change the problem to one is a girl, the odds that the second one would be a girl would be 30%.
      The issue with this problem is that the gender of children is not truly random.

      --
      The truth is that all men having power ought to be mistrusted. James Madison
    17. Re:It's easy by nu1x · · Score: 1

      Well, I do not agree that boy - girl and girl - boy are not equivalent.

      Rephrased without double negatives: I think there are only 2 groups, boy - boy and boy-girl. Importance of ordering is not at all discussed in the question, leaving us with only 2 sets.

      Sorry, but I am not a lawyer - I interpret the question in the most simple way possible. Maybe this is where I am supposedly "wrong", but I do not care :P

      --
      I have nothing to lose but my bindings.
  23. Problems with the 1 boy 2 children question by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    I read the article and im wondering something. On the original question with answer 1/3 why is boy/boy only counted once it should be counted twice because with the given information there is 2 options. "Mentioned boy" / boy and boy / "mentioned boy" while they act as if the second boy is interchangeable with the mentioned boy which would be weird.
    Because on the boy/girl option they do care if the mentioned boy is first or last.

    Taking this in account you do get the intuitive answer of 1/2.

    If anyone could tell why that would be great

  24. Johnny's Mom Has 3 Kids... by mim · · Score: 5, Funny

    I used to tend bar and this is not a math puzzle, but fun for messing with the barflies when they've had a beer or 5 and start wanting to tell you their life story. First, as you pose the question, take out 3 coins (this only translates well using USA coins, one being a nickle, the other a penny, the third a quarter, dime or fifty cent piece) and state that "Johnny's Mom has 3 kids, the first one is named 'Penny,' (point to the penny) the second one is name is 'Nicky' (point to the nickle) and then point to the third coin (doesn't matter which you use) and ask What is the third child's name?" Then see how long it takes them to figure it out. And then whether or not they leave you a tip.

    1. Re:Johnny's Mom Has 3 Kids... by abigsmurf · · Score: 1

      The answer is Fred

      Johnny is 22 now, he's hardly a kid!

    2. Re:Johnny's Mom Has 3 Kids... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Clearly it's fitty cent

    3. Re:Johnny's Mom Has 3 Kids... by mim · · Score: 1

      Well, I heard that "Frederica" got "her" sex-change after being outed by Johnny.

    4. Re:Johnny's Mom Has 3 Kids... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      i've obviously not had enough to drink - what's the answer?

    5. Re:Johnny's Mom Has 3 Kids... by Target+Drone · · Score: 2, Informative

      i've obviously not had enough to drink - what's the answer?

      The riddle starts out as "Johnny's Mom has 3 kids" therefore one of the kids must be named Johnny.

    6. Re:Johnny's Mom Has 3 Kids... by Big_Oh · · Score: 1

      If slashdot had a like button, I'd be giving you some rapid-fire love now.

    7. Re:Johnny's Mom Has 3 Kids... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Sorry. I don't get it.

    8. Re:Johnny's Mom Has 3 Kids... by swillden · · Score: 1

      The answer is Fred Johnny is 22 now, he's hardly a kid!

      Most 22 year-olds are still kids.

      --
      Note to ACs: I usually delete AC replies without reading them. If you want to talk to me, log in.
    9. Re:Johnny's Mom Has 3 Kids... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      1. Quartermain
      2. Dimonda
      3. Curtis James Jackson III

      Obviously

    10. Re:Johnny's Mom Has 3 Kids... by mim · · Score: 1

      sweet, thanks! obviously someone gets it...hehehe! (:

    11. Re:Johnny's Mom Has 3 Kids... by DavidTC · · Score: 0

      That's a dumb puzzle.

      What if Johnny's a nickname?

      Or what if he's dead? (She would still be 'his mom', but he probably would not be included in the kid enumeration.)

      Not to mention, of course, 'three kids' and 'only three kids' aren't the same thing. I'd put the word 'only' in there if asking.

      --
      If corporations are people, aren't stockholders guilty of slavery?
    12. Re:Johnny's Mom Has 3 Kids... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I've never heard that one. How does it go? I'll pretend to be a barfly if that helps.

    13. Re:Johnny's Mom Has 3 Kids... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Informative

      Johnny.

    14. Re:Johnny's Mom Has 3 Kids... by mim · · Score: 1

      Hm, interesting. You'd be one of the aforementioned barflies for whom I'd find a different puzzle. That, or just slip you a mickey.

    15. Re:Johnny's Mom Has 3 Kids... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You actually had me there and I'm not even drunk. No tip for you!

    16. Re:Johnny's Mom Has 3 Kids... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      "Dime-Bag Johnny."

  25. OK I'm stupid by abigsmurf · · Score: 1

    I completely don't get the explanation at the initial stage. Namely that the possibility of the second child being a boy is 1/3.

    Once you're told that there's at least one boy, doesn't that mean that one result is fixed and has no outcome on the second result?

    The calculations for a 1/3 chance would make sense in the following situation: You flip two coins, if you get two tails, you flip again. What is the chance of you ending up with two heads?

    To me the question doesn't match the answer, the question is saying: This result happened, what is the chances of the second try being the same result? The answer is saying: One outcome is impossible, what is the chances of a certain outcome?

    Maybe I am being thick and not grasping basic probability...

    1. Re:OK I'm stupid by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      To me the question doesn't match the answer

      And therein lies the problem. You are reading the question differently.

      What you should be trying to answer is "what is the probability of the other child being a boy NOT born on a Tuesday?"
      Thus the 2nd child could be a boy (on any of 6 days) or a girl (on any of the 7 days).
      Combine this with the variations in birth order: B+B, B+G, G+B, (G+G not possible) and you get the answer. {though I'm not convinced by this last step myself}

    2. Re:OK I'm stupid by bdjbl · · Score: 1

      If I toss two coins in the air and tell you that one of them came up heads what is the probability the other one is also heads it would be 1 out of three the three possibility are 1) heads second one also heads 2) tails second one heads 3) heads second one tails so 1/3 if I said the fist coin came up heads then the odds of the second one being heads would be 1 out of 2 1) heads second one also heads 3) heads second one tails

    3. Re:OK I'm stupid by NonSequor · · Score: 1

      If someone has two children, one of which is a boy, what's the probability that both their children are girls?

      --
      My only political goal is to see to it that no political party achieves its goals.
    4. Re:OK I'm stupid by ceoyoyo · · Score: 3, Informative

      Close. The situation with coins is this:

      I flip a coin twice and record the answer. I repeat this many times. I discard all the pairs where both coins came up tails. I then select a pair where at least one toss came up heads. What is the probability that the other is also heads?

      The selection criteria screw up the probabilities. If instead I flip a coin, see that it comes up heads, and ask what the probability of it coming up heads again is, the answer is 50%.

    5. Re:OK I'm stupid by DavidTC · · Score: 1

      Exactly. I used exactly that analogy above.

      The question is, how did you get to the universe you're talking about?

      Did you go out and grab couples, assign them one boy, and then randomly assign them another child? Or did you find a couple with a boy and one other child, ignoring all the girl + girl couples? Or did you find a couple and you made them tell you the gender of a randomly selected child?

      Any of those are, indeed, 50/50 for the other kid.

      If, OTOH, you went out and assigned both children randomly, and then made all the girl + girl couples go home, that's entirely different. Or if you filtered the actual universe.

      There, you had four equal sets of people, you made one set go home, you have three equal sets...and two of them have a boy and a girl.

      What I don't understand is what the hell the day has to do with it.

      --
      If corporations are people, aren't stockholders guilty of slavery?
    6. Re:OK I'm stupid by ceoyoyo · · Score: 1

      There's a second selection step that's happening, and the day changes that.

      Look at it the other way around, from a filtering the population point of view. The question is, what proportion of the sub-population has two-boys? Suppose I start with all the two-child families. The 2B proportion is 25% (1B1G = 50%, 2G = 25%).

      Now I specify that the family in question has one boy, so I send all the 2G families home and I'm left with 2B=33%, 1B1G=66%. That's the standard question, with no day of week.

      Okay, now, instead of just one boy, I specify that the family has one boy, born on a Tuesday. So I send home all the 2G families, AND all the families that have one girl and one boy not born on a Tuesday, or two boys, neither born on a Tuesday. Supposing equal day of birth distribution, I send home all but 1-6/7 of the 1B1G families and (1-(6/7)^2) of the 2B families. Whoops, see what happened? Because there is a greater chance in the 2B families that one of them was born on a Tuesday, the proportion goes up. The proportions are now 1B1G - 52%, 2B - 48%.

      As the criteria becomes more selective, the proportion gets closer and closer to 50/50.

    7. Re:OK I'm stupid by DavidTC · · Score: 1

      I can see how that would change the odds, but I don't see how it would change them anywhere near that much.

      I just did that math, and 6/7 is .86, whereas that squared is .73. So you're sending home that percentage of each. (Aka, all but that percentage minus 1)

      I can see how that would change some odds, but not to 52%! That's only a 13% difference in charge to start with, and it somehow made another percentage drop 14%. (And percentages don't add like that anyway.)

      --
      If corporations are people, aren't stockholders guilty of slavery?
    8. Re:OK I'm stupid by ceoyoyo · · Score: 1

      It's a little unintuitive, but the math works out. Remember, there's not only an excess of double-boys-with-birthdays-on-tuesday, but you're also severely cutting the total number of families available for selection (sending home 86% of B-G and 73% of B-B). The difference is 13% of the original sample - it's a considerably larger part of the reduced sample after you send home all the non-Tuesday families.

    9. Re:OK I'm stupid by DavidTC · · Score: 1

      Oh, okay. I was thinking the other way around.

      Yeah, if you keep only 14% of the B-G, and 26% of the BB, that's seriously going to skew things. That's, um, 14%*66% vs. 27%*33%. (The most confusing way of writing that math ever.) That gets me .0924 vs 0.0891 per family, or 924 B-G and 891 B-B left per 10000 two-children families.

      I wonder if you can get over 50% B-B doing that. Seems like you could. What if the problem was changed to, for example, 'one boy born on a full moon'?

      And thanks for explaining all that. It is very unintuitive...OTOH, so is the original 1/3 result in the first place!

      --
      If corporations are people, aren't stockholders guilty of slavery?
    10. Re:OK I'm stupid by ceoyoyo · · Score: 1

      I don't think you could get over 50%. I suspect the function approaches the original probability asymptotically.

      For example, choose a 1/1000 factor, or combination of factors (considerably rarer than being born on a full moon). The resulting probability is 0.5001 B-G vs. 0.4999 B-B.

  26. He is wrong by Endophage · · Score: 1

    OK, so I'm not a mathematician but I have done a lot of maths and logic in my time and I believe the description of the Two Birthdays problem is wrong but maybe a mathematician here can correct me. In that simpler problem, Devlin and therefore I assume Gardner, make an issue of the order in which the children were born, creating the possibilities:

    • Boy, Girl
    • Boy, Boy
    • Girl, Boy

    If I annotate this it may become more clear why I think they are wrong.

    • Boy (known, older), Girl (unknown, younger)
    • Boy (known, older), Boy (unknown, younger)
    • Girl (unknown, older), Boy (known, younger)

    Now, where is the situation where the known male child is the younger child, i.e. the Boy (unknown, older), Boy (known, younger) scenario. Does the order somehow become unimportant just because they are both boys? It we add this 4th possibility then the possibility of the "other" child being a boy returns to a half and sanity is preserved.

    If I've missed something completely here I'd love to hear why, these problems fascinate me. To really understand variable change I had to write myself a little simulator and it wasn't until I was putting it into code that I understood it properly :-P

    1. Re:He is wrong by argggh · · Score: 1

      The underlying premise is that the pair of children is selected from a global set of pairs of children where distribution of traits (gender, day of birth etc) is uniform. By applying the logic you're describing, you're selecting some of the pairs twice, thereby skewing the distribution. The stated result in the article only applies when the children are selected as a pair from the overall population. We normally don't do that, so our intuition isn't geared for it.

    2. Re:He is wrong by Endophage · · Score: 1

      I don't know how I am selecting some pairs twice. Children can only be born in one order, one is always older, one always younger. In the definition of the problem we don't know if the child that is known to be male is the older or younger of the two. As we have made it significant whether the male child is older or younger than the female child, then it must in general be significant whether the child of known sex is older or younger than the child of unknown sex. Therefore we must consider the 2 cases of both children being boys but in one case, the known child being the older and in the other case, the known child being younger. This doesn't select the same pairs twice, just because the pair might be two boys doesn't change the fact that one is older and one is younger.

    3. Re:He is wrong by Endophage · · Score: 1

      In fact, by your definition that the children are simply selected as a pair, only one of "Boy, Girl" and "Girl, Boy" as these pairs are identical. If order of birth is an issue for our Girl, Boy pairs then it must also be an issue for our Boy, Boy pairs.

    4. Re:He is wrong by argggh · · Score: 1

      In a general (idealized) population, the pairs (boy, boy), (boy, girl), (girl, boy), (girl, girl) are all equally likely, 1/4. Agreed? When you remove (girl, girl), the remaining combinations are 1/3 each. If you first count the pairs where the older child is a boy, you need to remove these pairs from the population before counting the pairs where the younger is a boy, or you'll count the same pair twice.

    5. Re:He is wrong by argggh · · Score: 1

      Agreed, but then you have to account for the fact that (boy, girl) has twice the probability of occuring as (boy, boy) or (girl, girl). (But the same probability as these combined -- which matches intuition, that two given children have a 50% probability of being the same gender.) Listing the pairs as four distinct cases with equal probability makes this clear.

    6. Re:He is wrong by A+Nun+Must+Cow+Herd · · Score: 1

      The {known/unknown} bit is applied after the gender is fixed. By adding a fourth boy/boy option you're skewing the relative probabilities (rather than just removing the cases that no longer apply).

      Maybe think of it this way: suppose there are 1000 pairs of children taken randomly from the population. On average, 250 of the pairs will be two boys, 250 two girls, and 500 a boy and a girl.

      So if one pair is taken randomly from that group, and you are told at least one of the pair is a boy, then you know it's one of the 750 pairs other than girl/girl. 250 of those pairs are boy/boy, the remaining 500 are girl/boy - leaving you with a probability of 33% that it's boy/boy.

    7. Re:He is wrong by Endophage · · Score: 1

      OK, I still don't get your line of reasoning but I've come up with a model that explains it in a very physical way that I can follow (and agrees with the published solution). Imagine 2 coins, one gold, one silver, and both of them have G for girl printed on one side and B for boy printed on the other. We can flip these coins in any order but the order we flip them in denotes the order in which the two children are born.

      That gives us the following possibilities:

      • gold + B and silver + B
      • gold + G and silver + G
      • silver + B and gold + B
      • silver + G and gold + G
      • gold + B and silver + G
      • gold + G and silver + B
      • silver + B and gold + G
      • silver + G and gold + B

      As we can see, there are 8 possibilities. By being told one of the children is a boy, we can remove the (G, G) results from or problem space. That leaves only 2 (B, B) results in a problem space of 6 possibilities.

      Right! Now I've got it! :-D

  27. Science and Intuition defeating Fun Math by Effugas · · Score: 1, Insightful

    Take a thousand families, with two children, where one of the children was a boy born on a Tuesday.

    I don't mean a thousand theoretical families. I mean, lets say you straight up took one thousand real families, that matched the above constraints, straight out of the census. No joke, you break out the SQL.

    When you check the gender of the other child, you are going to see the breakdown of gender being 50% male, 50% female.

    Now, I know there's a lot of fun handwaving going on. Here's the flaw, in a nutshell. There are indeed three possibilities, when one child is constrained to be a boy:

    boy, girl
    girl, boy
    boy, boy

    The mistake -- and it is a mistake, because when you actually run the experiment, the hypothesis is invalidated -- is thinking that each of the above cases is equally likely. Specifically, order of birth has been incorrectly elevated as a determining factor. So we see:

    boy, girl: 33%
    girl, boy: 33%
    boy, boy: 33%

    When we really should be seeing:

    boy, boy: 50%
    boy, girl: 25%
    girl, boy: 25%

    Or, more accurately:

    same-gender, both male: 50%
    different-gender: 50%
          boy first: 25%
          girl first: 25%

    Another way to frame the query, with similar results, is to say:

    Select the gender of all second children where the first child was born on a Tuesday and the first child was male.

    Select the gender of all first children where the second child was born on a Tuesday and the second child was male.

    You'll note the girl, girl families will show up in neither result set. So they can do nothing to skew the numbers.

    The results of both queries will, predictably, be 50/50 male and female.

    This is a good example of why framing a problem correctly is so difficult and critical. It's only because this problem is so amenable to experimental formulation that it's easily defensible.

    (Note that the use of Tuesday was an excellent DoS against math geeks.)

    (Note also, by the way, this is the exact opposite of the Monty Hall problem. In that problem, people are expecting:

    Door 2: 50%
    Door 3: 50% ...when, really, we have:

    Host Told You Where The Car Was: 66%
          Was Behind 3, Therefore Exposed 2: 33%
          Was Behind 2, Therefore Exposed 3: 33%
    Host Didn't Tell You Where The Car Was: 33%
          Randomly Exposed 2: 16.5%
          Randomly Exposed 3: 16.5%

    If you modify the Monty Hall problem, such that he opens a random door *which might actually expose the car*, then when he opens the door and you see a goat, it doesn't matter whether you switch or not.)

    1. Re:Science and Intuition defeating Fun Math by Turnpike+Lad · · Score: 1

      Not quite. Let's ignore the restriction that one of the children has to be a boy. Then let's examine all possible outcomes when a family has two children.

      Whenever a family has a child, let's say that the probability that it is either a girl or a boy is 50%. (It's slightly different, but that will gum up the conceptual math now; you can factor that into our calculations later if you want to get a slightly different answer.) So a family with one child has two equally weighted possibilities:

      girl (50%)
      boy (50%)

      When this family has a second child, this is another event with two equally likely outcomes: that the second child will be a boy, or that it will be a girl. The probability that the family who had a boy has a second boy is now the same as the probability that that family now has a girl.

      Thus "boy-boy" and "boy-girl" are equally likely.

      "Girl-boy" and "girl-girl" are also equally likely. Since the first birth was also fifty-fifty, there are now four equally likely outcomes:

      Boy/boy (25%)
      Boy/girl (25%)
      Girl/boy (25%)
      Girl/girl (25%)

      All this is true BEFORE Gardner's problem begins. When the father says "I have a boy", he's telling us that he isn't among those families who had two girls. The removal of the fourth possible outcome for families with two children doesn't change the fact that the first three were equally likely. So for families with two children, at least one of whom is a boy, we have _three_ equally likely outcomes:

      boy/boy (33%)
      boy/girl (33%)
      girl/boy (33%)

      This must be correct because we have derived it from the simple fact that when a family has a child it's roughly equally likely to be a boy or a girl.

      Only one of these three outcomes has two boys, so the chance that the father has two sons is 33%.

    2. Re:Science and Intuition defeating Fun Math by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      > The results of both queries will, predictably, be 50/50 male and female.

      My understanding is (and I might be wrong) that some families will be returned by both queries: The boy-boy families. When you combine the queries in a distinct way such that each matching family is only returned once, the gender probability for the other child is no longer 50/50.

      Since English is not my first language, I cannot tell you which of these two results is the correct one :-P.

    3. Re:Science and Intuition defeating Fun Math by k.a.f. · · Score: 1

      If you modify the Monty Hall problem, such that he opens a random door *which might actually expose the car*, then when he opens the door and you see a goat, it doesn't matter whether you switch or not.)

      Unfortunately, almost no retelling of the Monty Hall problem makes this clear. On the contrary, most of them strongly imply that the opened door was really a random door, which makes the whole controversy pretty much moot.

    4. Re:Science and Intuition defeating Fun Math by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Take a thousand families, with two children, where one of the children was a boy born on a Tuesday.

      I don't mean a thousand theoretical families. I mean, lets say you straight up took one thousand real families, that matched the above constraints, straight out of the census. No joke, you break out the SQL.

      When you check the gender of the other child, you are going to see the breakdown of gender being 50% male, 50% female.

      Now, I know there's a lot of fun handwaving going on. Here's the flaw, in a nutshell. There are indeed three possibilities, when one child is constrained to be a boy:

      boy, girl
      girl, boy
      boy, boy

      The mistake -- and it is a mistake, because when you actually run the experiment, the hypothesis is invalidated -- is thinking that each of the above cases is equally likely. Specifically, order of birth has been incorrectly elevated as a determining factor. So we see:

      boy, girl: 33%
      girl, boy: 33%
      boy, boy: 33%

      When we really should be seeing:

      boy, boy: 50%
      boy, girl: 25%
      girl, boy: 25%

      Or, more accurately:

      same-gender, both male: 50%
      different-gender: 50%

            boy first: 25%

            girl first: 25%

      This post (specifically the claim of 50% boy-boy families if you did this search in a real census database) is incorrect.

      Assuming standard birth proportions, the census database you searched might have, in its first 1332 rows, (in expectation) 333 boy-boy, 333 boy-girl, 333 girl-boy, and 333 girl-girl families. If you restrict the query to families with at least one boy, it should be trivially obvious that you'll find the first 999 (~=1000) have equal proportions of boy-boy, boy-girl, girl-boy, exactly like (most of) the other posts state.

    5. Re:Science and Intuition defeating Fun Math by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Ok, I tried it (with a random simulation).

      I generated 1000000 pairs of children at random (assuming sex and birth weekday were independent and the children were independent of each other)

      Then I filtered this set to pick out only those families with a boy born on Tuesday (which child didn't matter).

      Then I filtered the result of that operation to pick out pairs of children where both were boys.

      Here are the results:


          137247 families had a boy born on a Tuesday
            65822 of those had two boys
      Estimated probability: 0.4796
      13/27 is 0.4815

      Certainly closer to 13/27 than it is to 1/2, no?

    6. Re:Science and Intuition defeating Fun Math by snowgirl · · Score: 3, Informative

      No joke, you break out the SQL.

      I did so.

      I generated a bunch of SQL records, into a table with two relevant fields, both binary. (Male was indicated by false, female was indicated by true).

      Then I counted how many SQL records were returned WHERE gender1 = male OR gender2 = male
      Then I counted how many SQL records were returned WHERE gender1 = male AND gender2 = male.

      The results? Out of a population of 100,000 records: 24940 male-male, 74893 at least one male. Yielding 1/3 to the third decimal place.

      The mistake you made (and it is a mistake, because you claim your experiment would show a result that it empirically does not) is that you failed to count properly. There will always be approximately twice as many records with one boy as there are two boy records.

      It's not the BIRTH ORDER that turns this problem into something interesting.

      As a side note, in the future, actually run your experiments if it is actually feasible to do so.

      --
      WARNING! This girl exceeds the MAXIMUM SAFE standards established by the FDA for BRATTINESS
    7. Re:Science and Intuition defeating Fun Math by snowgirl · · Score: 2, Insightful

      #!/usr/bin/perl

      my @set;

      for my $gen (1 .. 100000) {
                      my $sex1 = rand > 0.5 ? "m" : "f";
                      my $sex2 = rand > 0.5 ? "m" : "f";

                      push @set, [$sex1, $sex2];
      }

      my $count = 0;
      my $total = 0;

      foreach my $pair (@set) {
                      next if ($$pair[0] ne "m" and $$pair[1] ne "m");

                      $total++;

                      $count++ if ($$pair[0] eq $$pair[1]);
      }

      print "$count / $total\n";

      --
      WARNING! This girl exceeds the MAXIMUM SAFE standards established by the FDA for BRATTINESS
    8. Re:Science and Intuition defeating Fun Math by FalcDot · · Score: 1

      Do it with actual numbers and not percentages, because you're getting tripped up by the fact that your total population changes.

      Take 1000 families, with two children. Assuming a perfect distribution, every possible combination of boy/girl for both children results is represented 250 times. Note that the actual order of the children is largely irrelevant, but if you ignore order you still have 250 families with two boys, 250 with two girls and 500 with one of each.

      Now you take the next step. You reveal that at least one child must be a boy. This means you eliminate 250 families from your population, namely those with 2 girls. You're left with a population of 750, 500 of which have a girl as well and 250 who have another boy.

      Now, pick one family at random from those 750. The odds of getting one with two boys is 250/750 or 1/3.

      Yes, 1/4 of (all families with 2 children) has 2 boys, but 1/3 of (all families with 2 children AND at least one boy) has two boys.

    9. Re:Science and Intuition defeating Fun Math by Effugas · · Score: 1

      Alright. It's 4:21AM, I'm in a random hotel room with a $400 voucher from Delta, and somewhere, someone on the Internet is wrong.

      This sounds like a job for SQL.

      First, lets start with a table:

      # echo "describe families" | mysql test
      Field Type Null Key Default Extra
      child1_gender char(1) YES NULL
      child1_day int(11) YES NULL
      child2_gender char(1) YES NULL
      child2_day int(11) YES NULL

      Now, lets put a million records in it.

      # echo "select count(*) from families" | mysql test
      count(*)
      1025537
      # echo "select * from families limit 10" | mysql test
      child1_gender child1_day child2_gender child2_day
      F 1 M 0
      F 4 M 3
      M 1 F 1
      F 5 M 1
      M 0 M 3
      F 0 F 3
      M 0 M 2
      M 4 F 1
      M 6 M 3
      F 3 F 1

      (We're going to define 2 as Tuesday.) Now, lets look at the problem statement:

      "I have two children, one of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?"

      We're going to translate that to, as in parent post.

      Select the gender of all second children where the first child was born on a Tuesday and the first child was male.

      Select the gender of all first children where the second child was born on a Tuesday and the second child was male.

      Or, in actual SQL:

      select child2_gender,count(*) from families where child1_gender = "M" and child1_day=2 group by child2_gender;
      select child1_gender,count(*) from families where child2_gender = "M" and child2_day=2 group by child1_gender;

      The results?

      # echo 'select child2_gender,count(*) from families where child1_gender = "M" and child1_day=2 group by child2_gender;' | mysql test
      child2_gender count(*)
      F 36593
      M 36617

      # echo 'select child1_gender,count(*) from families where child2_gender = "M" and child2_day=2 group by child1_gender;' | mysql test
      child1_gender count(*)
      F 36811
      M 37031

      So, in the first set, we see 49.58% male for the other child. In the second set, we see 50.14% male for the other child.

      And in myself, I find a renewed respect for numerical simulation. Happy Tuesday!

    10. Re:Science and Intuition defeating Fun Math by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      So, I tested this out, as below:

      I set up an Excel sheet for 500 trials. In the child 1 and child 2 cells, I used ROUND(RAND(),0). This is basically a pseudorandom coin flip. 50% of the time it will be 1, 50% it will be 0. I designate the value 1 to mean a boy, and the value 0 to mean a girl. I then do some summations and some IF statements to sort through it all. The result is that the number of two-girl families is always within 1% of 25%, boy-girl families is within 1% of 50% percent, and boy-boy families is the remaining 25%.

      So, in the case of "at least one boy," two-thirds of the time the other child is a girl, and one-third it's a boy, not what you described above.

      I realize I'm not actually pounding the census here, but I think the underlying system represents what's happening, and this doesn't square with what you've described below. It's a classic of coordinated probabilities.

    11. Re:Science and Intuition defeating Fun Math by Shin-LaC · · Score: 1

      You are literally thinking like the girl in this joke.

      But ok, I guess the only way to settle this is by experiment. Start sending in women, and I'll get back to you in nine months.

    12. Re:Science and Intuition defeating Fun Math by takowl · · Score: 1

      same-gender, both male: 50% different-gender: 50% boy first: 25% girl first: 25%

      I don't think that's right. If you took a thousand two-child families from the census, they would be evenly split between same-gender and opposite gender. But the same-gender families would be equally two-boys and two-girls. If you drop the families with two girls, the same-gender families are only one third of the remaining set, taking us back to the 33% probabilities that you discounted.

    13. Re:Science and Intuition defeating Fun Math by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      But wait! 13/27 is in fact, 48.148%. Clearly I need more records for statistical significance. Stay tuned.

    14. Re:Science and Intuition defeating Fun Math by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Yes, the result of both queries is 50/50 male/female; ignoring the day of the week:

      Select #1 gets BB BG
      Select #2 gets BB GB

      But the two sets are not disjoint so the overall probability is 1/3 BB not 1/2 BB.

      I don't know where you get BB 50% GB 25% BG 25% that's just wrong; you're double-counting the BB elements.

      The problem with your analysis is that you do too see these results on your SQL query; you just don't understand probability well enough to predict that ahead of time. Go ahead and try it. The whole point is to predict the results of this query (I like your approach) but it's not as simple as it looks given non-disjoint results from your various queries.

    15. Re:Science and Intuition defeating Fun Math by mrogers · · Score: 1

      Take a thousand families, with two children, where one of the children was a boy born on a Tuesday.

      At least one of the children. That's the crucial difference. If you look at two-child families where the first child's a boy born on a Tuesday, then yes, the probability that the second child's a boy is 1/2. Similarly, if you look at two-child families where the second child's a boy born on a Tuesday, then the probability that the first child's a boy is 1/2. But if you look at two-child families where either or both of the children is a boy born on a Tuesday, the probability that both children are boys is 13/27.

      Seriously. Here's the code. Try it for yourself.

    16. Re:Science and Intuition defeating Fun Math by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Once again Slashdot need a mod choice of "flat out wrong"

    17. Re:Science and Intuition defeating Fun Math by tendays · · Score: 1

      Sorry but you are wrong. In the first part of your comment, the three cases (boy boy, boy girl and girl boy) are equally likely.

      If you don't make the "one of the children is a boy" hypothesis, then these three cases all have 25% probability, and girl-girl has 25% probability as well.

      You're right that same sex (girl girl + boy boy = 25% + 25%) and different sex (girl boy + boy girl = 25% + 25%) both have probability 50%.

      But the problem says *knowing that one of the children is a boy*, what's the probability the other also is, i.e. what's the probability of the boy boy case assuming we aren't in the girl girl case. That gives 25% divided by 75%. IOW, knowing that one of the children is a boy, we're in case boy boy with probability 33%, boy girl with probability 33% and girl boy with probability 33%.

      In the second part of your comment you're counting twice the families that have two boys, both born on a Tuesday, which is why you get probability 14/28=50% instead of 13/27.

      What you said about the Monty Hall problem is correct.

    18. Re:Science and Intuition defeating Fun Math by Odinlake · · Score: 1

      The mistake -- and it is a mistake, because when you actually run the experiment, the hypothesis is invalidated -- is thinking that each of the above cases is equally likely.

      Finally; good explanation! And really, anyone should strongly suspect foul logic after reading the proposition (33%).. After all the ordering by birth is completely arbitrary - we can get the same (faulty) result by ordering by IQ or level of ugliness.

    19. Re:Science and Intuition defeating Fun Math by Effugas · · Score: 1

      OK, now with 3.13M families:

      # echo 'select child1_gender,count(*) from families where child2_gender = "M" and child2_day=2 group by child1_gender;' | mysql test
      child1_gender count(*)
      F 111608
      M 112037

      50.095% male. If I remove the Tuesday constraint?

      # echo 'select child1_gender,count(*) from families where child2_gender = "M" group by child1_gender;' | mysql test
      child1_gender count(*)
      F 783068
      M 784087

      50.03% male.

      But you know, perhaps I'm being not literal enough. It's always possible to misencode a problem, and there's a lot of insistence that you have to handle the overlapping case of boy/boy. So, lets try a different mechanism. Lets literally do what the problem asks:

      "I have two children, one of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?"

      For each family, if either of the children is male, return whether they are both male.

      # echo 'select child1_gender=child2_gender from families where (child1_gender="M" and child1_day=2) or (child2_gender="M" and child2_day="2") ' | mysql test | sort | uniq -c | sort -n
      1 child1_gender=child2_gender
      207934 1
      223445 0

      ...heh! That's kind of neat! I think I shall play with this some more.

    20. Re:Science and Intuition defeating Fun Math by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The best way to get an intuitive feel for the Monty Hall problem is to do it with increasingly more doors and increasingly, all of which are opened.

      100 closed doors, one of which is hiding a car:

      You select one door. The host then opens 98 of the remaining doors, leaving just 2 doors closed. He gives you a final chance to change your selection.

      What does your intuition tell you to do?

      I think a lot of people would switch to the other door.

    21. Re:Science and Intuition defeating Fun Math by Effugas · · Score: 1

      Fascinating! Looks like I got to spend the night being wrong myself. Serves me right for being so cocky.

      It seems that the key to this question is that there are boy/boy pairs where neither boy was born on a Tuesday. That's why Tuesday matters:

      If your first child was not a boy, you cannot pass.
      If your first child was a boy born on Tuesday, your second child only needs to be a boy to pass.
      If your first child was a boy born not on Tuesday, your second child both needs to be a boy, and needs to be born on a Tuesday to pass.

      Given this complex constraint set, it's unsurprising that 50% doesn't actually show up.

    22. Re:Science and Intuition defeating Fun Math by ceoyoyo · · Score: 1

      You have managed to describe precisely the unlikely situation where the non-intuitive answer is correct.

      same-gender, both male: 50%
      different-gender: 50%
                  boy first: 25%
                  girl first: 25%

      You'll note the girl, girl families will show up in neither result set. So they can do nothing to skew the numbers.

      The results of both queries will, predictably, be 50/50 male and female.

      By selecting only pairs where at least one child is male you've discarded all the girl/girl families. So the ratio of girls to boys in your new set won't be 50/50, will it? By not selecting girl/girl families you have indeed skewed the numbers. By making selections and imposing criteria you've screwed up the sex distribution in your set.

      You've also made the dangerous mistake of stating absolutely what the result of an experiment will be without actually trying it.

    23. Re:Science and Intuition defeating Fun Math by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Aren't you're constraining the pool before computing the probabilities when the point of the exercise is to consider the probability against the entire pool of possibilities and then eliminate those that don't meet the criteria?

    24. Re:Science and Intuition defeating Fun Math by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Slight discrepancy here that gives you issues:

      Select the gender of all second children where the first child was born on a Tuesday and the first child was male.
      UNION ALL
      Select the gender of all first children where the second child was born on a Tuesday and the second child was male.

      Will give you 50% male / 50% female (where the M/M family is selected twice).

      Select the gender of all second children where the first child was born on a Tuesday and the first child was male.
      UNION
      Select the gender of all first children where the second child was born on a Tuesday and the second child was male.

      Will give you 1 male for every 2 females. For every family with 2 boys, there are 2 families with a boy and a girl.

    25. Re:Science and Intuition defeating Fun Math by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      When we really should be seeing:

      boy, boy: 50%
      boy, girl: 25%
      girl, boy: 25%

      No. Seriously. Run a computer simulation and measure it. This isn't very hard, the math is correct, and you are just flat-out wrong.

      Host Told You Where The Car Was: 66%
                  Was Behind 3, Therefore Exposed 2: 33%
                  Was Behind 2, Therefore Exposed 3: 33%
      Host Didn't Tell You Where The Car Was: 33%
                  Randomly Exposed 2: 16.5%
                  Randomly Exposed 3: 16.5%

      If you modify the Monty Hall problem, such that he opens a random door *which might actually expose the car*, then when he opens the door and you see a goat, it doesn't matter whether you switch or not.)

      No. What the fuck is this? I don't even..,

      How did you guys mod this to 5/5? He doesn't have a clue what he's talking about.

    26. Re:Science and Intuition defeating Fun Math by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I mean, lets say you straight up took one thousand real families, that matched the above constraints, straight out of the census. No joke, you break out the SQL. When you check the gender of the other child, you are going to see the breakdown of gender being 50% male, 50% female. [...] This is a good example of why framing a problem correctly is so difficult and critical. It's only because this problem is so amenable to experimental formulation that it's easily defensible.

      Then why the hell didn't you do it?

      $ python -c "import sqlite3, random
      c = sqlite3.connect(':memory:').cursor()
      c.execute('create table test (a, b)')
      for i in range(1000): c.execute('insert into test values (?, ?)', (random.randint(0, 1), random.randint(0, 1)))
      print list(c.execute('select count(*) from test where a=0 or b=0'))
      print list(c.execute('select count(*) from test where a=0 and b=0'))"
      [(761,)]
      [(247,)]

      Looks like 1/3 to me...

    27. Re:Science and Intuition defeating Fun Math by Junta · · Score: 1

      I generated 1000000 pairs of children at random

      Holy crap you were busy

      --
      XML is like violence. If it doesn't solve the problem, use more.
    28. Re:Science and Intuition defeating Fun Math by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      If you modify the Monty Hall problem, such that he opens a random door *which might actually expose the car*, then when he opens the door and you see a goat, it doesn't matter whether you switch or not.

      What? Of course it matters. If you see a goat behind a door randomly selected among the doors you didn't pick, then you're back to the original Monty Hall problem and you should switch.

    29. Re:Science and Intuition defeating Fun Math by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Where's your Tuesday?

      Why do you invalidate his experiment with an experiment that is not the one he is talking about.

      As a side note, in the future, actually understand what "invalidate" means before invalidating.

      P.S. I am not saying he was right, just that your invalidation is wrong.

    30. Re:Science and Intuition defeating Fun Math by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      As a side note, I would say say Male would be indicated by 1 while Female by 0. Just for stereotypicallness.

    31. Re:Science and Intuition defeating Fun Math by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      Where's your Tuesday?

      Why do you invalidate his experiment with an experiment that is not the one he is talking about.

      As a side note, in the future, actually understand what "invalidate" means before invalidating.

      P.S. I am not saying he was right, just that your invalidation is wrong.

      Actually read the problem that he presents, and not the summary he purports at the beginning.

      They vary.

      --
      WARNING! This girl exceeds the MAXIMUM SAFE standards established by the FDA for BRATTINESS
    32. Re:Science and Intuition defeating Fun Math by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      Snowgirl shall choose her binary values by her own prerogative.

      --
      WARNING! This girl exceeds the MAXIMUM SAFE standards established by the FDA for BRATTINESS
    33. Re:Science and Intuition defeating Fun Math by Eminor · · Score: 1

      Counting properly is important. We already *know* that one gender is male, and your over counting it when you tally your total. You are considering order when one child is female in 'WHERE gender1 = male OR gender2 = male', but not when both are males.

      If you want to make the claim that it's not the birth order that makes it interesting, then don't make it interesting.

      We know one child is male. We don't know the others gender. This gives us:

      10
      11

      Query that and you'll get 1/2.

      Your query isn't wrong, your data is.

    34. Re:Science and Intuition defeating Fun Math by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      No, we know that one of the boys is male, but we don't know WHICH of the children is male, which is the reason why the question is so interesting.

      That's the whole point to the Twin Boy problem. People fail to count properly.

      I posted the freaking source code showing empirically that of all pairs where at least one is "m", the odds that the other is "m" as well is 1 in 3, because there are statistically twice as many "boy-girl" COMBINATIONS as "boy-boy" COMBINATIONS.

      The reason why there are statistically twice as many "boy-girl" COMBINATIONS is because there are two PERMUTATIONS that result in a "boy-girl" COMBINATION.

      --
      WARNING! This girl exceeds the MAXIMUM SAFE standards established by the FDA for BRATTINESS
  28. I love mathematicians... by itsdapead · · Score: 5, Funny

    Take an abstract mathematical problem, invent a pseudo-real-world context, rephrase the problem very sloppily and ambiguously in plain English then laugh smugly when people get the wrong answer.

    The correct answer to the question, by the way, is "I don't know - you have not given me enough information, and I'd have to go check that the gender of successive offspring from the same couple is actually independent, but its probably gonna be somewhere between 1/3 and 2/3 - and since you'd have to somehow re-formulate it as a viable experiment and run it 100 times to confirm that result, only the Bayesians give a flying fuck what the precise value is".

    In other news: you can't actually build a hotel with an infinite number of rooms - you'd run out of bricks - so don't try and engage my interest in all the weird thing that would happen if you did something impossible. And stop hiding goats behind my door!

    --
    In a survey of 100 programmers, 111111 thought that duck-typing was a good idea.
    1. Re:I love mathematicians... by Asmor · · Score: 5, Funny

      In other news: you can't actually build a hotel with an infinite number of rooms - you'd run out of bricks

      Don't let the venture capitalist who's funding me know that. I duped him into paying me an infinite amount of money! He paid me $1000 for the first room, $500 for the second, $250 for the third, etc. I'll be rich! Rich, I tells ya! I've been eying this nice $2000 watch, and I should have enough for it any day now...

    2. Re:I love mathematicians... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Actually, statisticians are applying math, they are not mathematicians per se.So, don't be mad at mathematicians. Unfortunately, statisticians (much like fortune tellers) would like to present their trade as science...

    3. Re:I love mathematicians... by ais523 · · Score: 1

      My favourite question along these lines (I think also from one of Gardner's books, may have been one of Hofstadter's or even someone else's, I have a bad memory for this sort of thing) is "Given a circle of radius 1, pick a random secant of it. What's the chance that the length of the segment of that secant that's inside the circle is at least sqrt(3)/2?". There are plausible-seeming mathematical justifications for a whole lot of answers, which contradict each other; you can get "proofs" that the answer is 1/3, 1/2, 1/4, and probably other values. (The true answer is "I don't know. What method are you using to select a random secant, anyway?".)

      --
      (1)DOCOMEFROM!2~.2'~#1WHILE:1<-"'?.1$.2'~'"':1/.1$.2'~#0"$#65535'"$"'"'&.1$.2'~'#0$#65535'"$#0'~#32767$#1"
    4. Re:I love mathematicians... by halcyon1234 · · Score: 2, Insightful

      "I have two children, one of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?"

      "I don't know - you have not given me enough information"

      So the correct answer is "That depends. Is your other child a boy?"

    5. Re:I love mathematicians... by Sneftel · · Score: 1

      I can't tell whether you're actually espousing the frequentist interpretation of probability, or are parodying it. My hat is off to you.

      --
      The opinions stated herein do not necessarily represent those of anybody at all. Deal with it.
    6. Re:I love mathematicians... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Actually, if you add numbers of the form 1/2^n from n=1, 2, ... to infinity, you get 2. Multiplying that by the initial value of $1000 gives that in total he will pay you only $2000. So even in the ideal math world he's not paying you an infinite amount of money and you may not want to spend it all on that watch.

      Looks like he's duped you. Gotta watch out for those VCs who know calculus.

    7. Re:I love mathematicians... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      1000+500+250+125+75+37.5+18.75=2006.25

      thats only 7 rooms, next time try looking for a more expensive watch thats under the point of convergence (say, $2026)

    8. Re:I love mathematicians... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Jackass, get your math right - half of 125 is not 75

    9. Re:I love mathematicians... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      not funny, you hit 2000 after only 7 bricks. try again.

  29. Fail by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    The condition "only one of which is boy born on Tuesday" places constraints on the sex of BOTH children.

  30. one or only one? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    If it were "only one of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday" then it would preclude the other child from being a boy born on a Tuesday but not a girl. The subset of events in which "only one of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday" thus contains fewer events in which both children are boys (because you can never have 2 boys both born on a Tuesday, but you can have a girl and a boy both born on a Tuesday) and thus the probability of the second child's being a boy is reduced.

    This is irrelevant though because the statement does not specify "only" and thus the weekday on which the specified boy was born has no effect on the probability.

  31. The other problem posed in TFA by Looce · · Score: 1, Insightful

    Suppose that Mr. Smith has two children, at least one of whom is a son. What is the probability both children are boys?

    This is the question posed without the birth weekday specified. TFA actually tries to say that there are 4 outcomes for the pair of children, one of which is impossible, so they remove it. Since "boy, boy" is only one of the 3 outcomes, then the probability must be 1/3. Right?

    Wrong.

    The boy (let's call him Peter) being a boy is a given of the problem, so it has P = 1. The other child -- we don't care about it being born before or after Peter -- is independent, so the probability that it's a boy is 0.5*. The 4 outcomes are as follows:

    Peter, Boy = 0.25*
    Peter, Girl = 0.25*
    Boy, Peter = 0.25*
    Girl, Peter = 0.25*

    So, whichever way we slice this problem, the solution is 0.5*.

    P(Peter, Boy) + P(Boy, Peter) = 0.5*
    1 * P(Other is Boy) = 0.5*

    - - - - - -
    * May slightly differ due to the male:female ratio at birth. It is assumed here to be 1:1.

    1. Re:The other problem posed in TFA by jmv · · Score: 1

      I think the whole thing comes down to whether saying "I have a girl born on Monday" is allowed. If it is (which I find reasonable), then the probability that the other one is a boy is 0.5. OTOH, if you have to declare only boys, then the probability is 1/3 (not considering the Tuesday thing).

    2. Re:The other problem posed in TFA by karuna · · Score: 1

      It simply means that there is a 50% chance that Peter has a brother. Peter's sex is not given and it has 50% chance that it may be a girl. :) From a perspective of parents they didn't mean that they have Peter, they said that they have a boy and it could be the other Boy in your calculations. So, you would have another combination like Girl, Boy which you excluded but the parents would not.

      Assuming that all families have exactly 2 children with random sex distribution:

      1. Is at least one of your children a boy? - Yes, it is. Then the possibility that your other child is a son is 1/3.

      Because 75% of families have at least one boy and 25% have two boys.

      2. Think of one of your children (supposedly randomly selected) and tell me if it is a boy or a girl? It is a boy. Then the possibility that your other child is a son is 1/2.

      When you by chance randomly selected a girl you simply excluded 50% of children. The sex of the remaining 50% are still random, so for each selected boy there is a 50% chance that he has a brother.

      The problem with the original question lies in ambiguity of the English language. When you ask "one of whom" many would assume "at least one of whom" not "one of randomly selected".

    3. Re:The other problem posed in TFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Very wrong. The boy Peter is NOT given in the problem!. All you know is that one of the children is a boy, not which one. Read the article better!

    4. Re:The other problem posed in TFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Informative

      I'm afraid that you're wrong. By saying that the boy's name is Peter, you have (almost) uniquely identified the boy that the problem talks about, and so the problem becomes essentially equivalent to saying "the younger child is a boy".

      Why is this not the same? Consider that the second boy of the family could - in theory - also be called Peter (non-mathematician families obviously do not do this, but for the conceptual analysis you have to consider the possibility). In that case, the scenarios Peter, Boy and Boy, Peter actually overlap (because you cannot uniquely assign the case Peter, Peter to one of the scenarios) and your analysis fails. In fact, the amount of overlap between the two scenarios controls how much smaller than 1/2 the probability of having two boys is.

      If the overlap is large, then you cannot distinguish between the scenarios well and so Boy, Boy becomes increasingly unlikely. If the overlap is very small, then you can distinguish the scenarios most of the time and the probability of Boy, Boy goes closer to 1/2. In the extreme case when you can uniquely identify the boy that the person was talking about, let's say because you have the boy's passport number or his birthday (assuming there are no twins), the probability is exactly 1/2.

    5. Re:The other problem posed in TFA by A+Nun+Must+Cow+Herd · · Score: 3, Insightful

      That's incorrect - you've just skewed the population!

      In 1000 pairs of children you'll have 250 girl/girl, 250 boy/boy, 500 girl/boy.

      Of those, the ones that have at least one boy are the 250 boy/boy and 500 girl/boy pairs. So there's a 33% chance it's boy/boy if you know one is a boy.

      The whole point is you could be talking about either of the boys in the 250 boy/boy pairs - it doesn't increase the probability that it's boy/boy instead of girl/boy (you're still twice as likely to have a girl/boy pair relative to a boy/boy pair). If you specify more about the boy you're talking about - for example (ironically) saying his name is Peter - then the boys are no longer interchangable and the probability tends towards 1/2.

      It is tricky ;-)

    6. Re:The other problem posed in TFA by Shin-LaC · · Score: 4, Informative

      No, you're wrong. Look at this. If Mr. Smith has two children, at least one of whom is a boy, it is two times as likely for him to have a boy and a girl than it is for him to have a boy.

      Your mistake is in believing that, by virtue of naming one of the boys Peter, the probabilities are magically equalized. They're not. The correct probabilties for your table are:

      Peter, Boy = 1/6
      Boy, Peter = 1/6
      Peter, Girl = 1/3
      Girl, Peter = 1/3

    7. Re:The other problem posed in TFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I couldn't resist replying due to the strong use of the word 'Wrong!'. It is not in fact wrong. It is ambiguous.

      Part of the annoying thing with problems of this nature (a main point of the TFA) is that the puzzle isn't phrased clearly enough. Similar to the Monty Hall problem being very different if Monty opened a door at random (so he might actually reveal the car!) or if he knew the outcome in advance. You are arguing one side of that puzzle. The other side is equally valid - the puzzle isn't made clear enough.

      I'm bored so I will argue the other side again. I know I am just rephrasing TFA, but there are four possibilities for a couple who have two children, each of which is equally likely (ignoring any biological bias towards one gender of course). Lets take a perfect population of 1000 couples with two children, and divide the four possibilities among them:

      B B - 250
      G G - 250
      B G - 250
      G B - 250

      Now we can ignore the G G population, because we have the extra information that there is at least one B. This of course doesn't alter the gender of any kid.

      B B - 250
      B G - 250
      G B - 250

      So what is the chance that if you pick one couple at random out of this population of 750 couples, that they will have two boys? Exactly: one in three.

    8. Re:The other problem posed in TFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Wrong.
      Assuming:
      1) A person is either a boy or a girl.
      2) Equal probability of being a boy or a girl
      3) There are exactly two children

      Given: A) One or two of the children is a boy
      Find: B) The probability that given A and assuming 1-3, both of the children are boys.

      Boy Boy
      Boy Girl
      Girl Boy
      Girl Girl

      are the four possibilities. They are equally probable.

        By assumption of gender being binary, if you have only two children and one of the children is a boy, you can't have two girls. You are left with three equally probably scenarios after eliminating the girl/girl chance.

      Boy Boy
      Boy Girl
      Girl Boy

      Thus, given A, the chance of B is 1/3rd. Not given A, the chance of B is 1/2.

    9. Re:The other problem posed in TFA by Mr.+Underbridge · · Score: 1

      This gets harder if you insert labeling and order, so keep it simple. In fact, I'll give you a version you can replicate yourself. Make three cards, each of which has two faces. Make one card red on front and back, one that's black on front and back, and one that has one red and one black face. Draw a card *and only look at one face*. Let's say you draw one with a black face - what's the odds that the other side is also black?

      Hint: it's *not* 50/50. I'll assume you can see the connection between this test that you can replicate and the gender-related problem you addressed.

    10. Re:The other problem posed in TFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The article actually went into explaining exactly this, but didn't do it very well.

      Let's say you meet a man on the street, holding a boy in his hand. The man says:

      --This is one of my two children.

      What P do we get for the other child being a boy?

      The article thinks P=1/2.

      Personally, I'm leaning towards P=1/3.

      On the other hand, if the man had said:

      --This is my firstborn child.

      Or:

      --This is my second born child.

      Then in both cases I would think P=1/2.

    11. Re:The other problem posed in TFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      4 scenarios:

      B, B
      B, G
      G, B
      G, G

      P(at least 1 boy) = 0.75
      P(exactly 2 boys) = 0.25

      P(exactly 2 boys given at least 1 boy) = P(exactly 2 boys) / P(at least 1 boy) = 1/3.

      Where you're getting confused is you're assuming Peter was always being chosen first. If you ask Peter, who has only one sibling, what gender his sibling is, then yes, it's 50%. But if you ask a parent of 2 who happens to have at least one son if the other is a son, it's a different question.

    12. Re:The other problem posed in TFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      This is not correct. The gender of the other child is not independent. You've duplicated your cases here; you have "boy boy" twice, each time with a probability of 0.25. This is why you are getting 1/2 instead of 1/3. You are not correctly laying out your cases.

    13. Re:The other problem posed in TFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      No. It's really not, and your analysis is completely wrong.

      Boy, girl is twice as likely in life as boy, boy. This is true. Flip a coin twice. I promise you the probability of getting 1 head and 1 tail is twice as high as the probability of getting 2 heads.

      I find it hilarious that /., which prides itself on educated geekdom, has two highly modded posts arguing that one of the most well known and popular puzzles in math is incorrect. Guess what? The professional mathematicians who love these little puzzles really did reach the correct consensus over the last 50 years, and you are just wrong, Can you quibble with wording? Sure. But did the professional mathematician specializing in combinatorics who proposed this problem just not understand probability correctly? No, it's you who doesn't. And you should know that before you even open your mouth.

    14. Re:The other problem posed in TFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Actually, I'm wrong.

      When a man says:

      --I have two children.

      We have the following possibilities with equal probability:

      BB BG GB GG

      When we see that one is a boy we get, again with equal probabilities:

      BB BG GB

      Now, if we pick one of these boys at random we get P = 1/2 that his sibling is a boy.

      Lessons learned:

      1) Never make statements about probability until you have written and drawn the possibilities.

      2) AC FTW...

    15. Re:The other problem posed in TFA by Junta · · Score: 1

      You made a mistake.. To avoid confusion, you designated a *specific* one of the children as being the child described as being a boy. this achieves the same effect as prescribing a specific ordering. It ignores the probability that the unnamed 'Boy' is the child you called Peter, which would make the probability that the language describes the first and third set twice as high as second or fourth (those cases have twice as many 'Peter' candidates, and you ruled one of those candidates out arbitrarily). This is really hard to think through, and we intuitively want to make the boy/boy orderings unambiguous by picking which of the boys is *the* boy, however, that assumes data not given in the original statement. In a random distribution, 75% of the permutations can be described as "one is a boy", and 2/3 of that set is mixed gender. however, only 50% can be described as "the first one is a boy", bringing it back to 50%.

      --
      XML is like violence. If it doesn't solve the problem, use more.
    16. Re:The other problem posed in TFA by Vornzog · · Score: 1

      You just 'proved' the whole point of the article, but not for the reason you think.

      By naming the one known boy (Peter), you have turned the 'two child' problem into exactly the 'two child + Tuesday' problem being discussed. The point of this article is to point out that by supplying the extra info (day of week, or name, or anything else), the probability goes back to being close to (but less than) 1/2.

      For your version - you forgot to account for the fact that both boys could be named Peter. If you think that never happens, just ask George Foreman. So the probability of two boys, given one boy named is named Peter, is approximately 0.5 - P(Peter, Peter)/2 - just less than 1/2.

      If you don't name the one boy, you get back to four possible cases:

      girl, girl
      boy, girl
      girl, boy
      boy, boy

      Since we are told that one child is a boy, P(girl, girl)=0 and P(otherboy)=1/3 - not 1/2.

      The act of adding information to try to 'clarify' the problem (name=Peter, or day of birth=Tuesday, or 'likes ham sandwiches') actually changes the probability from 1/3 to very close to 1/2. Which is counter-intuitive to mathematicians, but brings the situation back much closer to everyday thinking, where the probabilities should be very nearly independent and therefore very close to 1/2.

      --

      -V-

      Who can decide a priori? Nobody.
      -Sartre

    17. Re:The other problem posed in TFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The article is correct.

      Your mistake here is that you chose to name one of the children "Peter". Now if it's a boy-girl pair, you can do this unambiguously, so your naming scheme does not change anything about the problem. However in the case of two boys, there's two distinct ways you can name one of them "Peter", so you are double counting that case.

      After all, if one of them is *actually* Peter, then he is *actually* older or younger than his brother -- you don't know which, but you are calling it 50-50, which is a mistake.

    18. Re:The other problem posed in TFA by karuna · · Score: 1

      When you ask "one of whom" many would assume "at least one of whom" not "one of randomly selected".

      This didn't make much sense. Sorry, English is not my native language but it also showed me the inapplicability of the original problem which was:

      I have two children, one of whom is a son born on a Tuesday. What is the probability that I have two boys?

      We don't know the motivation of the original asker. What causes one to ask such a question in the first place. For all I know all such persons could be liars and don't have a child. There is no statistics and any probability is only a wild guess.

      It is the same black swan problem as described by Nassim Taleb. Suppose you have a fair coin (meaning that tossing it you can get equal chances of tails or heads). You toss it 99 times and each time you have heads. What is the chances of getting tails when you toss the coin the 100th time? Mathematicians will answer that it is 50% because each toss is an independent event and not influenced by previous cases. The more erudite person would answer that only a totally gullible or naive person would still believe that it is a fair coin. But if it is not, you cannot be sure how it is manipulated. You can't even bet that the 100th it will be heads because it may be controlled remotely to entice you this kind of betting.

      The randomness works only if you control everything, from the tossing to the coin environment. Most exemplary is the financial system that still tries to act as if they have a fair coin when it is not because everybody tries to control the economy in one way or other.

    19. Re:The other problem posed in TFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Insightful

      You're not listening to what he's saying. The selection of the unknown child in the example given isn't realistic based on the assumptions a normal person would have when posed with that question. Let's replace the children with colored balls in a bag. You were told they can be either green or red, therefore the probability of one of the balls being red is 1/2. If you pull a ball out, look at it and confirm at least one of them is red, the probability of the second ball being red is still 1/2. Now, if you take that red ball you pulled from the bag AND PUT IT BACK...what's the probability you will pull out a red ball now? 1/3.

      "If one of my two children is a boy, what's the probability the other is a boy?" is 1/2

      "If one of my two children is a boy, what's the probability the one YOU CHOOSE AT RANDOM will be a boy?" is 1/3

    20. Re:The other problem posed in TFA by iPhr0stByt3 · · Score: 1

      That's true, given that we have met Peter. The question is stated as such that we have NOT met Peter. We do NOT know the name of the boy and even if we did there is a possibility that BOTH boys are Peter and therefore it's STILL not exactly 50/50, but maybe 49.999/50.001.

    21. Re:The other problem posed in TFA by narcc · · Score: 1

      Boy, girl is twice as likely in life as boy, boy. This is true. Flip a coin twice. I promise you the probability of getting 1 head and 1 tail is twice as high as the probability of getting 2 heads.

      Great, go try that at the roulette table.

    22. Re:The other problem posed in TFA by noidentity · · Score: 1

      "Suppose that Mr. Smith has two children, at least one of whom is a son. What is the probability both children are boys?"

      Four cases for someone with two kids, each 1/4 probability for someone who has two kids:

      boy boy
      boy girl
      girl boy
      girl girl

      Let's count the number for which the problem statement applies, and for which the answer is yes:

      boy boy: applies, answer is yes
      boy girl: applies, answer is no
      girl boy: applies, answer is no
      girl girl: doesn't apply

      Three "applies", one for which the answer is yes. Therefore, the probability is 1/3 that Mr. Smith's other child is a boy. That is, if we chose people at random until we found one with two kids, at least one of which was a boy, we'd find that in 1/3 of the cases the second child would also be a boy.

      A more intuitive explanation is that the probability that either is a boy is 3/4, and that both are is 1/4. Since the question only applies to that 3/4, the 1/4 is one 1/3 of that.

    23. Re:The other problem posed in TFA by Winnicot · · Score: 1

      Your solution curtails the point of the article. Information affects probability. To be concise, you made indistinguishable children distinguishable. We cannot solve the problem, in the way it is posed, by explicitly selecting one child and moving that child through the outcomes.

      By way of demonstration, consider the case in which there are two boys. If the children are distinguishable, then we are at liberty to give each boy his own identity. Let's name one boy Peter. Two outcomes follow:

      Peter, Other Boy
      Other Boy, Peter

      If the children are indistinguishable, then we are prohibited from naming one boy Peter because do not know which boy is the first and which boy is the second. Thus, only one outcome follows:

      Boy, Boy

      In your solution, you counted the same case twice (Peter-Boy and Boy-Peter), so you mistook two out of four cases as being the answer instead of one out of three.

    24. Re:The other problem posed in TFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Everyone has the wrong answer.

      To explain the problem, consider this different problem: I flip two coins, place them on a table, then cover each with a cup. You then come into the room, and I reveal one of the coins to you, which is heads. What is the probability that the other coin is also heads?

      Some say that I specifically chose to reveal a coin in the heads state, and so the probability that the other coin is also heads is 1 in 3.
      Others say that I chose which coin to reveal at random, and so the probability that the other coin is also heads is 1 in 2.

      In other words, did I do this:

      heads, heads: I get to reveal a heads, the second coin is heads.
      heads, tails: I get to reveal a heads, the second coin is tails.
      tails, heads: I get to reveal a heads, the second coin is tails.
      tails, tails: This didn't happen.

      Or, did I do this:

      heads, heads: I reveal heads, the second coin is heads.
      heads, tails: I reveal heads, the second coin is tails.
      tails, heads: This didn't happen.
      tails, tails: This definitely didn't happen.

      So, what is the probability? It depends on the twit revealing the coins.

      So, given that the only thing we really know is that the person asking the question is some twit who derives pleasure from tricking other people into giving incorrect answers, the correct solution is obviously the solution we do not choose.

    25. Re:The other problem posed in TFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      you can actually quickly test your hypothesis with a quarter.

      flip two coins, look at both coins. if one or more coins is heads, mark it down. if both are heads mark it as such, if both are tails ignore the throw.

      fairly quickly you should see that the 2 heads case shows up in 1/3rd of the attempts that meet the criteria "one or more heads".

      the point of this article is that you can further twist the problem by adding another seemingly irrelevant dimension. People will tend to incorrectly ignore it in the same way people ignored the "irrelevant" information that one child was a boy in the first version. its a great way to trick someone twice with the same problem.

    26. Re:The other problem posed in TFA by nu1x · · Score: 1

      Exactly. This is what I have been trying to impart to people with my numerous comments, that there are only 2 possibility sets worth mentioning actually -- boy boy and boy girl. All others are unnecessary and not even hinted at by the even so "ambigous" wording of the question.

      It is ALWAYS 1/2 in this case.*

      * If we consider even gender distribution and absence of more sexes.

      --
      I have nothing to lose but my bindings.
    27. Re:The other problem posed in TFA by Looce · · Score: 1

      And now you're saying that it's twice as likely to have a girl as it is to have a boy?

      You say:
      P(Peter, Boy) + P(Boy, Peter) = 1/3
      P(Peter, Girl) + P(Girl, Peter) = 2/3

      Let's try to reverse-engineer this problem.

      Would you agree that "I rolled a die and it landed on 6. What's the probability that it landed on 6?" yields a probability of 1 (100%)? That's because it's a given of the problem. We don't even have to know if it's unweighted, or 6-sided; it could be 100-sided, and it still wouldn't change the fact that it landed on 6. If you don't agree with this, then you say "the probability is undefined, because I have insufficient information about your die".

      Would you agree that, in "I tossed a coin twice, and at least one of these landed heads. What's the probability of both having landed heads?", a given of the problem is that there was 1 Heads, and therefore that the probability we're looking for is 0.5 (50%) for the unspecified coin? If you didn't agree with saying that a given of a problem has P = 1, then the universe of the problem is {(H,H), (H,T), (T,H), (T,T)}, each occurring with equal probability, and the answer is 0.25 (25%). Note that, if you don't accept givens to problems, (T,T) is not impossible, because you ignore "and at least one of these landed heads".

      The problem posed in TFA amounts to "My wife gave birth twice, and at least one of the children was a boy. That boy was born on a Tuesday. What's the probability of both being boys?" Therefore the problem is exactly like the two coin problem, with 1 boy being a given, and the birth weekday being extra information that isn't used in the problem's question therefore doesn't affect the resulting probability. What's the probability now?

    28. Re:The other problem posed in TFA by Looce · · Score: 1

      It simply means that there is a 50% chance that Peter has a brother. Peter's sex is not given and it has 50% chance that it may be a girl. :)

      It is given. "At least one of whom is a boy" means that the number of boys is guaranteed to be greater than 0. Therefore, one child is a boy, and I pinpointed him as being the given of the problem, and gave him a name to differentiate him from the other unspecified child. If the problem had stated "Exactly one of whom is a boy", then the probability of both children being boys is 0 (0%), because the number of boys is guaranteed to be greater than 0 and less than 2.

      Assuming that all families have exactly 2 children with random sex distribution:

      1. Is at least one of your children a boy? - Yes, it is. Then the possibility that your other child is a son is 1/3.

      Because 75% of families have at least one boy and 25% have two boys.

      You gave the right probability here, but for the wrong reason. "Is at least one of your children a boy?" answered in the affirmative means that you can now answer the question as if one boy was a given. The question now is, "Given that I have at least one son, what is the probability that I have 2 sons?"

      Per this page, this can be written as P(2 sons | at least 1 son) = P(2 sons and at least 1 son) / P(at least 1 son) = (1/4) / (3/4) = 1/3.

      And I just invalidated all of my other comments on this thread... Ouch!

      *takes a huge bite of humble pie*

    29. Re:The other problem posed in TFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      your mistake is that you listed an outcome twice:
      "Peter, Boy" is the same as "Boy, Peter".

  32. The real question by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    I have two children, one of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday.

    What is the probability I am actually their father?

  33. Communicating badly... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    is not cleverness.
    http://xkcd.com/169/

  34. Interesting contrivance of math and grammar by izomiac · · Score: 2, Insightful

    This is an interesting and highly technical application of math and grammar, but biology is too messy for it. Probabilities are for when you don't have all of the information. You might be able to refine the estimate slightly, but if you knew everything then you have a 100% "chance" of the actual outcome (assuming a deterministic universe... or maybe not). Since the Y chromosome is lighter, more males are born than females. OTOH, females are more likely to survive. Apparently birth order also affects the distribution of sexes. Birthdays also aren't entirely randomly distributed, so did a Tuesday fall nine months after a holiday 10-15 years ago? There's probably some more epidemiology you could throw in, so this quickly rises outside the scope of a mathematical problem. It just depends on how technical you want to get, and what your area of expertise is. But it's just refinement, and at some point you'll run into the L'effet Tetris.

  35. Get around much? by Mathinker · · Score: 1

    > I have never seen "DOES not disallow" in my entire life. ... never emphasize a positive immediately before a negative

    We mathematicians do this all the time (in our proofs, etc.)!

    > Normal humans

    Ah, sorry, forget it...

    1. Re:Get around much? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Lawyers too...i.e. "is not unauthorized" is a favorite of mine.

  36. The last name is even MORE important by houghi · · Score: 4, Funny

    If the dad is Schrödinger the other kid is both born and unborn at the same time.

    --
    Don't fight for your country, if your country does not fight for you.
    1. Re:The last name is even MORE important by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Does that make him 'The Boy in the Box'?

    2. Re:The last name is even MORE important by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Only if the kid is a cat.

    3. Re:The last name is even MORE important by duanes1967 · · Score: 1

      Schrodinger was completely wrong. I tried it with a cat and a microwave and the cat is always dead ! In the case of this discussion, Tuesday nulls out as there is no other requirement for a date. There is nothing that says the other child was not also born on Tuesday and therefore, the date makes no difference. In this case, you have a binary pair in which there are four possibilities b/b, b/g, g/b, and g/g. Since you already have one boy, and there is no assumption to the order of the children, then there are three possibilities, only one of which yields b/b. But, really, it boils down to the fact that you have one chance for the next child to be a boy or one chance to be a girl. So, in the end, it is exactly 50% unless you look at human birth rates and then you get a slightly higher (51-52%, I think) chance of a boy. But, as stated by someone else, there is a chance of having Schrodinger's cat - so the two probabilities will add up to marginally less than 100%. Anything more complicated is simply reading too much into the equation.

  37. The math is wrong - here is the proof: by kandresen · · Score: 1

    Reading the article they talk about an older simpler problem not mentioning a birthdate resulting in probability of 1/3. This was wrong just as well as the Tuesday not being relevant.
    The calculations in both cases failed to take into account that we did not know which boy where older as well. The list should not have been:
    boy / boy
    boy / girl
    girl / boy
    girl / girl ( impossible)
    resulting in 2/3 probability the other was a girl and 1/3 for a boy. This is however wrong... It should have been listed as:
    boy (1) / boy (2)
    boy (2) / boy (1)
    boy / girl
    girl / boy
    girl (1) / girl (2) (impossible)
    girl (2) / girl (1) (impossible)
    Resulting in 2/4 for both boy and girl giving the real result of 50%.

    There are no indication as to whether the boy listed was the younger or older.

    Adding the Tuesday information will now correctly not make any difference.

    1. Re:The math is wrong - here is the proof: by Turnpike+Lad · · Score: 2, Informative

      That sounds great, but if you look closely, you're saying that _outside of the context of the problem _ there's a twice as likely chance for a couple's second child to be the same sex as their first than for it to be different. Obviously if I already have a boy then my second child still has an equal chance of being a girl or a boy... but when you say that boy(1)/boy(2), boy(2)/boy(1), and boy/girl are equally likely, you're saying that when a couple already has a boy, they have a 2/3 chance of having another boy.

  38. Interesting, but not convincing by Mathinker · · Score: 1

    The number of days in a week is arbitrary. It's a pure human historical convention. In another time or another culture, the number of days in the "week" could be 10, or 5 or anything else people decide to agree on.

    True, but it's hardly likely that they would call one of the days of their "week" Tuesday, then, is it?

    I find it fascinating, though, that you pick on that particular part of the ambiguity of the language of the question, and totally ignore the much more fundamental question, which is what is the exact meaning of "one" (i.e., did he mean "exactly one" or "at least one").

    1. Re:Interesting, but not convincing by martin-boundary · · Score: 0

      I find it fascinating, though, that you pick on that particular part of the ambiguity of the language of the question, and totally ignore the much more fundamental question, which is what is the exact meaning of "one" (i.e., did he mean "exactly one" or "at least one").

      That's because I first focused on the answer to see if I believed it. There's no point in looking at the derivation in detail if the answer is not plausible to begin with, that would just be confusing. As to the importance of interpretation, you might enjoy my other comment further down.

  39. Don't get it. by zmooc · · Score: 1

    Sorry but I don't get this. The boy born on tuesday is just as relevant as the favorite color of the boy or whatever. The probability does not change because irrelevant details are added to the story. Otherwise, I'd suggest to also factor in the place the child was born, the year, month and the position of any random set of celestial bodies at the time of birth of both children as well as all their known ancestors. The chance her other child is a boy is equal to the chance of a child being a boy in general. So it is about 50% or probably a bit off since there's a slight difference between the number of boys and girls being born. It's not like children are like little balls blindly picked from a vessel filled with a finite amount of balls. Unless stated otherwise, which might happen because the family may not have been randomly selected, but in a way one picks balls from a vessel, but that is not stated in the problem so it is not the case and it should not be bothered about. Why is this on slashdot? And why are mathematicians discussing about this?! Am I a moron?!

    --
    0x or or snor perron?!
  40. Correction: by RichiH · · Score: 1

    You are right in what you say, but your second example is exactly the same as the first. Itym:

    "I have two children, the first of which is a boy. What's the probability that my second child is a boy?"

  41. "Wonder", or "wander"? by wrencherd · · Score: 1

    From TFA:

    Still, Gardner’s initial overly narrow interpretation warns of the dangers of over-hasty analysis of probability questions — and shows the wonder that can come from them.

    Is it "wonder", or does it mostly reveal how non-mathematical and unscientific probability is?

  42. Man this question pisses me off. by hellop2 · · Score: 5, Insightful

    The constraints are not defined.

    "I have two children, one of whom is a son born on a Tuesday. What is the probability that I have two boys?"

    I have three children. But I also have 2 children. See the problem? I have a son born on a Tuesday, and I have another son born on a Tuesday. See the problem?

    It doesn't say I have *only* two children. It doesn't say the other child can't be a son born on a Tuesday. It assumes the birth rate is 50/50, but most statistics agree it's not even. FTA, it assumes there's no such thing as twins. It assumes you have only one wife. But none of this shit is specified.

    Pisses me off. Use coins and cards. Not assumed biblical customs.

    --
    How many more years will slashdot have an off-by-one error on your Score in your profile?
    1. Re:Man this question pisses me off. by stewbacca · · Score: 1

      Well shit, mod me redundant. I didn't see this post until I spent 30 minutes finely crafting what you just said.

    2. Re:Man this question pisses me off. by Radtoo · · Score: 2, Informative

      "I have two children, one of whom" says two, and exactly two need to be considered. No use considering all sorts of possibilities that were not mentioned in maths. That's something "riddles" more based in language love to do, but not maths.

      And indeed, it does not say the other child can't be a son born on a Tuesday until the second problem in the article comes up, which reads "Now suppose that the older child isn’t a boy born on Tuesday.".

    3. Re:Man this question pisses me off. by noidentity · · Score: 2, Insightful

      It's just a stupid question from the start. You just know it's some dumb misleading linguistic trick, or something like you said, unspecified, or the fact that the birth rates aren't exactly split, or some weird twins thing, or whatever. I'll take pure mathematical puzzles any way.

    4. Re:Man this question pisses me off. by hellop2 · · Score: 1

      great minds...

      --
      How many more years will slashdot have an off-by-one error on your Score in your profile?
    5. Re:Man this question pisses me off. by iPhr0stByt3 · · Score: 1

      Now you're just reading into the problem. The English wording is specific enough to anyone to understand the problem as such:

      Exactly 2 children
      at least 1 "boy born on Tuesday"
      Based ONLY on this information what are is the probability of the other child being a boy

    6. Re:Man this question pisses me off. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I have two kids but I've never met the other one who was born from one hot night with some girl. Luckily she told me the birthday of the kid isn't tuesday.

      Using that valuable information and this _amazing_ tuesday problem system, I can predict if the kid is a boy or a girl!

      Not.

    7. Re:Man this question pisses me off. by DavidTC · · Score: 1

      What the hell does number of wives or biblical customs have to do with anything?

      --
      If corporations are people, aren't stockholders guilty of slavery?
    8. Re:Man this question pisses me off. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It doesn't say I have *only* two children.

      Correct.

      It doesn't say the other child can't be a son born on a Tuesday.

      So? The solution doesn't assume it can't. In fact the solution for "exactly one Tuesday boy" would be different, see the second comment on the article.

      It assumes the birth rate is 50/50, but most statistics agree it's not even.

      As this is a mathematical problem, it is understood by convention that male:female=1:1.

      FTA, it assumes there's no such thing as twins.

      Why?

      It assumes you have only one wife.

      What? Where does the wife, or wives, come into the equation? For the sake of the problem, Mr Smith (or Mr Foshee) could have begotten his kids by male parthenogenesis. It's completely irrelevant.

    9. Re:Man this question pisses me off. by ewn1453 · · Score: 1

      And considering that there are more boys than girls, the stupid answer (50%) may be closer to the truth than the "correct" answer.

  43. There are two problems! by Radtoo · · Score: 1

    "I have two children, one of whom is a son born on a Tuesday. What is the probability that I have two boys?" and "Now suppose that the older child isn’t a boy born on Tuesday."

    It is futile to discuss that one is not the other. That was already a fact in the article.

    Regardless of that, I think the article is very misleading and the probabilities are all wrong for the wording given. Even the original "The Two Children Problem" he refers to was phrased ambiguously, so taking only one of the possible probabilities into consideration seems silly.

    1. Re:There are two problems! by Radtoo · · Score: 1

      Let me correct my last sentence and say that the problems in the initial part of the article are what is very misleading. Not the article as a whole.

  44. Better Puzzle by Frankie70 · · Score: 1

    Kate is 21 years older than her son Tom.
    In 6 years from now, Kate will be 5 times as old as Tom.
    Where is Tom's father?

    [answer below]
    [answer below]
    [answer below]
    [answer below]
    [answer below]

    Ans : Tom's father is inside Kate now concieving Tom.

    1. Re:Better Puzzle by Moochman · · Score: 1

      don't you mean in 4 years from now? 6*5 != 27...

    2. Re:Better Puzzle by mcvos · · Score: 1

      5*5.25=26.25. Don't forget that pregnancy lasts 9 months.

    3. Re:Better Puzzle by gandhi_2 · · Score: 1

      Bo Burnham did it better.

      And if Kim is half as old as bobby who is
      two years older then twelve year old tori,
      For how many more 30 day months
      will their threesomes be considered statutory rape?

    4. Re:Better Puzzle by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Tom is his own father?

    5. Re:Better Puzzle by Ohrion · · Score: 1

      Where'd the mods today? This is funnay!

  45. Let's rephrase that. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    What if I say: "I have two pieces of fruit. This one is a banana". Do you feel this statement implies anything about the other piece of fruit? Can't that also be a banana?

    Another variant: Let's say I call up a car salesman and ask if he has a green car. If he says yes, does he have exactly one green car? What if I ask if he has 'one' green car. I'd imagine he'd say yes if he has at least one green car. And not because all car salespeople are lying scum either.

    English is not my native tongue, but I used to think I understood this sort of subtlety. Am I wrong?

    1. Re:Let's rephrase that. by joss · · Score: 0, Redundant

      > What if I say: "I have two pieces of fruit. This one is a banana". Do you feel this statement implies anything about the other piece of fruit? Can't that also be a banana?

      Yes sure.. the other piece can be a banana. But it is different to say "one of them is a banana" than "this one is a banana", because in the first case the number "one" applies to the subset of the fruits which are bananas while in the second it applies to the subset of the single chosen fruit.

      For this reason the answer given in TFA is wrong. The correct answer is 12/27.

      --
      http://rareformnewmedia.com/
    2. Re:Let's rephrase that. by mcvos · · Score: 1

      If you have a bowl of fruit, specifying that one of them is a banana could be done by picking one up and saying: "This is a banana."

    3. Re:Let's rephrase that. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I am a banana!

    4. Re:Let's rephrase that. by Orestesx · · Score: 1

      Strictly parsed, you are correct.

      However, when making a statement to a friend or coworker, it is generally considered dishonest to be ambiguous. In normal context, the statement in the original question would imply that the other child is not a boy born on a Tuesday. If you were to insist on your interpretation, you may be considered pedantic, picky, or impolite. Only lawyers and logicians would respect you.

      You wouldn't ask "do you have a green car" you would ask "do you have any green cars?"

      This is related to the phenomenon of why the phrase and/or exists. Most English speakers hear "or" and assume XOR, not logical or. As in, do you want to go to the movies or dinner? The polite answer is "movies" or "dinner", not "yes" or "no".

      Bottom line: the correct interpretation of a math problem is not necessarily the same as the idiomatic interpretation.

    5. Re:Let's rephrase that. by Orestesx · · Score: 1

      I forgot an important punctuation mark. I should have stated "Do you want to go to the movies, or dinner?" the pause emphasizes that it is a choice between two mutually exclusive options. When stated as a run-on, "yes" would be a fine answer.

  46. Not a real problem. by EWAdams · · Score: 1

    This so-called problem depends on a counter-intuitive interpretation of the language. Yes, if you're a math nerd you can find an obscure way of interpreting a simple question; BFD.

    I'm a demography nerd instead, so the answer, if your second child is under about two years old, is 51%. The ratio of male to female births is about 51-49.

    --
    I piss off bigots.
  47. Wrong by ebcdic · · Score: 2, Informative

    "Select the gender of all second children where the first child was born on a Tuesday and the first child was male." Yes, it will be 50/50 male and female. "Select the gender of all first children where the second child was born on a Tuesday and the second child was male." Again it will be 50/50.
    But the gender split in the union of those two groups will *not* be 50/50. You have counted the families with two boys born on a Tuesday twice. 1 in 14 of the first group will also be in the second group. Taking the union correctly, 7 out of 14 in the first group will have two boys, and 6 out of 13 of those in the second group *not already counted* will be boys. In total, 13 out of 27 will be boys.

    1. Re:WRONG by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Tuesday matters, but not because it is tuesday and not because of an implication of exclusivity. Assuming 'fair' births (equal chance of designated boy/girl, equal chance of any day of the week) consider that there are 196 distinct combinations (7^2*2^2), each with an equal chance of occurring in the general population. At least one boy throws out all 49 of the girl/girl options. Boy on a tuesday leaves us with 7 boy/girl and 7 girl/boy options. The tricky part is that boy on a tuesday leaves us with 7 options where the first boy is born on a tuesday and 7 options where the second boy is born on a tuesday, but one of those, the one where both are born on a tuesday is in both sets so we only have 13 options selected that result in boy/boy. In total, 27 options remain, 13 options for boy and 14 options for girl.

  48. Forget the math... by fok · · Score: 1

    Biologically, in this case, the chance is always 50%-50%!

    --
    \m/
  49. On behalf of my fellow slashdotters... by unkiereamus · · Score: 1

    Umm, kdawson posted something without be flamed as being a moron. All of his other posts I've read the comments for contain at least one, usually more like 5+ which state that he's a waste of oxygen who never has, nor ever will contribute anything of value to this site of "News for Nerds" .So, to help correct this oversight, I will provide the following:

    kdawson was all like "I r smrt!", but we know to hear him going all like "I r....durr...what?". Now get off my lawn.

    This covers my membership dues to the groupthink, right?

    --
    I needed a sig so people would know who I am, but I was too drunk to make something witty, so you get this instead.
    1. Re:On behalf of my fellow slashdotters... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      kdawson is often accused by Slashdot groupthink of being a troll, it seems. Nobody's accused him of being a troll this time, but think about it: he's posted something controversial that's lead to a huge row (almost a flamewar) in the comments, with people calling each other wrong and correcting each other, etc. That's pretty much what good trolls manage, and even better, nobody's called him on it.

      I'm impressed. I haven't seen someone (kdawson, not the parent) troll this successfully for ages, and he's even managed to produce a thought-provoking debate at the same time. True trolling is an art form when done successfully; it's a pity that most trolls aren't up to the same standard nowadays. Normally kdawson uses the technique of posting an incorrect article about how vastly inferior Windwos is to Linux; while you'd expect Slashdot to fall for that sort of bait, they're wise to it by now. I'm glad he's changing tactics.

  50. I love engineers... by snowgirl · · Score: 1

    Because us mathematicians come up with these really simple problems, and when we tell you that your naive answer is wrong, you grab your ball, shove reality in our face, and run home...

    --
    WARNING! This girl exceeds the MAXIMUM SAFE standards established by the FDA for BRATTINESS
    1. Re:I love engineers... by itsdapead · · Score: 1

      Because us mathematicians come up with these really simple problems, and when we tell you that your naive answer is wrong...

      The naivity is the mathematcian thinking that their re-formulation of the problem in plain English is somehow equivalent to the abstract mathematical formulation in their head, and the inability to conceive that another person might interpret the language differently. There's a huge difference between this sort of pseudo-realistic problem and a bone-fide real-world application of math.

      Go re-state that "puzzle" in a way that clearly states what the assumptions are (chance of having a boy = 50% and all births are independent - huge assumptions!) and exactly what probability you want to calculate (the probability of having two boys? the probablility of having two boys, one born on a tuesday? the probability of having two boys, one born on a tuesday, one not?) and then you'll have a simple question.

      Oh, and don't further confuse people by "personalising" probability problems: probabilities of magintude 1 don't mean much for an individual event: plan an experiment which will give a measurable result and watch all the unstated assumptions crawl out of the woodwork. If the "correct" solution to a problem has no real-world significance how do you expect people to come up with an intuitive answer or a "correct" interpretation of the question?

      That's how the equally famous Monty Hall problem works: it bamboozles people into imagining themselves playing the game and thinking that their personal decision is somehow going to have fractions of cars teleporting between doors. Plan how to test it with 100 contestants and you'll see its a stupid question with no physical significance (you either have two games with different rules and. d'oh, different outcomes or need to factor in the probability of Monty persuading a contestant not to switch). If you want a "realistic" problem, advise Monty on how many cars and goats he should budget for this season.

      --
      In a survey of 100 programmers, 111111 thought that duck-typing was a good idea.
    2. Re:I love engineers... by NonSequor · · Score: 1

      Because us mathematicians come up with these really simple problems, and when we tell you that your naive answer is wrong, you grab your ball, shove reality in our face, and run home...

      I really love the people who expand at length about how the math people are wrong or irrelevant when, actually, these sorts of problems are really useful for helping to understand how distributions change shape as fragments of information are supplied.

      --
      My only political goal is to see to it that no political party achieves its goals.
    3. Re:I love engineers... by itsdapead · · Score: 1

      these sorts of problems are really useful for helping to understand how distributions change shape as fragments of information are supplied.

      Fine, but if you are looking for mathematical insight either (a) state the problem in pure mathematical terms or (b) find some authentic context in which an actual human being might want to solve that actual problem - don't dress it up as a nonsensical story with a load of hidden assumptions.

      The problem as stated isn't a valid or useful application of mathematics - that doesn't mean the mathematics is wrong or worthless, just that the context is bogus.

      Actually, the basic two children problem isn't so bad - or wouldn't be if it stated the assumption of independence and 50% boys) - its the stuff about the day of the week that gets silly.

      --
      In a survey of 100 programmers, 111111 thought that duck-typing was a good idea.
    4. Re:I love engineers... by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      Your mistake is in thinking that these theoretical models do not have worth.

      They do.

      If you cannot understand the Twin Boys Problem, or the Monty Hall Problem, then your going to have problems understand issues where unstated assumptions ARE going to creep out of the woodwork.

      In reality, there is no way to clearly and unambiguously state something that does not leave some area for ambiguous interpretation... even when you get into heavy legalese.

      Even the simple English statement "two plus two is four" relies upon unstated assumptions that one is not working in a Modulo-3 (2+2=1) or Modulo-4 (2+2=0) math system.

      Your complaints about the "ambiguity in the statement of the puzzle" is reviewed, and rejected.

      It also makes them no fun. Who would care to wonder about how two men died in a locked cabin in the mountains, when they're told immediately upfront that it is an airplane cabin?

      --
      WARNING! This girl exceeds the MAXIMUM SAFE standards established by the FDA for BRATTINESS
    5. Re:I love engineers... by BatesMethod · · Score: 1

      It's interesting to note that, the more one learns about Tuesday's son (e.g. hair color, shoe size, whether he is the first child), the closer the probability of the second child being a boy approaches 50%.

    6. Re:I love engineers... by itsdapead · · Score: 1

      Even the simple English statement "two plus two is four" relies upon unstated assumptions that one is not working in a Modulo-3 (2+2=1) or Modulo-4 (2+2=0) math system.

      I think that neatly illustrates the problem: mathematicians don't understand how language works! English is not an alternative formulation for mathematics, it draws on a whole culture's worth of context and unstated assumptions. The vast majority of the population - mathematicans or not - would automatically assume that your example referred to base 10 arithematic - correctly, unless the author was trying for his "annoying smartarse" badge.

      With something like the two boys problem, however, the mathematicians' interpretation of the plain English contradicts the interpretation of the rest of the population.

      Your complaints about the "ambiguity in the statement of the puzzle" is reviewed, and rejected.

      RTFA - especially the bit where Gardener himself decided the "Two Boys" problem was ambiguous. Also note that TFA justifies the "naive" answer of 1/2 with a minor elaboration of the original question, whereas the defence of the "mathematician's" answer of 1/3 completely re-writes the question. With puppies. So "ambiguous" is a rather charitable way of putting it.

      It also makes them no fun. Who would care to wonder about how two men died in a locked cabin in the mountains, when they're told immediately upfront that it is an airplane cabin?

      The issue is distinguishing between problems, riddles and just plain obfuscation. Problems should be soluble using the information provided in good faith, plus reasonable assumptions that you can reasonably expected to understand. A riddle is about deliberate obfuscation, wordplay and disinginuity, and involves playing "guess what is in my head" with the questioner.

      If consenting mathematicians want to play with riddles in the comfort of their own homes then, as long as they don't frighten the horses, that's fine by me. But Think Of The Children - the danger is that smart-arse math riddles will get passed of as "real world problem solving" and inflicted on kids. Riddles like "Two Boys" could get handed out to schoolkids, who would then fail when they wrote 1/2 (despite the evidence in the TFA that a roomfull of grown mathematicans could argue for days about it). OK, in mitigation, most of them would probably write 1/4...

      --
      In a survey of 100 programmers, 111111 thought that duck-typing was a good idea.
    7. Re:I love engineers... by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      The Two Boys problem has a valid and reasonable use.

      Children SHOULD be exposed to it. Excluding all but "real-world problem solving" to children will brainwash them into your narrow viewpoint that only the real world is worth studying, and anything that deals with hypothetical situations is anathema.

      I hate people like you, and you're a lot like my Dad. You come to a conclusion that something simply need not be talked about, because it's not important. You are not the great arbiter of import... and neither am I.

      Each person should choose for themselves.

      --
      WARNING! This girl exceeds the MAXIMUM SAFE standards established by the FDA for BRATTINESS
  51. Girlfriends by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    I met my girlfriend on Thursday. She is receptionist. What is the probability of my second girlfriend being supermodel?

    Zero if the current girlfriend hears you talking about "second girlfriend".

  52. Ambiguous by naich · · Score: 1

    It would be a bit clearer if the question was rephrased "I have two children, ONLY one of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday..." Then the answer is a bit more obvious.

    1. Re:Ambiguous by dexmachina · · Score: 1
      That's not a requirement of the problem. The solution allows the possibility that that both children are boys born on Tuesday. Read it more carefully:

      If the older child is a boy born on Tuesday, there are 14 equally likely possibilities for the sex and birth day of his younger sibling: a girl born on any of the seven days of the week or a boy born on any of the seven days of the week.

      One of those 14 possibilities is another boy born on Tuesday. The exclusion mentioned in the next paragraph is to avoid counting that case twice.

    2. Re:Ambiguous by naich · · Score: 1

      "If he’s a boy, he could have been born any day except Tuesday. (Otherwise this case would already have been counted in the first scenario: the older child a boy born on Tuesday)."

      So that is ruling out another boy born on a Tuesday, so there can be only one, so the word "only" is implied, which is a restriction that is not explicit in the original question.

    3. Re:Ambiguous by ceoyoyo · · Score: 1

      You have to get clearer than that.

      "You're on the Jay Leno show. Jay sent a flunky out to randomly choose a guy who had two children, at least one of which was a boy. Jay then asks you: what is the probability the guy's other child is a boy?"

      The selection step is critical to the problem.

    4. Re:Ambiguous by iPhr0stByt3 · · Score: 1

      It's not ambiguous... the question SPECIFICALLY allows for the possibility of the second child (boy or girl) to ALSO be born on Tuesday. This is also taken into account in the answer (13/27).

    5. Re:Ambiguous by dexmachina · · Score: 1

      You're still misreading it. The part you're quoting is under the case of "oldest child isn't a boy and oldest child isn't born on Tuesday". By its definition, "oldest child whose a boy and born on Tuesday" can't be in that set.

      The first case, where I quote from, is "oldest child is a boy and oldest child is born on Tuesday". The 14 possibilities for the youngest child are then ennumerated, which include a second boy born on Tuesday.

      Then, he consider the set: NOT(oldest child=boy AND oldest child=born on Tuesday). The youngest child then has to be, since at least one of the children is a boy born on Tuesday. Then, because we're specifically considering the subcase that excludes an oldest child who's a boy born on a Tuesday, there are 13 possibilities for the oldest: a girl born on any day, or a boy born on any day besides Tuesday.

      There is no only implied or forgotten in the original question.

  53. Not exactly by SmallFurryCreature · · Score: 1

    The answer from the story is that the Tuesday bit matters if you let it matter. But really, it doesn't SAY anything. it becomes a word game.

    Is there any meaning, any information in the fact that one of the kids, a boy, was born on a Tuesday?

    Does it preclude the other child having been born on a Tuesday? No, it does not. If both kids were born on a Tuesday you PROBABLY wouldn't say that "one of them was born on Tuesday" but that information is being deduced. It has not been stated as a fact.

    For instance, "I have two children, one of whom pees standing up born on a Tuesday...."

    Does this tell you that one of the kids is a boy? No. Girls can pee standing up. Yes, most kids who pee standing up are boys BUT it ain't an absolute.

    It is indeed funny to see how strongly assumptions become in even such a place as math where only cold hard facts should matter.

    In reality, the answer 1/2 is the correct one. It either is or it isn't. You can calculate the true randomness, number of girls vs boys, distribution of gender among siblings etc etc but ultimately for a REAL case, the chances boil down to 50/50.

    And why does only the 1/2 matter? Because the people who over calculate the case happily leave out hemaprodites, who are neither boy or girl. Or that the other child is a chimera or that we are talking about siamese twins.

    If you spend some time calculating all the variables, did you REALLY include ALL the variables? Every single one of them? Including such that one of the kids might have been adopted? A kid might have been placed out of care? person might have kids they don't know about? With different people?

    No? Then you are just guessing and 50/50 is as good a guess as any.

    --

    MMO Quests are like orgasms:

    You may solo them, I prefer them in a group.

    1. Re:Not exactly by Attila+Dimedici · · Score: 1

      Your logic is very good. However, the chance that both children in a two child family are boys is 25.8%. The chance that the children in a two child family will be one boy and one girl is 52.2%. Therefore, if I know that one of the children is a boy, the probability that the other child is also a boy is 33%.
      One of the issues with this problem is that it is not a truly random chance situation. Based on real life numbers we know that there are non-random factors which play a role in determining the gender of a child. However, only a few of those factors have been identified (and none of them stated in the problem).

      --
      The truth is that all men having power ought to be mistrusted. James Madison
    2. Re:Not exactly by jim_v2000 · · Score: 1

      How is it 33%? If you have a boy, then you only have two options for your kids: BB or BG.

      --
      Don't take life so seriously. No one makes it out alive.
    3. Re:Not exactly by Attila+Dimedici · · Score: 1

      Because if you look at the stats for two child families you discover that the chance both are boys is 25.8%, that both are girls is 22%, and that it is on boy and one girl is 52.2%. This means that 78% of all two child families have at least one boy. 25.8% divided by 78% yields 33%.
      Since we are told that the children are already born, that means the chances are best drawn from real world numbers.

      --
      The truth is that all men having power ought to be mistrusted. James Madison
    4. Re:Not exactly by jim_v2000 · · Score: 1

      I guess it depends on how you look at it. I say we're both right.

      --
      Don't take life so seriously. No one makes it out alive.
  54. Odds of each sex? by Geeky · · Score: 1

    I was going to say this needs to be modified by the probability of having a second child of the same gender; i.e. if you have one boy, does that increase the probability of the second child being a boy? But it turns out it doesn't (according to the first website I found, but hey, I'm not a professional researcher!).

    There is, overall, apparently a 51% chance of having a boy, which marginally skews the result, but this apparently doesn't vary for subsequent children; i.e. there is no overall predisposition to having children of a certain gender (having children of an uncertain gender is a different matter, and just plain bad luck...)

    --
    Sigs are so 1990s. No way would I be seen dead with one.
  55. Flawed data to begin with. by Hellbuny · · Score: 1

    What's misssing is the statistic that the child will actually be born intersex. He's using data assuming biological birth results in only male/female. I know it's nitpicky, but that's the whole point of the puzzle, to look past intuitive results.

    The actual outcomes are

    Boy/Boy
    Boy/Girl
    Girl/Boy
    Girl/Girl
    Boy/Intersex
    Girl/Intersex
    Intersex/Boy
    Intersex/Girl

    We can eliminate Girl/Girl, Girl/Intersex, Intersex/Girl. Someone else can figure out the math.

    --

    meep!
  56. RTFA test? by clyde_cadiddlehopper · · Score: 1

    Wow. The article lays out the analysis and correct answer quite clearly. I am stunned at the number of /.ers who STILL post diatribes that are completely off the mark. Well done slashdot!!

    --
    Obi-Wan: "I felt a great disturbance in the Force, as if millions of voices suddenly cried out in terror and were sudden
  57. WRONG by SmallFurryCreature · · Score: 1

    Sorry, but that is why the conclusion in the summary is that is ambigous.

    The tuesday statement does NOT preclude the other child from being a boy born on a tuesday.

    The trick here is that you are making an ASSUMPTION based on abstract language conventions, not on hard factual statements.

    You PRESUME that if the other child was a boy on a tuesday you would not state it like this, but that is just because you expect people to use language in a certain way.

    I have two cars, one is red. What is the color of the other car?

    It could be any color. That one is red gives you no information about the other. I might really like red.

    London and Amsterdam have firetrucks, Amsterdam fire-trucks are red, what color are London fire-trucks?

    See?

    That is the entire puzzle in fact. Does the Tuesday bit matter? A lot of these type of riddles work like that. What part is factual statement and what is dressing up?

    They should have asked this question to a 10 yr old. They are good at this. Adults tend to be so experienced at getting hidden meaning out of sentences, to read between the lines that they are unable to stop doing it.

    You attach meaning to the tuesday statement. But this is math, and it has none.

    --

    MMO Quests are like orgasms:

    You may solo them, I prefer them in a group.

  58. Slashdot Summary Wrong Again by stewbacca · · Score: 1

    The slashdot summary got it all wrong, stating "What's the probability that my other child is a boy?".

    This is completely different than:

    "What's the probability that I have two boys?"

    The Slashdot summary makes the logic puzzle much easier, by simplifying the combinations to two children, one of whom is a boy. The real question has no such limitation.

    If I have exactly eight children, logic follows that "I have two children" as well. The problem doesn't not specifically state that there are exactly two children, only that there are two children, one of whom is a boy. What are the chances there are two boys? Well, we'd have to know how many children there are total.

    I hate to be pedantic like this, but isn't that the entire point of a finely crafted puzzle like this?

    The math logic can't be solved until the English logic is correctly understood first. I see this more as a language/logic question than a math question.

  59. Sounds like Quantum Mechanics by pl0sql · · Score: 1

    The remarkable thing that Foshee’s variation points out is that any piece of information that affects the selection will also affect the probability.

    Sort of sounds like (but probably isn't) how probability works with quantum mechanics and how knowing some information can affect the wave function.

  60. The 3rd Possibility!! by number17 · · Score: 1

    There is still the possibility that the child is born a hermaphrodite and will be of both genders.

  61. This falls under the "Cooks" theory... by s0litaire · · Score: 1

    i.e. "Too many Cooks spoil the Broth"

    If 1 cook makes a good Broth, then many cooks should make a better broth. But in reality the more cooks you add the worse the resulting Broth becomes.

    Same with this question. The only relevant fact is what sex will the second child be. which is roughly 50/50. Well probably more close to 49.5 / 1 /49.5. (The 1% is to give leeway for dual-gender birth defects).

    The more data you add to the question actually clouds the answer, which is counter-intuitive to the way most people are taught. (so more data does not equal a better result).

    --
    Laters Sol "Have you found the secrets of the universe? Asked Zebade "I'm sure I left them here somewhere"
  62. My own calculation by riflemann · · Score: 1

    I came up with a different answer, based on the summary's wording.

    Firstly, the sex of the second child is not determined by the first. Whatever one child is, the other will always be 50% chance of being either.

    What we can deduce from the wording is that his other child is not a son born on a tuesday.

    We draw a two column, 7 row matrix. The rows are days of the week, and the columns are boy/girl. Write a tick in each cell if that is a valid sex and day for the child. We are left with 14 possibilities. 7 of those are girls (a girl can be born on any day), but only 6 are boys (as according to the wording, only ONE is a son born on tuesday...if the other is a son, it cannot be a tuesday, so we are left with 6 days if it's a boy. We give that probability to the girl column.

    Thus we are left with 8 out of 14 chances being a girl, and 6 out of 14 being a boy. In decimal:

    Girl: 0.57
    Boy: 0.43

    QED.

  63. Number of Tuesdays in 400 years by rotenberry · · Score: 1

    The Gregorian calendar system repeats every 400 years, and the number of Tuesdays is not exactly one-seventh of the total number of days.

    I am guessing that this is the key to the answer.

    1. Re:Number of Tuesdays in 400 years by rossdee · · Score: 1

      I doubt that the gentleman in question was having children 300 years ago or so when the calendar changed.

      Anyway I thought that (in the general population) there is a higher probability of a child being conceived being a boy.

  64. Simulation gives around 0.4615 by dronkert · · Score: 1

    #include <stdlib.h>  /* random() */
    #include <stdio.h>   /* printf() */
    #include <time.h>    /* time()   */
    #include <math.h>    /* floor()  */

    #define RANDMAX1 2147483648  /* 2**31 = RAND_MAX + 1 for random() */
    #define SIMS 1000000000      /* number of simulations */
    #define SEXS 2
    #define DAYS 7
    enum Sex {GIRL, BOY};
    enum Day {MON, TUE, WED, THU, FRI, SAT, SUN};

    double drand(void);          /* generate random number 0 <= x < 1  */

    int main (int argc, const char * argv[]) {
        int sim, i, n, k, boy, hit, sex, day;

        /* system init */
        srandom((unsigned)time(NULL));
        n = 0;
        k = 0;

        /* simulations loop */
        for (sim = 1; sim <= SIMS; ++sim) {

            boy = 0;
            hit = 0;
            for (i = 0; i < 2; ++i) {
                sex = (int)floor(drand() * SEXS);
                day = (int)floor(drand() * DAYS);
                boy += sex;
                if (sex == BOY && day == TUE)
                    ++hit;
            }

            if (hit == 1) {    /* Not both boys born on a Tue */
                ++n;
                if (boy == 2)  /* Is the other one a boy as well? */
                    ++k;
            }

            /* output */
            if (!(sim % 100000000))
                printf("%i: %i / %i = %lf\n", sim, k, n, (double)k/(double)n);
        }

        return 0;
    }

    double drand(void) {
        return ((double)random() / ((double)RANDMAX1));
    }

  65. not again by empgodot · · Score: 0

    I've actually seen this before as "child at the window"-problem in a german C++-forum: http://www.c-plusplus.de/forum/viewtopic-var-t-is-115631-and-start-is-0-and-postdays-is-0-and-postorder-is-asc-and-highlight-is-.html

    The thread got 88 pages, probably one of the longest threads ever in that forum. And by the way... the answer is simply 1/2, also for the tuesday-problem, because the probabilities are independent. But it seems very easy to get it wrong at some point.

  66. Coin flip on Friday by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    If I flipped a coin on Friday that showed "heads", what are the chances of the next coin flip being heads on the next coin flip?

    It's Sunday, September 5th, 2014, and I pulled a "Diamond" suited card out of a full deck of cards... What are the chances of the next card being a "Diamond"?

    Wow, how fun is this?

  67. Traditional or cladistic? by tepples · · Score: 1

    What is the probability you will come across a dinosaur on the street today?

    That depends on how you define dinosaur. By "dinosaur" do you refer to the clade of dinosaurs, which includes birds? Or are you using the paraphyletic definition, which excludes them? Do you include members of the U.S. Democratic Party who act more like Republicans, where dinosaur stands for "Democrat in name only, sorry-ass undercover Republican"?

  68. It depends on *why* you are being told by Ed+Avis · · Score: 2, Informative
    That guy they quote in the article hits the nail on the head:

    Everything depends, he points out, on why I decided to tell you about the Tuesday-birthday-boy. If I specifically selected him because he was a boy born on Tuesday (and if I would have kept quiet had neither of my children qualified), then the 13/27 probability is correct. But if I randomly chose one of my two children to describe and then reported the child’s sex and birthday, and he just happened to be a boy born on Tuesday, then intuition prevails: The probability that the other child will be a boy will indeed be 1/2.

    This is similar to the confusion generated by the Monty Hall question. Why does he show you an empty door? If he would always show you the door immediately to the right of the one you chose, for example, and it just happened in this case to contain a goat, then there is no reason to switch. On the other hand, if he on purpose always shows an empty door to every contestant, then the usual reasoning applies and you should switch. (And if you imagine an 'evil' Monty Hall who shows a goat to a contestant if and only if that contestant originally chose the correct door, well then you should never switch.) It all depends on why you are being told this information, and what the general rule is about whether you are told or not.

    --
    -- Ed Avis ed@membled.com
    1. Re:It depends on *why* you are being told by Skuto · · Score: 1

      Mod parent up please, it's one of the very few sane replies that points out the real issue. News for Geeks? Not for Math Geeks, it seems :)

    2. Re:It depends on *why* you are being told by repapetilto · · Score: 1

      Unless you don't understand why hes talking about goats and good and evil "Monty Halls", then its not that good.

  69. Lies. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    How do we know that the perceived boy is not actually a girl? Should we not factor this into the probability as well?

  70. Ordering in the words inthe posting is irrelevant by LostMyBeaver · · Score: 1

    There is a 50/50 chance each time a woman is pregnant. The ordering is irrelevant. The explanation in the linked article applies an implied need to suggest that ordering is necessary, but without making the case for it. Child A is a boy, this makes no impact on child B unless we consider that the pregnancy is specifically identical twin related. The day of the week and the order they're born on make no difference.

    So to accurately answer the question based on the facts provided, we'd say that the chances of the second child being a boy is 50% plus an accepted percentage to account for identical twins derived from birth statistics which are not provided.

    I agree with your reasoning assuming I were willing to take a leap of faith, however in a purely mathematical scenario where a specific answer is expected from a specific question, the data supplied does not allow for considering ordering in my opinion. Of course if the question was "What is the likelyhood that my youngest child is a boy" then the problem is adjusted to compensate for what appears to be the desired result.

  71. This is a similar problem to... by Mr_Miagi · · Score: 1

    Three men eat at a restaurant. The bill comes to a total of $30. The waiter takes the money to the boss.
    The boss tells the waiter that they're regular customers, give them back $5.
    Waiter happily goes back, but on the way tries to figure out how to divide the $5 into three...
    He decides to pocket $2, and give them each $1.

    The men walk away happily, and comment on the great meals costing only $9.

    3 x $9 = $27
    The waiter took $2, totalling $29. Where's the missing $1 ?

    1. Re:This is a similar problem to... by Red_Chaos1 · · Score: 1

      Except that the establishment kept $25, the waiter $2, and each of the 3 guys each got $1 back, equaling $30.

      I hate stupid math problems that use obtuse means to try to trick people.

      Scratch that, I hate the way math can be used to do gymnastics to create answers that are not real.

      No, scratch that again, I hate math period. Fuck it right in the neck, sideways, with a rusty 3" pipe. Filled with powdered asbestos. And covered in ground glass.

    2. Re:This is a similar problem to... by JoeDuncan · · Score: 1
      I don't see the problem.

      If the waiter gave them each back $1, then they each paid $9.

      $9*3 = $27 dollars.

      The restaurant took $25 and the waiter took $2.

      $25 + $2 = $27

      Where's the problem?

    3. Re:This is a similar problem to... by DavidTC · · Score: 1

      Erm, it's not like that at all.

      That's just a math problem adding the wrong thing.

      For everyone else's benefit who falls for puzzles like that, the problem isn't that 'the number' doesn't add to $30...it shouldn't.

      The bill was $25, they paid $30, and got $5 back. Of that $5, the waiter ended up with $2, and each man with $1.

      The numbers don't add up to $30, they subtract down from $30, the bill paid, to $25, which they were actually charged. And the men think they subtract down to $27, aka, $9x3, because they don't know about the $2 the waiter stole first.

      --
      If corporations are people, aren't stockholders guilty of slavery?
  72. A relevant question by Ooki · · Score: 1

    Are one to assume that the father and mother of both kids are the same? If they are then the probability for the second kid to also be a boy is increased as statistically a male/female pair is more prone to produce more of the firstborns gender than the opposite.

  73. Ah crap.. by Dynamoo · · Score: 1

    Ah crap.. I get it now..
    There are in fact only THREE possible combinations - HH, HT (or TH) and TT. I can't really draw a pie chart here so you will have to imagine it.

    The probability of HH = 0.25
    The probability of TT = 0.25
    The probability of HT = 0.5 (i.e. 0.25 + 0.25)

    Given that TT is not possible because we have at least one H, then we cut a quarter out of the pie chart so it looks a bit like a pacman.
    The probability of HH = 0.33
    The probability of HT = 0.67

    So the probability of the second one being H (or a boy) is indeed one third.

    I blame it on cognitive dissonance caused by insufficient caffeine.

    --
    Never email donotemail@WeAreSpammers.com
  74. It really is 1/2 by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    If you drop the superfluous notion that one boy could not have been born on Tuesday from the method given in TFA, you get 28 cases, 14 of which are boys and 14 of which are girls. 14/28=1/2.

  75. Alex... by eXFeLoN · · Score: 0

    I'll take who gives a fuck for $10.

    --
    My other sig is a knife wound.
  76. No. Bullshit. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    The chance is 50% since

    Boygirl = girlboy = 50%
    Boyboy = 50%.

    Now if he HAD stated that the _older_ is male or the second child is NOT born on a tuesday, that would be an entirely different thing.

  77. Please clarify by Alkonaut · · Score: 1

    Are the answers to the puzzles below equivalent? Are two equivalent? Which two?

    1. "I have two children, one of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?"
    2. "I have two children, at least one of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?"
    3. "I have two children, exactly one of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?"

    The first is the original puzzle. Not being a native english speaker, I'd interpret the first as being equivalent to the second. And I might be completely wrong here, but if they are, then the information about tuesday is irrelevant, correct? Nothing would prevent the other child from being born on a tuesday if they could both be?

    Isn't this much like the puzzle "two coins total 30 cents, one of them is not a quarter" (the other is).

  78. Ridiculous! by _bug_ · · Score: 1

    This is just mathematician masturbation and it drives me nuts.

    Order of birth, as is the exclusivity of the day of birth, are not given in this problem. Therefore boy,girl and girl,boy should not be included as separate items in the set, but rather treated simply as one item. Also why the whole Tuesday thing should be ignored as well. We're not told the other child was or was not born on a Tuesday. The information is irrelevant.

  79. Information Theory by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    It depends on how exactly the information was obtained.

    Case A:
    You: I have exactly two kids
    Me: Is at least one of them a boy who was born on a Tuesday?
    You: Yes
    The odds of the other being a boy are 13/27

    Case B:
    You: I have exactly two kids
    Me: Is at least one of them a boy?
    You: Yes
    Me: Was at least one boy of yours born on a Tuesday?
    You: Yes
    The odds here are now 1/3

    Case C:
    You: I have exactly two kids
    Me: Tell me the gender and day of birth of one of them
    You: At least one is a boy born who was born on A Tuesday
    The odds here are now 1/2

    Case D:
    You: I have exactly two kids, at least one of which is a boy who was born on Tuesday
    It depends on what you WOULD HAVE told me had there not been a boy born on Tuesday. If you would have told me the gender and day of birth of a different child, the odds are 1/2. If you would have only told me "None are boys who were born on Tuesday", the odds are 13/27. If you would have told me "None are boys", the odds are 1/3.

    I'm amazed by how many trolls are getting modded +5 or higher today. 4chan must be having fun.

  80. Sorry, it's 50/50, period. by drumcat · · Score: 0, Redundant

    Given that it's actually 49/51, here's the deal. The mentioned boy is irrelevant, absolutely. The other child's outcome was not or would not have been influenced by the mentioned boy, short of all the twins, conjoining, BS exceptions. End of story. Unless the story problem says that the mentioned has an effect on the unmentioned, the other is unaffected. "Oh, but I was so close to three cherries on that last slot machine pull - I'm so close to winning!"

    1. Re:Sorry, it's 50/50, period. by loupgarou21 · · Score: 1

      This is where it gets so ambiguous and well... stupid really. At one point in the article they mention that the numbers change depending on why the son born on tuesday was mentioned, as in, "I'm incredibly stupid and live my life based on a set of arbitrary rules, and I'll only mention the gender of one of my children if it is a boy that was born on a tuesday, but otherwise wouldn't tell you anything other than the number of children."

      So in that instance, the biological probability isn't the only thing taken into account, but the motivation to tell you the gender and day are taken into account as well.

    2. Re:Sorry, it's 50/50, period. by drumcat · · Score: 1

      So the point of this is to judge probability solely by the interpretive qualities of implied language? There's little value in this, and misdirecting. That's not a puzzle; it's a con.

    3. Re:Sorry, it's 50/50, period. by repapetilto · · Score: 1

      so... stupid people are less likely to have boys then?

  81. ...or as this would apply to slashdot by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    "I have two stories, one of whom is posted on a Tuesday. What's the probability that my other story is a dupe?"

  82. Well, by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    his daughter couldn't solve it as well...

  83. obviously 50% by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    sorry, i haven't even read the first reply, but or the linked story. tl;dr.
    but the answer is obvious to anyone who's done a bit of maths in uni, if you can put aside the irrelevant facts from the question.
    ie it's 50%. or close enough to it. depending on the population stats for the area. i'm assuming the population has as many boys born on average as girls which is probably not true.
    sex of one child (given) is not connected to sex of other child.
    they are disconnected events.
    maybe statistically identical twins are more likely or less likely than twins from two sperm, but I doubt that is the point behind the story.
    so my simple answer would be it doesn't matter what the ho tells us about one of her kids she said she's got two and it's approx 50/50 that each is a boy or girl. unless you're in india or something where boys might be considered more valuable and girls might be terminated beforebeing born - but again, i doubt that's the point of the story.

    it's like the goat prize puzzle.
    you are in a tv competition with three doors. behind one is a good prize but behind the other two is a goat (ie a dud or shitty prize).
    the host of the tv show asks you to pick a door and tells you you'll get to have whatever is behind the door you pick.
    So you pick a door.
    But then the host say 'hey, actually I'm going to open one of the doors with a goat behind it and then i'll give you another chance - stick to the door you've already chosen, or change your choice to the other door (the only one that is still closed).

    The question of the puzzle, is should you stick with your original door or change to the other one.

    The plain and simple answer is that you should ALWAYS change.
    it doesn't matter what door the host shows.
    Quite simply, you had 1/3 chance of being right with your first choice, and 2/3 chance of being wrong.

    So if you change to the other door (remember there's only two after the host opens a goat door), THAT DOOR has 2/3 chance of being RIGHT.

    google it.
    it's on wikipedia.
    you can argue with your mum about this one for weeks and they will still maintain it's 50/50.

  84. Headache by therealobsideus · · Score: 1

    Just reading the comments gives me a horrible headache.

    1. Re:Headache by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Me too. Apparently there are many many people who cannot do even simple problem solving. I mean really anyone who thinks that the answer is anything else than 50% needs to seriously consider going back to remedial math.

  85. Die Hard 3 by mcgrew · · Score: 1

    As I was walking to Saint Ives I met a man with seven wives...

    1. Re:Die Hard 3 by tehcyder · · Score: 1
      That is a classic example of a so-called puzzle whose trick answer (only one person, i.e. me was going to St Ives) depends on a huge assumption, namely that all the people you met were walking towards you, away from St Ives.

      This is obviously a rubbish assumption. If I walk to work and meet a colleague, it is most likely that I caught up with them, or they turned into my path from another one, and that we are both walking to work.

      --
      To have a right to do a thing is not at all the same as to be right in doing it
  86. Semantics by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    The chance of the second child being a boy is 1/2. Period. Any thought going beyond that is brain power wasted on semantics.

  87. Re: one of whom vs. only one of whom by b4dc0d3r · · Score: 1

    I've been a fan of MG since reading Dad's Scientific American, and apparently reprints elsewhere. I've always had a problem with these logic puzzles and I never knew why. So you have solved an old childhood mystery of mine. I had the same feeling while I was reading this article, and finally had the epiphany while reading your comment, so thank you for this.

    I have been looking for real-world solutions, models or explanations, and the answers given to these questions never seem to reflect reality. The true puzzle here is, as you hinted, a semantic problem more than a math problem. It is worded simply enough, but it is phrased in the language of statistics. Just as words have specific meanings to lawyers and biologists and etymologists, the phrasing has a deeply specific meaning.

    To solve the puzzle, you have to decipher the phrasing. The math is ancillary. That there are so many wrong answers should be a clue to this. The convergence given more specific criteria is one that has never been explained adequately, and does help explaining why the problem does not violate simple rules of chance.

    Specific to this question, I will nitpick and say it is not clear whether "one of whom is a son born on a Tuesday" indicates that *only* one is a son born on a Tuesday. If you take this exclusionary interpretation the analysis is correct.

    (Otherwise this case would already have been counted in the first scenario: the older child a boy born on Tuesday)

    This is only true with the exclusionary interpretation. If you concede that the question as phrased does not exclude a second son born on a Tuesday (twins or not), then the answer is 1/2. And this is the key to the puzzle. Here's where I believe the analysis trips up:

    Now suppose that the older child isn't a boy born on Tuesday.

    This is a false dichotomy - a fundamental assumption which does not follow from the evidence. The analysis given is based on the assumption that one child either is or is not a boy born on a Tuesday. That assumption makes the analysis correct, but the question does not include the assumption, nor does it suggest it. The only way you can come up with that assumption is

    Everything depends, he points out, on why I decided to tell you about the Tuesday-birthday-boy. If I specifically selected him because he was a boy born on Tuesday (and if I would have kept quiet had neither of my children qualified)

    What if I selected him because both were boys born on a Tuesday? We can't forget the lessons of other logic puzzles which are trick questions designed to mislead you. What if this is a trick question?

    Of course it is all artificial anyway, which I always have a hard time reconciling. There are two answers for each of these questions - one statistician's answer, and one mathematician's answer. And I suppose a third answer, the wrong one, but depending on the person with whom you are arguing one of the first two will also be the wrong answer.

    (This analysis ignores minor differences like the fact that slightly more babies are born on weekdays than on weekend days.)

  88. As always, ambiguous language by natbrooks · · Score: 3, Insightful

    "I have two children, one of whom is a son born on a Tuesday. What is the probability that I have two boys?"

    As always, the challenge is the assumptions intentionally hidden in the problem statement.
    "I" - was your family chosen at random, and if so, from what set?
    "two children" - exactly or at least?
    "one of whom" - exactly or at least?
    "son" - was the sex to say chosen at random, or did you pick a child and announce his/her sex?
    "Tuesday" - was the day chosen at random, or did you pick a child and announce his.her birthday?
    "What is the probability..." - Some parent you are! Don't you know the sex of your own children?

    Simply and honestly reveal the assumptions and the math is straightforward.

    "Given a family, chosen at random from the set of all families that have exactly two children and have at least one son born on a Tuesday, what is the probability that both children are boys?"

    To make the math easier, let's start with 196 families with two children, with the expected mix of boys and girls. 49 (25%) have two boys and 98 (50%) have a boy and a girl. Of the 98 boy-girl families, 84 do not have a Tuesday-Boy, leaving 14 that do. Of the 49 boy-boy families, 36 do not have a Tuesday-Boy, leaving 13 that do. That leaves a total of 27 families, of which 13 have at least one son born on a Tuesday.
    So the probability is 13/27.

    Reveal different assumptions, and the answer changes.

    1. Re:As always, ambiguous language by The_mad_linguist · · Score: 1

      You're missing the assumption that the probability of having a boy and having a girl is equal, which technically isn't correct.

  89. This is a poorly phrased problem by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    And the answer only works if you're pedantic enough to assume that your sample space was self-selected to include only those questioners with two children, one of whom was a boy born on Tuesday.

    That seems... silly.

    1. Re:This is a poorly phrased problem by Skuto · · Score: 1

      I agree. Let's try this:

      After having heard that Obama was born on a Friday, a parent remarked: "I have two children, one of whom is a boy born on a Friday. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?"

      With the problem restated like this, the mathematical answer should be more acceptable.

    2. Re:This is a poorly phrased problem by nu1x · · Score: 1

      And that is 1/2.

      Fboy boy 1/4
      boy Fboy 1/4
      Fboy girl 1/4
      girl Fboy 1/4

      Group to Fboy boy 1/2 and Fboy girl 1/2.

      1/2.

      --
      I have nothing to lose but my bindings.
    3. Re:This is a poorly phrased problem by Skuto · · Score: 1

      The odds of having an Fboy *at all* are higher if there are two boys than if there are a boy and a girl. That's the clue of the problem: you cannot ignore the a-priori probabilities in that case.

    4. Re:This is a poorly phrased problem by nu1x · · Score: 1

      Bah and peh ! :P I can and I will.

      Cos I am a pirate :P

      --
      I have nothing to lose but my bindings.
  90. Re: one of whom vs. only one of whom by b4dc0d3r · · Score: 1

    After being so careful, I screwed up the bold part. The analysis chooses one child and asks "what if this child meets the criteria" followed by "what if this is child does not meet the criteria." In doing so, a third possibility is "What if both children qualify," which is neglected. That brings the answer back to 1/2.

  91. 51.4146% by mbone · · Score: 1

    Here is my reasoning. First, the boy could be one of an identical twin, in which case the other child is certainly a boy (maybe born on Tuesday, maybe not). The
    probability of that is 0.004 (0.4%), according to this.

    Of course, with probability 1.000 - 0.004 = 0.996 the children are not identical twins, in which case the probability of a boy is 0.512195 (the human live birth sex ratio).

    So, the probability of a second boy is

    0.004 + ( 0.996 * 0.512195) = 0.514146

    Whatever the sex ratio, you gain 1/2 of the probability of identical twins if the other child is a boy (and you lose that amount if the other child is a girl, for the same reason).

    I am assuming in all of this live births (i.e., that the children were not stillborn and did not miscarry), but the statement is "I have" not "I had," implying live births.

  92. Occums razor! by djsmiley · · Score: 0, Redundant

    Occums razor.

    You want to know the likelyness that something is male - as long as its a "normal" reproduction -> we presume it is as its not mentioned to any more likely one way or the other.

    So, 50%.

    --
    - http://www.milkme.co.uk
    1. Re:Occums razor! by djsmiley · · Score: 1

      A "mathmatics" article with stuff like "(approximately) " and "This analysis ignores minor differences like the..." is rather amusing I think.

      --
      - http://www.milkme.co.uk
  93. Re:The real problem by nu1x · · Score: 1

    Exactly...

    One thing I'm wondering, is why those would be solvers do not take into account the possibility of hermaphrodite then ? Other "common sense" deviations ?

    In the boundaries of the puzzle (2 genders, nothing known or assumed about other of the set of 2), so worded, the answer is and forever will be 1/2.

    --
    I have nothing to lose but my bindings.
  94. either 100% or 0% by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    The chances of a boy already born being a boy is 100%, chances of a girl already born being a boy is 0%. Best course of action is to ask a follow-up question: is that other child a boy? Usually parents tend to know this.

  95. Grouping Versus non-grouping by harknell · · Score: 0

    Is it just me, or isn't it obvious why the probability changes? All you are doing is adding more parameters to what you are trying to actually determine. The most basic question you can do (not in this question, but overall) is simply: What is the odds of a child being a girl or boy. That's theoretically 50/50. Now, each other question is subtly altering the grouping of what you are trying to determine the probability. It's just that english (or probably any language) obscures the fact that you are making those other elements important. The real trick of these is the fact that language is vague, and most people are missing that you are making necessary additions to the group you are trying to determine information about. You are in fact not just asking about the sex of the other child, but you are building a situation that makes the information about the date, or the order of the children, important. If the importance of those other elements disappears, then they are not bounding boxes to the situation and the results fall back to 50/50.

    --
    Webmaster of the webcomic 'Stupid and Insane Defenders Against Chaos' at http://www.onezumi.com
  96. Another, correct way by nu1x · · Score: 1

    See my other reply - I formalized the problem in a different, yet straightforwarde way, and lo and behold, my answer is also 1/2.

    http://slashdot.org/comments.pl?sid=1701394&cid=32729366

    The point is here, most improtantly, reducing the problem in a graceful manner. Nothing is known about the OTHER (not first or second, other) child. The state of the first child does not influence the state of un known child. Therefore, there are two possible sets of children -- boy boy and boy girl. Of the question "what is the probability of them both being boys", the correct answer will always be 1/2. Give or take a cat :P

    Note that I will not change my mind or see the supposed light in this matter, because there is nothing to see, but the amount of delusion.

    Note, if you do not allow them both to be born on Tuesday and them both being boys, you are doing it wrong.

    --
    I have nothing to lose but my bindings.
  97. Puzzle? Slight of hand trick. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    "This is not the puzzle you thought it was"...

    Here's the part I don't get with this Tues puzzle and the article. When order was considered in the analysis (ie allowing boy/girl, girl/boy), the puzzle was changed and there is a missing option.

    There are really 5 possibilities when considering order:
    1. Boy(Tues), Boy
    2. Boy, Boy(Tues)
    3. Girl,Boy
    4. Boy,Girl
    5. Girl,Girl

    Eliminate #5, and you have 2/4 or 50%.

    If you don't consider order, there are only 3 options:
    1. Boy, Girl
    2. Boy, Boy
    3. Girl, Girl

    When you eliminate #3, it is still 50%.

  98. Conditional probability is about knowledge. by Chris+Burke · · Score: 1

    The more tangents you throw at it, the closer you get to .5 (50%), while never reaching it. This is the limit, why? Because there's only two potential outcomes for the other child: boy or girl.

    Though as others have pointed out, the probability of having a boy is actually slightly higher than that, around 51%. The "two outcomes equals 50% chance" only applies to the special case of each outcome having equal probability, which is why problems that are being rigorous will always say a "fair" coin or die.

    I could roll a die 99 times, and get 6, the probability of getting 100 6's when I've already got 99 6's is still 1 out of 6, not 6^100.

    Yes, but human biology is more complicated than a fair die roll. Specifically, some men tend to produce more sperm of one sex than another, or have more vigorous sperm of one sex than the other. Henry the VIII famously had this problem of only producing viable female sperm, and he cut his wives' heads off for it.

    So there's a conditional probability based on having N children of one sex that the father has such a condition, and in that case the probability of a boy would be different. The result would like P(boy given no condition)*(1 - P(condition given one boy)) + P(boy given condition)*P(condition given one boy).

    I don't have the information to actually calculate the probability. But it's not 50%, and "extraneous" information like "I've already had a boy" is not actually extraneous and not an example of the Gambler's Fallacy.

    --

    The enemies of Democracy are
  99. Re:The real problem by nschubach · · Score: 1

    It just goes to show you how people can manipulate numbers to mean what they want... then fervently defend that position as the right answer.

    --
    Every time I start to have faith in humanity, I ruin it by driving to work between 7 and 8 am.
  100. Thank You! by ZirbMonkey · · Score: 1

    Yes, I read through the article. Yes, I understand the "basics" of probability. Yes, I know how to do statistics.

    And Tuesday IS irrelevant.

    Anyone trying to say otherwise, quipping that "it depends" is doing the problem wrong and making a classic mistake of correlating a statistic that doesn't affect the outcome. Those who go through the mental gymanstics of making it matter are forcing an outcome that truly is not associated with the problem.

  101. The real problem: by Errol+backfiring · · Score: 1

    The real problem is if you have two kids, can remember the sex of only one of them and have to resort to statistics to know whether the other kid is a boy or a girl.

    --
    Nae king! Nae laird! Nae yurrupiean pressedent! We willna be fooled again!
  102. What's Going On by Roxton · · Score: 1

    I think a lot of people are missing what's actually going on, here.

    First off, there's no "only one child/boy was born on Tuesday" constraint.

    If someone says, "I have two children. One of them is a boy." The odds of the other one being a boy is 1/3.

    If someone says, "This is little John. I have another child." The odds of the other one being a boy is 1/2.

    Saying, "One of my children is a boy born on Tuesday," is a lot like saying, "This is John," except the possibility that there's another boy born on Tuesday slightly skews the odds away from 1/2. "Boy born on Tuesday" almost, but not completely, identifies the child.

    1. Re:What's Going On by nu1x · · Score: 1

      > If someone says, "I have two children. One of them is a boy." The odds of the other one being a boy is 1/3.

      No, it is 1/2.

      I have 2 children a b

      It does not matter the order, which of a or b is a boy. therefore just assign a to a boy.

      a boy b ?

      2 sets a boy b boy, a boy b girl.

      Girl girl is thrown out previously, and it does not matter the which order the children are in. Girl-boy and boy-girl sets are EQUIVALENT in this case, because no contraindication is given that it is not the case. They are ONE set.

      Therefore there are only two possible sets, boy-girl and boy-boy.

      1/2.

      The other people are too deeply sunk in the legalities of the wording of the question to realize that.

      But the wording is actually non-ambigous.

      If you'd want precision, you would say "only one of them is a boy born on Tuesday" for which, other existing solutions would be acceptable.

      As per current wording, the answer is always, and will always remain, 1/2.

      --
      I have nothing to lose but my bindings.
    2. Re:What's Going On by Roxton · · Score: 1

      You're straight up wrong.

      In the scenario where someone says, "I have two children and one of them is a boy," the odds of there being two boys is 33.3%. B-G, G-B, B-B

      Run some simulations if you doubt the math. Also, read up on the Monty Hall Problem.

      In the scenario where someone says, "I have two children and the youngest of them is a boy," the odds of there being two boys is 50%. B-G, B-B

      The magic comes from B-G and G-B being two different events, and the fact that the former scenario specifies no particular child.

      The "Tuesday" constraint is a funny case where the scenario sort of does specify a particular child, but not absolutely. It's a very gratifying thing to understand.

    3. Re:What's Going On by nu1x · · Score: 1

      Mo. Extended set is bb bg gb bb BB is two times because you do not know which is the first mentioned boy, as with the girl case. do you see the light now ? gb bg constricts to bg for stat purposes, and bb bb constrict to bb for stat purposes. Tuesday, as per spoken language of kings, Yon English, is irrelevant. 1/2.

      --
      I have nothing to lose but my bindings.
    4. Re:What's Going On by Roxton · · Score: 1

      The best advice I can give anyone is to try hard to suppress their sense of certainty, especially when they're disagreeing.

      Read this closely.

      Four mothers:
      Elaine has B B
      Peggy has B G
      Millie has G B
      Dawn has G G

      If I had 100x as many mothers, the proportions would be roughly the same.

      Elaine, Peggy, and Millie tell you they have a boy. Only one of the three have two boys. This proportion holds for 100x as many mothers.

      I consider this a test of my faith in other people. Is this helping your intuition? Or do I have to resign myself to the idea that most people can't change once they've latched onto an idea?

  103. Hm... reading too much into it peoples?? by s0litaire · · Score: 0, Redundant

    Quote:"I have two children, one of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?"

    He has 2 kids:
    1 Male
    1 Unknown

    So possible outcomes: (0=Male 1=Female)
    0,0
    0,1

    (Note 1,0 is the same as 0,1)

    So probability is 50%

    Case closed...

    --
    Laters Sol "Have you found the secrets of the universe? Asked Zebade "I'm sure I left them here somewhere"
    1. Re:Hm... reading too much into it peoples?? by geekoid · · Score: 1

      (Note 1,0 is the same as 0,1)

      Nope, it isn't. If you had addition information of whether or not it was the younger child that was born on Tuesday, then it would be eliminated

      You got nearly the right answer, but for all the wrong reasons.

      --
      The Kruger Dunning explains most post on /. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dunning%E2%80%93Kruger_effect
  104. Mathematically formalised. No ambiguity here... by genjix · · Score: 0

    A = chance of first child being a boy
    B = chance of second child being a boy

    P(B|A) = P(A and B)/P(A)

    but both events are independent so

    P(A and B) = P(A) P(B)
    = 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/4

    so

    P(B|A) = 1/4 / 1/2
    = 1/2 /thread

    1. Re:Mathematically formalised. No ambiguity here... by haderytn · · Score: 1

      Yes, but you didn't address the question.

  105. You're all wrong by L4t3r4lu5 · · Score: 1

    World population is split closer to 50.25% male, 49.75% female. Therefore, it's 0.5025 probability of being male. 201/400

    http://wiki.answers.com/Q/What_is_the_ratio_of_women_to_men_in_the_world Abstract thought ftw!

    --
    Finally had enough. Come see us over at https://soylentnews.org/
  106. Very much like a coin flip. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    When you flip a coin, there is a very high probability that it will come up either heads or tails. There is, however, a teeny little chance it could land on edge and stay that way.

    This is also the case with the children. There is a very high probability that it will be either male or female. But the probability is not 100%, as most of you seem to assume. There are various medical conditions that make the sex of the baby ambiguous. Hermaphrodites, for example. Also there are people born with male chromosomes and female genitalia.

    So to answer this question you need to define your terms as far as "boy" and "girl" more carefully. If your only looking at genitalia, then of course hermaphrodites cause a problem for your percentages. If you're looking at chromosomes then a parent may think they have a daughter while genetically it is a son.

    So yeah, the question is more complicated than you all are saying.

  107. The answer is... by toooskies · · Score: 1

    This is slashdot. If you're asking a logic problem like this, you are probably lying and have never reproduced.

  108. MOD PARENT UP by Spacezilla · · Score: 1

    There, go ahead and count. There are 27 possible families when where the man has (at least) one son who's born on a Tuesday. You can then easily see that there are 13 cases where the man has two sons.

    1. Re:MOD PARENT UP by prionic6 · · Score: 4, Insightful

      In my experience, many non-intutive probabilty results are easier to understand if you spell out the full population. For example, I coudn't understand http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Berkson's_paradox until I drawed it up graphically.

    2. Re:MOD PARENT UP by sexconker · · Score: 1

      Yes, 13 and 27 distinct, unordered families. But one of those 27 cases is twice as likely as the others, and one of those 13 is twice as likely as the others.

      This is because you are lumping the 2 Tuesday boys cases into a single case, but not weighting it properly.

      14 / 28.
      1 / 2.

    3. Re:MOD PARENT UP by Spacezilla · · Score: 1

      Surely you can't be serious.

    4. Re:MOD PARENT UP by sexconker · · Score: 1

      I am completely serious.
      They're only listing BoyTuesday, once, not twice.

      The question isn't "What are the odds of this, given this?", the question is "What are the odds of this if I reveal this.".

      That matters.
      See my other posts in this thread if you want an explanation.

    5. Re:MOD PARENT UP by DocDJ · · Score: 1

      You are introducing probabilities too early. We start by just counting events. This will lead in turn to frequencies and thence to probabilities.

      So: there is only one event where two boys are born on Tuesday, and it is this:

      <Eldest boy is born on Tuesday,
      Youngest boy is born on Tuesday>

      There are no other events where both boys are born on Tuesday. There are two events where there are two boys who are born on a Monday and Tuesday, and they are these:

      <Eldest boy is born on Monday,
      Youngest boy is born on Tuesday>
      <Eldest boy is born on Tuesday,
      Youngest boy is born on Monday>

      That's all there is to it.

    6. Re:MOD PARENT UP by Spacezilla · · Score: 1

      So if a man comes up to you on the street and says: "I have two children. At least one of them is a boy. What are the odds that I have two boys?", you'll go:

      Well, you can have (boy, boy), (boy, girl) or (girl, boy). But we should count (boy, boy) twice, so that means there's 2/4 = 50% chance that you have two boys.

      Of course there isn't!

      Here's another example: What are the odds of getting two sixes when rolling two dice? Well, most people would say 1/36, but then we're only counting (6, 6) once. You would say we should count that twice and so the odds are 2/36. This is completely wrong.

      If a man comes up to you on the street and asks you the question about having two children, at least of them being a boy who's born on a Tuesday, it doesn't matter if he does have two sons who are born on Tuesdays. It's still just one man. You wouldn't count him a hundred times in your statistics if he had a hundred boys, at least I hope you wouldn't.

    7. Re:MOD PARENT UP by sexconker · · Score: 1

      That's not what the question is asking.
      The question is:

      Oh hi.
      Look, a child!
      It is mine.
      It is one of two that I have.
      It is a boy.
      What are the odds that the other one is a boy?

      And the answer is 1 in 2.

      Revealing information is different from stipulating given conditions.

      I have flipped two coins.
      They landed on opposite sides of the room.
      Ah, here's one.
      It is heads.
      What are the odds the other one is heads?
      1/2

      Oh, I can't seem to find it. We will just re-flip the first coin in its place.
      What are the odds it will be heads?
      1/2

    8. Re:MOD PARENT UP by sexconker · · Score: 1

      There are TWO events where both boys are born on Tuesday.
      Order does not matter.
      Age does not matter.
      Etc.

      But you HAVE to count BOTH boys SEPARATELY, just as you count boys separately from girls.

      You don't have to LIST them separately, but you have to COUNT them separately.

      You are not selecting kids with given conditions.
      Kids are being revealed to you.

      It is in fact 1/2, no matter how you try to "interpret" the question.

    9. Re:MOD PARENT UP by Spacezilla · · Score: 1

      Alright, I will try rephrasing it then:

      John has exactly two children. At least one of them is a boy who's born on a Tuesday. What are the odds that John has two boys?

    10. Re:MOD PARENT UP by sexconker · · Score: 1

      1 in 2.

    11. Re:MOD PARENT UP by Spacezilla · · Score: 1

      Chance of having two boys: 50% * 50% = 25%
      Chance of having two girls: 50% * 50% = 25%
      Chance of having a boy and a girl: The remaining 50%

      He can't have two girls, so that's 1/3 chance he has two boys and 2/3 chance he has a boy and a girl.

    12. Re:MOD PARENT UP by Spacezilla · · Score: 1

      That's without mentioning the day of the week, of course.

  109. My birthday by gillbates · · Score: 1

    My birthday is today, and it's a Tuesday.

    What are the odds this post will be modded up?

    --
    The society for a thought-free internet welcomes you.
  110. monty hall? by colonelquesadilla · · Score: 1

    seems like the monty hall problem, we start off with four possibilities: girl-girl girl-boy boy-girl boy-boy then we are given that girl-girl is incorrect since one child is a boy this leaves: girl boy boy girl boy boy 2 of those solutions have a girl, so the odds of a girl child are 2/3

    --
    It's either false dichotomies, or the terrorists win, you decide.
  111. Order is irrellevent but uniqueness is not. by pavon · · Score: 3, Informative

    You are neglecting to treat the two children as independent non-exchangeable objects. It is easier to think about if you consider that you have two pets a dog and a cat, each of which can be male or female. Then the enumeration of possibilities:

    Male Dog, Male Cat
    Male Dog, Female Cat
    Female Dog, Male Cat
    Female Dog, Female Cat

    If you select a family where (at least) one of them is a Male that leaves the following options:

    Male Dog, Male Cat
    Male Dog, Female Cat
    Female Dog, Male Cat

    So the chances of both being male are 1/3.
    Now moving onto the date question. You have selected a family from families known to have one male pet born on Tuesday (and one dog and cat each). The options are:

    Male Cat born Tuesday, Male Dog born Monday
    Male Cat born Tuesday, Male Dog born Tuesday *
    Male Cat born Tuesday, Male Dog born Wednesday
    Male Cat born Tuesday, Male Dog born Thursday
    Male Cat born Tuesday, Male Dog born Friday
    Male Cat born Tuesday, Male Dog born Saturday
    Male Cat born Tuesday, Male Dog born Sunday

    Male Cat born Tuesday, Female Dog born Monday
    Male Cat born Tuesday, Female Dog born Tuesday
    Male Cat born Tuesday, Female Dog born Wednesday
    Male Cat born Tuesday, Female Dog born Thursday
    Male Cat born Tuesday, Female Dog born Friday
    Male Cat born Tuesday, Female Dog born Saturday
    Male Cat born Tuesday, Female Dog born Sunday

    Male Dog born Tuesday, Male Cat born Monday
    Male Dog born Tuesday, Male Cat born Tuesday *
    Male Dog born Tuesday, Male Cat born Wednesday
    Male Dog born Tuesday, Male Cat born Thursday
    Male Dog born Tuesday, Male Cat born Friday
    Male Dog born Tuesday, Male Cat born Saturday
    Male Dog born Tuesday, Male Cat born Sunday

    Male Dog born Tuesday, Female Cat born Monday
    Male Dog born Tuesday, Female Cat born Tuesday
    Male Dog born Tuesday, Female Cat born Wednesday
    Male Dog born Tuesday, Female Cat born Thursday
    Male Dog born Tuesday, Female Cat born Friday
    Male Dog born Tuesday, Female Cat born Saturday
    Male Dog born Tuesday, Female Cat born Sunday

    * Note that I enumerated the case where both are males born on Tuesday twice. These are redundant and one must be discarded else I will double count that situation. After doing so there are 13/27 cases where both are males.

    Notice that if you ignored the fact that one was a dog and the other was a cat you would have merged the two lists, ending up with your original list, and double counting the case where both are boys born on Tuesday.

    In other words your mistake is that you assumed you had been given the sex and birth date of child A, and enumerated the sex and birth date of child B. However, you don't know the sex and birth date of child A or B, just that one of child A or B have that sex and birthdate. That is a subtly different problem.

    So the order that they are born in is irrelevant, but keeping track of the fact that they are the two unique items while enumerating the cases is vital (and older and younger is a simple label to use while doing so).

    1. Re:Order is irrellevent but uniqueness is not. by enjerth · · Score: 1

      If you select a family where (at least) one of them is a Male that leaves the following options:

      Male Dog, Male Cat
      Male Dog, Female Cat
      Female Dog, Male Cat

      So the chances of both being male are 1/3.

      This is the premise where I disagree. The one in question is male, and must be either a dog or a cat (not both), so before you calculate the odds you must determine that either #2 or #3 are impossible and cannot be included in your final statistics.

      Male Dog, Male Cat
      and
      (Male Dog, Female Cat or Female Dog, Male Cat)

      1/2.

    2. Re:Order is irrellevent but uniqueness is not. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The point being that there are 2 ways that, for example, that one child is born on Tuesday and the other is born on Thursday. Either the oldest is born on Tuesday and the youngest on Thursday or vice versa. There is, however, only one way that both children can be born on Tuesday. So, you can't count the male-Tuesday event twice. The probability of Tuesday-Thursday is twice that of Tuesday-Tuesday. That's why the probability is not 1/2 but 13/27.

    3. Re:Order is irrellevent but uniqueness is not. by zzsmirkzz · · Score: 1

      * Note that I enumerated the case where both are males born on Tuesday twice. These are redundant and one must be discarded else I will double count that situation. After doing so there are 13/27 cases where both are males.

      Note that you also did that for every other day of the week where the only thing that is different is the order, but you did not exclude them from the final calculation. Either order matters in all cases or in no cases, you can't pick and choose what's convenient for your theory.

      This makes the totals if you are consistent either way:

      Order Matters = 14/28 = 1/2

      Order Doesn't Matter = 7/14 = 1/2

      Get it now?

    4. Re:Order is irrellevent but uniqueness is not. by pavon · · Score: 1

      Note that you also did that for every other day of the week where the only thing that is different is the order, but you did not exclude them from the final calculation.

      No, the difference is that the "Male Cat born Tuesday, Male Dog born Tuesday" state is listed twice. All the rest only occur once - check for yourself. That is why it was discarded - it has nothing to with order.

      Either order matters in all cases or in no cases, you can't pick and choose what's convenient for your theory.

      Again, the order of the days has not relevance on the outcome, just the fact that they are seven distinct states. They could be any seven states even ones which have no ordering property (such as seven different possible colors) and the answer would be the same.

    5. Re:Order is irrellevent but uniqueness is not. by zzsmirkzz · · Score: 1

      Male Cat born Tuesday, Male Dog born Monday Male Cat born Tuesday, Male Dog born Tuesday * Male Cat born Tuesday, Male Dog born Wednesday Male Cat born Tuesday, Male Dog born Thursday Male Cat born Tuesday, Male Dog born Friday Male Cat born Tuesday, Male Dog born Saturday Male Cat born Tuesday, Male Dog born Sunday

      Male Dog born Tuesday, Male Cat born Monday Male Dog born Tuesday, Male Cat born Tuesday * Male Dog born Tuesday, Male Cat born Wednesday Male Dog born Tuesday, Male Cat born Thursday Male Dog born Tuesday, Male Cat born Friday Male Dog born Tuesday, Male Cat born Saturday Male Dog born Tuesday, Male Cat born Sunday

      Both of these sets have a Male Dog and Male Cat born on a particular day of the week, the only difference is the order in which you listed Cat and Dog (Which is the same difference between the "Tuesdays" but you decided one should be discarded because its a dupe).

    6. Re:Order is irrellevent but uniqueness is not. by pavon · · Score: 1

      Listen, the day of the week is part of the event.

      Male Cat born Tuesday is a different event than Male Cat born Wednesday.

      Male Cat born Tuesday and Male Dog born Monday
      is a different event than
      Male Cat born Monday and Male Dog born Tuesday

      Male Cat born Tuesday and Male Dog born Monday
      is the same event as
      Male Dog born Monday and Male Cat born Tuesday

      Order doesn't matter, but you have to look at the entire event state. None of the events are duplicated in my list except the one I marked.

    7. Re:Order is irrellevent but uniqueness is not. by zzsmirkzz · · Score: 1

      I see what you are saying now, I mis-read your list. However the dog/cat thing may be messing things up as I've seen it wrongly portrayed in other posts. If "a boy born on Tuesday, a girl born on Tuesday" and "a girl born on Tuesday, a boy born on Tuesday" are two different events, then "a boy born on Tuesday, a boy born on Tuesday" must be counted twice (because even if they are both born or tuesday they might not have been born on the same tuesday). If not, they both should only be counted once.

      Let me see if I can create the list of unique possibilities:

      C1-M-Tu, C2-M-Mo
      C1-M-Tu, C2-M-Tu
      C1-M-Tu, C2-M-We
      C1-M-Tu, C2-M-Th
      C1-M-Tu, C2-M-Fr
      C1-M-Tu, C2-M-Sa
      C1-M-Tu, C2-M-Su

      C1-M-Tu, C2-F-Mo
      C1-M-Tu, C2-F-Tu
      C1-M-Tu, C2-F-We
      C1-M-Tu, C2-F-Th
      C1-M-Tu, C2-F-Fr
      C1-M-Tu, C2-F-Sa
      C1-M-Tu, C2-F-Su

      This list doesn't consider the order of birth/age of the two children as relevant (because it isn't). In the scenario given one child is always a boy born on Tuesday and we are enumerating the list of possibilities of the second child only. With this in mind there are 14 possibilities, 7 of which are boy/boy which is 1/2 (50% chance).

  112. Epic Troll by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    This is better than an Order of Operations Troll on 4chan

  113. It is a word game... by patniemeyer · · Score: 1

    I think another way to see the word game here is that they are enumerating genders and not objects. Real objects are not interchangeable... if there are two boys they could be born in two different orders:

    Boy1 Boy2
    Boy2 Boy1
    Girl1 Boy1
    Boy1 Girl1

    =1/2

    Or to put it another way - In the real world given that "at least one is a boy" we know that the boy was born either first or second... so write it as two trees and average them together to get 1/2.

    Possibility 1 - boy born first:
    Boy Girl
    Boy Boy
    =1/2

    Possibility 2 - boy born second:
    Girl Boy
    Boy Boy
    =1/2

    Both are equally likely possibilities so:

    Possibility 1 + Possibility 2 = 1/2.

    Pat

  114. The original Birthday Problem is wrong by mbone · · Score: 0, Redundant

    From the original article

    Suppose that Mr. Smith has two children, at least one of whom is a son. What is the probability both children are boys?

    Intuition would suggest that the answer should be 1/2, since the sex of one child is independent of the sex of the other. And indeed, had he been told which child was a boy (say, the younger one), this reasoning would be sufficient. But since the boy could be either the younger or the older child, the analysis is more subtle. Devlin started by listing the children’s sexes in the order of their birth:

    Boy, girl
    Boy, boy
    Girl, boy

    Since one child is a boy, we know that girl, girl isn’t a possibility. Of the three approximately equally likely possibilities, one has two boys and two have a girl and a boy — so the probability of two boys is 1/3, not 1/2, Devlin concluded.

    But this makes no sense whatsoever. For simplicity, I will assume that the human sex ratio is 1:1, and ignore the possibility of identical twins. I will also ignore the possibility of the "Monty Hall effect" - i.e., that there is other information that skews reporting of the first child. (Without this, anything can go. Suppose that I belong to a religion that believes that the birth of two boys in a row is deeply shameful and should never be mentioned. If you know that, saying that I have one boy make the probability of a girl 100%. Any other probability you might want is also possible, and so this has to be ruled out.)

    To make the English clearer, suppose that I am on a beach with equal numbers of blue (B) and green (G) pebbles, and I pick two up, carefully noting the color of each.

    So, an observer who just knows I have picked up two pebbles (but not the color of either) has the following probability table

    BG - 25 %
    BB - 25 %
    GB - 25 %
    GG - 25 %

    Ok, I continue to walk along and meet up with the observer, and as I do so one pebble drops at random out of my bag. It is Blue (B). The observer sees this, and modifies his probability table as follows :

    New probability = old probabiity x probability of having a Blue pebble fall out (renormalized to sum to unity, if necessary). This yields

    BG - 25 %
    BB - 50 %
    GB - 25 %
    GG - 0 %

    So, the problem with the original "Birthday Problem" analysis is that, while there are indeed three choices, one with a second boy, and two with a girl, the probability of these choices are not equal ! With the correct probabilities, the chance that the second child is a boy is 50%

    I would argue that, in the universe of these problems (where you are not supposed to need additional, unstated, information beyond basic things like people want to minimize jail time and maximize revenue), this is the correct analysis of the original "Birthday Problem," and the one presented in the original article is wrong.

    The original "Tuesday Birthday Problem" analysis is likewise wrong, in the same fashion.

  115. Language Logic by Dashiva+Dan · · Score: 1

    Normal English strongly implies it does. If you say to someone I have several pieces of fruit and one of them is a banana, when in fact two of them are bananas, most people would call that lying. One could argue that strictly speaking the statement was true: you did have one banana, you just also had an additional banana, but that level of honesty is only tolerated in politicians. If you had said "at least one of which is a banana" that would be fine, otherwise the statement is deliberately misleading.

    By the same standards, stating that one child was born on a tuesday also implies the other child was not born on a tuesday, regardless of gender.
    You cant twist it both ways to state that it implied "the other child was not born on tuesday unless it was a girl".
    Consistancy is key.
    As such I would say the odds remain unchanged (assumed 50/50).

    --
    "lt;dr" is the correct response to most of my posts.
    1. Re:Language Logic by joss · · Score: 1

      > By the same standards, stating that one child was born on a tuesday also implies the other child was not born on a tuesday, regardless of gender.

      Yes, it would *imply* it, but that's not what it states. It states "one of which is a boy born on a tuesday". In common english the "one" would you usually be taken to refer to the number of "boys born on tuesday" within the set. I'm not claiming it is unambiguous, but the thing is this is a maths question where a precise answer is given (13/27). If the statement is ambiguous, then the fucking answer is ambiguous too ("consistency is key" after all) . If one took the statement to mean 'exactly one' instead of 'at least one' the answer comes out to 12/27.

      A lot of these types of questions are about as worthwhile as "a man lives on the 25th floor, and he always takes elevator to ground floor when leaving, but gets out on 22nd floor and walks the rest when returning. Why ?" You're supposed to give the answer he is too short to reach the 25th button, and are deemed *wrong* if you say "he fancies a girl who lives on 20 and wants to bump into her" - but the real answer is fucking ludicrous, the poor dwarf would carry a stick or something.

      This problem is interesting enough without the unnecessary ambiguity which does nothing but invalidate the answer so the statement should be stated unambiguously by just saying 'at least one' .

      --
      http://rareformnewmedia.com/
  116. Reminds me of an old joke by RevWaldo · · Score: 5, Funny

    It's the 1970's. Two math professors, old friends who both live in London, are on the phone discussing an upcoming conference in Edinburgh they'll both be attending.

    - Hey, we could fly over together if you'd like.
    - Thanks, but I'll be driving.
    - All that way? It'd take you most of the day! Whatever for?
    - Well, I recently made a study of the statistics of bombs being smuggled on board passenger planes. And while the odds of it occurring on any particular flight are high, the possibility still makes me uncomfortable with flying.
    - Well, suit yourself. I'm going to take the plane.

    A short time later, the one professor is boarding her flight out to the conference, and who should be sitting in the adjacent seat but her old friend! They're both pleasantly surprised, and the first professor settles into her seat. She leans in and quietly asks her friend -

    - So what about that whole probability issue? Was your math off, or did you just work up the nerve?
    - Wrong on both counts! I did have a breakthrough, however.
    - Really? How do you mean?
    - Well, I went over the statistics again, and worked out the odds of two bombs being separately smuggled on board the same flight.
    - High?
    - Astronomical! You've a better chance of being struck by lightning!
    - So how does knowing that make you more comfortable with flying?
    - (singsongs) Guess what I've got in the briefcase...(pats the case on her lap)


    .

  117. Not a probability problem by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    "I have two children..."

    The probability that a given child is a boy is either 100% (the child is indeed a boy) or 0% (the child is a girl). The child either is a boy or isn't. Once the child is born, there is really no probability. It would be rather disturbing to walk up to the non-Tuesday child and say "there is a 33% probability that you are a boy".

  118. Everything I hate about mathematicians... by Hurricane78 · · Score: 1

    ...in one little sentence.
    Before you mod me down in trolling rage, listen:

    This sentence is perfectly clear and unambiguous to everyone but mathematicians.
    In normal social interaction, there simply is no doubt about what the “one of” belongs to.
    Only mathematicians with their surreal alien thought processes and social inferiority (Because of their work. So no absolute judgment here. Only relative to what we call normal.), would ever struggle with that.

    It feels like their minds completely miss any kind of default assumptions of a society. But not only that. It even is seen as a taboo and as something unacceptably bad to them. (Because of course in mathematics and programming, it is.)
    But the real world is based on them, and they work really well.
    Sure there are wrong assumptions here and there, but they can’t remotely outweigh the benefits.

    Mind you that I was very close to also becoming that strict, a couple of years ago.
    But nowadays, after having been out much, I have become unable to stand more of 2-3 lines of conversation with a mathematician.
    Because for every shit they don’t accept it, if there isn’t a rule and definition for every shit.
    I’m just standing there, yelling “You know *exactly* what I mean, but you’re too much of a micromanaging dick to simply make that assumption!”.

    It’s sad, because mathematicians don’t have to be that way all the time.
    I can perfectly see the point of it, when doing mathematics. It’s good.
    But leave it there, and stay human for the rest. Or you’ll find yourself all alone at home, having tinkered about shit like the Tuesday birthday “problem” for months at a stretch.

    --
    Any sufficiently advanced intelligence is indistinguishable from stupidity.
  119. Clever, but wrong by Kral_Blbec · · Score: 1

    He makes the assumption that only one was a boy born on Tuesday. The question would be much different if it said "Only one was a boy born on tuesday."

    1. Re:Clever, but wrong by Wildclaw · · Score: 1

      He makes the assumption that only one was a boy born on Tuesday.

      No he doesn't 13/27 includes the possibility of two boys being born on a tuesday.

    2. Re:Clever, but wrong by Kral_Blbec · · Score: 1
      No it doesn't. FTA

      If he’s a boy, he could have been born any day except Tuesday. (Otherwise this case would already have been counted in the first scenario: the older child a boy born on Tuesday). This second scenario generates just six, rather than seven, more possibilities.

    3. Re:Clever, but wrong by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It doesn't make a lick of difference if we exclude Tuesday for the unknown gender:

      Boy-A Girl-B-S
      Boy-A Girl-B-M
      Boy-A Girl-B-Tu DON'T COUNT
      Boy-A Girl-B-W
      Boy-A Girl-B-Th
      Boy-A Girl-B-Fr
      Boy-A Girl-B-Sat
      Boy-A Boy-B-S
      Boy-A Boy-B-M
      Boy-A Boy-B-Tu DON'T COUNT
      Boy-A Boy-B-W
      Boy-A Boy-B-Th
      Boy-A Boy-B-Fr
      Boy-A Boy-B-Sat

      (take a breath)

      Girl-B Boy-A-S
      Girl-B Boy-A-M
      Girl-B Boy-A-Tu DON'T COUNT
      Girl-B Boy-A-W
      Girl-B Boy-A-Th
      Girl-B Boy-A-Fr
      Girl-B Boy-A-Sat
      Boy-B Boy-A-S
      Boy-B Boy-A-M
      Boy-B Boy-A-Tu DON'T COUNT
      Boy-B Boy-A-W
      Boy-B Boy-A-Th
      Boy-B Boy-A-Fr
      Boy-B Boy-A-Sat

      We have 12/24 = 1/2 which is the same as 14/28 = 1/2 when we do count Tuesdays.

    4. Re:Clever, but wrong by Wildclaw · · Score: 1

      If he's a boy, he could have been born any day except Tuesday. (Otherwise this case would already have been counted in the first scenario: the older child a boy born on Tuesday). This second scenario generates just six, rather than seven, more possibilities.

      You should read the article closer. What the above says is that you can't double count a specific permutation. In an evenly distributed random selection of 196 sibling pairs, you will have only one pair that is "Male TuesDay - Male TuesDay" while you will have two pairs that are "Male TuesDay - Male Wednesday. And that is where intuition fails in certain types of questions.

  120. A less ambiguous variation of the problem by samwhite_y · · Score: 1

    Here is a less ambiguous problem that shows the same effects.

    Take two decks of cards. Shuffle each deck. Deal a card from deck 1 and another card from deck 2. If one of the cards is a spade, stop. If no card is a space, put the cards back into their original decks, shuffle again and repeat. Continue repeating until one of the cards dealt is a space.

    Question: At the time you stop, what is the probability that the other card is black?

    1. Re:A less ambiguous variation of the problem by geekoid · · Score: 1

      Actually, the Monty Hall problem illustrates very nicely on how additional information changes probability calculations .

      --
      The Kruger Dunning explains most post on /. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dunning%E2%80%93Kruger_effect
    2. Re:A less ambiguous variation of the problem by samwhite_y · · Score: 1

      Now change the problem slightly so that you stop only if a card from deck 1 is a spade. Note how the answer changes. This is at the heart of the debate about problems like these.

  121. Error in article's logic by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    You gave a good summary of the article's logic, but TFA's author is wrong to exclude the 7th younger boy possibility. The author assumes that any case where two boys are born on Tuesday is identical, and so duplicates should be removed; this is not true.

    Here are the two "two Tuesday boy" cases as I see them:
    (Boy I've met is older, boy I haven't met is born on Tuesday)
    (Boy I've met is younger, boy I haven't met is born on Tuesday)

    Excluding the second of these instances is equivalent to saying that if I'd known the boy I met was the younger then I'd also know that his brother couldn't have been born on Tuesday. The second case needs to be counted as well, which brings the count to:

    28 possible events
    14 of which have 2 boys

    1. Re:Error in article's logic by DocDJ · · Score: 1

      You gave a good summary of the article's logic, but TFA's author is wrong to exclude the 7th younger boy possibility. The author assumes that any case where two boys are born on Tuesday is identical, and so duplicates should be removed; this is not true.

      It's simply not the case that there are duplicates. There is just one event there are two boys who are born on a Tuesday.

      <eldest boy born on Tuesday, youngest boy born on Tuesday>

      There are two events where there are two boys and one is born on a Monday and the other is born on a Tuesday.

      <eldest boy born on Monday, youngest boy born on Tuesday>
      <eldest boy born on Tuesday, youngest boy born on Monday>

      Your confusion arises from introducing a new random variable (whether you've met X or not) and enumerating over this, but only for the both-born-on-a-Tuesday event. You would need to do this for all the other events as well; this would have the effect of needlessly multiplying events but wouldn't change the relative frequencies of the original events.

  122. Two cases of Tuesday boys by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Insightful

    The AC you responded to has it right, both cases of "two Tuesday boys" need to be counted. You are also correct that, given two boys born on Tuesday, there is equal probability that a specific one is older or younger than the other. This second fact, however, is not a good reason for excluding one of the cases. In fact, it's the precise reason why we need to count both.

    Here are the two "two Tuesday boy" cases as I see them:
    (Boy I've met is older, boy I haven't met is born on Tuesday)
    (Boy I've met is younger, boy I haven't met is born on Tuesday)

    Excluding the second of these instances is equivalent to saying that if I'd known the boy I met was the younger then I'd also know that his brother couldn't have been born on Tuesday. This is clearly not a true claim.

    Neither would it be reasonable to exclude the first one, for the same reason: knowing that the boy I've met is older than his brother doesn't mean that his brother couldn't be born on Tuesday, too.

    The probability of the "brother I haven't met" being older or younger must be uniform, which requires two equally likely cases to be counted.

  123. born on a blue day by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    just read about this puzzle last night in a book called "born on a blue day"

  124. Alternative lifestyles...? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    The children could just as easily be adopted and/or born from two different mothers. Sorry to bring you into the 21st century.

  125. MOD PARENT UP by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    He's got the right idea.

  126. Can sombody actually summarize what this is about? by julesh · · Score: 1

    Article currently reads:

    "Error. You are unable to view this section
    cd .."

  127. Use the source by trust_jmh · · Score: 1

    (Assuming 50/50 change of boy/girl and no twins.)
    There is only one source; "I have two children, one of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday."
    The answer is 50%. (excluding complexities on how to interpret the line mathematically.)

    As soon as you add a second source the answer changes;
    Foo says: Bob has two children.
    Bar says: Bob has a son.
    Now the answer to Bob having two boys becomes 33 1/3%

    The stick or switch problem (can't think of the more common name) has two sources, first the random choice and the second caused by elimination action after this.

  128. Two Slashdot Readers by liam193 · · Score: 3, Funny

    I have two slashdot readers and one of them did not read the article before they posted a reply on a Tuesday. What is the probability that the other didn't read the article as well?

    100%

  129. this puzzle's been done before by cellocgw · · Score: 1

    The "boy is born on Tuesday" problem is really the same as an old card puzzler. Deal out13 cards (i.e. a Bridge hand). In some cases the player says "I have an ace." In other cases the player says "I have the ace of spades." In which case is the player more likely to have 2 or more Aces?
    The answer is of course, when he says he has the Ace of spades. You can brute-force it easily :-) by counting the number of hands w/ at least one ace, counting the number of hands with the ace of spades, and then seeing the percentage of each of those sets with more than one ace.
    And don't post that I'm wrong. I'm not, neither is Martin Gardner, and neither is Marylin vos Savant.

    --
    https://app.box.com/WitthoftResume Code: https://github.com/cellocgw
    1. Re:this puzzle's been done before by Jameson+Burt · · Score: 1

      Two variables deceive us, but our simple minds handle one variable

      Simpsons Paradox,
      http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Simpson's_paradox
      shows how women (Class1) can be admitted (Class2) to every academic department at a higher rate
      [essentially a percent, not a straight count] than men,
      yet overall departments admit men at a higher rate (one large department accepts women at a higher rate but more men apply).

      So too, Slashdot's problem perplexes the human with its two variables: day of week and male/female in flat-land.
      Remove day-of-week, as one response mentioned,
      then simple human intuition works in line-land.

  130. My 10-second guess by Impy+the+Impiuos+Imp · · Score: 1

    Ok, here's my thought after 10s of thinking:

    > "I have two children, one of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?"

    Well, that it's Tuesday is irrelevant unless you're gonna go data mining into actual births mapped to days of the week.

    But that "a boy was born on a particular day of the week" is important. Certain births are multiple births, possibly twins in this case. Hence one could expect that, knowing precisely 2 were born, that there's a slightly increased chance the other child was born on the same day, being a twin.

    So that's my 10s of thought, written over about two minutes.

    --
    (-1: Post disagrees with my already-settled worldview) is not a valid mod option.
  131. 1/2 by ChristofferC · · Score: 1

    So... all we know is that there is a son that was born on a Tuesday. The other child was born either before or after him. Maybe even on the same day. The possibilites are: He has an older brother. He has a younger brother. He has an older sister. He has a younger sister. The specific weekday doesn't matter at all. The answer is 2/4.

    1. Re:1/2 by geekoid · · Score: 1

      Wrong.
      Excluding the week day, there are three possibilities
      Boy, Boy,
      Boy, Girl
      Girl, Boy

      1 out of 3 that it's a boy.

      Anding Tuesday does change it to very close to 1/2.

      HOWEVER, their definition of how the apply the Tuesday information is ... questionable.

      Also, it's a math trick. The gender will be completly irrelevant to day and any other sibling.

      --
      The Kruger Dunning explains most post on /. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dunning%E2%80%93Kruger_effect
    2. Re:1/2 by ChristofferC · · Score: 1

      Why does the order of birth not matter when the other child is a boy?

    3. Re:1/2 by Dare+nMc · · Score: 1

      It is a language thing. So if Jack is asked, what are the odds, if Jill has 2 kids, that 2 of them are boys. Then the answer is 1/4. If Jack then asks, and is told by Jill "yes one of them is a boy, born on tuesday". Then the odds are 1/3 (since jack only eliminated the 2 girls option.)
      if you now come along and Jack tells you "Jill has 2 children one of them a boy born on Tuesday...." He gave you all the information he has (but not how he came about it) So you should take that into consideration, and figure out their are 2 options, either jack asked, then it is 1/3. or was it Jill talking about her boy, and then asked what are the odds my "unborn baby will be a boy" (then it would be 50/50) you should likely combine both odds, then the odds of both together, and come up with a 2 in 5 chance of it being a boy.

  132. Er, correction... by itsdapead · · Score: 1

    Actually, the basic two children problem isn't so bad

    Sorry, retract that, just read TFA again... That's the one that's ambiguous... My head hurts.

    --
    In a survey of 100 programmers, 111111 thought that duck-typing was a good idea.
    1. Re:Er, correction... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Actually, the basic two children problem isn't so bad

      Sorry, retract that, just read TFA again... That's the one that's ambiguous... My head hurts.

      That means it's working.

      It's cognitive dissonance. Your brain is trying to work out the disconnect between something you already understand intuitively and a new idea. Going through that process is the difference between knowing something and understanding it.

    2. Re:Er, correction... by itsdapead · · Score: 1

      It's cognitive dissonance.

      Well, yes, but the cognitive dissonance in this case is not in understanding the problem, but understanding that all of the conflicting answers (1/2, 1/3 and 13/27) are "right" for a particular interpretation of the question. So the real issue is understanding why different people interpret the question the way they do, and whether these interpretations are defensible.

      The fact that TFA had to re-write the original question using puppies to defend the 1/3 answer suggests to me that is the "least right" answer...

      --
      In a survey of 100 programmers, 111111 thought that duck-typing was a good idea.
  133. Assuming constraints is irrational by JoeDuncan · · Score: 1
    I see this problem in philosophy a lot (not the "two children/son on Tuesday" problem, but the meta problem that causes the confusion).

    There is ambiguity in the language, and this ambiguity *allows* for other constraints (i.e. how was the family selected, is only one child male, does order matter etc...).

    So you try to solve the problem by anticipating every possible unmentioned constraint that could have been implied. You come to an answer. Then the person who posed the problem says "Aha! You're an idiot! What about constraints X,Y and Z!". Since the question as posed didn't rule out X,Y and Z, you feel stupid and the person who posed the question pats themselves on the back.

    The problem is that it's not rational.

    In the absence of any explicitly supplied constraints, the only rational course of action is to assume that there are no other constraints and work only with the information given. This is how math works. Have you ever seen a math test where you answer the question with the information given and then the tester adds extra information after the fact and tells you that you're wrong? No? Me either, but that's exactly what's happening here.

    The only information given is that this person has two children, at least one of whom is a male born on a Tuesday. The fact that the one child is born on a Tuesday is *only* relevant if you start assuming unmentioned constraints (e.g. maybe the family wasn't selected at random, maybe the child was selected because of his birthday, maybe the man actually has 3 children... etc...).

    So, without trying to anticipate each and every *possible* constraint allowed by the ill-posed question, the only certain information you have, and thus the only information it is rational to work with, is: two children, one's a boy.

    The answer in this case is simple.

    Adding additional constraints after you have already solved the problem with the information provided and then claiming you're wrong is simply a dirty trick philosophers use to make themselves feel smart. If relevant constraints are not provided before hand, they are not part of the problem.

    P.S. I should qualify, I don't really have anything against philosophers, I really like a lot of philosophy - but philosophy is the only field I have seen where supplying constraints that affect the outcome of a problem after the fact is a valid way to win an argument.

    1. Re:Assuming constraints is irrational by itsdapead · · Score: 1

      The fact that the one child is born on a Tuesday is *only* relevant if you start assuming unmentioned constraints

      I think you've almost hit the nail on the head - its the question that's wrong, not the answers - but Tuesday isn't the problem.

      The real problem is that the original question - "Suppose that Mr. Smith has two children, at least one of whom is a son. What is the probability both children are boys?" (Ans: 1/2 - you've isolated a single case and identified one male child, so the only relevant thing is the probability of the second child being male) was (mis)interpreted by some as "what proportion of families with two children including at least one boy will have two boys" which is a completely different question (Ans 1/3 - this is the same as the "puppies" example in TFA). This is almost (but not quite) acknowledged in TFA (they had to re-write the question with puppies to defend 1/3).

      Throwing in "Tuesday" changes the question to either:

      "Suppose that Mr. Smith has two children, at least one of whom is a son. What is the probability both children are boys?" (Ans: you've still isolated a single case and identified one of the male children so its still 1/2. D'oh!)
      Or, seen through mathgoggles:
      "What proportion of families with two children including at least one boy born on a Tuesday will have two boys?" (Ans: 13/27 - you've constrained the sample and its changed the answer, big surprise)

      To summarize the summary: the mathematicians are answering the question they thought they'd asked, not the one that was actually asked. The "Tuesday" problem upsets them because the "right" answer to their question is very close the the "wrong" answer that Stupid People get to the actual question.

      --
      In a survey of 100 programmers, 111111 thought that duck-typing was a good idea.
  134. Define "Intuition" by Fantastic+Lad · · Score: 1

    Automatic Assumption #1: "The day of the week is irrelevant. The probability is 1/2. Dice and (theoretical) Wombs don't have memory."

    Automatic Assumption #2: "This is one of those loaded math problems, which means my first automatic assumption is almost certainly false and I need to apply further examination to work out why."

    Please note that. . .

    Intuition had exactly NOTHING to do with that process. Both assumptions were based on fast pattern recognition and old survival tactics. Old monkey/reptile brain stuff. You can program all of that into a machine. Real intuition cannot be programmed.

    REAL Intuition works from the soul level and taps into a knowledge base which includes data from past life experiences and the "infinite universal hard drive". (Which, of course, is still a form of pattern recognition and response, but it allows for more information than is actually available in the physical realm.)

    Here's what My REAL intuition told me: "There's something fishy about this. The mathematicians working on this are making assumptions which are actually debatable. This isn't as cut and dried as the Monty Hall problem; you cannot apply this to the real world. Also. . , most of Slashdot is going to take this personally and get all huffy."

    Real intuition, if people followed it, would see them switch doors when Monty offers the option. Their guts would tell them to because their guts have access to the universal probability calculator. Unless of course the prize was behind the first door.

    Jedi don't lose at Monty Hall. But then, of course, Jedi don't go on game shows either. On the way to becoming a Jedi, you realize that money and fame and glittery distraction for the masses belongs to a different realm. -A realm where automatic behavior is confused with intuition.

    -FL

  135. That is a lame question. by geekoid · · Score: 1

    I could change the answer by saying there a 52 Tuesdays in the year and using that as what the Tuesday means instead of just a day of the week.

    In fact, the question assumes they where born in the same week in order to get their 'answer'.

    --
    The Kruger Dunning explains most post on /. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dunning%E2%80%93Kruger_effect
  136. Whoosh! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    I think he knew that...

  137. Trickier puzzle by Twinbee · · Score: 1

    It's an interesting problem, but a slightly trickier probability puzzle in the Snooker Table of Doom:

    http://www.skytopia.com/project/imath/imath.html#13

    --
    Why OpalCalc is the best Windows calc
  138. Dead simple. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    As stated, the fact that one child was born on a Tuesday makes no difference (I can always make a statement of that form, substituting "girl" for "boy" and whatever day of the week works). The probability that both children are the same sex remains 1/4.

    On the other hand, if we decide ahead of time that we're specifically looking for people with two children, one of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday, that's a different story. We're not looking at a random pair of children any more. We're looking at pairs, one of whom has an unusual property. And the likelihood that the other child is also a boy is therefore, as near as makes no difference, 1/2 (it's not *quite* 1/2 because the case where both children are boys and share the property distorts the calculation very slightly - and the more unlikely that is, the closer the probability gets to 1/2).

  139. Correct M/5 birth ratio: ~105/205 by Justice-of-the-Peace · · Score: 1

    Here's the problem I'm seeing with everyone's "it's not 50/50" result - comparing females vs. males alive today is not the same as females vs. males births. Also, I'll cite my reference:

    http://www.scientificamerican.com/article.cfm?id=why-is-life-expectancy-lo

    The assumption is that it's current day, world ratio - obviously defining time or region will adjust the numbers, but the question is vague and we haven't been counting all births since humanity began.

  140. Everyone fails to notice... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    ...that gender is by no means binary. You have the possibility of transgendered children, mutated children, etc. Which basically makes this whole question pointless. The nerdiest among us manage to get very detailed decimal answers while failing to notice one of the most basic things that they (universally) take for granted. Shame, all you so-called expert problem solvers, shame!!! Just say 50% anyways, and go outside and enjoy nature. Spending any more time on this is pretty ridiculous.

  141. Dear /. by geekoid · · Score: 2, Funny

    Can you please create a flag for everyone that posted a wrong conclusion and then filter them out of all my views in the futures.

    I wish to do this because it will eliminate people who don't read the articles and people who can't do math.

    Thank you.

    --
    The Kruger Dunning explains most post on /. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dunning%E2%80%93Kruger_effect
  142. Solved the old-fashioned way, CODE IT! by Muad'Dave · · Score: 1

    The output of the following is:

    663152 out of 1377790 = 0.48131573026368313
    663863 out of 1377323 = 0.4819951456557394

    That's pretty close to 13/27 (0.481481...).

    I even sliced it a couple of different ways.

    public class TuesdaySon {
    public static void main(String[] args) {
    TuesdaySon ts = new TuesdaySon();
    ts.go();
    ts.go2();
    }

    public void go() {
    int hits = 0;
    int criteriaMet = 0;
    int max = 10000000;
    for (int i = 0; i < max; i++) {
    Child c1 = new Child();
    Child c2 = new Child();
    if ((c1.isBoy && c1.dayOfWeek == 2) ||
    (c2.isBoy && c2.dayOfWeek == 2)) {
    criteriaMet++;
    if (c1.isBoy && c2.isBoy) {
    hits++;
    }
    }
    }

    System.out.println(hits + " out of " + criteriaMet + " = " + (double) hits / (double) criteriaMet);

    }

    public void go2() {
    int hits = 0;
    int criteriaMet = 0;
    int max = 10000000;
    for (int i = 0; i < max; i++) {
    Child c1 = new Child();
    Child c2 = new Child();
    if (c1.isBoy) { // We have at least 1 boy
    if (c1.dayOfWeek == 2) { // We have a boy born on Tuesday
    criteriaMet++;
    if (c2.isBoy) { // The other child's a male
    hits++;
    }

    --
    Tiller's Rule: Never use a word in written form that you've only heard and never read. You will end up looking foolish.
    1. Re:Solved the old-fashioned way, CODE IT! by 1729 · · Score: 1

      Here's a non-randomized version (under the assumptions that boys and girls are equally likely, and that each day of the week is also equally likely):

      from __future__ import division
      import itertools
      days = ["M","T","W","Th","F","Sat","Sun"]
      sex = ["B","G"]

      # generate all single birth possibilities
      births = list(itertools.product(days,sex))

      # all possible pairs
      pairs = list(itertools.product(births,repeat=2))

      # pairs where at least one is a boy born on Tuesday
      tues_boys = [p for p in pairs if p[0] == ('T','B') or p[1] == ('T','B')]

      both_boys = [p for p in tues_boys if p[0][1] == 'B' and p[1][1] == 'B']

      print "Boy born on Tuesday: ", len(tues_boys)
      print "Two boys: ", len(both_boys)
      print "Probability: ", len(both_boys)/len(tues_boys)

      And the output:

      % python tuesday.py
      Boy born on Tuesday: 27
      Two boys: 13
      Probability: 0.481481481481

  143. What I tell people by seven+of+five · · Score: 1

    I have two sisters. They each have a sister and a brother, but I don't.

  144. It's a non-problem by UBfusion · · Score: 1

    I am glad you mentioned the existence of the alternative bayesian approach. I would like to argue in addition that both a) and b) need prior information, which are the demographics of the country in question.

    Whatever interpretation of "probability" is used (frequentist or bayesian), a realistic answer has to depend on the specific prior information about both actual proportions of boys and girls in the specific country, and details on their weekday of births.

    Assuming that the percentages are 50% boys, and that there are born equal numbers of boys per weekday is a non-problem for me - it's just an étude that does great disservice for the science of probability and statistics. I don't think health insurance works in real life by estimating the risks of, say, heart attack due to bad nutrition, starting with the premises of equal probabilities for males and females and equal probabilities for them eating healthy and junk food.

    If I were asked to provide an answer, I'd look up the demographics and make a pure 'classical' frequentist estimate, based on the actual frequencies of American boys' births and their respective dates of birth. For a different county, the results are altogether different.

  145. Two Coins Totalling 55 Cents by Pfhorrest · · Score: 1

    This reminds me of another riddle whose catch involves taking words too literally in exactly this way:

    I hold in my hand precisely two coins of current US denomination whose total value is 55 cents. One of them is NOT a 50 cent piece. What are the respective values of the two coins?

    (For those not in the US, the current US denominations of coin are 1, 5, 10, 25, 50, and 100 cents).

    The answer is a 5 cent piece (a "nickel" as we say colloquially) and a 50 cent piece.

    See, only ONE of them is not a 50 cent piece. The OTHER ONE is. The one that isn't a 50 cent piece is a 5 cent instead.

    --
    -Forrest Cameranesi, Geek of all Trades
    "I am Sam. Sam I am. I do not like trolls, flames, or spam."
  146. Comment removed by account_deleted · · Score: 1

    Comment removed based on user account deletion

  147. see this by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    I was thinking various scenarios that can happen in this case :
    (I mean what are different possibilities of 2 kids can born to a woman) :

    1. Woman gave birth to 2 kids at the same time – and both boys > BB
    2. Woman gave birth to 2 kids at the same time – and both GALs> GG
    3. Woman gave birth to 2 kids at the same time – and 1 boy 1 gal> GB it is at same time so u can say GB og BG
    4. Woman gave birth to 2 kids– First Boy then Gal > B- G
    5. Woman gave birth to 2 kids– First Boy then Boy > B- B
    6. Woman gave birth to 2 kids– First GAL then GAL > G- G
    7. Woman gave birth to 2 kids– First GAL then Boy > G- B

    Now let’s listen the puzzle. I have 2 kids and one is boy.
    Now lets get only those scenarios which can satisfy the statement at this time :
    Number 2 and 6 are out. We have only five different options now(2 options are removed).

    Now what the prob of having 2 boys :
    = 2 / 5 = 0.4

    This is based on consideration that 2 kids can take birth at the same time (exact same time )

  148. Add complexity by iPhr0stByt3 · · Score: 1

    Following assumptions/criteria:
    Exactly 2 children.
    At least one is a Boy with Blonde hair born on Tuesday
    While obviously not even close to true, for the sake of probabilistic analysis, let's assume that possible hair colors are evenly distributed (1/4) between blonde, brown, red and black.
    What is the probability of the 2nd child being a boy?

    Answer is 55/111

    111 total possibilities with at least one Blonde Boy born on Tuesday: Question is not what day of the week the other child is born or what hair color he/she has, therefore normally 4 possible answers: boy/boy, boy/girl, girl/boy, girl/girl. Additional information takes these possibilities times 7 (days of the week) and times 4 (hair colors). 4x4x7 = 112. Here, each possibility allows for EITHER the first or the 2nd child child to have any gender/day of week/hair color. However, with the restriction that one MUST be a Blonde Boy born on Tuesday we lose one possible combination (you cannot count Blonde Boy born on Tuesday for BOTH the first and the 2nd child - that's like rolling dice and counting "double 1" or "double 2" twice in the possible dice combinations). This leaves 111 possible combinations for the other child - of these 55 are boy ("1st child=Brown Boy on Thursday" OR "2nd child=Brown Boy on Thursday" OR "1st child=Black Boy born on Sunday" OR "2nd child=Black Boy born on Sunday" OR "another Blonde Boy born on Tuesday", etc) and 56 are girl.

  149. Time Vampire by UNHOLYwoo · · Score: 1

    Well this thread burned an otherwise boring hour and a half at work for me. Thanks everybody.

  150. in any plausible statistical scenario, it's 50% by nothings · · Score: 1
    Short version of my response:

    A mathematician poses a problem about a father with two children, mentioning that one child is known to be of a certain age and born on a certain day, and asks what the probability is that the other child is the same gender.

    The answer to this question (assuming 50:50 birth rates) is 50%.

    This is because I'm accumulating probability over sets of questions & fathers & children without omitting any cases, much as the non-50% answer accumulates probability over sets of children and omits some cases.

    Long version:

    If you try to understand probability without trying to count over large sets of examples (i.e. statistics), you will almost surely make mistakes.

    Let's step back to just the Two Children Problem and, I'm going to try to point out what I hope is a slightly deeper intuition about the two answers.

    The naive answer of 1/2 just assumes the child gender is independent. Woohoo, rock on.

    The "clever" answer imagines that we have thousands of fathers with two children. Some of those fathers are the fathers of two girls. The rest are the fathers of at least one boy. Only the latter fathers can pose this problem; therefore, if we randomly select a father from that set of fathers who can pose this problem, we have only a 1/3rd chance of drawing a father who is the father of two boys.

    But we're linking the fathers to the problem in an overly specific way. Suppose we draw a father randomly from the set of all fathers with two children. That father may have two boys, two girls, or one of each. If we draw a father with at least one boy, we can proffer him to the reader and ask what the odds are his other child is a boy. If we draw a father with at least one girl, we can proffer him to the reader and ask what the odds are his other child is a girl.

    So, if you actually had to do this--pick one person, ask the question, and you're done--what would you do? Well, it's dumb to draw a random father and then go "oh crap, we can't actually ask a question, this whole thing was a waste of time". So you'd probably ask the "at least one boy" question if they had two boys, the "at least one girl" question if they had two girls, or... one or the other question in the other case. Maybe you always ask the boys question. Maybe you randomly pick. If your tie-breaker is to just always ask "at least one boy" if it's possible, then the answer to "at least one boy" is 1/3 chance the other is a boy, but the answer to "at least one girl" is a 100% chance the other is a girl!

    If you choose "fairly", then when you draw a father with both a boy and a girl, then half the time you ask "at least one boy" and half the time you ask "at least one girl".

    If you choose that way, and happen to draw a father with the "at least one boy" question, then the probability the other child of his is a boy is 50%. (That is, given 100 fathers, the three cases are 2 girls: 25; 2 boys 25; 1 each 50; you split the 1 each case between the 2 questions, so you have 50 cases where you ask "at least one girl"--25 of those are they have 2 girls, 25 of those they have one of each; and 50 cases where you ask "at least one boy" with the same odds.)

    Thus a complete analysis of all the cases under a more plausible situation for where you might be asking this question returns to the naive solution: the other child will be a boy 50% of the time.

    So, as other people have said it depends on context. If the context is that it's a mathematician posing the question once about a hypothetical non-real situation, and the mathematician is sexist or otherwise favors mentioning boys, then maybe it's 1/3rd. But if he's not--if he chose the question randomly based on the gender choices available to him--then it's 50%.

    Moreover, even if you choose a sexist bias for how you split the middle cases, if you measure over asking ALL questions, both "at least one boy" and "at least one girl", no matter how you split up the cases, the average odds that the other c

    1. Re:in any plausible statistical scenario, it's 50% by nothings · · Score: 1

      "known to be a certain age" is supposed to be "known to be a certain gender", sigh

  151. Whoooosh! by Joce640k · · Score: 1

    For this to work you're not allowed to know *which* coin is heads.

    If you open one of your hands and look at one of them the probability function collapses back to 50%.

    The trick is to get somebody else to look at them for you...

    --
    No sig today...
  152. Re:MOD PARENT DOWN by prionic6 · · Score: 1

    Oops, sorry. "drew". English is not my first language.

  153. Wrong math-heads by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    All of you are missing the real question here. Not seeing the trees(baby’s) for the numbers.
    As the question is phrased, we are talking about human birth here, not a true abstract math problem.

    The reality of human biology is the root and the answer.

    It is always 51/49 boy/girl birth ratio without knowing of any individual family history that would show a predisposition to either conceiving or carrying to term one sex over the other.

    So, the answer is 51%, because that is the percentage of boys born to humans.
    No math ‘tricks’ applied.
    The ratio is not 50/50. And ‘Monty Hall’ type probability does not apply as we are not talking about a random gamble but biological fact.
    The fact is 51% of the time a baby is born alive it will be a boy, 49% of the time it will be a girl.

    Now We could go deeper into demographics and look at survival rates past some age as the question would leave open room for looking at the chance that both children are still baby’s and then look at the survival rate at the most probable age range, but you get my point.
    We are not talking about a simple data set with 50/50 chances (not really) and then distilling down
    Boy|Girl
    Boy|Boy
    Boy|Hermaphrodite (forgot about that one?)

    We are looking at the real (biological) result of a complex system with a known probability of outcome.

    51% chance the second child is a boy.

    Now, if we want to infer from the truth stated that one child is a boy that the parent in question is capable of either siring or carrying to term a boy then we would need to look deeper at the medical research to determine how much that knowledge influences the chances of the other child being a boy. In fact, having a boy (or boys) without any girls does indeed slightly reduce the chance of the next child being a girl, but the way the question is phrased we don’t know if the boy was born first.

    The reason(s) boys are born more often are complex, one theory is that the Y sperm is lighter and faster than the X and has a higher chance of reaching the egg first. Also the smaller size of the DNA package might make the actual process of penetrating the egg slightly easier.
    Other factors with more complex controls would be evolutionary pressures leaning to boys because of the higher mortality rate of human men, the need for familial men to protect females and children for survival of the group (and the groups genes), and long standing and widespread cultural preferences for women to give birth to male offspring.

    Still, without more information:
    51% chance the second child is a boy.

    1. Re:Wrong math-heads by gujo-odori · · Score: 1

      I'm glad somebody brought up the biological angle, although it can be more nuanced than the AC states. First, the ratio of live male births to live female births is (at least in the industrialized world) 1.05:1.00, although studies report there is a long term falling trend on male births, such that 1:1 appears to be coming.

      That said, since many men (most, perhaps?) have a predilection toward fathering either boys or girls, the fact that one of the children is known to be a boy may influence the likelihood away from 50/50. I knew an anecdote is not a statistic, but enough of them can look a lot like a statistic, so here are a few:

      -My dad fathered three sons, no daughters.
      -I fathered four daughters, no sons.
      -My next door neighbors has three sons, no daughters.
      -The majority of the kids my daughters go to school with come from families where the siblings are predominantly one gender, and in many of them, the siblings are all of the same gender.

      So, while I'm not a mathematician and I may be talking out my arse statistically, it seems to me that knowing one of the children in question is a boy raises the chance that the other is also a boy to some (possibly indeterminable) number well above fifty percent.

  154. unborn? by circletimessquare · · Score: 1

    that word is a horror motif

    you can be born/ not born, which is the proper schrodinger scenario you are referring to

    but its some sort of cthulhu ritual to contemplate the process of being UNborn

    i guess its like being undead: not alive, but still moving

    unborn: you never were born, but you still exist! MUAHAHAHAHAHAHA

    --
    intellectual property law is philosophically incoherent. it is your moral duty to ignore it or sabotage it
  155. This is stupid. by Alex+Belits · · Score: 1

    The fact that someone told someone else the outcome of a random event has no effect on probability of other independent random events -- even if they are similar.

    --
    Contrary to the popular belief, there indeed is no God.
  156. A voice of reason - 1/2 is right - read this by nu1x · · Score: 1

    > What we can deduce from the wording is that his other child is not a son born on a tuesday.

    No we can not - nowhere it is shown, in the wording of the question, to be the case.

    In fact, NOTHING is mentioned, or is known about the other child.

    http://slashdot.org/comments.pl?sid=1701394&cid=32729366

    http://slashdot.org/comments.pl?sid=1701394&cid=32729694

    http://slashdot.org/comments.pl?sid=1701394&cid=32729826

    --
    I have nothing to lose but my bindings.
  157. EXACTLY by nu1x · · Score: 1

    This is what I was trying to impart to deluded ones, it is so painful to watch people jumping off the cliff in lemming-like droves.

    I wrote a fair share of well - reasoned comments, just because this article struck a deep nerve in me - about certain kind of people who always seem to conveniently (to themselves) misinterpret things.

    Well, guess what, 1/2 is correct in all closed-universe cases with 1/2 gender normality and 2 genders.

    PERIOD.

    Glad to see I am not the only one not drawn in by this baroque nonsense :P

    --
    I have nothing to lose but my bindings.
  158. Agree by nu1x · · Score: 1

    Read my other comments on this thread, where I try to expose these faux-mathematicians for the lawyers that they are -- as per normal, common sense wording (english and all) of the question, 1/2 is always the answer, because the other child is absolutely non-dependent on existing given constraints of the question. I suspect these particular mathematicians, lawyery as they are, seem to not really grasp proper use of language operators. I suspect they would make bad programmers. Mind you, I met some nice mathematicians who share no such flaws, hence the partial defense on my part :P

    --
    I have nothing to lose but my bindings.
  159. All I could think of was... by IndigoDarkwolf · · Score: 1

    ...lies, damned lies, and statistics.

    1. Re:All I could think of was... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      This is real math shithead.

  160. Agree and my first FL reply by nu1x · · Score: 1

    Heya :P Boy this struck a nerve with me - you can read my comments in this story, by far my most prolific so far, to see my attempts to show some light to lemmingy people who assume that non-existing language opperators in the given question are the same as existing. Well, there is no "ONLY one of two kids". I don't see it. The answer is always 1/2, because nowhere in question, if you read as per normal rules of grammar, is there any indication that the second child's gender depends on ANY outside parameters given in the question. Thus there are only 2 possible solution sets -- boy boy and boy girl, which gives answer to the question and exact probability of 1/2, if we don't take into account random gender variations and possibility of more genders than 2. And a cat :P

    --
    I have nothing to lose but my bindings.
  161. Sorry for formating by nu1x · · Score: 1

    No.

    Extended set is

    bb
    bg
    gb
    bb

    BB is two times because you do not know which is the first mentioned boy, as with the girl case. Do you see the light now ? gb bg constricts to bg for stat purposes, and bb bb constrict to bb for stat purposes. Tuesday, as per spoken language of kings, Yon English, is irrelevant.

    1/2.

    --
    I have nothing to lose but my bindings.
  162. Oh by nu1x · · Score: 1

    FFS, the probability of both children being boys is 1/2.

    --
    I have nothing to lose but my bindings.
  163. girl girl is ruled out by the question by nu1x · · Score: 1

    And the are 250 Tboy boy AND 250 boy Tboy pairs.

    Also 250 Tboy girl and 250 girl Tboy pairs.

    The question a priori rules out there being possible a pair of girl girl.

    Gees, now I talk like a lawyer.

    Really, it is easy. There are others. Join us, live a meaningful life.

    Before applying a solution, first, read the problem. Then, construct the solution.

    1/2, yo :P

    --
    I have nothing to lose but my bindings.
    1. Re:girl girl is ruled out by the question by A+Nun+Must+Cow+Herd · · Score: 1

      Nope - assuming Tboy means the boy that's identified in the problem statement, then there are 125 Tboy boy and 125 boy Tboy pairs. (And 250 Tboy girl and 250 girl Tboy pairs).

      So it's still 1/3.

      The correct solution is counter-intuitive, but so is a fair bit of statistics.

    2. Re:girl girl is ruled out by the question by nu1x · · Score: 1

      Well, this is a case of parsing a sentence then, and I rest my case.

      --
      I have nothing to lose but my bindings.
  164. There is no first - second child. by nu1x · · Score: 1

    Tboy boy 1/4
    boy Tboy 1/4
    Tboy girl 1/4
    girl Tboy 1/4

    Relevant added probabilities Tboy boy 1/2 Tboy girl 1/2.

    1/2.

    Tuesday - irrelevant pseudo logical garbage, shoving contempt for language operators.

    Really, this is one of those rare cases where the article is somehow, excruciatingly, painfully wrong. This thread made my ears steam.

    --
    I have nothing to lose but my bindings.
  165. Yes, but... by nu1x · · Score: 1

    what does this have to do with the task at hand ?

    girl girl pairing is ruled out by the stating of the problem itself. You keep forgetting this, and add gg prior to considering the true scope of the problem, which has no gg. This is what I think, and I think it correct. Seemingly, I am not the only one in this thread. The truth is, you cannot assign mothers here, it is inconvenient and irrelevant to the ACTUAL problem.

    Again, you keep forgetting that one of the boys, Tboy (Tuesday-born boy), is unique, and persistent.

    There are 4 groups, as per problem:

    Tboy boy
    boy Tboy
    Tboy girl
    girl Tboy
    each 1/4 prob which adds up to 1/2 for Tboy boy (ordering is irrelevant, only the sum matters). And Tuesday, is too, not relevant. Except as a convenient naming measure for the unique boy, Tboy.

    --
    I have nothing to lose but my bindings.
    1. Re:Yes, but... by Roxton · · Score: 1

      Tboy boy
      boy Tboy
      Tboy girl
      girl Tboy
      each 1/4 prob

      They aren't each 1/4, you ninny.

    2. Re:Yes, but... by nu1x · · Score: 1

      This problem is trivial. The real problem in this case is proper parsing of a sentence, which it seems different people have different ideas for. This is why I hate at least some english speakers - this absurdity would not arise in German, I bet :P

      --
      I have nothing to lose but my bindings.
    3. Re:Yes, but... by Roxton · · Score: 1

      This is not a language issue. The problem statement is simple and correct. People are imagining twists in the problem because they can't fathom how such a simple problem has such a strange answer.

  166. two children? by e_hu_man · · Score: 1

    funny how there's controversy over whether "one" means "at least one" or "exactly one," but "two children" means "exactly two children." to do this properly, you need to know how likely it is that the person has three children, four children, five children, six children,..., 6.7 billion children. after all, this person may consider the all humans his/her children.

  167. Why is this under Science? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    When it's just stupid word games. This isn't math. This is someone twisting words that a majority of people would understand one way to an obscure meaning that any normal person would disagree with.

    It's not news, it's idiocy.

  168. Heart of the Matter by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    1. The day when the children are born is not relevant. As far as I know, aside from whatever superstition mumbo-jumbo might say, days of the week do not affect the gender of the child; even if they do affect it, in some minimal way, it would have an even smaller effect on the gender of any future or past children. The information about Tuesday is irrelevant to the question.

    2. When the man says that one of his children is a son, that makes the odds of having a second son 50% (ignoring any differences in gender ratios). There is a DIFFERENCE between the odds of having two sons and the odds of having a son. The odds of having a son is 50% (two fair options); the probability of having two sons is 25% (.5*.5). The question, however, "What's the probability that my other child is a boy?", is only asking what the probability is that his son is a boy, not the probability of an outcome with two sons.

    Answer = 50%.

    It'd be the same thing as saying, "A person of indeterminable gender walks up to me and says, 'One of my children is a son. What is the probability that my other child is a boy?" and acting as though the gender of the parent affects the probabilities.

  169. Bad problem statement by random_ID · · Score: 1

    This is why we don't let English majors write statistics texts.

  170. a variation of this puzzle by ifeelswine · · Score: 1

    I have two children. One is retarded and creates mathematical puzzles based on ambiguously loosely worded assumptions. What is the probability that the second child is goatse?

  171. wikipedia / twins by sugarmotor · · Score: 1

    There's an article at wikipedia about the simpler problem (no Tuesday confusion). http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Boy_or_Girl_paradox

    What is most annoying in all of these discussions is the (seemingly automatic) passing over of the possibility of identical twins.

    Stephan

    --
    http://stephan.sugarmotor.org
  172. you mean you don't know? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    The probability that your other child is a boy is: zero if your other child is a girl, and one if your other child is a boy. Honestly, just ask the doctor if you're not sure.

  173. It'll all be over by Christmas ... by Hognoxious · · Score: 1

    Sorry, my bad. I wasn't aware that names of days were unique throughout the entire history of the world.

    --
    Confucius say, "Find worm in apple - bad. Find half a worm - worse."
  174. Your assumption that P=1/196 may be flawed by slashqwerty · · Score: 1

    According to your distribution list, the odds that a family would have a boy born on Tuesday, and another boy born on Tuesday are 1/196 while the odds that a family would have a boy born on Monday, and another boy born on Wednesday are 2/196. If the birth date of the two children were independent the odds would be the same. So your assumption that P=1/196 for each outcome may be flawed.

    As another poster pointed out, your list actually has 28 boys born on Tuesday and 14 of them have a brother. So if the gender and birth date are independent the odds are 14/28=1/2.

    1. Re:Your assumption that P=1/196 may be flawed by prionic6 · · Score: 1

      So according to you, if you rolled a dice twice (independent results), the odds that you would have rolled a 1 and would have rolled another 1 are the same as that you would have rolled a 1 and would have rolled a 2?

    2. Re:Your assumption that P=1/196 may be flawed by prionic6 · · Score: 1

      A "die", sorry

  175. Re:The outcomes are not related by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    There are only four options:

    Boy(Tuesday), Boy (day irrelevant)
    Boy(Tuesday), Girl (day irrelevant)
    (day irrelevant)Boy, Boy(Tuesday)
    (day irrelevant)Girl, Boy(Tuesday)

    Two options have Boy, Boy and two options have Boy, Girl simple 50%

  176. What is the Matter With You People? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Nobody has come up with the correct answer so far. There are two children, therefore in addition to one boy born on Tuesday, there is one other child, who cannot be also a boy born on Tuesday, because then there would then be two boys born on Tuesday instead of one.

    So what are the possibilities for the other child?
    * Girl born on any day of the week = 7 possibilities
    * Boy born on any day except Tuesday = 6 possibilities

    All possibilities are equally likely, therefore the probability of the other child being a boy is 6/13.

    All the stuff about first child or second child is irrelevant. Even the guy who did SQL solved the wrong problem. Even the original article gives the wrong answer. Sheesh!

  177. Odds? by harddriveerror · · Score: 1

    At this point they should know the sex of all there children!

    1. Re:Odds? by harddriveerror · · Score: 1

      *their*

  178. wtf, not 42? by trastomatic · · Score: 1

    This may be one of the few problems where 42 is not the right answer.

  179. It's worded wrong. by BlueCoder · · Score: 1

    It should be:

    If I had two children and if one of the children was both a boy and born on a Tuesday then what is the probability that the other child is also a boy.

    Any chance the original question was a translation from another language?

  180. Re:just bad english in the article. by Dare+nMc · · Score: 1

    correct, it is just about english assumptions in the article.
    had he stated
    "I have two children, only one of whom is a boy born on a Tuesday. What's the probability that my other child is a boy?"
    Then the problem would have been obvious. The whole article assumes that the word "only" is optional in that sentence with the same meaning with or without it. Then confuses the issue by then assuming "I have two children, only/b> one of whom is a boy. This time omitting this clarification he can assume that because the solution would be obviously One boy, one Girl that what we must really mean is that instead of assuming "only" we are assuming "at least" instead.

  181. Okay by neoshroom · · Score: 1

    Okay, so then I re-flip and a freak meteor falls out of the sky and vaporizes the coin before it hits the ground. It also vaporized you.

    --
    Big apple, new Yorik, undig it, something's unrotting in Edenmark.
  182. Gremlins by Capsaicin · · Score: 1

    The line "size -= 149898" should in populate(), of course, read "size -= 1"

    --
    Better to be despised for too anxious apprehensions, than ruined by too confident a security. --Edmund Burke
  183. Comment removed by account_deleted · · Score: 1

    Comment removed based on user account deletion

  184. distinctions that weren't parsed satisfyingly by tiburona · · Score: 1
    This:

    "Gardner himself tripped up on his simpler Two Children Problem. Initially, he gave the answer as 1/3, but he later realized that the problem is ambiguous in the same way that Peres argues that the Tuesday Birthday Problem is. Suppose that you already knew that Mr. Smith had two children, and then you meet him on the street with a boy he introduces as his son. In that case, the probability the other child is a son would be 1/2, just as intuition suggests."

    is the difference between taking "one is a boy" to mean "at least one boy, can't tell you which" and "a specified boy." I'm kind of surprised it ever took Gardner any time to realize that distinction existed.

    However, that's not the same ambiguity as the one that determines whether or not the information about the birth day can be informative.

    The information about the birth day can only lead to the 13/27 answer if the speaker only would have told you the birth day if it were Tuesday. If the speaker might have told you the birth day was Wednesday if that were the case, the answer is no longer 13/27. To get an answer of 13/27, you have to imagine the speaker answered the question "Was at least one child a boy born on a Tuesday?" or something similar. This much is clear from the article.

    In contrast, "at least one is a boy" can be informative without knowing what prompted the speaker to say it. It is still informative even if the speaker might have said under other circumstances "At least one is a girl."

    That means that this paragraph is, at best, unclear:

    "Everything depends, he points out, on why I decided to tell you about the Tuesday-birthday-boy. If I specifically selected him because he was a boy born on Tuesday (and if I would have kept quiet had neither of my children qualified), then the 13/27 probability is correct. But if I randomly chose one of my two children to describe and then reported the child’s sex and birthday, and he just happened to be a boy born on Tuesday, then intuition prevails: The probability that the other child will be a boy will indeed be 1/2."

    Specifying "if I randomly chose one of my two children" does indeed necessitate that the probability the other one is a boy is 1/2, but it misses a possibility. That possibility is that the speaker is reporting not on a specific child, but reporting the gender of at least one child. In that case, the probability is 1/3, unless the the speaker also responding to a prompt like "is at least one of your children a boy born on a Tuesday?" The information about the birth day and the information about gender do not have the same epistemological status in the problem. The informativeness of the day of birth is totally dependent on what prompted the utterance. The information about the gender of at least one child is not. (I have code that demonstrates this in a simulation; I wasn't confident on the point until I had proved it to myself.)

    Whether one can accept an answer of 1/3 does depend on an additional assumption necessary for full specification of the problem: that the speaker would be equally likely to report "at least one of my children is an X" in all cases it's true.

  185. Stochastical Evidence by eibo · · Score: 1

    Before I was given the proof I could immediately understand ( http://science.slashdot.org/comments.pl?sid=1701394&cid=32729242) I started a little OpenOffice database to give me some experimental evidence. This OpenOffice Base file unfortunately has one error which keeps me from checking bigger datasets but at least it did show me that 100,000 families is not enough. The probability for a brother ranges between 0.42 and 0.51 in my runs.