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Why Paying For Code Doesn't Mean You Own It

Barence writes "Why do people think they own code just because they've paid for it? PC Pro's Kevin Partner says many of his clients believe that by paying for the work to be done, they take ownership of it. But, put simply, code is owned by its developer even once the client has paid, unless that developer is legally employed by the client or a contract exists that transfers full ownership (and even then it's far from clear-cut). He discusses the thorny issue of making clients understand that distinction and gives advice on how developers can assert their rights."

447 comments

  1. Evolution by blai · · Score: 2, Insightful

    Why do people think they own code just because they've paid for it

    yeah, I am used to paying for an item, and software happens to be an item (especially when it is delivered on a CD)

    --
    In soviet Russia, God creates you!
    1. Re:Evolution by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      > yeah, I am used to paying for an item, and software happens to be an item (especially when it is delivered on a CD)

      "A book happens to be an item (especially when it is delivered on paper)"

      Obviously there is a difference between copyrighted items and non-copyrighted items. When was the last time you bought a book and thought that gave you copyright on it?

      Strangely enough, book publishing is one area where by convention the author usually DOESN'T own the copyright, but the person who paid for it (publisher) does!

    2. Re:Evolution by goombah99 · · Score: 4, Interesting

      Does the builder or architect own my house? No, but he might own the floor plan to my house. He might not too. it depends on what I paid for.

      --
      Some drink at the fountain of knowledge. Others just gargle.
    3. Re:Evolution by AlecC · · Score: 1

      So you think you own the code in the engine control system of your car, a delivered item? Or the code in your mobile phone, equally delivered? Or, for that matter, Microsoft Windows, delivered on CD?

      --
      Consciousness is an illusion caused by an excess of self consciousness.
    4. Re:Evolution by INT_QRK · · Score: 4, Informative

      Bottom line is that if you're buying COTS, then you get whatever the license says. If you're paying for development, then you get whatever you negotiate. Articulate your requirement for data rights in the RFP, carefully review the proposals for meeting your requirements, then follow-up to ensure the contract says what you need it to say.

    5. Re:Evolution by clang_jangle · · Score: 3, Insightful

      Strangely enough, book publishing is one area where by convention the author usually DOESN'T own the copyright, but the person who paid for it (publisher) does!

      Unfortunately that's not particularly strange at all. Most coders don't own their code either, the company they work for does. Same is true for songwriters, screenwriters, etc.

      --
      Caveat Utilitor
    6. Re:Evolution by Kjella · · Score: 1

      At least in this case I've never heard of them getting paid if you want to tear down a wall and extend the house, despite changing the floor plan.

      --
      Live today, because you never know what tomorrow brings
    7. Re:Evolution by nschubach · · Score: 2, Insightful

      A person can also sell/share/rent a book after reading it and not break the law as well.

      --
      Every time I start to have faith in humanity, I ruin it by driving to work between 7 and 8 am.
    8. Re:Evolution by TheRaven64 · · Score: 2, Informative

      Buying a book? Never. Paying someone to write a book? Entirely different. When I am paid to write a book, my publisher doesn't own the book, but they do own exclusive publication rights and various other things. These are all made clear in the contract. If I am paid to write code then it's usually work for hire and the client does own it, unless the contract explicitly stats something to the contrary. If you're paying someone else to write code then you should either own it, or make sure that you have it under an X11-style license. Anything else and you're locked into that person for all future maintenance.

      --
      I am TheRaven on Soylent News
    9. Re:Evolution by Opportunist · · Score: 1

      He might not even own the design, if the design was your idea (=your IP) and he just executed the structural analysis calculation to make the whole deal compatible with building codes. But yes, it can be a big issue and a matter you have to take to court. Not to mention that it will certainly depend on your country's IP laws.

      --
      We used to have a Bill of Rights. Now, with the rights gone, all we have left is the bill.
    10. Re:Evolution by clang_jangle · · Score: 1

      Which is why publishers are so rabid about pursuing DRM on ebooks, they'd love to see that sort of freedom eliminated.

      --
      Caveat Utilitor
    11. Re:Evolution by MrKaos · · Score: 2, Insightful

      Unfortunately that's not particularly strange at all. Most coders don't own their code either, the company they work for does. Same is true for songwriters, screenwriters, etc.

      Well last time I checked with my lawyer I in fact *do* own the code I write and I own the moral rights to any work I produce and those rights cannot be assigned away by copyright or any other because I am the original producer of the work.

      Which is how it should be. I have no problem with the people who paid for me to produce some code using the code I produce. I do have a problem with them trying to assign themselves the absolute rights to the code I make, especially if I want to re-use parts of my code elsewhere. Who wants to re-write the same code over again if you have already done it before.

      Someone else doesn't own my code just as much as I don't own someone else's code. If someone pays for code they own a copy of it and do what they choose with it. You don't have to make a big deal of it - just make daily backups of what you do and secure your own archive. It's not even about asserting your rights, it's about using them.

      Don't give up your rights - Bob Marley

      --
      My ism, it's full of beliefs.
    12. Re:Evolution by isnoop · · Score: 2, Insightful

      Are you suggesting you should be able to work at Microsoft for years developing code and when you leave, you have the right to take every line of code you wrote with you and sell a copy of it to the next company you work for?

      Surely you jest.

    13. Re:Evolution by b4dc0d3r · · Score: 1

      I assume you work for a legally incorporated or otherwise registered employer, otherwise your comment is irrelevant. I also assume that as part of your hiring process you signed en employment contract of some kind.

      I further assume your lawyer looked over your employment contract, the one with your signature on it (or a suitable facsimile) and came to this conclusion.

      Most people employed to write code have a clause that anything they produce is a work for hire, and is owned by the company. Of these people, most also have a clause which says if you create code *not* for the company, but while being employed *by* the company at a salary, then anything you write while not at work is also company property, due to you very likely using company time, resources, training, best practices, or something else to do so.

      No arguments on whether this should be the case - the contracts are signed. So while this might be your situation (I'd advise you to double-check), most people are not in the same boat.

    14. Re:Evolution by Sique · · Score: 1

      Strangely enough, book publishing is one area where by convention the author usually DOESN'T own the copyright, but the person who paid for it (publisher) does!

      That is only true for the anglophone world. In the states which signed the Berne Convention, the author retains his rights infinitely.

      --
      .sig: Sique *sigh*
    15. Re:Evolution by SQLGuru · · Score: 1

      I always spell it out in the side work I do. In some instances, I've retained the rights to the code in others, I didn't. If you want to own the code, it will cost you extra (since I then can't resell it), but if you just want to use the end result of the code, you pay regular price. I also offer the option for you to get a copy of the code but that I own the rights to it. I give the options mostly to be able to get extra cash, I really could care less about code ownership wrt my clients. I've not had too many instances where the code I wrote for one client overlapped a lot with that for another (at least not yet).

    16. Re:Evolution by suomynonAyletamitlU · · Score: 1

      The builder can always build better, faster, or cheaper than the competition, bringing them constant business for their investment (the time and money they put into building your house).

      If you invest thousands of man-hours into software, and some other shit steals it--the work itself, not the product--and calibrates his cost based on not having had to pay for thouse thousands of man-hours, you will be undercut, if you even have a business left at all.

    17. Re:Evolution by haruharaharu · · Score: 1

      More likely, he's a 1099 contractor/consultant. Since that isn't an employment relationship, your argument falls apart.

      --
      Reboot macht Frei.
    18. Re:Evolution by blackraven14250 · · Score: 2, Insightful

      In these cases, not more than one copy of the book is in existence; I've only given you the book to use, without keeping the ability to use it myself.

      If I copy Photoshop, there's 2 copies of Photoshop. If I let someone borrow my hard drive, and they just USE the Photoshop install, then there's only 1 copy floating around, assuming no copying has taken place.

    19. Re:Evolution by dissy · · Score: 3, Informative

      Unfortunately that's not particularly strange at all. Most coders don't own their code either, the company they work for does. Same is true for songwriters, screenwriters, etc.

      Well last time I checked with my lawyer I in fact *do* own the code I write and I own the moral rights to any work I produce and those rights cannot be assigned away by copyright or any other because I am the original producer of the work.

      Untrue. You as the producer of the work CAN if you desire to transfer the copyright to someone else.

      The parent is correct. Most coders that work for a company, have an agreement with that company in their contract that code they write for the company is a work for hire and they require the transfer of copyright.
      The coder would need to agree to that to get hired there.

      So that coder does have the right to transfer their copyright, and most coders do exactly that.

    20. Re:Evolution by icebike · · Score: 1

      More likely, he's a 1099 contractor/consultant. Since that isn't an employment relationship, your argument falls apart.

      Not really. Work for hire applies to contractors and consultants too. Most contracts now contain boiler plate to make sure of it just because so many contractors have tried to pull the stunt of retaining rights.

      --
      Sig Battery depleted. Reverting to safe mode.
    21. Re:Evolution by Anonymous+Brave+Guy · · Score: 1

      Well last time I checked with my lawyer I in fact *do* own the code I write

      And are your circumstances typical of most coders? I'm guessing not, because anyone either employed or producing works for hire as an independent will almost certainly have a clause in their contract transferring the copyright to the employer/client. Moreover, in most places in the western world, the presumption in law if no such agreement was explicit would still be in favour of the employer/contractor. For code developed commercially, you would typically retain the copyright only if either you had an explicit condition in your contract stating so, or if your project was not a work for hire commissioned by a specific client.

      --
      If you disagree, post your argument. (-1, Overrated) isn't your personal censorship tool for views you don't like.
    22. Re:Evolution by Anonymous+Brave+Guy · · Score: 1

      That is only true for the anglophone world. In the states which signed the Berne Convention, the author retains his rights infinitely.

      The Berne Convention is one of the foundations of copyright law almost everywhere that has it. Are you claiming that transfer of copyright from an author to a publisher is impossible under the Berne rules?

      --
      If you disagree, post your argument. (-1, Overrated) isn't your personal censorship tool for views you don't like.
    23. Re:Evolution by CBravo · · Score: 1

      then you heard it now: An architect often has the right that changes have to be approved/done by him.

      --
      nosig today
    24. Re:Evolution by Sique · · Score: 1

      It is. The publisher only gets the publishing rights. If he want to put the work in question in a collection, he has to ask the author again. If he wants to make a audiobook, he has to ask the author again. If he wants to base a movie on the work, he has to ask the author again etc.pp.

      --
      .sig: Sique *sigh*
    25. Re:Evolution by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      This - "data rights" and "RFP" is government contracting lingo, and in fact shows that the writer is a probably a serial violator of his agency's highest level policies (unless the agency is NASA or Energy). Many of these program level folks think they are protecting government or public interest by stripping developers of their ownership - but in fact all they are doing is hampering the developer's re-use of that work in non-governmental contexts. The agencies, at policy level, know that leaving ownership in the developer is the best way to encourage the code's re-use and development at other than government expense. This fellow, by insisting on maintaining government control of code, forces the government to keep paying for it over and over again. He is wasting your money, taxpayers. This kind of thinking is what created $1000 toilet seats.

    26. Re:Evolution by gd2shoe · · Score: 1

      He mentions moral rights. I suspect he's not in the US. Others on Slashdot who have used the term have made the distinction in the past.

      --
      I won't join Slashcott. OTOH, If Beta goes live, I just won't be back until it's fixed. Sorry Dice.
    27. Re:Evolution by ScrewMaster · · Score: 1

      Why do people think they own code just because they've paid for it

      yeah, I am used to paying for an item, and software happens to be an item (especially when it is delivered on a CD)

      Well, ignorance of the law is not an excuse.

      If you're paying for custom code (I believe it's called a "work for hire") you'd best make sure that your contract (you did have a written contract, didn't you?) transfers ownership and copyright of the code to you. If you didn't do that, odds are the developer still owns it. As it happens, I was a contract developer for a decade and a half, and I kept ownership of all my code. I never had a problem: oddly enough my customers (all large corporate types for the most part) were old hands at the custom software game, and knew precisely where they stood.

      Now, in a couple of cases I put the source code into escrow. That is, my lawyer kept a copy of the latest source with instructions to release it to specific customers upon certain conditions. Generally, that meant that the customer had the right to purchase the code from my estate if I were hit by a truck or otherwise incapacitated. That kept everyone happy: I didn't have to worry about supporting unauthorized mods to my code or anything proprietary getting out, and they knew that they could obtain the code if anything untoward happened to me.

      There's a difference between owning all rights to a software product, and just licensing it for use. Just ask Microsoft. Or did you think that Microsoft Office DVD came with full source and redistribution rights?

      --
      The higher the technology, the sharper that two-edged sword.
    28. Re:Evolution by Sique · · Score: 1

      An additional remark: That's why the Berne Convention does not define "copyright", but "author's right". And this right is considered natural and tied to the author or the authors. Similar to the fact that you can't sell yourself legally into slavery in most countries, an author can't legally sign away his Author's right away under the Berne convention.

      --
      .sig: Sique *sigh*
    29. Re:Evolution by ScrewMaster · · Score: 1

      Strangely enough, book publishing is one area where by convention the author usually DOESN'T own the copyright, but the person who paid for it (publisher) does!

      I don't think that's actually true. The author (in the U.S. anyway) has copyright the moment he sets his ideas to paper. The author usually retains copyright, but by contract the publisher has sole distribution rights. At least, that's what I read on the Internet. If I ever get a book published I'll let you know how it works out.

      --
      The higher the technology, the sharper that two-edged sword.
    30. Re:Evolution by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Its also not true: authors usually retain their copyright in the US.

      Most (modern) publishing contracts even allow the author to "take back the printing rights" if the original publisher stops publishing it for an extended period. Cool! If only that were true of (e.g.) music.

      Its different in Europe, I believe.... but in the US the book has to be classified as a "work for hire" for the publisher to take the copyright by default. And the line on "work for hire" is pretty fierce... you basically have to be writing against an outline they hand you. My wife publishes non-fiction / fiction.

      Authors go through a /lot/ of pain to get their works published, and for not very much money, but they do retain substantial control of their books. Many of them prefer this tradeoff, because the majority of fiction authors are not expecting it to pay the bills, its a labour of love, and controlling their work is more important than making hella bank.

    31. Re:Evolution by ScrewMaster · · Score: 1

      Unfortunately that's not particularly strange at all. Most coders don't own their code either, the company they work for does. Same is true for songwriters, screenwriters, etc.

      Different scenarios. Creators own copyright the moment they create something (talking about the U.S. here) When you get a full-time position, you assign all rights to your work in your employment contact (well, you do if your employer has a competent attorney.)

      --
      The higher the technology, the sharper that two-edged sword.
    32. Re:Evolution by Z00L00K · · Score: 2, Interesting

      Don't forget that in the case of code there is a large amount of code that's just bread and butter. That code isn't really important in itself - it's just there, used and is probably reusable or recreatable with little effort. What is interesting is how that code is joined together.

      Then there is code that is customer specific - it's mission critical for that customer but worthless in any other situation except as a study object for educational purposes.

      A third part that sometimes appears is code that does contain some parts of general interest that also is innovative. But this code does not always occur. It is also a fraction, and may contain critical values. The big issue is to identify this little piece of code.

      Now - if you as a customer pays for an item you will get the composition of all the components involved. This is what you get. If fragments of that code is reused in another solution - so be it. It's like saying that if a few specific sequence of notes in a work like a piece of music is reappearing in another piece of music you own that other piece too. But there are only so many ways to do things so solutions will reappear and reusing or rewriting is a moot point in reality.

      --
      If builders built buildings the way programmers wrote programs, then the first woodpecker would destroy civilization.
    33. Re:Evolution by gd2shoe · · Score: 1

      ???

      Copyright, contract, or other?

      --
      I won't join Slashcott. OTOH, If Beta goes live, I just won't be back until it's fixed. Sorry Dice.
    34. Re:Evolution by ascari · · Score: 1

      Most software development contracts I've seen have an "ownership of work product" clause or something similar. I suspect this is largely a non-problem, since a lawyer surely would know about this and the canned ones you download for free uually have that clause.

    35. Re:Evolution by Homburg · · Score: 1

      The "rights of the author" system which influenced the Berne Convention defines two sorts of rights - proprietary and moral. The proprietary rights (the rights to gain economically from the work, roughly equivalent to the anglophone conception of copyright) can be transferred; it's only the moral rights that cannot. I don't think that republication or adaptation would be absolutely restricted by moral rights (though they would be limited by the moral right to protection of reputation).

    36. Re:Evolution by haruharaharu · · Score: 1

      And lots of people are claiming that calling something 'work for hire' doesn't make it so. I tend to believe that, but IANAL, and if it actually matters to you, I'd go talk to one. Retaining rights isn't a stunt, by the way - how else do you justify using the contractor's existing libraries if they aren't allowed to retain ownership of pieces of the code?

      --
      Reboot macht Frei.
    37. Re:Evolution by Homburg · · Score: 1

      "The anglophone world" (or at least, the UK, USA, and Australia) has signed the Berne convention, so I don't think your distinction here makes sense.

    38. Re:Evolution by ArcherB · · Score: 1

      Well last time I checked with my lawyer I in fact *do* own the code I write and I own the moral rights to any work I produce and those rights cannot be assigned away by copyright or any other because I am the original producer of the work.

      So, does this mean that the people who built my house can move in tomorrow? I mean, I know I paid them to build it and all, but if paying someone to create something doesn't mean you own what is created, then why can't they? Why can't Toyota come and take my car back. After all, I just paid them to build it.

      Nope. Sorry. If I pay you to create something, I own it. Let's take the company I work for. We sell computer services. Most of the software we write is in house, however, we do contract out some our programming. Does that mean that the people who wrote that code can come back and say, "Yeah, we just sold the code for that software to your competitor, so you can't use it anymore... unless you are willing to buy the code from me again."

      Of course we do license software from third parties as well and that software we do NOT own, although, we didn't pay to have it created.

      I know you coders like to say, "I made it, it's MINE-MINE-MINE!!!" but life doesn't work like that. If you want to keep the rights to the code, YOU pay to have it created and then license your creation to whoever you like. But if someone else pays you to make it, it is NOT yours. Just like the guy who designed the Pepsi logo or the GEICO jingle ("15 minutes can save you....") doesn't own it. GEICO and Pepsi do.

      --
      There is no "I disagree" mod for a reason. Flamebait, Troll, and Overrated are not substitutes.
    39. Re:Evolution by sjames · · Score: 1

      That's getting to the point. Certainly the client owns the end product (which may or may not be compiled). They might also get the source if it's in the contract. They might or might not have the rights to use that source for another purpose. Almost certainly the developer retains the right to re-use the source elsewhere. The developer might even have the right to make the app a bit more generic and market it.

    40. Re:Evolution by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Nope. Sorry. If I pay you to create something, I own it.
      ...
      I know you coders like to say, "I made it, it's MINE-MINE-MINE!!!" but life doesn't work like that. If you want to keep the rights to the code, YOU pay to have it created and then license your creation to whoever you like. But if someone else pays you to make it, it is NOT yours.

      Incorrect under U.S. copyright law. Copyright on creative works defaults to the author/artist unless it's a work for hire, and you don't automatically get the rights just because you paid someone to make it. You have to explicitly specify it in the contract or employment agreement.

    41. Re:Evolution by ArcherB · · Score: 1

      More likely, he's a 1099 contractor/consultant. Since that isn't an employment relationship, your argument falls apart.

      So my company can hire a programmer to write code that... let's say queries our customer database and sends emails to all customers that have not logged in for 6 months and removes customers that have not logged in for a year. After he completes the work, he shows it to us, proves that it works, takes his check and then GOES HOME WITH THE CODE because he owns it, refusing to allow us to use it because it's all his.

      Your saying that this is perfectly legal? Are you saying that companies that are using code written by contractors FOR THEM are only allowed to use because the contractors are good people and allow it?

      Sorry, but no. Whoever pays the bills makes the rules and owns the product.

      --
      There is no "I disagree" mod for a reason. Flamebait, Troll, and Overrated are not substitutes.
    42. Re:Evolution by Vancorps · · Score: 1

      Where did you pick up that the poster was saying the programmer could refuse to give the company the source code?

      The issue at hand is merely whether or not that programmer and re-use techniques developed as part of that job. Querying your database is almost exactly like querying my database, why would the programmer be required to come up with a new method to do this for every job? That would be insane!

      Sorry, whoever pays the bills does not hold all the cards. If a specific IP agreement for a specific product was not signed then the programmer retains his/her rights to use that code as they see fit whether they are working for the same employer or a new one. I find it perplexing that companies would hire a programmer with specific skill sets and try to keep all rights to the code. That would mean that the programmer wouldn't progress past that point since they wouldn't be able to reuse the skills they had built up. That a programmer would agree to such a contract which I'm not even sure is legal to begin with is astonishing news to me but I've never met a programmer in my life that was bound under such an agreement and I've worked with a good number of web and old school programmers.

      Of course a lot of employers try to pull the non-compete clauses contract BS too which is along the same lines, trying to get you to agree to something that you actually can't sign away because in most states at least it is not legal to deny your right to make a living with any employer.

    43. Re:Evolution by muridae · · Score: 1

      Copyright. The copyright for the blue print of the house is owned by the architect, unless contract otherwise changes that. Since modification to the house is a change to the copyrighted article, the copyright owner should be consulted.

      This doesn't often crop up in residential buildings, though in large designed neighborhoods where the architect and developer do all the work it may. It does show up in larger corporate structures, and buildings by more prolific designers.

    44. Re:Evolution by Vancorps · · Score: 1

      Your Toyota argument completely falls apart because you pay them to build you a car and others pay them to build the exact same car. They retain the right to build the car despite you taking possession of the car your contracted with them to build. Coincidentally it's a great analogy.

      So I'm sorry to say, those coders do have rights to keep the code they've produced no matter how badly you seem to not want them to. I'm not a coder, I just work with a few of them and have managed coders from time to time including contracting with coders where corporate counsel and I went over a lot of this. Mileage may vary as different states have wildly different laws. California is far more employee friendly than say Texas.

    45. Re:Evolution by haruharaharu · · Score: 1

      Of course a lot of employers try to pull the non-compete clauses contract BS too which is along the same lines, trying to get you to agree to something that you actually can't sign away because in most states at least it is not legal to deny your right to make a living with any employer.

      Those usually come down to the specificity of the restriction - if you agreed not to jump from one vertical player to another player in the same niche and it wasn't a contract position, it be reasonable, but I have also heard about companies that define their competitors as everyone within 50 miles - clearly unreasonable.

      In the recent past, the only real noncompetes I've seen have been ones that say I can't contract through a body shop then work directly for the same client when the contract expires. This is a reasonable thing - they found the contact and spend a fair amount of effort maintaining the relationship.

      --
      Reboot macht Frei.
    46. Re:Evolution by Anonymous+Brave+Guy · · Score: 1

      You are confusing what are usually called "moral rights" (notably the right to be identified as the author of the work) with copyright (which is routinely transferred in its entirety, e.g., from employee to employer, or as a result of work for hire).

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    47. Re:Evolution by Burn_This_City · · Score: 1

      That would be an interesting insight, if you just paid a guy to build a house and that was that. In my world, however, I get hand cramps signing a horde of legal mumbo jumbo that says I get my house when I put the cash on the table. The same is not true for paying a guy to write some code.

    48. Re:Evolution by ArcherB · · Score: 1

      Your Toyota argument completely falls apart because you pay them to build you a car and others pay them to build the exact same car. They retain the right to build the car despite you taking possession of the car your contracted with them to build. Coincidentally it's a great analogy.

      So I'm sorry to say, those coders do have rights to keep the code they've produced no matter how badly you seem to not want them to. I'm not a coder, I just work with a few of them and have managed coders from time to time including contracting with coders where corporate counsel and I went over a lot of this. Mileage may vary as different states have wildly different laws. California is far more employee friendly than say Texas.

      OK, the Toyota analogy was bad because I didn't pay for them to design the car. However, if I asked Toyota to design a car for me from scratch, you bet your ass I would make sure that it's mine to keep. Then again, if I could afford to have Toyota to design me a car, I could afford to have lawyers make sure that I keep it. But I think my GEICO/Pepsi analogy is better. If Pepsi pays for a jingle, do they still need permission to use it?

      I think a better analogy would be the wedding photographer. If I hire a photographer to take pictures of my kids, they own the rights to those photos. I may pay for prints, but I am not allowed to copy those prints without the photographers permission. BTW, this is why I demand the rights to any photos the photographer takes BEFORE the sitting and make sure I have it in writing. I "own" every photo the photographer took at my wedding. Of course, I paid handsomely for them and ordered all kinds of prints from the photographer.

      However, I still own some rights to those photos. The photographer, for example, may not use those photos without MY permission either. This is why they have to ask you to sign a waiver if they want to use your kid's pictures for their website, advertising, or to sell to pedophiles. In the same way, a programmer can not take your money to write software for you and then turn around and sell it to your competitors at half price. You still own some to the code, however, you can not stop the programmer from using pieces of it in their next job. And just as I am allowed to draw a mustache on my wife's wedding picture, I am allowed to sell my software package to any customers I wish, even if it includes code that contracted out.

      Finally, I'm talking about software that was written for me to sell. I can see how it could be different if I contracted out a programmer to write me a backup routine for our IT department. Still, I have a hard time believing that a company has the same rights and limitations to software that they paid to have written as software that was prepackaged.

      IANAL, so I can't say what the law is, but I can say that a law is BS. If what you are saying is true, that if I pay someone to write me a program and THEY get to keep it afterwards, then that's BS. I will make it a point to demand copyright from any coders who work for me in the contract just as I do for photographers.

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      There is no "I disagree" mod for a reason. Flamebait, Troll, and Overrated are not substitutes.
    49. Re:Evolution by mdwh2 · · Score: 1

      Indeed, it seems to be the norm. And I don't think that's wrong if you're being paid (in the case of programmers, for example). It's more dubious for musicians and possibly authors, because of the way that they aren't guaranteed a salary, and AIUI only get money if they sell enough.

      An obvious example where it seems to be the norm to keep their copyright, even after payment, is photographers. And this can be very frustrating - for example, people pay money for wedding photographers, but don't actually own the copyright. At the most basic level, it means that they have to pay more money for every copy or reprint. But I think there's a more insidious aspect, the very idea that you don't own the rights to photos of the most important day of your life, even when you've paid them for their work; and the idea that if a couple made a copy (even for personal use) of their own wedding photos, they're guilty of copyright infringement.

      When my brother got married, the photographer did give them the full set of photos that were taken, but I was shocked to see them stamped with a large and ugly copyright notice across them (presumably the idea being that they'd have to pay for any copies free of that).

      Actually, I wonder how things like model release rights might work with this - although the laws seem rather vague on this. But maybe next time a wedding photographer shoves a camera in our face, we should tell him we only consent if he gives us rights to the image.

    50. Re:Evolution by Sparr0 · · Score: 1

      "Work for hire" is not just something that goes in a contract. It is a legal term with relatively well legislated definitions. When someone pays you to write code for them, it is a work for hire. The reason this term is often used in contracts is because otherwise there can be some dispute later over whether the terms of the agreement were outside the scope of the legal definition, while if you explicitly say "this is a work for hire" then there's no room to argue.

    51. Re:Evolution by Yaur · · Score: 1

      At my last employer we had a couple of tech writers and the copyright notice on everything they produced was for the corporation and there were in general not writing credits. In my opinion this is a better analog than being "paid" by a publisher to write a book since in that case (I believe) your work is more likely to be licensed with royalty on the back end and an advance against those royalties and retained rights with regards to derivative works. None of these considerations are in place either with development or in-house writing.

    52. Re:Evolution by Dinatius · · Score: 1

      What your missing is that by paying for it, your buying the right to use the software anyway you see fit unless your contract with the programmer states otherwise.

      If you higher a contractor to build you an internal application and then you try to sell that as a product, you deserve the legal ramification that will come from this. The programmer should retain the rights to the code that they have created. The ability to reuse common code between jobs makes things go quicker for both you and any other clients that the developer chooses to take on.

      The next time your hiring a programmer try asking them how long the job will take if they were not allowed to reuse any code that they already have.

    53. Re:Evolution by Dinatius · · Score: 1

      What you seem to be assuming is that their is only one work. If you contact a programmer to make you a specific program you are paying for the creation and license of that work. You own a copy of that work. The programmer owns the work.

      If you did not get the copyright from the photographer taking wedding photos, they could not come to your house and take the pictures of your wedding off your wall. You own those copies, just as you own a copy of the software written for you.

      If a competitor of your company wants the same software made by the same programmer there is nothing stopping that programmer reusing the code they used to make yours and adjusting it to fit your competitor's needs and be well within his rights to create a derivative work based on something he owns the copyright to.

    54. Re:Evolution by Dhalka226 · · Score: 1

      That's true, but in absence of a specific contract you haven't solved the riddle of what DID you pay for? If you believe you paid for those floor plans and he believes you paid for the work and a copy (though I fail to see why he would care), then you have a problem and you need to start looking into what the law says, or to come to an agreement amongst yourselves which probably still involves looking into what the law says.

      From a software perspective, it seems from the majority of comments here that the default is the developer owns the code if they're not creating code under terms of employment (not contract). It also seems like the person who writes the article is a complete ass, though, using that fact and other peoples' ignorance to exploit the fact that he deliberately does not create a contract. In his words: "You might ask why I didn't make a contract with this client in the first place. It's because I've found, over the years, that insisting on a contract before development starts will result either in a delayed start or even a project being shelved."

      Clarify everybody's expectations, put it in writing, and everybody wins. It's really not that hard. And if there is going to be a conflict, potentially a conflict that ends the project, better to get that in advance than after all the work has been done.

    55. Re:Evolution by pugugly · · Score: 1

      Yes, but fundamentally the right Kevin is asserting here is that you have no ownership right even to the finished product.

      This is rather like saying that if you knock out a wall, you've infringed the architects ownership of the plans, or you have no right to repair your car yourself, you *have* to go to the dealership.

      Sorry, if this is his view of his rights as creator, frankly, he has entitlement issues. Get into the real world with the rest of us, or even try to assert that everyone should have these rights, but trying to pretend you're in some special category where the company doesn't own the work they paid you while ignoring the fact that this is the relationship of everyone else to their employer is just trying to carve out a privileged position for your work.

      Pug.

      --
      An Invisible Entity of Vast Power whose existence must be taken on faith alone: Liberal Media
    56. Re:Evolution by nschubach · · Score: 1

      Fine, it's like telling someone they can't say the same thing you just did because it's your saying and they'll have to license it from you. Speaking is just as easily copied as software, therefore software is just a language and therefore not protected. If you want to hire a speech writer to write your speech, or a programmer to write your program, then by all means. After they do it though, all bets are off. It feels like "Happy Birthday" [Copyright Warner/Chappell Music] in here.

      Because they are so easily copied, it's impossible for them to be IP. (This is speaking as a programmer who makes a living programming for a major US company. I find that my company pays me for the time it takes me to translate English to computerese and my code is nothing more than instruction for a machine that is disposable and copyable... at least within the company as I know there are people that think bits have value. Damn lawyers.)

      --
      Every time I start to have faith in humanity, I ruin it by driving to work between 7 and 8 am.
    57. Re:Evolution by david_thornley · · Score: 1

      Contract clauses specifying that the employer owns what the employee does away from work are not legal in all jurisdictions. If you're a regular employee, what you do is almost certainly work for hire, but check any employment agreement. If you're not, check your contract. If in doubt, consult a lawyer familiar with employment law in your jurisdiction.

      --
      "When you have eliminated the unacceptable, whatever is left, however improbable, must be the truthiness" - Holmes
    58. Re:Evolution by Sique · · Score: 1

      They are at least according to the german Urheberrechtsgesetz (UrhG). Every usage that was not explicitely agreed on beforehand is up to the original author(s) to permit or to deny.

      --
      .sig: Sique *sigh*
    59. Re:Evolution by Sique · · Score: 1

      There is no copyright under the Berne Convention. There is an Author, and because of his authorship he has complete control over his work. He can agree that another entity makes usage of his work, but in general each usage has to be explicitely agreed on. At least this is the case in the german Urheberrecht.

      --
      .sig: Sique *sigh*
    60. Re:Evolution by butlerm · · Score: 1

      just trying to carve out a privileged position for your work

      No carve out necessary. If there is no contract, or the contract is not specific on the subject, the copyright stays with the contractor. Of course, if a client's business model depends on having the rights associated with copyright, it would be unethical not to alert them to that fact.

    61. Re:Evolution by Billly+Gates · · Score: 1

      I am confused about this.

      If someone in the marketing department created a brochure with pictures of a product and a press release then who owns it? I would assume the company and not the actual marketers who created it. What about construction workers making a house? Do they own the house and not the buyer?

      What is the deciding factor? Is it your computer equipment that the work is being produced on? Is it work only between 9 - 5? Or is it always yours even if you are paid to write it?

      Curious minds would like to know as I want to create some software that is free but also want a job making software for someone else.

    62. Re:Evolution by MrKaos · · Score: 1

      What you seem to be assuming is that their is only one work. If you contact a programmer to make you a specific program you are paying for the creation and license of that work. You own a copy of that work. The programmer owns the work.

      Thank you for such an eloquent explanation.

      --
      My ism, it's full of beliefs.
    63. Re:Evolution by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Here is what is wrong about this entire article: If you pay for Code, you won it! If you pay for development, then you don't necessarily own the code. That's two entirely different things.

    64. Re:Evolution by blackraven14250 · · Score: 1

      And I paraphrase nschubach: "Wow, because it's easy to copy a book (unbind + photocopier), a VHS, a DVD, a CD, a program, and the logo on my corporate letterhead, there's no copyrights allowed ever on any of them!"

    65. Re:Evolution by MrKaos · · Score: 1

      I assume you work for a legally incorporated or otherwise registered employer, otherwise your comment is irrelevant. I also assume that as part of your hiring process you signed en employment contract of some kind.

      Yes, a large international corporate.

      I further assume your lawyer looked over your employment contract, the one with your signature on it (or a suitable facsimile) and came to this conclusion.

      Yes. Not only that I personally read *every* contract I sign that I am to be bound by two to three time to ensure I have a understanding. I then refer my lawyer to the clauses that I am uncomfortable with to seek a answer of how it maybe interpreted.

      Most people employed to write code have a clause that anything they produce is a work for hire, and is owned by the company. Of these people, most also have a clause which says if you create code *not* for the company, but while being employed *by* the company at a salary, then anything you write while not at work is also company property, due to you very likely using company time, resources, training, best practices, or something else to do so.

      I've encountered contracts that attempt to assign away my rights to my code at work, what I write at home and the code I wrote in the past. I simply do not sign them or seek legal advice. If it's un-enforceable I sign to avoid negative perceptions, if it is enforceable I explain to them why I don't like a clause and try to find a compromise. Sometimes I explain the cost benefits to the employer far outweigh any negatives.

      I am extremely disciplined in my coding practises, I diarise *everything*. I can tell you exactly what I worked on 10, 12 or 15 years ago at 14:15 on a Tuesday. I don't use company resources for my code or projects but sometimes I use my resources for the companies projects. How is one employer going to assert their rights over another if I happen to be doing contract work and full time work. Is the employer going to compensate me for the lost income for not doing that work?

      I am a musician and a producer, should my employer own the rights to my songs and lyrics or the methods I use to produce music? Where do you draw the line. Do they own the rights to this post or the html code that formats it?

      What this means to an employer is they are hiring a professional programmer who is a business person not prepared to roll over and give away their or the companies rights willingly. This far more valuable than some pedantic clause asserting what is useless to them anyway. They have a license to use and modify copies of *my* code anyway and significant disadvantages if they want exclusive rights, everything has to be written from scratch and takes much longer so there is no net benefit to them. Why anyone would sign or want to work for a company so controlling is beyond me and they are simply undermining IT's place in industry overall.

      Since expecting an IT union to advocate Technologists rights is unlikely then you had better know and be prepared to defend your rights. The trouble with your generalisation is that undermines rights that should be enhanced for programmers to allow increases in the productivity of the industry overall. Don't be foolish and sign a contract that assigns away your rights because, as a prevailing attitude amongst IT practitioners, it does little to promote the respect professionals in our industry should command and deserve.

      I have taken legal action in the past and won. I will defend my rights vigorously if necessarily and aggressively if required. You should to.

      --
      My ism, it's full of beliefs.
    66. Re:Evolution by thesupraman · · Score: 1

      Bullshit:
      "Since modification to the house is a change to the copyrighted article, the copyright owner should be consulted."

      No, modifications to the ARCHITECTS BLUEPRINTS could well be, however modifications to the HOUSE are most certainly not.

      And ignoring that, short of work of art type buildings (for which notable architects often negotiate interesting contracts) anyone who contracts an architect for the production of a design without copyright transfer would have a number of problems, not limited to the requirement to supply unrestricted copies to the councils/government agencies, etc required.

      If copyright stuck in the way you are trying to imply, then a photograph of a busy street would be covered by literally thousands of copyrights - all the clothes being worn, the buildings, the cars in the image, everything that was covered by such IP. It is not, and neither is the house - the copyright only attaches to the specific item, the plans produced.
      Someone could quite happily product new plans by, say, measuring the building, and modify those, or just modify the building without plans, or with a modification plan, etc.

      So anyway, back to the matter at hand, stop spouting bullshit, any such limitation would need to be specifically contracted.

    67. Re:Evolution by MrKaos · · Score: 1

      Are you suggesting you should be able to work at Microsoft for years developing code and when you leave, you have the right to take every line of code you wrote with you

      You statement implies I am denying my employer possession of a copy of my code. I want to *have* a *copy* of the code I produced. What is wrong with that?

      and sell a copy of it to the next company you work for?

      Not as a whole but if I code a design pattern and use portions in another project, change the variable name wheres the problem?

      Surely you jest.

      Interviewer: Is studying computer science the best way to prepare to be a programmer?

      Gates: No, the best way to prepare is to write programs, and to study great programs that other people have written. In my case, I went to the garbage cans at the Computer Science Center and I fished out listings of their operating system. -- Bill Gates, from "Programmers at Work" by Microsoft Press, interview with Bill

      If copying other peoples work is what Mr Gates recommends what is wrong with copying my own work?

      --
      My ism, it's full of beliefs.
    68. Re:Evolution by MrKaos · · Score: 1

      I am confused about this...What is the deciding factor?

      In my opinion it's the method. Code is a method and a series of methods put together in a meaningful way. I am being paid to put methods together in a meaningful way. I may want to put those same methods together in another meaningful way. YMMV

      --
      My ism, it's full of beliefs.
    69. Re:Evolution by JNSL · · Score: 1

      Do you have a citation to an example of this ever happening?

    70. Re:Evolution by muridae · · Score: 1

      Look at my reply to the other response to this. I forget to finish complete thoughts when I type in a hurry, and did so in this post. Bad habit of mine.

      Modifying a house you own is legal and all fine and dandy, as is distributing the modified blueprints for zoning and city/town council and records and what not should be as well. Usually those copies are covered in the license with the architect, as the other poster said. License, but not copyright, so beat any architect who won't license those rather formal legal requirements. Modifying the house, making blueprints of the new total house, and claiming them as your own is not. Not a lawyer, so while I can find the legal code pretty well I do not have such a memory for cases and precedent. Title 17, Chapter 1 is the best place to look, if you mean for US Code. Section 102(a)5 for how copyright covers buildings. And Wiki has lists of cases that have hinged on this code.

    71. Re:Evolution by MrKaos · · Score: 1

      After he completes the work, he shows it to us, proves that it works, takes his check and then GOES HOME WITH THE CODE because he owns it, refusing to allow us to use it because it's all his.

      This statement is utterly ridiculous. It's against my interests for my client to not use the code I have prepared for them. I am not talking about denying my employer rights to use what I do. I am talking about maintaining my right to be a cost effective software developer with a library of code methods at my disposal. That *benefits* my employer because deployment times are reduced.

      We can both use *my* code, get it? It's not like the code suddenly stops working because *SHOCK*HORROR* I have a copy of the code I wrote. Do you expect me to memorise every bit of code I wrote in the last 25 years. Are you saying that all productivity in the Information Technology industry should grind to a halt because programmers have to re-design every bit of code that does the same thing every time there is a new project?

      Oh gosh ArcherB, heres a new way to do a login screen - bet you're real happy you paid oodles to on the rights to do that. So you have an easier time understanding it I'll use your bad analogies;

      Car;

      Lets re-invent the wheel every time. Some very lucky customers actually have wheels - but they are very very very expensive. No wonder Toyota have so many problems with accelerator - they have to re-write the accelerator software routine every time. New tools are produced for every assembly line, which is incompatible with every other production line. Economies of scale mean nothing.

      GEICO/Pepsi;

      We re-invent musical scales and devise new instruments to play them on every time a new jingle is required.

      This is why they have to ask you to sign a waiver if they want to use your kid's pictures for their website, advertising, or to sell to pedophiles;

      OMGwtf?

      I will make it a point to demand copyright from any coders who work for me in the contract just as I do for photographers.

      Go ahead. All your products will take substantially longer to reach market and they will perform poorly. Eventually, because of the heavily hybridised code it will become so bug laden that your product will flop. You will blame the programmers, because they did what you asked. No wonder you get charged so much for photography, this is the true price for your lack of goodwill and you deserve it.

      Sorry, but no. Whoever pays the bills makes the rules and owns the product.

      Of course as a result none of the programmers in your employ share their really good ideas with you, if they do you immediately criticise any ideas they have as stupid, later taking credit for having those good ideas. They do exactly what you say and you wonder why you have to do *everything*. I bet you find yourself wondering why everyone around you is so incompetent and are about as pleasant to work with as fleas. You are *exactly* the type of controlling, insecure, anally retentive and abusive employer I would prefer starving to working for. That is if you are who you claim.

      What the hell are you doing on slashdot

      --
      My ism, it's full of beliefs.
    72. Re:Evolution by MrKaos · · Score: 1

      So I'm sorry to say, those coders do have rights to keep the code they've produced no matter how badly you seem to not want them to.

      You shouldn't be sorry at all. Because of the decision to employ programmers that were astute enough to do this deadlines were met and costs were kept under control. The leverages utilised because a programmer has access to the code they wrote means everyone wins.

      --
      My ism, it's full of beliefs.
    73. Re:Evolution by JNSL · · Score: 1

      Well, that's quite a bit different than what you said above. I understand the 106 rights fine. I was looking for a court case or statutory exemption that provides that "the copyright owner [of the home] should be consulted" when you want to modify the house. If you meant modify the floor plan, then I would not be surprised. I would be surprise if any court found that you need permission to modify the house (this could mean something as small as painting, or as large as an addition. both are technically derivative works, and I would assume that the original contract comes with an implied license for derivative works for this [the new home the contract is about] single embodiment of the copyrighted work (the floor plan and the construction [which I think may also be a derivative work of the floor plan]), which is assignable at the licensee's exclusive option.

    74. Re:Evolution by JNSL · · Score: 1

      Wow that last post got screwed up. I hate how small these text boxes are.

      Well, that's quite a bit different than what you said above. I understand the 106 rights fine. I was looking for a court case or statutory exemption that provides that "the copyright owner [of the home] should be consulted" when you want to modify the house.

      If you meant modify the floor plan, then I would not be surprised. I would be surprised if any court found that you need permission to modify the house. This could mean something as small as painting, or as large as an addition. Both are technically derivative works, and I would assume that the original contract comes with an implied license for derivative works for this (the new home the contract is about) single embodiment of the copyrighted work (the floor plan and the construction [which I think may also be a derivative work of the floor plan]), which is assignable at the licensee's exclusive option.

    75. Re:Evolution by nschubach · · Score: 1

      I'll agree with that.

      --
      Every time I start to have faith in humanity, I ruin it by driving to work between 7 and 8 am.
    76. Re:Evolution by muridae · · Score: 1

      Wow that last post got screwed up. I hate how small these text boxes are.

      I know the feeling hehe.

      Well, that's quite a bit different than what you said above. I understand the 106 rights fine. I was looking for a court case or statutory exemption that provides that "the copyright owner [of the home] should be consulted" when you want to modify the house. If you meant modify the floor plan, then I would not be surprised. I would be surprised if any court found that you need permission to modify the house. This could mean something as small as painting, or as large as an addition. Both are technically derivative works, and I would assume that the original contract comes with an implied license for derivative works for this (the new home the contract is about) single embodiment of the copyrighted work (the floor plan and the construction [which I think may also be a derivative work of the floor plan]), which is assignable at the licensee's exclusive option.

      At this point, I do not know what the whole thought I had at the time was. What I tend to do, is type half a thought at the start of a sentence, place a comma, go back to double check my facts, and then finish with my recipe for spaghetti sauce. Yes, my intent was to refer to modifying the plans for the house. The problem I read about, and I wish I had bookmarked it, is that 120 gives permission to modify the building, but does not give permission to modify the plans. Since Title 17 now (1990 act) makes the distinction between the building and the plans, any modification that requires changing the plans may impinge on the author's rights. This may include anything that requires new blue prints to city/town council or zoning. And, depending on the lawyers drawing up the license for the initial development of the house, this may not be something the architect transfers to the home owner and it would, most likely, not be transfered implicitly.

      I will go through my copyright and legal bookmarks, I hope it is there someplace. I don't think it was a closed case, so I may have dismissed it as 'over-zealous lawyers with rich clients'.

    77. Re:Evolution by Eunuchswear · · Score: 1

      Strangely enough, book publishing is one area where by convention the author usually DOESN'T own the copyright, but the person who paid for it (publisher) does!

      Wrong.

      Unless you're talking about "work for hire" the author owns the copyright. The publisher just has a license.

      Ref: http://www.antipope.org/charlie/blog-static/2010/02/cmap-3-how-books-are-sold.html

      --
      Watch this Heartland Institute video
    78. Re:Evolution by Philip_the_physicist · · Score: 1

      He's talking about "moral rights", which don't exist everywhere but generally mean the right to be identified as the author and similar rights. Some can effectively given away, for example, the right to refuse to allow derivative works exists in some plaves, but an employment contract could int heory include a clause to give blanket consent. However, the right to be identified is usually impossible to give up, even if you don't assert it (I think that in the UK moral rights law, even anonymous authors can come forward and claim the right later, and that it exists forever: you can use the work, but you must give due credit).

    79. Re:Evolution by Nursie · · Score: 1

      You're going to get yourself and any companies you take 'your' code to sued, heavily, especially if you've ever worked for any of the big boys.

      Your lawyer is a numbskull.

      But I suspect your a troll because you mention changing variable names, and if you really thought you had the right to do this stuff with 'your' code you wouldn't bother.

    80. Re:Evolution by CBravo · · Score: 1

      copyright.

      --
      nosig today
    81. Re:Evolution by Sique · · Score: 1

      If you understand any German, here is the original law:

      Urheberrechtsgesetz

      Relevant for us are Sections 31-44, which deal with the Usage Rights (Nutzungsrechten).

      31 states:

      (1) Der Urheber kann einem anderen das Recht einräumen, das Werk auf einzelne oder alle Nutzungsarten zu nutzen (Nutzungsrecht). Das Nutzungsrecht kann als einfaches oder ausschließliches Recht sowie räumlich, zeitlich oder inhaltlich beschränkt eingeräumt werden.

      (1) The Author can transfer the Right to use the Work for a single usage or all usages (Usage Right). The Usage Right can be transferred as simple right or exclusive right, and it can be limited locally, timely or with regard to contents.

      --
      .sig: Sique *sigh*
    82. Re:Evolution by JNSL · · Score: 1

      Ok I just read 17 USC 120(b). That's exactly what I was looking for. For anybody else who reads this, here's what 120(b) gets at:

      It is actually an explicit statutory exemption to the derivative work right (17 USC 106(2)). That is, it says the owner of the embodiment (the architectural structure) does not have to consult the copyright owner to alter the structure. So rather than an implied license, it's just a straight-up limitation on the author's (architect's) rights.

      Now, I would argue that 120(b) also exempts the blue print modification, so that changing the floor plans for zoning or whatever would not violate the 106(2) right because of 120(2).

      My argument goes something like this: If a building is just a different medium for blueprints, and medium does not matter, Bridgeman v. Corel (1999) ("Production of a work of art in a different medium cannot by itself constitute the originality required for copyright protection.") (this case is from the S.D.N.Y., but is representative of copyright law in all federal jurisdictions), then an exemption for creating a derivative work for the owner of the building also gives them the exemption for that new work in other mediums like blue prints.

      Not sure if this would fly, but I think it's likely a fair use anyway for zoning/town council meetings.

    83. Re:Evolution by MrKaos · · Score: 1

      You're going to get yourself and any companies you take 'your' code to sued, heavily, especially if you've ever worked for any of the big boys.

      They were 'the big boys'

      Your lawyer is a numbskull.

      Is this your legal opinion?

      But I suspect your a troll because you mention changing variable names, and if you really thought you had the right to do this stuff with 'your' code you wouldn't bother.

      So your saying I wouldn't bother shaping the code to fit in with the code and styling practices of the team I am working with. Great way to win friends and influence people you got going there.

      --
      My ism, it's full of beliefs.
    84. Re:Evolution by bandmassa · · Score: 1

      Copyright only applies to the method of expressing an idea, not an idea itself. This is where copyright is coming unstuck. If you create some expression of an idea, you may sell a licence to use that expression of the idea, you may even assign that licence as an exclusive right to use the expression of the idea. This what people are mixing up, the delineation between idea and expression. Anybody can have an idea. I have several ideas for software I'd like to see written, but don't have the coding skills (or time to learn them) to express those ideas as software. In short, those ideas are worthless, whereas, the expression of them is the tangible value. So, along comes Big Greedy Mega Corp, and they have "an idea." They contract Joe Coder to realise that idea. Joe had no idea that BGM's idea might be worth something before he was offered the contract, but he did have the skills to realise an idea - skills BGM didn't have on the payroll. Knowing that their idea is worthless without expression, but valuable beyond measure if expressed, they protect their idea with a contract. They can't copyright their idea, so when they contract Joe, they ensure that he understands that he is contracted to licence his expression of their idea, exclusively to them. Joe needs to feed the family, the terms are financially rewarding, so he agrees. Does BGM own Joe's code? Practically, as far as usage goes, it feels like they do, but they actually don't. Joe still owns it, BGM just manage it for him and pay him some of the wealth (or buy-out his royalty at the end of his coding contract.) The problem is BGM "feel like" they own the code, and because they control the use of the code by way of the contract with the coder, everybody else feels like BGM own it.

      --
      "I hope you like Guinness, Sir. I find it a refreshing substitute for, er... food." Col. Jack O'Neil, SG-1
    85. Re:Evolution by Xest · · Score: 1

      "Does the builder or architect own my house? No"

      Well, it depends if you bought it from him or simply rent it from him.

      That's really the problem here, most companies have no idea whether they bought or rented, they just assume they bought when the developer assumed they were renting.

    86. Re:Evolution by azmodean+1 · · Score: 1

      I don't follow your argument, are you saying the architect must be consulted/paid in order to make changes to the blueprint, which usually occurs during any commercial construction, or that the architect has to be consulted for construction, regardless of whether the blueprint is involved or not?

      In the first case, you are obviously correct, but in the second, I don't think the architect would have any rights to the actual building unless mandated separately by a contract.

  2. Copyright & Licenses by eldavojohn · · Score: 5, Insightful
    Basically this guy is complaining that his customers don't read his licenses. Sounds like he needs to work with his sales representative on that.

    If I buy a bible, I don’t own the original Lindisfarne Gospels

    Yes, actually you do. At least where I live they are public domain. You might not own the particular translation or interpretation of said gospels but you do own the core concepts. All of us own them. They are a part of humanity whether it be good or bad. This is the most confusing analogy one could produce.

    if I pay a plumber to fix my tap, I don’t ask him to leave his toolbox so I can fix it myself next time;

    No, but if you bought a book on plumbing you might just fix it yourself next time. The results may vary but it's different from compiled code in that the person has no option to 'decompile' the code and go through it. You're right but the analogy has flaws. The plumber isn't producing a copyrighted work for you, he's performing a service. No goods are exchanged between you and the plumber like a software release.

    if I buy Harry Potter and the Half Blood Prince on Blu-ray, I don’t own the movie but only a copy (whose usage is restricted by the terms of the licence); if I buy Microsoft Word, I own one copy of the compiled code, not the source.

    This is it, it comes down to licensing and copyright. Why do you waste so much breath on this rant when it's a legal agreement between you and your customer that is based on commonly known and accepted copyright and licensing terms?

    I will say that with the advent of the Agile Methodology in where I work, the customer is much more involved. We meet with them every two weeks. We constantly incorporate their ideas into their site or program through our own code. And at the end it's a mixture of ideas but we're still the ones that coded it. Between you and I, I'd love to give them the code. But that's the decision of the guy who runs my company, not mine. If you have switched from the previous models of "wait a long time and big bang release" to "constant customer input" then you may now be experiencing something natural--the customer feels they own the code. Because they were with you every step of the way from infantile code to adult production code. Just keep that in mind.

    --
    My work here is dung.
    1. Re:Copyright & Licenses by Dachannien · · Score: 2, Informative

      if I buy Harry Potter and the Half Blood Prince on Blu-ray, I don't own the movie but only a copy (whose usage is restricted by the terms of the licence)

      That's not even true. You own the copy, but your permitted usage is restricted only by law and can be expanded by the copyright holder through the forfeiture of some of the exclusive rights conveyed by copyright. This is at least partly because licenses are generally not a precondition for the purchase of a copy of a movie/song/etc.

    2. Re:Copyright & Licenses by westlake · · Score: 1, Insightful

      If I buy a bible, I don't own the original Lindisfarne Gospels
      Yes, actually you do. At least where I live they are public domain. You might not own the particular translation or interpretation of said gospels but you do own the core concepts.

      However, if you try leaving the British Library with the eighth century manuscript in your cart, you are going to meet with some resistance.

      Neither will it be trivially easy to get permission to read or scan the Gospels.

      Public domain does not translate into unconditional access to or possession of primary sources.

    3. Re:Copyright & Licenses by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Because if you're starting out a new business by yourself, not only do you have to understand the marketing, sales, and legal of the business (which I think you do by your post), but also be *good* at it. As you stated, you have your boss or sales dept. handling the negotiations of the ownership. This crucial step is actually pretty hard and something delicate to explain to the client. And it's also frustrating, hence the OP being here.

      In a way, being an employee with benefits (work-for-hire), you guys are more specialized within your own departments, and have less to worry about in regards to the company's business as a whole, and protecting and monetizing on copyrighted works.

    4. Re:Copyright & Licenses by nschubach · · Score: 1

      if I pay a plumber to fix my tap, I don’t ask him to leave his toolbox so I can fix it myself next time;

      No, but if you bought a book on plumbing you might just fix it yourself next time. The results may vary but it's different from compiled code in that the person has no option to 'decompile' the code and go through it. You're right but the analogy has flaws. The plumber isn't producing a copyrighted work for you, he's performing a service. No goods are exchanged between you and the plumber like a software release.

      I think a better counter argument to that is that I as a customer am not asking the developer for his computer and compilation software... just my copy of the code he wrote that I can do with whatever way I want, except maybe plagiarizing it and calling it mine.

      --
      Every time I start to have faith in humanity, I ruin it by driving to work between 7 and 8 am.
    5. Re:Copyright & Licenses by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      However, if you try leaving the British Library with the eighth century manuscript in your cart, you are going to meet with some resistance.

      The library staff would certainly get 8th-century on his ass.

    6. Re:Copyright & Licenses by Skreems · · Score: 1

      Basically this guy is complaining that his customers don't read his licenses.

      No, it's even better. He entered an agreement to build a system for a client, and because they were "short on time" he had no formal contract, or even written agreement of any kind detailing what portions of the finished product would be owned by which party. Now he wants to retain ownership of code he wrote specifically for this project because it might be useful for him to own that code later on. Even better, he doesn't want to give the client un-obfuscated copies of the source to the special sections of code that he wrote for the contract, because "it's not fair that they should be able to change the software I built for them without paying me." Ridiculous on all sides.

      --
      Slashdot needs a "-1, Wrong" moderation option.
      The Urban Hippie
    7. Re:Copyright & Licenses by b4dc0d3r · · Score: 1

      Let's whittle this down a bit and say: When you're creating a new work based on requirements, you have to have a sales team, even if that's you, the developer, business owner, sales team, QA department, and so on.

      Make it clear - we can do pricing one of two ways. One, it's a work for hire and it will cost you 49 brazillion dollars, and you own the code. That's because I can no longer use the code I used to write your application - I can't use my normal shortcuts and libraries and give it to you to own.

      Or, it can cost $13k and I own the copyright, including the code, but you retain all of your IP that you contribute (copyright on text you supply or graphics or trademark on company name) and all of that.

      First discussion, out of the way and signed, and everyone should be clear. Even a caveman could do it.

    8. Re:Copyright & Licenses by iamhassi · · Score: 1

      The guy's not a lawyer, he's a programmer, so I'm not sure why he thought he was the authority on such a sticky subject as copyright law. He also has no idea what he's talking about, comparing custom code to plumbing and movies? Horrible analogies. Surprised this article made it on to /.

      --
      my karma will be here long after I'm gone
    9. Re:Copyright & Licenses by iamhassi · · Score: 1

      See, that's another thing he never discusses. When he said it's not the customers, what does that mean? They can't alter it? They can't fix future bugs? They can't resell it? Can they distribute it as their own? Then he jumps around from compiled code to source code, and custom code to generic. He answers nothing and just muddles copyright, and he isn't even an attorney! Does he know you can be sued for giving legal advice if you are not an attorney? You can in the US.

      I've paid for custom code before on an outsourcing website (rent a coder, etc), does that mean I own the program? Can I resell? Can I put my name on it and distribute it? Can I alter it any way I see fit?

      --
      my karma will be here long after I'm gone
    10. Re:Copyright & Licenses by ScrewMaster · · Score: 1

      then you may now be experiencing something natural--the customer feels they own the code.

      They can feel whatever they want. I don't care. What matters is what they signed.

      --
      The higher the technology, the sharper that two-edged sword.
  3. Work For Hire by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Interesting

    Back when I contracted, all contracts had that I was doing the work as "Work For Hire".

    That seems pretty clear cut to me. Meaning, they own it.

    1. Re:Work For Hire by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I haven't paid any attention to this issue in quite awhile; I honestly thought most folks were doing "co-ownership" these days. I guess I got that idea because all of the contracts my company signs with others stipulate that we at least co-own any code developed. The author can certainly develop it further and sell it again. So can we though.

    2. Re:Work For Hire by nato10 · · Score: 1

      Relevant excerpt from the United States Copyright Act of 1976:

      A "work made for hire" is— (1) a work prepared by an employee within the scope of his or her employment; or (2) a work specially ordered or commissioned for use as a contribution to a collective work, as a part of a motion picture or other audiovisual work, as a translation, as a supplementary work, as a compilation, as an instructional text, as a test, as answer material for a test, or as an atlas, if the parties expressly agree in a written instrument signed by them that the work shall be considered a work made for hire. (17 U.S.C. 101)

    3. Re:Work for Hire by DannyO152 · · Score: 1

      There is one gray area. Utility code that the developer has been maintaining that gets included in the deliverable. For example, I have a java class I call SimpleDate. It essentially wraps java.util.GregorianCalendar, but it has these bits of convenience: the months are 1-based and dates are primarily treated as a tuple (year, month, date). It isn't adequate for an international company operating in disparate time zones, but it's fine for a small US business.

      So I use it for a project. It doesn't seem right that it gets walled off to me as part of the work-for-hire code I delivered. Since it makes the deliverable work, it certainly isn't right for me to go back and demand more money for a license for essential code I incorporated without discussion before hand. I handle this issue by giving the client a non-exclusive license to my library code at no extra charge. Pre-existing code, sure, that makes sense. What if the client's project reveals a bug in my library code? What if I extend my library code's api specifically because of something I needed for the job that didn't look to be a one-off bit of functionality? Does your agreement grab that from me and I need to negotiate a license for that method's reuse?

      Now, I've been working with architects for the past two decades. This has colored my way of looking at code. Architects keep the copyright on their drawings. So they are distributing something that looks like source code. The client hires a contractor who takes the drawings and builds the building. In dim light, with eyes squinted, that kinda looks like compilation. As part of the drawing set, there are elements, known as details, that show very clearly things that are tricky to build. Architects reuse their details all the time. That looks like module/class code reuse to me. If the architect delivers drawings that make the client happy, then the client will come back for remodels and/or give a good recommendation, which is why one very, very rarely hears of another architect demanding to be paid for base drawings when the client remodels. When faced with that charge, the client could pay for field measurements (re-engineering) or pay the first architect. I looked at it this way, we could never live off the royalties from the plans and enforcing the copyrights would mean we lost a chance to design for that client again and we lost the word-of-mouth benefit.

      Do I need to say that an architect who proposed that the client owed additional fees were the building to be used commercially, would be laughed out of the office.

      Back to your situation, maybe there is a gentleman's agreement to look the other way regarding the contractor's library code that gets incorporated in their deliverable to you and regarding abstractions and patterns the contractor identified in the course of delivering your job that they develop later.

    4. Re:Work For Hire by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      It's pretty simple. If you are an employee, your employer owns your code. If you are a contractor you own your code unless your contract or agreement states that the work is a "work for hire" (or uses equivalent language). Requisite Wikipedia reference.

      Except that there is the requirement for the work for hire to be in a specifically enumerated list of things which computer programs do not fall under. Unless you're a normal employee, then software cannot possibly be a work for hire... even if the contract specifically says it is.

      --
      WARNING! This girl exceeds the MAXIMUM SAFE standards established by the FDA for BRATTINESS
    5. Re:Work For Hire by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Try looking at actual copyright law.

      Many, indeed most, contractors fit the definition of employee under the general common law of agency. This is what the statue is referring to - not the general notion of employee that you seem to be invoking.

    6. Re:Work For Hire by unitron · · Score: 1

      Film at 11.

      It turns out we won't be seeing that film after all, as it is currently tied up in a copyright dispute.

      --

      I see even classic Slashdot is now pretty much unusable on dial up anymore.

    7. Re:Work For Hire by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It's pretty simple. If you are an employee, your employer owns your code. If you are a contractor you own your code unless your contract or agreement states that the work is a "work for hire" (or uses equivalent language). Requisite Wikipedia [wikipedia.org] reference.

      It is even simpler than that because "Work for hire" is boilerplate for almost all IT-related contracts. It is rare to hear of a normal 8-5 employment that is not as a "work for hire" "independent contractor", and I am in California where this kind of thing is explicitly illegal. Which companies are breaking the law? ALL OF THEM. If you don't like it, enjoy not having a job! It was hard to be picky before the economy went bust. So in summary, your employer owns your code and you can get whatever they agree to let you have or fail to sue you for taking.

    8. Re:Work for Hire by jamie(really) · · Score: 1

      Do you pay them as employees also, with W-2's and withholding or do you have a special IRS-proof scheme that you've actually tested with the IRS? Or are you not in the USA?

    9. Re:Work For Hire by 91degrees · · Score: 1

      Seems the differences can be pretty subtle. I'm fairly happy that contract the work I do for my current client belongs to them. If I bring in some code that I've written independently though, I'll make it clear that I have the copyright on it even if I do grant them a license to do whatever they want with it.

  4. Because.. by 1s44c · · Score: 1

    Why do people think they own code just because they've paid for it?

    Because they assume they are paying you for a product, not paying you because they like giving away money.

    1. Re:Because.. by nodwick · · Score: 5, Informative

      Other posters have already said that legally it all depends on the license you work out with the customer, and they are correct.

      Having said that, I find that the customer's expectations will depend on what the financing model for the product was. Typically when you get paid for software, it will have been developed under one of two models:

      • My company does the product development on with its own money, and then sells the finished product to multiple customers. Examples are products like Microsoft Office or Adobe CS4. Typically customers assume that they're paying for just a license of the product, since they weren't involved in the actual creation of the code itself at all.
      • The customer has a specific need it needs to address, and hires and pays my company to develop software to address it. Most of the consultant arms of major software vendors operate this way; for example, OPNET (which makes a product called Modeler popularly used in simulating communication networks) develops some protocol models for Modeler this way. As the customer is directly involved in directly funding the development (often billing will involve paying for actual developer-hours, and is typically much more expensive than licensing an existing product), they'll usually expect to get the rights to the code as well.

      If you're using one of the above approaches but want your licensing to work differently, the key is to make this clear to the customer up-front (managing expectations isn't something techies typically enjoy spending time doing, but it's a very important part of having a successful business relationship with your customer) and make sure all your legal wording is done correctly as well. I've worked at companies before where product development was funded by customers, but the need the customer wanted addressed was sufficiently general that the company wanted to retain the copyright and IP to resell to others. In this case, the customer was granted cheap or free perpetual licenses to use the software that was developed, but the contract was written so that the company retained the copyright and the right to sell licenses to others as well.

    2. Re:Because.. by maxwell+demon · · Score: 1

      Well, that's the question: Do they pay you for the product, or do they pay you for the work?

      --
      The Tao of math: The numbers you can count are not the real numbers.
    3. Re:Because.. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      If they pay for the product, you retain rights to the source code. If they pay for the work it is called work-for-hire. If they pay you for the work, they have a right to the source code. There might be some copyright issues if you want to use the code elsewhere, but they still have a right to the source code. You were paid to create said work for them in exchange for money.

    4. Re:Because.. by Totenglocke · · Score: 2, Insightful

      Other posters have already said that legally it all depends on the license you work out with the customer, and they are correct.

      Which is why we need to eliminate licensing and have two modes for work - either you work for someone else and they own what you produce or you work for yourself and others can come to you and buy copies from you. Then it's very simple and there's no needing to read 5,000 lines of legalese bullshit in order to try to find out who owns what.

      As for the guy at hand being contracted to produce code, sorry, but if they come to him saying "Write X for us", then they own it because they paid for all of the development. If you write X own your own and then decide to sell copies of it, then you own it. However if someone else comes and pays for you to write X, they own it because they paid all the costs of producing it.

      Also, does anyone else find it extremely absurd that only when it comes to software / digital content that people are allowed to sell you something and claim that they still own it? No other industry in the world would be allowed to get away with that bullshit. Sure, I understand distribution rights for a game / song / movie / software, but once you buy that copy, you OWN it.

      --
      "The tree of liberty must be refreshed from time to time with the blood of patriots and tyrants." ~Thomas Jefferson
    5. Re:Because.. by Chapter80 · · Score: 1

      It'd be interesting if the consumer attached terms to the transaction like the software or DVD licensor attaches:

      "We are conducting a transaction involving exchange of money for software. I am licensing this money to you for your private use. Ownership of the money belongs to me, and you are merely licensing it. FBI WARNING: Any attempt to copy, transfer, or utilize this money in violation of the terms of this agreement is strictly prohibited."

    6. Re:Because.. by IntlHarvester · · Score: 1

      In my experience, the final situation is common enough that you could call it a third "model". In that case the customer pays for the code according to their own specifications, but is only receiving an "unlimited perpetual licence" in return. Which effectively means both companies own the code.

      One company I worked for had 'productized' their (buggy spaghetti) library code and had customers license it. So even when the client owned rights to the application, developers could just drop any reusable pieces into a separate file/directory to retain ownership.

      But the moral of the story is that if you're in the software business, you need to deal with licenses. You shouldn't just assume it will work a certain way.

      --
      Business. Numbers. Money. People. Computer World.
    7. Re:Because.. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      However if someone else comes and pays for you to write X, they own it because they paid all the costs of producing it.

      The point of hiring a contractor is that you don't pay "all the costs of producing it". The contractor will have his own tools and infrastructure. That's part of the point of being a contractor. You use your own tools and set your own hours.

      Also, does anyone else find it extremely absurd that only when it comes to software / digital content that people are allowed to sell you something and claim that they still own it? No other industry in the world would be allowed to get away with that bullshit. Sure, I understand distribution rights for a game / song / movie / software, but once you buy that copy, you OWN it.

      It's not so absurd. You are still confusing the notion of "buying" and "contracting", however. Yes, you typically buy things with contracts. But you can also merely license them. That means that the owner of the property grants permission for the counter-party to use it.

      Leases work on the same general legal principle. You can trade money for "abstract things". Buying is what happens when you trade money for a "concrete thing". Notice that when you lease an apartment, you are paying for the right to live there for a year (or whatever). You're not paying for the apartment, but for the right to the apartment. The apartment is still owned by the realtor.

      So you buy a compact disc, and lease the music on it.

      You see, when grown ups do business, they want to be able to make grown up deals, where they consider the costs and benefits of marketing that game / song / movie / software effectively world wide. If they were forced to sell and not merely sublicense, they couldn't do regional distribution deals and the like. At least not easily. You would have to find a party of interested buyers who are already organized for regional marketing and distribution, instead of being able to sell off the rights by region piece meal.

    8. Re:Because.. by ATairov · · Score: 1
      No sane individual would trade something for money they can't use. Money almost universally comes from trading it for goods/services. It could maybe be of use that way to a museum.
      That, and federal reserve notes are "legal tender for all debts public and private."

      I sell licenses to software I write, and I'm glad I'm able to do so.

    9. Re:Because.. by ScrewMaster · · Score: 1

      Which is why we need to eliminate licensing and have two modes for work

      That's silly. The reason you have those "5,000 lines of legalese bullshit" is so that each side has their expectations met. Your simplified model doesn't by any means accommodate every possible way that two or more organizations might wish to do business. I was a contract developer for a long time, and only once did I have a customer that wanted access to the source code. In that particular case, it was a dimensional analysis system that was being used to QC a spline shaft used on the Space Shuttle. And they only wanted it so that if NASA asked they could say they had it: they had no desire to modify it. The rest were perfectly happy to have me retain ownership and distribution rights and (most importantly) responsibility for support. All they wanted was to have the code written properly to their specifications. See, not everyone is as interested in control as you seem to think, because with that control comes additional responsibilities that they may not want. There are other considerations, and your model would have given my customers automatic rights they neither needed nor wanted, and would have rejected if offered.

      --
      The higher the technology, the sharper that two-edged sword.
    10. Re:Because.. by ScrewMaster · · Score: 1

      If they pay for the product, you retain rights to the source code. If they pay for the work it is called work-for-hire. If they pay you for the work, they have a right to the source code. There might be some copyright issues if you want to use the code elsewhere, but they still have a right to the source code. You were paid to create said work for them in exchange for money.

      That's just not true.

      --
      The higher the technology, the sharper that two-edged sword.
    11. Re:Because.. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      but if they come to him saying "Write X for us", then they own it because they paid for all of the development..

      You make a good point, but in the article he specifically says that he's talking about libraries and modules that he's already written and that they are generic enough that he re-uses them for multiple jobs.

      So in that case I don't think that they did pay for all of the development. They paid for a product, and he used at least some code that he wrote before he even entered into an agreement with them to create this product.
      In this situation he is licensing out code that he has already written, and licensed to other customers. So obviously the customer didn't pay for that development, someone else did at some time. The specific example he is complaining about wanted something developed in three weeks, and it sounds like they had a pretty hard deadline. If they want to own the source code, he would need to write everything from scratch, so as not to give up his pre-written code, which would probably add time to a project.

      This is all kind of fuzzy though, because who knows how much work this particular person puts into any given project originally, and how much code he reuses. I imagine after ten years of operation as a company, they have developed quite a substantial amount of code that could be re-used for common parts of many projects.

    12. Re:Because.. by asc99c · · Score: 1

      It's really easy to deal with a world in black and white. Of course the real situation is that this guy producing code has various generic libraries that help him to produce a website. Those weren't developed as part of the 'Write X' task but are completely integral to it. Your scheme only allows for off the shelf software, and stuff developed right from first principles, which is ridiculous.

      Most core business software just wouldn't fit into either model. I wonder if anyone has some insider knowledge here, but for systems like SAP, there always seems to be an extremely long and expensive configuration and commissioning phase. Words like programming are not used, but I'm assuming that really, that's mostly what happens during that phase. Because the fact is that every business has its own unique little characteristics and foibles in the way the business is run, and I just don't believe SAP have somehow written software that can handle them all without additional programming.

      So when you buy just about any big piece of software, you are going into this big grey area where you're buying a mixture of off-the-shelf and custom code, where either component by itself is useless, and the combination is the only possible way of getting the job done.

    13. Re:Because.. by MacDork · · Score: 1

      As for the guy at hand being contracted to produce code, sorry, but if they come to him saying "Write X for us", then they own it because they paid for all of the development.

      You're overlooking one important aspect... When contracter writes X for you, he's using libraries he produced long before meeting you. In fact, producing X for you is mainly a matter of gluing together pre-existing, reusable code libraries A, B, and C. Libraries A, B, and C are the culmination of years worth of work. The only thing new in X is the glue code that goes between those libraries. Do you think you should now own libraries that took years to produce because you paid for two months worth of contract work?

      If you write X own your own and then decide to sell copies of it, then you own it. However if someone else comes and pays for you to write X, they own it because they paid all the costs of producing it.

      That is the point OP is trying to make here. You did not pay "all the costs" of the finished product. You paid for a thin layer of glue code. US Copyright law is also really clear on this. By default, 1099s own their code. Not the people who 'paid for it'.

      Frankly, if I were OP, I would consider such behavior a warning sign. If they don't like it, send them packing. Clients like that are going to be nothing but trouble anyway. Being a successful contractor includes learning when to say 'no'. Bad clients can cause you to miss opportunities with good clients. They can also make your hair turn grey and fall out :) So, if they can't grasp simple concepts like this, just think of the stupidity you'll deal with once you start working for them.

    14. Re:Because.. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Guess you've never dealt with Wedding Photography (or Photography in general). You book a photographer to take picture of you for an set period of time. After that time, where you paid them to produce works as you wanted, they own the copyright to all the pictures. You buy prints from them, but still, your buying the print and not the copyright.

      So, in summary, your wrong.

  5. Look out Monday morning by OzPeter · · Score: 2, Insightful

    I subcontract to a company and on Monday morning I'm going to walk right in (actually send an email) and tell them that all that code I have developed for them over the last several years is actually mine and that if they want the source code then they need to pay me a $$$ more money.

    I'll try to remember to keep my head high when I am kicked out of my home and am sitting starving on the side of the road!

    In theory, practice is the same as theory. In practice, it differs.

    --
    I am Slashdot. Are you Slashdot as well?
    1. Re:Look out Monday morning by Courageous · · Score: 1

      You are not required to tell them, even if it's the truth. Perhaps that's your point?

      C//

    2. Re:Look out Monday morning by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Insightful

      This is one of the most idiotic posts that I've seen quickly modded up. It all depends on the terms of the contract that were signed. It should be pretty clear-cut. If there's no mention of it in the contract, then it's up for dispute. But again, it's almost guaranteed to be spelled out in the agreement.

    3. Re:Look out Monday morning by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The main issue - is if you are an employee - the employer owns the code. If you are "sub-contracted" it depends on what the contract looked like. Generally though this looks like a work for hire situation where the owner isn't the author. IANAL so your mileage may vary.

    4. Re:Look out Monday morning by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It's easy to do, just give them an analogy. Seeing as this is slashdot, here goes.

      If you hire a mechanic to build you a custom hotrod, you take full posession of the finished car, but you don't get to take home the customised tools and techniques used to build it.

      You can easily retain ownership of source code, it's automatic, you have to deliberately sign away your default ownership in some way if you don't want to own the source. If I'm contracted to provide an executable, that is what I will provide. My code stays with me unless you want to pay more (and nobody does).

    5. Re:Look out Monday morning by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      So you are a contractor and have not investigated the IP ownership of your work in the contract / contract chain? Attempts at sarcasm seem less successful, when they exhibit your own ignorance or incompetence.

    6. Re:Look out Monday morning by noidentity · · Score: 1

      I subcontract to a company and on Monday morning I'm going to walk right in (actually send an email) and tell them that all that code I have developed for them over the last several years is actually mine and that if they want the source code then they need to pay me a $$$ more money.

      They'd just say that you already made the above arrangement when you walked in and asked for employment with them. In that case, the "more money" was "more than zero".

    7. Re:Look out Monday morning by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      The main issue - is if you are an employee - the employer owns the code. If you are "sub-contracted" it depends on what the contract looked like. Generally though this looks like a work for hire situation where the owner isn't the author. IANAL so your mileage may vary.

      Work for Hire has either a single simple requirement: be a regular employee, or a number of other requirements together. Being contracted to do work settles that the former is not the case. The later has a requirement that the work be from an exhaustive list, of which computer programs are not a part.

      Thus, there is no possibility that the work is a Work for Hire... REGARDLESS OF WHAT ANY TERMS OF THE CONTRACT STATE. Similar to the inability to contract oneself into slavery, parties cannot simply agree that a work is a work for hire. (This is oddly because copyrights are Constitutionally guaranteed rights.)

      Computer programs written on contract require terms which explicitly transfer of copyrights to the contracting party, and I would suggest avoiding the wording "Work for Hire", as it cannot possibly qualify as one, and thus it would present an unenforceable term of the contract, and without a severability clause could make the entire contract voidable. (Meaning if either party disliked any term, they could get the whole thing thrown out.) Even with a severability clause, using the wording "Work for Hire" could void the entire transfer of copyrights, meaning that the contracting party would still obtain no copyrights to their work.

      What's important here is that the contracting party needs to be on their toes about what is going on here, and speak with a lawyer about their rights, and ensure that their contract grants them the rights that they are expecting.

      And the contracted party can use this copyright retention and potentially moral rights to the work to ensure payment by their contracting party. Ensure that copyrights when they are to be transfered, are not transfered unless payment has been made in full.

      --
      WARNING! This girl exceeds the MAXIMUM SAFE standards established by the FDA for BRATTINESS
    8. Re:Look out Monday morning by blackraven14250 · · Score: 1

      Ever heard the sound of WOOOSH?

    9. Re:Look out Monday morning by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      What does your contract say? Because if it doesnt say *anything* you own it. And if it does say something on the issue, then why post? So either: 1) you are wrong: you do own it and can ask for $$$$ or 2) you are wasting our fucking time.

    10. Re:Look out Monday morning by Surt · · Score: 1

      I've contracted for multiple places with million dollar lawyers to review their contracts that used 'work for hire'. Those lawyers obviously have some belief that they will prevail if it comes down to a lawsuit. They could be wrong, but I doubt it.

      --
      "Who is the Journal of Quantum Physics going to believe?" --Stephen Hawking
    11. Re:Look out Monday morning by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      I've contracted for multiple places with million dollar lawyers to review their contracts that used 'work for hire'. Those lawyers obviously have some belief that they will prevail if it comes down to a lawsuit. They could be wrong, but I doubt it.

      "Work for hire" is a strictly defined legal term. One could potentially include it for--of the top of my head--two reasons:

      1) It shows an intent for an agreement between the two parties that the work will be treated as if it were a work for hire. Thus setting up an implicit transfer of copyrights from the worker to the payer.

      This still has no authority for actually defining the work as a "work for hire", because it contradicts the US federal law concerning copyrights. As well, the reinstatement of original copyright to the author after ~30 years is an inalienable right of the author. What this means is that even if you sign a contract stating that you forfeit this right, such a term is unenforceable and thus voidable.

      2) The people who are signing the contract do not have multi-million dollar law firms representing them. Thus being naive, they are likely to agree to terms in a contract that are unenforceable.

      Being a cynical bitch, I believe this is the most likely. Bill collectors ask you to hit up friends and family to pay your bills, and to get you to cash out 401(k) or IRAs to pay your bills. What they fail to ever tell you though, is that there is no legal way for them to force such an action... they're basically trying really hard to convince you that your rights don't exist, and you should go ahead and trust them because they're in the business, and they know the law.

      Don't ever buy the story that someone else's lawyer is representing your interests, as they are not. ALWAYS consult your own lawyer about these contracts. You CANNOT contract away inalienable rights, and companies can only take away natural rights if you let them.

      --
      WARNING! This girl exceeds the MAXIMUM SAFE standards established by the FDA for BRATTINESS
  6. Contract by nurb432 · · Score: 5, Insightful

    Write a good contract and the issue is moot, for both parties.

    --
    ---- Booth was a patriot ----
    1. Re:Contract by timlyg · · Score: 0

      Good. This is how others who don't care about this ownership issue can triumph, if there's any need for rivalry.

    2. Re:Contract by Antique+Geekmeister · · Score: 1

      That's a nice thought. Unfortunately, it tends to break down in court and in business: a "good contract" may have loopholes you didn't think of, or may have been very clear but your client or partner chooses to violate it anyway, leaving you with the difficult task of suing them in order to assert your ownership. It's certainly happened with software I dealt with: for an outstanding example of such misbehavior, look into the history of SCO and the UNIX SysV copyrights, or for a truly talented individual's adventures, look at Mike Jittlov (the creator of "Wizard of Speed and Time").

      Good contracts are like good passwords: they slow down abuse, but they don't stop them altogether.

    3. Re:Contract by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Informative

      Erm, no. "Moot" means up for discussion, not yet agreed. Write a good contract, and the issue is no longer moot.

      Of course you're right that this is all a non-issue. I've never seen a contract which didn't make it perfectly clear who owned the code. In many cases ownership is transfered - as the programmers Mr. Partner hires (either as employees or contractors) will no doubt confirm. Surely he knows what's in their contracts?

    4. Re:Contract by Pharmboy · · Score: 4, Informative

      a "good contract" may have loopholes you didn't think of

      Then it isn't a good contract, is it? In the case of SCO and Novell, their problem was physically losing a lot of the original paperwork, and a bad contract with more legalize than plain English. Most contracts I have seen aren't good contract and suffer the same problem.

      --
      Tequila: It's not just for breakfast anymore!
    5. Re:Contract by 2square · · Score: 1

      Contracts are only part of the issue. Relationships matter more... The only job in my life I've ever been 'fired' from involved precisely this issue. I was contracted to write some simulation dynamics engine. I placed clear headers in each source file indicating that although I was liberally licensing the code to my employer for his use, I retained full ownership of the source code, and I reserved the right to file a claim if my employer turned around and sold or misused the software I wrote without my consent. This came as a shock to my employer as he thought I was being unreasonable. The fact is that the law was on my side. When he realized that, he fired me.

    6. Re:Contract by tmarthal · · Score: 1

      even better, use a FOSS middleware product for all your libraries, then just sell them a configured instance of that middleware!

    7. Re:Contract by mr_matticus · · Score: 2, Informative

      Actually, you're both right. "Moot" is a frustrating word in English, because like 'sanction', it has contradictory meanings.

      Moot does mean 'debatable', but it also means 'insignificant', 'meaningless', or 'irrelevant'. In the applicable context here, a statement regarding legal issues, it also means 'nonreal' (a moot issue is one in which there is no longer (or never was/will be) an actionable, real legal controversy).

      GP's point and usage is correct. Even the most basic and elementary contract in this field will establish ownership rights. Generally, this allocation is the reason for the contract in the first place, apart from memorializing the payment agreement.

    8. Re:Contract by QuantumG · · Score: 1

      What's this "contract" thing you speak of? :)

      Most of my "contract work" has been done on a handshake. We agree on a rate (and some rules like "minimum of 3 hours for a callout"), I send them a bill, they pay it. Who owns the code? Meh.

      But I guess you're talking about the US where every employer is a faceless corporation and every contractor is a weasel who will likely be on the Daily WTF at some point.

      --
      How we know is more important than what we know.
    9. Re:Contract by Antique+Geekmeister · · Score: 1

      Having a quite good contract is no defense against abuse by such an entity. You've actually helped make my point.

      No, it was a reasonable contract at the time, selling off rights to use and license software Novell didn't care to be the main license vendor for anymore. It was reviewed (on Novell's and SCO's sides) by competent attorneys. The problem was that SCO's various mergers and business ventures left it in possession of Darl McBride, who is, is, oh my. I wouldn't care to use the kind of language that describes him accurately. But Darl is demonstrably a corporate fraud, in charge of a dying company whose markets were evaporating under the blowtorch that was Linux, inspired to use what was left of SCO to pursue what he saw as a pot of gold, and to collect his salary and stock benefits for nearly another decaded, burning funding from groups (like Microsoft) who were happy to create FUD about Linux while reapoing the benefits of seeing a formerly significant UNIX competitor burn itself out in court and eliminate any serious software threat.

      A good contract is not a defense against such abuse.

    10. Re:Contract by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Erm, no. "Moot" means up for discussion, not yet agreed.

      That's one meaning of the word, but not in the context in which he spoke - the definition there would have been "unimportant" or "of no meaning". Quit being pedantic.

  7. Incorrect by mnslinky · · Score: 5, Insightful

    If someone pays you to perform work, they own all rights to that work. When I was married, we had a difficult time finding a photographer that agreed, and simply didn't do business with those that wanted to be paid for their work, and wanted to keep all rights to said photos for use in promotions and fees for reprints. I consider that a form of double jeopardy where I'm being forced to pay for something twice.

    Software is no different. If you're being paid to perform a specific work, it's no different than if the person/organization paying you did the work themselves. You can't have both.

    1. Re:Incorrect by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Insightful

      That is a valid suggestion, however, it is not how Copyright works today.

    2. Re:Incorrect by Idiomatick · · Score: 1

      "If someone pays you to perform work, they own all rights to that work."
      Fine assertion...

      "When I was married, we had a difficult time finding a photographer that agreed, and simply didn't do business with those that wanted to be paid for their work, and wanted to keep all rights to said photos for use in promotions and fees for reprints."
      Which you immediately point out doesn't seem to hold true in reality.

      Would it have killed you to use 'should' or some other qualifier? Stating opinion as fact is lame enough, giving evidence to disprove yourself in the next line is just sad.

    3. Re:Incorrect by lordsid · · Score: 3, Informative

      The only thing correct about your post is the title.

      As a programmer I own all the of the code I write until I sign away that right. It is my companies fault that they did not require me to sign a contract giving up those rights. In fact I brought the issue up to them they still haven't done anything about it.

      Try asking your dentist some time if you can have the x-rays they take of your teeth.

      --
      IMAGE VERIFICATION IS EVIL!
    4. Re:Incorrect by Lord+Grey · · Score: 0

      If someone pays you to perform work, they own all rights to that work.

      I think this may depend on where you live, but legally this isn't always right. The idea is that when you write software, you're creating something using your talent and skill, then you're selling the end result to a buyer. You can, in fact, sell that something multiple times to different buyers. You haven't created a single instance of an end product (the running software); you've created a repeatable process for creating copies of that end product, then selling each one.

      All of that is splitting hairs, I know. And I don't think it agrees with common sense, myself. But that's how a lot of the legal and tax systems treat the process. You can, of course, change the ownership issue with contracts, which is what TFA talks about.

      Several years ago, when I owned my own custom software business, I went through a state sales tax audit. The worst six weeks of my entire life, easily. I used "Work For Hire" contracts with my customers, with the modification that I retained the right to excerpt "useful subroutines" and reuse them in any other projects (along with clauses saying that a customer's project may contain such code). In the main, though, what we wrote belonged to the customer when we were finished. The tax department really didn't like that, as that exempted us from charging sales tax (thereby depriving the state of some revenue). I won, eventually, and that whole process left me far more knowledgeable about the tax code and whole lot less enthusiastic about it. They've probably closed that loophole since.

      --
      // Beyond Here Lie Dragons
    5. Re:Incorrect by mnslinky · · Score: 2, Informative

      Funny, I *do* keep copies of X-rays and even was given a copy of viewing software and the images from some MRIs. No hassle whatsoever. If you're employed, you don't own the rights to the work you do for the company, unless *they give it to you*. Try it in court and you'll find your unsuccessful.

    6. Re:Incorrect by bsDaemon · · Score: 1

      The dentist would probably give them to me if I asked. Are you sure that's the same thing?

    7. Re:Incorrect by Entrope · · Score: 5, Informative

      As a matter of US law, you are wrong. Copyright in a work for hire resides with the employer (or whomever the work was made for). See Circular 9 of the US Copyright Office. If an entire program is being developed as a contract piece, it *might* not qualify as a work for hire, but contracted software components and anything a normal employee writes within the scope of his employment are works for hire, and the people writing the checks own those works.

      I don't know about the corresponding laws in other countries, but if you work in the US, you are woefully misinformed.

    8. Re:Incorrect by FrozenGeek · · Score: 1

      What this really comes down to is the business model - how you intend to make a profit from your work. If a programmer's business model dictates that he owns the underlying code (and can use bits and pieces to accelerate development of future projects), he will price his work accordingly. If his business model dictates that the customer owns everything, we will price his work based on that model.

      Problems tend to arise when customers expect the benefits of the programmer-owns-the-code model (shorter development times, lower costs) as well as the benefits of the customer-owns-the-code model (we own the code, we can hire someone else [cheaper] to do maintenance and upgrades).

      In many cases, the root cause is ignorance on the customer's part. If the customer will let you educate them, do so. If they won't let you educate them, when possible, let them be someone else's problem.

      --
      linquendum tondere
    9. Re:Incorrect by cynyr · · Score: 1

      idk when you got married, but 1.5 years ago that was rather easy to find, but was about double or triple the price of the places that were keeping rights.

      --
      All of the above was encrypted with a Quad ROT-13 method. Unauthorized decryption is in violation of the DMCA.
    10. Re:Incorrect by Kjella · · Score: 1

      If someone pays you to perform work, they own all rights to that work. When I was married, we had a difficult time finding a photographer that agreed, and simply didn't do business with those that wanted to be paid for their work, and wanted to keep all rights to said photos for use in promotions and fees for reprints.

      Part of it is of course that they expect the same total pay, don't expect to cut them off from the additional income and expect the base pay to remain the same. But I think the other part is that they start thinking of what a similar commercial work for hire would cost. The type where you get model releases and can use them in commercial promotions, magazines, websites and so on both in original and any form of derivate and sublicense those rights to others, which is quite pricy. Maybe they're thinking you want to set up a bridal gear shop and is looking to get a professional set of stock photos on the cheap by being your own models? Or have a deal with someone that wants to? If you ask for all the rights they will imagine the possibilities, even if you haven't.

      --
      Live today, because you never know what tomorrow brings
    11. Re:Incorrect by geckipede · · Score: 1

      not a lawyer, blah, blah, usual disclaimer

      As far as I am aware, the distinction in most countries legal systems is whether the work was commissioned by a particular buyer. If somebody has created something copyrightable to specific instructions by a single buyer, the copyright is owned by the buyer. That applies to everything, not just software, although it can be overriden if there is a contract that states the coder/writer/artist/whatever retains their copyright. If the work was created without any prior arrangement, the rights work the way you would expect and you can then sell the work to whoever you want as many times as you want.

    12. Re:Incorrect by 15Bit · · Score: 4, Informative

      Wedding photography has a very well established business plan where the base fee covers the basic costs of the photographer, and the prints supply the profit. You are not paying twice for the same thing - the real cost has simply been split up in a way which is convenient to both the photographer and the customer. As it is not exactly an uncompetitive industry, and you don't see many wedding photogs turning up in Porsches, i'd say the pricing and model were pretty fair.

      The reasons for the model relate to the photographer having control over his/her reputation, not to screwing the customer - when photos were still taken on film, the quality of the final print had as much to do with the printing process as the actual taking of the picture. Retaining control over that was important to the reputation of the photographer - if he actually handed you a stack of negatives and let you have them printed by any old mail order company, the lousy final prints would impact his reputation. You *could* argue it is an outdated model now, with the rise of electronic media, but most couples still want prints, and the same problem actually still remains - giving out jpg's and letting people print at home or from a cheap online outlet is going to result in exactly the same quality/reputation problem as in the film days.

      The industry is adapting to modern times though, so you will now find some wedding photogs will include a DVD of low resolution images for you to put on the web (and many will host a web presence for you as part of the package). But any you find who are willing to give you full size images and reproduction rights for anything less than a big pile of money are probably not the quality of photographer you want covering your wedding anyway.

    13. Re:Incorrect by clang_jangle · · Score: 1

      Well -- your unsuccessful what?

      --
      Caveat Utilitor
    14. Re:Incorrect by hitmark · · Score: 1

      that kind of thinking is what i take as proof that the concept of copyright have mutated into some kind of mental brier patch.

      its like one would have to go around asking each and every craftsman working on a building if its ok to sell it before its put on the market.

      --
      comment first, facts later. http://chem.tufts.edu/AnswersInScience/RelativityofWrong.htm
    15. Re:Incorrect by dfghjk · · Score: 1

      Way to misunderstand.

    16. Re:Incorrect by sosume · · Score: 1

      > As a programmer I own all the of the code I write until I sign away that right

      That is like an accountant claiming ownership to the ledger. He wrote all the lines after all, didn't he? Or a builder claiming ownership of the form of your house. Even worse, what about McDonalds claiming ownershipo of your body?? They choose which ingredients to provide you with, after all.

    17. Re:Incorrect by hitmark · · Score: 1

      iirc, the designer can claim copyright on the design of the house, but the specific implementation is the owners.

      --
      comment first, facts later. http://chem.tufts.edu/AnswersInScience/RelativityofWrong.htm
    18. Re:Incorrect by noidentity · · Score: 2, Insightful

      If someone pays you to perform work, they own all rights to that work. When I was married, we had a difficult time finding a photographer that agreed, and simply didn't do business with those that wanted to be paid for their work, and wanted to keep all rights to said photos for use in promotions and fees for reprints. I consider that a form of double jeopardy where I'm being forced to pay for something twice.

      Agreed! I've had the same thing happen in the grocery store even. I hand the guy a five, and he says "sir, the total is ten dollars", and I tell him "what, you want me to pay for this stuff twice?!?" I stopped shopping there after that.

    19. Re:Incorrect by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      As a photographer working in the US, this is not the case. Even with no written agreement, if someone commissions me to photograph their son's senior photos for example, the copyright is automatically in my ownership, regardless if the buyer pays me or not. If he hires me to be part of his business - ie. I am legally his employee and not a contractor - then he automatically gets the ownership of the copyrighted images, unless stated otherwise in a contract during the hiring process (as it used to be done in the newspapers).

      As far as taxes go (at least in my state) I am always charging for services, never for goods.

      Although I hear that in Australia the reverse is true, but cannot confirm.

    20. Re:Incorrect by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      If you're employed, you don't own the rights to the work you do for the company, unless *they give it to you*. Try it in court and you'll find your unsuccessful.

      Employment contracts specifically state that the rights will be transfered.

    21. Re:Incorrect by JohnMurtari · · Score: 1

      This person is quite correct. I'm amazed people think that if I pay you to develop some software some scratch -- that you OWN the result? It is "work made for hire" and the person that pays, owns by default. Normally, when I'm involved in this type of work for a customers I'll add a clause that at least says I have the right to "reuse" portions of the code in other work -- most don't have a problem with that.

    22. Re:Incorrect by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Informative

      The reputation argument may have made sense 40 years ago, but it hasn't for 20 thanks to automation. And if you think the pictures where ever developed by the master himself, that hasn't been true since photography became a commercial operation. That work was handed over to some assistant. Reality is, this argument was given to people commenting about the price to give them a rationale to accept it. By the time they figured out it was wrong, if they did at all, the photographer was long gone.

      The real business plan, and the real reason, is to lower the price as much as possible for those who have a say in the matter (the bride and groom), and raise it as high as bearable for those who don't (the rest, and in particular the parents and grandparents who will shell out no matter what), including mandatory "extras" such as frames. The whole thing is a big scam built on "that's the way it's done" (and indeed good luck finding a photographer who will give you the copyright as part of the deal), and the quite reasonable fear of the newly-wed-to-be to ruin their great moment by not going with "the best"

      As for this "adaptation" of providing low-res samples to "put on the web", it's idiotic at best. Anything that's worth looking at on my standard 24' should be at least 1-1.5 MP. That will look fine printed on a 9*13. Conversely, something that doesn't look fine on a 9*13 will look like a stamp on my screen, in which case it's a scam again.

      I don't know how much money these guys make on prints, but I'd rather pay an extra grand and get the copyright. What's unacceptable is that it's not even an option.

    23. Re:Incorrect by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Interesting

      Bullshit, most "expensive" wedding photographers are immature hacks who think they're artists. I've a wanna-be hack, but don't charge my friends. If they ask, I'll take pictures. Those who want to have a real photogropher but like my pictures generally ask me to take pictures too. I just ask them to make sure their agreement with the wedding photogropher doesn't preclude other photographing. My feedback is that mine get printed, the professional's don't.

      If you want a real test of the photographer, ask them 2 questions. "what retouching do you do to all of the photographs" and "May I see the albums from the last 3 weddings you shot." ... their best photographs are really irrelevant. What they'll actually do for yours is important. If your "professional photographer" doesn't do anything but red-eye and "I'm feeling lucky" in Picassa, or, worse, not even that, what the hell are you paying for. In the 100 people you invite to your wedding, someone's got a DSLR and can compose a picture.

    24. Re:Incorrect by nedlohs · · Score: 1

      If you are contractor (and since you say "my companies fault" that seems unlikely - the IRS has pretty strict rules on what doesn't qualify as an independent contractor) then that's true.

      If you are an employee then that is simply false:

      """
      A “work made for hire” is—
      (1) a work prepared by an employee within the scope of his or her employment; or
      """ - http://www4.law.cornell.edu/uscode/17/usc_sec_17_00000101----000-.html

    25. Re:Incorrect by Totenglocke · · Score: 1

      As a programmer I own all the of the code I write until I sign away that right.

      That depends - do you own your own company where you write code first and then look for people who want to purchase it? If that's true, then you own the code. If they come to you and pay you to write code for them, then they own it because they paid for the entire development of the code.

      There's a big difference between having and idea and putting work into creating it and THEN going out and selling it and having someone else come up with an idea and pay you to do the grunt work of manufacturing it. I suppose in your world, the people working in Ford's factories own all of the cars and the designs to the cars just because they did the grunt work?

      --
      "The tree of liberty must be refreshed from time to time with the blood of patriots and tyrants." ~Thomas Jefferson
    26. Re:Incorrect by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Interesting

      This is changing. 3 years ago when I hired a wedding photographer it was about a 50/50 split between photographers that kept control over the photos, and photographers that handed *most* rights to the customer. I have a DVD of the full-quality photos. Any we had printed are photoshopped, the others are just the originals. We can print as many as we want, so long as we don't sell them for profit. We can post online so long as we credit our photographer. They really can't stop someone from making a high-quality copy of a photograph with a $200 all-in-one printer, so why not make it convenient?

    27. Re:Incorrect by Lord+Ender · · Score: 1

      That's not what "double jeopardy" means at all.

      --
      A slashdotter who didn't build his own computer is like a Jedi who didn't build his own lightsaber.
    28. Re:Incorrect by Totenglocke · · Score: 1

      The industry is adapting to modern times though, so you will now find some wedding photogs will include a DVD of low resolution images for you to put on the web

      The last several people I knew who got married got a DVD.......but if you consider 4xxx by 2xxx (I forget the exact resolution, but each jpeg was over 5 MB and I know the first part started with a 4) low resolution, I'd love to know what you consider high resolution.

      As for the issues of assholes thinking that they own someone's wedding pictures? That's why you just get a friend / family member who's competent and has a good quality camera - problem solved and it saves you several hundred / a few thousand bucks.

      --
      "The tree of liberty must be refreshed from time to time with the blood of patriots and tyrants." ~Thomas Jefferson
    29. Re:Incorrect by Fnord666 · · Score: 1

      I don't know about the corresponding laws in other countries, but if you work in the US, you are woefully misinformed.

      Judging by the site (http://www.pcpro.co.uk) that this personal rant posing as journalism is posted to, I would have to guess that the author does not work in the US. Hopefully he also doesn't do contract work for companies in the US either.

      --
      'The tyrant will always find pretext for his tyranny.' - Aesop's Fables
    30. Re:Incorrect by Grimbleton · · Score: 1

      My dentist would likely hand them over but remind me to bring them back every time for comparisons... and then rant and rave at me if I forgot them.

    31. Re:Incorrect by PaladinAlpha · · Score: 1

      As for this "adaptation" of providing low-res samples to "put on the web", it's idiotic at best. Anything that's worth looking at on my standard 24' should be at least 1-1.5 MP. That will look fine printed on a 9*13. Conversely, something that doesn't look fine on a 9*13 will look like a stamp on my screen, in which case it's a scam again.

      This is nonsense. A 1.5 MP image in the common aspect is about 1440x1080. You are asserting that that is sufficient quality for a photo print, which is false, and that that is suitable for web distribution, which is false.

      For the print you are advocating, 9x13 at 1.5MP is less than 150dpi. For nice-looking (i.e. "my new wife deserves better than cheap crap") prints you want 300dpi minimum, and anything up to 600 would be noticeable by an untrained observer (i.e., your new wife). 9x13s need good hardware backing them up, which is part of what you are paying for when you hire a photographer. For viewing on the web, 1440x1080 is certainly a nice viewing size for local photos, but is entirely inappropriate for web albums, where images should be kept smaller (800x600 is a solid choice with modern compression, or 960x600 for a 16:10 crop). Said web-ready pictures are not going to look good on paper, and your insistence that they are is a demonstration of why photographers have to maintain control of their work -- so that people don't make fuzzy 1MP 9x13s and call the quality of the photography into question.

    32. Re:Incorrect by snowgirl · · Score: 4, Interesting

      As a matter of US law, you are wrong. Copyright in a work for hire resides with the employer (or whomever the work was made for). See Circular 9 of the US Copyright Office. If an entire program is being developed as a contract piece, it *might* not qualify as a work for hire, but contracted software components and anything a normal employee writes within the scope of his employment are works for hire, and the people writing the checks own those works.

      I don't know about the corresponding laws in other countries, but if you work in the US, you are woefully misinformed.

      You are woefully misinformed as well. Work for Hire in the USA must satisfy certain requirements. The simplest is being an employee. If you are a contractor, then in so far as computer programming there is NO WAY FOR THE WORK TO BE A WORK FOR HIRE... even if your contract says it is.

      For computer programming, one's contract must explicitly include terms for the transfer of copyrights, otherwise the programmer will retain all copyrights, regardless of if he were being paid by someone else to do the work.

      Oddly enough, even with a transfer of copyrights, the author recovers the copyrights after 35 years... and this right is inalienable.

      --
      WARNING! This girl exceeds the MAXIMUM SAFE standards established by the FDA for BRATTINESS
    33. Re:Incorrect by Vellmont · · Score: 1


      Wedding photography has a very well established business plan where the base fee covers the basic costs of the photographer, and the prints supply the profit.

      The modern world has since stepped in, and this business model is very likely going the way of the dodo. It worked when "copying" photographs was difficult, expensive, and uncommon. The modern age of digital photography has changed all three of those, so customers have entirely different expectations now.


      As it is not exactly an uncompetitive industry, and you don't see many wedding photogs turning up in Porsches, i'd say the pricing and model were pretty fair.

      Heh. This kind of reasoning just has to make me laugh. It's fair because photographers don't drive Porshes? You've got a lot to learn about business and economics. It was "fair" because the photographers could get away with it. Now they can't. Fair I won't get into since that's far to value driven of a word to have any meaninful conversation about. It's obvious to me that the old business model isn't sustainable.


      You *could* argue it is an outdated model now, with the rise of electronic media, but most couples still want prints, and the same problem actually still remains - giving out jpg's and letting people print at home or from a cheap online outlet is going to result in exactly the same quality/reputation problem as in the film days.

      What a lot of malarkey. This is exactly the case of the photographers seeing the whole world as a set of photographers sitting around worrying about print quality. The truth is people buying prints aren't experts at print quality. The LAST thing they think of when looking at a photograph is the photographer who took the picture. It's also an after-the-fact justification for a business practice that benefits photographers. The REAL deal is the business practice, the print quality thing is just a mask to hide that.

      --
      AccountKiller
    34. Re:Incorrect by snowgirl · · Score: 2, Informative

      If someone pays you to perform work, they own all rights to that work.

      This is your opinion, and your clear intent and desire when you are soliciting work. It is not however legal fact.

      When I was married, we had a difficult time finding a photographer that agreed, and simply didn't do business with those that wanted to be paid for their work, and wanted to keep all rights to said photos for use in promotions and fees for reprints.

      It's difficult to find a photographer that agrees, because its a false legal assumption. Your actions however are the proper way to deal with the situation... refuse to hire anyone to do the work, who refuse to transfer the copyrights.

      I consider that a form of double jeopardy where I'm being forced to pay for something twice.

      You're misusing the term "double jeopardy". Double jeopardy only applies to criminal punishment. This requirement to "pay for something twice" is also not something that is so unfair that it cannot be contracted away. It's entirely reasonable for an artist (e.g. a photographer) to retain the rights to the works, which they produce. They are after all artists. If you want to own the copyrights to it, then you have to pay for that separately from simply having the artist produce the singular work for your enjoyment.

      Software is no different.

      Actually, it legally is different. Specifically, there is no way at all for software to be written "for hire" unless you are a normal employee.

      If you're being paid to perform a specific work, it's no different than if the person/organization paying you did the work themselves. You can't have both.

      This is not legally correct.

      --
      WARNING! This girl exceeds the MAXIMUM SAFE standards established by the FDA for BRATTINESS
    35. Re:Incorrect by ChrisMaple · · Score: 1

      It is long established that the person who owns the film at the time the photos are taken owns it afterwords unless there is a specific contract to the contrary. Any other approach just becomes a legal nightmare.

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    36. Re:Incorrect by dissy · · Score: 1

      by 15Bit (940730) writes:

      My condolences on the loss of your most significant bit :{

    37. Re:Incorrect by haruharaharu · · Score: 1

      It's called a counterexample. Most Photographers retain the rights to things they do and sell prints later. Likewise, writing software as a contractor isn't a settled matter - it varies from contract to contract.

      --
      Reboot macht Frei.
    38. Re:Incorrect by sribe · · Score: 1

      . If an entire program is being developed as a contract piece, it *might* not qualify as a work for hire...

      Replace "might not" with "does not" and your statement would be correct.

    39. Re:Incorrect by sribe · · Score: 1

      I'm amazed people think that if I pay you to develop some software some scratch -- that you OWN the result?

      Amazing to you or not, that is what federal law says.

      It is "work made for hire" and the person that pays, owns by default.

      No, a work made for hire is what the law says it is, not what you say it is, and a software program developed from scratch is not eligible for "work made for hire" status.

    40. Re:Incorrect by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      In most cases with programming, "contractor" means "contract employee" or "temporary employee". Whether you are being paid weekly or hourly usually would not make any difference in the Work-For-Hire status of the code.

      Companies like to make a big deal about regular vs contract employees (with different color badges, different privileges, etc), but the actual legal difference is pretty minimal.

    41. Re:Incorrect by zippthorne · · Score: 1

      That's because you didn't ask the right way. The photographer makes money by selling copies of the pictures to your relatives and additional copies to you, as well (and incidentally provides the service of off-site backup, but it is not out of altruism, so I think we can safely ignore it as a mere side-benefit). Therefore the rights to the images have value to him or her, and conversely the photographer can afford to offer a lower price for the circumstance where the rights are not assigned to you.

      Regardless of which party has the "right to the rights" the ultimate assignment of the rights has an effect on the ultimate price, and many (though a diminishing number) photographers' standard offer assumes the rights will be assigned to the photographer.

      You can't expect to get full control of the images for the same price as just making sure good quality pictures are available for subsequent purchase, so the proper thing to do is not to demand that the photographer assign all the rights to you, but to ask how much for the option where you get the rights instead of the photographer.

      --
      Can you be Even More Awesome?!
    42. Re:Incorrect by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You should really read the circular.

      1) they mean employee under the general common law of agency. Every one of the contractors I've hired fits this description even though they were not my "employees."

      2) Even if you are not and employee under the general common law of agency you can create a written agreement between parties, read contract, specifying that the work is a work made for hire if it satisfies one of the 9 categories listed in part two. Programing certainly would if the code you are working on is not yours.

      3) the transfer of rights is not particularly relevant since in a work for hire they were never yours.

    43. Re:Incorrect by symbolic · · Score: 1

      I think a case could be made, that by default, it is NOT work for hire. Case in point...I write an application, and when its publication takes place in the form of releasing it to the customer, I own the copyright by default. If, on the other hand, our agreement stipulates that it is a work for hire, then they will own it.

    44. Re:Incorrect by pclminion · · Score: 1

      So... wait. All those contracts that people post on RentACoder stating "the work is for hire, all rights transfer to the buyer, blah blah" is just a bunch of bullshit? Because if so, RentACoder just got a lot more appealing to me.

    45. Re:Incorrect by ArsenneLupin · · Score: 1

      Try asking your dentist some time if you can have the x-rays they take of your teeth.

      Never asked my dentist (when I got X-rayed prior to root canal...), but I'm sure I could have gotten them if I asked.

      Case in point I've got X-rays done of other parts of my body (neck), and there I got the pictures on a CD-Rom without even asking.

      Or is this "withholding the pictures" a special thing with dentists? If so, why?

    46. Re:Incorrect by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Which is why independent contractors never produce a "work for hire" unless its in the contract.

      The other reason is because its the kiss of death with the IRS. Once you are a "work for hire" you are an employee for tax purposes, and the company must withhold taxes, pay benefits to you that they pay their other employees.

      The IRS is a far bigger problem than the copyright problem. Copyright can cause some painful negotiation between each party, but at least its just the two of you. The IRS will ruin both your days. The company because they have to pay hefty penalties, and the contractor because they loose all their write-offs.

      The fact that you neglect to mention IRS angle I find it highly unlikely that you actually have any experience on this issue.

    47. Re:Incorrect by roman_mir · · Score: 3, Interesting

      Yes, the US has a screwed up view of who the copyright to photographs, engravings, portraits belong when those items are ordered for hire.

      Canadian law makes so much more sense in this particular case:

      Ownership of copyright
      13. (1) Subject to this Act, the author of a work shall be the first owner of the copyright therein.

      Engraving, photograph or portrait

      (2) Where, in the case of an engraving, photograph or portrait, the plate or other original was ordered by some other person and was made for valuable consideration, and the consideration was paid, in pursuance of that order, in the absence of any agreement to the contrary, the person by whom the plate or other original was ordered shall be the first owner of the copyright.

      If I order someone to take my pictures, for any reason at all, and I pay them, I own the copyright to those pictures, and it is correct, I want to own the copyright to them, those are my pictures, I ordered them and all I want is service of taking them.

      I had a case where I had a very unpleasant experience with a company in Ontario, they tried to get me to sign away my rights by stating in the original contract, that I will not be able to get the original files unless I sign some other document later on, which they did not even present to me at the moment of signing the original contract. Obviously this is an illegal move, you can't bind me by a contract, which contains a clause, that says I will be bound by another contract later on, without showing the details of that other contract to me before I sign everything. They made this mistake, I got the originals and the copyrights and I will never deal with them again. There are some slimy people out there.

    48. Re:Incorrect by lordsid · · Score: 1

      If you ask your dentist for your x-ray negatives they will not give them to you. It is because you hired them to produce the negatives. You didn't actually buy the x-ray, but the service to produce and interpret them. If you want to change dentists they are under no obligation to give you the originals and they can charge you for copies. Same thing goes with a photographer or even a professor at a university in regards to his curriculum.

      Basically the reason I believe dentists do it is to give you a reason not to switch dentists, but it's your dental insurer paying for the negatives anyways. Unless of course my dentist was just being a dick.

      --
      IMAGE VERIFICATION IS EVIL!
    49. Re:Incorrect by Entrope · · Score: 1

      A whole lot of context decides whether such a thing is a work for hire or not. I'm not a lawyer, much less one who is an expert in that area of law, so I'm not about to draw a bright line where there isn't one.

    50. Re:Incorrect by TRRosen · · Score: 1

      Its not a business model its a marketing scam where costs are moved from the front end and hidden in the backend. Those days are over customers know what your costs are and wont stand to be RIPPED OFF by you charging 5 times your cost for prints that you push a button to order from a lab. Photographers brought this on themselves if they would have been honest and charged for the services they provide upfront instead of hiding it in print fees in order to scam extra money (the scam is the customer pays for the sitting/location work over and over again with each print).

      PS I know several good photographers that have moved to an honest sitting fee and full rights to the buyer.

    51. Re:Incorrect by UnknowingFool · · Score: 1

      When copyrights are involved, unless there is a specific agreement that copyrights are transferred, no transfer took place. Let's take the recent case of SCO vs Novell. SCO says they got the Unix copyrights with Amendment 2. Novell says that SCO only got rights to sell Unix licenses. The judge found that in a summary judgment that since no specific part of the Amendment explicitly assigned SCO the copyrights, it is hard to argue that they received them. The judge was overturned on appeal because the appeals court said that procedurely such a ruling cannot come from a summary judgment; there must be a trial even if the evidence was overwhelming that SCO would lose.

      --
      Well, there's spam egg sausage and spam, that's not got much spam in it.
    52. Re:Incorrect by mr_matticus · · Score: 3, Informative

      You are woefully misinformed as well.

      GP broadly misstates the work for hire doctrine, but so do you--just in the opposite direction.

      If you are a contractor, then in so far as computer programming there is NO WAY FOR THE WORK TO BE A WORK FOR HIRE... even if your contract says it is.

      Not so. Written agreement by both parties in a valid contract can establish the work as a work for hire copyright so long as it is commissioned for a collective work. 17 USC 101.

      If your customer provides a copyrightable data set or is integrating your software product with any other copyrightable work, they have a collective work claim, and coupled with contract language stating that it is a work for hire, it will usually be so.

      For computer programming, one's contract must explicitly include terms for the transfer of copyrights, otherwise the programmer will retain all copyrights

      This is true, if the programmer is an independent entity and is contracting for work with a third party. Stating that you are an independent contractor does not make it so, however, as many "contractors" are in fact employees for the purposes of the Copyright Act.

      In order to be considered an independent contractor for copyright (and agency purposes in general), you must demonstrate that the putative employer does not maintain any substantial control over the work or over the programmer, and that the programmer's does not comport himself in a manner that would lead others to believe he was an agent of the employer. In modern programming relationships, this has grown increasingly difficult, given the increased input and meetings with the customer, along with their increased executive authority over project direction.

      Assuming you did accept a simple commission and are deemed not an employee-agent, the product will not be considered a work for hire only if it is not part of a collective work. The collective work need not be entirely software to qualify, so programmers are rarely off the hook on that basis alone. The parties in this case must agree that the product is a work for hire, as required to fulfill the definition of 17 USC 101 under paragraph 2 of the "work for hire" definition.

      What this means in practice is that all contracts should specify, in the positive or negative, the work for hire status to minimize disputes later on. Good attorneys can move the work for hire line a fair distance both ways because the concept of agency is fairly nebulous and the degree of customer control exercised necessary can vary wildly from case to case.

      If the customer explicitly agreed that it was not a work for hire, particularly a sophisticated customer, it probably won't be found one later. If the contract explicitly states that it is a work for hire, it is a virtual certainty that federal judges will make it so by the end of the trial, and usually will do so without so much as breaking a sweat.

    53. Re:Incorrect by muridae · · Score: 1

      You do not understand 'work for hire', so please, stop. The reason you have difficulty finding a photographer is because you do not understand this distinction. 'Work for hire' only counts in:

      1. Contribution to a larger work, such as a magazine
      2. A part of a motion picture or audiovisual work
      3. A compilation of existing works
      4. Instructional texts or graphic works
      5. A translation of an existing work
      6. A test
      7. Answers for a test
      8. Supplementary works, such as a graph for a book
      9. An atlas

      The work also has to be specified as work for hire, and must be specially commissioned. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Work_for_hire

      You paying them to work for you does not count, unless you are employing them full time or have specified in the contract that it is a 'work for hire'. As a amateur photographer, I have enough respect for my own portfolio to only hand over the copyright in the case that you pay for all the advertising that the photographs would have gotten me had I been able to display them in my portfolio. Don't like that, then don't hire those photographers. But do not confuse the law and think that it is in your favor.

    54. Re:Incorrect by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Please stop misinforming people, thanks.

    55. Re:Incorrect by Surt · · Score: 1

      I have xray negatives from multiple dentists. Your claim simply isn't factual, it is more of an indication that you have a bad dentist. Go get a better dentist.

      --
      "Who is the Journal of Quantum Physics going to believe?" --Stephen Hawking
    56. Re:Incorrect by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Actually, it legally is different. Specifically, there is no way at all for software to be written "for hire" unless you are a normal employee.

      You are wrong. See discussion in an earlier thread.

    57. Re:Incorrect by Idiomatick · · Score: 1

      I'll rewite what the op said in a different situation.

      A: People seem to be using CFLs rather than incandescents.
      B: WRONG.
      B: I can never find incandescents these days, they are so rare.

      Clearly the statement 'WRONG' doesn't make sense and is inflamatory. Why? Because he immediately proceeds to provide a counter-example AGAINST his own arguement.

    58. Re:Incorrect by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Would it have killed you to use 'should' or some other qualifier? Stating opinion as fact is lame enough, giving evidence to disprove yourself in the next line is just sad.

      Everyone knows an opinion becomes a fact once you convince enough people that it's true.

      Every proud Palin American knows that when you qualify your opinions, you'll never convince people that your opinions are true. Then, your opinions will never become facts. You self-loathing libtards can twist empiricism to argue against yourself, but you're just giving aid and comfort to your ideological enemies.

    59. Re:Incorrect by laughingcoyote · · Score: 1

      "When I was married, we had a difficult time finding a photographer that agreed, and simply didn't do business with those that wanted to be paid for their work, and wanted to keep all rights to said photos for use in promotions and fees for reprints." Which you immediately point out doesn't seem to hold true in reality.

      Dunno about "in reality" when GP was married, but I know of a lot of people annoyed with that, and it apparently has been changing. I'm getting married myself here in a little under 6 months, and one thing we explicitly looked for in a photographer was a full transfer of all rights. I'd say it was about 50/50, the ones who did that as a matter of course vs. those who charged extra for it, and there really wasn't a price differential between the two. So, while it may be conceivable for the photographer to retain all rights, it's apparently caused enough of a loss in business for people to stop it. Certainly lost mine-if I was considering a photographer, and the answer to that question was "We retain all the rights, but you can pay $XXX for them", my response was "Thank you for your time" and an end to the conversation.

      I have high quality printing equipment that I'm more than capable of doing my own reprints on, and will also likely put together a quick website for friends/family to visit and get them from. I'm paying the photographer for skill in photography and the time spent using those skills, not to eternally pay more for stuff I'm quite capable of taking over myself from that point onward.

      Lest anyone think this is entirely offtopic, the same applies to developers-if the customer pays you to do the initial development, and then moves on to doing support themself or having someone else provide it, just make sure you charge enough for the initial development work that it's worth your time even if that happens. If you're charging based on hopes of something in the future, rather than what you've got the contract for right now, well, that's just foolish and of course you'll find yourself in a tough spot. Deal honestly and squarely with your customers, and you'll find many of them are happy to contract for additional work or continue to request you for consulting. Yank them around, and not only will they never consider you again, but there will be someone else they talk to that will never consider you either-even though you'll never know.

      --
      To fight the war on terror, stop being afraid.
    60. Re:Incorrect by mdwh2 · · Score: 1

      It's difficult to find a photographer that agrees, because its a false legal assumption.

      His first statement might have been false, but it's not a false legal assumption to pay someone with the understanding that you have rights to the photos in return.

      Also note that it isn't even necessary that the copyright be transferred (even thought that's how the rest of the world works - I don't see why photographers are so special) - it would be good enough that a married couple can have a licence to the photos they paid for. You know, so they aren't breaking the law when they decide to make a copy of their own wedding photos.

    61. Re:Incorrect by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      So... wait. All those contracts that people post on RentACoder stating "the work is for hire, all rights transfer to the buyer, blah blah" is just a bunch of bullshit? Because if so, RentACoder just got a lot more appealing to me.

      Two questions here. "the work is for hire" -- bullshit. "all rights transfer to the buyer" -- not bullshit.

      You CAN transfer the rights to the buyer, but they cannot make a "work for hire", which has special privileges. In a "work for hire", the buyer is considered the author, while in a simple transfer, the author is the programmer, and the buyer only gets a 30 year ownership.

    62. Re:Incorrect by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      If the customer explicitly agreed that it was not a work for hire, particularly a sophisticated customer, it probably won't be found one later. If the contract explicitly states that it is a work for hire, it is a virtual certainty that federal judges will make it so by the end of the trial, and usually will do so without so much as breaking a sweat.

      I can see a lot of worth in this. If you're the buyer then almost always say that it is a work for hire. If it is later found to not be a work for hire, then no loss... however, if you don't explicitly state that it is a work for hire, then even if it would qualify as a work for hire, the absence of the explicit language would make it not so.

      But as any one with legal reading should know, a lot of it comes down to specifics of the situation... I'll have to read up about common law of agency before I can comment about that.

      I still hold that it would be stupid of the programmer not to be aware of his legal rights (and the default presumption that the work is his) and the putative employer to know their legal rights (and the necessity of stating in clear explicit language that they will obtain the rights to the code).

      --
      WARNING! This girl exceeds the MAXIMUM SAFE standards established by the FDA for BRATTINESS
    63. Re:Incorrect by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      But any you find who are willing to give you full size images and reproduction rights for anything less than a big pile of money are probably not the quality of photographer you want covering your wedding anyway.

      No - they're exactly the photographers I want covering my wedding, because they're giving me what I want: pictures, with which I'm free to do whatever I want.

    64. Re:Incorrect by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      You should really read the circular.

      Done.

      1) they mean employee under the general common law of agency. Every one of the contractors I've hired fits this description even though they were not my "employees."

      For you. My boyfriend does contract website work, and would be as far from "employee" as possible. He provides his own equipment, schedules his own hours, and produces the work without supervision. The other party simply has a "yay or nay" vote on if they accept the work as acceptable.

      2) Even if you are not and employee under the general common law of agency you can create a written agreement between parties, read contract, specifying that the work is a work made for hire if it satisfies one of the 9 categories listed in part two. Programing certainly would if the code you are working on is not yours.

      Hiring someone to fix bugs or adapt a current codebase most certainly would be a work for hire situation, however this would also be hiring the person to make a derivative work, and thus their rights to even make the derivative work are governed by an original set of copyrights that exist prior to the contract.

      However, if one hires another to produce de novo a program, then this program likely will not satisfy one of the nine criteria.

      3) the transfer of rights is not particularly relevant since in a work for hire they were never yours.

      The transfer of rights is relevant, because as I noted below, if the "work for hire" argument fails, then they have zero rights to the work. Including language for both protects the buyer the most, when they are most interested in obtaining the rights to the work.

      --
      WARNING! This girl exceeds the MAXIMUM SAFE standards established by the FDA for BRATTINESS
    65. Re:Incorrect by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      Actually, it legally is different. Specifically, there is no way at all for software to be written "for hire" unless you are a normal employee.

      You are wrong. See discussion in an earlier thread.

      I'm not wrong, just not entirely correct.

      There is no clear immediate and unambiguous way that software could be a "work for hire" unless they are a normal employee, because "software program" is not listed in the second part of the definition.

      This is slightly different from a lawyer being able to argue that a work does satisfy one of the categories to enable it to be a "work for hire".

      --
      WARNING! This girl exceeds the MAXIMUM SAFE standards established by the FDA for BRATTINESS
    66. Re:Incorrect by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      It's difficult to find a photographer that agrees, because its a false legal assumption.

      His first statement might have been false, but it's not a false legal assumption to pay someone with the understanding that you have rights to the photos in return.

      Also note that it isn't even necessary that the copyright be transferred (even thought that's how the rest of the world works - I don't see why photographers are so special) - it would be good enough that a married couple can have a licence to the photos they paid for. You know, so they aren't breaking the law when they decide to make a copy of their own wedding photos.

      A poor choice of words... "it's not the implicit/default legal assumption".

      Making copies of ones own wedding photos would most easily qualify as "Fair Use", and thus be protected no matter what agreement the photographer and wedding party agree to. However, being able to distribute those copies to others would clearly require the right to distribute another person's work... without owning the copyright, then it's difficult to argue that one has a right to give friends and family copies that you made... (If you order multiple prints, and hand out prints produced by the photographer, then that's reselling a single product, and not distribution of a copy.)

      EVEN IF, a photographers assigns the rights to the wedding party, if the wedding party "mutilates" the pictures in such a way that the photographer finds them offensive, his moral rights would supersede the copyrights and he could enjoin the wedding party from distributing such a "mutilated" work.

      A good example of this later one could be shown by this example. A photographer Alice takes pictures of Bob and Charlene being married. Bob and Charlene obtain the copyrights to the photographs, and make copies, and distributes them to friends and family. However, they alter the works to be fuzzy, blurry, or perhaps put red eye artificially into the pictures. These new pictures would NEVER be produced by Alice, as they do not match the artistic standard that Alice produces. Thus Alice could potentially seek damages or even an injunction to prevent their distribution.

      --
      WARNING! This girl exceeds the MAXIMUM SAFE standards established by the FDA for BRATTINESS
    67. Re:Incorrect by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Sorry. LordSid and Snowgirl are right. If you hire someone as a 1099 contractor, the code produced belongs to the programmer, not the person hiring them. Here's another good article regarding works for hire. These people thought they could hire the guy cheap as a 1099, not pay benefits or taxes, and then take ownership of libraries he produced years before meeting them? If I were Kevin Partner, I would just tell them to shove it. These people are unbelievable.

      If they didn't pay as agreed, their ass would be in court. They'd not only pay what they owed with interest, but they'd be on the hook for legal fees and court costs as well. If I didn't think they were big enough to withstand that without folding, I'd sell it to a collection agency for whatever I could get. Then at least I would be comforted knowing I made their credit into shit for doing that and that someone was harassing them daily for the rest of eternity.

    68. Re:Incorrect by mr_matticus · · Score: 1

      if you don't explicitly state that it is a work for hire, then even if it would qualify as a work for hire, the absence of the explicit language would make it not so.

      Express consent by the parties is required only of independent contractors, not of employees. If the work ordinarily qualifies as a work for hire (as e.g. a contribution to a joint authorship), then as the expected business practice, that weighs heavily in the direction of "employee".

      still hold that it would be stupid of the programmer not to be aware of his legal rights

      Absolutely.

      and the default presumption that the work is his

      There is no such presumption. In fact, common practice weighs the opposite direction for most programmers hired to create a new work. The only time there is a default presumption that the programmer retains all rights is if s/he creates it of his own initiative.

      When a work is specially commissioned, the historical and typical practice is that the commissioner buys the work, lock, stock, and barrel. This is true of all copyrightable works, including software. The buyer who commissions a work buys the work on the theory that the artist is but a tool, a means to an end for the commissioner; the artist/creator who sells copies of his existing works sells just the copies on the theory that the artist has not sold his own creation itself. These can be reversed (you can persuade Microsoft to develop Word and buy just a licensed copy and someone else can come along later buy the complete copyright to Microsoft Word), but must be reversed deliberately.

      Artists failing to negotiate persistent rights to preserve the integrity of their commissioned works was a major issue, culminating in VARA two decades ago, but the final version of VARA applied to a small minority of sculptural and architectural works only. There are no moral rights to software under US law.

      It's the artist/author/programmer who needs to ensure that any rights he wishes to retain are specifically negotiated and explicitly contracted (and that if he is relying on independent contractor status, that he ensure his conduct clearly separates him from an employee), otherwise it is presumed that the commissioner wholly owns the work she commissioned.

      and the necessity of stating in clear explicit language that they will obtain the rights to the code).

      Rights to the source code are independent to copyright ownership of the compiled machine code. While it's important that customers, whether employers, putative employers, or parties to a contract make a clear agreement regarding the source code, that's a totally separate provision in licensing and conveyance contracts.

      A contract that did not specify source code rights would generally not have them. The programmer would retain his copyright on the source as the sculptor would retain his molds and the painter his sketches, unless the customer specifically negotiated for the conveyance of all associated works. If the programmer were to compile that code again unmodified, though, he would be infringing on the customer's copyright, just as the sculptor would be infringing if he used the molds to make an essentially identical or clearly derivative copy of the commissioned sculpture.

    69. Re:Incorrect by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You are absolutely wrong. If a contract employee works in what we call "staff augmentation," that is to say, they work like an employee but are paid as a contractor, then everything they produce is a work for hire.

    70. Re:Incorrect by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      if you don't explicitly state that it is a work for hire, then even if it would qualify as a work for hire, the absence of the explicit language would make it not so.

      Express consent by the parties is required only of independent contractors, not of employees. If the work ordinarily qualifies as a work for hire (as e.g. a contribution to a joint authorship), then as the expected business practice, that weighs heavily in the direction of "employee".

      Let me restate in a better format so you can see the logic that I was trying to present here. GIVEN: A) Alice hires Bob to do a copyrightable work. B) Alice and Bob draft a contract for the work. C) The contract contains no language stating that it is a "work for hire". D) A dispute of copyright ownership is brought to the courts. E) The courts find that as a matter of fact, Bob is not an employee of Alice. THEREFORE: The work is not a work for hire.

      Changing premise E would make it a work for hire, but I wasn't considering this case, because it's trivially a work for hire if this is true. Thus, while drafting any contract for the commission of a copyrightable work, I hold that if Alice wished to maximize the rights that she would have given any potential court ruling, that she should ensure that the contract states that Bob is an employee, that Bob is working for hire, and that Bob will transfer all copyrights to Alice. Should the nature of the work be such that it would be unreasonable for Alice to state that Bob is an employee, then she should still at least provide the later two provisions into the contract.

      and the default presumption that the work is his

      There is no such presumption. In fact, common practice weighs the opposite direction for most programmers hired to create a new work. The only time there is a default presumption that the programmer retains all rights is if s/he creates it of his own initiative.

      I'm not sure I follow what you're talking about... the default for copyrights is the producing individual. Work for hire is provided as an explicit exception to this.

      In the case where a copyright dispute arises and there is a disagreement of fact as to who owns the copyright, the employer must have prima facie evidence to support the contention that it was a work for hire. Because this is normally as simply as having an employment agreement with the employee, it's usually pointless to contest the ownership of the copyright.

      Just because the default presumption is quickly, and quitely superseded in the vast majority of cases does not mean that it is not the default presumption...

      When a work is specially commissioned, the historical and typical practice is that the commissioner buys the work, lock, stock, and barrel.

      Correct... it is common practice... but that does not mean that it is the legal default.

      As an example, I live in Washington state, which is an "at will" state. A company could make the choice that by typical and standard practice, they do enter into true employment contracts. This is their process for 50 years. One day, while hiring an employee, the company declines to enter into a true employment contract. That employee is hired "at will", rather than protected by a true employment contract, regardless of what the company's historical and typical practice is.

      What this typical practice means, is that if a lawyer is handed this case to work on, his first assumption could be that it was done as you've stated, however that is not the legal default... simply the most common.

      This is true of all copyrightable works, including software. The buyer who commissions a work buys the work on the theory that the artist is but a tool, a means to an end for the commissioner[.]

      Yes, the buyer does buy the work on such a theory... however it does not guaran

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    71. Re:Incorrect by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      You are absolutely wrong. If a contract employee works in what we call "staff augmentation," that is to say, they work like an employee but are paid as a contractor, then everything they produce is a work for hire.

      ... did you miss where I said "unless you're a normal employee"?

      Such an individual is a normal employee, and thus it is a work for hire.

      I'm sorry for using the legal definition of "contractor" instead of the common definition... except that using common definitions I cannot properly state the condition under which programming novel software de novo would result in the complete inability for it to be considered "work for hire".

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    72. Re:Incorrect by thesupraman · · Score: 1

      Close..

      If you are *employed* to do work what you say is generally correct, and I had exactly the same situation with a photograher, however that is because they are not employed, but contracted to provide a service, so the contract can be whatever they wish - and they often wish to try and hammer you to the wall ;).

      Interestingly, in television production of an event the cameramen dont try this little trick, funny that.

      It all comes down to the nature of the agreement for the creator, and employment is a pretty solid hammer there (the employer gets the copyright, in general), however sale of items/services is VERY different, and that is what is being considered here, so it is down to the contracts.

    73. Re:Incorrect by thesupraman · · Score: 1

      You are ignoring the thing that makes a difference.

      Are you writing the application yourself then offering it to the client (contracted sale).
      Are they contracting you to write the application (contracted service)
      Or are they employing you to develop the software.

      The first two are down to the contract between yourselves, the last one is pretty solidly with them.

    74. Re:Incorrect by NormalVisual · · Score: 1

      Or a builder claiming ownership of the form of your house.

      This link goes to a PDF describing the concept of architectural copyrights.

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    75. Re:Incorrect by toriver · · Score: 1

      How is he misinforming anyone? If the law says X then the law says X not what some faceless corporation tries to get away with.

      He does not post any links to said laws, though. Would have helped his argument a lot.

    76. Re:Incorrect by jwdb · · Score: 1

      Thing is, the client isn't paying for all the work done. The author's happy to give them the code for the stuff developed directly for them, but he'll charge through the nose if they also demand the source code of libraries he's developed in past projects and reused here. These libraries clearly do not fall under "work he was paid to perform" having already been developed before the project started, and give him a competitive advantage which he would lose in this case - it is the reuse of these libraries that allowed him to finish the project so quickly.

      Of course you charge them extra if a company demands the code to your custom libraries, because they haven't paid for these yet.

    77. Re:Incorrect by mr_matticus · · Score: 1

      E) The courts find that as a matter of fact, Bob is not an employee of Alice. THEREFORE: The work is not a work for hire.

      Changing premise E would make it a work for hire, but I wasn't considering this case

      Premise E is a matter of law determined by the judge, but yes, essentially that would be true, ignoring for a moment the huge gulf between premises D and E.

      I'm not sure I follow what you're talking about... the default for copyrights is the producing individual. Work for hire is provided as an explicit exception to this.

      The default owner of the copyright holder is the creator. When that is done by the will of the artist, the default owner is the artist. When the artist is hired by a patron, the patron is the default owner. There is no transfer--copyright is vested in the patron.

      In the case where a copyright dispute arises and there is a disagreement of fact as to who owns the copyright, the employer must have prima facie evidence to support the contention that it was a work for hire.

      No. A commissioned work is presumptively a work for hire. The artist must demonstrate that he is not an employee, and that as an independent contractor, the work is ineligible for application of the work for hire doctrine.

      You are conflating presumption and burden.

      What this typical practice means, is that if a lawyer is handed this case to work on, his first assumption could be that it was done as you've stated, however that is not the legal default... simply the most common.

      Incorrect. A work for hire is not a case of transfer of ownership; it is a case of original ownership vesting in the hiring party, as the traditional patron model holds. For example, when a sculpture is commissioned and it is damaged by a third party during construction, the commissioning party is the only one with standing to bring suit.

      "Moral Rights" in the US is covered under such things as libel and slander. While I have nothing named "moral rights" to the code I wrote while at Microsoft, I still have the right to say that I wrote said code.

      No. Moral rights are covered solely under section 106(A). Libel and slander also have nothing to do with attribution rights barring some exceptional additional facts. False attribution would be redressed in a civil fraud action.

      Ah, but there is also another case, where the work is produced without use of associated works. Carving a statue from a medium, or producing a software program in a non-compiled scripting language is such that by transferring the finished work the agent has no "additional works" to negotiate for.

      That was not your scenario.

    78. Re:Incorrect by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      E) The courts find that as a matter of fact, Bob is not an employee of Alice. THEREFORE: The work is not a work for hire.

      Changing premise E would make it a work for hire, but I wasn't considering this case

      Premise E is a matter of law determined by the judge, but yes, essentially that would be true, ignoring for a moment the huge gulf between premises D and E.

      Ah, determining the difference of matter of law, or matter of fact can be a difficult one for people without experience in law.

      I am aware of the enormous gulf... I'm attempting to learn, so I'm establishing premises designed specifically for learning.

      I'm not sure I follow what you're talking about... the default for copyrights is the producing individual. Work for hire is provided as an explicit exception to this.

      The default owner of the copyright holder is the creator. When that is done by the will of the artist, the default owner is the artist. When the artist is hired by a patron, the patron is the default owner. There is no transfer--copyright is vested in the patron.

      (Also taking into account your revised statement below.) Yes, I understand this, and that there is no transfer of copyright in a work for hire situation. The Constitution assigns copyright to the "author", and work for hire establishes the author to be the patron.

      In the case where a copyright dispute arises and there is a disagreement of fact as to who owns the copyright, the employer must have prima facie evidence to support the contention that it was a work for hire.

      No. A commissioned work is presumptively a work for hire. The artist must demonstrate that he is not an employee, and that as an independent contractor, the work is ineligible for application of the work for hire doctrine.

      You are conflating presumption and burden.

      That the patron hired the artist for the work establishes a reasonable assumption that the work is a work for hire. However, this still skips a few steps of legal "process" as I would see it.

      For instance, German law establishes a simple purchase of an item as three "contracts". Two of which are an obligation to transfer money/goods to the other party.

      This three-part "contract" is a part of ALL purchases... that the vast hojillions of purchases are carried out with any knowledge of the technical legal details of the purchase, those technical details are still in force.

      In the same way, my pedantic mind is approaching matters similarly. Breaking it down into kind of pseudo-code, I would establish:

      var work = artist makes a copyrightable work
      var work->author = artist

      if (work is for hire) work->author = patron

      work->copyright owner = work->author

      The alternative of:

      var work = artist makes a copyrightable work
      var work->author = patron

      if (work is not for hire) work->author = artist

      work->copyright owner = work->author

      violates some simple precepts that should be self-apparent. Not all works have a patron, thus one cannot default the author to be the patron in all cases. Turning it into:

      var work = artist makes a copyrightable work

      if (work is for hire) work->author = patron
      else work->author = artist

      work->copyright owner = work->author

      Still establishes a default, because there is a generic state, and an exceptional state.

      I don't care how much you want to argue about this, for the very reason that not all works have patrons declares that "work for hire" must be an exceptional situation legally... even if it is the most common situation in reality.

      What this typical practice means, is that if a lawyer is handed this case to work on, his

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    79. Re:Incorrect by lordsid · · Score: 1

      Nothing in your post contradicts what I said. I said they had no obligation to give them to you. Seeing as how you did not address any other examples it's obvious you have no argument.

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      IMAGE VERIFICATION IS EVIL!
    80. Re:Incorrect by mr_matticus · · Score: 1

      That the patron hired the artist for the work establishes a reasonable assumption that the work is a work for hire. However, this still skips a few steps of legal "process" as I would see it.

      Then we must work to address your perception of the process.

      Copyright is vested in the author. But the author is not necessarily the creator. The fundamental threshold question is, "who caused this work to come into existence?" The answer to that is either (a) the artist/creator or (b) a commissioning patron. There are no earlier steps to this process.

      If it's (a), then copyright presumably vests in the artist/creator (barring subsequent agreement or assignment to the contrary).

      If it's (b), then copyright presumably vests in the commissioner/patron (barring specific negotiation and conduct as an independent contractor without mutual consent on WFH status).

      In the same way, my pedantic mind is approaching matters similarly. Breaking it down into kind of pseudo-code, I would establish:

      var work = artist makes a copyrightable work
      var work->author = artist

      if (work is for hire) work->author = patron

      work->copyright owner = work->author

      Your interpretation simply does not reflect reality. You have described a transfer by substitution in your pseudo-code. By setting the "author" variable to artist at all, you are asserting a vested interest in the artist where none exists, technically or legally.

      Still establishes a default, because there is a generic state, and an exceptional state.

      No. There are two generic states, each with independent exceptional states. The essential question of copyright ownership begins with the party of legal authorship. There is no default presumption as you describe it.

      I don't care how much you want to argue about this, for the very reason that not all works have patrons declares that "work for hire" must be an exceptional situation legally

      There's nothing to argue; this is settled law both statutorily (section 201) and in case law (see e.g. CCNV v. Reid (1989), 430 US 790).

      All works have authors. The only default presumption that applies here is that the legal author is presumably the owner of the copyright. If the author is the creator, the default state is copyright vesting in the artist. If the author is the patron, the default presumption is that copyright vested in the patron.

      Be aware that by stating that you hired someone to do the work is an assertion of fact. It is an easily provable one, and thus rarely challenged.

      On the contrary, it is often a hotly contested issue, but this statement is of no particular significance in this discussion.

      Again, as stated before, even though the technical details of the law are glossed over, likely even in court, it does not mean that a case cannot arise where this detail becomes a issue.

      As you will see as you begin to read the law in this area, the technical details are essentially the only ones discussed in court. The "technical detail" you describe, however, is a purely fictitious construct you have created for yourself.

      It's not an illogical construct; we could easily have created a system that vested all copyrights in the artist and simply mechanically transferred them without any formalities to commissioning patrons, creating the default state you describe. The fact is that we did not create such a system for several reasons, not the least of which would be its unconstitutionality.

      The US being a signatory of the Berne Convention was required to have "moral rights", but declined to actually create them, because they held that the rights that "moral rights" would afford already exist through alternate mechanisms.

      Not entirely. As history clearly illustrates, most of the set of Moral Rights di

    81. Re:Incorrect by Surt · · Score: 1

      Reread your own post:
      "If you ask your dentist for your x-ray negatives they will not give them to you."

      I asked my dentist for my x-ray negatives, and they gave them to me. This contradicts what you said in your post to which I replied. I think this is fairly straightforwardly inferred from my statement that "I have xray negatives from multiple dentists."

      I doubt many of the readers of this sequence will feel like I lost this argument, but I suppose there's a fool born every minute.
       

      --
      "Who is the Journal of Quantum Physics going to believe?" --Stephen Hawking
    82. Re:Incorrect by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      Ok, to bring things back together. The proper way to think about the "pseudo-code" for this matter would be:

      var work = artist creates a work

      if (work is for hire) work->author = patron
      else work->author = artist

      work->copyright = work->author

      As a personal matter, I cannot pedantically accept this as not having a "default state". There is one condition, and a "catch all" condition that applies for all other cases.

      I suppose easiest way to describe what I'm saying is that the artist has the copyrights via "catch all", should no other conditions apply...

      To me, this states a "default" state. I can understand and accept a difference in the legal wording actually used by law.

      What I was attempting to establish for myself, was what would be the best possible language for any particular party. If the contract is not written so as to state that it is "work for hire", whether this is fundamentally necessary in court or not, is a good idea, because it could potentially be the single failing pin to determining that it is a work for hire.

      Namely, saying in a contract that something is being performed as a "work for hire" is not sufficient to ensure that it is so, but it can end up being necessary.

      Imagine the red face on a patron, whom after fighting in court to have the copyrights found in him, finds that if his contract had just said "this is a work for hire", would have had the copyrights... yet because of a failure to state so in the contract, he does not.

      Thus, for the patron, regardless of if a "work for hire" argument would succeed in court, it is still in their best interest to include such language in the contract.

      Basically, as my sig used to say, I'm a pedantic bitch... I like to ensure that everything is covered as precisely as possible.

      --
      WARNING! This girl exceeds the MAXIMUM SAFE standards established by the FDA for BRATTINESS
    83. Re:Incorrect by mr_matticus · · Score: 1

      Ok, to bring things back together. The proper way to think about the "pseudo-code" for this matter would be:

      No, it absolutely is not.

      As a personal matter, I cannot pedantically accept this as not having a "default state". There is one condition, and a "catch all" condition that applies for all other cases.

      Then your false pedanticism interferes with your understanding of the issues.

      Perhaps I have gotten ahead of myself and missed an explanatory step: vesting is the process of creating a copyright. There is no presumption of a default state or catch all from which a work for hire is a deviation. You cannot have a presumption that a party has a copyright interest prior to the vesting of a copyright, which is exactly what your pseudo-code does. The question of the identity of the author is one that occurs before the creation of the work, not after.

      Next in the elementary process, a presumption is "A legal inference that a fact exists, based on the known or proven existence of some other fact or group of facts. Most presumptions are rules of evidence calling for a certain result in a given case unless the adversely affected party overcomes it with other evidence. A presumption shifts the burden of production or persuasion to the opposing party, who can then attempt to overcome the presumption." (Black's, 8th.)

      Thus, in any given dispute between a customer and an {artist|writer|sculptor|photographer|programmer}, it is the fact of the agreement's existence that establishes the first legal presumption. The "known or proven" fact will be the nature of the agreement: a purchase of an existing work or the creation of an entirely new work. The first presumptions (in your terms, the "default states") arise at that time and at that time only.

      The purchase of an existing work from the creator-artist establishes an inference (but not technically a presumption...) that copyright vested in the creator-artist. (It is not a true presumption because in this situation, the creator-artist still has an affirmative burden to show copyright ownership before obtaining relief, and thus it is not formally presumed that he is the copyright owner.)

      The agreement to create a new work for the customer establishes a presumption that copyright vested in that customer. The customer will have to assert that she still owns the copyright (but the creator-artist will have the negative burden to prove that that is not the case, so this does not defeat the presumption).

      Thus, the "default state" for copyright ownership depends on whether the agreement occurred prior or subsequent to the work's actual creation. There is no universal "default state" or catch-all; this is a threshold (i.e. first step) issue.

      In simpler terms, forget your "pseudo-code" entirely. It's just wrong. You can assume statistically that in the simplest cases, the artist is usually the author and the copyright holder, but you cannot functionally, technically, or legally presume that that is the case. (Just as, for instance, you can have a CSS/JS element with a default state of 'display:none;' even though it's actually made to be visible 90% of the time.)

      Thus, for the patron, regardless of if a "work for hire" argument would succeed in court, it is still in their best interest to include such language in the contract.

      Yes, as my original comment expressly states.

      Basically, as my sig used to say, I'm a pedantic bitch... I like to ensure that everything is covered as precisely as possible.

      Then you should not insist on monomaniacal fidelity to a self-created model that contradicts reality, both technical and legal. As I said, it's not an illogical model, it's just not the one that actually exists.

    84. Re:Incorrect by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      Then you should not insist on monomaniacal fidelity to a self-created model that contradicts reality, both technical and legal. As I said, it's not an illogical model, it's just not the one that actually exists

      I do not see how you could call this "monomaniacal fidelity"... as you have been educating me this whole time, I've dropped numerous misconceptions left and right... That I'm boneheaded enough that you have to explain it multiple times, or in different ways is this any different from any person learning? I don't think so. No one learns perfectly from mistaken to correct in one step.

      While you see my "false pedanticism" is interfering with the issue, it's now helping me understand. You have since clarified that I had the entire model wrong. The model as I presented it, must have a "default" or "catch-all" state...

      Perhaps if you had been clearer, or I had been less boneheaded sooner, I would have understood that the entire model was wrong. Basically, that vesting of copyright interest is applied well before the work is created, rather than after the work is created. That would be the missing piece I was missing all along.

      These misunderstandings should be a natural expectation to occur in the situation where Slashdot posts a story by a layperson opining about UK law, and commentors discussing it as if it were US law.

      I do however appreciate you remaining on the case until I understood this stuff better.

      I do definitely appreciate posting the definition for "presumption"... I don't have Black's Law Dictionary, nor ready access to it, so it helps me understand the correct language that you're using, and avoid equivocating with common non-legal language.

      --
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    85. Re:Incorrect by mr_matticus · · Score: 1

      I do not see how you could call this "monomaniacal fidelity"... as you have been educating me this whole time, I've dropped numerous misconceptions left and right... That I'm boneheaded enough that you have to explain it multiple times, or in different ways is this any different from any person learning? I don't think so. No one learns perfectly from mistaken to correct in one step.

      It wasn't meant as a slight in the least, but simply as an observation of how your dedication to the model, by attempting to work my comments into it, was hampering your understanding.

      I'm glad that you have been able to learn, and to engage in a discussion without a loss of composure.

      Basically, that vesting of copyright interest is applied well before the work is created, rather than after the work is created. That would be the missing piece I was missing all along.

      Almost. You're effectively correct, but since we're being pedantic, it's the authorship status that is established before the work is created. (A copyright interest may only vest in a work that has been fixed, and fixation necessarily occurs after creation.) The legal author is the party in whom copyright ultimately vests (once the work itself reaches a point where it satisfies the requisite elements for copyright protection), absent particular agreements and loopholes changing that party. "Authorship" in the context of copyright is the person responsible for causing the work to be created (in other words, the source of the "creative spark"). The labor of execution itself, as you already know, is distinct from the impetus of creation (even artists themselves often delegate to assistants performing a significant portion of the labor).

      So sequentially, it's authorship [idea] > creation [expression] > fixation [completion] > vesting of copyright > (optional transfer or assignment of copyright) > exercise of exclusive rights > (termination of assignment) > ceding to public domain.

      I think your model's premise is based on probability more than presumption, which is what I didn't initially see, or I might have been able to clarify this sooner.

      These misunderstandings should be a natural expectation to occur in the situation where Slashdot posts a story by a layperson opining about UK law, and commentors discussing it as if it were US law.

      Oh, misunderstandings abound in every Slashdot story about legal issues, particularly hot-button issues like copyright and patent. The signal to noise ratio around here is hopeless.

    86. Re:Incorrect by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      I think your model's premise is based on probability more than presumption, which is what I didn't initially see, or I might have been able to clarify this sooner.

      I think if I had been aware of Black's Law Dictionary definition of "presumption" I might have saved us a bunch of time as well.

      *laugh*

      Hey, if you're in the Seattle area, would you be willing to take on a legal clerk seeking to eventually take the bar? lol Law school is cool, and all, but I don't really have the money to afford it... actually, other ideas might help out as well.

      --
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    87. Re:Incorrect by mr_matticus · · Score: 1

      Hey, if you're in the Seattle area, would you be willing to take on a legal clerk seeking to eventually take the bar?

      I'm not, actually, though I do love the Pacific Northwest. I'd be of little use anyway, as I have no involvement with the firm's recruiting committee, and no one but equity partners have independent hiring power.

      What you'll find if you want to go the route of apprenticeship is that you'll need to locate a small firm, not a solo practitioner and not a medium or large firm. Even most "small" firms will likely be too large. The reason is that the personal supervision requirements are onerous for a solo practitioner. I'm not sure what Washington's requirements are, but usually it's 4-5 hours a week direct tutelage. A one-attorney practice won't have that kind of spare time, and a firm with more than 5 or 6 attorneys won't likely be in a position to provide the necessary personal attention.

      The most practical advice I can offer is to look for someone winding down his or her career, who might be transitioning to working part time, as they will have the experience to teach well and the time to take on an apprentice.

      I'd also be remiss if I didn't mention the fact that most people who self study do not pass the Bar exam, and that if you hope to work in the IP field, law school pedigree is extremely important to clients both big and small, individual and corporate. The indie clients want to know that someone with real assets places stock in your abilities, and in order to have represented those clients, they'll want to see academic achievement, at least until you build a reputation. I do know of one self-studied attorney, but he had a 20-year career as a police officer before practicing criminal law. So it is possible if you're particularly motivated, but it will not be easy, even relative to the profession in general.

      Good luck!

    88. Re:Incorrect by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      Well, I'm fortunately blessed with good ability to break apart the law and seek out the understand of it. I took the example LSATs and placed in the 90th percentile, despite starting to take it at 10pm, reasonably drunk, and while my fiancé at the time and his mother were yelling/discussing in the room next door.

      I've already been helping out some lawyers dealing with issues for my fiancé and his mom as sort of a paralegal, but also providing some insight. I was able to explain to a former assistant attorney general why jurisdiction in the particular case was wrong (the wording was super gay), and another younger lawyer at an upscale lawfirm told me that I was pretty much the best paralegal he ever had.

      In any case, I'm not so sure about working the IP field... in fact, it's likely the least likely for me to work in. I'd probably work in labor law, and discrimination... maybe ACLU... I'm certainly not looking at this for money. :)

      --
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  8. Find a Lawyer; this guy is WRONG by CAOgdin · · Score: 5, Insightful

    There's a practical presumption in law that if you pay for something and it is delivered, you own it. You have to have it in writing if you don't want to work that way. That, for instance, is why we have those obnoxious (and legally tenouous) "shrink-wrap" licenses. Because "licensing" is not the same as "owning." If licensing were the normal case in common law, you wouldn't need a "licensing" agreement.

    1. Re:Find a Lawyer; this guy is WRONG by sunking2 · · Score: 1

      The question becomes exactly what is the deliverable. Sometimes it's defined as the executable/program, sometimes the source, sometimes both. Which it is is defined in the statement of work/contract. I think if its not clear exactly what you are supposed to be working to then it's a pretty good assumption that whatever you did while you were on the clock is theirs because in reality they are buying your time, not a product.

    2. Re:Find a Lawyer; this guy is WRONG by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Informative

      Nope. He's not wrong at all. Copyright belongs to the creator by default, even if someone else paid for the work. There are a few exceptions, the biggest being that if the work is "work for hire," then the employer owns the work. This most commonly happens when a regular employee does copyrightable work for his employer.

      Normal property laws do not apply to copyright. Copyright is governed by federal statute.

    3. Re:Find a Lawyer; this guy is WRONG by Just+Brew+It! · · Score: 3, Insightful

      A lot of you are missing one of the main points of the article, namely that there is typically a lot of pre-existing library code which gets used even when the application being developed is a one-off. While the client arguably has full rights to the custom part of the application, it is not sensible to transfer ownership of the generic library code.

    4. Re:Find a Lawyer; this guy is WRONG by jbengt · · Score: 1

      TFA author is wrong in this sense:
      He keeps stating that he owns "the code". This is blatantly false. Depending on the law and the contract (there needs to be a contract if he expects to get paid, even if it isn't written down) he may or may not own the copyright; the buyer owns the code that is delivered. Even if the the buyer doesn't own the copyrights, they will own licenses to copy the code as required for its' intended use. Again depending on the law and the contract (and again, there should be a contract even if it's not written down) the buyer may own licenses to copy the code under other circumstances.
      Also, TFA doesn't mention the fact that much of the code may have limited copyrights, as you cannot copyright code function and you cannot copyright where there are limited ways to say (or do) something, you can only copyright creative expression.
      IMHO, IANAL, YMMV, etc.

    5. Re:Find a Lawyer; this guy is WRONG by iamwahoo2 · · Score: 1
      In my opinion, the use of existing libraries is one of the most interesting and contentious issues, especially when the customer negotiates for more than typical data rights.

      For example, In a development effort contract the US Gov typically expects unlimited data rights or government purpose rights. When multiple contractors bid on a contract, the Gov has no insight into whom is planning to use existing libraries or 3rd party libraries. Obviously the contractor who can leverage off of existing software is going to scope a much lower level of work and be able to bid lower and win the contract. When the Gov office finds out that the contractor does not plan on delivering a full set of code with the level of rights that they were expecting to have, they are not going to be very happy.

    6. Re:Find a Lawyer; this guy is WRONG by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      it is not sensible to transfer ownership of the generic library code

      What is sensible and what is legal very rarely coincide.

    7. Re:Find a Lawyer; this guy is WRONG by Just+Brew+It! · · Score: 1

      It all points back to the need to have a clear understanding up front of what is being "purchased". When it comes to third-party libraries, the contractor does not even have the option of legally transferring ownership, as they are owned by someone else.

    8. Re:Find a Lawyer; this guy is WRONG by Just+Brew+It! · · Score: 1

      I imagine the potential use of Open Source code further muddies the waters. If a contractor develops a sensitive military application derived from GPL-licensed code, and that application is subsequently widely deployed within the military, does that constitute "distribution" (i.e. does it mandate disclosure of the source code to anyone who asks for it)? Once you start dragging ITAR issues into it, things get even messier...

    9. Re:Find a Lawyer; this guy is WRONG by RAMMS+EIN · · Score: 1

      ``If a contractor develops a sensitive military application derived from GPL-licensed code, and that application is subsequently widely deployed within the military, does that constitute "distribution" (i.e. does it mandate disclosure of the source code to anyone who asks for it)?''

      That's actually a very interesting point. Suppose you license some software to an organization under the GPL. The organization now has some of their employees work with the software. Does that constitute distribution? I.e. do these employees have a right to seeing the source code? What exactly is the definition of "ditribution"?

      --
      Please correct me if I got my facts wrong.
    10. Re:Find a Lawyer; this guy is WRONG by Just+Brew+It! · · Score: 1

      "That's actually a very interesting point. Suppose you license some software to an organization under the GPL. The organization now has some of their employees work with the software. Does that constitute distribution? I.e. do these employees have a right to seeing the source code? What exactly is the definition of "ditribution"?"

      Well, the organization certainly has the right to the source code, since you licensed it to them under the GPL. If they distribute it to anyone outside their organization, then they need to make the source code available in turn. It seems to me that if they only use the code internally, whether or not they give individual employees access to the source code is an internal matter. But IANAL, I could be mistaken.

    11. Re:Find a Lawyer; this guy is WRONG by Kjella · · Score: 1

      That's actually a very interesting point. Suppose you license some software to an organization under the GPL. The organization now has some of their employees work with the software. Does that constitute distribution?

      No, it's the company's products and just because you get to use them doesn't make them yours. However, you can not distribute the tool to suppliers, customers, contractors or other legal entities without running into the GPL - which can get complicated. All of that is solvable but it's headaches many companies don't want.

      --
      Live today, because you never know what tomorrow brings
    12. Re:Find a Lawyer; this guy is WRONG by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      That's exactly what I've been thinking. These libraries have been used in other projects for other customers who entered into a specific agreement with the developer. He even stated that if he were to sell his libraries to a customer he would re-write them specifically for that project to avoid harming other clients he has had.

      The client he's talking about wanted the software in three weeks, in the interest of saving time and creating the product quickly, using this pre-existing code would be optimal. How can he sell them the rights to the code when it's been used for other clients?

        If they want the code they need to pay for him to write everything from scratch, and be prepared for the extra time that it will take.

  9. Be honest, and you won't have a problem. by Templar · · Score: 3, Insightful

    It depends upon your local laws and your contract. In the U.S., the default laws tend to vary by state. The last time I checked with my attorney, he told me that here in NY, all work is considered to be work-for-hire unless specified in writing. This means that the source code is automatically the property of the client, unless I get a contract stating otherwise. Which I do sometimes, but not that often.

    Things get stickier if you use other people's libraries or even open source software within your project.

    I've found that it's easiest to avoid problems if you simply discuss it with your client beforehand, and be as transparent as possible in your methods and expectations.

    1. Re:Be honest, and you won't have a problem. by CAOgdin · · Score: 1

      You might be surprised that the Uniform Commercial Code often trumps local law in the courts. As I said, earlier, get an attorney if you're really concerned about ownership. And, documentation is key: If you don't have a written contract BEFORE you start the project, while everybody is still friendly, expect to be surprised by the other party with unscrupulous tendancies.

    2. Re:Be honest, and you won't have a problem. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      the UCC doesn't trump anything.
      It is a set of recommended laws to provide a framework for harmonization among state laws. States pass all or part of it as they please for their commercial law. If a state doesn't pass some features of the UCC, there is no "trumping" by some other governmental level using other parts of the UCC.

    3. Re:Be honest, and you won't have a problem. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The UCC itself has no force, but most state laws are model wholly or in part on the UCC.

      It doesn't trump local law. If a judge "trumps" local law with the UCC, you have grounds for appeal.

      The UCC may be used to interpret local law, or used to fill in gaps, but that is all within judicial discretion.

      IAAL.

    4. Re:Be honest, and you won't have a problem. by DRJlaw · · Score: 1

      It depends upon your local laws and your contract. In the U.S., the default laws tend to vary by state. The last time I checked with my attorney, he told me that here in NY, all work is considered to be work-for-hire unless specified in writing. This means that the source code is automatically the property of the client, unless I get a contract stating otherwise. Which I do sometimes, but not that often.

      Your attorney is wrong. The U.S. Congress defined what is and what is not a work for hire in 17 USC 101. To wit:

      A "work made for hire" is --

      (1) a work prepared by an employee within the scope of his or her employment; or

      (2) a work specially ordered or commissioned for use as a contribution to a collective work, as a part of a motion picture or other audiovisual work, as a translation, as a supplementary work, as a compilation, as an instructional text, as a test, as answer material for a test, or as an atlas, if the parties expressly agree in a written instrument signed by them that the work shall be considered a work made for hire. For the purpose of the foregoing sentence, a "supplementary work" is a work prepared for publication as a secondary adjunct to a work by another author for the purpose of introducing, concluding, illustrating, explaining, revising, commenting upon, or assisting in the use of the other work, such as forewords, afterwords, pictorial illustrations, maps, charts, tables, editorial notes, musical arrangements, answer material for tests, bibliographies, appendixes, and indexes, and an "instructional text" is a literary, pictorial, or graphic work prepared for publication and with the purpose of use in systematic instructional activities.

      New York cannot redefine the meaning of a work for hire. New York can only interpret the meaning of an employee and the scope of employment. If you are an independent contractor, you own the copyright in the absence of a written agreement to transfer the copyright. Period -- 17 USC 201 and 204.

    5. Re:Be honest, and you won't have a problem. by CharlieG · · Score: 2, Interesting

      " If you are an independent contractor, you own the copyright in the absence of a written agreement to transfer the copyright. Period "

      Yes and NO - if you are hired on as a "contract employee" (aka a 3 month term kinda job) you fall under either part1, or if working as a team, the collective work part of part 2

      If you are hired to produce a piece of work "I need you to write a program that does X" - then you DO own copyright, but anyone who does that without a contract, and where it does not explicitly transfer ownership upon payment is a fool

      I've been there, for both conditions, on BOTH sides of the deal (Buyer and seller), and you have to watch this. I've BEEN in a situation where we were not getting paid, and had to threaten a copyright issue - We got paid..

      --
      -- 73 de KG2V For the Children - RKBA! "You are what you do when it counts" - the Masso
    6. Re:Be honest, and you won't have a problem. by DRJlaw · · Score: 1

      Yes and NO - if you are hired on as a "contract employee" (aka a 3 month term kinda job) you fall under either part1, or if working as a team, the collective work part of part 2

      A contract employee is not an independent contractor. A contract employee is an employee. The most notable, but not dispositive, factor is who is the one handling payroll taxes. From a legal perspective, it's a balancing test between independent (your own tools, methods, and schedule, just deliver X by Y) and controlled (using the other side's tools according to their policies and on their hours).

      A collective work is not just any project that you're thrown into. It is "a work, such as a periodical issue, anthology, or encyclopedia, in which a number of contributions, constituting separate and independent works in themselves, are assembled into a collective whole." I haven't needed to research how courts treat this for a computer programmer client, but the seperate and independent test is going to be hard to meet in the more nuts and bolts aspects of the profession.

    7. Re:Be honest, and you won't have a problem. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You need a new lawyer. Contract law and copyright law are two different things. While contracts may vary from state to state, and while any contract may also involve some federal oversight and conditions, copyright law is 100% federal. The origins of US copyright law are in the US Constitution. Here's the law(s) http://www.copyright.gov/title17/

      No city ordinance or state statute can say anything contrary to those laws.

      It's kind of funny to be reading all this mis-information and highly personal - and wrong - opinions on an issue that is so simple to find with an intelligent search on Google.

      The law, and the controlling Supreme Court of the US (SCOTUS), say the exact opposite of what you - and that guy who told you he is a lawyer - claim. There's a lot of online information from authoritative sources and not one of them that I've ever seen comes close to that ridiculous claim from that so-called lawyer. Next time you are his office, take close look at his diploma and license to make sure they are not issued by WalMart or "The Grace L. Ferguson Storm Door, Discount Airline and Weekend Law School."

      In the absence of a written contract that contains the exact phrase "work for hire,"or, alternatively, "work made for hire," the presumption of a US court must be that no license to make or use additional copies beyond the single one delivered is transferred. The specific ruling by the US Supreme is embodied in Community for Non-Violence v. Reid, 490 U.S. 730 (1989).

      Here's a summary
      http://supreme.justia.com/us/490/730/

      That does not mean you can't grant a limited license, which is what any decent contract will spell out. For eight years I was the Journalism Chair in New York of the National Writers Union and my department presented seminars to freelancers. The NWU sued and won the landmark US Supreme Court case Tasini v NY Times, et al.

      The NYT and the other big money defendants put freelance works into databases but told freelancers they had no right to the millions of dollars of revenue they generated. "Tasini" said that in absence of that contract language - or any written contract - the freelancer owns all rights other than one time publication in that periodical. (http://www.law.cornell.edu/supct/html/00-201.ZS.html)

      There is an issue is fundamental to copyright. From the moment you create an original work (computer code, book, poem, magazine article, song, statue, photo, etc.), you own the copyright unless you are an employee. You do not need to register it unless you want to protect the right to sue for damages and legal fess. Further, a ruling only last week by SCOTUS has opened up the possibility that registration may no longer be a pre-requisite to legal action for damages for copyright violation.

      My own contracts for web site development spell out that my client is granted one global, non-exclusive copyright for use on a specifically identified web site and may be transferred on to another owner of a web site at that domain name. Otherwise, may not be sold or re-used in any other medium without advance written permission for a fee to be negotiated.

      All the other blather here about "I paid for it, I own it" is just uninformed - and potentially financially dangerous - nonsense.

  10. But do I own the bits? by Mabbo · · Score: 2, Interesting

    Let's say I buy the software, the end product. It's bits. It's ones and zeros. Do I own them? Am I allowed to tamper with them? It isn't the source code, and I lay no claim to owning that. But do I have a right to be able to manipulate the bits as I see fit? Can I share the bits? These are the truly thorny questions, and they're the ones that are changing our society.

    1. Re:But do I own the bits? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      No, you may not.

    2. Re:But do I own the bits? by cetialphav · · Score: 1

      But do I have a right to be able to manipulate the bits as I see fit? Can I share the bits? These are the truly thorny questions

      There is really nothing thorny about whether you can share the bits. It is well understood that copyright applies to that configuration of bits so copyright law bounds your actions.

      What is thorny, I think, is the applicability of EULAs. If I buy software from the store, I can assume that copyright applies (and a court would assume that I am aware of this). But what can I assume about licensing? That is not on the package. It is only once you have shelled out the money do you find out what additional restrictions the producer has decided to place on you.

      There is a strong case to be made that absent any other information bounding the purchase agreement that I am only bound by copyright law. The thorny issue isn't about distribution. It is about whether a vendor can restrict how I personally use a product.

    3. Re:But do I own the bits? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      mod parent up

  11. Clients Buy The 'Use' Of The Software by WrongSizeGlass · · Score: 4, Insightful

    I've had clients who think that they own the code simply because they paid for a website that uses one of our libraries. They buy the right to use the code.

    When you buy software in a store or online you don't own the source code. Open source software may provide its source along with the executables but that doesn't mean you own it either.

    When doing custom work we offer the client the option of full ownership at full price or 'shared' ownership for a reduced fee. With 'shared' ownership they can modify it at will but aren't allowed to ever resell it. We can't sell it to anyone who would be considered a competitor. I've yet to have someone opt for the full price/full ownership option.

    1. Re:Clients Buy The 'Use' Of The Software by gallen1234 · · Score: 1

      When you by software in a store, it comes with a license agreement that lays out what you're getting and what you're not. It sounds like the article's author has his own personal understanding and is assuming that his client is going to pick that up from him telepathically.

    2. Re:Clients Buy The 'Use' Of The Software by Totenglocke · · Score: 1

      I've had clients who think that they own the code simply because they paid for a website that uses one of our libraries. They buy the right to use the code.

      That depends, did you create the site and say "We have this and we want to sell it to you and tailor it to your needs"? If you did, then you're absolutely right, you own it. However, if they came to you and paid you to just do the grunt work of coding it, then they own the code. It all depends on who has the idea and pays for the work - if you had the idea and paid for the work and then go out and market it, you own it. If someone else has the idea and simply pays you to do the work, they own it.

      --
      "The tree of liberty must be refreshed from time to time with the blood of patriots and tyrants." ~Thomas Jefferson
    3. Re:Clients Buy The 'Use' Of The Software by IntlHarvester · · Score: 1

      I've had clients who think that they own the code simply because they paid for a website that uses one of our libraries. They buy the right to use the code.

      And I've had developers who think they can keep the code despite the fact I've paid for it as a work-for-hire.

      Point being if you want to license your libraries to clients, you need an actual software license and not just assumptions.

      --
      Business. Numbers. Money. People. Computer World.
    4. Re:Clients Buy The 'Use' Of The Software by cetialphav · · Score: 1

      When you by software in a store, it comes with a license agreement that lays out what you're getting and what you're not.

      In what other business do people get to take your money and then tell you what you are getting? For licensing to make any sense, you need to know the terms of the license at the time of purchase. If you don't know the license terms at that time, how can you know if the price is fair? EULAs are only made available after you have shelled out money and opened the package. They often have terms that say the vendor can modify the agreement whenever they want. That cannot possibly be considered a fair business practice.

    5. Re:Clients Buy The 'Use' Of The Software by haruharaharu · · Score: 1

      When I buy software in a store, I generally ignore the license agreement. I've already paid for the product, so I don't see the EULA as offering me anything additional, hence no reason to pay it any heed.

      --
      Reboot macht Frei.
    6. Re:Clients Buy The 'Use' Of The Software by gallen1234 · · Score: 1

      In what other business do people get to take your money and then tell you what you are getting?

      Almost any business that sells information follows this model, e.g. the publishing and movie industries. You may have some idea of what you're going to get but you don't get full disclosure until after you've opened your wallet.

      But I don't think that's what you meant. I think you meant, "In what other business do people get to take your money and then tell you the terms under which you can use the product?" I'll admit that that's a strange way to do business but the author of the article isn't even telling his customers the terms after they've got the product. He's just assuming that they're going to know and agree with his position.

  12. Depends by pz · · Score: 2, Informative

    IANAL, but I have researched this subject for my own work-product. The ownership of work produced on contract depends highly on the terms of the contract but nominally is considered work for hire, and, therefore, belongs to the client. If the contract does not stipulate otherwise, then the client owns the work-product.

    Now, if the work-product consists of delivered source code, then the client owns the source code. If the work-product consists of delivered compiled code, then the client owns the compiled code.

    Again, IANAL, but my research into this question boils down to something just that simple. The important conclusion is: if you desire a specific disposition of your work-product (like you retain ownership, or retain the ability to sell the same work-product to someone else, or retain the ability to modify it, or release it as open-source, etc.), you should put that in your contracts.

    --

    Put my fist through my alarm clock with its ding-dong death inside my ear. - The Blackjacks.
    1. Re:Depends by WinstonWolfIT · · Score: 0

      The nice thing though is that any freelancer with any history will have built up a framework that he uses to rapidly roll out new software, and the customer has no rights to the framework, which in my case was only ever delivered without comment as a DLL. Nobody ever sacked me to have their nephew support my software, but boy it would have been fun if they tried.

    2. Re:Depends by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      nonsense. your research obviously did not include copyright law. The fact is the exact opposite. In the absence of a written contract, you retain the most copyrights. See Community for Creative Non-Violence v. Reid, 490 U.S. 730 (1989)

      Good business practice is to spell out what rights you, the creator of the work, are licensing. But if you do not, you keep them all.

  13. same deal with photography by viridari · · Score: 1

    Someone pays me to take photos & thinks they can make their own prints. But they don't own the photos. I do. Then they get all cranky when they go to Walgreens with the crappy 800 pixel (long side) image I gave them for web use & wonder why one of two things happens:
    1) their 4x6 print looks like crap
    2) the store manager won't print watermarked photos without a signed release from the photographer

    I copyright law f'd up in this world right now? Certainly! But right now this is how it is. I do remain open to Something Better but haven't seen it yet.

    1. Re:same deal with photography by ProppaT · · Score: 1

      IMO, this is a slightly different scenario. You're basically selling a license per photograph. If they want to buy the picture, they have to buy it from you. This is like selling multiple seats of a piece of software. From what I got out of the article, this would be more along the lines of buying 10 copyrighted photos from you and drawing mustaches on them at home. Then again, it's early and my attention span isn't quite there yet.

      --
      Wise men say, "Forgiveness is divine, but never pay full price for late pizza."
    2. Re:same deal with photography by maxume · · Score: 1

      There is nothing in copyright law preventing you from giving them full resolution originals with a liberal usage license.

      --
      Nerd rage is the funniest rage.
    3. Re:same deal with photography by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      No, it's not the same. Photography is a specific, noted aberration in US copyright law under the work for hire section. You cannot translate what happens with photography to what happens with other types of work/media/etc.

    4. Re:same deal with photography by Idiomatick · · Score: 1

      Depends, they should be able to contract either way, no issue there. Either pay for a copy of the photos. Or pay for the full rights if they don't want you using them.

    5. Re:same deal with photography by RobertLTux · · Score: 1

      there are different levels to your product

      1 you buy the time and the prints ( X 4/6 y 8/10 ect)
      2 you also buy "retouching"
      3 you also buy the negatives
      4 you also buy the certification that that was the only copy of said negative

      each level gets more expensive (if offered at all)

      same deal with software

      --
      Any person using FTFY or editing my postings agrees to a US$50.00 charge
  14. Depends upon contract by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    If I hire software to be written under a work-for-hire agreement, I sure as hell own it, barring pieces that are used that fall under the ownership of others. Original code plus the arrangement of licensed code is what I'm paying for.

  15. Slippery slopes... by ProppaT · · Score: 4, Interesting

    This is a weird and slippery slope. I don't think that anybody feels that because they buy software they own rights to the source code, to edit code and distribute it, etc. But they do own the rights to use or utilize the software as they see fit within the confines of common copyright laws.

    The author uses the example that you can buy a book or movie, but you don't own the rights to that book or movie. And that's fine, I think we'll all agree to that. However, if I buy a replication of a piece of art, a book, etc., I'm allowed to vandalize/defile it in any nature I wish as long as its for personal use and it is not distributed.

    I'm not sure that I like the slippery slope that a lot of developers are trying to tread these days. Notice my use of the words "use" and "utilize." These are two very different words in the English language. Use means, well, to use something. Utilize means to use something for a purpose in which it wasn't originally intended. I can go to the hardware store and buy thousands of different tools and items for home repairs and various other projects. Many times I'll buy patented items because they almost meet my uses. I modify and "utilize" them for the specific task at hand. And this is fine, as you don't see me on the street corner trying to sell modified black and decker pecker wreckers at a markup. I think think that 1) that would infringe patents, 2) that would infringe registered trademarks and patents, and 3) I'd probably go to jail for trying to sell "pecker wreckers."

    In the end, I have a product that meets my requirements and the vendor makes money off of my purchase. Everyone is happy, right? I think that this is the hurdle that software developers have to get over. As long as people buy your software, that's all you should care about. Let them modify it to their hearts content as long as they're not selling it for profit. In fact, possibly learn a lesson and integrate some of these features in your next version to appeal to a larger market. I think this is mutually beneficial in the long run. EULA are trash and need to go away.

    --
    Wise men say, "Forgiveness is divine, but never pay full price for late pizza."
    1. Re:Slippery slopes... by bondsbw · · Score: 1

      I modify and "utilize" them for the specific task at hand. And this is fine, as you don't see me on the street corner trying to sell modified black and decker pecker wreckers at a markup. I think think that 1) that would infringe patents

      I don't think so (but IANAL, etc.). Say I buy a DVD drive from Toshiba for $50, full of patented stuff. Then I put it in a computer case, add a motherboard, hard drive, etc. I sell the computer for $500. Toshiba cannot claim patent protection... I paid for the DVD drive and everything in it. Essentially, I fulfilled any royalty by purchasing the product. In fact, they cannot claim trademark protection either, so long as the only thing with their trademark is the DVD drive and any manuals it came with, which they printed before I purchased the device. (I cannot sell the computer as a Toshiba computer... that would be trademark infringement.)

      Obviously, if I legally purchase 1000 DVD drives from Toshiba, I can make 1000 of these computers and sell them at markup.

      Now, say I buy one DVD drive from Toshiba for $50, take it apart, and figure out how to make more. Then I sell 1000 computers, each with a clone Toshiba DVD drive, and make $500,000. NOW I'm on the hook for patent violations, because I violated their patent in 999 of those cases. I'm also on the hook if I printed their trademark on each drive.

      --
      All my liberal friends think I'm a conservative, all my conservative friends think I'm a liberal.
    2. Re:Slippery slopes... by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      1) that would infringe patents, 2) that would infringe registered trademarks and patents, and 3) I'd probably go to jail for trying to sell "pecker wreckers."

      Yes, Yes, No. You cannot go to jail for even the most grievous of IP violations. They can sue you and obtain a judgement that makes you wish you were in jail, but they can't get you there.

      --
      WARNING! This girl exceeds the MAXIMUM SAFE standards established by the FDA for BRATTINESS
    3. Re:Slippery slopes... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I don't think that anybody feels that because they buy software they own rights to the source code, to edit code and distribute it, etc.

      Some of us think that the world would be a better place if we all did.

  16. Plate those boilers. . ? by Fantastic+Lad · · Score: 3, Insightful

    You might ask why I didn't make a contract with this client in the first place. It's because I've found, over the years, that insisting on a contract before development starts will result either in a delayed start or even a project being shelved.

    Not having a contract in place before you start does speed things up, but it's kind of like running a heavy industries company without insurance.

    Why not have two general contracts drawn up in advance; one which points out that the client gets what is essentially first publishing rights, or whatever comes closest to emulating the copyright system, and another where you sell the code outright. Explain the difference up front and then pull out the pen. "Option A is cheap, but I can sell the same code to other clients and you can't change it, and Option B will cost you several orders of magnitude more, but it's all yours forever and you can do whatever you want with it. This is standard copyright practice. We can start work as soon as you sign!"

    People like clear options and little check boxes, and this would avoid weeks of legal dickering. Yes, you may lose some work in the short term because people realize that you're not selling what they actually want for the price they can afford, but this way is more honest and your headaches will be fewer.

    Just my opinion.

    -FL

    1. Re:Plate those boilers. . ? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Yeah, the article is very bad advice. He explains that there was no time for a contract, (how long can it take to bike over a standard contract?), but fails to realise that he does in fact have a contract with the client. The client has paid money, and delivery of the service has begun. That's enough for a contract in law, the only problem is, as he appears to be finding out, is that neither he nor the customer appear to know what's in the contract. A real mess.

      If someone wants you to supply them, but doesn't have time to sign a contract - give them the number of the company down the road, and get back to your actual work.

    2. Re:Plate those boilers. . ? by gnieboer · · Score: 1

      Absolutely! Not having a contract at all is asking for trouble. In my first free-lance, I couldn't afford a lawyer, but I still wrote up a basic contract that covered who 'owned' what. Maybe it could have been chopped down in court in the event of a lawsuit, but the point of the contract was to AVOID lawsuits by ensuring our understanding of the terms of work was at least close to the same.
      While a number of the possible variations have been discussed, in my opinion here's the basic questions the contract would need to cover...
      1- Does the customer even receive any source code as a deliverable?
      2- If so, does the customer receive source code to all libraries coded by the programmer, or just those libraries with custom code made solely for that customer (IE as mentioned, many of us have built a common DLL framework that we re-use in other projects, do they get that code?)
      3- Does the customer have complete and total rights to the source code?
      4- If so, does the original programmer retain any rights to the source code? (IE do you have to delete any code you made from your own systems after delivery)
      5- Can the customer resell the binaries?
      6- Can the customer resell the source code?
      7- Can the programmer resell the source code/binaries? If so, to whom (IE not to competitors)
      8- Does the customer's license ever expire?

      In my case, I granted an non-exclusive non-expiring license to the "code", which included all binaries, and source code for custom code developed just for them (but not my utility libraries). They could not resell at all, and I couldn't resell to competitors. We were both happy and it was clear up front with no need for delays, just a 15 minute conversation with their tech lead, the CEO, and assistant CEO. With a larger company, I'm sure they would have wanted a legal review, but in that case I would have ensure we agreed on principle before starting requirements development, and go ahead and let the lawyers re-phrase the language to be more rock-solid as long as the general principles didn't change. I suppose it really depends on the level of trust you've got in that company.

  17. A (very) brief primer by CajunArson · · Score: 5, Informative

    IAAL, but the issues here are complex so this is NOT advice for any particular person in any particular situation:
    If what you are interested in is owning a copyright to source code there are two ways for a "customer" to get the copyright:
    1. If the software is a work made for hire. "Work for hire" is a legal definition (see 17 U.S.C. 101), with two different paths. The first path is for the software to be written by an employee within the scope of employment of the organization claiming copyright. Employee specifically does NOT mean an independent contractor, and code written by a contractor is NOT a work for hire! The definition of an employee goes into all sorts of common-law factors a court will look at, but the shorthand is the tax status of an employee with the IRS.... merely calling a contractor an employee is not enough. Also, the work has to be made within the normal scope of employment, so no, the employer cannot claim copyright as a work for hire for something the employee did outside of work. In fact, even if the employee works for the organization as a regular employee, if writing code is not within the normal scope of employment it still might not be a work for hire (up to the courts to decide if things go south). While some works for hire can be done by an independent contractors along with a specific written agreement, software code generally does not fall into any of the specifically enumerated categories where these written agreements work (see 17 U.S.C. 101 for more details).
    Interesting: Technically, code written for a big company like MS or IBM by the armies of independent contractors are NOT works made for hire. See point 2 for how the companies can still get rights.

    2. Assignment of Copyright: This is much more common for any work not directly made by an employee. There is a written agreement assigning ownership of the copyright to the contracting organization. The usual rules of contract law cover what is and is not within the scope of the assignment. Assignments can be non-exclusive (we can do what we want with the code, but the developer is also free to do what he wants), or more commonly, exclusive (the assignee getting rights to the code has full control, the original developer loses his rights to that specific work). So is there any difference from a work made for hire? YES! In a work made for hire, the organization OWNS the copyright for the entire length of the copyright term. However, in an assignment, Copyright law specifically splits the copyright term into two parts. An assignment made when the work is created transfers rights to the assignee (usually the company) for about 1/2 the term (the time varies depending upon whether the author dies and some other factors, but it is usually a long time > 30 years). The copyright automatically reverts back to the original author, and the assignment agreement cannot override this rule. The law is written this way to give the authors a "second bite at the apple" in case a work they assign away for peanuts becomes very valuable later. The author can extend the copyright to the second half of its term by paying a nominal fee, and can then go out and the assignee loses all previously held rights.

    The upshot for the software industry: Any assigned copyrights will eventually revert to the authors. Now, by the time the reversion occurs most software will be long out of date, but as we all know there is plenty of software out there that lingers for a LONG time, and non-employees DO get there rights to the underlying code back.

    One other point: Binary code gets a separate copyright from the underyling source code. But binary code is a derivative work of the underyling source code, so even if the developer never compiles code he writes, the binary distribution using that code would violate the copyright of the original code if ther

    --
    AntiFA: An abbreviation for Anti First Amendment.
    1. Re:A (very) brief primer by Kjella · · Score: 1

      However, in an assignment, Copyright law specifically splits the copyright term into two parts. An assignment made when the work is created transfers rights to the assignee (usually the company) for about 1/2 the term (the time varies depending upon whether the author dies and some other factors, but it is usually a long time > 30 years). The copyright automatically reverts back to the original author, and the assignment agreement cannot override this rule. The law is written this way to give the authors a "second bite at the apple" in case a work they assign away for peanuts becomes very valuable later.

      Other issues with both works for hire and assignments can include copyright rules in different countries (everything above is US law), although international treaties harmonize the law somewhat. An assignment of copyright in one jurisdiction might not be valid in another, so the assignee might not have exclusive rights globally without the correct agreements.

      In particular I think this termination at half-term is very US specific, I have at least not seen anything like it in european copyright laws...

      --
      Live today, because you never know what tomorrow brings
    2. Re:A (very) brief primer by sandberglaw · · Score: 1

      This post is correct on a number of points, but misleading or incorrect on several important issues. FIrst, the distinction between an employee (where the employer DOES automatically own work done within the scope of employment) and independent contractor can be convoluted. The key factor is the rights of the employer to control the manner in which the work is done; employees are told HOW to do the job, contractors are told what results are wanted and THE CONTRACTOR decides how to accomplish that result. Other factors include the use of tools (and to whom they belong), where the work is done, whether the individual is doing work for others, and how the individual is paid. What the two parties call the relationship in a contract is not determinative. Second, even if the individual is an independent contractor and there is a written agreement saying the code is being done as a work for hire, the project must fit within a VERY narrow set of categories, most of which are not applicable to software. The requirements to even qualify as a work for hire are that it must be specially ordered or commissioned for use as: - a contribution to a collective work - as a part of a motion picture or other audiovisual work - as a translation - as a supplementary work - as a compilation - as an instructional text - as a test, as answer material for a test, or - as an atlas. The only category that I would expect a software project to fall into would be the first one, a "contribution to a collective work" if the contractor is part of a team building a large project and his/her code gets absorbed into the larger body of code. The other categories seem inapposite to software development. Therefore, I think it is generally unlikely that an effective work-for-hire agreement can be made for stand-alone code that is intended for actual use (as opposed to being put into a textbook or test.) I know that software developers sign work for hire agreements all the time (I've seen many of them) but as a legal matter most would probably not stand up to a challenge. Third, while it is true that a contractor can transfer all or some of his/her rights via a written agreement, and it is true that the author can retake those rights later, it IS NOT automatic. To the contrary, there are a specific set of steps that MUIST be followed to exercise the right to terminate the transfer. For a work (other than a work for hire) created since 1978, the author can termination during a period of five years beginning at the end of thirty-five years from the date of execution of the agreement that originally transferred the rights (or thirty-five years from the date of publication of the work if the right transferred was the right to publish), and ending at forty years from the date of the grant. The author MUST serve advance notice - in writing, signed by all authors or by their agents - AND that written notice must state the effective date of the termination (which has to be within the five-year window), AND the notice must be served not less than two nor more than ten years before the effective date, AND a copy of the notice must be recorded with the US Copyright Office before the effective date of termination. Miss (or mess up) one of those steps and the termination is void. That's my $0.02. Please note that while I am a lawyer (who works extensively in the geek world) the foregoing is not legal advice to anyone and I only give legal advice to persons who have become clients. If you have questions about a proposed work for hire agreement (or one you've already signed) you should seek the advice of competent counsel. CK Sandberg cksandberg@locklaw.com

    3. Re:A (very) brief primer by Vellmont · · Score: 1


      The key factor is the rights of the employer to control the manner in which the work is done; employees are told HOW to do the job, contractors are told what results are wanted and THE CONTRACTOR decides how to accomplish that result.

      If that's the determining factor for "employee vs. contractor", then most professionals in the world are contractors, not professionals. Not all employees work in factories where there's a pre-defined set of tasks to do day in and day out. You either completely don't understand the modern workplace, or have some extremely specialized definitions of "how" and "results are wanted".

      --
      AccountKiller
    4. Re:A (very) brief primer by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It is clear you are not a lawyer. You are incorrect on both points.

      To help you understand maybe you should try reading Circular 9, ie works made for hire under the 1976 copyright act.

      Also look up employer employee relationship under agency law. I you are working in IBM offices under IBMs direction it is a work for hire whether or not you are an independent contractor. Since this satisfies employment under agency law no special agreement is necessary. Even if it did not you are probably working on IBMs code this would invoke the first of the 9 categories of the second statutory definition of work for hire. IBM could simply put in your contract that it is a work for hire. This is clearly outlined in copyright law.

      Do you honestly believe that MS and IBM would pay contractors to write a bunch of code for them and not retain the legal rights to it?

    5. Re:A (very) brief primer by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Agreeing as A/C. Not to troll on the legal system..

      I work at a small company. For five years I was the only full time programmer. Just recently got a few more, and I guess--they're employees, because *I* tell them what to do and often how to do it.

      But all but the first year of that time when I really assumed ownership (maybe I should call it oversight) to be clear--I've been told what results are wanted--not how to do them. I mean, they tell me that I will be present in the office 40 hours a week, that I will have two meetings weekly with sales, X a year with the customer. But mostly they say "the customer in Gotham has requested a widget that does whizdunk when they hit the bangsprocket, but only if the splork isn't dunfiddle" -- but I decide how to do that, if I need to refactor code for it, or can patch it in, and if it's appropriate to install a new library to make it easier or implement it myself.

      Company input into "how" has been reduced to a choice process that often strongly resembles:
      "
            1) I can do this in 20 hours of time, and we'll accrue technical and maintenance debt. I estimate I can make a similar compromise five times before we'll need 200 hours of maintenance work if I'm going to continue being able to work on the code. I've already worked out an understanding that these estimates may be wildly wrong--I'm getting better at them, but it's very hard to predict for future unknown rush requests.
            2) I can do this in 40-60 hours, with no or minimal accrual of technical/maintenance/documentation debt.

      Which choice best meets your business needs?
      "

      I mean...I guess at a certain level they're saying how to do it "good" or "sloppy"--but they don't understand the how of what's going on--they're just choosing whether or not they're paying for quality work on this job.

      To be really candid, I think I'd rather just say I'm a FTE as that's what I've assumed. By the definition the lawyer gave, I can't possibly hire someone expertise exceeds my own, unless they're legally a contractor, simply because I can't tell him how to do his job.

    6. Re:A (very) brief primer by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      That's not what he meant. The "how" doesn't need to be micromanaged step-by-step instructions. Rather, it means that you, personally, are instructed by the employer to perform a certain task.

      For a software developer the instructions could be along the lines of "during office hours you should sit at your desk writing code for our product". You would also, to some extent, be told what features/tasks/whatever to prioritise.

      For a contractor the "results wanted" would be "in two months you must deliver code that meets this specification". The actual work could be done by the person present at meetings, his co-workers or even a sub-contractor. Failure to live up to the "results wanted" is a breach of contract and may allow the customer to withhold payment or even sue for damages.

      An employee failing to keep a deadline may miss out on a promotion but can't be held accountable for any damages caused.

  18. Work For Hire by nato10 · · Score: 5, Informative

    It's pretty simple. If you are an employee, your employer owns your code. If you are a contractor you own your code unless your contract or agreement states that the work is a "work for hire" (or uses equivalent language). Requisite Wikipedia reference.

  19. False dichotomy of Microsoft/Linux by michaelmalak · · Score: 3, Interesting
    Back before Linux was popular, source code licenses were common and understood. Especially common for software development libraries, you could pay one price for the binaries, or a higher price for both binaries and source, but it no case was it ever understood that the product was not proprietary.

    Then Linux came along and somehow "closed source" became a synonym for "proprietary", and "open source" a synonym for "free" (gratis). Microsoft feeds into this by not releasing the source code to Windows. Windows would be an even stronger (proprietary) product, IMO, if the source code were available.

    Lawrence Lessig tried to rectify this false dichotomy by founding the Creative Commons. But the public has little knowledge of the existence of the Creative Commons, let alone the particulars of any of the licenses it offers.

    The Linux community shares some of the blame by touting libre, gratis, and "open source" in the same breath. This lawsuit is a consequence of that.

    1. Re:False dichotomy of Microsoft/Linux by Ironchew · · Score: 1

      Back before Linux was popular, source code licenses were common and understood...Then Linux came along...

      Bullshit. Large corporations with armies of lawyers are now suddenly confused about copyright law because a loose collaboration of idealists decided to subvert them? The consumer software industry has always been trying to dictate what people can and can't do with their computers, and the hardware industry has been on the DRM bandwagon for quite some time, all to get a little more short-term profit. If they're confused about anything, it's because they painted themselves into a legislative corner. Wasn't the GNU project started because the proprietary UNIXes were such a copyright mess to begin with?

    2. Re:False dichotomy of Microsoft/Linux by Antique+Geekmeister · · Score: 1

      Oh, dear. You apparently weren't involved in licenses that far back. I'm afraid you need a small history lesson here.

      Different software developers, and companies, had profoundly different policies. It was when UNIX license owners, who'd previously been very open, changed _policy_ and started locking up their source code from external developers that people like Richard M. Stallman, and especially Richard M. Stallman, got fed up with having to reverse engineer things in order to fix them. He and people like him created the GNU software license, the so-called "copyleft", to keep the code they wrote and worked with open. That was fundamental to the Linux kernel, which used that license, and to the core pieces of the Linux operating system (with the compiler gcc, core operating system libraries such as glibc, and hundreds of other components).

      But Linux came along well after the division: and the division occurred when UNIX copyright owners became much less willing to share source with developers. I'm old enough to remember this stage of software development personally, and the incredible frustrations of trying to fix a black box, especially a black box that used to be open. And don't blame "Linux" for such confusion. Linux _components_ have different licensing schemes, which often do get mislabeled as "open source". But that misnaming hardly came from Linux, it came from the (not very) "Open Source Foundation".

      Windows history, well: they dare not open the code for a variety of reasons. A major one is their history of intellectual property theft: another is their demonstrated tendency to use secret API's for their own products, and deny their existence or use to others, which has been a repeated factor in the office suite software wars. It might be stronger if they released the source, but Microsoft would be far less profitable. Which path makes sense for their managers?

    3. Re:False dichotomy of Microsoft/Linux by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Microsoft feeds into this by not releasing the source code to Windows. Windows would be an even stronger (proprietary) product, IMO, if the source code were available.

      Of this, you are very wrong. Microsoft DOES make the code for Windows available via its Shared Source program.

      http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Shared_source
      http://www.microsoft.com/resources/sharedsource/default.mspx

    4. Re:False dichotomy of Microsoft/Linux by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      you're missing a few decades, if your purpose was to establish a historical context

    5. Re:False dichotomy of Microsoft/Linux by RAMMS+EIN · · Score: 1

      ``Then Linux came along and somehow "closed source" became a synonym for "proprietary", and "open source" a synonym for "free" (gratis). Microsoft feeds into this by not releasing the source code to Windows. Windows would be an even stronger (proprietary) product, IMO, if the source code were available.''

      Actually, Microsoft does make the source code of Windows available. For example, the Chinese government has access to the source code of Windows. Other governments, some businesses, and various individuals (outside Microsoft, too) also have access.

      ``The Linux community shares some of the blame by touting libre, gratis, and "open source" in the same breath.''

      Well, Linux is libre, gratis, and open source. I feel the problem is not so much with the various open source communities. People in these communities often care about their licenses and are aware of the various distinctions. It's people _outside_ the open source communities that seem to assume that "if I can get it for free, I can do whatever I want with it" - which is generally not true, neither of open source nor of closed source software.

      The interesting thing is that proprietary software vendors often turn a blind eye to violations of their licensing terms - e.g. redistribution by third parties of software that is gratis but not freely redistributable. I'm sure they are also largely unaware of when this happens, but they also have a good reason for wanting to turn a blind eye: by letting people believe that they have more freedoms than they really have, they aren't driven to software that comes with fewer restrictions.

      By contrast, even though open source software generally allows much more, the rights holders tend to get very upset when the few restrictions in the license are not respected, especially in the case of modifications not being made available in source code form for GPLed software. There are people who make a living prosecuting such cases. Many of them involve Linux.

      So I certainly wouldn't say that the Linux community is muddying the waters here. To me, it seems that they are very clear on what is and what isn't granted as part of the license. Most GPL violations I know of are cases of the violator very obviously not abiding by the terms of the license. Had they read the license, they would have known this. Had they asked the rights holders, they would have known this. But of course, licenses are something you just click through, right? That's the way it works in the proprietary software world, anyway. So, again, it's not the Linux community that is causing the confusion.

      --
      Please correct me if I got my facts wrong.
    6. Re:False dichotomy of Microsoft/Linux by Fnord666 · · Score: 1

      Especially common for software development libraries, you could pay one price for the binaries, or a higher price for both binaries and source, but it no case was it ever understood that the product was not proprietary.

      But in this case, since the code and libraries are php, the "binaries" and the "source" are one and the same!

      --
      'The tyrant will always find pretext for his tyranny.' - Aesop's Fables
  20. Work for Hire by zysus · · Score: 2, Insightful

    I deal with this frequently with sub-contractors (and firms) doing development.

    It's actually very simple.
    The understanding starts out as: This is a work-for-hire. All work product is property of the company.

    Which eventually leads to a contract containing:
    All source-code, build scripts, documentation, keys, any other materials required to use or reproduce the deliverable item are exclusive property and proprietary information of the company.
    The contractor shall not release, reuse or redistribute any component of this work in any other business. This includes any custom libraries, headers or other application work-product.
    This does not apply to off-the-shelf open-source tools and libraries, however such items shall be documented and approved in advance to avoid GPL contamination.

    I don't see a problem here.
    I expect to pay through the nose if i want exclusive rights and ownership to someone's special library, for exactly the reasons the article dictates.
    Otherwise a non-exclusive source-code license that I may do with as I please is cheaper. A binary-only license might be cheaper still.

    They devs have to make a living and if it wasn't cheaper/faster to use them in the first place I'd just write it myself.

    Just try explaining these legal subtleties to someone who doesn't understand software.

  21. Reality (Legal is different) by trust_jmh · · Score: 1

    work itself

    Has a cost once. (Extra work adding extra cost.)
    The work that has already been done has no extra cost. It is only greed wanting to gain without giving.

    leave his toolbox

    Plumber looses what he has but with IP a copy isn't a loss.

    The client has paid only for the results of the labour

    Source code is a result of labour.

    ownership of the code has a value

    Greed has value.

    pre-existing libraries

    Cost has already been paid for.

  22. Give them license to modify the code by Cheburator-2 · · Score: 3, Insightful

    First of all, client expects to be able to use and MODIFY code you've done for them, both physically and legally. Who owns the code - is the second question. They don't want to own your library - they just want THE LICENSE allowing them to see, modify and use that modified code. It is the same thing as open source, except that they don't get the right to redistribute your library.

    Don't be a dick, just give them that license.

    1. Re:Give them license to modify the code by eddy+the+lip · · Score: 1

      Yours is one of about three comments in this thread that isn't wildly stupid.

      My company develops custom web applications, and this is essentially what we do. I've had lots of conversations about code ownership with clients. When they ask for ownership, they usually don't really understand the implications of what they're asking for, and are in fact asking for more than what they want. *

      What they want is to make sure that they're not screwed if we go out of business, get hit by a bus, or just end up being hard to work with. They don't want to be responsible for maintaining library code, or pay for the thousands of LOC that we bring to a project with us. They're not unreasonable people who want to get our whole toolbox on the cheap and use it themselves.

      I've found that a simple conversation (and license) explaining that they can modify the code themselves, make a reasonable number of copies for backup purposes and transfer the license to another party under the same terms makes everyone happy. And all without this dickish handwaving and posturing.

      * This isn't always true - there was one instance where they did expect to be able to take the works and resell it en masse. This is why you have the conversation up front, and for $deity's sake, have a contract. (If the project's small, a letter of agreement may be enough.) The article author's advice about not bothering with contracts if it gets in the way of business is idiocy.

      --

      This is the voice of World Control. I bring you Peace.

    2. Re:Give them license to modify the code by janwedekind · · Score: 1

      I was expecting the article to give some hands on experience on how to justify to paying customers that sharing of code goes both ways. Instead the author explains how he justifies to customers that he is not sharing his code with anybody. I bet as a software developer he would never agree to pay for development under these conditions himself.

    3. Re:Give them license to modify the code by pandronic · · Score: 1

      What clients should understand is that they pay for a working product.

      And this is exactly what I deliver. If the client wants to modify the project he can go to another developer and that would cost him more, because the developer would have to first recreate the product and then add the new features, or he could come to me and I would only charge him for the modifications. How does that not make sense and why do a lot of clients nowadays have this false sense of entitlement?

  23. Seems like as usual people didn't RTFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Insightful

    The arguments he's posing actually have merit - his main argument seems to be that if a customer buys something that he developed, they on occasion believe they own his self-written custom libraries - essentially his tools. The plumber analogy begins to make more sense at this point. They paid for the finished product and can do whatever they want with it (unless contractually obligated not to, but that's another can of worms) but they did NOT pay for the tools he used to develop it. Perhaps the best analogy would be to say that if a customer pays for software they should not expect to own the development platform which was used to create that software.

  24. I call "bullshit" by Lord+Byron+II · · Score: 1

    In the article, he states "One problem is that if you’re working in an interpreted language such as PHP then your code isn’t compiled, so in practice your client does receive source code and can do what they like to it, even though they have no legal right to."

    It's your responsibility to elucidate what's accceptible and what's not. Moreover, if someone updates your code to fix say a spelling error, then that's not copyright infringenment, it's just updating.

    1. Re:I call "bullshit" by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      And, pray tell, do you enforce it? How would you even know?

    2. Re:I call "bullshit" by jbengt · · Score: 1

      Actually, I think he is completely off on this. Without a contract, even if it is not considered a work for hire, there is an implied consent for the buyer to use the code as required for its' intended purpose, which probably includes the right to use, run, back-up, copy to different servers and/or clients, and maintain (read: modify and improve or at least bug-fix), the code. Without a contract, of course, both sides may be leaving their destinies to the whims of a judge or jury.

  25. Hypocrites by JDevers · · Score: 1, Insightful

    It is funny watching everyone on here discuss how ignorant all their users are for thinking they own the code simply for paying for it...and later today there will be a post discussing the RIAA and why they are an evil organization for trying to force their users who purchased their works to recognize that they don't now own that music.

    1. Re:Hypocrites by cynyr · · Score: 1

      With a work for hire, like TFA, there is a discussion before hand. when I buy a CD i expect to listen to that music however i like. Now sendding it to 30000000 people on the internet is clearly not allowed, do i need to buy 3 coppies if i want one in each car and one at home? how about my home(4+ devices), 2 cars, 2 places of work(mine and the wifes), the kids devices(2 atm). so a bit of math says that as a family if we purchase a CD we'd like ~10 copies of each song, seeing as i bought it and i'm not handing it out outside of the imediate family unit i don't see a problem. The RIAA/MPAA on the other hand would like to see me buy 10 copies of the song(ignoring the fact that not all the devices are CD players.). Who is morally right? do we compromise and buy 3 copies under the assumption that no more than that are likely to be listened to at the same time?

      --
      All of the above was encrypted with a Quad ROT-13 method. Unauthorized decryption is in violation of the DMCA.
    2. Re:Hypocrites by JDevers · · Score: 1

      I don't remember any lawsuits against people who copied a CD for use in their car or made a personal MP3 for their Ipod.

    3. Re:Hypocrites by TRRosen · · Score: 1

      Actually by law yes you need to buy as many copies as you use at one time. The ruling has been that when you buy a copy you buy a license for one instance of that song.Make as many copies as you like but only us one at a time. Interesting thing is if you bought from bad old iTunes you get the right to use on 5 computers and an infinite number of devices (as long as you own them).

    4. Re:Hypocrites by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      How so? There are quite a lot of opinions on display here, some more informed than others, but there is certainly no consensus on this discussion.

  26. Whaaaaaaaat? by Ransak · · Score: 5, Insightful
    FTA:

    "if I pay a plumber to fix my tap, I don’t ask him to leave his toolbox so I can fix it myself next time"

    "You might ask why I didn’t make a contract with this client in the first place. It’s because I’ve found, over the years, that insisting on a contract before development starts will result either in a delayed start or even a project being shelved."

    So, this developer doesn't disclose this to customers who aren't aware that they are screwed when the developer walks away? His tortured analogy of the plumber and his tools is only correct if the plumber is installing pipes, valves, etc. that are 100% proprietary to the plumber and can't be purchased anywhere else. The word slimy leaps to mind for his business ethics (and plumbing in general).

    --
    "Powers. I have them."
    1. Re:Whaaaaaaaat? by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      FTA:

      "if I pay a plumber to fix my tap, I don’t ask him to leave his toolbox so I can fix it myself next time"

      "You might ask why I didn’t make a contract with this client in the first place. It’s because I’ve found, over the years, that insisting on a contract before development starts will result either in a delayed start or even a project being shelved."

      So, this developer doesn't disclose this to customers who aren't aware that they are screwed when the developer walks away? His tortured analogy of the plumber and his tools is only correct if the plumber is installing pipes, valves, etc. that are 100% proprietary to the plumber and can't be purchased anywhere else. The word slimy leaps to mind for his business ethics (and plumbing in general).

      I agree, the matter of starting work without a contract is kind of slimy. Primarily because he is aware of his rights, and the people he contracts with don't. He should at least give a disclaimer to them that there are legal consequences that haven't been settled if he starts work right away, and they should speak with a lawyer about their rights and concerns.

      Although, he could entirely be screwed, if he started work on the product, and then propose a contract later that the customers don't wish to agree to. They're not bound to signing this contract, and could potentially hole up and refuse to pay until the terms of the contract are favorable to them. When brought to court, they can easily state that there had never been a "meeting of minds" and thus their verbal contract were void... thus he's done a ton of work, and won't get paid for it.

      --
      WARNING! This girl exceeds the MAXIMUM SAFE standards established by the FDA for BRATTINESS
    2. Re:Whaaaaaaaat? by TRRosen · · Score: 1

      but of course if you were to remodel and use that plumbing again in a derivative work you would have to pay him again for that use.

    3. Re:Whaaaaaaaat? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      How is this the responsibility of the contractor? If a buyer lacks the proper knowledge or understanding of the legal aspects *they* should consult a laywer prior to purchase.

      If you pay a contractor to provide you with a product, the product is what you get.

      If you want the source code (IP) this should be specified and may incur additional costs. The custom-written source may not be that big a deal, in my experience it has always been provided upon request if not on delivery. But this is not what TFA is about.

      When it comes to generic tools and libraries the contractor has developed outside the scope of the current contract (but which have been used - to keep costs down etc.) you clearly have a license to use them as a part of the product you purchased. However, you did not pay for the development of these libs/tools, so why should you be allowed to use them for further development in-house or using some other contractor?

      I'm sure you contractor will let you license them at a fair price in case you wish to do further development on your own.

    4. Re:Whaaaaaaaat? by Ransak · · Score: 1
      How is this the responsibility of the contractor? If a buyer lacks the proper knowledge or understanding of the legal aspects *they* should consult a laywer prior to purchase.

      Hear that 'whoooosh' just now? That was the point you missed.

      I never said the customer was blameless, just that the author's ethics are questionable at best and his plumbing analogy was badly flawed. Being deceptive by withholding information when negotiating a contract is legal (in most jurisdictions I'm familiar with anyway) but it's not ethically sound and is a great way to ensure you won't be doing business with that customer (or anyone they know) again.

      --
      "Powers. I have them."
    5. Re:Whaaaaaaaat? by Ransak · · Score: 1
      Although, he could entirely be screwed, if he started work on the product, and then propose a contract later that the customers don't wish to agree to.

      That's a good point, especially with contracts prone to feature creep (if the contract allows for such).

      --
      "Powers. I have them."
  27. don't forget sales tax, too by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 2, Insightful

    In California, at least, there's also some tricky sales tax issues to be aware of. If you hand that client a CD-ROM with the product, for them to keep, of your $100K worth of toil, you have made "a transfer of tangible personal property", and sales tax is due on the whole $100K. On the other hand, if you FTP it to their machine, it's just non-taxable services. Or, if they provide you with a blank CD-ROM and you burn your software onto it as a service.

    This is why architects retain ownership of the drawings they produce, for instance.

    1. Re:don't forget sales tax, too by fnj · · Score: 1

      Bullshit. You just itemize the bill:
      CD-ROM $0.05
      Copying service $0.95
      Labor $999,999.00

    2. Re:don't forget sales tax, too by jbengt · · Score: 1

      This is why architects try to retain ownership of the drawings they produce, for instance.

      Large clients often write contracts specifically calling the work as a work for hire.

      Not to mention that even when they don't own the copyrights, the client does own the drawings, and does have the right to use them for the purpose for which they were created, which does involve copying and modifying

      Also, no architect's insurance would ever allow them to produce a product (in the US anyway). Products have strict liability attached, so if something causes harm, even if unforeseeable, the product producer is liable, period. Professional services such as architecture and engineering have liability only if the standard of care in developing the design was less than what a reasonable professional in the field would have used.

  28. You are equally guilty it appears. by barfy · · Score: 1

    Failing to have a clear contract, means that the one buying, may not be getting what they think. But equally true, is that the seller may be giving up more than they think.

    There are basic principles here. And that is "work for hire".

    The conflicting stuff, is development of "skills", competition, and squelching a persons ability to make a living.

    Fundamentally, one should see a lawyer about this, these two sentences should keep you google happy long enough to grasp the things that you should expect from your lawyer.

    1. Re:You are equally guilty it appears. by Dolphinzilla · · Score: 1

      Excellent point - If we WANT to have ownership of source we clearly spell it out in the contract - sometimes it is a deal breaker, but we have been hosed too many times by programmers who won't stand up and support their work....

  29. This is why people simple outsource to India by ScaredOfTheMan · · Score: 1

    Not to start a flame war here, but to give my opinion as IT person who doesn't code (scripts don't count right ;) I read 8 different versions of who owns the codes, depending on state, and contracts, even sales tax got in there. Reading all this made me think, wow I would go to elance, find a shop in India tell them I own the code and let them at it. Knowing full well they will probably keep it for themselves over there, while I have full rights over here. Done Simple. Yes it would probably not be as good and would take 2X longer to write (I read slashdot you know), but I don't have the headache that apparently accompanies hiring a local subcontractor.

  30. transfer clarification by Spazmania · · Score: 2, Insightful

    But, put simply, code is owned by its developer even once the client has paid, unless that developer is legally employed by the client or a contract exists that transfers full ownership (and even then it's far from clear-cut).

    Just a point of clarification: You can't write a contract that transfers ownership of a copyright that doesn't (yet) exist. Well, you can but it's unenforceable in the US. You can write a contract to the effect that you *will* transfer ownership of the code you build, but you still own the code until you sign a subsequent document transferring it.

    --
    Moderating "-1, Disagree" is simple censorship. Have the guts to post your opinion.
  31. Can steal what you can't own. by Dukenukemx · · Score: 1

    So, if I take a copy of it, then I obviously didn't pirate it. Since I can never own it, I can never steal it.

    1. Re:Can steal what you can't own. by maxwell+demon · · Score: 1

      Sorry, flawed logic.

      First, you can own it. You just have to get the copyright owner sell you the copyright.

      Second, if you steal something, you don't own it. The owner is still the one from whom you've stolen it. And that's not unique to stealing; if you rent a car, you don't own that car either. Only if you buy it, you own it.

      --
      The Tao of math: The numbers you can count are not the real numbers.
  32. constructing code is proprietary.... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 2, Insightful

    I've been coding for about 22 years. In that time, I've worked on proprietary code for customers and employers. customers usually understand that they are paying for the final product, not the inner workings to give them the final results. you can use the concept of building a house. they are paying for the house, not my workers, not my tools, not my materials. i do not leave a copy of my dev tools for the customers, nor will i leave them a copy of my proprietary code libraries which i employ regularly to make my coding job easier. if i write a a library which creates a unique object type and use this object in many of my projects, clients are not entitled to this code. although it helps make their final product work, the concept is the same. they are not paying for the code, just the finished product.

    if a chef is hired to cook someone a special dish, they are paying for the finished dish, not the recipe.

  33. Interesting when hiring contract artists by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Interesting

    Many successful contract computer graphics artists 'have' libraries and scripts that they have developed over the years. These are often created or written as 'work for hire' for their previous employers.

    When I hire them (as does everybody in the business) they are required to sign an employment agreement that says that anything created on the job is a work for hire. They're working at our facility, under our supervision, with our equipment and toolset -- it could not be more clear what the arrangement is.

    Especially among younger artists, though, these rules do not seem clear. They think that the tools they write benefit the company, but that they should be able to take them to their next gig.

    1. Re:Interesting when hiring contract artists by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      They're working at our facility, under our supervision, with our equipment and toolset -- it could not be more clear what the arrangement is.

      It's very clear what they are - they're called "employees".

  34. My License for Web Dev by Low+Ranked+Craig · · Score: 3, Interesting
    License

    Generally speaking the graphic design and of course the content (textual content, photographs you have licensed, etc.) of the site is yours to do with as you please, but the underlying source code (PHP and JavaScript) remain the intellectual property of Company, LLC. You may modify them as needed, but you may not duplicate the software for use on other websites, and you may not distribute derivative works. This license is transferrable as long as Company, LLC is notified in writing of the transfer, and may verify that the transfer has taken place.

    I've never had a problem.

    --
    I still cannot find the droids I am looking for...
  35. Re:Depends--well, no, it does not depend by sribe · · Score: 1

    The ownership of work produced on contract depends highly on the terms of the contract but nominally is considered work for hire...

    Not it is not! The term "work made for hire" is a legal term defined explicitly and exclusively in federal copyright law. If the work produced on contract does not fit the categories described by that law, then it is not a work made for hire under the law.

  36. hrm, so how does ANY coding work ever get done? by yakumo.unr · · Score: 1

    So I have prior knowledge of X highly efficient algorithms to do various things that I have come up with in the past, If I happen to have need of them then I instinctively will use that method, to fluff it up with placebo code to make it unique in some way would be wrong, and any half decent coder coming after me would remove placebo code spotting it's uselessness anyway so my original algorithm would be left.

    Everyone knows 'new' code is highly rare as it is unless working with a very specific problem.

    So how the heck do you explain to ANY company you work for that due to this you can work for them, and give them a product they own they have entirely paid for, but tons of the methods within it you can simply never give them any rights to, as you've used them countless times before for yourself and other paying and non paying clients. And it would be impossible for you to continue to work in the field if you were to not use them elsewhere also.

    1. Re:hrm, so how does ANY coding work ever get done? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Because "methods" or "highly efficient algorithms" in the abstract are not copyrightable. They may or may not be patentable, but that is not the topic of discussion.

      Copyright deals with derived works - ie taking the particular implementation of an algorithm in C++ or whatever and pasting it into a new project. Re-writing the algorithm based on the abstract principles of how it works would not be creating a derived work of a previous implementation, even though it might appear quite similar.

    2. Re:hrm, so how does ANY coding work ever get done? by Entrope · · Score: 1

      Copyright protects a particular form of expression. It doesn't protect the underlying idea. Even in broad copyright regimes, where you can copyright the particular contents of a phone book[1], copyright doesn't stop others from creating phone books that list names and numbers using the same method of ordering.

      So you can use binary trees, lookaside caches, Bloom filters, or whatever other efficient algorithm you want -- copyright law won't stop you from using those algorithms. You just can't take CODE from one place to another. (If you think there's only one way to implement these algorithms, you're a worse programmer than you claim to be.)

      [1]- That is one example of a database of facts. Under other copyright systems, putting objective facts in one set is not protected by copyright.

    3. Re:hrm, so how does ANY coding work ever get done? by yakumo.unr · · Score: 1

      I'd put 'theoretical' in >'s at the top but forgot even set to plain text slashdot removes it.

  37. silly by Zecheus · · Score: 1
    A business owner owns the domain knowledge: the business domain, e.g. process model, business concepts. Its unlikely the ownership would give these to a software contractor.

    Also, a software contractor merely plays a part in the social process. Claiming ownership of any component of that process, I'd say, is antisocial.

  38. We have a young Bill Gates writing now? by erroneus · · Score: 1

    If I paid someone to make a cake for me, I own the cake. If I paid someone to paint a painting for me, I own the painting. Why do people want to change the rules for software?

    1. Re:We have a young Bill Gates writing now? by sribe · · Score: 1

      If I paid someone to paint a painting for me, I own the painting.

      What makes you think that? How would you reconcile your statement with the copyright laws regarding authorship?

    2. Re:We have a young Bill Gates writing now? by erroneus · · Score: 1

      If I pay to have something created, I own it. It did not exist before I wanted it to exist. The ideas are mine. The money (and resources) are mine. The labor was paid for. I worked for and I should get all the money for every burger I made? No. They paid me for my labor.

      We are not talking about "software for sale." We are talking about "making something for me."

    3. Re:We have a young Bill Gates writing now? by SpinyNorman · · Score: 1

      If I paid someone to paint a painting for me, I own the painting.

      Sort of... you own the physical painting, but that isn't the same as owning the copyright. Whether you owned the copyright (in whole or specific rights of duplication, etc) would depend on the purchase contract you arranged with the painter.

      Same with a book. If you buy a book you own the physical object, but you don't own the copyright. You can't go making copies of the book and selling them yourself.

      Same with software. If you "buy" a piece of software, what you've bought depends on the contract. You're typically going to be buying the physical media, and rights to use it either indefinitely or maybe for a limited period of time (cf renting a video), but not any copyright ownership unless that was specified in the purchase contract.

      It doesn't make any difference whether you're buying an off-the shelf painting or software title, or comissioning someone to create a custom work for you. What you end up owning and the rights you have depend on the contract. Copyright law says that the author by default owns the copyright, so if you want anything different you need to put it in the contract.

      There's no difference between paintings, software, books or any other type of copyrightable material - the same copyright laws cover them all.

    4. Re:We have a young Bill Gates writing now? by sribe · · Score: 1

      I notice that you didn't answer my second question, but instead threw out more assertions without any reference to any grounding in the law. I think we all understand your moral point and you don't need to repeat it. But this is a discussion about legal ownership.

      If you pay someone to paint a painting, what exactly is it that you think you own? The painting? OK, what about the right to make posters of it and sell them for profit, or include an image of it in a book, or use it as cover art for a CD you produce?

      And again, please reference the actual part of copyright law that would support your position.

    5. Re:We have a young Bill Gates writing now? by erroneus · · Score: 1

      Your second question doesn't require an answer. I assert that the rights to redistribute are not the issue. The rights of ownership are. Though I will say this. The rights to distribute the work I paid for should not automatically be granted as, for example, if I am paying for an application that runs my business to be built, it should not automatically be allowed for the maker to resell that work to a competitor as the contents of the work outlines my business processes and model in many respects. Those are unique aspects of my business and should not become property of someone who modelled them in software.

    6. Re:We have a young Bill Gates writing now? by erroneus · · Score: 1

      It is still an issue that is "up in the air" with regards to the content of a work that would be considered eligible for copyright protection. I take a picture of a sculpture. Who owns the rights to the picture? The sculptor or the photographer?

      Now if someone writes code to my request and specification, who owns the code? Me? The party who described what he wanted developed or the person who developed it?

      It might be fair to say that distribution rights may not go automatically to the buyer, but it is certainly equally fair to say that those rights do not automatically go to the laborer who was contracted to perform the work.

      I think it makes every bit of difference if the work was paid for off-the-shelf and if it was requested specifically. The premise of the former is quite obvious. The latter contains elements of the requester's own ideas, processes and purposes.

    7. Re:We have a young Bill Gates writing now? by sribe · · Score: 1

      Your second question doesn't require an answer.

      So, you are explicitly claiming that you do not require any basis in law for your assertions?

    8. Re:We have a young Bill Gates writing now? by erroneus · · Score: 1

      I am explicitly claiming that your assertions of basis in law are not clear and are undetermined.

      When someone specifically requests that something is created, the idea and concept belongs to the party who conceived of the idea or concept, not to the party who implements it.

    9. Re:We have a young Bill Gates writing now? by SpinyNorman · · Score: 1

      Bottom line is that you need to know legal precedent (i.e how courts have applied copyright law in cases similar to one you may be interested in). Copyright only applies to "creative" works, where creativity is interpreted quite broadly.

      In the case of a photo of a statue, copyright law does apply (the photo is considered a creative work), and copyright of the photo therefore belongs to the photographer (the photo being a seperate creative work than the scultpure itself). If multiple photographers took photos of it, each would own copyright to their own work.

      However, in the case of a photo of a painting (vs statue), courts have previously found that copyright law does not apply since they've ruled that such a photo is a "slavish copy" lacking in any creativity. I doubt we've heard the end of such lawsuits though. One photo might be akin to a photocopy, but another might employ lighting, angle, composition, etc, and meet the (rather weak) standard of creativity that copyright law requires.

      Software writing is a highly creative process, and most if not all software is going to be covered by copyright. If you just provided a software contractor with functional requirements specifications and left him to design and write the code, then you've not in any way removed the need for creativity (to do that you've had to have designed and implemented the code yourself!), so copyright law would indeed apply and as always the author of the creative work (programmer) by default owns the copyright.

      If you wanted to contract for a piece of software to be written and you wanted to be granted certain distribution rights to it, then you'd need to specify exactly what rights it is that you are purchasing in the purchase contract. By default (if you don't put anything explicit in writing) then the programmer retains all rights. You may not like it, but that's the law.

      If you feel that your requirements specification contains some valuable intellectual property that you'd like to protect, then you'd have to look into appropriate mechanisms to do that (trade secret, patent if applicable, etc), but that's entirely unrelated to who owns the copyright to a creative work based on those specifications.

    10. Re:We have a young Bill Gates writing now? by sribe · · Score: 1

      I am explicitly claiming that your assertions of basis in law are not clear and are undetermined.

      No, what your are doing (3 times now) is avoiding telling us what basis in law you have for your claims. In fact, your statement above is nothing but a bald-faced misdirection because I never made any assertions myself. I asked you about the basis for yours. Here's the what I would use as a reference had I made any assertions.

      So, one last time, can you or can you not reference any basis in law for your assertions?

    11. Re:We have a young Bill Gates writing now? by erroneus · · Score: 1

      Wow. You are truly talking out of your ass. There are plenty of contentions surrounding the photography of statues!! Statues both public and privately owned. And where it comes to "legal precedent" it only applies to the region of the venue in which precedent was set. (This is why the Texas courts are preferred when filing IP infringement cases dealing with software patents... lots of precedents there.)

    12. Re:We have a young Bill Gates writing now? by SpinyNorman · · Score: 1

      We're talking about copyright, not subject permission. Nice try to change the subject.

      Yes, legal precedent has do be from the same legal jusisdiction. Well, duh!

    13. Re:We have a young Bill Gates writing now? by Cwix · · Score: 1

      You do own the cake, but you don't own the secret recipe the cook used to make it. If you want the secret recipe its gonna cost. Why do you keep wanting to steal my recipes?

      --
      You are entitled to your own opinions, not your own facts.
    14. Re:We have a young Bill Gates writing now? by erroneus · · Score: 1

      Your assertion is based on the notion that the whole of the work is owned by the creator from idea and concept to completion. I am asserting, and this does not require any citation, that when you hire someone to do something specific such as "turn my business process into software" the resulting "art" if you dare call it that, is based on and contains the intellectual property of the party requesting the work be done. The problem becomes even more clear if, for example, the idea or concept is actually part of a trade secret. Should the modeller of the work be automatically entitled to redistribute?

      Some of the assertions of software even being eligible for copyright protection are simply ridiculous and was a mistake for the world to buy into in the first place.

      What say you about this? Is software an invention or a creative work? Is it a machine or an expression. Every time the question is posed, there are arguments for and against. If it is an invention and someone is contracted to build it, it is the property of the inventor, not the one who constructed it. If it is an expression, whose ideas are actually being expressed? The one who wrote it or the one who requested it?

  39. Work for Hire by Sortova · · Score: 1

    As a person who runs an open source company, the first sentence "Why do people think they own code just because they've paid for it?" caught my eye. The reason most companies think they own code is that 99% of the contracts I read have a "work for hire" clause. This means that as a contractor you sign away the same rights that employees do. You come up with a patentable idea on company time? They own it. You write code? They own it. Open source presents an interesting problem. Quite often in the same contracts they have clauses against distribution of the work for hire. I spend quite a bit of time lining out those paragraphs before I sign such a contract. There are no inalienable "developer rights" that need to be asserted. Quite simply this is a case of contract law. If you want to retain the ownership of your code, don't sign a contract that gives it away. Heck, it worked for Bill Gates.

  40. Could people please stop posting misinformation? by sribe · · Score: 1

    But, put simply, code is owned by its developer even once the client has paid, unless that developer is legally employed by the client or a contract exists that transfers full ownership (and even then it's far from clear-cut).

    The gist of that is right. But it could use a couple of clarifications. The developer usually owns the copyright unless the contract explicitly transfers the copyright to the client. If that's the intent, but the contract just specifies transfer of full ownership, then it's not clear-cut because you have a poor contract that does not correctly specify what it needed to in order to legally satisfy the intent of the parties. If it actually transfers the copyright, then it is indeed clear-cut.

    Now, the exception to the "developer generally owns it" rule, is when instead of developing a product, the developer is contracted to work on a module that will be incorporated into a larger program. Obviously, there's still room for argument in some cases as to whether the work produced could stand on its own or not, but in many cases it will be clear whether the product stands on its own or is a module of a larger work.

    Also, I'd like to address an earlier assertion that it depends on your local and state laws. No it most certainly does not. Copyright is the exclusive jurisdiction of federal law and no state or local law can override or amend it.

    Finally, for all the people who want to argue along the lines of:

    • "If someone pays you to perform work, they own all rights to that work."
    • "There's a practical presumption in law that if you pay for something and it is delivered, you own it"
    • "If the contract does not stipulate otherwise, then the client owns the work-product."

    Before you put any more effort into defending your incorrect assertions please at least let me refer you to information provided by the copyright office. Firstly from the FAQ on definitions:

    Although the general rule is that the person who creates the work is its author, there is an exception to that principle; the exception is a work made for hire, which is a work prepared by an employee within the scope of his or her employment; or a work specially ordered or commissioned in certain specified circumstances. When a work qualifies as a work made for hire, the employer, or commissioning party, is considered to be the author.

    Please note the "certain specified circumstances" as that is what many people seem to miss. Those specified circumstances are the ones specified in the law, not the ones that you or client think or wish they ought to be, and they are spelled out and discussed here. Seriously, it would be flat-out silly to further argue this point without reading that document.

    Finally, I guess I should point out that I'm not a lawyer. Although the misunderstanding of the law put forth in other comments here is so extreme, they make me like a judge by comparison ;-) Especially the (possibly misquote of course) lawyer who apparently led someone to believe that NY has its own version of copyright law. Sheesh. And I bring that up deliberately, because I've seen non-specialist lawyers before give incorrect advice on this subject. Do not ask these questions of a general business attorney--use an attorney who specializes in copyright.

  41. I'm in that situation, at the other end by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    I paid for the development of a web application. It looks like I want it, and it does what I want it to. That's because I thought it up. And now the copyright belongs to the skillful developer who implemented it all? Ignoring that that there is nothing but a verbal agreement and there is no signed document, shouldn't the copyright belong at least in part to me?

  42. Nope, not with GPL-based software ! by redelm · · Score: 1

    While the question of ownership / work-for-hire might exist for proprietary software (MS-Windows, SAP, etc), it most emphatically _does_not_ for software developed for a GPL base.

    As derivative works, the software creator is required to accept the GPL to distribute her software. The GPL clearly states that anyone who receives binaries is entitled to source _and_ rights of further modification and distribution. Stallman wrote it this way after frustration with a Xerox printer driver.

    Now, the question might arise "What is a derivative work?" "Pure" C code without any OS-specific references obviously is not. IANAL, but I would also suggest that any code that is trivially portable between OSes (simple recompilation with OS flag set) is also not derivative.

    But if it runs on Linux/GNU and won't run on *BSD without porting, then it sure looks derivative.

  43. The real question is by Alanonfire · · Score: 1

    How can you own something that doesn't really exist? Since computer code is essentially electricity and magnetism, do you own both of those as well? How much of it can you own? Owning an abstraction is a pretty impressive feat by any party.

  44. A customer perspective. by Vellmont · · Score: 1

    Most of the responses here are arguing legalities. That's nice and all, but most of how business works in the real world doesn't wind up in the court system, but by people just making decisions. So I think it's valuable to present the perspective of a customer.

    From my perspective, it MIGHT be acceptable to not get the source code for the work, given one of three possible conditions:

    1. I never expect to modify or maintain the application in any way whatsoever during it's lifetime. (We all know this is relatively unlikely)
    or
    2. I completely trust the contractor to do good work, charge me reasonable competitive rates, and provide some exit strategy should the developer retire, die, etc.
    or
    3. The program is largely of very limited value, and is highly unlikely to ever be of any great value.

    In all other cases, source code is largely a must. Imagine a plumber replacing your old steel pipes with copper, but somehow locking all the pipework down so only HE could work on the pipes. Nobody would stand for that, as pipes are basic infra-structure that survive longer than you or the plumber. Code doesn't always survive that long.. but sometimes it just sits and works for decades (I know I've written code for the short term I never expected to still be used 7 years later).

    The case of custom libraries owned by the developer are a special case. Everyone who's done software development for any length of time has bought 3rd party libraries without source code. This case is _mostly_ the same as that, but with some additional risks involved. Contractors aren't in the business of selling 3rd party libraries, so it's likely there's:

    No documentation, or at best poor documentation (why write documentation when you're the only one who uses it?)
    The API is poor, and not for general usage.
    I'd expect the library to be more buggy, since it hasn't gone through testing by multiple different developers trying to do things the author didn't think of.

    The above all lead towards greater lock-in to the original author. That's great for the author, but not so great for me, the customer. If the application didn't meet one of my above three cases I'd likely insist on very good documentation of the functions the contractor used from his custom library.

    Just for the sake of argument, I'll state that the vast majority of people hiring contractors for software development aren't going to have any clue about any of the above. If you do try to advise them most will not understand how few applications fall into category 1. Not enough people think of code as essentially custom built machines with many many custom built parts inside it. If you told them that, they might start understanding why getting the "design documents" is so important "should the machine ever break down". Then again, most people aren't imaginative enough to understand why they'd ever want to change anything in the application, or how the changing software eco-system will eventually obsolete that program designed 10 years ago to run on Windows 98.

    --
    AccountKiller
    1. Re:A customer perspective. by sribe · · Score: 1

      I think you missed the point slightly. The discussion is not so much about whether the client gets access to the source code, but what rights the client has to use it, particularly distribution rights. Requiring the source code and the right to modify/maintain it for your own use is a much lower bar than requiring the copyright and/or rights to create and sell derivative works and/or exclusivity.

    2. Re:A customer perspective. by IntlHarvester · · Score: 1

      Actually I don't think Vellmont missed that point at all. He is emphasizing that businesses will have certain expectations, and there needs to be an understanding of exactly what rights are being bought-and-sold, which everyone needs to be comfortable with it. The conventional way to do this is to negotiate a software licence.

      Most of the people in this thread seem to be implying they don't need any stinkin' licenses, and they would waltz in waving a printout of copyright law and demanding their "rights". (And there is one post from a guy who got fired for doing just that.) While that might be abstractly true, in reality suing your own clients is not how one manages business relationships. Different clients will have different needs/expectations, and as a "IP" producer, contract programmers need to work within that framework and hash out the legal details in a mutually acceptable manner.

      ---
      Also it is an entertaining discussion because most software is uninteresting and un-resaleable "system glue" type stuff. Other than some specific library functionality, I wouldn't even want to personally own most of the code I've developed -- and even if I did, I don't have the ability/desire to market it anyway.

      --
      Business. Numbers. Money. People. Computer World.
    3. Re:A customer perspective. by sribe · · Score: 1

      Most of the people in this thread seem to be implying they don't need any stinkin' licenses, and they would waltz in waving a printout of copyright law and demanding their "rights".

      I haven't taken them quite that way; I think a lot of the posts are postulating what happens when, due to not understanding the legal issues that need to be covered, the contract is incomplete or ambiguous. Granted the original article says exactly what you're describing, but I think we can all agree that the article describes the actions of a moron--starting development without even providing the client an email outlining the most basic terms.

      Also it is an entertaining discussion because most software is uninteresting and un-resaleable...

      Which is why I've never hesitated to grant clients rights to resell ;-)

  45. Risk management. by sulliwan · · Score: 1

    If I buy a software project from you, I need assurance that I can keep using that project and doing maintenance on it no matter what happens to you or your business. If you die tomorrow, I will need the source code and the ability to modify it as I see fit for the contract to not carry a significant business risk for me. Signing over rights (apart from authorship and other inalienable rights) to your software should be a standard part of any development contract, in case this is not done and you keep ownership, I also expect free maintenance on the code and significantly lower costs(as is common when licensing general use software, such as MS Office, etc). If this piece of software is critical for me, for example part of a contract I made with a client of mine who needs assurance that the software keeps working then it is not possible for me to allow you to keep ownership, sorry.

  46. Explanations! by mcrbids · · Score: 5, Insightful

    I've done a significant amount of contract work over the years, "flying solo" so to speak. I've only once had a contention about copyrights, and since then, I've never done work where I don't own what I write!

    My explanation goes something like this:

    I have years of experience and have developed a standard set of tools that I use to solve different types of problems. I intend to use these tools to cut costs for you, and it's that time savings that makes me worth the money that I'm charging - I'll do a good job in a short time. But I'm writing the software for YOU, not for somebody else, and if I develop a new idea working on your code, I intend to use that same tool elsewhere. So I'll keep the copyrights, leaving me free to do my job elsewhere, and grant you a license letting you use the software as you see fit. You can do what you want to do, I can do what I want to do, and we can both be happy! I will grant you unlimited use license, including access to the sources, and I will make it transferrable - if you sell the business, it's no problem. The only right I won't grant is the right the resell the software, because I don't want to compete with myself!

    This has never been a problem - when explained this way, nobody objects and everybody sees what I'm after.

    --
    I have no problem with your religion until you decide it's reason to deprive others of the truth.
    1. Re:Explanations! by Totenglocke · · Score: 0

      So according to you if you built cars, you'd own the cars and would grant Ford (or whatever company) a license to sell them to customers? How about a license for people to eat a burger you slapped together while working in fast food?

      If you have the idea to create and sell something on your own, then you own it. If someone else or a company has an idea to create and sell something and hires you just to do the grunt work of making it, you do not own it. That's pretty normal except a group of programmers like yourself think that you should get paid for the work AND get to own someone else's idea / design. That's greed and arrogance on your part, plain and simple.

      --
      "The tree of liberty must be refreshed from time to time with the blood of patriots and tyrants." ~Thomas Jefferson
    2. Re:Explanations! by Kjella · · Score: 1

      If you have the idea to create and sell something on your own, then you own it. If someone else or a company has an idea to create and sell something and hires you just to do the grunt work of making it, you do not own it. That's pretty normal except a group of programmers like yourself think that you should get paid for the work AND get to own someone else's idea / design. That's greed and arrogance on your part, plain and simple.

      If you hire someone to build a brick wall, you get the wall but not all the tools and knowledge to build the wall. If you hire someone to program a brick wall for your game it's impossible to transfer just the wall, it'll be all the source code used to generate the wall unless you got some weird code-generating tricks. What most software developers don't want to do is sell away their toolbox, sure the client may have his idea of a building and it'll be his building but the method of building prefab walls is yours. Everything you learn about construction on this project, you bring to the next project because that's the structural capital of the construction firm. To my knowledge the company I work for has never done any project where we exclusively sign over all the code, if we did they'd have to pay us 10-100x times as much as we'd have to start from scratch building components and code snippets.

      --
      Live today, because you never know what tomorrow brings
    3. Re:Explanations! by Rijnzael · · Score: 1

      Parent's comment is more like building a car but still retaining the rights to the processes and machinery used to build the car, should some other customer want a different type of car. Customer still has their car, and can modify/break/total/transfer the vehicle if they wish, but the manufacturer isn't competing with themselves by selling you the machinery to build cars along with the car.

    4. Re:Explanations! by Totenglocke · · Score: 1

      If you hire someone to build a brick wall, you get the wall but not all the tools and knowledge to build the wall.

      And how is it any different? You can reuse your knowledge to write later code and your "tools" (an IDE, computer, your hands) are yours, no one has argued that. The position you're defending is that if I hire you to build a brick wall, that you own the wall and can resell it to someone else at any time without my permission and that I can't modify the wall in any way without paying you a fortune.

      To my knowledge the company I work for has never done any project where we exclusively sign over all the code

      Key words there were "to [your] knowledge" - given that it's the norm for companies to own the code you write, that sounds like you simply didn't read the contract you signed with them very well.

      --
      "The tree of liberty must be refreshed from time to time with the blood of patriots and tyrants." ~Thomas Jefferson
    5. Re:Explanations! by pclminion · · Score: 1

      So according to you if you built cars, you'd own the cars and would grant Ford (or whatever company) a license to sell them to customers? How about a license for people to eat a burger you slapped together while working in fast food?

      Are you seriously comparing the construction of a physical object with the creation of an intellectual work? The car is a singular, non-duplicable item. A piece of software is not. Forcing contract developers to continually re-implement the most basic shit is a waste of time and money for everybody. If you want full ownership of every line of code that goes into a product I create, then you can have it, but be aware that it will take me three times as long and I'm going to increase my price because this is not the way software development is supposed to work.

    6. Re:Explanations! by ATairov · · Score: 1

      He does this because he wants to re-use the libraries he's written. You want him to waste everyone's time rewriting what is essentially the same library for each customer? How is that the right thing to do?
      Your comparison to a physical product isn't valid. It's more like he'd own the blueprints to the cars, the blueprints for basic components he designed that can be adapted into what the client wants, and the machinery to make the cars that he's developed over the years. And Ford (a car-maker) wouldn't be the customer. It'd be more like UPS. He'd then grant UPS the rights to make more cars of this type, and the ability to modify the blueprints, for their own use.

    7. Re:Explanations! by haruharaharu · · Score: 1

      He's talking about the contracts that his company signs with clients - they don't own the code, they just get to use it/modify it. The company can still take code written in one project and use it on a subsequent one.

      --
      Reboot macht Frei.
    8. Re:Explanations! by jrumney · · Score: 1

      So according to you if you built cars, you'd own the cars and would grant Ford (or whatever company) a license to sell them to customers?

      If my name was say Bosch, and Ford and other companies asked me to help them build their cars according to their designs, who would own the rights to the parts I made?

    9. Re:Explanations! by bill_mcgonigle · · Score: 1

      Mine is quite similar. And I also offer to alternately quote the project the other way, writing all of my toolkits over for the client. They never want that, but it's an exercise in understanding what they want.

      --
      My God, it's Full of Source!
      OUTSIDE_IP=$(dig +short my.ip @outsideip.net)
  47. The guy's an asshole by tomhudson · · Score: 2, Informative

    Where I control the server I leave these uncompiled, but if I'm transferring them to the client's server I will compile or obfuscate their code so that it still works but is uneditable. Unfortunately, this whole area can become very difficult to handle with some clients.

    In other words, he wants to lock them in to using only HI to extend the application. There is no reason he can't deliver it completely unobfuscated, yet still protected by copyright. Explain to them that they have a license to use it, that but they can't give or sell copies to anyone else because of copyright.

    This guy should be avoided like the plague. He's like the people how "help" you by registering your domain for you, but put their name as the administrator, so you can't move it somewhere else when you're pissed off with their childish - and VERY UNPROFESSIONAL - tactics.

  48. bad plumber example by Anonymous+Cowpat · · Score: 1

    It's more like if I paid someone to go to IKEA, get me a flat-pack wardrobe & put it together. I would still expect them to give me the allen key which came in the box so I can take it apart & put it back together myself.

    He also seems to have confused 'own' with 'right to use'. There's no reason why he can't give his source to his client and still retain the right to use it again himself.

    Starting development without a contract sounds like a thoroughly foolish idea, as the terms will be essentially decided by a judge if there's ever a dispute. What the client reasonably expected (a copy of all the source and right to modify it) will be taken into account.

    Finally, demanding a large up-front payment is not protecting himself from litigation. You take lots of money up-front and then don't provide the client with what they were expecting (with no contract) you'll end up with no money and lumbered with costs when they sue.

    Now I remember why I stopped getting PCPro

    --
    FGD 135
  49. Be careful when you "sell" your code by Opportunist · · Score: 1

    While it is technically and legally possible to fully transfer all rights to code you create, I would be very, very careful when doing so. I am currently in exactly this position and pretty much have to sign over the rights to code I create alone, but safeguards have to be put in place or you're pretty much putting yourself out of business over time.

    Code, like any "creative" work, follows a style. You have a certain coding style, you have a certain knowledge, you have certain techniques that you know how to use and that you follow. This even transfers through various languages you might use, you will always follow the same style. The same naming conventions (provided you get to choose names and identification pre/suffixes), the order in which certain things are done, the way certain things are done, etc.

    If you are not careful, you basically bar yourself from creating the same kind of code later in your life because it will invariably share similarities with your old code which you do not own anymore. Recreating the same functionality will invariably result in similar code which could be easily challenged in court, with a good chance to be identified as plagiarism.

    Yes, legally you'd be illegally copying your own works.

    --
    We used to have a Bill of Rights. Now, with the rights gone, all we have left is the bill.
  50. CODE CAN NOT BE OWNED. by Hurricane78 · · Score: 1

    It’s not a physical object. It’s information (or an idea). There are different laws in bitspace:
    If you give the information to nobody, good luck trying to prove it exists at all.
    If you pass it on, there goes your control over it.
    Also how can you own something, that can not be taken from you?
    It just makes no sense to think of in as a physical object.

    The author’s right was meant to be a compensation for the creator, because after all, someone deserves something for it. And indeed, in Germany, you can’t pass it on. Ever. By law. (Urheberrecht.)
    Copyright exists as a right for those who copy it. Which made sense in a time when there were media reproduction companies. But it was never meant to protect the original creator. And it still doesn’t.

    The thing is: Those laws exist, because people were unable to comprehend the laws of bitspace. And because everything was tied to a physical object, that was no problem.
    Nowadays we don’t have that tie anymore. And that’s why we get into trouble.

    Luckily, there is a working business model, that acknowledges reality... including the laws of bitspace.
    The idea is to completely forget the idea that information would be controllable. And work from that basis.
    And what you come up with then, is that if you want money from it, you have to ask for it at the moment you first pass it on. And then stop bitching, since you just gave up control over it. If one client can’t afford that price (e.g. games), you do it like with an investor. Only that all your clients (the gamers) take that place. Like a “If you give me that complete information (e.g. game), I will give you $xx. Signed, $client and $you”
    Which is very similar to taking a loan at a bank, based on a solid business model. Having a lot of clients who signed to pay because of your great trailer videos & co, is really the safest bet a bank can make. And if you fail, neither your bank nor your clients will be hurt.
    If you succeed, you will take the money, give ONLY your paying clients your work (information), pay your bank, and keep the difference as profits. Rinse and repeat.

    The best thing is: It can coexist with the crappy laws and imaginary business models we have now. It doesn’t need any new laws or anything really. You can start using it right now!

    --
    Any sufficiently advanced intelligence is indistinguishable from stupidity.
    1. Re:CODE CAN NOT BE OWNED. by DaveV1.0 · · Score: 1

      The text in a book is information, yet when you buy a book, you do not gain ownership over the information in the book. You do not gain a right to make copies of the book or the information in the book and give said copies of said information away.

      If you purchase a print of a painting, you do not gain the right to take a digital picture of the print and then give away that digital copy of the print.

      Copyright exists as a right for those who copy it

      What does the law say about who has the right to copy "it"? Or, are you stating that under, apparently German, copyright law, anyone and everyone has the right to copy anything one wishes to copy?

      Your "different laws for bitspace" is merely a red herring. The only difference is in the encoding of the data, not the laws that apply to the information. You just want there to be a difference to justify your infringing on other people's rights.

      --
      There is no "-1 offended" or "-1 you don't agree with me" mod options for a reason.
  51. From the last paragraph of TFA: by laughingcoyote · · Score: 1

    This isn’t about blackmail...

    Bullshit. Utter bullshit. You can give the client who wants to switch developers a copy of the source code to allow them to do so, without actually granting them ownership of your supposedly extremely valuable libraries. Write up a contract that says they're only permitted to use them in conjunction with the software you wrote for them (or future modifications thereof), are not permitted to resell, etc. There is a large middle ground between "total transfer of all rights" and "won't even show you the code so you can switch devs", and by presenting such a false dichotomy, you're absolutely trying to blackmail your client into staying with you. It's no wonder they want to leave, and I wish them luck in doing it.

    --
    To fight the war on terror, stop being afraid.
    1. Re:From the last paragraph of TFA: by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      But why should they have that code?
      Its pretty much standard in the industry that:

      Component binary: $100
      Component binary + source: $1000
      Component binary + source + unlimited rights: $10000

      Part of the low original estimate is because it is assumed that there is an ongoing relationship. If the client were to say upfront, "We want you do the hard bits, and once you've done them we're going to hand over the development to some people in China", the developer might reasonably say "well then my price is higher". And rightly so.

      But even this misses the point. When you work with me, you get work done much faster because I don't have to rewrite a whole bunch of software, just for you. If I *give* you that source code, then the next guy you hire doesn't have to either: and that gives *him* my competitive advantage. So regardless of whether or not *you* think its fair, the client is *not* getting my competitive advantage for free. Period. Ever. This is my livelihood.

      That being said, the guy is an idiot for not having this conversation from the get-go, even if its just on the phone. Also, a memorandum of understanding goes a long way.

      I'm working with some people right now without a formal contract. However, I'm upfront about what I'm claiming as my own, and what I intend to be owned by us all. It can lead to some uncomfortable conversations, but usually only because one side misunderstood the other, and so far everyone is still excited about the opportunity and moving forward.

    2. Re:From the last paragraph of TFA: by laughingcoyote · · Score: 1

      I've never understood billing in that way. I always insist on a contract, or at least memorandum of understanding, be completed before I start work. If you want to contract for the development plus several years' support, I probably will give you some type of "bundle" discount. If you just want the work, and don't want to contract past that, I'll make sure I charge you enough for it that my time and effort in development is worth it, even if you do then decide to seek support elsewhere.

      However, I'll actually charge you less if you will agree to the finished product being GPL'd, because I quite often find myself wanting to incorporate GPL code. If you want something proprietary, I'll charge you more, because then I can't do that, and I have to write more and reuse less. In addition, you probably wind up with less rights in the final product. The types of things I do are customized for each person I work with, so I'm not concerned if you redistribute the end product-it's probably of little use to anyone but you anyway.

      And because I do deal fairly with people, and don't give them unpleasant surprises, I am often asked for assistance or consulting down the road-who better than the guy who wrote it, if you were happy with him?

      I would never, however, set up a contract that asked the customer not to receive the source code at all. I have enough confidence in my work that I'm more than willing to give you the option of going elsewhere if you're not happy. And it's people like the guy asking the very question, above, that make people so damned gun shy about hiring freelancers to start with. (Disclaimer: I'm not freelancing now, but I've done so in the relatively recent past, and I don't think the field could have changed that much between then and now.)

      --
      To fight the war on terror, stop being afraid.
  52. Who owns the money I pay for the software by petes_PoV · · Score: 1
    If this guy thinks he owns software I buy from him, then I reckon I should retain ownership of the money I pay for it.

    As the article says

    or a contract exists that transfers full ownership

    which almost every contract will stipulate. I'd suggest this guy stops being so precious and realises he's not creating works of art (even these are owned by the client if they were commissioned - well, the copyright is anyway) he's making widgets: be they mechanical, electrical or virtual. The same set of laws and common sense applies.

    --
    politicians are like babies' nappies: they should both be changed regularly and for the same reasons
  53. examples fail by DaveGod · · Score: 1

    The issue is that of cost and risk. If I am paying for the entirety of the cost of designing the software I expect entirety of ownership. These contracts also typically put the burden of risk on the client since it is usually very difficult to avoid paying at least the majority of the agreed fee regardless of whether the software is up to scratch.

    If I was only paying a fraction of the cost of the software, i.e. the cost was being shared between multiple customers, then no I would not expect to control/own it in the same way.

    If I buy a bible, I don’t own the original Lindisfarne Gospels;

    No, but I didn't buy the Lindisfarne Gospels, I bought this bible, I own it and it's my bible. I do whatever I like with it. Tear pages out, glue new ones in, make a lot of paper aeroplanes if I like. But example is only at all comparable if I was paying for finished, mass-produced software. If I pay someone to write a new bible, the default position is that the publisher owns it. They take the cost and risk burden and hence they generally take ownership.

    if I pay a plumber to fix my tap, I don’t ask him to leave his toolbox so I can fix it myself next time;

    No but I expect him to leave the tap. I expect to be able to pay another plumber to fix the tap, or to do so myself. And by the way, taps do actually come with instructions and use standardised tools so that anyone can fix them. Regardless, again the example is not applicable since the article is talking about creating something new not fixing something old. If a developer is paid to fix an existing piece of software does he expect to own the software?

    if I buy Harry Potter and the Half Blood Prince on Blu-ray, I don’t own the movie but only a copy (whose usage is restricted by the terms of the licence);

    Technologists aligning their argument with the MPAA, interesting. I'll not bother posting a retort since they're posted here frequently.

    if I buy Microsoft Word, I own one copy of the compiled code, not the source.

    Again this is the purchase of a finished, mass produced piece of software, not payment to design a custom piece of software for me. If I pay an architect to design a building, the architect does not continue to have any rights over any use of that building.

    1. Re:examples fail by mkettler · · Score: 1

      True the architect has no rights over the building, but he didn't create that, he created a design and drawings used to create the building from. The question is does he have rights over the drawings? (i.e.: can he use them again, selling to another client because he retained ownership and licensed you a copy, or can he not, because he transferred the ownership of the design to you?). Most don't transfer the copyright of the design to you (ie: you can't make more copies of the drawings and sell them, but he can).

      Another common example that exists in the real world is professional photography. You hire a photographer to take pictures at a wedding, paying him for his time to do so. However, you don't own the rights to the photographs he's taken. You can buy copies from him, but he still owns the copyright. As a result, you cannot legally make more copies of those photographs. Photographers generally want additional fees to transfer the copyright of a photo, because it means: 1) you can get copies made elsewhere cutting them out of that profit stream and 2) they can't use it in their portfolio of existing work they show to potential new customers.

      Most software consulting is done on a "non-exclusive, unlimited royalty-free license" basis. You have unlimited use of the source code created for you, and the programmer generally retains rights to use that code again in other projects. Most programmers have a lot of "stock code" they've already written, and grab chunks of it to throw into their projects so they're not constantly reinventing the wheel for simple stuff. Some of the new code they write for you is likely to end up as snippets added to that collection. Take a snippet, leave a snippet.

      You can set up contracts that transfer 100% ownership, but that's going to increase their billed hours and your cost (because they won't be able to use any of their existing snippets and must create everything from scratch). But if that's what you want, most are willing to set that up. However, most customers want a lower cost so the typical consult is not written up that way.

      The moral of the story is, if you want specific terms, make sure they're in the contract you sign.

      --
      -Matt
    2. Re:examples fail by DaveV1.0 · · Score: 1

      No, but I didn't buy the Lindisfarne Gospels, I bought this bible, I own it and it's my bible. I do whatever I like with it. Tear pages out, glue new ones in, make a lot of paper aeroplanes if I like.

      But, do you have the right to copy the entire text of the bible you have purchased and use said text to print a new copy of said bible to sell or give away? Or, more to the point, purchase a copy of the book "Harry Potter and the Half Blood Prince", do you have a right to scan or type the contents of that book into a text or PDF file and then sell or give away copies of the file or the file itself?

      --
      There is no "-1 offended" or "-1 you don't agree with me" mod options for a reason.
    3. Re:examples fail by unitron · · Score: 1

      If I pay someone to write a new bible, the default position is that the publisher owns it.

      Let's change the word "bible" to "book" so as to avoid having to deal with the extra confusion over what, if any, rights are retained by the divine inspirer of the work in question.

      So, if you pay someone to write a new book, is that not just two parties to the transaction? How did the publisher insert himself into the middle of things?

      --

      I see even classic Slashdot is now pretty much unusable on dial up anymore.

  54. WFH WTF by ratboy666 · · Score: 1

    "Put simply, code is owned by its developer even once the client has paid, unless that developer is legally employed by the client or a contract exists that transfers full ownership (even then it's far from clear-cut)."

    A "work made for hire" is-- (1) a work prepared by an employee within the scope of his or her employment; or (2) a work specially ordered or commissioned for use as a contribution to a collective work, as a part of a motion picture or other audiovisual work, as a translation, as a supplementary work, as a compilation, as an instructional text, as a test, as answer material for a test, or as an atlas, if the parties expressly agree in a written instrument signed by them that the work shall be considered a work made for hire. (17 U.S.C. 101)

    And a "work for hire" is considered to be owned by the employer (as author).

    So, when engaging people to write code, simply include: "This is to be considered a work made for hire" in the contract.

    How confusing is that?

    --
    Just another "Cubible(sic) Joe" 2 17 3061
    1. Re:WFH WTF by sribe · · Score: 1

      So, when engaging people to write code, simply include: "This is to be considered a work made for hire" in the contract.

      You're misreading the statute. It's a work made for hire if it falls into one of the categories in the list that ends with "or as an atlas", and as described in the following clause (which is not part of the list) the contract specifies that it shall be considered a work made for hire.

    2. Re:WFH WTF by PPH · · Score: 1

      and as described in the following clause

      The and isn't explicit in the statute. This is the sort of thing that has undoubtedly surfaced in numerous instances of case law (to the benefit of the legal profession).

      --
      Have gnu, will travel.
    3. Re:WFH WTF by sribe · · Score: 1

      The and isn't explicit in the statute [copyright.gov]. This is the sort of thing that has undoubtedly surfaced in numerous instances of case law (to the benefit of the legal profession).

      No, it doesn't say "and", but it most certainly does require both. Because the language boils down to "...one of these, if the parties agree.."

      And yes, I am aware it has surfaced in case law. It gets really interesting, because the statute's meaning is as I described, but if you try to designate something as a work made for hire that is not eligible, while that does not make it a work made for hire, it creates an ambiguous contract, and then you get to litigate over issues of the intent of the contract ;-) So the question is, why do that in the first place, instead of just executing a proper transfer of copyright?

    4. Re:WFH WTF by PPH · · Score: 1

      So the question is, why do that in the first place, instead of just executing a proper transfer of copyright?

      Because I might not want to transfer copyright. And I don't want some statute to come in and classify it as a work for hire by default against my intent.

      --
      Have gnu, will travel.
    5. Re:WFH WTF by ratboy666 · · Score: 1

      Since software always needs hardware, and most hardware has (at least) a BIOS, or other ROM code, *or* artwork is treated separately, the code is ALMOST ALWAYS a compilation.

      So, "work for hire" covers it.

      Now, we could go to court... but the chances of the developer winning are pretty much slim to none.

      I go the other way -- if we produce code, and wish to retain rights, THAT is put into the contract.

      --
      Just another "Cubible(sic) Joe" 2 17 3061
  55. When an employer pays an employee... by Montezumaa · · Score: 0

    ..., then that employer owns the work the employee has done. This is not difficult to understand. If I pay some third-party to do a job for me that requires custom-made coding, then I own the code. If I pay a landscaper to landscape my property, then I own the landscaping and continue to own the property after the job is done.

    It is time for everyone to realize that you own nothing that you were paid to do.

    1. Re:When an employer pays an employee... by Montezumaa · · Score: 0

      After I re-read the article, I realize that Kevin Partner does not understand copyright law, nor does he understand anything that he wrote his article about. This was also commented on in the original article. The Autodesk decision, decided by a court of law and not some obscure "journalist", completely disagrees with the author.

      Sure, owning one copy of an intellectual property does not provide the owner with the right to copy and distribute said property, but it does give the owner the right to use the property any way they see fit and for however long they wish.

    2. Re:When an employer pays an employee... by jamie(really) · · Score: 1

      The Autodesk decision has nothing to do with this. The author is willing to give them the finished binary. Just not the source code. The Autodesk judgement did not require Autodesk to give the *source code* away along with the binary copy.

    3. Re:When an employer pays an employee... by Montezumaa · · Score: 0

      It seems obvious to me that you did not read the original article, or at least did not full comprehend it. Check out this portion, ..."if I buy Harry Potter and the Half Blood Prince on Blu-ray, I don't own the movie but only a copy (whose usage is restricted by the terms of the licence))..."(the author does not seem to own the rights to a spell check). It is a comment like this that show the author's lack of knowledge on the subject.

      The only legal restrictions on the used of intellectual property is copyright law, not "licensing terms". A creator can attempt to fill a software license with all types of restrictive shit, but they cannot strip an owner of his or her legal rights. If I, being the owner of some item(software, hardware, etc), then I am free to use said item any way I wish(as long as I am not breaking the law). I can sell it to someone after I am done using it. I can burn it. I could even reverse engineer it to work with something I am creating.

      The Autodesk decision has a lot to do with this.

  56. The Issue at Hand by Fnord666 · · Score: 1
    From the rant posing as an article:

    "You might ask why I didn't make a contract with this client in the first place. It's because I've found, over the years, that insisting on a contract before development starts will result either in a delayed start or even a project being shelved."

    "This particular client needed a working application in three weeks and there was simply no time to mess around with legal niceties - I protected my company by insisting on a 50% upfront payment, and on installing the software on our own server. Since then we've implemented several upgrades, including adding a sophisticated PDF export function. "

    In a rush to get the job, the author's company agreed to develop and deliver something to a client without a written contract defining who owns what in the end. Once the work was done, the question of ownership came up. IANAL but I would think that without a contract the law of the land would prevail. In the US the work would probably include the application and if that means the source code also, then so be it.

    However, web applications by their very nature are far more complicated to nail down in contract form, and the pragmatic requirements of running a business sometimes mean we've gone without written contracts.

    If the legal niceties of web applications are complicated when there is a written contract, why is this guy surprised when they are even more so without one?

    Developing HTML websites is a standardised(sic) process and it's easy enough to find form contracts online to cover both development and hosting.

    I would think that this is a key point. These are distinct agreements and should be covered by distinct contracts, implied or otherwise. Just because they are handled by the same company in this case doesn't (or shouldn't) tie them together. When the application is completed, the developer delivers it to the client and that part of the deal is done. To throw in a US related car analogy(YMMV), in the US Ford is not allowed to contractually obligate you to buy "Ford gasoline" only as a part of your purchase of the car.

    --
    'The tyrant will always find pretext for his tyranny.' - Aesop's Fables
    1. Re:The Issue at Hand by jamie(really) · · Score: 1

      You forgot to add IANAL, though perhaps that would be redundant.

      You bring up the idea of "industry practice" and existing law.

      At best, after a fun time in court, the client could hope to get the binary, functioning application and costs. More likely, since US copyright law and industry practice is unarguably on the side of the developer, the client would be counter sued for non-payment, lost profits and legal costs, and lose. Except no lawyer would take the client's case without a hefty retainer (knowing they'd lose), so its moot.

      BTW, IANAL either. But I do do this for a living, so I have consulted one.

  57. Meta Ownership by NicknamesAreStupid · · Score: 1

    As many have noted, "the rules are what the contract says." So, who owns the contract? What if the plaintive did not have the right to use it? Of course, a usage violation might be a separate issue, but when something is used without the right to use it, the product of that usage can be taken from the abuser. For example, royalties from plagiarized music.

    What if a large law firm started copyrighting all sort of boilerplate for new types of contracts, not prior art but forward thinking stuff. Then, like those companies that patent parts of developing standards, they went after everyone who negotiated such contracts in the future. In the case of royalties on intellectual property, they might claim some of that revenue due to the 'power' of the contract that claimed it. This may sound far fetched, but so did process patents.

    If you think that is whack, someday, these posts will be taxed. No shit, free speech will not be 'free'.

  58. That's a different situation... by Joce640k · · Score: 2, Insightful

    Books don't have source code.

    The "source code" for a book would be the author's imagination and creative ability. The publishing company most certainly doesn't own *that* after they buy the rights to a particular book.

    In the software world, if I buy the rights to a program I'm buying the end result of a particular combination of code. I don't get the rights to the individual modules/libraries inside that code.

    --
    No sig today...
    1. Re:That's a different situation... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Books don't have source code.

      The "source code" for a book would be the author's imagination and creative ability. The publishing company most certainly doesn't own *that* after they buy the rights to a particular book.

      That's an interesting way to look at it, but copyright doesn't protect things such as "imagination and creative ability." It doesn't even cover ideas, just particular concrete expressions of an idea.

      Source code for software is most definitely a concrete thing. It can be written down, copied, and distributed. The same can't be said of an author's talent, so that is a non-sequitur.

    2. Re:That's a different situation... by gambino21 · · Score: 3, Insightful

      I disagree. The "source code" for a book is the text, not the author's imagination. Both source code and text are created by the author's labor/imagination/creativity. Both source code and text can be copyrighted, and both can be used to produce something that is sold in a packaged format. In the software world, I can by a particular packaging of the software, OTS, or via download. In the book world, I buy a particular packaging of the text, a physical book or e-book. In neither case do I own the copyrighted material. As another example, if I pay a software developer to create some source code for me, I can negotiate a contract that says I own the code. Likewise, if I pay a writer to write some text for me, I can negotiate a contract that says I own the text.

    3. Re:That's a different situation... by gd2shoe · · Score: 1

      a Halfway decent analogy, here's where it falls down:

      The "source code" for a book would be the author's imagination and creative ability.

      Do not programmers have imagination and creative ability? I also think you overlooked the authors notes (and other "source" material) and the process of "compiling" them into a cohesive book . A vast majority of books go through this process. Those rare few that don't would be like coding in assembly. ;)

      (That's ignoring commissioned works for the time being.)

      --
      I won't join Slashcott. OTOH, If Beta goes live, I just won't be back until it's fixed. Sorry Dice.
    4. Re:That's a different situation... by genner · · Score: 1

      Books don't have source code.

      The "source code" for a book would be the author's imagination and creative ability. The publishing company most certainly doesn't own *that* after they buy the rights to a particular book.

      In the software world, if I buy the rights to a program I'm buying the end result of a particular combination of code. I don't get the rights to the individual modules/libraries inside that code.

      Books absolutly have source code. Publishers may retain the rights to characters and what not depending on how badly they want to screw the author.

    5. Re:That's a different situation... by Draek · · Score: 1

      Books don't have source code.

      Yes they do, it's the text itself. What distinguishes it from the end product is the formatting, type-setting and other niceties added for publishing, to which the publisher also owns the rights to, or at least a license as they'd be otherwise liable for infringement as well.

      The "source code" for a book would be the author's imagination and creative ability. The publishing company most certainly doesn't own *that* after they buy the rights to a particular book.

      Neither does a company with respect to the programmer's imagination and creative ability either.

      In the software world, if I buy the rights to a program I'm buying the end result of a particular combination of code. I don't get the rights to the individual modules/libraries inside that code.

      Yes, you do. You seem to be confusing "licensing" with "buying rights", however, which is the difference between buying tickets for a football match and buying the stadium outright.

      --
      No problem is insoluble in all conceivable circumstances.
    6. Re:That's a different situation... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The source code for a book is usually all those .tex files the author has on his harddrive.

    7. Re:That's a different situation... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The author writes his version of the text. He then hands it over to the publishing company, who then provides an editor, who changes the script to something, that they say, is better, at which point, it becomes a collaberative work.

      The same for your code, if its your work, and only your work, its yours, but as soon as it gets adjusted, by another employee of the company, or possible even by a script run on company computers, it is no longer soley your work, and as such, you don't have exclusive copyright... I'm sure, nor do I really care about what the law says about that, but it makes sense to me.

      But if you take the code that is purely yours, sans editing, then as far I'm concerned, its yours to do with as you wish. Contracts of course change everything, so always be careful what rights you sign away, in your eagerness to collect a quick paycheck.

  59. Not necessarily true by novastar123 · · Score: 1

    It all depends on how the programmer does business, and what the terms of the job are.

    If I buy a license for Windows 7, or vBulletin, I know I do not own the code to those. Sure, in one of them, windows, I have little/no access to the code, but in vBulletin, I have complete
    access to the code. Now based on the terms of the license agreement I agreed to when I purchased it, I am free to modify that code however I want, as long as I abide by the terms of the license, ie only running one instance of the software, and whatever other restrictions they have. This does not mean I own the code, other than any code I added to it while customizing it, nor does it mean I can sell it as my own.

    Now, when it comes to freelance coding and the like, it depends on your agreement.
    As a freelance coder myself, granted I'm just small time compared to some, if I write a piece of software, and have it up for sale, any buyers get a limited license to use it.
    But if I am engaged to do a custom job, I generally turn over all rights to the source code when I am done, and license any of my custom libraries to them. When I do it this way though,
    they only get a limited maintenance agreement, such as only one installation, and I will only fix bugs that were in the original code. If the code has been modified at all, I will not touch it.
    If they want a more comprehensive maintenance agreement, they can license the code from me, and I will be happy to maintain it, as long as I am the only coder working on it.

    I absolutely loathe it when another coder screws up code I have written, then the original customer expects me to fix it.

  60. You guys are in a service industry by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    whether you like it or not, you're in a service industry, and you're only as valuable as your time and materials. If I had software commissioned, and I have, you don't get paid unless I get full ownership. You can bitch and moan about it all you want and try to justify it but I don't pay up front, and I don't pay for things I don't own. No real business person would agree to the terms you guys think you can impose on people.

    1. Re:You guys are in a service industry by novastar123 · · Score: 1

      What are you smoking?

      Try to get a contractor in to work on your house without paying some upfront. Try getting your car worked on at a shop without either paying upfront, or paying before you get your car back.

      Welcome to the real world. Unlike in your fantasy world, people wont invest a lot of time, not to mention the years spent acquiring their knowledge, without some assurance that they will get paid for a project.

      And you do pay for things you don't own. Unless every piece of software on your computer, from the bios, to the operating system, to the drivers and other software running on it are open source, you either paid for something you don't own, you paid for a license, or you pirated it. Which kinda negates your statement about paying for stuff.

      Sorry, couldn't resist feeding the dirty troll.

    2. Re:You guys are in a service industry by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I never pay up front, car shop, contractor, nobody. As for the OS my work computer, it's not a piece of software that I had written it's something pre-made I'm paying to use that I won't modify. Software I pay to have written is made to do one thing for me and me only. I own it and I won't agree to any other terms unless it was a mass marketed thing that I'm only paying $1200 for a license instead of 10 to 20k for a piece of custom software. It goes both ways because I also refuse to agree to autodesk's terms of use with never ending subscriptions and I in turn can't use their software.

  61. Work For Hire by sohp · · Score: 1

    Newsflash: Ancient work-for-hire rules that have been fought over by writers and photographers for decades hit the software development world. Film at 11.

  62. The guy creates his own problems by osgeek · · Score: 1

    The author of TFA says it best:

    It’s because I’ve found, over the years, that insisting on a contract before development starts will result either in a delayed start or even a project being shelved

    So he isn't clear and up front with his clients and then his business dealings get confused... um.... duh?

    I create a Statement of Work for every client that clearly spells out what I'm doing, what they get, how it should work, what they're paying for, and sometimes what they are NOT paying for. I've lost a negligible percentage of projects because I wrote up a SOW and the client didn't go through with it; and to the ones I did lose I say "good riddance". Any client who can't sign a piece of paper to protect both parties is normally the kind of client that knows how to take advantage of a contractor more easily without an agreement in place.

  63. This is stupid by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    If i pay (or not) for software, i should own everything i need to fix or modify it. To use the plumbing example, yes you could ask him to leave his tools, he would probably say no, but either way, you own the work that he did since you own the pipes. If you went out and bought your own tools you could modify, fix, and update his work all you want. Im not really sure the author thought those examples through very well, as far as i know the bible is in the public domain , and as i just explained the plumbing thing doesnt really work. I hope he gets a nasty email from RMS.

  64. Off Hours by gd2shoe · · Score: 1

    ... most also have a clause which says if you create code *not* for the company, but while being employed *by* the company at a salary, then anything you write while not at work is also company property, due to you very likely using company time, resources, training, best practices, or something else to do so.

    I'm sure this is a widespread practice. It's also highly unethical.

    --
    I won't join Slashcott. OTOH, If Beta goes live, I just won't be back until it's fixed. Sorry Dice.
  65. OSS by akabigbro · · Score: 0

    This is why OSS is better. Everyone owns the code. This whole ownership of something intangible is absolute stupidity.

    1. Re:OSS by jamie(really) · · Score: 1

      Then why does FSF require GCC contributors to assign copyright?

  66. Where are you? by gd2shoe · · Score: 1

    You mention moral rights. Those are very weak in the US. I hypothesize that you live in another country, and what your lawyer told you has no bearing on a large percentage of Slashdot programmers.

    --
    I won't join Slashcott. OTOH, If Beta goes live, I just won't be back until it's fixed. Sorry Dice.
    1. Re:Where are you? by MrKaos · · Score: 1

      You mention moral rights. Those are very weak in the US. I hypothesize that you live in another country, and what your lawyer told you has no bearing on a large percentage of Slashdot programmers.

      Right, land of the not so free, eh :-(

      --
      My ism, it's full of beliefs.
  67. One phrase: non exclusive by istartedi · · Score: 1

    "non-exclusive". It should be in all your contracts, and both sides should know what it means. Unless you are working as a salaried employee, or they paid you a HUGE AMMOUNT, then it should always be non-exclusive. Simple.

    --
    For all intensive purposes, "whom" is no longer a word. That begs the question, "who cares"?
  68. rights to use vs right to limit your rights to use by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    when i buy a cd i don't expect the _exclusive_ rights on the music on it.

    that's the main difference.

  69. Common sense doesn't appear to be that common by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Why can't well all just get along and agree on beer-ware transactions in software? http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Beerware

    Until then, all that Kevin or many are proving in their debate is their ignorance of reading, understanding, and negotiating agreements... ...and why we can't "kill all the lawyers" to whom we delegate by proxy when we refuse to do these simple things.

    BTW Kevin, in some legal jurisdictions, I am allowed by law to to reverse engineer even your compiled code unless we have agreed otherwise. QED

  70. Bigger than books, here... by multimediavt · · Score: 1

    Ladies and gentlemen, please. Let me try and *NOT* use a car analogy, but a direct professional parallel. Coders "own their code" after it has been paid for, like an architect owns a building after it's been built/paid for.

    Why is this an important distinction/parallel? Easy. The architect passes liability for faults off to the owner after a certain period of time, agreed upon in an initial contract. When the certificate of occupancy (i.e., quality assurance) is issued, and the client takes possession of the building they paid the architect (and engineers, and contractors) to build, it's no longer the architect's liability to maintain that building. That is, unless they are contracted again to do so, for more pay (i.e., a maintenance contract on a piece of software, a la RedHat).

    So, do you really want to own that source code, or would you rather treat it like a building that you designed where you document the project, keep all the original source files, learn from the experience, possibly (if not expressly forbidden in your contract) reuse some of the objects of that code in other projects? Oh, don't get me wrong, I am all about "licensing" significant works, like a file system that's new, a new sort of material connection for structure or aesthetics, or something really unique along either of those lines. But, to think that you would want to claim full ownership and responsibility for every bit of code you write could entail a lot more headache than you would care to even think of taking on.

    Code is not like a book! Code has utility, function as an executable binary beyond just the lines of text that comprise its source. It is a creative work of form and function, much like a building. Things can go on inside it that, in turn, can also be creative works on their own. Do you presume to own those as well? Would an architect own any ideas conceived within the walls of the buildings he/she designed?

    1. Re:Bigger than books, here... by Dinatius · · Score: 1

      Your argument has a significant flaw in it. Architects do not create the building, they create the blueprints for the building. Architects can then take bits and pieces of that blueprint and reuse them in any other building that they design. This is true with source code ownership. While you as a developer do not own the product, you should be able to take the pieces that you did make and reuse them as you'd like effectively owning them. This doesn't apply in the face of the construction phase of creating a new building because you can't reuse the same physical material without removing it from the original. It's meta-physical existence vs physical existence. This is what spawned copyrights in the first place. "Copyright is the set of exclusive rights granted to the author or creator of an original work, including the right to copy, distribute and adapt the work."

    2. Re:Bigger than books, here... by Billly+Gates · · Score: 1

      Code is not expressive but are rather a serious of actions so its not like a blue print.

        At least that's how judges interpret it (forgot which case as I am not a lawyer).

      It is certainly not ok to reuse code in another product used by a competitor no different than a chief using part of a recipe and altering it only slightly and selling it to a competitor. KFC would go nuts if someone did this with the secret recipe for chicken.

      I would bet software company lawyers would have a field day if someone ever tried this.

  71. REALITY by TRRosen · · Score: 1

    If there is nothing in writing the one with the most lawyers wins.

    And if you have enough lawyers it doesn't even matter if it is in writing!

  72. code is never owned by TRRosen · · Score: 1

    Code is information and like all other creative works that information is not and can never be owned by anyone it is the property of mankind.

    It is the commercial rights to a work that can be owned not the work itself. Ther are only 3 kinds of IP ...copyrights, patents and trademarks

  73. Re:Reality (Fantasy is different) by jamie(really) · · Score: 1

    Reality:

    Copyright is Law.

    Break the Law and get sued and lose.

    Lose and don't pay, and men with guns come to your house and take your physical stuff.

    Therefor, in this reality, non-physical stuff has value as does physical stuff.

    Copyright law says I own it.

    Copyright law says if you want it, you pay what I say, or you don't get it. (see above about guns)

    Market forces says you pay what we agree its worth, not what you think it cost me to develop it.

    That is why GPL exists. For example, the GCC toolkit *has* value. That value has "already been paid for". But if you want to modify the toolkit for your own purposes, you agree to give your modifications back to the community. It is a *trade*. Your new value for their "paid for" value. Just because something has already been paid for does not mean it is now free. Quite the opposite.

    It is called an *investment*.

  74. Neither party "owns" the code. by FellowConspirator · · Score: 1

    Code can't be "owned" as it's not property. If you are in the USA, if you hire someone to write code for you, it would be considered a work-for-hire situation. In that case, the author and the payor would share a non-exclusive copyright on the code (unless they had a contract that specifically transferred the copyright explicitly to the payor). Strictly speaking, copyrighted works are effectively "owned" by the general public, who then offers you a limited exclusive right to making copies of, making derivative works of, or performing the work.

  75. UK not US by jamie(really) · · Score: 1

    This chap is in the UK, so its a whole different kettle of fish.

    In the USA, he owns his own work. Without an explicit contract to the contrary, he still owns it, and even with a contract, he still owns it. As a result, any contract over here where the client really wants the code will include the language along the lines of "even if the law determines that you own the copyright, we the client gets an exclusive, permanent license to use it, and you don't get to give it to anyone else". Its also why my contracts are clear about what they, the client, do get, and what they don't.

    On the whole, stuff that we agree that they are going to "own", I keep copyright, and they get permanent, exclusive, right to assign etc. Then there's stuff that I give them a non-exclusive source code license for, and then there's stuff that they only get binary rights to, and for all of that they may or may not have the right to sublicense, redistribute etc etc. There is no excuse not have this clear.

    There are memorandums of understanding, and even without paper, there are conversations to be had (and *documented* that I had them if it ever gets ugly which is unlikely if I have them at all). Conversations are an opportunity to explain what they get and why, and why this is a benefit for them. Also, its an opportunity for me to learn if they just want me to do all the hard work and then give it to a script kiddy, or whether they want to establish a relationship. And sometimes the rest of the work will only require a script kiddy, and I'd be bored to tears anyway, even subcontracting it out - and if that's the case, we can work out a price. Its called negotiation.

    The other issue in the USA is the IRS. The IRS doesn't care about what a contract says on paper. If I am were to work as an employee would, then I would be an employee as far as the IRS is concerned. So if the client owned what I produce (all of it), that's one big check box on the IRS's duck test. The penalties are significant. For the employer, they would have to pay me as an employee and would owe more tax. As an employee, I would lose the ability to write off my expenses.

    I initially thought this was unfair. But after consideration, I think it is quite fair. If a programmer don't have the guts to turn down contracts that basically make them a wage slave, then they don't get to pretend they are an independent business and reap the tax benefits that those of us taking a risk do get. At least be clear that an employer/employee relationship exists, and negotiate accordingly. I could say that pretending otherwise "hurts us all", but while it does to an extent, it *really* hurts those who the IRS look at. I go to great lengths to make sure that what I want to own, I own, and I am taking financial risks to do that. I see it as investment.

  76. No, you're the one who's incorrect by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    The dentist would give you the x-rays because *you paid for them*.

    You and the OP may not like reality, but that doesn't change it.

  77. Copyright assignment is required by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    I am going through this now.

    A few years ago I was approached by a guy to build an application to handle food processing within restaurants. We agreed that I would be well under my normal rates and that in exchange he would give me a 20% stake in his new company.

    He wrote up a basic shareholders agreement that stated things like first right of refusal if I choose to sell my shares etc. However nowhere did the agreement mention copyright assignment of the completed application. I knew that agreement probably should have, but I decided to keep quiet in the event things went south and I could just take my code and walk.

    Well, after a couple years things did go south and sure enough I walked. However, my ex partner (who turned out to be your run of the mill crook) was convinced he owned the code since he had paid for the development. This application was pretty cool and had some other potential uses and wasn’t just going to give it away. After consulting a lawyer and spending about 10k in consultations and doing a ton of independent research I learned that he absolutely DOES NOT own the application, more specifically the copyright.

    Unless I was an employee or I was making enhancements to an existing application the he already owned (known as a derivative work) he does not own the copyright. The lawyer also explained that being a shareholder is not the same as being an employee and I was free and clear.

    Thankfully software does not fall under the “work for hire” concept and that the copyright assignment must be addressed before any work is done using very clear language defining what is being created and that you as the author intend to transfer the copyright once the application is completed. It is usually wise to include language that says you will be retaining your rights to all “background technology”. These are your pre-build libraries all programmers have accumulated over the years.

  78. Ayn Rand Reflux by b4upoo · · Score: 1

    We've seen this line before in Rand's novels expounding her silly beliefs. The notion that an architect can blow up a building because he does not agree with what the owner has done with the design leaps to mind. These days we consider people who blow up buildings to be terrorists unlike Rand who considered them a hero of capitalism.

    1. Re: Ayn Rand Reflux by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Rand had a thing for throwing fits of spite when people didn't agree with her.

      Of course, she didn't put it that way--she called it "standing on principle."

  79. Those low res images don't harm their reputation? by mdwh2 · · Score: 1

    How is a photographer's reputation damaged if a married couple make a dodgy print at home for themselves, their parents, or whatever? The public will see the photographer's website and portfolio, which will only contain what he wants.

    The only example I can think of is if the couple put dodgy images up on a website, and then said "Taken by such-and-such" - but then I have no problem with that being illegal, that would be a case of false or misleading information. But if they just put up the images, how's that a problem?

    a DVD of low resolution images

    Wait, all that waffle about reputation, yet they're happy to give out low resolution images for public websites?! Why not high quality ones - both for the benefit of the married couple, and so that the photographer's poor little reputation isn't tarnished?

    (I write code for a living. Should I retain copyright, so my "reputation" isn't harmed if my company does something stupid with it?)

  80. Oddly toned post by Spittoon · · Score: 2, Insightful
    Normally /. is all "I paid for [media file] so I own it and can do what I want with it" in opposition to the copyright holders who are like "No, you just licensed it, we own it and can take it back or prevent you from copying it if we want".

    Here, are we to feel that the people who paid for the code don't own it and can't do what they want with it? Are developers acting the part of the MPAA now?

    Lots of the responses are like "you own what you contractually purchased, according to said contract", which is cool 'cause that's what I think should be the case.

    But the tone of the original post is Weird.

    1. Re:Oddly toned post by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It is weird.

      The obvious solution to his problem would be to offer the contract with a couple of options:

      Option 1: Do the job using this guys custom libraries, which he would retain ownership of

      Option 2: Do the job using open source libraries, which would come with those restrictions

      Option 3: Do the job as a complete custom job, where the client owns it all.

      Three options, 3 prices. Pretty easy if you ask me.

  81. Mod parent informative by MacDork · · Score: 1

    Just sayin'

  82. Title 17, Chapter 1 by muridae · · Score: 1

    I do admit to typing hastily and badly mangling details. I had company and didn't want to spend long discussing this. Changing the house that you own is perfectly fine, all legal and dandy. Reproducing the house into a blueprint would not be alright, if the blueprint was copyrighted in modern times because of all those Bono and Disney extensions on what a copyright covers. Taking a blueprint that you licensed for a single building and building two would go against your contract, invalidating it and probably causing a copyright violation. Same works if you just measure the work and have someone else recreate it; reproduction of a copyrighted work. You could not photocopy a book, then type from that and claim it was not infringement because the photocopy was not copyrighted.

    However, to respond to the 'bullshit', you could have at least read about photography and copyright. There is an exemption for photographing copyrighted (or other) articles if they are out in public. Otherwise, a photographer taking a picture of a recently made statue would be in violation of copyright laws. If you wanted to point out that I misrepresented Title 17, Chapter 1, Section 120 of the Copyright Act, you better damn well get both points right next time. Since that only covers the modification of buildings, and the photographing of them, I would have to dig around to find the exemption for articles of clothing. I seem to remember it relies on the inability for an average viewer of the photo to discern whether the shirt in question belongs to BigNameDesigner or is just a Chinese knock-off. You see this a lot in TV shows where, if a brand name would show up, it is 'greeked' out. My suspicion is that the same legal ruling there is what holds for photographers. But I wouldn't push my luck by trying to photograph a model wearing a one-of-a-kind Dior gown and later using it commercially without a valid model release for the model, and the gown. Possibly an application section 113 C, but I really would need more time to dig around.

    blast, still can't get § to show up as the Section character. Oh well, too tired.

    1. Re:Title 17, Chapter 1 by goombah99 · · Score: 1

      interestingly that photography exception has been contested lately. A stamp showing the korean war memorial has been sued for infrigement.

      http://www.techdirt.com/articles/20090804/0116455762.shtml

      http://www.floridapatentlawyerblog.com/2010/02/photographer-sued-over-photo-o.html

      --
      Some drink at the fountain of knowledge. Others just gargle.
    2. Re:Title 17, Chapter 1 by muridae · · Score: 1

      Multiple problems here. The monument and statue were made before 1990, so AWCPA doesn't hold immediately. Wouldn't anyways, because they are no human-inhabitable. So, no public photography exemption there. What the real stretch will come down to is whether the courts find that a publicly displayed architectural item includes pieces of art, or just buildings.

      What gets really strange is that the photograph of the statues is not the problem in the case of the war memorial. The plaintiff, nor the court, seemed to suggest that the photographer did not have copyright of the picture as a legitimate derivative work. In fact, in the most recent ruling on Feb 25, the opinions included that the photographer did have copyright protection on the photo. The problem, in that case, only exists between the US government and the person who created the statues. What will be interesting is to see if Gaylord turns and sues the photographer for selling prints of the picture next.

      The other cases, I can see lots of ways that copyright could be enforced for the sculptor that would not imping upon a photographer's rights either. They will be interesting to follow, though

  83. You may own your work - it depends... on... by itsybitsy · · Score: 1

    "If someone pays you to perform work, they own all rights to that work."

    No, it's not so cut and dry.

    If you are an independent contractor or have a company that has a contract with the client it depends upon your contact terms with the default being that the person who does the work owning it.

    If you're an employee working for the company you do the work for then they own the work.

    If you're an employee of company X and do work on your own time for company Y then it could go either way. Again it depends on either your employment contract or if company X and company Y are in the same line of business or not. If they are then company X owns the work and you might get in trouble moonlighting and profiting without them knowing. If they are not in the same business and your employment agreement allows you to own your own work off hours then you own the work and company Y doesn't nor does company X.

    It all depends. Consult a lawyer.

    Whenever I'm an employee (which I haven't been in more than two decades) I always have a clause and an appendix that excludes all my previous works and their derivatives and certain areas of projects that I'm working on. As long as you're not working on stuff that is the same line of business as your employer then it's likely that they'll likely have no problem with such clauses. If they do then maybe reconsider them as an employer if you have that financial option. Or put your project on hold till the non-compete clauses expire (non-compete clauses are not valid in all jurisdictions).

    Again, see a lawyer.

  84. Clarification by mr_matticus · · Score: 1

    The default owner of the copyright holder is the creator. When that is done by the will of the artist, the default owner is the artist. When the artist is hired by a patron, the patron is the default owner.

    Agh. That didn't come out right. It should read as follows:

    The default owner of the copyrights is the creator. When the creation is done by the will of the artist, the creator is the artist. When the artist is hired by a patron, the patron is the creator as a matter of law (and the artist merely an agent of the creator).

    In other words, as said in my earlier comment, there is no presumption that the artist is the creator when the work is a commissioned one; the presumption is that the commissioner is the creator.