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First-Sale Doctrine Lost Overseas

Max Hyre writes "In a 4-4 decision, the US Supreme court let stand the Ninth Circuit's decision that the First-Sale Doctrine (which says once you buy something, the maker gets no say in what you do with it) only applies to goods made in the US. That Omega watch you bought in Switzerland last year? It's yours now—forever. You can't sell it without Omega's permission."

775 comments

  1. First sale doctrine by just_another_sean · · Score: 5, Insightful

    That is the most absurd and arbitrary distinction I've ever heard. A law of convenience if I ever heard of one. One step closer to stripping our rights in the name of international legal harmony.

    --
    Creationist Textbook Stickers Declared Unconstitutional by CowboyNeal
    1. Re:First sale doctrine by Massacrifice · · Score: 5, Interesting

      Just wait till the chinese manufacturers start toying with one. Want to sell your used motherboard on craigslist? Sorry, no can do, this luxuriuously ASUS-branded product was sold to YOU and only YOU.

      Considering the amount of stuff that gets produced abroad, I suspect this decision will soon be so full of holes and exceptions that it wont be an issue.

      --
      -- Home is where you eat your heart out.
    2. Re:First sale doctrine by jcr · · Score: 2, Informative

      If this is the worst one you've ever heard of, then you're not very familiar with the history of the court. Look up a few of their previous failures, like Wickard v. Filburn, Kelo v. New Haven, and Gonzales v. Raich.

      -jcr

      --
      The only title of honor that a tyrant can grant is "Enemy of the State."
    3. Re:First sale doctrine by Agent00Wang · · Score: 1

      Do you mean Kelo v. New London?

      --
      NINJA SPIRIT - The Ancient Art of Insanity
    4. Re:First sale doctrine by TheCarp · · Score: 1

      Meh... all it means is thats the law they will enforce. Its not like there is anything actually stopping you from selling it. You can sell anything you want, even stuff they ban. All they can do is pubnish you or rule against you in the highly unlikely event that you end up in court over it.

      Like most of their silly rules, you can ignore this all you want, as long as you don't get caught.

      -Steve

      --
      "I opened my eyes, and everything went dark again"
    5. Re:First sale doctrine by Z8 · · Score: 2

      It's Kelo v. New London, not New Haven.

      You're going back a ways because Wickard v Filburn was in 1942. Then the Dred Scott slavery decision might be in the running for worst SCOTUS decisions.

    6. Re:First sale doctrine by mr.newt · · Score: 1

      More like international legal hegemony.

    7. Re:First sale doctrine by commodore64_love · · Score: 5, Interesting

      Dred Scott may have been an immoral ruling, but it was also legally correct. Under the Union Constitution, each member state had freedom to decide if blacks were Citizens or Property. The justices did what they were supposed to do: Enforce the law as written. It was upto the Congress/States to change the law (via amendment) not the courts.

      In contrast Wickard v. Filburn can not be justified in any context. It gave the Union government power to tell a man he was not allowed to grow food for his OWN consumption. That is not what the Supreme Law says, nor the original intent of the authors. ----- Intrastate commerce is the purview of the Member State - alone. In fact: Eating your own food isn't even commerce. Period.

      --
      "I disapprove of what you say, but I will defend to the death your right to say it." - historian Evelyn Beatrice Hall
    8. Re:First sale doctrine by icebike · · Score: 2

      It has the side effect of sending more manufacturing (and publishing) overseas in order for the manufacturer to build in their own First Sale exemption.

      Publish in London, (even if you Print in the US) and hang that little "Not for Resale" sticker on every book you print.
      Package your game disks in Korea, and forbid resale outright.

      This should be addressed in Congress, but unfortunately they are too busy stripping our other rights to worry about this issue.

      --
      Sig Battery depleted. Reverting to safe mode.
    9. Re:First sale doctrine by Kpau · · Score: 0

      This decision makes makes my brain hurt. "Intellectual property" is shoving the species into Idiocracy....

    10. Re:First sale doctrine by Victor_0x53h · · Score: 2

      In keeping with the Omega Swiss watch analogy. What could they possibly do; extradite me to Switzerland for the charges? Wait.. Switzerland is not Sweden? Never mind the rape joke then.

    11. Re:First sale doctrine by BassMan449 · · Score: 5, Insightful

      Wickard v. Filburn is easily the worst decision the Supreme Court ever made. The twisted logic that they went through to conclude that by not participating in commerce he had effected commerce and was therefore subject to regulation is absurd.

    12. Re:First sale doctrine by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You are correct on all counts. Well put

    13. Re:First sale doctrine by Volante3192 · · Score: 1

      In contrast Wickard v. Filburn can not be justified in any context.

      First, justify 239 bushels extra, nearly equivalent to his allotment, for personal use.

    14. Re:First sale doctrine by Lilith's+Heart-shape · · Score: 5, Informative

      I can top it. In Santa Clara County v. Southern Pacific Railroad, 118 U.S. 394 (1886), the SCOTUS decided that corporations were people and thus entitled to 14th amendment protection.

    15. Re:First sale doctrine by clone52431 · · Score: 2

      Under the Union Constitution, each member state had freedom to decide if blacks were Citizens or Property.

      So every state gets the freedom to decide for themselves whether black people are people? What other conditions do states have the right to place on a person’s “person-hood”? Do we really need a constitutional amendment to clarify that yes, people are actually people?

      We the People of the United States, in Order to form a more perfect Union, establish Justice, insure domestic Tranquility, provide for the common defence, promote the general Welfare, and secure the Blessings of Liberty to ourselves and our Posterity, do ordain and establish this Constitution for the United States of America...

      --
      Distributed Denial of APK: It takes 15 seconds to reply to him anonymously, but wastes tons of his time if we all do it.
    16. Re:First sale doctrine by AdamThor · · Score: 2

      Like most of their silly rules, you can ignore this all you want, as long as you don't get caught.

      Don't fall for that one. Accept the rule now thinking it's unenforceable, and you'll find yourself screwed when they find a way to enforce it.

      --
      -- "Oh. This guy again."
    17. Re:First sale doctrine by PopeRatzo · · Score: 4, Insightful

      Do we really need a constitutional amendment to clarify that yes, people are actually people?

      No, but we certainly need a constitutional amendment to clarify that no, corporations are not actually people.

      --
      You are welcome on my lawn.
    18. Re:First sale doctrine by HermMunster · · Score: 1

      What reference is the Constitution permitted people to be sold as property? What specifically did they say was the constitutional clause that granted States the right to sell another human being as property (albeit those with black skin)? And how could a black person be free in any State that allowed people to be sold as property? Either they are people or they are property. That in and of itself is the real moral issue. We let the SCOTUS decide on a law that wasn't really legal--and that was their responsibility. They were wrong on all counts.

      --
      You can lead a man with reason but you can't make him think.
    19. Re:First sale doctrine by BassMan449 · · Score: 3, Insightful

      While that decision was very questionable and has some terrible consequences, I think it pales in comparison to the effect of the Filburn decision. The Filburn decision was a massive expansion in Federal power. Using the twisted logic of SCOTUS, Congress could basically justify any law they wanted to pass. Until United States v. Lopez, Congress had a largely limitless power under the Commerce Clause. Even using a liberal interpretation of the Commerce Clause, most federal laws in place today are probably not Constitutionally sound without the Filburn decision.

    20. Re:First sale doctrine by sumdumass · · Score: 2

      It should make your brain hurt. There are nine supreme court justices, why in the hell is only 8 splitting a ruling for?

      It would seem to me that even if the case was started before a vacancy was created, that in the case of a tie, replacement would be required to review the facts including watching recordings of the pleadings and so on and break that tie. That's what happened in Ohio when Chief Justice Thomas Moyer passed away unexpectedly. The entire reason for an odd number on the court is to stop ties from happening.

    21. Re:First sale doctrine by operagost · · Score: 1

      Long-term storage. Next.
      Let's face it: this was all based on failed FDR fascist policies that caused people to starve just so the President could tinker with the economy.

      --

      Gamingmuseum.com: Give your 3D accelerator a rest.
    22. Re:First sale doctrine by afabbro · · Score: 4, Insightful

      Under the Union Constitution, each member state had freedom to decide if blacks were Citizens or Property.

      So every state gets the freedom to decide for themselves whether black people are people? What other conditions do states have the right to place on a person’s “person-hood”? Do we really need a constitutional amendment to clarify that yes, people are actually people?

      We the People of the United States, in Order to form a more perfect Union, establish Justice, insure domestic Tranquility, provide for the common defence, promote the general Welfare, and secure the Blessings of Liberty to ourselves and our Posterity, do ordain and establish this Constitution for the United States of America...

      Dude, wipe the foam off your chin and read some history. Yes, we did need an amendment. Yes, we have one. We did not have it at the time the Dred Scot decision was handed down.

      Quoting the preamble means nothing. At the time it was written, blacks were not considered part of "We the People". Have you actually read any history, or don't they teach that at your high school any more?

      --
      Advice: on VPS providers
    23. Re:First sale doctrine by jbeach · · Score: 1

      Disagree.

      First, SCOTUS judges have the Constitutional power to strike down laws entirely. The SCOTUS could have overruled Missouri and freed Scott, and still been "legally correct".

      Second, Dred Scott was actually legally incorrect as well as immoral. Driven by fears of a Civil War on behalf of James Buchanan - probably the worst President in US history - the SCOTUS ruled:

      1. slaves were not citizens so they had no right to sue anyone in court, even in non-slave states
      2. no one who was once a slave could be freed by moving to a non-slave state.
      3. most significantly, when new territories became states they would NOT be allowed to ban slavery within their boundaries. And this in fact was a significant overstep - the court had no legal right to declare this, as it wasn't even before the court.
      4. blacks were inferior anyway, so this would keep them from moving to different states to be free and thus upsetting white people.

      Overall a putrid, horrid and awful ruling in every way. But worth studying, just to note how far we have actually moved as a society - at least in the US.

      --
      The Invisible Hand of the Free Market is what punches workers in the nuts.
    24. Re:First sale doctrine by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      Quoth TFWPA:

      A farmer, Roscoe Filburn, was growing wheat to feed his chickens.

    25. Re:First sale doctrine by skids · · Score: 2

      In ties, the lower court's ruling is upheld IIRC. Kagan had to recuse.

    26. Re:First sale doctrine by operagost · · Score: 2

      Do we really need a constitutional amendment to clarify that yes, people are actually people?

      Yes, actually we did. We even have amendments to clarify that the freedoms of speech, religion, and self-defense are freedoms, but people try to take them away every day.
      The history of civil rights is too long and complex to argue about on Slashdot. Most of what people think they know about slavery is wrong, because they were taught lies in school. For example, the 3/5 rule for representation.

      --

      Gamingmuseum.com: Give your 3D accelerator a rest.
    27. Re:First sale doctrine by westlake · · Score: 1

      Dred Scott may have been an immoral ruling, but it was also legally correct. Under the Union Constitution, each member state had freedom to decide if blacks were Citizens or Property. The justices did what they were supposed to do: Enforce the law as written. It was upto the Congress/States to change the law (via amendment) not the courts.

      From the Wikipedia:

      According to the Court, the authors of the Constitution had viewed all blacks as beings of an inferior order, and altogether unfit to associate with the white race, either in social or political relations, and so far inferior that they had no rights which the white man was bound to respect. The Court also presented a parade of horribles argument as to the feared results of granting Mr. Scott's petition:
      "It would give to persons of the negro race, ...the right to enter every other State whenever they pleased, ...the full liberty of speech in public and in private upon all subjects upon which its own citizens might speak; to hold public meetings upon political affairs, and to keep and carry arms wherever they went." Scott was not a citizen of Missouri, and the federal courts therefore lacked jurisdiction to hear the dispute.
      Despite the conclusion that the Court lacked jurisdiction, however, it went on to hold (in what Republicans would label its "obiter dictum" that Scott was not a free man, even though he had resided for a time in Minnesota (then called the Wisconsin Territory). The Court held that the provisions of the Missouri Compromise declaring it to be free territory were beyond Congress's power to enact. The Court rested its decision on the grounds that Congress's power to acquire territories and create governments within those territories was limited. They held that the Fifth Amendment barred any law that would deprive a slaveholder of his property, such as his slaves, because he had brought them into a free territory. The Court went on to state -- although the issue was not before the Court -- that the territorial legislatures had no power to ban slavery. The ruling also asserted that neither slaves "nor their descendants, were embraced in any of the other provisions of the Constitution" that protected non-citizens.
      This was only the second time in United States history that the Supreme Court had found an act of Congress to be unconstitutional. (The first time was 54 years earlier in Marbury v. Madison).


      The dissents by Curtis and McLean also attacked the Court's overturning of the Missouri Compromise on its merits, noting both that it was not necessary to decide the question, and also that none of the authors of the Constitution had ever objected on constitutional grounds to the United States Congress' adoption of the antislavery provisions of the Northwest Ordinance passed by the Continental Congress, or the subsequent acts that barred slavery north of 3630' N.
        Nor, these justices argued, was there any Constitutional basis for the claim that blacks could not be citizens. At the time of the ratification of the Constitution, black men could vote in ten of the thirteen states. This made them citizens not only of their states but of the United States. (By the time of the Dred Scott ruling, however, five of the ten states that allowed black men to vote had either restricted this right in some way or completely withheld it.) Therefore, Justice McLean concluded that the argument that Scott was not a citizen was "more a matter of taste than of law."
      Dred Scott v. Sandford

      The Dred Scott decision (1857) destroyed whatever constitutional framework remained for a national political settlement.

    28. Re:First sale doctrine by VortexCortex · · Score: 5, Insightful

      I can top it. In Santa Clara County v. Southern Pacific Railroad, 118 U.S. 394 (1886), the SCOTUS decided that corporations were people and thus entitled to 14th amendment protection.

      Yes, Corporations, have all the benefits of being 'people', none of the drawbacks (such as finite life spans), and obey few of the laws that other 'people' must observe.

      Corporations are free to merge with many other corporations, while polygamy is still illegal for 'people' in most states.

      Corporations are allowed to have business practices such as "cutting off the competitor's air supply" while murder is still illegal for 'people'.

      Corporations are allowed to be dissolved yet Suicide is illegal for 'people' to commit.

      Corporations can have 'hostile takeovers' of other weaker corporations, but armed robbery, slavery, and blackmail are all still illegal for other categories of 'people'.

      It would be pure anarchy and rule of the corrupt and powerful if real human 'people' were given the same rights as corporate entities have. Laws against things such as murder are in effect to help maintain order and security of society.

      Feudalism, chaos and insecurity reign supreme among our most wealthiest 'people', the corporations; Some of us fight for less regulation and then wonder why the economic society is so chaotic and insecure...

    29. Re:First sale doctrine by Austerity+Empowers · · Score: 1

      This is like a math or physics class, what is the legal definition of "people". Our view today may not have been the view held for a long time in the US (and some other places). The constitution lives up (or down) to it's purpose, enabling the will of the people to define their own concept of freedom.

      In this case, it was not a very magnanimous concept.

    30. Re:First sale doctrine by lgw · · Score: 1

      Put differently: each state absolutely had the right to decide whether slavery was legal. The only legitimate way to change that was with a constitutional amendment. The completely wrong way to change that would be the modern way: for the SCOTUS to just invent some justification for ignoring the text of the constitution. In the occurance, the states were forced to agree to the 13th amendment, but the US did amend the constitution instead of just ignoring it.

      --
      Socialism: a lie told by totalitarians and believed by fools.
    31. Re:First sale doctrine by operagost · · Score: 1

      Do yourself a favor and research the history of slavery in the USA before you post again. It was implied that the People could sell non-free persons, not states. Slave owners could demand their escaped slaves be returned to them; that's where the states' rights came in. Black people were not considered property; slaves were. Of course, there were times when crooks claimed a free black was an escaped slave.
      That is how the Constitution works, and it still bears the scars of our sins.

      --

      Gamingmuseum.com: Give your 3D accelerator a rest.
    32. Re:First sale doctrine by lgw · · Score: 1

      The constitution permitted slavery - everything else follows from that. The correct fix was the 13th amendment. The wrong solution would have been to decide that someone's personal opinions about "moral issues" was more important that the constitution. If enough people agree about some "moral issue", then the related constitutional amendment will pass.

      --
      Socialism: a lie told by totalitarians and believed by fools.
    33. Re:First sale doctrine by sumdumass · · Score: 4, Informative

      It doesn't matter if he grew twice the amount he could use in a year. The federal government simply does not have jurisdiction inside the state on matters that the US constitution doesn't grant it.

      FDR probably said it best when he said

      "As a matter of fact and law, the governing rights of the States are all of those which have not been
      surrendered to the National Government by the Constitution or its amendments. Wisely or unwisely,
      people know that under the Eighteenth Amendment Congress has been given the right to legislate on this particular subject1, but this is not the case in the matter of a great number of other vital problems of government, such as the conduct of public utilities, of banks, of insurance, of business, of agriculture, of education, of social welfare and of a dozen other important features. In these, Washington must not be encouraged to interfere."

      He said this in a speech about the Volstead Act which was printed in its entirety on March 3, 1930 by the New York Times. Of course this was two years before he became president and set the stage as well as the motion in works for the expansion of the interstate commerce clause in the US constitution.

      You see, no one has to justify anything to something that never should have been allowed to happen. If the guy was participating in interstate commerce, then the feds get jurisdiction. He did not sell in interstate commerce so it was solely a state matter. If the state enacted the same laws and brought the same prosecution about, it never would have reached the supreme court unless something in the state constitution bared that type of law, seeing how US constitution specifically gives the states this jurisdiction within the state.

    34. Re:First sale doctrine by postbigbang · · Score: 1

      Sotomayor had to recuse herself.

      The four running dog lackeys of Business America threw in their lack of wisdom.

      The First Sale Doctrine jurisdictional domain was bent into the 11th dimension. Yet the rubric regarding selling your own Omega watch is false. Do what you want with impunity, IMHO. If you can't do that, then your BMW, even your Hitachi stereo can't be resold without permission.

      I don't think that was their intention. Nonetheless, SCOTUS protects vendors heavily, rather than We The People. Let the Libertarians Begin.

      --
      ---- Teach Peace. It's Cheaper Than War.
    35. Re:First sale doctrine by operagost · · Score: 1

      I know you love the progressives and their wonderful programs, but really, telling a guy he can't eat the food he grew is much worse. You're depriving a citizen of his property.

      --

      Gamingmuseum.com: Give your 3D accelerator a rest.
    36. Re:First sale doctrine by corbettw · · Score: 1

      Have you heard of a little thing called the 13th Amendment to the US Constitution? Prior to its passage, each state could, and did, do exactly that: decide whether blacks were people worthy of respect or just chattel.

      So yes, we needed a Constitutional Amendment to say people are people.

      --
      God invented whiskey so the Irish would not rule the world.
    37. Re:First sale doctrine by lgw · · Score: 1

      Technically, the constitution does not gove the SCOTUS any power to strike down laws. The court gave itself that power, and it continues as a tradition.

      From a legal basis, only your 3rd point makes any sense. The rest "only" seem objectionable from a moral basis. That 3rd point is IMO the root cause for the Civil War (the South wanting to export slaves to new markets to keep their whole economic system from collapsing).

      --
      Socialism: a lie told by totalitarians and believed by fools.
    38. Re:First sale doctrine by sumdumass · · Score: 1

      It wasn't about whether black people were people, it was whether they were citizens or not which allowed them to be treated differently then American "citizens". And yes, it took a constitutional amendment to clarify that blacks, if the meet the same criteria as white people, were actually citizens too and they got the same protections as other citizens.

      And your reference to the preamble of the US constitution sort of shows a little ignorance on this subject. Despite it being non-binding, it clearly signifies that the people "of the United States", not foreigners, illegal aliens, transvestite martians, cartoons, or people not qualified for citizenship but here legally.

      The problems wasn't that legally that blacks weren't people, the problem was that legally, they could never be citizens. This is something they started a couple hundred years before the US became a country as a way to suppress rebellion collaboration between white indentured servants who could eventually become citizens and have rights and slaves who could never become citizens and would never have rights.

    39. Re:First sale doctrine by random+coward · · Score: 5, Informative

      The Bill of Rights to the constitution grants no rights. Its evident if you read it. The first amendment reads:

      "Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances."


      It doesn't say it grants any rights or freedoms. It recognizes the freedom and rights of the people that already existed. Indeed to be even more clear the 9th amendment reads

      "The enumeration in the Constitution, of certain rights, shall not be construed to deny or disparage others retained by the people."

      Where do these other rights come from if you think they come from the constitution? Clearly the founders of our country realized that the rights of men were not granted by governments, but came from some other higher power; they said so in the Declaration of Independence. Your views on rights being granted at whim by the government lead to a statist tyranny. Dread Scott was wrong on law and on the merits.

    40. Re:First sale doctrine by notque · · Score: 0

      You're right, but you don't have to be such a dick about it.

      --
      http://use.perl.org
    41. Re:First sale doctrine by Lilith's+Heart-shape · · Score: 0

      I know you love the progressives and their wonderful programs...

      Fuck you and the ad hominem you rode in on.

    42. Re:First sale doctrine by ari_j · · Score: 1

      In Nix v. Hedden, 149 U.S. 304 (1893), SCOTUS held as a matter of law that tomatoes are vegetables.

    43. Re:First sale doctrine by qeveren · · Score: 1

      Wickard v. Filburn can not be justified in any context. It gave the Union government power to tell a man he was not allowed to grow food for his OWN consumption. That is not what the Supreme Law says, nor the original intent of the authors. ----- Intrastate commerce is the purview of the Member State - alone. In fact: Eating your own food isn't even commerce. Period.

      Of course it can, with enough sophistry. Obviously if he's growing his own food, he's not buying food. If he's not buying food, he's not spending his money into the interstate food trade, thus impacting interstate trade. See? Easy.

      --
      Don't just stand there, get that other dog!
    44. Re:First sale doctrine by sumdumass · · Score: 1

      Actually, it doesn't work that way. This ruling only applies to goods sold overseas and then imported into the US by the same person.

      If you purchase something in the US, US law applies and so does the first sale doctrine. IF you purchase it in London, and there is a law saying they have control over it's distribution, then that law is still binding when you bring it back to the US.

      What was at stake here isn't really that someone can't sell something. It's that the watch maker was selling it cheaper in other parts of the world and Cosco purchased it off the street there for cheaper and sold it cheaper then the retailer could get it from the original manufacturer. But since Costco purchased it in a foreign country, those laws apply to the ownership of the property as purchased. Costco could certainly purchase it in the US baring any contract stating otherwise they might have with the manufacturer, and sell it below costs under US law. They could sell it to you at their contracted price then you would have complete first sale doctrine over it. The sticky part is purchasing it under one set of laws and attempting to have another apply to it later.

    45. Re:First sale doctrine by jbeach · · Score: 1

      I can sort-of-but-noq-quite agree re:SCOTUS' ability to strike down laws. This is a power that was directly given but was presumed implied in the Constitution, and has become the Supreme Court's power by precedent - and this precedent had been well established before Dred Scott.

      So striking down laws would have been legally correct and Constitutionally permitted in Dred Scott, via the power of precedent.

      But as re: the other points -

      1 - If Dred Scott was not and could not be a citizen, it would have been legally correct to simply dismiss the case. Any further judgements would be moot and thus legally incorrect.

      4 - this was also not relevant to the matter before the court, so including this as a reason for the ruling is legally as well as morally incorrect also.

      --
      The Invisible Hand of the Free Market is what punches workers in the nuts.
    46. Re:First sale doctrine by Kymermosst · · Score: 2

      Isn't that the exact argument they use for the validity of the individual mandate in the new health care legislation?

      Not buying health insurance (commerce) is participating in commerce and therefore it is mandatory that you purchase a specific thing?

      Or, is it the fact that if you participate in *any* commerce then you can be subject to the individual mandate, and as long as you don't buy, sell, or trade anything you're OK?

      --
      "Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Explosives" should be a convenience store, not a government agency.
    47. Re:First sale doctrine by superdave80 · · Score: 1
      Reading the summary for Wickard v. Filbum, I can't believe the twisted logic that the court used to lump his wheat in with the entire wheat market:

      ...if Filburn had not used home-grown wheat he would have had to buy wheat on the open market.

      What the hell? Do chickens ONLY eat wheat? If he grew corn to feed his chickens, would that be OK? If so, what the hell is the difference? And what if he bought the wheat from his next door neighbor (and thus not interstate commerce)? Lawyers/judges seem to have no sense of reality when concocting their decisions and arguments...

    48. Re:First sale doctrine by ari_j · · Score: 1

      Classic ways to become despised in law school: Argue the majority position in Dred Scott v. Sandford, even if you intend merely to play devil's advocate to get an actual discussion of the law off everyone's chests. If you divorce the discussion from the point that Dred Scott was a member of Homo sapiens, which was at the time a legally irrelevant point, then the case was correctly decided. But it turns out that people today are simply not able to divorce the discussion from that point.

      Similarly, it appears that many people today are not able to divorce the discussion of the constitutionality of the Obama health insurance mandate from their moral perception that everyone is entitled to health care without regard to ability to pay for it, and end up despising anyone who takes up the position that the mandate is not a permissible act under the interstate commerce clause of the federal constitution.

      But we're really afield of the topic at hand by this point.

    49. Re:First sale doctrine by ArundelCastle · · Score: 1

      While I initially dismissed the summary as FUD, given that TFA refers purely to the practices of resellers like Costco, the core issue from the SCOTUS blog is more fundamental.

      Plain English Issue: Under the first-sale doctrine of copyright law, someone who purchases a copyrighted work (like a book) can later sell the work to someone else without the permission of the copyright holder (e.g., the book’s author). Does the “first-sale doctrine” apply to imported works manufactured abroad? (Kagan, J., recused).

      Aside from books, which are often printed in Canada, I buy a lot of second hand and yes imported video games, normally made in Asia by foreign companies.
      If Nintendo and Sony wanted to end the used sales market, they just got given a big gun. Microsoft however seems out of luck by virtue of making goods for a local market? The 9th circuit ruling is based on Omega being a Swiss company, even though it has authorized resellers (of which Costco isn't) in the states. If they are suggesting (as TFA notes) that purely foreign *manufactured* goods are exempt, this flies in the face of existing international conventions of copyright (something I am writing a paper on right now) which say that copyright conventions are enforced locally by all member nations. First sale notwithstanding, Swiss goods have long been subject to US copyright law within the US. The overhead for enforcing international laws locally would crush an already collapsing legal system. Tariffs and duty exist to deter the fact that goods are being imported/exported to other markets by third parties.

      Realistically I think this may be a decision with no teeth, once watchdogs start pointing out that every family member of every US lawmaker continues to buy things off eBay, Amazon, Craigslist, and second hand stores. These retail vectors of course will claim no responsibility for what is sold via their systems. These same laws are hurting capitalism at the expense of corporatism, which then hurts the corporations because people can no longer engage in capitalism to help buy more of their goods. Vicious.

    50. Re:First sale doctrine by superdave80 · · Score: 1

      First, justify 239 bushels extra,...

      He was using it feed his chickens. So, he was growing wheat on his private property to feed to his chickens also on his property... but the feds and courts said that wasn't allowed???

    51. Re:First sale doctrine by Moryath · · Score: 2

      This is the kind of crap that congress ought to overturn in a heartbeat.

      Unfortunately, the Republcrats and Demicans are so much both in the pocket of giant megacorporations that it's never going to happen. Once again, the two-party system means "bend over, consumers, here it comes again."

    52. Re:First sale doctrine by icebike · · Score: 1

      Follow the link to the article where it states clearly:

      Manufacturers that like to engage in price discrimination by selling goods overseas for prices below what they charge in more affluent markets now have a powerful tool to prevent retailers from importing those goods and selling them in the U.S.

      By preventing the import they prevent the sale, or can impose conditions on the sale, because the only thing preventing them from imposing such conditions is the first sale doctrine.

      It doesn't matter where you bought it, it matters where they made it.

      --
      Sig Battery depleted. Reverting to safe mode.
    53. Re:First sale doctrine by jonbryce · · Score: 1

      Animals are still permitted to be sold as property. You do need to explain to some people that negros are people and not animals, because it is concept that the racist mind struggles with.

    54. Re:First sale doctrine by blair1q · · Score: 3, Informative

      The irony there is that they had actually decided no such thing, but a clerk was allowed to decide whether to add a note to the opinion that they hadn't decided it because the justices all believed that it was so. If he hadn't added that note, the decision would never have mentioned it, and it would have been left to later cases to decide it.

      In reality, since it's not part of the decision, courts should actually now be deciding it all over again, but the Supreme Court, being answerable to nobody and at liberty to interpret the words in the Constitution as it pleases, seems to like it the way it is. At least, the 5 of them anointed by Republican Presidents do.

    55. Re:First sale doctrine by Binestar · · Score: 1

      Actually, you should read the 13th and 14th amendment and see that YES, we did need an amendment to clarify that yes, people are actually people.

      --
      Do you Gentoo!?
    56. Re:First sale doctrine by clone52431 · · Score: 2

      At the time it was written, blacks were not considered part of "We the People".

      They were wrong. That doesn’t mean the Constitution was wrong or needed to be changed, only that their interpretation of it was wrong and needed to be changed.

      --
      Distributed Denial of APK: It takes 15 seconds to reply to him anonymously, but wastes tons of his time if we all do it.
    57. Re:First sale doctrine by Smauler · · Score: 1

      Seriously, I'm a little shocked by looking at those first two judgements. I really did think that people in the US had more rights over their land than we do in the UK. "Home-grown wheat in this sense competes with wheat in commerce. The stimulation of commerce is a use of the regulatory function quite as definitely as prohibitions or restrictions thereon."

      That is a massively scary precedent... it implies growing or producing _anything_ for yourself is liable to federal intervention.

      I don't think we have these kind of systems in the UK - If you want to sell anything, you're in the loop, and there are animal welfare issues too... but apart from that, you can do what you like with your land, as long as you don't annoy your neighbours.

    58. Re:First sale doctrine by dargaud · · Score: 1

      Charles Stross' science-ficiton book 'Accelerando' has this interesting twist about the singularity: it posits that the first artificial intelligences that grow out of the singularity won't be benevolent unuversity lab creations, or extensions of human minds, but corporate tools taking over corporations... with interesting consequences. Like you say, they already have way more rights than we puny humans do...

      --
      Non-Linux Penguins ?
    59. Re:First sale doctrine by falconwolf · · Score: 1

      Want to sell your used motherboard on craigslist? Sorry, no can do, this luxuriuously ASUS-branded product was sold to YOU and only YOU.

      I'll give it to you free, but shipping will cost $200.

      Falcon

    60. Re:First sale doctrine by roman_mir · · Score: 4, Informative

      Oh, jeez, and I wanted to moderate this story.

      Well, not anymore I won't.

      Here is a huge correction to your statement:

      The Supreme Court has NEVER said that corporations were people!

      It has never happened.

      The sentence in question was added YEARS after the decision on that case was made, it was added by a clerk who did that on purpose in order to change the law all by himself.

      http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=wHmGEkzhhfQ - skip to minute 5 in the video and listen for a couple of minutes.

    61. Re:First sale doctrine by dgatwood · · Score: 1

      Yeah, but this decision hurts American companies, granting special rights to foreign companies. I'd expect Congress to practically trample each other rushing into their chambers to pass a law that overturns this. Of course, it could go either way whether they pass a law to give back the right of first sale or to similarly take it away for American-made goods. Just depends on which greedy dirtbag companies get their lobbyists in the door first.

      --

      Check out my sci-fi/humor trilogy at PatriotsBooks.

    62. Re:First sale doctrine by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

      Don't knock 'pure' anarchy till you've tried it. At this moment in the history of your country it may be the more equitable option.

    63. Re:First sale doctrine by falconwolf · · Score: 1

      It should make your brain hurt. There are nine supreme court justices, why in the hell is only 8 splitting a ruling for?

      Why only 8 votes? Because the new Justice, though injustice is more appropriate here, is Elena Kagan who before her approval was President Barack Obama’s solicitor general and she argued before the USSC that they should decline to hear the case, that the 9th U.S. Circuit Court of Appeals had reached the right conclusion.

      Falcon

    64. Re:First sale doctrine by StubNewellsFarm · · Score: 2

      Dred Scott was both immoral and wrong as a matter of law.

      The decision went well beyond the constitution in ruling that descendants of slaves could never become citizens, even if they were not and never had been slaves. The issue of descendants was irrelevant to the Dred Scott case (Dred Scott was a slave) and, in any case, the judgement that the constitution forbids descendants of slaves from becoming citizens was and is a bad interpretation of the constitution.

      To make it clear that this stupid decision was, in fact, stupid, we passed an amendment. But the fact that we needed to pass the 14th amendment to correct Taney doesn't mean that Taney was right.

    65. Re:First sale doctrine by falconwolf · · Score: 1

      The four running dog lackeys of Business America threw in their lack of wisdom.

      Trolling? Many businesses, including Costco, will not like this ruling.

      Falcon

    66. Re:First sale doctrine by KevinKnSC · · Score: 1

      So every state gets the freedom to decide for themselves whether black people are people?

      Were it not for this compromise, there probably wouldn't have been a constitution at all.

    67. Re:First sale doctrine by SETIGuy · · Score: 1

      The history of civil rights is too long and complex to argue about on Slashdot. Most of what people think they know about slavery is wrong, because they were taught lies in school. For example, the 3/5 rule for representation.

      I'm not sure what you mean... Do you mean there's no 3/5 rule for representation? If not, you'll have to explain Article I, Section 2, Paragraph 3 to me.

      Representatives and direct taxes shall be apportioned among the several states which may be included within this union, according to their respective numbers, which shall be determined by adding to the whole number of free persons, including those bound to service for a term of years, and excluding Indians not taxed, three fifths of all other Persons.

    68. Re:First sale doctrine by falconwolf · · Score: 1

      This is the kind of crap that congress ought to overturn in a heartbeat.

      Unfortunately, the Republcrats and Demicans are so much both in the pocket of giant megacorporations that it's never going to happen.

      And Costco isn't a giant megacorporation? Walmart, who won't like this ruling either, isn't a large megacorporations either?

      Falcon

    69. Re:First sale doctrine by operagost · · Score: 1

      No, I mean that race-baiting trolls claim that it means black people were considered only 3/5 of a person, when it was meant to help protect the nation from the growth of slavery by reducing the power of slave states.

      --

      Gamingmuseum.com: Give your 3D accelerator a rest.
    70. Re:First sale doctrine by operagost · · Score: 1

      Are you responding to me? I never said the constitution grants any rights.

      --

      Gamingmuseum.com: Give your 3D accelerator a rest.
    71. Re:First sale doctrine by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The fear of libertarianism is the terror that the mediocre feel at the possibility of being judged on their merits.

      Thank you -- that's an excellent illustration of the elitism, as well as the sociopathic nature of libertarianism. You guys crack me up!
      --
      DUH!

    72. Re:First sale doctrine by operagost · · Score: 1

      The same to you and your sock-puppets.

      --

      Gamingmuseum.com: Give your 3D accelerator a rest.
    73. Re:First sale doctrine by Moryath · · Score: 1

      The hell are you smoking?

      Name ONE THING in a Wal-Mart that's still made in America these days.

    74. Re:First sale doctrine by JesseMcDonald · · Score: 1

      Even putting aside the issue of jurisdiction, the purpose of the Interstate Commerce Clause was for the federal government to facilitate free trade between the states. For example, due to the ICC individual states are not permitted to impose tariffs or customs on import or export of goods between their own citizens and those of other states, and it is up to the federal government to provide arbitration for any interstate trade disputes. The ICC was never meant as a justification for the federal government to restrict trade between—or within—states, however, though in practice that is its most common use.

      --
      "The state is that great fiction by which everyone tries to live at the expense of everyone else." - Bastiat
    75. Re:First sale doctrine by HermMunster · · Score: 1

      Because they had caveman mentality back then.

      The framer's of the constitution wanted an undivided nation (or one less so than the alternative) so they were not inclined to divorce the country from slavery.

      --
      You can lead a man with reason but you can't make him think.
    76. Re:First sale doctrine by sumdumass · · Score: 1

      I read a little more on the case.

      It appears that in order for any copyrighted works to be imported into the US for resale, the copyright holder has to give permission for the importation and has a right to control that. It appears that this is independent of the first sale doctrine because the first sale happened outside the US.

      So it's both, where they made it and where they bought it. But once it's legally inside the US, the first sale doctrine clearly applies. At first, I thought this was something concerning a law outside the US, but it's actually US law requiring the permissions to import. Evidently, the 9th circuit court thought that stuck more then the rights after the first sale.

      Still, if it's in the US legally, the first sale doctrine should apply.

    77. Re:First sale doctrine by SETIGuy · · Score: 1

      ...if Filburn had not used home-grown wheat he would have had to buy wheat on the open market.

      What the hell? Do chickens ONLY eat wheat? If he grew corn to feed his chickens, would that be OK?

      The purpose of the law was to raise wheat prices (and most wheat farmers were happy to restrict their production for that purpose and voted to approve the law.) So growing corn, barley, oats, etc. would have been just fine. Buying wheat from his neighbor would be fine, because the supply restriction would cross state lines. Not defending the decision, just clarifying.

      Of course, more than doubling his allotted production leads me to suspect that he intended to sell it, and that the "it's for my chickens" excuse was what he at prepared for if he got caught. Not that that has anything to do with whether the law was constitutional.

    78. Re:First sale doctrine by stonewallred · · Score: 1

      Eh, get your number and the beast will allow you to buy and sell. (disclaimer, as I am an atheist, although Cheney has made me consider that while god ain't real, the devil just may be, and he's scared of Cheney.)

    79. Re:First sale doctrine by falconwolf · · Score: 1

      If this is the worst one you've ever heard of, then you're not very familiar with the history of the court. Look up a few of their previous failures, like Wickard v. Filburn, Kelo v. New Haven, and Gonzales v. Raich.

      I agree about Kelo v. New Haven and Gonzales v. Raich but I don't know or recall Wickard v. Filburn. Let me check it out... Okay, yes that was a bad decision too. A farmer couldn't grow his own wheat to feed his chicken? Line up those injustices and shoot them.

      Falcon

    80. Re:First sale doctrine by sumdumass · · Score: 1

      Yes..

      Thank you for putting it so eloquently.

      Although your explanation of the Interstate Commerce Clause pretty much shows the lack of Jurisdiction of the federal government because the federal government used the ICC in order to justify this prosecution. So even setting other jurisdictional issues aside, the way they attempted to make the law apply is outside their scope of jurisdiction at least on the issue they argued claiming to make it apply. I have no idea if they claimed jurisdiction in another way, I just know they used the ICC in order to prosecute this guy for completely acting intrastate.

    81. Re:First sale doctrine by russotto · · Score: 3, Informative

      In ties, the lower court's ruling is upheld IIRC. Kagan had to recuse.

      I don't think so; IIRC, it's not overturned but doesn't form binding precedent on the other circuits either. I think we'll see this one back in the Supreme Court at some point relatively soon.

    82. Re:First sale doctrine by cmiller173 · · Score: 1

      Because it will do what to costco, harm their trade in used goods? This would benefit US retailers like Costco/walmart/etc. in that if the market for used goods is squashed then buyers have to buy new items at said retailers. What this would really harm is eBay/craigslist/etc. aka the markets for used goods.

    83. Re:First sale doctrine by SETIGuy · · Score: 1

      Not buying health insurance (commerce) is participating in commerce and therefore it is mandatory that you purchase a specific thing?

      Not really. Already, you really don't have the choice of whether you are going to need healthcare. At some point you will. By law, hospitals are required to serve you whether you can pay or not. Again, no choice. Since unfunded healthcare has a major impact on interstate commerce and the federal budget, it's reasonable to require that people maintain a method of paying for such care and well within the bounds of the commerce clause.

      If you disagree, were the requirements of the Militia Act of 1791 that men between the ages of 18 and 45 buy a firelock, musket, or rifle and associated provisions for the purposes of reporting to duty when called within the bounds of the "raise and support armies" clause of the same section? Even though a rifle might cost a year's wages for unskilled labor?

    84. Re:First sale doctrine by geekoid · · Score: 1

      It was put into play to prevent unfair trade practices. A subtle but distinct difference then facilitating free trade.

      And yes, it include restrict trade between states.

      --
      The Kruger Dunning explains most post on /. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dunning%E2%80%93Kruger_effect
    85. Re:First sale doctrine by UnknownSoldier · · Score: 1

      Beautiful summary !

      "The Corporation" is a wonderful documentary that analyzes the behavior of corporations and comes to the conclusion that they are psychopaths.

      * Video on youtube http://www.youtube.com/view_play_list?p=FA50FBC214A6CE87
      * Transcript avail. at http://www.thecorporation.com/index.cfm?page_id=314

    86. Re:First sale doctrine by geekoid · · Score: 1

      Just to be very clear. IT was because of excess growth of wheat. To say he fed the 'extra' to chickens is disingenuous. It was wheat he would of had to buy if he didn't grow it. So it really wasn't extra wheat.
      This means he wasn't importing wheat. THAT is what would have restricted trade, and impacted the attempt to stabilize wheat prices.

      I'm not making any statement here on the validity of the law, or using the ICC. I'm just saying there argument that it impacted trade was true.

      --
      The Kruger Dunning explains most post on /. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dunning%E2%80%93Kruger_effect
    87. Re:First sale doctrine by geekoid · · Score: 1

      I don't know, some people just don't seem to 'get it' until enough people have been dicks to them.

      --
      The Kruger Dunning explains most post on /. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dunning%E2%80%93Kruger_effect
    88. Re:First sale doctrine by geekoid · · Score: 1

      Nitpic

      Suicide is not illegal for people to commit. It is illegal to attempt.

      --
      The Kruger Dunning explains most post on /. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dunning%E2%80%93Kruger_effect
    89. Re:First sale doctrine by thomst · · Score: 1

      That is the most absurd and arbitrary distinction I've ever heard. A law of convenience if I ever heard of one. One step closer to stripping our rights in the name of international legal harmony.

      Yep. Good thing it's non-binding and the issue can be taken up at a later time, in a different case, where all nine Justices will get to vote (and before that, the entire Ninth Circuit court could decide to take up the matter, and potentially overrule its own panel).

      And it's not so much an indictment of the Supremes (although they certainly deserve one), as it is of the Ninth Circuit Court's three-judge panel, which has made an ass of the law once again.

      --
      Check out my novel.
    90. Re:First sale doctrine by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      kershaw knives

    91. Re:First sale doctrine by sumdumass · · Score: 2

      Well, it was only true in the sense that he could have done anything else including not participating in any activity and avoided buying wheat and that would have impacted trade too. However, there is nothing indicating that the trade impacted would have been interstate which is the problem with how true the argument is (pertaining to the ICC).

      In other words, could the feds require you to use a certain type of toilet paper when your intending on doing the middle east thing and wipe with a sponge that you can reuse because it impacts trade? I know that's sort of a strawman argument but it represents the absurdity of "if it can impact trade" argument.

    92. Re:First sale doctrine by ZFox · · Score: 2

      That is exactly why it is so ludicrous, though, because anything and everything can thusly be said to impact interstate trade.

    93. Re:First sale doctrine by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I've never seen a corporation sent to prison.

    94. Re:First sale doctrine by Toddlerbob · · Score: 1

      Nice Summary! I'm going to cut and paste this into a text file to keep handy for future reference.

    95. Re:First sale doctrine by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      No, but only because that amendment has already been passed. And it took a war to pass it. A proper war, with mass mobilization and casualties in six figures, not like these phoney things we have today.

      Turned out there were a lot of people who didn't think "people are people" was anywhere near self-evident.

    96. Re:First sale doctrine by Sean0michael · · Score: 3, Insightful
      While I too have issues with Corporations being treated like people, your analogies are all very dramatic and unsubstantial.

      Corporations are free to merge with many other corporations, while polygamy is still illegal for 'people' in most states.

      Polygamy is not a merger. Mergers turn multiple entities into one single thing. Polygamy still retains the individual people. The appropriate analogy would be cannibalism, and even that is wrong since mergers are usually mutually beneficial.

      Corporations are allowed to have business practices such as "cutting off the competitor's air supply" while murder is still illegal for 'people'.

      As long as their business practices are legal, it is nothing like murder. If the business practices are illegal, then there is no argument.

      Corporations are allowed to be dissolved yet Suicide is illegal for 'people' to commit.

      Corporate dissolution is not like suicide. Suicide destroys the value inherent in the person, whereas dissolution only destroys the company's name. The better analogy would be more like a divorce, where the parents split up the property and change their names. Again, that's all quite legal and isn't special treatment for corporations.

      Corporations can have 'hostile takeovers' of other weaker corporations, but armed robbery, slavery, and blackmail are all still illegal for other categories of 'people'.

      Robbery is theft. A hostile takeover isn't theft. It is a purchase of ownership. The two are not alike at all. As for slavery, a hostile takeover has nothing like it. Slavery doesn't apply because you aren't allowed to treat people like property. Company ownership is property and is traded every day. And blackmail doesn't even apply.

      You also ignore that there are many laws that apply only to businesses and not to people. When was the last time you:

      • filed with the SEC?
      • submitted paperwork to the FDA?
      • Had a visit from OSHA?
      • Ensured your family was compliant with Sarbanes-Oxley?
      • Had your marriage certificate inspected by the FTC?
      • etc...

      There are lots of problems with how we treat companies like people -- we agree on that. But your analogies don't add to that argument.

      --
      Funtime Candy Wow! - my plan for eventually conquering Japan.
    97. Re:First sale doctrine by ZFox · · Score: 1

      that's an excellent illustration of the elitism

      Only if you begin with the premise that not everybody is capable of competence and self-governance. If that's your case, who really is the elitist? You or him?

    98. Re:First sale doctrine by demonbug · · Score: 1

      In ties, the lower court's ruling is upheld IIRC. Kagan had to recuse.

      I don't think so; IIRC, it's not overturned but doesn't form binding precedent on the other circuits either. I think we'll see this one back in the Supreme Court at some point relatively soon.

      That agrees with another article I read yesterday (sorry, don't recall where I saw it and don't have time to search right now...). The 4-4 split means that the lower court ruling remains intact, but does not apply to the other circuits. So I don't think there can be another challenge coming from that particular circuit, but I would expect challenges from other circuits in the future.

    99. Re:First sale doctrine by walkoff · · Score: 1

      they used to use a variation of that in england to get around sunday trading laws. buy this bag of oranges for 300 quid and we'll give you a free couch

    100. Re:First sale doctrine by mcvos · · Score: 1

      So if a company wants to restrict second-hand resale of their products in order to keep the market for new goods larger, they need to outsource the production to overseas?

      (Note that I didn't RTFA; it's a crap page that's completely unreadable in Opera.)

    101. Re:First sale doctrine by GuruBuckaroo · · Score: 2

      Name ONE THING in a Wal-Mart that's still made in America these days.

      Money.

      --
      Poor means hoping the toothache goes away.
    102. Re:First sale doctrine by mcvos · · Score: 1

      It's still a stupid rule. Higher prices in my country are causing a lot of people to import from cheaper countries (the US, Germany). Allow unauthorized imports, and you get more local trade and better prices. Everybody wins (except for the official importer and/or the producer).

    103. Re:First sale doctrine by sconeu · · Score: 1

      I have faith in Congress -- that they'll choose the second option, and ream us in favor of the megacorps.

      --
      General Relativity: Space-time tells matter where to go; Matter tells space-time what shape to be.
    104. Re:First sale doctrine by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

      There is no such thing as pure anarchy, it last the whole 10 minutes before someone with enough guns and friends figures out the same thing every warlord has figured out since before written history. Then you've got a dictatorship.

    105. Re:First sale doctrine by Optic7 · · Score: 1

      From what I've read in the past, one of category of things at Walmart et al that is still made in the US is paper products like toilet paper and paper towels, as well as cleaning products like detergent, windex, etc. That's what our manufacturing power seems to be reduced to, other than advanced military weaponry, and a few specialty/niche items. Missiles, windex, and toilet paper.

    106. Re:First sale doctrine by Obfuscant · · Score: 1
      Already, you really don't have the choice of whether you are going to need healthcare. At some point you will.

      Citation needed.

      Are you claiming that someone who never goes to the doctor, like a Christian Scientist, will need healthcare against his will?

      People really can live their lives never seeing a doctor. They may not live as LONG as anyone else, but they still have the right to choose. The only legal cases I know of deal with choices made by guardians on behalf of others (parents for children, e.g.), not with adults choosing for themselves.

      This is why paramedics are prohibited from treating a conscious adult who refuses their services. And why DNR rules are obeyed.

      Given that the cornerstone of your argument in support of the government overstepping its constitutional authority in the Obamacare bill has vaporized, the result of your argument goes with it.

    107. Re:First sale doctrine by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The poop in the toilet.....

    108. Re:First sale doctrine by HermMunster · · Score: 1

      That wouldn't apply to a product sold to you inside the US that was legally imported.

      --
      You can lead a man with reason but you can't make him think.
    109. Re:First sale doctrine by SETIGuy · · Score: 1

      It's more the opposite. Without that addition slaves would have counted for 0/5ths of a person. The 3/5 number increases legislative the power of the slave states at the expense of additional taxation. The slave states were unhappy with the taxation aspects of that. They would have preferred that slaves not count toward taxation, but count as a person for legislation.

    110. Re:First sale doctrine by pugugly · · Score: 1

      Umm - actually no, that's part of what was *legally* wrong with Dred Scott - Taney declared that even if a state declared that within their demesnes African had the rights of citizens they had no method to enforce that right. A southern posse could in fact kidnap a *free* black man from a free state, and declare him a slave with no legal recourse.

      Whenever I hear that old saw about the civil war being about 'States Rights' I endeavor to remind people it was actually about the southern states 'right' to enforce their laws across every state.

      Pug

      --
      An Invisible Entity of Vast Power whose existence must be taken on faith alone: Liberal Media
    111. Re:First sale doctrine by SETIGuy · · Score: 2

      Yes, even Christian Scientists end up in the hospital. Tell one that they have cancer, and they just might decide to line up for chemo. They also arrive on ambulances. Family members might even dial 911 for them if they collapse. Or they might just be bleeding severely, and even Christian Scientist believe in bandages. They may, if conscious, refuse care when they get to the hospital. Even if they refuse care they might not be stable enough to be released and must be provided with a bed, food and hydration. The unconscious must always be treated unless it is shown that someone present has authority to limit care. That authority almost never exists unless durable power of attorney and a DNR have been filed in advance. If a DNR does not exist, it must be assumed that the desire is for all means of preventing death to be used.

      So the claim does not evaporate. Nor has the government overstepped its authority. Of the four judges that have heard these cases, only one has reached the conclusion that it is unconstitutional.

    112. Re:First sale doctrine by pugugly · · Score: 1

      Even as someone that has to agree with Scalia that any interpretation of the Commerce Clause that has no feasible argument which would limit is is necessarily false I have to disagree here.

      But Congress has the right to regulate interstate commerce, chose to regulate that interstate market, it's a commodity market, and and the farmer was taking actions that clearly interacted with that market.

      It's the polar opposite of the Scalia doctrine - if they can't enforce regulations of an interstate commodities market, then the Commerce Clause has literally *no* power.

      Pug

      --
      An Invisible Entity of Vast Power whose existence must be taken on faith alone: Liberal Media
    113. Re:First sale doctrine by jcr · · Score: 1

      Oops. Those Connecticut towns hash to the same bucket for me.

      -jcr

      --
      The only title of honor that a tyrant can grant is "Enemy of the State."
    114. Re:First sale doctrine by jcr · · Score: 1

      Speaking of fascist policies, did you know that when FDR started illegally imprisoning Americans for the non-crime of having Japanese ancestry, the camps they were held in were called concentration camps? The propagandists came up with the term "internment" camps once details of the holocaust started to leak out.

      -jcr

      --
      The only title of honor that a tyrant can grant is "Enemy of the State."
    115. Re:First sale doctrine by jcr · · Score: 1

      , the purpose of the Interstate Commerce Clause was for the federal government to facilitate free trade between the states.

      Not so much for the federal government to facilitate it, as to prohibit the states from interfering with it, I'd say.

      -jcr

      --
      The only title of honor that a tyrant can grant is "Enemy of the State."
    116. Re:First sale doctrine by rsclient · · Score: 1

      You've never read the actual ruling, have you? The court went far beyond the actual legal issues at hand and ruled that not only were slaves slaves, but that everyone who was black was a slave, and that furthermore they had no rights at all in any state (including states that had outlawed slavery). These were new and horrible doctrines, and were completely unfounded by any words in the constitution.

      --
      Want a sig like mine? Join ACM's SigSig today!
    117. Re:First sale doctrine by jcr · · Score: 0

      The purpose of the law was to raise wheat prices

      That's a great example of just how stupid and evil FDR was. In the midst of the greatest economic depression the country had ever seen, he intervened to make food more expensive.

      -jcr

      --
      The only title of honor that a tyrant can grant is "Enemy of the State."
    118. Re:First sale doctrine by pugugly · · Score: 1

      Umm - no. The Constitution left the definition of 'Citizen' as an undefined term, but the weasel-wording it "three fifths of all other Persons" established the baseline, pretty explicitly; I disagree with Dred Scott regarding a states right to grant protections above that baseline, but as a constitutional manner yes they needed to amend.

      I find "All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside ... " infinitely better.

      Lots less weasel-words. No wonder Glenn Beck hates it.

      Pug

      --
      An Invisible Entity of Vast Power whose existence must be taken on faith alone: Liberal Media
    119. Re:First sale doctrine by pugugly · · Score: 1

      Clearly the founders of our country realized that the rights of men were not granted by governments, but came from some other higher power; they said so in the Declaration of Independence.

      The founders were 'Clearly' believed these rights came from a higher power . . . and immediately initiated first and foremost an amendment explicitly banning the government from formally recognizing said higher power?

      You fail logic forever.

      Pug

      --
      An Invisible Entity of Vast Power whose existence must be taken on faith alone: Liberal Media
    120. Re:First sale doctrine by jcr · · Score: 1

      Wickard v. Filburn is easily the worst decision the Supreme Court ever made.

      I'd put it behind Raich, personally. In that case, the supreme court usurped for the federal government the power to forbit an individual to treat themselves for a life-threatening illness.

      -jcr

      --
      The only title of honor that a tyrant can grant is "Enemy of the State."
    121. Re:First sale doctrine by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You're saying the people who wrote the document were wrong about what that document meant? Using standard definitions at the time? Sheesh, it's a document written by and for the people of the time. It has a lot of good ideas in it, but it's not some holy proclamation handed down from on high with an ordained-for-all-time True Meaning(tm).

    122. Re:First sale doctrine by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Corporations are free to merge with many other corporations, while polygamy is still illegal for 'people' in most states.

      Fortunately, they can only merge with corporations of the opposite sex.

    123. Re:First sale doctrine by SETIGuy · · Score: 1

      That's a great example of just how stupid and evil FDR was. In the midst of the greatest economic depression the country had ever seen, he intervened to make food more expensive.

      It needed to be more expensive because if the people who grow food starve to death (or just stop farming) because they have no income, everyone starves. Homeless people from the farms wander into the cities looking for jobs that aren't there. Crop price declines and the associated migration to the cities were major problems during the great depression.

      Cheaper isn't always better. It's better to artificially raise prices rather than deal with the collapse of food production and the extreme inflation that would follow. If you don't understand the economics of that, you need go back to school. Libertarian ideology doesn't trump economic reality no matter how much you believe in it.

    124. Re:First sale doctrine by pugugly · · Score: 1

      "The Judicial Power" of Article III flows from English Commonlaw which already gave the high courts the right to strike down laws or edicts for a variety of reasons (including, as I read it, simply for being logically contradictory). Marbury vs Madison simply formally brings that forward into U.S. law.

      A History of the Supreme Court get's into it a bit early on: See Dr. Bonham for more.

      Pug

      --
      An Invisible Entity of Vast Power whose existence must be taken on faith alone: Liberal Media
    125. Re:First sale doctrine by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Your comparison is poor. It would be more correct to say:

      Corporations and people both have the right to kill corporations, under certain circumstances.

      Neither corporations nor people have the right to kill people.

      So corporations aren't getting any more rights than people here. They're not even getting some of the rights that people get (like protection from being killed).

    126. Re:First sale doctrine by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      But Congress has the right to regulate interstate commerce, chose to regulate that interstate market, it's a commodity market, and and the farmer was taking actions that clearly interacted with that market.
      Id est nonparticipation?

    127. Re:First sale doctrine by sumdumass · · Score: 1

      as far as I know, the farmer didn't get far enough to get it to any market so it can't be interfering with any markets.

      Anyways, to show how silly your/the argument is, if you were to start taking baths instead of using toilet paper every time you went number 2, are you interfering with a market and under the purview of government regulation in that regard? How about if you start a coop/group between your neighbors who go around telling people to do that instead of wasting paper because they don't need to cut as many trees down that way, you are effecting the markets for toilet paper now, can they regulate? How about you create a book telling people about this and sell it at the stores in the TP isle? OR how about if you make grow corn and pull the leaves off of it, say use these instead of TP, and grow more then you could ever use in a years time?

      Do you see where that gets silly? I mean the Interstate commerce clause is there to allow the feds to deal with interstate commerce, not intrastate commerce. Should the fact that one of your competitors might be from another state all the sudden put the feds in charge of regulating your activities that do not even flow outside your neighborhood?

    128. Re:First sale doctrine by falconwolf · · Score: 1

      Name ONE THING in a Wal-Mart that's still made in America these days.

      What are you smoking? Thinking I said anything about where Walmart buy from? As a matter of fact, Walmart does the same as Costco, it imports stuff to sell in the US.

      Falcon

    129. Re:First sale doctrine by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The Filburn decision means that the Federal Government can now tax mother's milk, as a mother is affecting commerce by not buying milk for her children and using her own. It is a rather absurd decision. Everything becomes commerce after Filburn. Everything. Thus it is under the lawful control of the government.

    130. Re:First sale doctrine by h4rr4r · · Score: 1

      Let's go in between the two, the DEA and its scheduling of drugs is not constitutional. To ban a drug an amendment is needed or an amendment granting such a power to the DEA. For further evidence see the 18th amendment.

    131. Re:First sale doctrine by cpt+kangarooski · · Score: 1

      And your reference to the preamble of the US constitution sort of shows a little ignorance on this subject. Despite it being non-binding,

      Why do you think that the Preamble is not a binding part of the Constitution? It doesn't really accomplish a hell of a lot, I'd agree, but I see no reason why any part of that document would be non-binding unless made so by another part of the Constitution or an amendment. And the Constitution's own supremacy clause states that the Constitution -- not merely certain, selected parts of it -- are the supreme law of the land.

      --
      -- This and all my posts are in the public domain. I am a lawyer. I am not your lawyer, and this is not legal advice.
    132. Re:First sale doctrine by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      correct, the declaration of independence establishes that people are, in fact, people, and that they have rights that cannot be taken away by any law or any man. immorally restricted, yes, but inalienable. What the supporters of corps as people really need is to change the declaration to say "all men, and all legal fictions designed by groups of powerful men to promote their own narrow self interest, are created equal". hmm benito mussolini says that sounds nice...

    133. Re:First sale doctrine by Oxford_Comma_Lover · · Score: 1

      > Do we really need a constitutional amendment to clarify that yes, people are actually people?

      Yes. That's what the post-Civil-War Amendments did. Now the anti-immigration lobby is trying to change it.

      Real life, for better and for worse, is more absurd than computer programming.

      --
      -- IANAL, this isn't legal advice, and definitely isn't legal advice for you. Also, Squee!
    134. Re:First sale doctrine by zacronos · · Score: 1

      What reference is the Constitution permitted people to be sold as property?

      If you can ask that question with a straight face, you've got a backwards understanding of the way our founding fathers envisioned things. The ninth and tenth amendments to the Constitution of the United States:

      • "The enumeration in the Constitution, of certain rights, shall not be construed to deny or disparage others retained by the people."
      • "The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people"

      Or in other words, unless the Constitution expressly prohibits something, it is implicitly permitted by the Constitution. (Other laws may of course prohibit things which are not mentioned by the Constitution, but that is immaterial as to what the Constitution does or does not permit.) The Constitution was founded on the idea that all things are permitted unless they are forbidden, most certainly not the other way around.

      I do not fault you for misunderstanding, as we've (somehow) managed to swing really far to the other side in actual practice. However, it seems clear to me what was intended originally. My understanding is that the first significant steps toward this reversal occurred after the Civil War, which means that when the Dred Scott decision was handed down, it was still thoroughly understood that the Constitution need not expressly permit something for it to be allowed.

    135. Re:First sale doctrine by cpt+kangarooski · · Score: 1

      Really? I'd think you do.

      This is basically a debate over whether the US federal government has the power to regulate this level of commerce. There's no real dispute that the several states could do it, if they wanted to. And ironically, the best argument against it would be that for the states to do so would interfere with federal regulation of interstate commerce.

      The relationships and flows of power between the people, states, and federal government in the US is, AFAIK, pretty uncommon. I had been under the impression that in the UK, power basically resides with Parliament, which may then grant entities further down the chain some measure of power and independence to do things, but could just as easily withdraw it or modify it as it sees fit. That is a lot more like how one of the states in the US functions, than our federal government.

      I don't think we have these kind of systems in the UK - If you want to sell anything, you're in the loop, and there are animal welfare issues too... but apart from that, you can do what you like with your land, as long as you don't annoy your neighbours.

      They let you grow as much pot as you like for your personal use? Sounds good. How about mutant man-eating mobile marigolds? They won't get loose -- scout's honor!

      --
      -- This and all my posts are in the public domain. I am a lawyer. I am not your lawyer, and this is not legal advice.
    136. Re:First sale doctrine by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

      Not true. It was added by the court reporter and sanctioned by Chief Justice Morrison Waite:

      https://secure.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/en/wiki/Santa_Clara_County_v._Southern_Pacific_Railroad#A_passing_remark

    137. Re:First sale doctrine by hargrand · · Score: 1

      Kagan, not Sotomayor, recused herself. From the article:

      The decision — or non-decision, really, since Justice Elena Kagan was forced to recuse herself, leaving a tie vote — has serious implications for U.S. retailers that obtain their goods on the gray market.

    138. Re:First sale doctrine by ShakaUVM · · Score: 1

      >>the Supreme Court, being answerable to nobody and at liberty to interpret the words in the Constitution as it pleases, seems to like it the way it is. At least, the 5 of them anointed by Republican Presidents do.

      Ah yes, the famous "living document" Republican judges. Shame we don't have more of those strict constitutionalist Democrat judges on the bench to keep them in check, eh?

      While I agree that both parties have judges that take a much more liberal view of the constitution than was originally construed, I think you're pointing your fingers in the wrong direction. Look at how the judges went on Lopez, for example. The Republicans wanted a more restricted version of the commerce clause, whereas the Democrats wanted unlimited power for congress.

    139. Re:First sale doctrine by The+End+Of+Days · · Score: 1

      Don't ever let logic get in the way of some good old fashioned class warfare. Those business people must be evil because they make money.

    140. Re:First sale doctrine by Gerzel · · Score: 1

      Begin what?

      They'll be just as corrupt when they reach high office.

    141. Re:First sale doctrine by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Stop thinking in terms of quantity of regulations. More of them isn't a good thing, a select few but well thought out and written regulations would be far superior.

    142. Re:First sale doctrine by jcr · · Score: 1

      Oh, for crying out loud. Price-fixing is NEVER a good idea. It has been disastrous since Diocletian first tried it. Whenever government intervenes in the market to force a price different than the market price, it will either cause shortages (if the price is forced low), or overproduction (if the price is forced up.)

      If you still fail to understand the damage that governments do when they try to run the economy, you need a remedial history course.

      -jcr

      --
      The only title of honor that a tyrant can grant is "Enemy of the State."
    143. Re:First sale doctrine by patiodragon · · Score: 1

      Ah, but only counterfeit money. Real money is illegal.

      My brain hurts, too....

    144. Re:First sale doctrine by rtb61 · · Score: 1

      They were stuck with a literal interpretation of the Law. Omega chose to protect their watches under copyright, the copyright laws give some protection from parallel importing, originally put in place by the pigopolists to protect different pricing in different regions for music, movies and books.

      So in this case the original lawmakers the Senate and Congress are the asshats, Omega just decided to make use of that bit scum buggery in global trade where corporations get access and the nobodies, us, are told to get knotted (that's how they get those big fat corporate profits).

      Costco could do some weird stuff selling them online from a branch location overseas as long as the end purchaser is the importer. What really needs to happen is, buy that cheap chinese crap direct from China and ignore the ego building masturbatory marketing, you watch the egg sucking corporate CEO's lobby to change product importation laws yet again.

      --
      Chaos - everything, everywhere, everywhen
    145. Re:First sale doctrine by Gastrobot · · Score: 1

      I like to believe that personhood transcends legality, but given that we're in a discussion of law the law does need to distinguish between persons and things. I'd say that there is currently a huge amount of disagreement surrounding this topic.

      It most often comes up in discussion of human biology with lesser mental faculties. Basically that includes coma patients, brain-dead humans, and humans who have not yet been born. I'm in favor of giving personhood to all humans at the point of conception with maybe a few caveats for humans that are so genetically damaged that they could never under any circumstances develop a brain. Brain dysfunction later in life probably needs to be evaluated on a case-by-case basis. If a person is injured but could maybe possibly theoretically be restored if everything goes perfectly and we develop a super brain reconstructor then they still have a shot at life and should still be treated as a person. If a person cannot be restored to consciousness even under that aforementioned one in a bazillion condition then they're dead and cease to be a person.

      That's my thinking. It obviously leaves a lot of detail unaddressed. In any case personhood isn't universally agreed upon. We probably need a constitutional definition for it.

    146. Re:First sale doctrine by harlows_monkeys · · Score: 0

      This decision will have very little affect on most of us, actually. Most of us have probably never participated in a sale that was allowed before this decision and would be disallowed under it, and probably never will. First sale remains exactly the same as it was before for goods that are sold in the US with the authorization of the copyright owner. So, when ASUS ships motherboards to US resellers who sell them in the US, they are subsequently covered by first sale in the US.

      Only if you went to Taiwan, bought a motherboard from ASUS that they did not authorize for import into the US, came to the US, and then tried to resell it would you run afoul of this decision. (And then only in the 9th circuit).

    147. Re:First sale doctrine by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I might point out that indeed, the founders of our country realized that the rights of *men* were...blah, blah, blah. They deliberated for just over a month whether to say that all People were created equal (would still have excluded slaves) and decided that women were also effectively property.

    148. Re:First sale doctrine by RubberDogBone · · Score: 1

      Where have you been? Canada has been making soaps and cleaners and similar things for decades. For the longest time, Dial liquid soap -and nearly all the store brand versions- were made in Canada. Dial is now a German-owned company, fwiw.

      Lately similar items made in China have started appearing in the "dollar" stores, but even broke, I would have a hard time using Chinese-made toothpaste.

      For paper goods, if they aren't already being made overseas it's only a matter of time. Copy paper is already sourced from all over the world. Where I work, we have had skids of copy paper from Argentina and Portugal in particular.

      --
      Sig for hire.
    149. Re:First sale doctrine by 91degrees · · Score: 1

      Corporations are free to merge with many other corporations, while polygamy is still illegal for 'people' in most states.

      I can merge with other people to make a corporation.

      Corporations are allowed to have business practices such as "cutting off the competitor's air supply" while murder is still illegal for 'people'.

      How so?

      Corporations are allowed to be dissolved yet Suicide is illegal for 'people' to commit.

      Do you consider this to be a bad thing?

      Corporations can have 'hostile takeovers' of other weaker corporations, but armed robbery, slavery, and blackmail are all still illegal for other categories of 'people'.

      I can perform a hostile takeover of a corporation.

      So it seems that even with the ruling, corporations don't have all the rights of people. I can take over a corporation as an individual because it hs no protection from my doing that. I am protected from a corporation performoing a hostile takeover of me.

    150. Re:First sale doctrine by asdf7890 · · Score: 1

      Just wait till the chinese manufacturers start toying with one. Want to sell your used motherboard on craigslist? Sorry, no can do, this luxuriuously ASUS-branded product was sold to YOU and only YOU.

      No one like that is going to chase anyone over this - it would simply cost too much to even think about trying even if the company was local never mind having cross-border details for the lawyers to charge you for dealing with. The only companies that will be able to do anything with this change are those that sell real big ticket items, where the cost of a few adds up to something that might be noticeable on the bottom line of some monthly financial report.

    151. Re:First sale doctrine by jandersen · · Score: 1

      ... the rights of men were not granted by governments, but came from some other higher power ...

      Just out of interest: what higher power? Isn't the basis of the typical, American view of "freedom" that each individual has as much freedom as they can grab with whatever means? You know, self-determination and all that - so where does "higher power" fit in? As far as I can see, invoking a higher power is no more than a voodoo ritual bolstering your own faltering self-belief by claiming that "God is on my side".

    152. Re:First sale doctrine by tubs · · Score: 1
      It's all to do with importation - the UK and EU have recently (over the last 10 years) been doing this.

      Basically, Trademark and Copyright prevent the importation of anything. It's specifically the grey market that is being "crushed".

      Individuals can buy anything they like, and bring it in and sell it as "2nd hand", thats not what this is about.

      It's about importers importing with out the permissions of the trademark/copyright owner. They may have bought the item legiteimately from another supplier but that doesn't matter.

      The big one in the UK has been Levi Jeans :

      http://news.bbc.co.uk/1/hi/business/1261829.stm

      It even affects good made in the EU and exported to another market, and then bought back in - it needs the permission of the trademark owner!

      Makes a mockery of "free trade".

      --

      try to make ends meet, you're a slave to money, then you die

    153. Re:First sale doctrine by commodore64_love · · Score: 1

      >>>First, justify 239 bushels extra, nearly equivalent to his allotment, for personal use.

      In a free society one does not need to justify one's existence or what one grows on his own land. We are not serfs and congress is not our lord. The man said he used the excess wheat to keep his family & his cows alive during the winter... but even if he was lying, and selling the wheat to his neighbor, so what?

      That is INTRAstate commerce and regulated by the Member State's government not the Union government. That is what the Supreme law of the land states (amendment 10) and how the SCOTUS should have decided.

      --
      "I disapprove of what you say, but I will defend to the death your right to say it." - historian Evelyn Beatrice Hall
    154. Re:First sale doctrine by commodore64_love · · Score: 1

      >>>the farmer was taking actions that clearly interacted with that market.

      You know it helps if you actually read the law. It says the Union government has the right to "regulate commerce AMONG the states". Since the farmer is not a state, and is not crossing a state border (he was feeding the food to his cows to keep them alive during the harsh winter months), the national government has zero authority. This is a matter for the Member State's government to handle (per amend. 10).

      --
      "I disapprove of what you say, but I will defend to the death your right to say it." - historian Evelyn Beatrice Hall
    155. Re:First sale doctrine by commodore64_love · · Score: 1

      >>>impacted the attempt to stabilize wheat prices.

      I can not lay my hand on any part of the Constitution which allows the US to treat a man like a Serf, and tell him how much food he is "allotted" to grow. Is this some kind of rebirth of Feudalism that I am not aware of? Should I start addressing my congressman as "lord" in the future and ask permission to grow tomatoes in my rear yard? Is 100 plants okay, or am I only allowed to grow 0 plants in order to force me to go to the store & buy tomatoes there?

      Anyone with common sense can see this was not the original intent of the authors of Constitutional Law. James Madison wrote his document to create maximum, possible freedom, not to limit a man's ability to grow food for himself

      --
      "I disapprove of what you say, but I will defend to the death your right to say it." - historian Evelyn Beatrice Hall
    156. Re:First sale doctrine by commodore64_love · · Score: 0

      >>>So every State gets the freedom to decide for themselves whether black people are people?

      Prior to 1865 - yes that is correct. That is what the Law stated and that is what the Dred Scot decision enforced. States north of Maryland treated blacks as people, while states south of Maryland treated them as property. Similar to how in the modern European Union, some States treat Muslims as equal to citizens, while other States treat Muslims as inferior & deportable. It varies state-to-state.

      Then the Constitutional Law was amended and now all people are considered people (unless they're gay, or living inside a woman). Welcome to the real world which is not always fair.

      BTW Frederick Douglas (a black freeman) called the Constitution an anti-slavery document. It was designed to slowly but surely weaken the southern slave states (they only got 3/5th vote per citizen) until they were forced to recognize blacks as being fully-human.

      --
      "I disapprove of what you say, but I will defend to the death your right to say it." - historian Evelyn Beatrice Hall
    157. Re:First sale doctrine by commodore64_love · · Score: 1

      >>>Without that addition slaves would have counted for 0/5ths of a person.

      False. Without that line, the Slave States wanted to count blacks as whole people. Why? To gain more power in Congress. The northern free states said "How can you claim they are people, if you keep then in chains? The only way they should be counted as people, is if you free them."

      It was an impasse. The Slave States wanted to have it both ways - treat blacks as whole people while treating them as animals. 3/5th was the compromise to WEAKEN the slave states.

      --
      "I disapprove of what you say, but I will defend to the death your right to say it." - historian Evelyn Beatrice Hall
    158. Re:First sale doctrine by commodore64_love · · Score: 1

      >>>What reference is the Constitution permitted people to be sold as property?

      AMENDMENT 10. Powers not granted to Union government is reserved to the Member State. In this case: It was the power of deciding slavery was legal or illegal. (Oh and for the record, yes, there were such things as white slaves although very rare.)

      --
      "I disapprove of what you say, but I will defend to the death your right to say it." - historian Evelyn Beatrice Hall
    159. Re:First sale doctrine by commodore64_love · · Score: 1

      >>>banning government from formally recognizing said higher power? You fail logic forever.

      No, YOU fail in logic. They added that amendment not to outlaw God, but because they didn't want a government-run religion. They wanted freedom to be Catholic, or Anglican, or Protestant, or Quaker, or Deiist, or whatever, rather than being forced to join the official Church of Congress.

      Note: The Member States were still free to have official religions, but over time those were gradually phased-out. If I recall correctly the last State Government Church was eliminated in the 1830s.

      --
      "I disapprove of what you say, but I will defend to the death your right to say it." - historian Evelyn Beatrice Hall
    160. Re:First sale doctrine by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      By traditional legal interpretation of the Supreme Court, the Preamble is non-binding. Some justices through the years have felt otherwise -- Clarence Thomas, for example -- but the whole court has never gone along with it.

    161. Re:First sale doctrine by commodore64_love · · Score: 1

      Without the weasel words, the Southern States would have walked-away and there would be no United States.

      >>>"All persons born or naturalized..." No wonder Glenn Beck hates that amendment.

      FALSE. He's never said anything like that. Stop spreading lies. Or you can provide a citation to prove it true, but until that happens I will consider your statement a falsehood.

      --
      "I disapprove of what you say, but I will defend to the death your right to say it." - historian Evelyn Beatrice Hall
    162. Re:First sale doctrine by Chris+Mattern · · Score: 1

      *Not* Sotomayor, Kagan, because she'd argued the case for the Obama administration in lower courts. In case you were wondering, she argued that right of first sale should be denied.

    163. Re:First sale doctrine by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Worst analogies ever, sorry.

    164. Re:First sale doctrine by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Well, then the founding forefathers should have reworded the Declaration of Independence. Specifically, "All men are created equal" part. Goofballs. If they believed this, then they would have had the balls to of done the right thing. Like most men they just think about themselves as they see fit. Not all mind you, but enough to of plagued this planet for far too long.

      What I find illogical is how the three branches are supposed to keep each other in check. Giving the Executive branch the power to elect the Justices seems to go against what you would actually allow.

      I envy the birds in the sky at times. After all, they don't have to deal with the idiocy of their species like we do.

    165. Re:First sale doctrine by tehcyder · · Score: 1

      they used to use a variation of that in england to get around sunday trading laws. buy this bag of oranges for 300 quid and we'll give you a free couch

      That must have got interesting if there were any guarantee claims.

      "So, you are claiming that your sofa broke into several pieces after one week of light use. How much exactly are you claiming for? A full refund of the cost? No problem, here's zero pounds. Now, if you'd had problems with the oranges..."

      --
      To have a right to do a thing is not at all the same as to be right in doing it
    166. Re:First sale doctrine by tehcyder · · Score: 1

      Dred Scott may have been an immoral ruling, but it was also legally correct. Under the Union Constitution, each member state had freedom to decide if blacks were Citizens or Property. The justices did what they were supposed to do: Enforce the law as written. It was upto the Congress/States to change the law (via amendment) not the courts.

      So why weren't the outraged citizenry burning down both the politicians and the judges' houses I wonder?

      --
      To have a right to do a thing is not at all the same as to be right in doing it
    167. Re:First sale doctrine by clone52431 · · Score: 1

      The Constitution left the definition of 'Citizen' as an undefined term, but the weasel-wording it "three fifths of all other Persons" established the baseline, pretty explicitly;

      I’m guessing you don’t know much about that (and regardless, I’m sure that most other people don’t), so I’ll go into a little bit more detail.

      The three-fifths compromise was made when southern states, which naturally had a lot of slaves, thought that since they had so many more mouths to feed, they should get greater representation in Congress. But slaves couldn’t vote, so that representation would have represented the rich white guys, not the slaves. Obviously this was just a power-grab by the rich white guys, and the northern states opposed it. In the end, the only way to come to any agreement at all was to compromise.

      So, if there were an average of 10 slaves for every white person able to vote in the South (probably a low estimate, but for the sake of example), the southerners wanted his vote to count for essentially 11x (his vote + the votes of 10 slaves who couldn’t vote for themselves) what a single voter’s vote in the North counted for. The northerners wanted it to be 1x (don’t count slaves, if they can’t vote). Under the compromise, it was still a factor of 7x (white person’s vote + 3/5 x 10 slaves’ votes), and the slaves still had no representation (white people were still casting their votes for them).

      --
      Distributed Denial of APK: It takes 15 seconds to reply to him anonymously, but wastes tons of his time if we all do it.
    168. Re:First sale doctrine by Synonymous+Homonym · · Score: 1

      anarchy and rule of the corrupt

      Those are direct opposites.

      For Nicola Macchiavelli, anarchy was bad and tyranny was good.
      For Michail Bakunin, tyranny was bad and anarchy was good.
      No matter what definition of anarchy you apply - war of everyone against everyone else, or democracy, both are the opposite of tyranny.

    169. Re:First sale doctrine by tehcyder · · Score: 1

      In a free society one does not need to justify one's existence or what one grows on his own land. We are not serfs and congress is not our lord

      While there are landlords, there will be tenants; and tenants are only one step up from serfs.

      In a truly free society there would be no such thing as one's own land. It is a bizarre concept, land is not personal property.

      --
      To have a right to do a thing is not at all the same as to be right in doing it
    170. Re:First sale doctrine by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Most of those laws are applicable to activities, be they business or personal.

      It just so happens that most of those activities occur in a business setting, and in most instances, people set up corporations to shield themselves from liability in those settings.

      And an obvious counterexample, from the 1934 Securities Exchange Act:

      The 1934 Act defines "broker" as "any person engaged in the business of effecting transactions in securities for the account of others," and defines "dealer" as "any person engaged in the business of buying and selling securities for his own account, through a broker or otherwise."

    171. Re:First sale doctrine by tehcyder · · Score: 1

      Quoting the preamble means nothing. At the time it was written, blacks were not considered part of "We the People".

      To me as a non-American, that seems like a good argument for dismissing the Constitution as an outmoded piece of literature, somewhat like the Bible.

      --
      To have a right to do a thing is not at all the same as to be right in doing it
    172. Re:First sale doctrine by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The mandate has a religious and financial hardship exemption.

      It's pretty absurd to argue that a law should be invalidated due to a handful of mythical people who don't want any healthcare for non-religious and non-economic reasons.

    173. Re:First sale doctrine by tehcyder · · Score: 1

      So every state gets the freedom to decide for themselves whether black people are people?

      Were it not for this compromise, there probably wouldn't have been a constitution at all.

      It was a classic fudge that simply put off solving the disagreement until the inevitable Civil War.

      --
      To have a right to do a thing is not at all the same as to be right in doing it
    174. Re:First sale doctrine by theshowmecanuck · · Score: 1

      Yeah, but this decision hurts American companies, granting special rights to foreign companies.

      I don't suppose that you noticed, but the jobs market has not improved and likely won't. That is because American companies don't give a rat's ass about Americans anymore. They are starting to manufacture their goods overseas. And the more the Chinese are able to afford to buy things, the less Americans will figure in to their thinking.

      Notice how restrictive Apple is on what you can install on your iPhone etc??? Where do you think it is manufactured? Not in America that is for damn sure. It is manufactured in CHINA. How long before restrictive companies like Apple start restricting not only what software you install, but whether you can sell your iPod, iTouch, iPad, iPhone, iMac, iWhatever to someone else? It isn't just Chinese or European companies you have to worry about. This is one time I am glad to be in Canada again.

      --
      -- I ignore anonymous replies to my comments and postings.
    175. Re:First sale doctrine by tehcyder · · Score: 1

      Similarly, it appears that many people today are not able to divorce the discussion of the constitutionality of the Obama health insurance mandate from their moral perception that everyone is entitled to health care without regard to ability to pay for it, and end up despising anyone who takes up the position that the mandate is not a permissible act under the interstate commerce clause of the federal constitution.

      Well change the Constitution then if it's wrong, it's not the Koran dictated by Allah.

      --
      To have a right to do a thing is not at all the same as to be right in doing it
    176. Re:First sale doctrine by tehcyder · · Score: 1

      Classic ways to become despised in law school: Argue the majority position in Dred Scott v. Sandford,

      You make it sound as though all potential lawyers are kind hearted liberal humanitarians. Unless they give you some sort of pill that transforms you into a money-grabbing self-obsessed psychopath on graduation, I find this hard to believe.

      --
      To have a right to do a thing is not at all the same as to be right in doing it
    177. Re:First sale doctrine by Ihlosi · · Score: 1
      For Nicola Macchiavelli, anarchy was bad and tyranny was good.

      Err ... no. "The Prince" endorses tyranny about as much as a book on physics endorses dropping nukes on someones head.

      And don't forget that Machiavelli also wrote about how to build and structure a republic:

      http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Macchiavelli#Discourses_on_Livy

    178. Re:First sale doctrine by Jason+Levine · · Score: 1

      The two party system is all about choice. Do you choose to bend over facing right or facing left while you get abused by politicians, corporations, etc.

      --
      My sci-fi novel, Ghost Thief, is now available from Amazon.com.
    179. Re:First sale doctrine by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Only if you begin with the premise that not everybody is capable of competence and self-governance. If that's your case, who really is the elitist?

      I'm in diapers you insensi... oh wait, you said competence.

      So everyone who isn't brain damaged is an elite now? I didn't realize the bar's been set so low.

    180. Re:First sale doctrine by StikyPad · · Score: 1

      Food. Software. Music. Sporting goods.

      Oh, you said one thing...

    181. Re:First sale doctrine by boarder · · Score: 1

      Want to know how I know you didn't read the article?

      Your username is entirely appropriate to the ignorance of your post.

      --
      IANAL, but I play one on /.
    182. Re:First sale doctrine by thejynxed · · Score: 1

      Tyson Chicken Strips. Oddly enough, they are very representative of the moral fortitude of the entire U.S. Congress.

      --
      @Mindless Drivel: 100% of Twitter posts ever Tweeted.
    183. Re:First sale doctrine by Patersmith · · Score: 1

      Polygamy is not a merger. Mergers turn multiple entities into one single thing. Polygamy still retains the individual people. The appropriate analogy would be cannibalism, and even that is wrong since mergers are usually mutually beneficial.

      One can sort of defend that analogy, actually. In marriage, two people are considered to become "one flesh" under the law. This is why one spouse can't be compelled to testify against the other, since it would be self-incrimination. In marriage, one's spouse's family becomes one's own under the law. One's brother-in-law is indeed one's brother under the law (as opposed to by blood relation). Spouses often refer to their parents-in-law as Mom and Dad. All property and debt becomes that of the union rather than the individual. Each spouse may separately exercise financial operations that confer obligations on both parties.

    184. Re:First sale doctrine by Kymermosst · · Score: 1

      Yes, the requirements of the Militia Act of 1791 were wrong.

      The Constitution says that Congress should raise and support armies, not that armies raise and support themselves.

      As far as being required to purchase health insurance, how is it justifiable to require someone to purchase something merely because they exist? If you don't, you'll be penalized. Since the penalty is to the IRS, if you don't pay the penalty, you're up on various criminal charges related to taxes.

      While I could hardly argue that we have freedom and liberty as originally envisioned for citizens of United States, at this point we may as well stop glossing over it and admit that we simply have no real freedoms at all, because the most basic freedom (to have or not have something) has now been taken away.

      --
      "Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Explosives" should be a convenience store, not a government agency.
    185. Re:First sale doctrine by pugugly · · Score: 1

      As an aside, one of the interesting things covered in "The Constitution, A Biography" is that the southern states compounded this in their own voting setup, so that high slave density areas (remarkably small percentage of the southern population) were more represented in state government, and people without slaves were themselves disenfranchised at the state and local level.

      So that 'average' didn't even imply the obvious that every southerner vote was worth seven northerners votes; even at the local level poor non-slave owning farmers votes had very little effect while the wealthy plantation owners power was multiplied by the number of slaves held.

      The poor farmer was of course informed the reason he didn't get what he needed was those damn northerners - the politics of disenfranchisement never changes.

      Pug

      --
      An Invisible Entity of Vast Power whose existence must be taken on faith alone: Liberal Media
    186. Re:First sale doctrine by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Pussies don't like dicks, because pussies get fucked by dicks. But dicks also fuck assholes: assholes that just want to shit on everything. Pussies may think they can deal with assholes their way. But the only thing that can fuck an asshole is a dick, with some balls. The problem with dicks is: they fuck too much or fuck when it isn't appropriate - and it takes a pussy to show them that. But sometimes, pussies can be so full of shit that they become assholes themselves... because pussies are an inch and half away from ass holes. I don't know much about this crazy, crazy world, but I do know this: If you don't let us fuck this asshole, we're going to have our dicks and pussies all covered in shit!

    187. Re:First sale doctrine by pugugly · · Score: 1

      Oh noes - it took the 10 seconds of a Google search to find documentation. Well, I also had to click the 1st link.

      http://mediamatters.org/blog/200909230024
      From: Arguing with Idiots, Chapter 12 "The U.S. Constitution: Lost in translation":

      Perhaps no amendment has been twisted and turned as much as this one. The "birthright citizenship clause" was originally meant to ensure that children of freed slaves would be American citizens. Of course, we don't really have that problem anymore, so here's the 21st-century revision:

      All persons who successfully sneak into the country will be allowed to stay indefinitely. All crimes committed by those lawbreakers (i.e., identity theft, fraud, and tax evasion) will be ignored. These non-American Americans will be afforded free health care at emergency rooms, free education,, and special in-state tuition deals at colleges, not afforded legal citizens. All children born of these lawbreakers shall immediately become citizens of the United States. Any person attempting to thwart this revision of Section I will be labeled racists, hatemongers, xenophobes, and all-around bad people.

      Sorry, converting the plain words "All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside." to an anti-immigrant polemic while claiming that the simple and obvious reading of the language is 'Twisting' it - He said it, he wrote it, he profited on it, if you can't handle the fact that the man is a racist that hates the simple language of the 14th amendment, quit reading him.

      And no, accusing Media Matters of being liberal media in no way changes the fact that Glenn Beck wrote that. Get over yourself.

      Pug

      --
      An Invisible Entity of Vast Power whose existence must be taken on faith alone: Liberal Media
    188. Re:First sale doctrine by Grishnakh · · Score: 1

      Obama was such a moron for nominating that woman. She's recused herself from practically every case! It'll be years before she'll be able to sit in on a case.

    189. Re:First sale doctrine by Grishnakh · · Score: 1

      Don't be stupid. States STILL get to place conditions on a person's rights and privileges. For instance, children are people, but not completely: they don't have freedom to do what they want, live where they want, make their own decisions about themselves and their bodies, etc. Their parents have huge rights over all of that. That doesn't change until the child reaches 18, except in exceptional cases (as determined by State law), where the states CPS might step in and take over custody of the children. So who gets to define what a "child" is? The State. Who gets to define when the State is able to seize custody of children? The State.

      There's another huge group of people who don't have freedom, and are basically slaves. They're called "inmates". They're certainly not allowed to do what they want, or leave the prison, and if they try, they can be shot dead. Who decides all these rules? The State.

      Having large classes of people without the full rights of an adult Citizen, and even being slaves, is nothing new, and still exists today, and probably will exist forever (unless we get to the point where people no longer commit crimes and no longer have children). They simply needed an Amendment to redefine who gets to be considered free.

    190. Re:First sale doctrine by ep32g79 · · Score: 1

      Just wait until the RIAA/MPAA catches wind of this ruling.
      Soon they will be distributing all media from an offshore shipper to impose a "no resale" exemption on the media effectively shutting down all rental agencies.

    191. Re:First sale doctrine by pugugly · · Score: 1

      To the extent that states were free, until the 14th amendment, to ignore the provisions of the Constitution that limited the federal government, sure, states could have a state religion, though you're statement about 'gradually phased out' doesn't seem all that accurate going by the loc page.

      But even ignoring that - So what? I will concede that properly prior to 1868 the statement should have been "The founders 'Clearly' believed these rights came from a higher power . . . and immediately initiated first and foremost an amendment explicitly banning the Federal government from formally recognizing said higher power?", but c'mon - despite the propoganda out there the public record clearly shows that yes the founders wanted government thoroughly segregated from religion. Even the State governments had lost the fashion well before 1868.

      Trying to claim the founders had some other intent despite their repeated public writing to the contrary? Bullshit.

      Pug

      --
      An Invisible Entity of Vast Power whose existence must be taken on faith alone: Liberal Media
    192. Re:First sale doctrine by Profane+MuthaFucka · · Score: 1

      Ayn Rand blah blah blah fiercely independent blah blah blah blah a boyish face, fiercely intellegent, and oh look she swallows the semen of the capitalist too blah blah blah blah long long speech, TA DA!

      --
      Fascism trolls keeping me up every night. When I starts a preachin', he HITS ME WITH HIS REICH!
    193. Re:First sale doctrine by Colazar · · Score: 1

      Costco also manufactures a lot of the stuff it sells. Everything that is "Kirkland Select" brand is made by them.

      --
      He decided to just watch the government, and kind of scale it down to size, and run his life that way. --Laurie Anderson
    194. Re:First sale doctrine by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Here in the wonderful Canadian province of Quebec, the government has legislated sales taxes to any resale of value. What is exempt are cars that are a minimum of 10 years old.

      So, buy a car for 40k, pay the taxes, and sell it 4 years later for 20k, and the purchaser will pay sales tax on the 20k.

    195. Re:First sale doctrine by johnride70 · · Score: 1

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    196. Re:First sale doctrine by falconwolf · · Score: 1

      Costco also manufactures a lot of the stuff it sells. Everything that is "Kirkland Select" brand is made by them.

      Does Costco make stuff itself, or does it contract with others to make the stuff? I bet Costco does not own one factory. Sam's has other companies make it's Member's Mark products, for instance Wrangler makes Member Mark jeans and Duracell makes their batteries. In reply to the question Who makes the kirkland signature private label? Answers.com says "There is no one company. Several companies ranging from Starbucks to Diamond pet food make products that are sold under the Kirkland Signature brand."

      Falcon

    197. Re:First sale doctrine by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      While I too have issues with Corporations being treated like people, your analogies are all very dramatic and unsubstantial.

      Corporations are free to merge with many other corporations, while polygamy is still illegal for 'people' in most states.

      Polygamy is not a merger. Mergers turn multiple entities into one single thing. Polygamy still retains the individual people. The appropriate analogy would be cannibalism, and even that is wrong since mergers are usually mutually beneficial.

      Parent's analogy holds. Mergers can easily be viewed as similar to marriage. In the eyes of the law when people are married they become a single legal entity in many respects. Filing income taxes immediately springs to mind. There are many examples. It is only legal to marry one other person right now. In addition in most places they must be the opposite sex and age restrictions apply! There are other restrictions as well depending on the area. When corporations merge, often the individual identities of the constituent companies are kept. Divisions can remain separate and assist each other. Also, the people that work for those companies remain individuals as well ;)

      Corporations are allowed to have business practices such as "cutting off the competitor's air supply" while murder is still illegal for 'people'.

      As long as their business practices are legal, it is nothing like murder. If the business practices are illegal, then there is no argument.

      The whole point of parent is that things such as "cutting off the competitor's air supply" are "legal" corporate business practices. The analogous behaviors among normal persons are illegal. A good concrete example might be chemical waste dumping. Corporations can often dump certain quantities of chemicals that you as an individual would end up in prison for dumping. Furthermore you as an individual can be sent to a prison. Corps can not. Also, I am aware of piercing the corporate veil in cases of egregious crime but this doesn't happen often (esp. with large corps.)

      Corporations are allowed to be dissolved yet Suicide is illegal for 'people' to commit.

      Corporate dissolution is not exactly suicide. Suicide destroys the value inherent in the person, whereas dissolution only destroys the company's name. The better analogy would be more like a divorce, where the parents split up the property and change their names. Again, that's all quite legal and isn't special treatment for corporations.

      Although I agree that corporate dissolution is not quite like suicide, it is also not much like divorce. How the property is distributed and where the money goes is not really an issue in either case. For example, after suicide and divorce property can still exist and be given to others. The problem with corporate dissolution seems to me to be one of liability and responsibility. Dissolution is the ultimate out. Only in that way it can it be likened to suicide.

      Corporations can have 'hostile takeovers' of other weaker corporations, but armed robbery, slavery, and blackmail are all still illegal for other categories of 'people'.

      Robbery is theft. A hostile takeover isn't theft. It is a purchase of ownership. The two are not alike at all. As for slavery, a hostile takeover has nothing like it. Slavery doesn't apply because you aren't allowed to treat people like property. Company ownership is property and is traded every day. And blackmail doesn't even apply.

      The analogy holds here. The whole point is that corporations are given the rights of people but they are also allowed to be treated as property. Typically property does not have the rights of persons and persons cannot be treated like property.

      You also ignore that there are many laws that apply only to businesses and not to

    198. Re:First sale doctrine by Transaction7 · · Score: 1

      Oh, yes, corporations really are actually people. The Supreme Court has said so since very shortly after the Fourteenth Amendment was adopted over a century ago, and, as you must realize, and we all must accept, the Supreme Court "is not final because it is infallible, it is infallible because its decisions are final." That's why it took three quarters of a century to correct its decision upholding so-called "separate but equal" despite Harlan the Elder's prescient dissent in that case and overwhelming evidence that separate never was, never was intended to be, and never would be equal. There is now a bitter and deeply divisive disagreement about the intent, purpose, effect, and proper means of interpreting and amending it, including whether the Justices and others sworn to uphold it may amend it based upon their own personal subjective feelings and desires. The liberals have eviscerated the Tenth and most of the Ninth Amendments by saying that they are "merely declaratory." The Framers said exactly the same thing about the First, Second, Fourth, Fifth, Sixth etc.which they had originally considered unnecessary and feared that they owuld lbe misconstrued as negating other rights, which is why the Ninth and Tenth were added along with them, so tht argument fails. Some of our more liberal recent and current Justices, including Kennedy who is the determining swing vote on many cases today, just as Roberts was in 1937, were chosen by purportely conservative Republicans. In one recent case, President, and former Professor of Constitutional Law Obama said afterward that he agreed with the result reached, if not the rationale used, by the conservatives rahter than hte one reached by the liberal majority. He did not mention that, on politial gorunds, he had voted agianst confirming two of the justices who reached the result he said would have been correct in that case. . The Court and all its Justices should protect the politically powerless from popular abuses but should be above politics. Even the Court's opinions refer to the other two as the "poitial" branches, and this was the clear intent of the Founders and Framers, across the spectrum from Hamilton to Jefferson etc.

    199. Re:First sale doctrine by PopeRatzo · · Score: 1

      Oh, yes, corporations really are actually people.

      Then why aren't they allowed to vote or run for office? You're saying the only way they're allowed to participate in our elections is by pumping money into them?

      If corporations are "people" why don't they pay similar tax rates? Last year, Exxon payed ZERO dollars in federal income tax, yet reported tens of billions of dollars of income.

      Can you say that an entity that only exists to protect personal assets from liability should be considered a "person"? Can you say that an entity that only exists on paper has a right to life?

      And how can you ever say that the SCOTUS is not a political entity after Bush v Gore? Please read the excellent New Yorker article by Jeffrey Toobin and tell me how SCOTUS is not a political branch.

      Unfortunately, the "Founders and Framers" were every bit as short-sighted and politically motivated as today's politicians. They no more expected that their Constitution would still be the governing document of a Nation after 200 years than they expected that the United States would ever have a standing army or that people of color would ever have the right to vote much less become President. I can't imagine that they'd be pleased that their document would be treated as Holy Scripture and misused by fundamentalists as badly as they misuse their other Holy Scripture.

      --
      You are welcome on my lawn.
    200. Re:First sale doctrine by anguirus.x · · Score: 1

      I don't really care what they rule on this issue. I own what I own and I'll do what I feel with it, including reselling it. The courts can diddle one another over the issue for as long as they like, the de facto ruling has already been made in favor of First Sale.

    201. Re:First sale doctrine by SETIGuy · · Score: 1

      If you still fail to understand the damage that governments do when they try to run the economy, you need a remedial history course.

      If you don't understand how much more stable the economy has been since the great depression due to reasonable management of the Federal Reserve system, it is you who needs the remedial course.

  2. Huh? by mark72005 · · Score: 2

    "In a 4-4 decision, the U.S. Supreme court let stand the Ninth Circuit's decision that the First-Sale Doctrine (which says once you buy something, the maker gets no say in what you do with it) only applies to goods made in the US. That Omega watch you bought in Switzerland last year? It's yours now—forever. You can't sell it without Omega's permission."

    How are those last two sentences related to the rest of the summary?

    1. Re:Huh? by just_another_sean · · Score: 1

      Because that's what the summary says. If it's made outside the US then the first sale doctrine does not apply. While it does seem to imply that you "can never sell something you bought outside the US" what it means is there is a chance that someone will go after you legally if you try to and I'm guessing the Omegas, Pradas and Guccis of the world will be some of the first to take advantage of this.

      --
      Creationist Textbook Stickers Declared Unconstitutional by CowboyNeal
    2. Re:Huh? by TubeSteak · · Score: 2

      "In a 4-4 decision, the U.S. Supreme court let stand the Ninth Circuit's decision..."

      As I understand it, a 4-4 vote is the same as if the court never heard the case.
      The end result is that the case only stands as precedent in the 9th Circuit.
      Obviously, other juridictions will take this into account, but it is not binding upon them.

      --
      [Fuck Beta]
      o0t!
    3. Re:Huh? by yotto · · Score: 1

      Because Omega is specifically named in the article.

      I know, I know. I read the article. Sorry.

    4. Re:Huh? by mcgrew · · Score: 1

      TFS is completely misleading; it doesn't match TFA at all.

      Omega sued Costco for selling its watches for prices below suggested retail, citing a tiny Omega logo on the goods that it said gave it the copyright holders power to control how creative works are distributed. Costco cited the first sale doctrine, which says copyright holders are only entitled to such protection on the first sale of a work. Without such protection, libraries and book resellers couldn’t function.

      The decision — or non-decision, really, since Justice Elena Kagan was forced to recuse herself, leaving a tie vote — has serious implications for U.S. retailers that obtain their goods on the gray market.

      You can resell that watch as a private citizen, and since it was a tie vote, it could come up again.

      Plus, congress could change copyright law if it's leaned on hard enough by US retailers; they didn't say "first sale doctrine" was unconstitutional, as TFS implies.

    5. Re:Huh? by Martin+Blank · · Score: 2

      That is correct. A tie vote sets no precedent.

      I looked up a little more on this case in particular. Costco bought the watches from a New York-based company that bought them from people that had bought them from authorized distributors. Omega contends that the initial purchaser was not authorized to resell or import them to the United States, so any subsequent sale was unauthorized and hence illegal. Omega brought suit on the basis of control of the Omega logo.

      This troubles me not so much as an issue of first sale doctrine (though there is that), but as an expansion of copyright law. A logo should be treated as a trademark, and reasonable control should be provided over its use. However, restricting sale based on ownership and control of the trademark under copyright law seems a ludicrous expansion of powers of creative ownership.

      I also take issue with the 9th Circuit's jurisdiction argument. The Court explicitly expands the scope of the presumption of extraterritoriality, whereby US law applies to undertakings in the US and not elsewhere, unless specifically indicated in the law. I see nothing wrong with Omega asserting control over its trademarks in the US, registered or not, or control over copyright of published materials. However, if no US law was broken in the importation or further sale, jurisdiction doesn't seem like it would be an issue here. If there's any jurisdictional question, it is that Omega should have taken the actions against the people that bought the watches in the first place, filing suits in those nations where a US-style first-sale doctrine does not apply, or perhaps against the authorized distributors that were selling watches far enough below MSRP that the initial buyer and the NY-based importer and Costco could all profit from the endeavor.

      We'll have to wait and see what happens in other districts, since the Court issued only a per curiam slip opinion affirming the 9th Circuit's decision. This is as bad a decision as I have seen in recent years short of Kelso.

      --
      You can never go home again... but I guess you can shop there.
    6. Re:Huh? by MoonBuggy · · Score: 3, Insightful

      You can resell that watch as a private citizen

      That's not how I read it. The bit you highlighted is editorial commentary; it does have serious implications for US retailers, but that doesn't mean they are the only people it has implications for. If 'first sale' doesn't apply, then the copyright holder retains control over all subsequent distribution of their copyrighted work, public or private.

      since it was a tie vote, it could come up again.

      Which is, at least, a small mercy. The fact it was a tie is absolutely unbelievable, though - even with my healthily embittered view of the world I didn't expect the protectionism to reach these depths, especially when it actively harms others with very deep pockets.

    7. Re:Huh? by HermMunster · · Score: 1

      Something made outside the US and something bought outside the US are two different things entirely.

      Most products American's buy are made outside the US. Most products American's buy are bought inside the US.

      If anything made outside the US, irrespective of where it was purchased (in the US or not), under that interpretation we'd be unable to sell anything to anyone else without the distributor's permission. That would effectively end all foreign car sales, close almost all used car lots, etc., to ad nausium.

      If the product was manufactured outside the US and sold outside the US and imported into the US it could only be resold with permission of the manufacturer, AS LONG AS that countries laws don't permit you to do so automatically. So, those foreign German cars that Bill Gates and Paul Allen bought outside the US in Germany (and then shipped to the US) can't be resold by them without the car manufacturer's permission, IF that country's laws have those limits.

      --
      You can lead a man with reason but you can't make him think.
    8. Re:Huh? by suutar · · Score: 1

      The importation itself, without consent of the copyright holder, is a violation of copyright law. Yes, if you are in Switzerland and buy a DVD pressed in Switzerland, you are technically supposed to have permission of the copyright holder to bring it back to the US. Nobody bothers to enforce it because in practice the copyright holder never cares. Well, until now.

    9. Re:Huh? by suutar · · Score: 1

      First Sale doesn't apply if you bought it outside the US. If you buy it outside, bring it inside (with consent of the copyright holder), and then sell it, _then_ first sale does apply, and the guy you sold it to _can_ do anything they want. You as the importer are the restricted one.

    10. Re:Huh? by Martin+Blank · · Score: 1

      But does that violate US law or Swiss law? If there's no US law against importing such merchandise, the appropriate action should be to file suit in Switzerland.

      --
      You can never go home again... but I guess you can shop there.
  3. Pirst fost by alexo · · Score: 2

    And you can't pass it on without my permission!

    1. Re:Pirst fost by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Pass what on?

    2. Re:Pirst fost by jc42 · · Score: 1

      Yeah, and your original spelling probably gives you a valid copyright. Or maybe even a patent, since those aren't even English words. I wonder if we could get slashdot in trouble for automatically quoting you in my message's subject.

      --
      Those who do study history are doomed to stand helplessly by while everyone else repeats it.
  4. The stupidest thing is by Compaqt · · Score: 4, Insightful

    that they based it on copyright law: an Omega logo on the watch.

    I thought it would be something like a signed contract, or buying from a foreign wholesaler, then importing to the US.

    But the copyright on the logo?

    --
    I'm not a lawyer, but I play one on the Internet. Blog
    1. Re:The stupidest thing is by betterunixthanunix · · Score: 1

      What I am a little confused by is how copyright law has anything to do with this. Nobody is copying the logo, so how could a copyright be violated? Does copyright apply to activities that do not involve the creation of copies?

      --
      Palm trees and 8
    2. Re:The stupidest thing is by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      yes. it also applies to creation of derivative works, public display, public performance, and _distribution_.

    3. Re:The stupidest thing is by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

      that they based it on copyright law: an Omega logo on the watch.

      Does this mean that if you destroy the logo you can sell the watch?

    4. Re:The stupidest thing is by Sonny+Yatsen · · Score: 1

      It's because copyright doesn't only pertain to the right to copy, but also the right to distribute.

      17 USC 106 gives a copyright owner the exclusive right to: "(3) to distribute copies or phonorecords of the copyrighted work to the public by sale or other transfer of ownership, or by rental, lease, or lending; "

      http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/html/uscode17/usc_sec_17_00000106----000-.html#3

      However, 17 USC 109 limits that exclusive right to control distribution beyond the first sale.

      http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/17/109.html

      Thus, the First Sale doctrine is, essentially, a defense against a claim of infringement of the copyright owner's right to distribute. Sure, nobody's copying, but what Costco is doing is distribution, which also is covered.

      --
      My postings are informational and does not constitute legal advice. Act on it at your risk.
    5. Re:The stupidest thing is by geminidomino · · Score: 1

      So then if this holds, the secondhand game market is pretty much dead, yeah? Since I doubt any of the discs are pressed in the US.

    6. Re:The stupidest thing is by rtfa-troll · · Score: 1

      I think the point is that Omega copied the logo, but didn't license it for Costco to use. The judgement of the 9th court is saying that Costco did need such a license and agrees with all the recent garbage about shrink wrap licenses etc. It's essentially an extension of copyright in a way which is contradicts the US constitution, but is okay and constitutional because the US supreme court says it is. Hey, but INAL; I can only go by the words as they are written, not as they are "interpreted".

      --
      =~ s,(.*),<sarcasm>$1</sarcasm>,g if any_point_you_wish();
    7. Re:The stupidest thing is by Nadaka · · Score: 1

      The prohibition is on distribution of copies or derivative works. Not resale of the original.

    8. Re:The stupidest thing is by H3lldr0p · · Score: 2

      Part of the copyright provision is that you are prevented from importing goods which are being sold first-hand in the US by a licensee or manufacturer. This has historically been applied to books, movies, and music. More recently to games. But thanks to this court ruling it now applies to anything with a copyrighted logo.

      Mind you, last I checked logos and their like are the domain of trademarks. How they got a copyright for something that should, by all rights, be a trademark is something that seems to be missing from this conversation.

    9. Re:The stupidest thing is by Synchis · · Score: 2

      The short answer to that is: Yes.

      Copyright laws center around the right to create and *distribute* copyrighted works.

      The idea behind the first-sale doctrine was that you could purchase a copy of a copyrighted work, and then do with it as you pleased as long as you did not make additional copies of it. I buy a book, I can now lend it, trade it, sell it, or even give it away. Without the first-sale doctrine, only the copyright holder can determine if that work can be distributed, even after its been sold.

      Now, an interesting way around this decision would be this: Purchase the watch, and then in some way *remove* the logo from it. There would no longer be a copyright issue, and the watch could be freely sold.

      --
      Thomas A. Knight
      Author of The Time Weaver
    10. Re:The stupidest thing is by Nadaka · · Score: 1

      Wrong. They key word you are forgetting is the word copies. Except for this egregious ruling, you can resale the original of anything you want and copyright does not matter.

    11. Re:The stupidest thing is by jimicus · · Score: 3, Insightful

      It's a common way to circumvent laws which attempt to encourage competition.

      Let's consider three parties: Manufacturer, Retailer and Customer.

      Broadly speaking, laws governing the contracts between Manufacturer, Retailer and Consumer generally say something like:

      The contracts between "Manufacturer and Retailer" and "Retailer and Customer" are wholly separate, and Manufacturer cannot impose subsequent conditions on the contract between "Retailer and Customer". (In other words, Apple can't demand their retailers sell at a specified price).

      Usual Solution: Manufacturer doesn't write anything into the contract along those lines, but have internal processes that ensure if the retailer does try and do this, subsequent orders from the retailer are mysteriously "delayed" and/or include a line in the contract giving Manufacturer the right to stop selling to Retailer at any time and for no reason whatsoever.

      Retailer is free to source products from anywhere in the world (the "grey market"), they're not obliged to buy from local distributors

      Solutions: Sure, but most warranty law deals with the contract between Retailer and Customer. The manufacturer is under no obligation to even offer a warranty - and they often won't with grey market products (which they identify by serial number). Which means that if the product breaks, that's the retailer's problem. Of course, this isn't terribly effective for a lot of things these days - Costco deal in sufficient quantities that they can live with this quite happily.

      What else can the manufacturer do? Localise products: ensure that only products destined for the US market get the necessary sticky labels showing they meet safety standards (even if they're all identical) - but this doesn't work very well for designer watches and handbags.

      Copyright - ah, that's a good one. The manufacturer obviously holds copyright over their name and various aspects of their products, which means nobody else can use it without their permission. Obviously, no manufacturer in their right mind is going to sue everyone who sells their products for copyright infringement - but they can sue people who they don't want selling their product.

    12. Re:The stupidest thing is by Late+Adopter · · Score: 1

      No. The law in question (17 USC 602(a) ) only affects the legality of imported goods, not goods that were already legally imported under the authority of the copyright holder.

    13. Re:The stupidest thing is by Quantus347 · · Score: 1

      Well, if that were the case then every used bookstore in the country is about to be raided. I mean, If Sale=Reproduction for the purposes of this, then it's saying by extension that a copyright holder owns every physical copy of the material. For heaven's sake, the New York Times could charge me for burning their paper in my fireplace last night.

      --
      Common Sense isn't as Common as people think...
    14. Re:The stupidest thing is by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It's a step in that direction, but not the whole nine yards. The situation is this: If something is brought onto the US market with the OK of all rights owners, then the first sale doctrine applies, regardless of the origin of the product. "First sale" is about the first transaction on the US market, not about the location of the production facility. Market transactions in other countries do not exhaust a US rights holder's right to control distribution, at least not until the Supreme Court corrects this absurd situation in a future decision (and until then the failure of the Supreme Court to come to a decision in this case "only" means that the lower court's ruling applies in that court's jurisdiction, not US-wide.)

    15. Re:The stupidest thing is by MoonBuggy · · Score: 5, Informative

      The prohibition is on distribution of copies or derivative works. Not resale of the original.

      Specifically due to the 'first sale' doctrine - the copyright holder controls distribution only through the first transaction, not through subsequent transactions. Since this ruling says that 'first sale' does not apply to goods procured outside the US, it means that the copyright holder does retain distribution control of the original copyrighted work.

      It's an absolutely unforgivably terrible ruling, but that's what it says.

    16. Re:The stupidest thing is by houghi · · Score: 1

      The manufacturer is under no obligation to even offer a warranty

      In Europe they do. Most of the time it is covered by the retailer (from a customers point of view), but if that retailer goes out of business, the manufacturer will be the one that must cover the warranty. e.g. 2 years for electronics and 6 months for batteries.

      This is about manufacturing faults. Retailers might go a bit further in the name of customer service.

      --
      Don't fight for your country, if your country does not fight for you.
    17. Re:The stupidest thing is by stms · · Score: 0

      On a related note it seems the creators of the God Of War franchise are infringing on Omega's copyright.

    18. Re:The stupidest thing is by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      [...] but is okay and constitutional because the US supreme court says it is.

      You say that facetiously, but, I hate to say it, in utter reality, that is the EXACT thing that determines constitutionality. Not only that, it is the SOLE thing that does.

    19. Re:The stupidest thing is by wronkiew · · Score: 1

      I'm pretty sure logos can be both copyrighted and trademarked. For example, the Coca-Cola logo is a registered trademark which has fallen into the public domain as the copyright term has expired. The current Pepsi logo, on the other hand, is copyrighted.

    20. Re:The stupidest thing is by martin-boundary · · Score: 1

      Hey, but INAL

      Yeah, that's obvious 'cause you didn't the verb in ;-)

    21. Re:The stupidest thing is by Jainith · · Score: 1

      Interesting...

      I just thought of all of the 'no-tag' clothing stores where you can buy "brand name" clothing out of which the tags have been cut. (I assume they get these thought the secondary market or salvage, and have to remove the tags for the very same reason.)

    22. Re:The stupidest thing is by Late+Adopter · · Score: 4, Informative

      The contracts between "Manufacturer and Retailer" and "Retailer and Customer" are wholly separate, and Manufacturer cannot impose subsequent conditions on the contract between "Retailer and Customer". (In other words, Apple can't demand their retailers sell at a specified price).

      No longer true, as of 2007,
      http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Leegin_Creative_Leather_Products,_Inc._v._PSKS,_Inc.

      Retailer is free to source products from anywhere in the world (the "grey market"), they're not obliged to buy from local distributors

      No longer true, as of 1998,
      http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quality_King_v._L'anza

    23. Re:The stupidest thing is by honkycat · · Score: 1

      The copyrighted work in question is the original drawing that Omega reproduces on each of its watches. Each printing is a copy of that original, so the OP is correct to apply that definition.

    24. Re:The stupidest thing is by takev · · Score: 1

      Moral copyright law says you are not allowed to vandalize or destroy a copyrighted work.
      The USA only respects moral copyright on visual art, which Omega claims on its "logo", so it applies.

      http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Moral_rights_(copyright_law)

    25. Re:The stupidest thing is by lgw · · Score: 1

      That's only true because of the First Sale doctrine. Copyright does matter to your right to resell an item, and First Sale is what makes that OK. But First Sale is not quite universal - for example, you can't rent CDs as you can DVDs, even though you're not making an additional copy.

      --
      Socialism: a lie told by totalitarians and believed by fools.
    26. Re:The stupidest thing is by blair1q · · Score: 1

      When the topic is watches, the value of the brand is often much greater than the value of the object it's applied to.

      Someone willing to shell out $5k for an Omega Speedmaster isn't going to be satisfied with a $35 Timex keeps better time and may even look cooler.

      That excess value is what the copyright protects, and it's a valid use of it.

    27. Re:The stupidest thing is by gnasher719 · · Score: 2

      What I am a little confused by is how copyright law has anything to do with this. Nobody is copying the logo, so how could a copyright be violated? Does copyright apply to activities that do not involve the creation of copies?

      Let's try to do this logically. The copyright makes sure that only the copyright holder can produce the watch. I think that is quite reasonable, you can produce any watches you want, but not copies of these. Next, the copyright holder has the right to sell his goods under whatever conditions they want with very few exceptions. One exception is that in the USA, the copyright holder cannot tell you that you cannot sell the goods on. That is not some god-given right, that is a US-specific law which puts restrictions the seller can put into their sales contract.

      Now these watches start out somewhere in Europe. US law cannot help you allowing to import them into the USA. You have to be able to import the watches into the USA according to the law where the watches originate. You cannot import them against the sales agreement between you and the seller in Europe and then claim "First Sale" rights in the USA.

      And note that "import" has some specific meaning. Things you buy for personal use are not "imported". Things that you buy for resale are "imported". You are free to buy this watch in Europe, bring it to the USA and wear it or put it into a drawer, whatever you prefer. You cannot bring it to the USA and sell it in your watch store. And if the import itself was legal, then you have first sale rights.

    28. Re:The stupidest thing is by camperdave · · Score: 1

      How they got a copyright for something that should, by all rights, be a trademark is something that seems to be missing from this conversation.

      Are you trying to say that a logo can only be a trademark or a copyrighted work of art, but not both?

      --
      When our name is on the back of your car, we're behind you all the way!
    29. Re:The stupidest thing is by gnasher719 · · Score: 2

      Specifically due to the 'first sale' doctrine - the copyright holder controls distribution only through the first transaction, not through subsequent transactions. Since this ruling says that 'first sale' does not apply to goods procured outside the US, it means that the copyright holder does retain distribution control of the original copyrighted work.

      It's an absolutely unforgivably terrible ruling, but that's what it says.

      First Sales rights apply when you manage to bring the goods legally into the USA. And you can't do that against the will of the copyright holder. And you can't gain rights based on US law if you have to first break the law to get the goods into US territory. US first sale doctrine cannot possibly apply outside the USA. It doesn't apply until the point where the goods move to the USA with the permission of the copyright holder.

    30. Re:The stupidest thing is by sumdumass · · Score: 1

      Evidently, foreign law applies to the first sale in which it came to the chain of markets to the final retailer. The US is under treaty to respect foreign copyright laws where applicable. the argument put forth was that the first sale wasn't legal because under "their" copyright law (not ours), they have certain rights that weren't observed, so all subsequent sales couldn't be legal either.

      In this matter, the US first sale doctrine or right wouldn't even apply because from the court's perspective, once they determined the original law gave those people those rights in that country, and that those rights were infringed on, all other sales weren't legally binding under US law.

      It's like saying if you couldn't legally obtain it where it was located, then doing so and laundering it through another country won't make it legal even though it's legal in the other country. The copyright distribution issue was only to show the first sale in the other country wasn't legal.

    31. Re:The stupidest thing is by Smauler · · Score: 1

      IANAL

      In the UK, the law that applies is the sale of goods act. The only real recourse the consumer has is with the retailer.... I'm not sure how the law applies if the retailer goes out of business. Essentially, the law states that the item bought must be fit for purpose unless otherwise described. If it breaks, or doesn't work, you're entitled to a refund, which makes a lot of manufacturer's warranties out there worthless. There are different timescales for different types of goods.... AFAIK the rule of thumb for electronic goods is no shorter than 1 year.

    32. Re:The stupidest thing is by Confusador · · Score: 2

      Now, that article is a stub and I didn't RTFD, but at first glance it looks like you're misinterpreting Quality King.

      The Supreme Court found that the copyright holder could not prevent re-importation of materials it had authorized.

      (emphasis mine)

    33. Re:The stupidest thing is by jc42 · · Score: 1

      that they based it on copyright law: an Omega logo on the watch.

      Hmm ... Wouldn't that be covered by trademark, not copyright?

      Anyone know if it's possible to copyright a trademark's text in the US? If so, is any use of "omega" now illegal without Omega's permission? Would it apply if I were writing in Greek rather than English?

      --
      Those who do study history are doomed to stand helplessly by while everyone else repeats it.
    34. Re:The stupidest thing is by MartinSchou · · Score: 3, Insightful

      Here's the odd thing - how old is the Omega logo?

      The company was founded in 1848, meaning that any kind of copyrights claim to that logo is expired.

    35. Re:The stupidest thing is by suutar · · Score: 1

      The point is that when someone bought the watches (outside the US), they didn't get permission from Omega (who holds a copyright on some aspect of the watch; could be the logo, could be the watch body style, I dunno) to bring them _into_ the US. The notes in the decision aren't clear as to whether that someone is Costco, ENE, or the folks who sold the watches to ENE, but whoever it was, since they didn't have permission from Omega, they were (according to section 602) in violation of copyright law, specifically section 106(3). And since the goods were made and bought by that someone outside the US, the transaction was not subject to US law and hence section 109(a), the main exception to 106(3), doesn't apply.

    36. Re:The stupidest thing is by cpt+kangarooski · · Score: 1

      Mind you, last I checked logos and their like are the domain of trademarks. How they got a copyright for something that should, by all rights, be a trademark is something that seems to be missing from this conversation.

      Trademarks and copyrights are unrelated forms of protection, involving different policies, rights, remedies, and so forth, but it is possible, from time to time, to have a single object which is protected by both -- in different ways, of course.

      Consider, for example, the Beagle Bros logo since it's a fairly fancy logo, and shouldn't be totally unknown around here.

      Assuming that the portraits in the logo are not old public domain clip art (fat chance), they'd clearly be copyrighted works of visual art. That they are also used as a logo doesn't cause them to lose their copyrighted status. Copyright protections would prevent people from, for example, making copies of the logo, but would not prevent people from distributing lawfully made copies further, if the first sale had already occurred. So the copyright could not be used to prevent someone from putting a copy of MS-DOS on a 5.25" floppy disk, putting that disk in a disk jacket emblazoned with the Beagle Bros logo, and claiming that it was BB-DOS.

      The trademark on the logo, OTOH, could be used to prevent people from making that sort of false claim. But a trademark would not prevent someone from just making copies of the logo and printing them on stuff, so long as they didn't place those goods into commerce. Copyright would handle that side of things, though.

      Copyrights can never apply to just a word or a name or even a short phrase. So the _name_ BEAGLE BROS could only be trademarked. And a very simple logo might not be able to be copyrighted either. The McDonald's M logo, all by itself, is probably not copyrightable, for example.

      I'm confident that Omega has a trademark on their logo as well, but so long as it meets the very low standards to be copyrightable, they get both kinds of protection.

      There is a fun downside, however. A trademark cannot be pressed into service as a poor-man's copyright, per the Dastar case. When the copyright on the logo expires, it will enter the public domain, and Omega won't be able to use trademark law to prevent people from doing whatever they want with it. It is possible that it will still have some degree of vitality as a trademark, but it will be severely diminished. Of course, that assumes that things won't get even worse in the future.

      --
      -- This and all my posts are in the public domain. I am a lawyer. I am not your lawyer, and this is not legal advice.
    37. Re:The stupidest thing is by Grumbleduke · · Score: 1

      Copyright also applies to buying, selling, renting, hiring and loaning in many countries (including, iirc, the US). It is my understanding (ianal) that all of these count as copyright infringement in the US unless there is a licence. However, the "First-sale doctrine" is a way to get around this by saying that if the original copyright owner sold the copyrighted material initially (i.e. there is a first sale), this is all ok and the material can be treated like real property (rather than intellectual property).

      This means that if you download an unlicensed copy of a DVD, burn it and sell it, that sale, and all subsequent ones are still infringements of copyright (as is your downloading and burning), but if you buy a DVD from a (legal) shop and sell it on, that is fine.

      I haven't read the judgment in this case, but it makes sense to me - the "first sale" is part of US law. It doesn't exist everywhere (in fact, the opposite happens in the EU with the artist's resale right, which means that in some cases, if you sell real property you have to pay a royalty to anyone who owns the copyright in materials included in it). If the original sale was in a foreign country, it seems logical that the sale is governed by the laws of that country, not any country you move to (this works both ways).

      Of course, this whole issue has arisen due to the stupid copyright laws we have and how they aren't harmonised - in some cases (as here) working in opposite ways across different countries.

      Incidentally, this is probably why Netflix and RedBox exist in the US only (as far as DVD rental goes) - in the EU, renting or loaning requires a licence (which libraries etc. hate). On the plus side, selling is perfectly legal (provided what is being sold wasn't created via infringement). Not sure what the situation is in Switzerland.

    38. Re:The stupidest thing is by cpt+kangarooski · · Score: 1

      The copyright makes sure that only the copyright holder can produce the watch.

      No, it would be a pain in the ass trying to get a copyright to apply to an entire watch. Maybe you'd be able to get parts of the case or the dial. In any event, the copyrighted work in question here is a logo, apparently this.

      And note that "import" has some specific meaning. Things you buy for personal use are not "imported".

      Well, for the purposes of copyright law, any tangible object in which is fixed a copyrighted work, which is brought into the US from outside is imported. Whether for personal or commercial use is irrelevant. Unless the object was manufactured in the US, and exported earlier, it is illegal to import it unless the US copyright holder (who may not be at all involved with whoever made the object abroad) permits it, or unless you fall into one of a few very narrow exceptions. And while there is a personal use exception, it doesn't permit for later distribution itself, nor does it trigger first sale, so the object can never be distributed further. At least, not within the US, not while it is copyrighted. I can only imagine what this will do for estate law.

      --
      -- This and all my posts are in the public domain. I am a lawyer. I am not your lawyer, and this is not legal advice.
    39. Re:The stupidest thing is by cpt+kangarooski · · Score: 1

      First Sales rights apply when you manage to bring the goods legally into the USA. And you can't do that against the will of the copyright holder.

      I disagree. First sale applies when a copy is made within the US, and then sold, regardless of where it is sold. The 9th Cir. decided that first sale should also apply to copies made outside of the US -- despite the lack of support for this in the statute, but okay, it's also a judicial doctrine -- where the copy was imported under the authority of the copyright holder and sold here. (E.g. if a book were printed in Mexico, shipped by the publisher across the border, and sold in a store, it would be as if the book were printed in New Mexico)

      But it is lawful to import copies under a few exceptions in section 602, without the authorization of the copyright holder. And in those situations, I don't see how first sale could apply, even though the goods were legally brought here.

      US first sale doctrine cannot possibly apply outside the USA.

      Sure it can. We could say that for any work which is copyrighted in the US, first sale applies to any copy of that work which was made and sold under the authority of the author of that work, or any person to whom the copyright of that author had been vested lawfully.

      So, for example, if Alice, an author, writes a book, and keeps the US rights to the book, but sells the UK rights to Bob, a Brit, Bob can lawfully print copies in the UK, sell them to Carol, a person whose name begins with C, and Carol could bring them into the US lawfully, and treat them just like any other copies, since first sale had occurred between Bob and Carol, and Alice had given Bob the applicable rights to engage in that sale.

      The purpose of regulating imports as a form of distribution for copyright is to protect authors from a situation in which their book is copyrighted here, in the public domain across the border, and they have to compete with free. Or, where there are pirates across the border. But so long as it's the same author who at least initially had the rights in both countries, they would only be competing against themselves, which sounds fine to me. And if an author sold his international rights for a pittance, to be paid in installments of a fraction of a pittance each, that's his problem. Authors doing stupid things are not what copyright should guard against. That would be offensively paternalistic.

      --
      -- This and all my posts are in the public domain. I am a lawyer. I am not your lawyer, and this is not legal advice.
    40. Re:The stupidest thing is by Late+Adopter · · Score: 1

      The Supreme Court found that the copyright holder could not prevent re-importation of materials it had authorized.

      Emphasis mine. What Quality King establishes is that 17 USC 109(a) doesn't provide an exception to 602(a) (Actually BMG v Perez 1991 established that, but Quality King explicitly affirmed it at the SC level, and spells it out for non-copyrighted works with a copyrighted component(i.e. a label or design)). However, you are right that re-importation of goods previously distributed in the US, does fall under the 109(a) exception.

      Go ahead and read the decision, they help explain the judicial reasoning, references to other decisions, etc.

    41. Re:The stupidest thing is by cpt+kangarooski · · Score: 1

      No, VARA only applies under very narrow circumstances indeed. For example, it only applies where the work is in a limited edition of no more than 200 copies, each consecutively numbered and signed, and does not include works made for hire. This is pretty certainly not a work which qualifies for that sort of protection in the US.

      --
      -- This and all my posts are in the public domain. I am a lawyer. I am not your lawyer, and this is not legal advice.
    42. Re:The stupidest thing is by cpt+kangarooski · · Score: 1

      In copyright law, 'copy' is a term of art, meaning a tangible object in which the intangible work has been fixed. For example, a blank piece of paper, onto which a poem is written, is a copy.

      And the original copy is still a copy, and there is no special treatment for it.

      --
      -- This and all my posts are in the public domain. I am a lawyer. I am not your lawyer, and this is not legal advice.
    43. Re:The stupidest thing is by cpt+kangarooski · · Score: 1

      I discussed this elsewhere, but basically, some things can qualify for protection both under copyright and trademark. A sufficiently artistic logo could. But a name cannot be copyrighted; only trademarked. And even then, the trademark doesn't prohibit any use of the mark, only some uses.

      As for foreign language marks, IIRC it basically is going to involve what the perception of the relevant segment of the public thinks. If the owners of fancy, expensive watches can read Greek, things may turn out differently than if they cannot. I'd have to research it for more information; I've never had that situation arise.

      --
      -- This and all my posts are in the public domain. I am a lawyer. I am not your lawyer, and this is not legal advice.
    44. Re:The stupidest thing is by Alistair+Hutton · · Score: 1
      The "argument" is that the retailer (Costco in this case) is using the trademark (Omega's in this case) in a way that Omega doesn't want it to be used.

      This "argument" was used by Sony to shut down Lik-Sang.
      It was the "argument" used by Levi's to block Tesco in Britain selling genuine Levi jeans they purchased from outside the European Union.

      It led at one point to a British company stating they were offering as a prize a "newly released japanese handheld games console", the PSP hadn't been released in Europe at that time and they just had a black oblong on screen without any mention of Sony so that they couldn't be done for trademark violation.

      It's a terrible, terrible thing. The corporations get the benefits of globalisation to make goods cheaply but the consumers are barred from the global market so have to get goods expensively.

      --
      Puzzle Daze is now my job
  5. Will this ever improve? by DoofusOfDeath · · Score: 4, Interesting

    It seems like the dominant trend in U.S. legislation is that if favors rich corporiations and individuals, at the cost of what seem like basic freedoms of common citizens.

    Does anyone know, historically, whether all countries have this trend? And if so, historically, what things (if any) have lead to the reversa of these trends? I.e., does it require a reboot (i.e., full-blown revoluion), or is even that never enough?

    1. Re:Will this ever improve? by retech · · Score: 0

      Yes historically its called: facism. The only distinction being that in other countries they did not give a corporation the rights of an individual. That way, when you got tired of being shit on by the guy with a funny mustache and a propensity for opiates, you could drag him into the street and have a good olde tyme hanging. Now, we have a hydra and there are just too damn many necks to snap. Welcome to the new order.

    2. Re:Will this ever improve? by commodore64_love · · Score: 2

      Russia moved from totalitarianism to freedom relatively blood- and revolution-free.

      Here in the US we could solve the problem by amending the Constitution to strike the copyright clause. Or else change the words from an indefinite length to a fixed length (say 14 years). I don't get paid for work I did two decades ago, and I don't think any other professional should either.

      --
      "I disapprove of what you say, but I will defend to the death your right to say it." - historian Evelyn Beatrice Hall
    3. Re:Will this ever improve? by Charliemopps · · Score: 1

      The US is trying to push other countries into have as strict of copyright law as we do. I think our legislatures see that our major export as "ideas" Which is laughable as we outsource our coding and design to India and then claim copyright on those "ideas" The fact of the matter is, when our only real export are our patent trolls lawsuits, the rest of the worlds going to get fed up and put an end to all of this fairly quick.

    4. Re:Will this ever improve? by MrHanky · · Score: 1

      Sure, if by "freedom" you mean the freedom of a few mobsters to defraud the public of their property, creating an oligarchy of incredibly rich people in just a couple of years. Russia is still an authoritarian shithole.

    5. Re:Will this ever improve? by rwa2 · · Score: 4, Insightful

      Yep, pretty much. We've moved from a manufacturing and research economy to a purely intellectual property economy. All our wealth is going to be tied up in imaginary pieces of paper that say that people have to pay us for using computer software, or by building windshield wipers a particular way, making pharmaceuticals with a particular active ingredient, or for listening to music or watching movies (ooh, a toll on "culture"). We even get money if they record and distribute content themselves using patented h.264 video codecs. So all we need to do is just sit back and collect the money, backed by the threat of economic or conventional warfare if they don't pay up. Maybe once in a while we need to renew or trivially update our patents or copyrights to keep anyone from innovating around them, thus maintaining the status quo.

      Not much different from the way things were in the colonial era, where we sent a lot of profits back to the empire, and you needed official licenses from the king to operate trade routes or the navy would sink you. Heck, they even still unabashedly call some of these payments "royalties" today. Fortunately, we know how this turned out, so we can probably count on history repeating itself eventually.

    6. Re:Will this ever improve? by bberens · · Score: 1

      Yes. When your country becomes poor they don't tend to enforce copyright/patent laws as much. You steal all the intellectual property, build up your own set of IP, and then you run around the world telling everyone else not to copy your stuff until it finally crumbles down and you're poor again. Guess where we are on the cycle?

      --
      Check out my lame java blog at www.javachopshop.com
    7. Re:Will this ever improve? by skids · · Score: 1

      Though, on the bright side we did manage to net export solar equipment/feedstocks last year. Mainly because we export a lot of solar-grade Si wafers -- between exports and imports we had a small net import of panels and finished cells.

      Ah captalism. Ship our panels from here to Europe, then import panels from China to here. Market efficiencies!

    8. Re:Will this ever improve? by corbettw · · Score: 2

      My apologies to those in this thread who are now losing the modpoints I'd given them, but I've seen this misconception spread too often and it has to be cleared up.

      Fascism has nothing to do with the status of corporations or their perceived (or real) control over a nation. Fascism is a state-focused political system that places the interests of the state over those of any individuals or groups of individuals in the nation. Private property exists only so long as the state doesn't need it; contracts between individuals and the state can be rescinded or modified in the state's interests at any time; and there are no constitutional protections for due process of law or respecting the rights of individuals, since everyone lives and breathes only at the whim of state officials.

      The confusion comes because fascism is a corporatist political and economic system. But "corporatist" has nothing to do with "corporations", they just share a common ethnological ancestor (Latin corpus). Corporatism focuses on the body of a political system, rather than its constituent parts. What you think of as "fascism" is properly labeled "corporatocracy".

      From the Wikipedia article on corporatism:

      Corporatism, also known as corporativism, is a system of economic, political, or social organization that views a community as a body based upon organic social solidarity and functional distinction and roles among individuals. The term corporatism is based on the Latin word "corpus" meaning "body". Formal corporatist models are based upon the contract of corporate groups, such as agricultural, business, ethnic, labor, military, patronage, scientific, or religious affiliations, into a collective body.

      --
      God invented whiskey so the Irish would not rule the world.
    9. Re:Will this ever improve? by corbettw · · Score: 1

      It seems like the dominant trend in U.S. legislation is that if favors rich corporiations [sic] and individuals, at the cost of what seem like basic freedoms of common citizens.

      This was a lawsuit between two competing corporations. The large and rich American corporation lost to the much smaller foreign corporation. How does this ruling favor rich corporations?

      --
      God invented whiskey so the Irish would not rule the world.
    10. Re:Will this ever improve? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      bullets, blades in the dark, fire.

    11. Re:Will this ever improve? by rwa2 · · Score: 1

      Heh, nice!

      That sorta fits with my theory on why traffic is so bad and commutes are so long in most major metropolitan areas, as people commute from the poor neighborhoods to work in the middle-class suburbs and towns, and the middle class commutes from their areas to the rich downtown. It seems rare that employers can really afford (or wants) to hire from the same neighborhood they can afford to set up shop in.

    12. Re:Will this ever improve? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      For certain values of "freedom".

    13. Re:Will this ever improve? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Man, it'd rock for me if it worked that way. As a Customs broker, I should keep getting a portion of money for everything that I broker across the border.

    14. Re:Will this ever improve? by ScrewMaster · · Score: 1

      Fascism should more appropriately be called Corporatism because it is a merger of state and corporate power. - Benito Mussolini

      --
      The higher the technology, the sharper that two-edged sword.
    15. Re:Will this ever improve? by SwedishPenguin · · Score: 1

      Right, freedom in Russia..

      Russia moved to capitalism in a relatively blood- and revolution-free way, not freedom. Hence the economic freedoms of the wealthy has increased significantly, but political freedoms have barely improved. All the while the poor in Russia are much worse off than they were before the fall of the Soviet Union.

      The oligarchs, mostly people formerly in the high ranks of the communist party, are the ones who have benefited..

    16. Re:Will this ever improve? by corbettw · · Score: 1

      Again, you completely misunderstand what "corporatism" means. Mussolini was not referring to corporations, he was referring to the corporate body of the nation.

      --
      God invented whiskey so the Irish would not rule the world.
    17. Re:Will this ever improve? by quarterbuck · · Score: 1

      I don't know if this has been the case historically. It appears that societies have gotten more egalitarian rather than otherwise. I see the timeline as being a positive one--from the times when corporations (East India company etc.) ran the world, the later situation where large trusts ran the US and railroad tycoons bailed out govts, antitrust movement in the postwar period until AT&T being broken down.
      I would think United states is unique. When a nation abundant in capital trades with one abundant in labor ( US being former and rest of the world being latter) the Capitalists in the capital abundant country tend to accrue most benefits, while the labor in the country tend to get screwed. The labor abundant country tends to have an equalization of income. Now if the Capital abundant country wishes to maximize GDP, it tends to protect the capitalists.Since copyright in the current world is a store of wealth, rules protecting them tend to be strengthened.

      --
      http://slashdot.org/submission/1062723/Cheap-mobile-data-plan?art_pos=2
    18. Re:Will this ever improve? by The+End+Of+Days · · Score: 1

      Bravo. You're screaming at the weather, but at least it's nice to know I'm not the only person around here who isn't ignorant.

    19. Re:Will this ever improve? by cpt+kangarooski · · Score: 1

      Hell, a simple reform of the statute would cure a lot of copyright-related ills. The main problem has to do with corruption of government and the concentration of power in private hands, rather than the public at large or legitimate governments. How we fix that, I don't know. Lessig has moved to that area, as he feels that until it is fixed, no meaningful progress can be made on copyright anyway.

      And Russia might be free, but things are not all strawberries and cream over there, from what I hear. We in the west really should've worked harder at helping them out instead of dumping them into the deep end of the free market right away.

      --
      -- This and all my posts are in the public domain. I am a lawyer. I am not your lawyer, and this is not legal advice.
    20. Re:Will this ever improve? by znerk · · Score: 1

      I rebut:

      If the corporation is both funding and directing the state, then the corporation, for all intents and purposes, *is* the state.

      --
      This work is licensed under a Creative Commons Attribution 3.0 Unported License.
    21. Re:Will this ever improve? by corbettw · · Score: 1

      Yes, but that's not fascism, that's corporatocracy.

      --
      God invented whiskey so the Irish would not rule the world.
  6. So Almost Nothing? by eldavojohn · · Score: 2, Interesting

    only applies to goods made in the US.

    So nothing then? Why pick a Swiss watch? Why not go with something like a Nike football. Good ole' American Nike making American football, right? Wrong. I bet all the clothes on me right now came from Vietnam or Cambodia or Thailand or some other Asian fabric powerhouse. Donating them to a Goodwill store to be resold would be ... illegal?

    Furthermore the article notes CostCo but what about Wal-Mart and Target. They resell these same articles of clothing as a middleman. Do they have some special contract protecting them from the largest copyright lawsuit to ever hit the retail industry?

    This is so bizarre and just another indication of how copyright is seriously broken. If I understand the article, it's just because there's an Omega emblem on the watch? So since CostCo now owns that watch, they can chip the logo off and sell it for whatever price they want? This makes about as much logical sense as smearing my face with my own feces before a job interview.

    Is there any lawyer out there with some background in this that might tell me what implications this holds for something like clothing being sold at Wal-Mart on the cheap? Or does it need to have an MSRP on it? How does this apply to software developed here but pressed overseas? So many questions I could dream up to ask about this new court decision.

    --
    My work here is dung.
    1. Re:So Almost Nothing? by DragonWriter · · Score: 1

      Why pick a Swiss watch? Why not go with something like a Nike football. [...] Furthermore the article notes CostCo but what about Wal-Mart and Target.

      Because the case that the Court heard was between a Swiss watchmaker and Costco, not between Nike and Wal-Mart or Target.

    2. Re:So Almost Nothing? by harrytuttle777 · · Score: 1

      You know you shouldn't discriminate against people that are shit faced. It is the law.

    3. Re:So Almost Nothing? by kryliss · · Score: 1

      Do you really think a copyright lawyer would be reading Slashdot?

      --
      --- If the bible proves the existence of God, then Superman comics prove the existence of Superman.
    4. Re:So Almost Nothing? by JSBiff · · Score: 1

      The article summary doesn't make one thing very clear - if you buy an item from the manufacturer, or an authorized agent, *inside* the United States, you can resell it or give it away, whatever. This ruling is about reselling items in the United States which A) contain any sort of copyrighted material, and B) where manufactured and sold outside of the United States.

      Nobody is going to go after the person who travelled to some other country, bought only one or two items, then at some later point in their life, decideds to sell those items used - although, because of this ruling, they *technically could* - one more of the many laws which make 'technical criminals' out of just about everybody. What this case is really about is big import companies, like Walmart, Costco, or even smaller retail chains, websites, etc going abroad, buying goods which manufacturers have priced more cheaply in third-world nations, then importing the cheaper item and competing directly with the more highly-priced versions of the items being sold directly by the manufacturer or their distributors.

      I'm not saying I think this is a good ruling - I'm not sure why enforcing U.S. Copyright Laws inside of the jurisidictional territory of the U.S.A. with regards to first sale would 'extend' our copyright laws extraterritorially.

    5. Re:So Almost Nothing? by jayme0227 · · Score: 1

      If what I've found on the internet is correct, because it is a 4-4 decision, it sets no precedent. Therefore this ruling is only in effect for this case. IANAL and I may be totally wrong, but that's the best information I have at this moment.

      That said, wtf were the four that voted to uphold the decision thinking?

      --
      But then I realized the cable was blue, so I only gave it one star. I hate blue.
    6. Re:So Almost Nothing? by The+End+Of+Days · · Score: 1

      There are probably a few who read it to revel in the ignorance of the masses, I'm sure.

  7. Only if they catch me by commodore64_love · · Score: 1, Insightful

    Like speeding, just because a law exists doesn't mean I will obey it. If I want to convert my Watch to cash, I will find a way to do it.

    --
    "I disapprove of what you say, but I will defend to the death your right to say it." - historian Evelyn Beatrice Hall
    1. Re:Only if they catch me by drb226 · · Score: 1

      Like speeding, just because a law exists doesn't mean I will obey it. If I want to convert my Watch to cash, I will find a way to do it.

      That is actually a really good segway into Free Culture. I'm recalling the book's discussion relating to the Adobe eReader incident.

      This is the future of copyright law: not so much copyright law as copyright code. The controls over access to content will not be controls that are ratied by courts; the controls over access to content will be controls that are coded by programmers.And whereas the controls that are built into the law are always to be checked by a judge, the controls that are built into the technology have no similar built-in check.

      In the future, you don't break the law. The law breaks you.

    2. Re:Only if they catch me by BitZtream · · Score: 1

      Yes, except speeding is dangerous (not due to the speed itself always, but due to the fact that you're behaving in an unpredictable manner which other drivers may misjudge or you may be incapable of handling), selling your watch isn't.

      Great comparison though ...

      --
      Persistent Volume manager for Kubernetes - https://github.com/dwimsey/openshift-pvmanager
  8. SCOTUS is losing it. by Jane+Q.+Public · · Score: 2, Interesting

    Nothing illustrates the collective ridiculousness of the current Supreme Court than this decision.

    So now, foreign companies have vastly greater control of their products in your home than American companies do.

    That is not exactly a decision that is in the best interest of the American people.

    1. Re:SCOTUS is losing it. by DragonWriter · · Score: 3, Informative

      Nothing illustrates the collective ridiculousness of the current Supreme Court than this decision.

      So now, foreign companies have vastly greater control of their products in your home than American companies do.

      Only those goods that were not only made but also purchased in a foreign country, and which were purchased subject to an agreement which, if the purchase was made in the US, would be unenforceable because the violate the doctrine of first sale.

      Essentially, this means certain commercial aspects of US copyright law don't apply to sales of goods where the copyright isn't a US copyright and the sale agreement isn't executed within the jurisdiction of the U.S.

      This probably doesn't affect any foreign-made products in most peoples homes; the issue really mostly affects goods bought abroad for resale.

    2. Re:SCOTUS is losing it. by darkmeridian · · Score: 2

      You and the article are missing the point of the ruling. Manufacturers price discriminate by selling the products at higher prices to countries that can afford a higher price. For instance, watches sold in America cost more than watches sold in Paraguay. The question is whether or not the first sale doctrine can stop someone from buying cheaper watches in Paraguay then selling them into the United States. The Ninth Circuit said that it does. I disagree, but it's not as retarded as giving foreign companies the right to decide vastly greater control of the products in your home than you do.

      --
      A NYC lawyer blogs. http://www.chuangblog.com/
    3. Re:SCOTUS is losing it. by Late+Adopter · · Score: 1

      Nothing illustrates the collective ridiculousness of the current Supreme Court than this decision.

      No it doesn't, because (ridiculous or not) it's based on the ruling of a nearly identical case from 1998.

      So now, foreign companies have vastly greater control of their products in your home than American companies do.

      No they don't. The decision only rules on the legality of the importation of goods, not the subsequent use of legally imported goods.

      That is not exactly a decision that is in the best interest of the American people.

      Entirely irrelevant. Policy isn't for the courts to decide, that role is shared between Congress and the President.

    4. Re:SCOTUS is losing it. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      No, the location of the production facilities is not important. The first market transaction is what matters. An American company can make products in the US, export them and forbid re-imports, as long as the products are not sold in the US before they leave the country (no distributor). The first sale on US soil exhausts the rights holder's right to control distribution. (That's exactly how they want it: US companies, like all companies, want to sell their products cheaper in foreign countries with lower average incomes, and they don't want re-imports to cannibalize their domestic revenue. Globalization for the corporations, segregated markets for the peasants.)

    5. Re:SCOTUS is losing it. by houghi · · Score: 1

      Only those goods that were not only made but also purchased in a foreign country

      I am sure that the computer you are on now was made AND purchased in another country. Then imported. Or do you think that they made the PCs, brought them over and then drove by companies and see who would be interested?

      the issue really mostly affects goods bought abroad for resale.

      Or to make it more understandable: If you are a company, you have more rights then if you are in individual, where you have no rights over what you 'bought'.

      So you do not buy goods, you lease them. For now only for goods you bought in, say, Mexico or Canada. Soon to be extended to goods bought in another state and then in another county and last to each and every item you want or need.

      Companies will say: sorry, you did not buy the item, you are leasing it for an unlimited amount of time, but we still have full rights to so what you are to do with it.

      --
      Don't fight for your country, if your country does not fight for you.
    6. Re:SCOTUS is losing it. by Gothmolly · · Score: 1

      That is not exactly a decision that is in the best interest of the American people.

      Do you actually think that's what they're trying to do?

      --
      I want to delete my account but Slashdot doesn't allow it.
    7. Re:SCOTUS is losing it. by DragonWriter · · Score: 1

      I am sure that the computer you are on now was made AND purchased in another country.

      I'm pretty sure that the current owner purchased in the United States. Since even under the Ninth Circuit decision that was allowed to stand here, it is uncontested that the somewhat-poorly-named "doctrine of first sale" applies to any goods that were made or previously sold in the United States (whether or not they were first sold outside of the U.S.), the doctrine of first sale applies.

      Or to make it more understandable: If you are a company, you have more rights then if you are in individual, where you have no rights over what you 'bought'.

      Except that is accurate neither as a summary of the statement in GP it claims to make "more understandable", or of the impact of the Ninth Circuit ruling that was allowed to stand.

      Companies and individuals have the exact same (lack of) rights under this decision when they purchase foreign-made goods abroad. Companies and individuals also have the same rights (those rights that they lack in the preceding circumstance) when they buy goods that are made in the U.S., or buy goods in the U.S. no matter where they are made.

    8. Re:SCOTUS is losing it. by Tuoqui · · Score: 1

      Right, all they did was make it binding that multinational corporations are allowed to price fix by charging more to richer places and less to poorer places.

      --
      09F911029D74E35BD84156C5635688C0
      +2 Troll is Slashdot's way of saying groupthink is confused
    9. Re:SCOTUS is losing it. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      So... a contract that was made in a foreign land under foreign laws was breached.

      What the fuck has SCOTUS to do with this then? Since when is the US enforcing the laws of other countries?

    10. Re:SCOTUS is losing it. by Chowderbags · · Score: 1

      If I legally buy a watch, it's my property. It doesn't matter if I bought it in Paraguay, Guam, Thailand, America, or a cruise ship in international waters. My property is my property. I can use, sell, lend, or destroy things that are my property. Except that according to this decision, it's not fully my property if I buy it in a foreign country. Because of a tiny logo (and the desire of transnational corporations to wring every last cent of profit they can, and damn the free market).

    11. Re:SCOTUS is losing it. by DragonWriter · · Score: 1

      Since when is the US enforcing the laws of other countries?

      Since, approximately, forever.

      Foreign laws often have relevance in U.S. cases, especially, e.g., breach of contract cases where the the breach occurs in the U.S., at least one of the parties is a U.S. person, and the contract itself was executed outside of the U.S. and is, expressly or because of the circumstances of its execution, governed by foreign law.

    12. Re:SCOTUS is losing it. by Jane+Q.+Public · · Score: 1

      Yes, that's true. I hadn't thought it through when I made that comment.

      This is actually a pretty narrow ruling that does not affect most internal U.S. sales.

    13. Re:SCOTUS is losing it. by Jane+Q.+Public · · Score: 1

      "The decision only rules on the legality of the importation of goods, not the subsequent use of legally imported goods."

      That is simply false. First Sale Doctrine has to do with what YOU can do with a purchased item, and whether a copyright owner can restrict your use of same.

      If the First Sale Doctrine does not apply to a product you buy, then the copyright owner can legally restrict the way you use that product. That's what First Sale was all about: whether you own a purchased good or have merely "licensed" it.

    14. Re:SCOTUS is losing it. by Late+Adopter · · Score: 1

      That is simply false. First Sale Doctrine has to do with what YOU can do with a purchased item, and whether a copyright owner can restrict your use of same.

      If the First Sale Doctrine does not apply to a product you buy, then the copyright owner can legally restrict the way you use that product. That's what First Sale was all about: whether you own a purchased good or have merely "licensed" it.

      That's completely incorrect. First Sale Doctrine, legally speaking, only applies to the ability to sell or transfer a good. It says nothing about use. See Bobbs-Merrill Co. v. Straus, which was then made into law as 17 USC 109.

      This case in particular asks solely if 17 USC 109 provides an exception to the copyright holder's ability to control importation (17 USC 601 (a)). The Supreme Court held in BMG Music v. Perez in 1991 that it does not. Then they affirmed that view and extended it to products that contain copyrighted components in Quality King v. L'anza. In the current case, the Supreme Court decided not to reverse themselves. They came to no new finding and made no new precedent, and the only precedent they relied on was one interaction of the First Sale Doctrine with another part of the law.

    15. Re:SCOTUS is losing it. by Jane+Q.+Public · · Score: 1

      This is belied by the current situation regarding "shrink wrap licensing". While to the best of my knowledge shrink wrap licensing has not been explicitly legitimized by the courts, in the meantime there has been plenty of precedent establishing that in the absence of First Sale, the publisher can indeed control not just whether you can sell or transfer the goods, but also control what you do with them while in your possession.

      This is the whole premise behind the idea of an EULA. Or at least those that companies attempt to impose via their shrink-wrap licensing schemes.

  9. No precedential force by Sonny+Yatsen · · Score: 5, Informative

    The headline is overstating things a lot. The First-Sale Doctrine isn't lost overseas. Since this is a 4-4 tie decision by the Supreme Court, only the lower court decision is upheld. There is no precedential force behind the decision at all. Thus, the only thing that can be said about this is that Costco loses this particular instance, but the right of First-Sale overseas remains in effect since this decision isn't useful for any subsequent precedent.

    http://www.slate.com/id/2109077/ --- A good analysis of what happens when a tied decision occurs.

    --
    My postings are informational and does not constitute legal advice. Act on it at your risk.
    1. Re:No precedential force by Sonny+Yatsen · · Score: 4, Informative

      For the curious, here's the actual decision.

      http://www.supremecourt.gov/opinions/10pdf/08-1423.pdf

      It's two sentences long and simply states:

      "PER CURIAM
      The judgment is affirmed by an equally divided Court.

      JUSTICE KAGAN took no part in the consideration or decision of this case."

      --
      My postings are informational and does not constitute legal advice. Act on it at your risk.
    2. Re:No precedential force by Jaysyn · · Score: 1

      That makes little more sense. Thanks for the clarification.

      --
      There is a war going on for your mind.
    3. Re:No precedential force by Hatta · · Score: 1

      Doesn't the Ninth Circuit decision stand as precedent within the Ninth Circuit's jurisdiction?

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      Give me Classic Slashdot or give me death!
    4. Re:No precedential force by Sonny+Yatsen · · Score: 1

      Yes, but a limited application of Right of First-Sale as a defense in 1 Circuit out of 13 Circuits is hardly the same as saying saying "First-Sale Doctrine" is lost overseas. This particular Supreme Court decision has no precedential force behind it.

      --
      My postings are informational and does not constitute legal advice. Act on it at your risk.
    5. Re:No precedential force by pavon · · Score: 4, Informative

      And here is the original 9th circuit ruling which does have precedent in that circuit, and will likely be referenced in other circuits.

    6. Re:No precedential force by alSeen · · Score: 1

      I can't believe that I'm the only one that wants to know how the individual justices decided on this case. I can't find anything (not even on scotusblog) about which side each of the groups of four were on.

    7. Re:No precedential force by Sonny+Yatsen · · Score: 1

      And you won't. It's a per curiam decision, so the Supreme Court issues the decision as a whole.

      --
      My postings are informational and does not constitute legal advice. Act on it at your risk.
    8. Re:No precedential force by Abcd1234 · · Score: 1

      So perhaps you can explain the part about the court issuing an order "granting no further cases". I, quite frankly, don't understand the meaning behind that statement, given the context.

    9. Re:No precedential force by Antony-Kyre · · Score: 1

      So Kagan was recused from this case (among others)? What is the point in having nine jutices if one isn't going to participate when it counts? Too bad we can't add a 10th or 11th was "backup" justices.

    10. Re:No precedential force by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      First giveth the inch. Now the lawyers will taketh the mile.

      Since every Corp. that matters is global don't think for a fucking second that any american produced goods will be "purchased" from within the boarders of this country.

      Also the SCOTUS is thinking about its Citizens. The Forbes 500 ones.

    11. Re:No precedential force by Late+Adopter · · Score: 1

      You're right, but not for the reason you think. The precedent was already set by the Supreme Court in 1998, Quality King Distributors v. L'anza Research (523 US 135). This case is practically a carbon copy, and the Supreme Court decided there were no new facts that made it necessary to reverse themselves or consider this case separately.

    12. Re:No precedential force by Attila+Dimedici · · Score: 1

      I feel the same way. Unfortunately, as someone else already posted, apparently the Court does not reveal that in this type of case. I would really like to know two things. One, did this case fall along the standard "conservative"/"liberal" divide on this court or did the Justices divide up differently this time? Two, if it did divide along the normal divide for this court, which side voted for the Ninth Circuit decision and which voted to overturn? I can imagine arguments in this case that would appeal to either side. I would expect, based on the way they have ruled on cases that are from my perspective similar, that it would be the "conservatives" that voted to overturn, but there have been a few cases where the "conservative"/"liberal" divide on this Court voted the opposite of what I expected because they viewed the issue in the case as being a completely different one than I did.

      --
      The truth is that all men having power ought to be mistrusted. James Madison
    13. Re:No precedential force by Sonny+Yatsen · · Score: 1

      Not exactly. If the Supreme Court actually did decide that there were no new facts that made it necessary to reverse themselves or consider the case separately, they would've simply denied issuing a writ of certiorari.

      --
      My postings are informational and does not constitute legal advice. Act on it at your risk.
    14. Re:No precedential force by capnchicken · · Score: 1

      It doesn't even name which Justices sided where! It's almost like they took a straw poll, saw no real majority and said, "fuck it, next!"

      --
      A libertarian shat on my carpet once. Claimed the free market would sort it out. -Ford Prefect(8777)
    15. Re:No precedential force by Foobar+of+Borg · · Score: 1

      So Kagan was recused from this case (among others)? What is the point in having nine jutices if one isn't going to participate when it counts? Too bad we can't add a 10th or 11th was "backup" justices.

      There are going to be a lot of recusals for Kagan for the next few years, until all the cases she heard at the 9th circuit are history. It's annoying, but better than the obvious conflict of interest.

    16. Re:No precedential force by BassMan449 · · Score: 1

      Kagan was recused from the case because she filed a brief in the case as Solicitor General. Her ruling in the case would have represented a huge conflict of interest. The only time situations like this occur is when you have a new justice that served as a lawyer previously. The only reason it happened so much for Kagan is because as Solicitor General she submits briefs on many cases at the appellate level.

    17. Re:No precedential force by compro01 · · Score: 1

      Wonderful, so it's only precedent in 1/5th of the country.

      --
      upon the advice of my lawyer, i have no sig at this time
    18. Re:No precedential force by compro01 · · Score: 1

      Heard? She wasn't a judge in the 9th circuit. She was Solicitor General and she filed a brief regarding this case when it was being heard by the 9th circuit court. It shouldn't be a long term problem, as she was only in that position a little more than a year.

      --
      upon the advice of my lawyer, i have no sig at this time
    19. Re:No precedential force by psiphiorg · · Score: 1

      It should also be noted that Costco only loses this particular defense. The case now resumes back in the District Circuit, where Costco can raise other defenses to Omega's claims. Any of those other defenses could potentially save them, but of course the District Court's rulings on whether those defenses may be used can be appealed to the Ninth Circuit and potentially the Supreme Court again.

      And once all of these preliminary matters have been heard, then the actual trial will begin, and whichever side loses can appeal the decision in the case up to the Circuit Court, and even the Supreme Court.

      davidh

    20. Re:No precedential force by lgw · · Score: 1

      Too bad we can't add a 10th or 11th was "backup" justices.

      FDR had a great plan to add 9 new "backup" judges, all chosen by him, to insure that not even the most blatently unconstitutional of his plans would be overturned. Be careful what you wish for ...

      --
      Socialism: a lie told by totalitarians and believed by fools.
    21. Re:No precedential force by DragonWriter · · Score: 1

      This case is practically a carbon copy, and the Supreme Court decided there were no new facts that made it necessary to reverse themselves or consider this case separately.

      Wrong. The Supreme Court decided to hear this case, heard it, and failed (with the 8 judges that participated) to reach a majority on any decision, coming to a 4-4 deadlock.

      The result is essentially as if the Supreme Court decided not to hear the case in terms of precedential effect, but in fact they did decide to hear the case, which also suggests that, were a case raising the same legal question to come up on appeal, they would be inclined to hear it as well -- and with a new case, a recusal would be unlikely.

      Also, since this was a 4-4 decision, at least one of the 5 members of the current Court that were on the Court that heard Quality King (a 9-0 decision) must have either seen this case as distinguished from Quality King or voted to overrule Quality King.

    22. Re:No precedential force by TheoMurpse · · Score: 1

      And here is the original 9th circuit ruling [google.com] which does have precedent in that circuit, and will likely be referenced in other circuits.

      Practically the first thing I was taught when I was interning for the US Attorney's Office was that I shouldn't cite Ninth Circuit cases unless I absolutely have to; they're afforded much less weight by courts outside the Ninth Circuit than other Circuits' decisions are.

    23. Re:No precedential force by The+End+Of+Days · · Score: 1

      You know, basically everyone in this country who works relies on a business climate that's favorable to doing business. I'm not sure what magic fairy feeds you and yours, but I have to bring in money to have a place to live and food to keep my body from stopping. Painting this as a "Forbes 500" issue leads me to believe you think food comes from your parent's refrigerator.

    24. Re:No precedential force by RMH101 · · Score: 1

      It's a stupid decision for a variety of reasons, not least that it hurst consumer, CostCo adn even Omega.
      Omega want to protect their brand image - they don't want people to buy an Omega watch from anywhere other than an authorised dealer. This is why you can't generally buy them over the internet - dealers get their official accreditation taken away if they do this, so the only people I've seen doing it are either used watch specialists who don't care, or fakes.
      This is in theory to protect agaisnt counterfeits (of which there are some excellent ones - I have a gen Seamaster Professional and a high quality rep Planet Ocean and you have to try very very hard to tell which is which), but is really to allow them to rtain what is a very high margin on manufacturing something comparitively cheaply and selling it at a higher price.
      However, if no-one can resell Omega watches - BANG - the bottom drops out of their market. People buy high end Rolex/Omega/Patek Philipe etc in part because they're a relatively solid investment - the 2nd hand value is predictable, the depreciation small and in some cases they appreciate significantly. If it gets to the stage that you buy it and it's illegal to resell it, it's not goign to be a very attractive purchase in the first place.
      I know I like knowing that if the worst comes to the worst, I've got a couple of mortgage payments on my wrist.

    25. Re:No precedential force by Antony-Kyre · · Score: 1

      Instead of having 9 justices, we could have 11 justices, with the 9 most senior justices serving for cases. In the case of one of them recusing him or herself, provided no more than two does it, no problem.

      But for no majority vote to occur is kind of sad, because it kind of leaves it unresolved (letting the lower court ruling stand).

  10. leaks by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Does it applies to leaks ?

  11. Idiocy by betterunixthanunix · · Score: 1

    Do they really think that anyone is going to care? You will see those watches resold. Good luck trying to stop people from reselling tangible goods.

    --
    Palm trees and 8
    1. Re:Idiocy by nedlohs · · Score: 2

      yes, because CostCo will just eat the copyright infringement penalties and defy court orders so they can keep reselling those watchhes.

  12. Decision? by BrotherBeal · · Score: 1

    What does a 4-4 decision mean, anyway? TFA called this a "non-decision" but if that's the case, what are we reading about besides some remarks on the issue? Anybody got any clarification, because the folks at Forbes' sure don't.

    --
    I'm disabling ads until because I choose not to reward redesigns that are less usable than "view source".
    1. Re:Decision? by Compaqt · · Score: 1

      It means the ruling of the (lower) appeals court stands, which was against the first sale doctrine.

      --
      I'm not a lawyer, but I play one on the Internet. Blog
    2. Re:Decision? by guyminuslife · · Score: 1

      In the specific case, Omega wins, because they had won in the lower court.

      However, this case doesn't have any precedential value going forward. It's basically a pass, the legal issues involved have not been decided by SCOTUS. The justices did not even write down their reasons, or say who voted which way. The judgment was literally something like, "We're split 50-50, so we're not deciding anything, whatever Ninth Circuit said is what we're going with, peace out." If another case exactly like this one reaches the Supreme Court next year, then assuming Kagan doesn't recuse herself again, we'll get a real decision. All we can really say about that is that it will probably be a 5-4 decision either way, since the justices are split 4-4 without Kagan.

      --
      I don't believe in time. It's a grand conspiracy designed to sell watches.
    3. Re:Decision? by KarrdeSW · · Score: 1

      It means that, in the absence of a definitive ruling from a higher court, the decision of the lower court will stand. So technically the decision is the same as that of the circuit court. The "news", I guess, is the fact that the power of the First-Sale doctrine will stand as diminished.

    4. Re:Decision? by compro01 · · Score: 1

      It's basically the same as if the supreme court declined to hear the case. The 9th circuit's decision stands within its jurisdiction, but not anywhere else.

      --
      upon the advice of my lawyer, i have no sig at this time
  13. Good thing... by wholestrawpenny · · Score: 1

    I bought my Omaega watch from Kazakhstan!

  14. Bradley Manning smiles and nods. by FatSean · · Score: 0

    Laws are legal, after all.

    --
    Blar.
    1. Re:Bradley Manning smiles and nods. by commodore64_love · · Score: 1, Insightful

      So let me get this straight:

      I'm a free citizen who merely wants to convert one type of property (watch) to another type of property (paper dollars), per my natural, inalienable rights as a Freeman. Your response is to compare me to a guy who is equivalent to Benedict Arnold (sharing secrets with a foreigner)??? I'd say your analogy is "fail"

      --
      "I disapprove of what you say, but I will defend to the death your right to say it." - historian Evelyn Beatrice Hall
    2. Re:Bradley Manning smiles and nods. by TheCarp · · Score: 1

      You can call him that, I call him the only hero I can remember hearing about in recent history, and the only member of that military doing anything that I support. Period.

      That aside, the point is the same. What he did was illegal, he did it anyway. he got caught, just like you technically could. He is being punished, just like you could. Or I could... I speed too.

      The law is just a bunch of arbitrary rules enforced by a few men, for their own benefit. Its nothing that anyone should feel in any way bound to follow.

      -Steve

      --
      "I opened my eyes, and everything went dark again"
    3. Re:Bradley Manning smiles and nods. by capnchicken · · Score: 1

      Bradley Manning is comparable to Benedict Arnold?

      Really? The general and war hero that grew bitter with his level of recognition and attribution during the revolutionary war, and as such changed sides? Or is it that his name is regarded as a synonym for traitor?

      I'm pretty sure this guy is more comparable to Mark Felt or Daniel Ellsberg or Sam Adams(b. 1934).

      --
      A libertarian shat on my carpet once. Claimed the free market would sort it out. -Ford Prefect(8777)
    4. Re:Bradley Manning smiles and nods. by commodore64_love · · Score: 2, Insightful

      >>>the point is the same

      No not the same. The difference is I did not sign a contract and pledge a promise to not convert the Omega watch to cash. No company nor government has any right to stop me from doing so. IN Contrast, the soldier DID sign a contract to keep quiet about classified documents, and he broke that sacred pledge. Hence breach-of-contract. Hence prosecutable.

      So you see? The analogy between me and the soldier does not fit. I'm a freeman and have certain inalienable rights, including the right to convert one property (watch) to another property (dollars), and the Union government has zero authority to take-away that right. See Amendments 9 and 10.

      --
      "I disapprove of what you say, but I will defend to the death your right to say it." - historian Evelyn Beatrice Hall
    5. Re:Bradley Manning smiles and nods. by lgw · · Score: 1

      That's not quite right. Bradley Manning didn't just violate a law imposed on him, he broke a series of promises that he had personally made, oaths that he had chosen to take - not just illegal, but dishonorable.

      --
      Socialism: a lie told by totalitarians and believed by fools.
    6. Re:Bradley Manning smiles and nods. by Bob+Cat+-+NYMPHS · · Score: 1

      >grew bitter with his level of recognition and attribution

      Since you put it THAT way... yeah, that actually sounds a LOT like Manning.

    7. Re:Bradley Manning smiles and nods. by Golddess · · Score: 1

      Your response is to compare me to a guy who is equivalent to Benedict Arnold (sharing secrets with a foreigner)???

      I'm not sure you know who Bradley Manning is. To be fair, I definitely didn't till I looked him up on Wikipedia. So it could be that you know something about him that I missed in my brief skim, but here's what I did find.

      Manning claimed, via instant messaging, to be the person who had leaked the "Collateral Murder" video of a helicopter airstrike on July 12, 2007, in Baghdad.

      In case you weren't aware, that would be this video.

      --
      "I'm not sure I like the fugnutish tone you used in your post!" -RogL (608926)-
    8. Re:Bradley Manning smiles and nods. by VortexCortex · · Score: 1

      Laws are legal, after all.

      Laws that can be broken are not laws.

      We don't call them the laws of thermodynamics because well behaved matter and energy choose to follow them.
      We call them laws because there doesn't seem to be a way to disobey them. In this case, if someone figured out how to break the law, we'd all be excited and pay big money to further the advance of exploiting thermodynamics to create infinite energy.

      I don't call it a "speeding law" I call it a "speed regulation". Expose the bureaucracy for what it is, use accurate terms. Regulations should be regulated after all.

      When someone figures out how to exploit a regulation, businesses get excited and pay consultants big money to further the application of said loophole to create infinite revenue. Hence, the current state of copyright regulations.

    9. Re:Bradley Manning smiles and nods. by TheCarp · · Score: 1

      I love how you talk about the union government as if its some ideal organization that follows some sort of ideals in a perfect manner. If they decide otherwise, they will alienate you from your claimed rights. If you don't believe me, try converting one property (dried cannabis flowers) into another property (dollars) and see what the local DA has to say about it, I garauntee he will start converting some of your property (dollars) into public benefit (fines)

      Seriously man, I actually want to live in the world you think this is. However, years of the people in power believing that their powers shouldn't be so limited has worn away what actually flimsy material the original machine was made from... it is hard to call it a serious gesture when the document which begins "We the people" defined a government where, from the beginning, only a small percentage of the real population could even vote.

      It is true that this man broke his contract, and the law. However, lots of people fulfill contracts and break them for all manner of reason. Actually doing it because you believe its the right thing to do, I have a much harder time blaming someone for, and, when doing it means doing so at extreme personal risk of being made to spend many years in prison, yah... that breech of contract was pretty damned heroic.

      --
      "I opened my eyes, and everything went dark again"
    10. Re:Bradley Manning smiles and nods. by Golddess · · Score: 1

      The difference is I did not sign a contract

      By living in this society you have "signed a contract" agreeing to be bound by its laws. If you choose to break any of those laws and are caught, you will be punished, regardless of if it is a "good law" or a "stupid law which infringes on our inalienable rights".

      You're not seriously suggesting that you have the right to break certain laws and not be punished, are you? I could be mistaken, but haven't you stated in the past that anyone who supports freedom should be willing to spend time in jail?

      --
      "I'm not sure I like the fugnutish tone you used in your post!" -RogL (608926)-
    11. Re:Bradley Manning smiles and nods. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      And, of course, Benedict Arnold was a patriot. It says so on the blue plaque on his house in London...

    12. Re:Bradley Manning smiles and nods. by TheCarp · · Score: 1

      > By living in this society you have "signed a contract" agreeing to be bound by
      > its laws. If you choose to break any of those laws and are caught, you will be
      > punished, regardless of if it is a "good law" or a "stupid law which infringes
      > on our inalienable rights".

      Yup "this is our turf, you see? You live here you live by our rules, you see? If we say you don't do it, you don't do it, you see?

      > You're not seriously suggesting that you have the right to break certain laws
      > and not be punished, are you? I could be mistaken, but haven't you stated in
      > the past that anyone who supports freedom should be willing to spend time in
      > jail?

      Actually, I don't really believe in rights as much other than an abstract concept. So as such, I do believe I have that right, but, I don't believe that anybody is going to recognize that right, and I fully expect I would be punished, regardless of my own belief as to whats right or what the government should or shouldn't be allowed to do.

      They are not me, they will do what they want, and I will put up with what they do to me, same as it ever was. That doesn't mean I support them. I don't even like to call them "the government"... just a gang working for aristocrats, which I am enough afraid of to obey their laws... so long as they are watching.

      I encourage nobody to give them an ounce more respect than the respect which a loaded gun in the hands of a violent sociopath is always due.

      -Steve

      --
      "I opened my eyes, and everything went dark again"
    13. Re:Bradley Manning smiles and nods. by capnchicken · · Score: 1

      Yes they both grew bitter:

      One because he was told by the Continental Congress that he owed them money after spending a substantial portion of his own wealth on the war effort, the other because he felt he was "actively involved in something that [he] was completely against"

      Manning described the incident which first made him seriously question the U.S. war in Iraq: when he was instructed to work on the case of Iraqi "insurgents" who had been detained for distributing "insurgent" literature which, when he had it translated, turned out to be nothing more than "a scholarly critique against PM Maliki":

      i had an interpreter read it for me and when i found out that it was a benign political critique titled "Where did the money go?" and following the corruption trail within the PM’s cabinet i immediately took that information and *ran* to the officer to explain what was going on he didn’t want to hear any of it he told me to shut up and explain how we could assist the FPs in finding *MORE* detainees

              i had always questioned the things worked, and investigated to find the truth but that was a point where i was a *part* of something i was actively involved in something that i was completely against

      I totally get your confusion.

      --
      A libertarian shat on my carpet once. Claimed the free market would sort it out. -Ford Prefect(8777)
    14. Re:Bradley Manning smiles and nods. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      >I'm a freeman...
      >the Union government...

      While I agree with some of your sentiments, the terms you use and the way you talk make me think that you're walking perilously close to finding maps of federal buildings in Oklahoma City and looking up sellers of fertilizer and diesel fuel in your local Yellow Pages.

    15. Re:Bradley Manning smiles and nods. by internettoughguy · · Score: 1

      >>>the point is the same

      No not the same. The difference is I did not sign a contract and pledge a promise to not convert the Omega watch to cash. No company nor government has any right to stop me from doing so. IN Contrast, the soldier DID sign a contract to keep quiet about classified documents, and he broke that sacred pledge. Hence breach-of-contract. Hence prosecutable.

      So you see? The analogy between me and the soldier does not fit. I'm a freeman and have certain inalienable rights, including the right to convert one property (watch) to another property (dollars), and the Union government has zero authority to take-away that right. See Amendments 9 and 10.

      Let me guess you just skipped right over your watches EULA without reading it didn't you?

    16. Re:Bradley Manning smiles and nods. by commodore64_love · · Score: 1

      >>>By living in this society you have "signed a contract" agreeing to be bound by its laws.

      That's 100% correct! So what does the LAW say? The Union government has power to regulate commerce AMONG the states, not commerce inside the state, or between me and my neighbor (when I give him the Omega watch, and he gives me dollars). Therefore the Union Court has zero authority to outlaw this act.

      THAT'S the law dummkopf.

      --
      "I disapprove of what you say, but I will defend to the death your right to say it." - historian Evelyn Beatrice Hall
    17. Re:Bradley Manning smiles and nods. by Golddess · · Score: 1

      THAT'S the law dummkopf.

      And you wonder why you get modded troll so much....

      Dude, chill. Have a beer, get laid, do something, but chill. No where am I saying this was a good decision. All I am saying is that, yes, this is in fact the same as Bradley Manning. Despite our (I'm on your side fool!) feelings that this should not be, it presently is. As a result, should we choose to not follow this law and get caught, they will try to punish us.

      I guess you could say that, if you know you'd be bringing out all the guns (both figuratively and literally) in order to fight being punished for it, in that regard it is different. But I think most people can see this as "He did something he knew he'd be punished for if caught, you did something you knew you'd be punished for if caught, so same thing".

      --
      "I'm not sure I like the fugnutish tone you used in your post!" -RogL (608926)-
  15. Holy moley by bazmail · · Score: 1

    Lol. Even in Iran you are allowed sell your stuff second hand without permission. What the fuck is going on over there in the states? I thought Obama would bring a new age of freedom, not bend you all over and make you give 2 good coughs.

  16. Legitimate problem with grey market by crow · · Score: 3, Insightful

    The problem with allowing third-party imports to be sold is that consumers will buy the items, expecting the manufacturer to support them (providing warranty service at a minimum). If the product in question is not sold directly domestically, then the manufacturer may not be prepared for the support. Further, the product may have been sold in a country where the cost and level of support is different.

    The solution is to require that any imports not authorized by the manufacturer must be clearly advertised as not supported by the manufacturer, with all service provided by the importer.

    1. Re:Legitimate problem with grey market by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      That's about as dumb as the logic used by the court.

    2. Re:Legitimate problem with grey market by Okind · · Score: 1

      The solution is to require that any imports not authorized by the manufacturer must be clearly advertised as not supported by the manufacturer, with all service provided by the importer.

      Which is the law here in the Netherlands.

      Say I buy an object from a seller. Then anything that's wrong with the object (and under warranty, whether by choice or by law) is a matter between me and the seller. The manufacturer has nothing to do with it directly. If they're going to be involved (which is likely), that's a matter between the seller and the manufacturer -- I have nothing to do with that.

    3. Re:Legitimate problem with grey market by betterunixthanunix · · Score: 1

      The problem with allowing third-party imports to be sold is that consumers will buy the items, expecting the manufacturer to support them

      So what? Either the manufacturer was going to support the product anyway, in another country, or they will not support the product, in which case the consumer should just be told that.

      If the product in question is not sold directly domestically, then the manufacturer may not be prepared for the support.

      Then tell the customers that, "this product does not come with any warranty or support." Oh, what, the poor manufacturer does not want their name tarnished by having people believe they do not stand behind their products? Then they should stand behind their products regardless of where they are sold.

      Further, the product may have been sold in a country where the cost and level of support is different.

      I would be more sympathetic if tech support was not being outsourced to third world countries.

      The solution is to require that any imports not authorized by the manufacturer must be clearly advertised as not supported by the manufacturer, with all service provided by the importer.

      Or better yet, the manufacturer could just ship a redeemable tech-support coupon that activates your support, so that the support is not transferred when the item is resold, unless it was not activated in the first place.

      --
      Palm trees and 8
    4. Re:Legitimate problem with grey market by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Car Analogy:

      If I buy a car from another person (quite standard), and the company that made the car had to do a recall for something (maybe the brakes would fail), the company must provide support and fix the problem for free.

      There is a reason for proof of purchase / receipt requirements for many maintenance calls, which is to solve the issue that you are discussing. I don't know of anyone that would buy a used car and automatically assume that it comes with the manufacturer warranty, unless it was "Certified" and sold by them directly.

    5. Re:Legitimate problem with grey market by sunking2 · · Score: 1

      You clearly only read the title and then drew your own conclusions.

    6. Re:Legitimate problem with grey market by Late+Adopter · · Score: 1

      That's not why this case was pursued. Omega sells in the US, but for higher prices. It's trying to price-discriminate based on region.

    7. Re:Legitimate problem with grey market by rahvin112 · · Score: 4, Informative

      Costco ALWAYS clearly labeled grey market products. They back them with their 100% satisfaction guarantee. I bought a Denon Receiver from them and they were very clear that they were not an authorized retailer and that Denon would not service the product or warranty. I was a fully informed consumer when I purchased it.

    8. Re:Legitimate problem with grey market by sunsurfandsand · · Score: 1

      I think my solution will be to buy no foreign-made products bearing visible logos.

    9. Re:Legitimate problem with grey market by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Caveat emptor. Fraud charges should be brought if the re-seller makes claims that the manufacturer will not honor due to grey market status. Otherwise, the buyer should not be expecting more than what is being sold.

    10. Re:Legitimate problem with grey market by znerk · · Score: 1

      If I buy a car from another person (quite standard), and the company that made the car had to do a recall for something (maybe the brakes would fail), the company must provide support and fix the problem for free. ...

      There is a reason for proof of purchase / receipt requirements for many maintenance calls, which is to solve the issue that you are discussing. I don't know of anyone that would buy a used car and automatically assume that it comes with the manufacturer warranty, unless it was "Certified" and sold by them directly.

      I don't see the issue. If a $Year $Car.Manufacturer $Car.Model has a defect that existed from the time of manufacture, why does it matter who it belongs to at the point in time that this is discovered? What difference does it make whether it's still in the showroom, in the garage of the first owner, or being sold in the newspaper by the 6th owner? The original product is recalled, the original manufacturer should fix it, regardless of who it "belongs" to.

      More to the point, when I hear about a manufacturer denying in-warranty repair service on their legally-acquired products, I subsequently refuse to have any dealings with that company.
      Apple, I'm looking at you.

      Now, to get back on topic:
      Copyright being involved in a situation lacking any copying? Ridiculous.
      As to a company suing anyone for "abusing" pricing differences, regardless of whether they're suing a company or an individual... Please allow me to quote (ok, paraphrase) Dennis Leary:

      "Life is rough. Get a helmet."

      --
      This work is licensed under a Creative Commons Attribution 3.0 Unported License.
  17. Only goods made in the US? by noidentity · · Score: 1

    Since it's only appled to goods made in the US, wouldn't it have been simpler for them to just list them? As in: {} (the null set)

    1. Re:Only goods made in the US? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Nokona gloves are made in the US. Best damn gloves on the market.

    2. Re:Only goods made in the US? by jgtg32a · · Score: 1

      Cutco also makes amazing knives.

  18. Elena Kagan by Compaqt · · Score: 0

    is the reason for the 4-4 split. She recused herself because of having been the solicitor general of the US.

    Having argued so many other cases for the RIAA^H^H^H^H Obama Administration, she'll be recusing herself a lot as cases work their way up to the court.

    --
    I'm not a lawyer, but I play one on the Internet. Blog
    1. Re:Elena Kagan by jfengel · · Score: 2

      For a while, yes. But Kagan is only 50 years old. From a political standpoint, they may lose some cases that they didn't have to in the next few years, but they've gained somebody who will be in their court (heh heh) for decades.

      Not making a value judgment on that; it's just political hardball same on both sides. I wish it were different. I would also like a pony.

    2. Re:Elena Kagan by misexistentialist · · Score: 1

      It should be unconstitutional to appoint someone to the Court who won't be able to serve for years, thus reducing the capability of the entire judicial branch.

    3. Re:Elena Kagan by Compaqt · · Score: 1

      It was a bad idea now (I don't really know how you go from arguing crazy positions for the administration to then judging them). And it would also have been a bad idea to appoint Ken Starr, another solicitor general who was being considered for the court under GOP administrations.

      --
      I'm not a lawyer, but I play one on the Internet. Blog
    4. Re:Elena Kagan by jfengel · · Score: 1

      It should be one of those self-correcting things. If you appoint somebody who will have to recuse themselves a lot, the one you're hurting is yourself.

      The Court still functions. It just has one fewer voice. That leads to ties, but there's a default tie-breaking rule (not to overturn). The capability isn't reduced.

      The worse transgression, IMHO, is that the lifetime appointment means that the court moves very, very slowly. Until late in Bush's term, the entire conservative wing of the court had been appointed by Reagan or even Nixon, decades earlier. A period of Republican Presidency from 1968 to 1992 (with one exception) was having major ramifications 15 years after it ended.

      If it hadn't been for the fact that (Republican) Gerald Ford appointed the court's key liberal (John Paul Stevens) and Reagan appointed a key moderate (O'Connor), the court would have been massively tilted to the right the entire time. That's something neither party is ever going to allow again. The filibuster is supposed to force them to nominate a moderate with some appeal across the aisle, but since it's used universally, it's really just used to appoint non-entities with no track record.

      Which is why non-justice Kagan got nominated in this case. She could plausibly deny having any opinions at all. Expect to see more like her, not less.

    5. Re:Elena Kagan by DragonWriter · · Score: 1

      She recused herself because of having been the solicitor general of the US.

      She recused herself not for that reason, but because, as S-G, she had filed a brief in this case.

      Having argued so many other cases for the [...] Obama Administration, she'll be recusing herself a lot as cases work their way up to the court.

      That's not really true. The Solicitor-General doesn't represent the U.S. in most cases, only those cases that are before the Supreme Court. She recused herself from a lot of cases this term, because she would have been responsible for any brief filed by the U.S., either as a party or as an amicus, for most of the cases that were on appeal to the Supreme Court at the time she was confirmed to the court. But that's really not going to be an issue much going forward -- any court that hadn't worked its way up to the Supreme Court by the time she left the S-G's office won't present a conflict from that time, because the S-G's office wouldn't have taken responsibility for it while she was in the office.

    6. Re:Elena Kagan by Compaqt · · Score: 1

      Maybe I'm missing something, but while she may not have personally argued cases in lower federal courts, isn't her office responsible for arguing those cases?

      --
      I'm not a lawyer, but I play one on the Internet. Blog
  19. The argument by jfengel · · Score: 1

    They've posted the audio and transcript of the oral argument online.

    http://www.supremecourt.gov/oral_arguments/argument_audio_detail.aspx?argument=08-1423

    http://www.supremecourt.gov/oral_arguments/argument_transcripts/08-1423.pdf

    One might actually learn something from the actual arguments about what the decision means. The actual decision itself is uninformative: it just declares the circuit court's decision affirmed by a 4-4 vote. It doesn't even say who voted which way, though I bet you could infer it from looking at the transcript.

    1. Re:The argument by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Scalia reads like a DM trying to screw his players over the exact phrasing of a wish.

  20. That's Not What The Article Says by raftpeople · · Score: 5, Insightful

    "prevent U.S. retailers from selling goods they obtained overseas."

    There is a difference between "produced overseas" and "obtained overseas".

    1. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by just_another_sean · · Score: 1

      You're right, poor choice of words. It's about good made outside the US, not bought outside the US. Thanks for clarifying...

      --
      Creationist Textbook Stickers Declared Unconstitutional by CowboyNeal
    2. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by houghi · · Score: 2

      If I "obtain" something, it means it is mine. If it is mine, I should be able to do as I please with it, otherwise it is not mine and therefore not obtained by me.

      So when you cross the border, you not only loose the right of privacy of your body, you also loose any rights to whatever you legally bought (unless you are a company. Then all is well again.)

      --
      Don't fight for your country, if your country does not fight for you.
    3. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      So the retailer spins of a subsidiary wholesaler to purchase the goods, sells them to the retailer, then it's "obtained" in the US and all is well?

    4. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by honkycat · · Score: 1

      It's not so simple. There are plenty of easy examples of obtaining something in a physical sense without acquiring legal ownership, e.g. outright theft. There are also subtler examples, such as purchasing under the terms of a contract that stipulate things you agree not to do later. Another is making a purchase outside the U.S. while subject to different laws. It's not clear that the U.S. interests (or even those of its people) are served by the U.S. legal system ignoring these sorts of things.

      Not to say I think this is a good decision, I don't really understand it enough, but your oversimplification doesn't work. It's quite possible for physical possession to be insufficient grounds for "legal importation."

    5. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by EdIII · · Score: 4, Insightful

      Unfortunately, the idea that we can enjoy our own property peacefully and privately has been under attack for quite some time now.

      I recently gave up trying to explain to some mentally challenged person here on Slashdot the very simple concept of property ownership and how once somebody sells you something they literally have no rights over it. Morally, ethically, etc... no rights.

      It has been this way forever. In the Wild West if you sold some guy a horse and then fucked with him 6 weeks later about a saddle he did not buy from you, your ass would have been shot. Nobody would have had sympathy for you either. Society would have considered you insane.

      Now, with DRM and the DMCA companies can try telling me that I don't own my own hardware and because some mental midgets don't want to get cheated on in video games, I should not have the right to fully own my own hardware. It's all magically different because we are talking about software some how?

      According to the article this twisted, disgusting, morally offensive logic now applies to non-electronic hardware!?

      This is the point where, as a people, globally, we just need to stand up and kill the top 3% of the people running the planet that have these stupid ideas. There is such a thing as too far and the last straw.

      The First Sale Doctrine is not just some piece of random legal logic. It was a rebuke to the sociopathic executives and marketers that had the ridiculous idea they could try to keep controlling and monetizing their products after they sold them. It recognized something we all understand to be a fundamental human right, something sacrosanct, something to be rigorously defended.

      Now we are allowing Sony and these Swiss douchebags to have permanent co-ownership of our property. How the heck are we losing these arguments? It's a no-brainer. My shit is my shit. Back off.

    6. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by blair1q · · Score: 3, Insightful

      No. If you bring it across the border you are importing it, and the government has total control over that, including taxing it, putting a tariff on it, banning it, quarantining it, impounding it, or declaring it a felony and locking you up for it.

      The solution to this is to end borders. I'm not sure why anyone thinks that's a bad idea, either. The border between Missouri and Illinois is more real than the border between the U.S. and Canada. Yet the border between San Diego and Tijuana is wider than the border between Cupertino and Shenzen. The control seems arbitrary, and creates artificial boundary conditions that result in instability and turbulence.

    7. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      so no grey imports, protectionism, tarrifs, subsidies.

      US loves world trade, but only when it is selling to others.

    8. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I agree. The sooner we do away with national (and other) borders, the better.

      Unfortunately, too many people are afraid of other people who don't look and act the same as themselves, for this to occur any time soon.

    9. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by chaboud · · Score: 1

      But the key difference here is that goods produced in the United States and obtained overseas are still subject to the First Sale Doctrine.

      If those goods are produced overseas and obtained overseas, they are suddenly treated very differently if resold in the US.

      This will essentially screw up grey market sales of things like cameras, computers, etc, and it will hand eternal pricing and resale control over to the copyright holder (Omega used a logo to invoke this protection).

      This will allow for dumping without natural market correction, and it naturally eliminates used CD, DVD, BD, and book sales, provided that those media were produced overseas.

      This could conceivably be construed to impair libraries and rental, even things such as hardware rental (Hilti on a drill, Caterpillar on a backhoe).

      This is a perilously stupid decision, so basically par for this court.

    10. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Actually if you obtain something out of country and bring it across the border it's subject to tariff and import laws. Large corporations follow this very strictly while an average Joe who bought $1000 worth of a product usually doesn't report and pay the taxes on the products he/she imported.

      Just saying since you brought up the double standard...

    11. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by Em+Adespoton · · Score: 1

      This finding only tells one half of the story. Goods obtained overseas obviously cannot have first sale doctrine applied, as they were already yours when they entered the country. Conversely, since the product already belonged to you when you entered the country, you are the sole owner of the property, and foreign laws do not apply -- which means you can do whatever you want with it. If the company who sold you the property wants to contest this, they have to sue you in the country of sale, NOT the USA. I can't see how/where a US court would handle a case about the use of private property that US customs let into the country.

      However, if you resell, you are the importer of record, therefore the sale is fully taxable, and you'd have to also pay the appropriate duties etc. Makes perfect sense to me.

    12. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      If I "obtain" something, it means it is mine. If it is mine, I should be able to do as I please with it, otherwise it is not mine and therefore not obtained by me.

      Houghi... houghi... what rock have you been living under for the last 20-30 years. Whatever you obtain is no longer yours to do with as you please. Only what the Powers That Be will let you. That DVD disc? Don't decrypt it. That CD with copy protection? Don't rip it for your iPod. That PSP-1000? Don't load custom firmware to run an emulator. That e-book you bought but want to read on your Kindle? Don't mess with the DRM.

      The problem is, whether you vote Democrat or Republican, the end result in these cases will be the same.

    13. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Your impassioned but mostly sensible point loses something when you come to the conclusion 3% of the world's population needs to be murdered. Do you see no other ways to solve the issue? For that matter, do you really think outright murder actually fixes the issue you're complaining about?

    14. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by SashaM · · Score: 1

      I recently gave up trying to explain to some mentally challenged person here on Slashdot the very simple concept of property ownership and how once somebody sells you something they literally have no rights over it. Morally, ethically, etc... no rights.

      I don't think it's as clear cut as that. If I sell you a painting I made, would you not agree that I still have the right to say that I painted it? Would you say that you have the right to erase my signature, draw your own and tell everyone you painted it?

    15. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by Nothing2Chere · · Score: 1

      The First Sale Doctrine is not just some piece of random legal logic. It was a rebuke to the sociopathic executives and marketers that had the ridiculous idea they could try to keep controlling and monetizing their products after they sold them.

      You mean like Apple is doing with their portable devices, right?

    16. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by jc42 · · Score: 1

      I recently gave up trying to explain to some mentally challenged person here on Slashdot the very simple concept of property ownership and how once somebody sells you something they literally have no rights over it. Morally, ethically, etc... no rights.

      Well, they may have no moral or ethical rights, but here in the US, "Intellectual Property" (copyright, patent and trademark) law trumps any such rights. If the thing you buy is covered by copyright, patent, or trademark, you haven't actually bought the thing in any meaningful sense. The owner of the "IP" is still the thing's owner; they've only leased it to you, and you have no rights to do anything with it.

      The recent cases of Amazon reversing sales to leasers (not owners ;-) of their Kindle reader and erasing books that people had "bought" illustrates this quite well. There's little doubt that what Amazon has done is legal in the US, since those books were covered by copyright. This case just emphasizes the situation, using trademark rather than copyright, and a physical object rather than text (and there's probably a patent violation inside that watch, too).

      I don't like this any more than you do, but what we like doesn't affect what the laws say. The laws say that we have no rights over anything we think we "buy", if the thing is covered by any copyright, patent or trademark law. Buying it doesn't make it our property, no matter how much we may argue that we paid for it. Morality and ethics may be on our side, but American law isn't.

      You don't even have to pay anything for this to apply. This text has an automatic copyright, so if you quote anything I've typed here without my permission, you are technically in violation of my copyright. Now, I'm not going to do that, but you don't know that I'm telling the truth, so maybe you shouldn't quote me. Or anyone else here, for that matter. We all could be trying to trick you into committing a copyright violation.

      (Hmm ... I wonder if those two sentences that I quoted above qualify as "fair use". Maybe, but I'd bet it would take a 10-year, million-dollar court case to actually decide the matter. ;-)

      --
      Those who do study history are doomed to stand helplessly by while everyone else repeats it.
    17. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by jonwil · · Score: 1

      The argument being made by Omega in this case is that goods imported into the US without permission of the local copyright holder (regardless of where they came from originally) should not get first sale protection.

      Personally I think that the whole "paralell import" BS should stop and the government should make it 100% legal for someone to buy legal copies of a copyrighted work overseas and resell them (we had a similar argument here in Australia regrding paralell importation of books where the government decided not to make it legal). If the local copyright holder doesnt like that, tough, they should lower their prices to compete with the legitimate overseas supplier.

    18. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Maybe that's one of the reasons why people "steal" "IP". Before money changes hands, it is not mine. After money changes hands, it is still not mine. Therefore, I will take it without paying, and keep the cost of the potential transaction. Sounds good to me.

    19. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by EdIII · · Score: 1

      Absolutely. Apple with their devices, Sony with their devices, etc.

      Although, I don't have a problem with them loading software on it that attempts to prevent the loading of custom firmware. If you don't like it, don't buy it.

      My issue with electronic devices like that is when the manufacturers use the DMCA (or any other legislation) to prevent you from loading your custom firmware by whatever means are available to you.

    20. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by suutar · · Score: 1

      And it still does that within the US. But it doesn't apply to stuff made and purchased outside the US, because that transaction is not subject to US law. I don't like the implications any more than you do, but if you're in a country which doesn't have first-sale doctrine, nothing's going to make that country abide by it.

    21. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Now we are allowing Sony and these Swiss douchebags to have permanent co-ownership of our property. How the heck are we losing these arguments? It's a no-brainer. My shit is my shit. Back off.

      It's amazing how capitalism with a poorly controlled government slowly metamorphoses into a particularly insidious form of communism. Think about it — if everything everyone owns ends up co-owned by the manufacturing corporation then everyone is effectively renting everything in their possession. Renting everything is like a tax, pay the ruling class and receive basic accommodation and an assigned set of furniture and appliances.

    22. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by EdIII · · Score: 1

      Your impassioned but mostly sensible point loses something when you come to the conclusion 3% of the world's population needs to be murdered. Do you see no other ways to solve the issue? For that matter, do you really think outright murder actually fixes the issue you're complaining about?

      No I don't see a way to resolve the issue. ACTA has demonstrated to me a fundamental failure in the very purpose of government in allegedly free societies.

      The purpose of government, at its most basic, is to provide a foundation for society to operate and prosper. Is that what it is doing right now?

      Absolutely Not

      Seemingly, the purpose of government right now is to pander to the rich and influential. The ideals of freedom, privacy, anonymity are being set aside out of fear and rampant greed.

      Completely illogical and unproven arguments are being used to pervert copyrights, abridge property ownership, abridge privacy and anonymity rights, and generally act in a manner that cannot be considered anything but an offense to the ideals of freedom.

      We are not talking about the philosophical differences between capitalism, socialism, communism, free markets, regulated, etc. We are talking about the common threads to all of these philosophies which is providing freedom and fairness to the people.

      Only the rich and influential (corporations) are being served by this.

      So yes. At some point it is going to get so bad that all we can really do is rise up and revolt against those that have enslaved us. Bloodshed becomes the only option at the point, because it is the only option that will bring about change.

      Will it fix it?

      Absolutely it would. Kill all the people that are creating laws and legal precedence like this. Kill all the executives and marketers that are pulling shit like Amazon where they immorally steal your rightful property from you right out from under you nose. Kill all the Wall Street bankers that are still going through blow and hookers on luxury yachts like nothing happened while Joe Public is in arbitration with the bank trying to work things out, but the only thing the bank will accept is continued payments like normal(even though we bailed those evil bastards out with public money so they could do exactly that).

      Yes. Kill. Kill. Kill. and Kill some more.

      What you would be left with is people that fucking remember what happened before. 50 years afterwards, 100 years afterwards when some marketer or MBA fucktwit sits there in a business meeting and has an idea of how they can fuck with people's privacy and property ownership rights to get more money, somebody in that meeting will remind them that it could get them killed .

      Basically, we need to take a lesson from the French about finally having enough and leading all the rich nobles to the fucking guillotines. That's what it may be coming too.

      Am I on a rant? Yeah a little bit. We let corporations get such an upper hand on us. We let the government leverage our fear to take away our rights and our privacy to deliver security (insert Ben Franklin quote). Now I can't fucking sell my Omega watch because some Omega executive sociopath made a fucking argument in court that I am hurting him and the courts bought it? ACTA bullshit in the mix too? Comcast blocking Netflix out of greed?

      Yeah. I really am hitting my threshold here on so many levels. It's absolutely clear to me that government is broken and the only thing left is revolution. Not just in one country either.

      Really close.

    23. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by unrtst · · Score: 1

      You have the right to say you painted it. The purchaser has the right to cut it up into pieces, or paint over the whole thing, or burn it, etc. And, they have the right to turn around and sell a pile of ashes that used to be your painting. They can also resell it unmodified to anyone else.

      The only real limit is that they do not have the right to place their name over yours (or cut yours off), put their name on it, sell it, and claim they created the entire thing. The final bit is the only really important part. They can do everything up to claiming they created it while selling it... that's false advertising (I'm sure there's a proper legal term for it) and plagiarism.

      Note, I'm not claiming anything you said was inaccurate... but I think this is still quite clear cut.

    24. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by EdIII · · Score: 2

      AbsoFUCKINGLutely man! LOL.

      Yes. I paid you. You don't get to tell me what to do.

      I could cut it into little pieces and use it as toilet paper. Target practice. Line the hamster cage with it. The materials are irrevocably mine.

      All you have is copyrights. I can't reproduce it and sell it for money. Not the same thing.

      Now if I were to deface your painting, then sell it, and claim it was yours, that is now a civil issue that has nothing to do with my property rights, but an act of defamation. Also, I can be sued by the person I sold it too for misrepresentation (even if it is intact). However, you are not a party to that lawsuit.

      Your argument and example is exactly what is wrong with people today. I mean that as politely as I can. Everyone needs to accept the fact that when money exchanges hands and a deal is conducted fairly, it's all over . There is no management of your property afterwards, because it ain't your property.

    25. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      First sale doctrine is purely an American construct. You want to enforce it in Australia - you come down and fucking point a gun at my head to do so you imperialist american fuck.

    26. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by EdIII · · Score: 3, Insightful

      I don't think we are talking about the same thing.

      My arguments are very specifically about hardware. When I mention property ownership I am not referring to in any way, books, music, movies, etc.

      Setting that aside for the moment, I completely recognize that IP does exist. In a meaningful sense, I have purchased "something". Under copyright law what I purchased was the right to enjoy the IP. Essentially, I purchased a legal entitlement. So you are wrong when you say I have no rights to do anything with it. In fact, I explicitly have the rights to do "something" with it and I believe that generally falls under "Peaceful Enjoyment".

      As far as IP goes, my issue is that copyrights are misunderstood, and this is perverted and taken advantage of by corporations to establish rights they were never explicitly given, and rights that are outside of the spirit of IP in the first place. DRM is a prime example of taking rights well outside of the scope and intent of copyright law.

      You mention Amazon specifically, but you are actually wrong. What they did is not legal. A copyright holder does not have the right to dissolve the contract and remove the legal entitlements that you purchased unilaterally. That is not just illegal, but again, outside of the scope and intent of copyright law.

      The fact it is on a Kindle is not relevant. If Amazon sold me a physical book, could Amazon acting on the copyright holder's behalf enter my house and remove the book? Of course not. Then why is it correct, legally or otherwise, to enter my Kindle and remove the book from it? Money exchanged hands here. What Amazon did is to abridge my legal entitlement that I lawfully purchased. Even refunding my money does not make it legal. Otherwise Wal-Mart could leave $100 bucks on my kitchen table and take back my microwave.

      Now of course I am certain there are very long legal contracts that you agree to when you activate the Kindle. That however, still does not make it legal. A contract cannot enforce just anything. It is my opinion that there is a strong foundation in the Amazon scandal for a class action lawsuit, and different than the 1984 mistake.

      Keep in mind, that the courts do take into mind what the average consumer would reasonably understand. The whole interaction falls under the context of a sale, not a rental. A reasonable person would always conclude that you could read that book "forever" on their Kindle.

      Bottom line is that Amazon is wrong on every level here. It's just that the government is bought and paid for at this point and won't go after them so it is up to the consumers to take a stand and start a class action lawsuit.

    27. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by EdIII · · Score: 1

      That sounds like civil disobedience. Although I don't approve of willful copyright infringement, I do approve of civil disobedience to a worthy cause.

      This is why I stopped "stealing" IP some time ago and pay Netflix and Zune each month. It's a good value for me and I am still making it clear that I won't "purchase" DRM encumbered materials. That's why people should boycott Blu-Ray and only buy DVDs.

    28. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by EdIII · · Score: 1

      That only applies if I attempt to sell my Omega watch to another Swiss citizen on Swiss soil. Ostensibly, all American citizens are subject to the laws of the country they are visiting.

      Your logic would mean that if I purchased an item from a merchant in a country that lives by Sharia, that I could be bound by Sharia when I get back in the US. That is not true.

      If Omega wants to sue me, they can come to the US and attempt to sue me under US law. The US should have never respected their law in a domestic court>. The fact they ultimately did is beyond ridiculous, and borders on the corrupt.

    29. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by EdIII · · Score: 1

      Not Communism. Fascism. Or a form a group Dictatorship.

      Anyways, I wholeheartedly agree with your sentiment.

    30. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by mercurywoodrose · · Score: 1

      I've got my torch at hand. Lets go! Though I think we should round up the sociopathic execs and dictators and put them behind a wall a la Coventry by heinlein, let them fight over some wells, plows, seed and animals until they are tired of their ayn rand assholism and agree to behavior modification to rejoin society. Death is too good for them, and its ultimately just another expression of sociopathy. (and i dont want the NSA tagging me as dangerously subversive)

      --
      You hear about the person who didn't rely on anecdotal evidence to support his belief system?
    31. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by EdIII · · Score: 1

      No, it is not a purely American construct. Americans don't have the rights to claim that the ideals of freedom are theirs originally. These universal truths have no pedigree.

      That is what we are talking about here. A universal, and moral, truth. You cannot claim and act upon rights of ownership when you don't have any. Go back as far as you want. When somebody did that to another in our human history it was always considered immoral, and was certainly not looked upon favorably by the masses.

      Now if you want to sit there in Australia and enjoy the oppression, that's fine. It's deeply ironic that you would accuse me of acting in an imperialist fashion when you support enforcing your immoral and undeserved rights of property ownership over me in the US.

      An American (that is always capitalized btw, I don't spell Australian in all lower case) construct? Hardly.

    32. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      No. If you bring it across the border you are importing it, and the government has total control over that, including taxing it, putting a tariff on it, banning it, quarantining it, impounding it, or declaring it a felony and locking you up for it.

      The government or the manufacturer?

    33. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by martyros · · Score: 1

      because some mental midgets don't want to get cheated on in video games

      I was with you until there. Now I think you're probably the kind of mental midget who actually cheats at video games.

      --

      TCP: Why the Internet is full of SYN.

    34. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by VShael · · Score: 1

      This is the point where, as a people, globally, we just need to stand up and kill the top 3% of the people running the planet that have these stupid ideas.

      The sheep and cattle have never risen up to slay the farmer.

      The sheepdog ensures that they stay in a pack, easily led.
      Any sheep that gets ideas, is nipped by the dog.
      If it still gets ideas, it is torn to pieces by the dog.

    35. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by EdIII · · Score: 1

      So wait..... what you are saying is that

      1) I do cheat at video games and must rely on my ability to bypass DRM, and load custom firmware on my devices to that end..

      and

      2) In order to stop me from doing so, you support the abridgment of every Americans right to peacefully enjoy their property?

      See.. that's what I don't understand. It does not matter if I cheat at video games. For the record, I do not own a PS3 and I don't play multi-player video games like that anymore. Not for a long time.

      Right of First Sale Doctrine recognizes something pretty important here which is property ownership and it would be a tragic shame for you to be against it simply because you feel I may be cheating at video games.

    36. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by Skjellifetti · · Score: 1

      You are confused about the legal nature of a piece of property. Ownership of a physical piece of property has always been defined as a bundle of legal rights. For many, perhaps most items of property, that bundle of rights is all encompassing in the sense that you can do whatever you choose to do with that property. But for many items of physical property, the bundle of rights that are sold to you when you purchase the physical item are not all encompassing and never have been. If, for example, you were to purchase a nice piece of backwoods property in much of Appalachia, you had best check and make sure you are also purchasing the mineral rights to that land. In many cases, the ownership of the right to extract minerals has been split from the right to, say, build a house on the land. Similarly, in the American West, the purchase of land with a stream running through it does not automatically convey the right to use any of the water from that stream. The water rights have been unpackaged from the land ownership. This unbundling of land and water rights, in fact, goes all the way back to the Roman Empire.

      The legal history of physical property ownership has been one where, over time, the bundle of rights sold with the property has been split into finer and finer bundles. DRM, DMCA, etc. are just a continuation of this trend. When Sony sells you a PS3, they have sold you a bundle of rights that includes some uses of that property, but excludes others. Sony is under no legal obligation to sell a complete set of rights when they hand over the PS3 in exchange for the customer's cash. If you don't like the exclusions in the bundle of rights Sony has sold you with the PS3, don't buy a PS3.

      This unbundling of property rights is actually a good idea. If you were to force Sony to sell a complete set of rights as you seem to understand ownership, Sony would have to charge a higher price for the PS3. Since most people do not care to mod their PS3, removing that right from the bundle that is conveyed during a sale of a PS3 reduces the cost that most customers have to pay for the actual rights that they do care about.

    37. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by blair1q · · Score: 1

      Yes.

    38. Re:That's Not What The Article Says by suutar · · Score: 1

      Omega did sue under US law. US law (section 602) says that importing copyrighted goods in violation of foreign copyright law is also a violation of US law. First Sale doctrine (section 109(a)) says that a sale subject to US law means that the copyright holder has given up some of their rights. But if you bought it outside the US, the sale isn't subject to US law, and 109(a) doesn't apply. That's been decided previously; omega/costco just failed to overturn it.

  21. Not Imports by Alanbly · · Score: 1

    Everyone making ridiculous claims that this applies to all goods manufactured outside the US take a Chill pill. If it can be legally imported for sale to the US then the doctrine still applies. It's goods that are NOT imported for sale that cannot necessarily be resold. The summary is false and misleading.

    --
    -- Adam McCormick
  22. Good luck by betterunixthanunix · · Score: 4, Interesting

    Until people wake up and realize that they do not owe copyright owners anything, nothing will change. I had a conversation a few weeks ago with a person who used to work for the recording industry, and when I suggested that there might not be any ethical problem with downloading unauthorized copies of music and movies, he became so emotional that the conversation ended with him demanding that I never speak to him again. When the people "on the other side" of the issue are fighting like it is a matter of life and death, what hope do the rest of us have when most people just do not see copyright as being a particularly big deal?

    --
    Palm trees and 8
    1. Re:Good luck by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I'll be your friend betterunixthanunix. /me hugs you.

    2. Re:Good luck by Nevo · · Score: 1

      If you were an author, songwriter, or other artist who produced copyrighted works to feed your family, maybe you'd understand that for some people, this *is* an issue to fight over like it's a matter of life and death.

    3. Re:Good luck by betterunixthanunix · · Score: 1

      Well, for several years I was employed as a programmer, who wrote computer programs as a means of making money. Of course, those programs are all GPLed, and so the issue of people downloading unauthorized copies is pretty much moot (unless, of course, the person they download it from refuses to grant them access to the source code...). I do not get emotional about the issue of people downloading software even when the software is not GPLed.

      I understand that for some people, this is an issue to fight over like it is life or death. My point is that the people they are fighting against, which is basically everyone else, are not taking the fight so seriously, and so the rest of us will inevitably lose this fight.

      --
      Palm trees and 8
    4. Re:Good luck by commodore64_love · · Score: 4, Insightful

      "I don't get paid for work I did two decades ago. Why should you?"

      "Um... uh... well..."

      "That's what I thought. There is no justifiable reason to extend copyright beyond about 10 years. There is no reason why you should get an annual payment for the rest of your life for work you did when you were age 20 or 30. *I* don't get that privilege of lifelong income. I work. I get paid. I might get a bonus at the end-of-the-year or decade for work well done, and that's the end of it. The same should be true for you."

      --
      "I disapprove of what you say, but I will defend to the death your right to say it." - historian Evelyn Beatrice Hall
    5. Re:Good luck by Eric+S.+Smith · · Score: 4, Interesting

      "I don't get paid for work I did two decades ago. Why should you?"

      A possible response: "Because work that I did two decades ago is still valued and in demand, while nobody cares what you did yesterday."

    6. Re:Good luck by bluefoxlucid · · Score: 1

      Then why not keep producing like the rest of everyone else? You know, retire when you're 50 instead of 20.

    7. Re:Good luck by jgtg32a · · Score: 2

      The publisher is still getting paid for work done 10 years ago.

    8. Re:Good luck by kryliss · · Score: 1

      Gee. Maybe if the copyright length was reduced to say 10 years maybe the "Songwriter/Artist" would be more willing to come up with something original instead of just resting on their "laurels" And I'm sorry,... When I see these singers/song writers driving around in cars costing several hundred thousand dollars and buying homes upwards of millions of dollars, I really don't think they have any problems feeding their family. And I really don't pity them when their career goes south and they are sad because they can't just go blow millions of dollars on expensive crap just because they want to. All of this rant, is of course, aimed at the singers/song writers that do make it big. Even if the RIAA-FIA MPAA-FIA do make most of that money those "stars" are still making tons of money. And for the little guy that's not making millions, the copyright should still be 10 years for the same reason. (S)he will still be inspired to create new music. If they keep up with the good music all the "10 year" copywrites will last through their career, if they can just manage to save and invest their money they won't have to worry about needing 485 years worth of copyright protection......

      Just my rant no matter how random my thinking is.

      --
      --- If the bible proves the existence of God, then Superman comics prove the existence of Superman.
    9. Re:Good luck by arcsimm · · Score: 2

      I have a friend who recently had his first book published. To his dismay, he found that the ebook version had been posted up on the Pirate Bay almost within hours of release. He didn't quite see it as a life-and-death issue, though. In fact, he's decided to make the digital version of his book available for free, legally, and so far it's been working out well for him.

      The Internet changes the rules, and those who refuse to play by those new rules are facing a long, bitter, losing fight. From that perspective, it's maybe not so surprising that they'd be irrationally angry about it.

    10. Re:Good luck by bberens · · Score: 0

      You do realize that the GPL derives its power from copyright laws?

      --
      Check out my lame java blog at www.javachopshop.com
    11. Re:Good luck by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

      "If you were an author, songwriter, or other artist who produced copyrighted works to feed your family,..."

      Get a fucking job. Why force us to pay for it for the rest of your life, the life of your kids, the life of their kids and so on?

    12. Re:Good luck by nospam007 · · Score: 4, Insightful

      Really? What about house builders, infrastructure?

      Should the people who built a highway get money from every user for the rest of their lives?

      Should the painter who did the exterior of my house get a say on allowing me to repaint it in a different color?

       

    13. Re:Good luck by dachshund · · Score: 2

      *I* don't get that privilege of lifelong income. I work. I get paid.

      Many musicians don't. Get paid, that is. Or get bonuses. They make stuff and hope that people will buy it, and that the tiny bit of income they make off of this will add up as people discover their work over the years.

      I'd be willing to support a model where musicians get good salaries and bonuses, then we all make their recordings public domain --- sort of like government-funded academic research. But I'm not sure who's going to pay for it.

      PS I don't really disagree with your basic position here ---- you've just made the worst possible argument for it.

    14. Re:Good luck by Whorhay · · Score: 1

      While it's true that the demand for whatever they made may still be there with today's technology the only reason the supply isn't infinite are legal constructs like Copyright Law.

    15. Re:Good luck by rjstanford · · Score: 0

      Well, for several years I was employed as a programmer, who wrote computer programs as a means of making money. Of course, those programs are all GPLed, and so the issue of people downloading unauthorized copies is pretty much moot (unless, of course, the person they download it from refuses to grant them access to the source code...). I do not get emotional about the issue of people downloading software even when the software is not GPLed.

      Of course, without Copyright I could always take your GPLd code, copy it perfectly, and release it under a different less restrictive license. Since the only power granted to me by the GPL (and thus the only incentive to "take the deal") is that of copying, in a Copyright-free land the GPL is 100% moot....

      --
      You're special forces then? That's great! I just love your olympics!
    16. Re:Good luck by Overzeetop · · Score: 5, Interesting

      You can!

      Here's what you do - build a house on your own dime, then rent it to people. You can get income for the rest of your life, for doing nothing!

      Now, here's the rub: When you do something like that, you usually have to pay a tax to the government on an annual basis based on the total value of the property - just a couple percent. Maybe that's what we need for copyright?

      --
      Is it just my observation, or are there way too many stupid people in the world?
    17. Re:Good luck by yurtinus · · Score: 1

      Well, if I built a highway with money out of my own pocket, sure I'd charge a toll to everybody who travels on it. Of course most highways don't work that way these days...

      You may be on to something with the house though... Will need to consult with some lawyers, but perhaps I could build a house and copyright the design or plans (Don't need to be detailed as some of these recent claims have shown!) then whenever it comes time for the owners to resell it, they are clearly unlawfully transferring their license to my copyrighted designs. Hell, why settle for just a cut when I could probably manage to get the whole damn house back?

      Thank you Mr nospam007, you may have just made me a very wealthy man!

      --
      +1 Disagree
    18. Re:Good luck by Son+of+Byrne · · Score: 1

      Sure, that work you did twenty years ago is valued and in demand, the only problem is that there is little to no scarcity. You didn't really clarify how *much* value now did you?

      Scarcity is the underlying mechanism by which value is derived. When a digital work can be copied infinitely, then there is relatively no scarcity resulting in relatively no value.

      Copyright laws were invented to inject some artificial scarcity into this business. However, no artificial scarcity will ever succeed long term (as we're seeing), regardless of the draconian penalties invented to try to enforce this bogus scarcity.

      Tell you what, you tell me about a digital good that has natural scarcity and I'll happily entertain this new concept. Until then, it's time to wake up and realize that digital goods are just not as valuable as you think they are.

      --
      I'd happily pay you Tuesday for a biopsy today!
    19. Re:Good luck by ubermiester · · Score: 1

      First of all i would be interested in hearing your rationale for ignoring copyright. Probably a gem.

      Second, if you don't understand why people whose livelihoods depend on control over the distribution of their work get upset when you make such claims, perhaps you should have a look at your own source of income.

      If you work for a development house or are an in-house dev for a large company, some co-worker(s) are dedicated to ensuring that the intellectual property you are generating is protected from piracy and unauthorized use. You wouldn't be working there very long if they let people steal their product with impunity.

      If you work on your own, I would imagine you would be fairly irate if IBM started selling your work as their own. Of course you have the right to let them do so (i.e., open-source), but it is your right, not theirs.

      And if you think you don't work in a field that involves intellectual property, I would suggest that there is no such thing. No modern company can exist without assets that are protected by IP laws - including trademarks, patents, copyrights, etc.

      Or maybe you just don't understand money and why people need it. Maybe you're independently wealthy from birth and have no idea how much a gallon of milk costs. Could be. Never know...

    20. Re:Good luck by clone52431 · · Score: 2

      A possible response to that: “If people will only take your work if it is free, what does that tell you about its value or demand?”

      --
      Distributed Denial of APK: It takes 15 seconds to reply to him anonymously, but wastes tons of his time if we all do it.
    21. Re:Good luck by blair1q · · Score: 1

      You are a crook. Figure that out and you'll understand why people treat you like one.

    22. Re:Good luck by Shadow99_1 · · Score: 1

      I have produced both books, magazine articles, and music at various times in my life. I however wish someone could take 'Intellectual property' at back and shoot it. Now some make obscene money form the current system and so they fight tooth and nail for it, but those industries will get along just fine without copyright around.

      --
      we are all invisible unless we choose otherwise
    23. Re:Good luck by Skuld-Chan · · Score: 1

      If making money off writing books was your livelyhood - how is that not a life and death issue? Most of us need money to live :/.

      Yes I know a lot of authors have a day job (or are successful on previous books/novels) and have to make a living outside that realm, but I really do fail to see how the internet changes the rules of "thou shalt not steal" and how publishers of any material just need to learn to adapt if your business is making content and everyone just wants to pirate everything you make.

    24. Re:Good luck by IWannaBeAnAC · · Score: 1

      You do realize that the GPL derives its power from copyright laws?

      I'd imagine he realizes that. But that isn't an argument in favor of existing copyright laws. Stallman argues that copyleft should be the default, and copyright shouldn't exist (or only apply in much more limited circumstances).

    25. Re:Good luck by VortexCortex · · Score: 1

      "I don't get paid for work I did two decades ago. Why should you?"

      A possible response: "Because work that I did two decades ago is still valued and in demand, while nobody cares what you did yesterday."

      Many people care if they can get to the websites they want. Yesterday I fixed a problem that if left unchecked, today would be preventing people from getting the data that they "demand".

      Perhaps my employer owes me royalties for each 'user' of the newly installed hardware. Or, perhaps I don't get royalties, and instead focus on the next fire that needs putting out.

      Your view about "value" is so wrong. Perhaps today you don't give a shit about the food that was prepared for you yesterday, but had you not eaten, you would care a whole lot more about the food you didn't get to eat, and you would be attempting to procure food today.

      Just because something isn't currently in demand doesn't mean it still is... Just because something is still in demand, doesn't mean it's worth anything. I could care less about whether you eat or not.

      However, since you want to play the demand game, lets do so.

      If there is demand for an approved copy of your work then you obviously deserve to make a portion of profit from that approved & licensed purchase. Your loyal fans will ensure you have the money you deserve.

      If there is demand for an unapproved digital copy of your work you obviously deserve to make a portion of profit from that unapproved copy ( hint: X% of $0.00 is $0.00 ). The less interested fans will ensure you don't get paid for things they don't think have any worth. (If you're lucky, they may be converted into genuine fans and pay to see your concert/exhibition -- where you actually are working).

      Either demand does not determine value, or value is subjective. You decide.

    26. Re:Good luck by Duradin · · Score: 1

      You are supposed to make art for enjoyment. If you charge anything for it you are a dirty corporate whore who deserves to have whatever they were selling taken from them as punishment. Art should be freely distributed and then the generous donations from those who don't pay anything will reward you if they like your work.

    27. Re:Good luck by ancientt · · Score: 1

      I really hate to seem to come down on this side of the issue, but you seem interested in reason and I think you might reconsider your stance if provided a logical alternative:

      Copyright is about encouraging creation of valuable work. As the value of a work increases, so do associated incentives. If copyright can only protect your work from free copies for a year, many of your potential customers will wait until they can get a free or cheap copy and your financial incentive is limited to match what you can reasonably hope to sell in the first year. This may still be an attractive arrangement if you're talking about an investment of ten hours of programming, but even if you have the talent and expertise to build a holodeck with five years of work, you'll make more money doing less valuable projects.

      In the other direction, if copyright of your work extends to three generations, and you have the opportunity and talent, you can invest twenty years of your life in the holodeck project with the incentive of being able to provide financially not only for your self, but also for your grandchildren. Your incentive is tremendously increased to work on the more valuable project.

      I recognize that most of the work I do has little value, even the creative work, beyond ten years and increasing the copyright term beyond it would not give me personal incentive to work harder or invest more time. I also recognize that there may be things created that I would benefit from if the incentives are strong enough to innovate and create, which would benefit me if produced by others with greater vision, talent or opportunity.

      Why should you benefit from work you did ten years ago when I don't? If you wouldn't create something that I hold valuable otherwise, then you should benefit from it so that I can in turn benefit from work you would otherwise not have done.

      There is a trade off between the value to society of incentive and the cost to society of artificial scarcity. I believe that our copyright laws fail to strike a balance that is most beneficial to society, and I think we would agree that copyright terms as they stand now are too restrictive. I would propose that copyright should be limited to the substantial reproduction of a creative work and that the initial term should be for five years with automatic extensions up to twenty years granted if a copyright holder makes the request while the term is still in effect. Any term beyond twenty years should have to be supported by an elected governing body on a case by case basis and extensions by that body limited to twice the age of the oldest member. If I'm getting to make the laws, then I'd propose the consolidation of patents, trademarks, copyright and any similar intellectual innovation to a single bill.

      --
      B) Eliminate all the stupid users. This is frowned upon by society.
    28. Re:Good luck by Lehk228 · · Score: 1

      make it 10 x 100, 10 years control of distribution and 100 years control of non-algorithmic non-mechanical derivative works, protecting copyrighted characters and settings in fiction from being exploited for longer because a well known auther may very well continue writing about a group of characters for decades, non-algorithmic derivatives because technically converting from VHS to DVD or Blu ray is a derivative.

      --
      Snowden and Manning are heroes.
    29. Re:Good luck by syousef · · Score: 1

      Until people wake up and realize that they do not owe copyright owners anything, nothing will change. I had a conversation a few weeks ago with a person who used to work for the recording industry, and when I suggested that there might not be any ethical problem with downloading unauthorized copies of music and movies, he became so emotional that the conversation ended with him demanding that I never speak to him again.

      Sounds like a win-win to me. You no longer have to talk to the douche, and he gets to keep his head buried in the sand.

      --
      These posts express my own personal views, not those of my employer
    30. Re:Good luck by syousef · · Score: 1

      "I don't get paid for work I did two decades ago. Why should you?"

      A possible response: "Because work that I did two decades ago is still valued and in demand, while nobody cares what you did yesterday."

      So you don't mind if your builder's plumber comes into your building and rips up the sewerage? Then you can either be full of shit, or swimming in shit.

      --
      These posts express my own personal views, not those of my employer
    31. Re:Good luck by LateArthurDent · · Score: 1

      Well, if I built a highway with money out of my own pocket, sure I'd charge a toll to everybody who travels on it.

      You're hitting on the difference between real property and "intellectual" property. If you paid a civil engineer to design your highway, do you think he should have any right to keep demanding a percentage of the money you make from those tolls because he's the one that came up with the design?

      Nobody is saying that you should be able to just walk in a store and take a music cd. The cd is an actual property that belongs to the store. The music in it is something completely separate and it is interesting to ask why it is that the composer doesn't get paid once on delivery of the new song, the artists once for the recording session, and so on. You know, the same way that you paid that civil engineer once to design your highway.

    32. Re:Good luck by Smauler · · Score: 2

      Yeah, good luck with that. Authors, songwriters, and other artists in the current system generally either end up being very rich or penniless.

      There is no inherent right as an artist of any kind to have your works protected. The copyright system has become so pervasive that we see it as an industry, rather than as what it is intended for.

      What it was intended for was to _enable_ works to enter the public domain. Honestly, it was. By allowing limited copyright, you encouraged holders to publicly publish as opposed to privately, since renumeration worked better.

      Now it's got warped into a century long dynastic money grabbing machine, and it doesn't work.

      Copyright is a government granted monopoly on an artist's behalf.

      Also, please do not get plagiarism confused with copyright. If you release a work as completely public domain, no one can plagiarise it still. If they try to, and sell it, it is fraud.

    33. Re:Good luck by arcsimm · · Score: 1

      The way it changes the rules doesn't have anything to do with morality; rather, it gives content creators the opportunity to compete with the pirates on their own terms. The Internet hasn't really increased the prevalence of piracy (In 1976, Bill Gates complained that his Altair BASIC was being illegally copied at a 9-1 ratio compared to legit sales, which tracks closely with numbers from present-day indie games publishers), but it does reduce the unit cost to a publisher to practically zero. If you give away your book, music, game, or whatever, as a basic digital product you win back the sizable chunk of people who are poor/lazy but otherwise honest, and then you can position the physical artifact -- a printed version, deluxe album, or something else -- as a value-add for people who liked the free component.

      My friend Chris' case is an interesting test for the give-it-away approach, because while it's been successful for big names like Radiohead and Cory Doctorow, nobody's really tried it as an unknown. Chris is finding that he benefits from the additional publicity and goodwill, and feels that he's coming out ahead in that respect. There ain't a single one-book author out there who can support himself on that income, piracy or no, so for him the publicity win is reason enough on its own.

    34. Re:Good luck by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      There is an astounding level of idiocy promoted by people who seem to espouse that copyrights are bad and they protect work that has been "already paid for enough times"

      The goods/services you have described are something which is paid for one time, upon transfer of good or complettion of service. As are most goods and services, and for the most part that statement relates to things which are copyrighted as well. If you buy an album, you don't continue paying for it after you have purchased it.

      Something protected by a copyright, let us say a song by the beatles as that's a typical and somewhat current item to discuss, has not already been paid for necessarily. The costs of creating it have been recouped, certainly. However the tangible asset itself has not necessarily been purchased. If I were to place that song in a film where it provided a meaningful subtext to the imagery, the composing artist should be compensated. Just because it's old is no excuse for it to become free property. Paul and Ringo are still kickin it.

      People always seem to argue these things about Intellectual Properties, though considering how quickly we are moving into an era where the most valuable property is intellectual in nature I just can't comprehend how one can not see what is ABSOLUTELY theft. And I know I'm off topic. The watch should be allowed to be sold again. But imagine what I'm saying if I were talking about grain instead of a song.

      Let's say there's a silo, and our village farmer filled it with grain 30 years ago. This grain is all still good, and hasn't been used as it was a surplus and we've always had surpluses. But today, someone wants to make a loaf of bread and sell that at their bakery, or hell even just give it away to their friends, and they want to make it with flour milled from that 30 year old grain... By your logic just because the grain is old you should be allowed access to it without compensation to the person who originally produced it.

      I'm practically a communist because I believe in treating people fairly, and unless you enjoy lying to yourself, helping yourself to someone's work without compensating them in any way is just not fair.

      I like free music, I've downloaded music I didn't own. But the pieces of music I liked? well I went out and fucking bought them because the geniuses of humanity that can make something which moves me... well they ought to be rewarded. same for authors and filmmakers et al...

      stop imparting bad arguments and illogical conclusions because you want something for free, you entitled POS.

    35. Re:Good luck by tepples · · Score: 1

      without Copyright I could always take your GPLd code, copy it perfectly, and release it under a different less restrictive license.

      Without copyright, others could reverse-engineer your binary code and share it.

    36. Re:Good luck by BigSes · · Score: 1

      ...he became so emotional that the conversation ended with him demanding that I never speak to him again.

      Yes, and I'm still pissed of at you. I told you to quit speaking to me!

    37. Re:Good luck by Son+of+Byrne · · Score: 1

      Sorry, I'm not buying it.

      I understand that everyone does need to make money, but the reality is that we cannot afford to protect your artificial scarcity on the digital goods that you produce. It runs counter to natural economic laws (supply and demand) by generating scarcity through legislation. I honestly am not happy about this because I honestly think that there ought to be a way to produce digital work that is then naturally valuable (not artificially). However, until such time as someone figgers a way to make a digital product that is the equivalent of a physical product with all the natural protection afforded a physical product, then I truly believe that you're battling the inevitable.

      And no, you're wrong when you say that no modern company can exist without assets that are protected by IP laws. I know that because I own one.

      --
      I'd happily pay you Tuesday for a biopsy today!
    38. Re:Good luck by Chirs · · Score: 1

      "I don't get paid for work I did two decades ago. Why should you?"

      Because the value of a work of authorship isn't necessarily known right away.

      Suppose copyright didn't hold--this implies that authors would be paid by the book, or by the word, or by the hour, as a salaried employee, or some other similar mechanism. How would authors and publishers possibly arrive at some kind of fair price--especially for an author that is just starting out?

      Suppose I write a work and self-publish it and it lingers in obscurity until a decade later someone rediscovers it and it goes viral. Why shouldn't I get a cut of the proceeds?

      Now I *do* think that the whole "life plus X years" thing is a bit silly. There's no reason why the descendents of the authors should continue to get paid.

    39. Re:Good luck by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      So it's a question of ownership. If the person who built and painted the house 20 years ago sold the ownership of it to you, then you can do what you want with it. But if the person who built it still owns it and you're only renting the house, then you can't knock out a wall without permission or being sued for damages.

    40. Re:Good luck by yurtinus · · Score: 1

      Absolutely agree - just felt the need to attack that particular analogy in GP's post.

      --
      +1 Disagree
    41. Re:Good luck by exomondo · · Score: 1

      Really? What about house builders, infrastructure?

      They get a large up-front payment as opposed to long drawn-out payments over many years.

    42. Re:Good luck by exomondo · · Score: 2

      If you paid a civil engineer to design your highway, do you think he should have any right to keep demanding a percentage of the money you make from those tolls because he's the one that came up with the design?

      Well he can either take the riskier - but potentially more profitable - option of a stake in the company and therefore an entitlement to it's future profits. Or he can take a lump sum payment and his work is the property of the company.

      The music in it is something completely separate and it is interesting to ask why it is that the composer doesn't get paid once on delivery of the new song, the artists once for the recording session, and so on.

      The real question is who would pay for that? I mean goods (and their development costs) are paid for by people who want them and thus purchase them.

    43. Re:Good luck by sumdumass · · Score: 0

      Well, no matter how you attempt to justify it, you owe copyright holders what the law says.

      You probably can justify why the law is stupid, unnecessary, ill thought, not logical, and so on, but as long as the law is there, you owe the copyright holders for any use the law specifically allows them control over. There is a serious ethical problem with purposefully violating the law.

      However, there is no ethical issues with protesting the law or anything you can do in order to repeal it or remove its scope. But as long as it's there, you can't justify violating it unless you can claim the alternative is somehow worse. That creates a pretty strong ethical challenge to overcome.

    44. Re:Good luck by MartinSchou · · Score: 2

      I think the best argument I've heard so far (granted, it's my own argument, so I'm inclined to like it, but still ...) is "cultural heritage". My generation doesn't have any. Nor does my parents' generation. My great grandfathers and -mothers were born between 1908 and 1920, and they barely have any.

      You know all these great authors, who have enriched our lives? Not part of our heritage. At all. Well, a few of them are. When did they die? Add 70 years and see if that number is lower than the current year. If it is, they are part of our heritage.

      Tolkien - died in 1973, not part of our heritage
      George Orwell - died in 1950, not part of our heritage
      Walt Disney - died in 1966, not part of our heritage (well, duh)
      Boris Pasternak - died in 1960, not part of our heritage
      Arthur Conan Doyle - died in 1930, some of his stuff might be
      Arthur C. Clarke - died in 2008, not part of our heritage
      Robert A. Heinlein - died in 1988, not part of our heritage
      Agatha Christie - died in 1976, not part of our heritage
      A. A. Milne (Winnie the Pooh) - died in 1956, not part of our heritage

      Remember all those great movies you've watched? Essentially anything made before 1928 is probably never going to make it into our heritage.

      Music from after 1928? Can you even name music from before then? Jazz, sure - but that's only from about 1915.

      The simple fact of life is, that the way copyright holders are acting, it will soon be illegal for you to read books aloud to your children, unless you've purchased a copy specifically for them to read. And they can't give it to anyone else either.

      And forget about singing lullabies, birthday songs or anything like that as well. And remember - if you have five kids, you need to buy five licenses of every movie they watch.

      Cultural heritage my ass.

    45. Re:Good luck by jschottm · · Score: 1

      "I don't get paid for work I did two decades ago. Why should you?"

      Because the express purpose of the constitution establishing the authority for copyright is to promote the arts and sciences. To do so, you must induce people and companies to take a substantial risk of failure by dedicating time to creating. Your job paid you a living wage; creative works does not. Copyright duration has become abusively long, but that doesn't mean the basic concept is wrong. Too short of a period of protection would cause the development of intellectual works to stagnate and choke the economies of the first world countries. If you work in anything related to computers, it's very likely that the fact you got paid a decade ago has everything to do with the same protections you're railing against, just the risk was undertaken by an entity other than yourself.

      If copyright is an easy ride on the gravy train, why haven't you become wealthy with it? What great works have you chosen to contribute to the public domain?

    46. Re:Good luck by innocent_white_lamb · · Score: 1

      How about paying the developer a percentage of the amount that you get when you re-sell the house, every time for the next hundred years:
       
        Resale Fees That Only Developers Could Love

      --
      If you're a zombie and you know it, bite your friend!
    47. Re:Good luck by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I do work for railway systems, installed all over the world. It's high value work because several million people rely on my work -every day- to get them safely to where they want to go. Daily commuters, travellers, tourists.

      I get exactly zip in royalties. and my work is actually useful^h^h^h essential to the community, not some frivolous ass-shaking song, violence-inciteful gansta rap or forgettable movie.

    48. Re:Good luck by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Yes I know a lot of buggy-whip makers have a day job (or are successful on previous buggy-whip sales) and have to make a living outside that realm, but I really do fail to see how the automobile changes the rules of "thou shalt not steal" and how manufacturers of any product just need to learn to adapt if your business is making buggy-whips and everyone just wants to drive a horseless-carriage with no whip.

      FTFY, but I'm sure you still won't get it -- your "steal" bit is so characteristic of that way of thinking. Not only do you conflate copyright (a monopolistic privilege which originated as an internal rule of English bookmakers' guilds) with the natural rights of property ownership, but you also have that all too-common notion that if someone used to make an honest living in a particular occupation, he must have a right to continued income as long as he keeps working. I've seen a number of people enlightened from the former (usually, they'd never taken the time to seek a derivation of copyright from natural (i.e. property) rights, and upon discussion realized there was none), but not one from the latter.

      So be glad; if my experience is any guide, you'll never have to face the embarrassment of admitting you were wrong on this issue, but go to your grave a bitter old man, convinced that the world is unjust because possessing a printing press and bookstore contacts to promote books no longer guarantees one a paying job.

    49. Re:Good luck by index0 · · Score: 1

      Yes, you can do that with physical things, but not imaginary things. If I use my own time to "build" my own mp3 that is identical to some original, that seems to be illegal.

    50. Re:Good luck by blarkon · · Score: 1

      As long as you don't consume any work generated by artists without in some way compensating them, not a problem. If you do consume the work of others for your own reward, gratification, or entertainment - and you have benefited tangibly from it - what right have you not to provide some sort of compensation for the benefit you've accrued?

    51. Re:Good luck by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The music in it is something completely separate and it is interesting to ask why it is that the composer doesn't get paid once on delivery of the new song, the artists once for the recording session, and so on.

      The real question is who would pay for that? I mean goods (and their development costs) are paid for by people who want them and thus purchase them.

      Well we've just come back to the standard justification for copyright. The point of the exercise is because we don't know if something is good until it's finished, copyright lets us buy things after they are completed so the creator gets to reclaim their initial investment (e.g. a loan) with a tidy sum on top that they can live on while they make something else.

      This is ultimately a "necessary evil" defence which is why the time limits should be short, long enough to make it viable as a career path but short enough that you don't get to mooch off your one big hit until you die.

      Before copyright, we had the patron system where the rich would sponsor an artist to produce their work because they liked it enough. This worked but it doesn't always give the artist the freedom to experiment with different things that may be better but the patron doesn't like. Copyright creates a sort of meritocracy instead which, IMHO, is a better solution.

    52. Re:Good luck by gottabeme · · Score: 1

      The music in it is something completely separate and it is interesting to ask why it is that the composer doesn't get paid once on delivery of the new song, the artists once for the recording session, and so on.

      The real question is who would pay for that? I mean goods (and their development costs) are paid for by people who want them and thus purchase them.

      Huh?

      Goods (like physical media) are paid for by whoever produces them, hoping to recoup their costs and make a profit by selling them later. Just like any other good. (Or some can be produced on-demand.)

      Imaginary "goods," like digital copies of media, can be reproduced at the expense of the person receiving the copy, without advance production or the associated costs.

      Either way, the production of the recording, the master, and its associated costs are one-time expenses.

      --
      "Those who consume the bulk of goods are those who make them. We must never forget this secret of our prosperity."
    53. Re:Good luck by exomondo · · Score: 1

      Huh?

      Goods (like physical media) are paid for by whoever produces them, hoping to recoup their costs and make a profit by selling them later. Just like any other good. (Or some can be produced on-demand.)

      So ultimately, the cost of the item is paid for by the end consumer, the people who produce them aren't out of pocket.

      Either way, the production of the recording, the master, and its associated costs are one-time expenses.

      And that's my question, who would pay for that? At the moment those costs are paid for by the people who want the product (the ones who buy it).

    54. Re:Good luck by gottabeme · · Score: 1

      "So ultimately, the cost of the item is paid for by the end consumer, the people who produce them aren't out of pocket."

      Huh? That's completely the opposite of reality. The people who produce them spend their own money in advance, hoping to recoup the costs. They are EXACTLY out-of-pocket. Whether they are ultimately reimbursed by sales and to what extent is not guaranteed.

      Either way, the production of the recording, the master, and its associated costs are one-time expenses.

      And that's my question, who would pay for that? At the moment those costs are paid for by the people who want the product (the ones who buy it).

      What planet are you living on? The only way those costs would be paid for by the people who want the product would be through a system of patronage, paying the artist to produce a particular work. The production costs are actually paid for by the people who pay to produce the work, which is an investment, one which carries the risk of making or losing money.

      I wonder if you think that artists are entitled to compensation just because they recorded a song. No one is really entitled to anything except the property which he already owns (i.e. he has the title).

      --
      "Those who consume the bulk of goods are those who make them. We must never forget this secret of our prosperity."
    55. Re:Good luck by exomondo · · Score: 1

      Huh? That's completely the opposite of reality. The people who produce them spend their own money in advance, hoping to recoup the costs. They are EXACTLY out-of-pocket. Whether they are ultimately reimbursed by sales and to what extent is not guaranteed.

      The ONLY way a product's costs are NOT paid for by the end consumer is if the product fails. At the end of the line - when the consumer has the product - it is the consumers who have covered the costs of the product. If this hasn't happened then the product - and likely the company (unless it's big enough to absorb the costs) - has failed.

      What planet are you living on? The only way those costs would be paid for by the people who want the product would be through a system of patronage, paying the artist to produce a particular work.

      The artist's costs are paid for by the investor (in the case of music it is usually the record label) and the investor's costs are paid for by the end consumer, that's how the system works. So - in the successful case - the only people out of pocket financially is the end user. If the costs weren't ultimately covered by the consumer then there would be no point in investing.

      You asked the question:

      why it is that the composer doesn't get paid once on delivery of the new song, the artists once for the recording session, and so on.

      And you've still failed to answer my follow-up question of who you suggest would pay.

    56. Re:Good luck by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      As a photographer, I rely on copyrights for my revenue and to protect my work from abuse. I own my business and what I create is mine. In an ideal world, I'd sell my work for $10,000 for unlimited use and just be done with it, especially since everything is digital these days where I can make reproductions/ copies with a click of the mouse. I have about $80,000 in equipment, not counting the costs of marketing and subcontractors I hire - assistants/ producers/ makeup artist/ stylist (when the clients won't expense them).

      But the client will usually balk and show me the door if I ever told them the "real" price. So I (and every professional photographer) negotiate a licensing fee. We agree on a base setup fee, and a 1-year use fee. Most of the times they will never use it again. The fee? $1,000 for one year. Then they don't use it the second year. Or the third.

      Suddenly, the past client wants to build a calendar and wants to use that 10-year old photo they used. Because it was so long ago, and the style is probably dated and have limited visibility, I'll probably charge $200 now. It sure beats them having to hiring someone and wasting time and money for a whole new shoot that may cost at least $1,000.

      Your example #1, the purchaser may own the building, but the architect owns the design. This means that no one can create an exact replica of the building and claim as "their" design.

      Example #2 has to do with public funds. Unless it's a private road, the owner may choose to install a toll booth and charge you to use it.

      Example #3 is up to the painters. I'm sure a house painter could copyright their style if they wanted to (unlike fashion designers), but most people would scoff at them and hire a day laborer for under $100. Photographers and other creative services may seem like a commodity, but the talented ones get to call the shots mainly because no one else can do what they can do - certainly not at $100.

      The headline for this story is misleading and sensationalist (typical /. editors). The issue is that Omega watches sell their product worldwide, and I"m guessing to their upper-middle class demographic. Now, an "upper-middle class" person living in New York City is probably very different than the "upper-middle class" living in Alabama. The former probably lives in a $800,000 tiny condo, whereas the latter lives in a $250,000 2-story house with a small stable in the back. Now imagine the "upper-middle class" in Peru. Or Nigeria. It would be foolish to sell a watch at a fixed $500USD value everywhere in the world. In Europe, that's not too bad. In China, that's prohibitive to most people outside of Shanghai or Hong Kong. Omega sells to the affluent, not the super-rich. They want to maintain that lifestyle, and some people live that lifestyle at a lower exchange rate.

      What Costco is doing is buying the Omega watches in bulk at a cheaper price point (Peru?) and "importing" it back to America and selling it at a much lower price. Not only does this make the watch incredibly cheap, but it also devalues the brand (now a NASCAR fatass is wearing an Omega watch too). Same thing happened to Louis Vouitton - every time I see it I think it's a knock off, especially when I walk in the ghetto areas of Atlanta and see hoochie mammas.

      Anyways, what Costco is doing is smart, but it's hurting Omega's image they have been cultivating for decades. This is not a clear black and white case as most people in /. makes it seem. I dare you or anyone in here to read the justice's report. For God's sake, it was a 4-4 tie. It's that complex of an issue. I would like to fancy myself as a reasonable and intelligent person, but I know I cannot even approach the level of analytical reasoning these justices posess.

    57. Re:Good luck by ubermiester · · Score: 1

      It runs counter to natural economic laws (supply and demand) by generating scarcity through legislation.

      So you're against trademarks and patents as well? What about contracts? Contracts are an artificial means of controlling what would otherwise degrade into a "state of nature" where people do what they want to get what they want.

      Patents and copyright were not invented by Disney or the RIAA. The concept was developed by the Brits and written into the US constitution to encourage professional innovation. If you produce something valuable to a society, you are entitled to a limited period of time when you can control the distribution of that product. It has served us well for more than 200 years.

      You are right that the advent of digital distribution has made the enforcement of these rules more difficult. But that does not invalidate them, and in the age of information they are more important than ever. If we are all going to make our living (in the US) from the creation and manipulation of information in one form or another, such protections are essential for the development of a robust and stable economy. And the notion that because its possible to steal things from one another thanks to technology that we should just abandon all property rights is, well...absurd.

      you're wrong when you say that no modern company can exist without assets that are protected by IP laws. I know that because I own one.

      I was referring to companies of a particular size, but even small companies must do their best to protect their IP. Does your company have a brand? Trademark. Does it produce a product? Licencing, patents, copyright. What does your company do exactly that it does not need any of these things? Are you working for the CIA or something? Or maybe you're business is too small - at the moment - for any of your IP assets to be at risk for infringement. Either way, my point is that no business that does let's say $5 million/yr in receipts can avoid IP issues.

      And for the record, I work for a fortune 500 biz with a very well known brand name that produces software and media products. I'm also a recording musician.

    58. Re:Good luck by gottabeme · · Score: 1

      I think you're using the wrong terminology. "Out of pocket" refers to the spending of one's own money. The party that is "out of pocket" for production, recording, promotion, etc. is not the consumer. The consumer is paying for the end result, the final product. The consumer is "out of pocket" for the CD, the MP3 download, etc, not the production costs.

      By saying that the consumers are "out of pocket" for production, you're saying that the consumers paid directly for the production costs, which would be like patronage (which would cut out the middleman--not a bad idea, but not common).

      And, no, I didn't ask that question you quoted--that was someone else. I don't even understand your follow-up question, because it's so vague. But as far as I'm concerned, the people who "would pay" for production would be those who want to produce it. It's called raising capital, and it's the same as raising funds to start a business, expand into a new market, etc. If one wants to take such a risk, they are free to do so, but they are not guaranteed nor entitled to compensation--that's why it's called a risk.

      --
      "Those who consume the bulk of goods are those who make them. We must never forget this secret of our prosperity."
    59. Re:Good luck by exomondo · · Score: 1

      I think you're using the wrong terminology. "Out of pocket" refers to the spending of one's own money. The party that is "out of pocket" for production, recording, promotion, etc. is not the consumer.

      Being 'out of pocket' refers to having expended financial resources - that have not been reimbursed - at the end of an enterprise. You are using the term in reference to the middle of an enterprise, where the costs have been incurred but not recovered yet, obviously that means either you failed or you haven't begun recouping costs yet.

      By saying that the consumers are "out of pocket" for production, you're saying that the consumers paid directly for the production costs, which would be like patronage (which would cut out the middleman--not a bad idea, but not common).

      Whether it's directly or indirectly makes no difference. In terms of the consumer you're right they aren't 'out of pocket', because it doesn't just refer to 'spending money' (since they are reimbursed with goods - be those real or digital) and instead just 'financially down'. But regardless of that those funds indirectly paid for the costs of the product, thats how enterprises work. The artist should not be out of pocket and nor should the investor.

    60. Re:Good luck by cpt+kangarooski · · Score: 1

      However the tangible asset itself has not necessarily been purchased.

      I don't think that most of us are interested in buying the master. Copyright deals with the intangible; were works (as opposed to copies those works are fixed within) tangible, we never would have needed copyright to begin with. Ordinary personal property law would've worked fine.

      the composing artist should be compensated. Just because it's old is no excuse for it to become free property. Paul and Ringo are still kickin it.

      Sorry, I don't follow. Why should they be compensated? Why should it matter whether they're alive (setting aside the old question of Paul)? Surely copyright law should do whatever is best for the public at large. If this happens to involve compensating artists, then fine, but if not, then also fine. And the time period should likewise be whatever is best for the public. This might be the life of the artist, but could just as easily be a fixed term of years. In any event, it's apt to be quite short, as most copyrights are economically worthless, and of the few that have worth, the vast majority see all of it realized within a timespam of minutes to a couple of years. The law should deal with what's realistic, and what is common for most works and most authors. It should not be structured around the idea that everyone is a superstar and everything is a hit. That would be as crazy as ultra-high taxes on the principle that everyone will win tens of millions of dollars in the lottery, and could easily afford it.

      By your logic just because the grain is old you should be allowed access to it without compensation to the person who originally produced it.

      So long as the quantity of grain in the silo is not reduced, sure, why not?

      Imagine that someone invented a Star Trek style replicator tomorrow. Anything you put into it, it can scan the pattern of, and make more of them. Naturally the first thing that would be made would be replicators for every man, woman, and child. But once everyone has a replicator... what happens to a lot of industries? We no longer need to farm huge quantities of land to feed everyone. Now a fisherman only needs to catch one fish, in order to have an effectively infinite amount of fish for the rest of his life. The issue of hunger would be solved, so long as people didn't restrict the use of replicators.

      But it would also be impossible to make a living as a farmer, or fisherman, or rancher. (Though at least we know they wouldn't starve) Likewise, chefs would have a hard time of things. There may be some monotony in diets; without much commercial incentive, who will invent the next Caesar Salad or Bananas Foster or Boneless Chicken? There would be some hobbyists, who like to tinker, and amateurs, but probably a lot fewer chefs or farmers. Restaurants might continue to exist, but more as spaces to socialize, since you can bring your favorite recipe on a disk and have it zapped into existence for you.

      Is it better to let people starve if it props up the industry that fails to meet their needs? Or should we take care of everyone, even if that means that some people have to completely rethink what they do for a living?

      I'd say that we should do the latter.

      Obviously we aren't there yet, but we have a similar situation with creative works, which can be replicated trivially, though creating new ones takes some extra effort. Right now we have a bunch of restrictions to prop up the industry, but it isn't actually necessary that we do this. We could stop doing it tomorrow, and see what happens. God basically created the universe in such a way that these things can be replicated, and I wonder if we're mishandling it. It doesn't matter that food is more immediately vital for survival than art. In an ideal world, we'd all get to enjoy all the creative works we liked, however we liked, and if our world isn't ideal, surely we have some obligation to improve it.

      helping yourself to someone's work without compensating them in any way is just

      --
      -- This and all my posts are in the public domain. I am a lawyer. I am not your lawyer, and this is not legal advice.
    61. Re:Good luck by cpt+kangarooski · · Score: 1

      Tell you what, you tell me about a digital good that has natural scarcity and I'll happily entertain this new concept. Until then, it's time to wake up and realize that digital goods are just not as valuable as you think they are.

      Fingers and toes. And I value mine pretty highly. ;)

      --
      -- This and all my posts are in the public domain. I am a lawyer. I am not your lawyer, and this is not legal advice.
    62. Re:Good luck by cpt+kangarooski · · Score: 1

      If copyright can only protect your work from free copies for a year, many of your potential customers will wait until they can get a free or cheap copy and your financial incentive is limited to match what you can reasonably hope to sell in the first year.

      Well, we'd be good on newspapers and most other periodicals. Novels might have to accelerate their timeline for hardcovers and paperbacks, or switch to a single trade format, but could probably do okay. TV shows would likely be fine, though they would feel the loss of second run syndication money, so budgets could go down (not that big budgets are entirely necessary merely for good TV). Movies would have a difficult time, and would have to vastly speed up their timeline from box office to home video and rental to PPV, premium cable, basic cable, and broadcast. But it's been running pretty fast now (some movies are on DVD within only a couple of months of their theatrical release) and while again this could drive revenues down, I think we'd still have a movie industry. Software could be tough; while it doesn't need a very long term, it may need more than just a year.

      Overall though, I'd be willing to try it. And I'd point out that right now, many potential customers _could_ wait until they can get a cheaper copy (get the paperback instead of the hardcover, get the rental movie instead of going to the theater), but that this not only hasn't destroyed the publishing industries yet, it has generally helped them. Movies make more from home video and rental than box office now, for example. Their marketing departments are very good at getting people to buy the new thing now, rather than wait. Or better yet, buy it now and buy it again later.

      In the other direction, if copyright of your work extends to three generations, and you have the opportunity and talent, you can invest twenty years of your life in the holodeck project with the incentive of being able to provide financially not only for your self, but also for your grandchildren. Your incentive is tremendously increased to work on the more valuable project.

      People say this, but in practice, it seems not to work.

      The reason is probably this: most creative works have no copyright related value at all. Of the small number that do, most realize that value very very quickly. TV news realizes it within minutes, while newspapers get a good fraction of the day. But no one buys yesterday's newspaper or watches the 6 o'clock news from last week. Books can usually manage somewhere between 18-24 months. Movies can probably squeeze out 3-5 years; maybe more from various movies of the week and such. But generally, the vast majority of the copyright-related money that is ever going to be derived from a work will be derived quite soon after it is published in a given medium.

      Some works defy these odds, and have extremely long-lasting value, and are often quite valuable even at the beginning.

      But the chances of producing that kind of work are roughly like those of winning the lottery. It happens, but it probably won't happen to you.

      If a person spent every penny they earned over a span of twenty years buying lottery tickets, hoping that by winning the jackpot, they would be able to provide financially for themselves and their family for generations to come, we would call that person a moron, and we would probably hope that their family walked out on them.

      Still, that's basically what you're suggesting.

      I don't mind holding out some sort of carrot for authors, and I don't mind if most authors never recoup their expenses, and I don't even mind that most artists never make it big -- or even moderately -- at all. But our policy should nevertheless be geared around what usually happens (works are flops or at best moderate, short-term successes), and produce results that are the best for the general public. If some people can manage to become zillionaires based on that, then good for them, but making people rich is not the point.

      --
      -- This and all my posts are in the public domain. I am a lawyer. I am not your lawyer, and this is not legal advice.
    63. Re:Good luck by cpt+kangarooski · · Score: 1

      Yeah, good luck with that. Authors, songwriters, and other artists in the current system generally either end up being very rich or penniless.

      There's probably few enough of them that become very rich that we can discount them as a statistical aberration.

      --
      -- This and all my posts are in the public domain. I am a lawyer. I am not your lawyer, and this is not legal advice.
    64. Re:Good luck by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      But then you're RENTING the house to someone. YOU OWN IT. YOU pay taxes on it because YOU OWN IT. YOU are entitled to say what happens to the house.

      If I SELL the house to someone, THEY OWN IT. THEY pay the taxes on it because THEY OWN IT. THEY are entitled to say what happens to the house.

      Under this new ruling :

      If you RENT a house to someone YOU OWN IT. YOU pay taxes on it because YOU OWN IT. YOU are entitled to say what happens to the house.

      If you SELL a house to someone THEY OWN IT. THEY pay taxes on it because THEY OWN IT. But YOU are still entitled to say what happens to the house.

      Its the best of both worlds for the companies. Either I own the house lock-stock-and-barrel or you own the house but I still get to bend you over the barrel and fuck you for free.

    65. Re:Good luck by phishfood · · Score: 1

      You are a bit off about renting and landlords. You aren't renting a PS3, XBOX, etc. you are buying it - The hardware, software on it at the time of purchase and controllers. When there is a problem with it, you can't go back to the parent company and ask them to fix your broken part. However, if something breaks in the house you are renting, its up to your landlord to replace it and provide a decent (depending on your local code) safe living environment. Its a bit similar to hiring an Architectural Design/Build firm to design and build you a house, which you paid for and live in, but when you want to paint the walls a new color, the design/build firm has the final say. Moreover, the design/build firm can come into your house and change the layout, equiptment, couches, paint colors, for better or worse, because its 'for your own good' as they know best because they are the design professionals and you are not.

    66. Re:Good luck by gottabeme · · Score: 1

      "The artist should not be out of pocket and nor should the investor."

      What do you mean by "should"?

      If you mean that they're entitled to compensation just because they made something, or that they're entitled to recoup all their costs just because they decided to risk an investment, you're totally wrong. (I take "entitled" to mean that others are obligated to provide something to them.)

      If you mean that, if they make a wise investment and manage it well, it ought to succeed to the point where they can recoup their costs, ok, but that depends on how well they manage it, how well they research the market ahead of time, and whether people decide to buy their product--which can be affected by external events and is never guaranteed.

      I think you need to communicate more clearly what you really mean.

      --
      "Those who consume the bulk of goods are those who make them. We must never forget this secret of our prosperity."
    67. Re:Good luck by martyros · · Score: 1

      You can get income for the rest of your life, for doing nothing!

      I don't think maintaining a building and dealing with tenants (even good ones, but especially problematic ones) can be considered "nothing"...

      --

      TCP: Why the Internet is full of SYN.

    68. Re:Good luck by ancientt · · Score: 1

      ...we would call that person a moron, and we would probably hope that their family walked out on them.
      Still, that's basically what you're suggesting.

      First please note, I'm not suggesting that. I'm contrasting the incentives of a dramatically shortened term to a very long one.

      For the hypothetical, I would agree that lottery tickets would make a horrible investment. If you have the talent though, being the creator of the software to create a holodeck might be a good one. If you can show you have the talent for it, you can probably find investors. (I would really, really like a holodeck.)

      --
      B) Eliminate all the stupid users. This is frowned upon by society.
    69. Re:Good luck by betterunixthanunix · · Score: 1

      There is a serious ethical problem with purposefully violating the law.

      Yes, because parking your car in the wrong place is an ethical problem. Since when has the law been the definition of what is or is not ethical?

      --
      Palm trees and 8
    70. Re:Good luck by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      We already have that. It's called income tax.

    71. Re:Good luck by zildgulf · · Score: 1

      >Should the people who built a highway get money from every user for the rest of their lives?

      In fact they do on toll roads.

      Have many times have you seen a toll road become a freeway?

      I can count it on one hand.

    72. Re:Good luck by AmberBlackCat · · Score: 1

      Really? What about house builders, infrastructure?

      Should the people who built a highway get money from every user for the rest of their lives?

      Should the painter who did the exterior of my house get a say on allowing me to repaint it in a different color?

      Better yet, if they put their logo on the house then are you no longer allowed to sell it?

    73. Re:Good luck by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You can!

      Here's what you do - build a house on your own dime, then rent it to people. You can get income for the rest of your life, for doing nothing!

      You think renting a house out is "doing nothing"? I don't think you've ever owned a rental then.

      Renting out housing might be worthwhile and profitable work, but it's still work.

    74. Re:Good luck by sumdumass · · Score: 0

      Well, parking your car in a handicapped spot when your not entitled to, is a serious ethics problem. But hey, while I'm concentrating on federal laws and you are bringing up examples of city ordinances, we all know that we are talking about the same things and it's all transferable right? At least the handicapped parking spot violation is generally a state law forced by a federal mandate.

      If the rest of your reasoning is remotely the same, attempting to show the absurdity of something on a federal level by pointing to city ordinances instead of laws with comparable authority, then I understand why these people ask you not to talk to them ever again. And BTW, it's not because you have some brilliant idea that forces them to surrender something they hold dear.

    75. Re:Good luck by betterunixthanunix · · Score: 1

      First of all, you were not specific about which laws you were referring to. Second of all, there certainly are examples of federal laws which can be willfully violated with no ethical issue; take marijuana law as an example. Would you claim that there is an ethical problem with a cancer patient who uses medical marijuana?

      I will ask you again: When did the law become the definition of ethical behavior?

      --
      Palm trees and 8
    76. Re:Good luck by PoolOfThought · · Score: 1

      What about tech books? I wouldn't call that art, and I'm confident many are not written out of a love for writing language specifications and / or writing tutorials. I can choose to write a book about use of genetic algorithms in logistics management and put in years to perfect the work. Imagine the effort that would take without necessarily doing it for love. I know it's valuable conceptually and I want to get paid for it once everyone else figures it out. That's not likely to happen if the someone comes along once I'm done and starts distributing copies of it for free, or worse, distributes it under their name.

      --
      My present is the activity I am currently engaged in with the purpose of turning the future into a better past.
    77. Re:Good luck by exomondo · · Score: 1

      What do you mean by "should"?

      Well obviously i mean in the context of successfully exploiting the capitalist economy. Just because you made something doesn't entitle you to compensation, but if you made something people actually want then you can expect to make a profit and have your costs paid - indirectly (if that helps you) - by the people who want your product.

    78. Re:Good luck by Duradin · · Score: 1

      Considering that many here demand to get noise they barely consider music (and don't even like it) for free the person that copied your work and gave it away for free would be lauded as a hero of the people.

    79. Re:Good luck by sumdumass · · Score: 0

      First of all, you were not specific about which laws you were referring to.

      Well, sure, that's because I didn't think it was important to distinguish between a federal law that we were talking about and a city ordinance which we weren't talking about. But hey, thanks for letting me know I have to do this in the future.

      Second of all, there certainly are examples of federal laws which can be willfully violated with no ethical issue; take marijuana law as an example.

      Like I said before, you can make good arguments why the law is a bad idea, but you can't make arguments on how it's ethical to violate them.

      Would you claim that there is an ethical problem with a cancer patient who uses medical marijuana?

      Umm.. Yes I would. Using Marijuana and a drug for treatment in medical cases is no different then someone claiming tea tree oil will cure or help with cancer treatments. there simply isn't any medical testing that meets FDA approval standards indicating the truth of that.

      I will ask you again: When did the law become the definition of ethical behavior?

      The law didn't ever become the definition of ethical behavior. but violating the law without justifying how the law made something worse so it was necessary is an ethical problem.

      show me where any ethics course or theory claims that violating the law for the sake of doing it is ethical.

    80. Re:Good luck by PoolOfThought · · Score: 1

      Most entrepreneurs do not get paid. Musicians, artists, authors are just more instances of the class of people who get no base salary for trying to make a living doing something they love to do (or believe themselves to be exceptionally good at).

      These guys work and don't get paid - and they do so more than they work while getting paid. Some of them get really "lucky" eventually. They actually get paid for their work. They do so by royalties (for artists) that eliminate the risk for those that promote / publish them or by profits (for entrepreneurs) that prove someone found their service valuable.

      --
      My present is the activity I am currently engaged in with the purpose of turning the future into a better past.
    81. Re:Good luck by PoolOfThought · · Score: 1

      Wow. You've now taken claim of "the people"!

      I suppose that whether that matters or not would depends on who "the people" are that have claimed this IP theif and cheat as their hero. There have been and always will be plenty of "the people" that I have no interest in being a heroic person to. Nazis (don't want to be their hero), almost any extremist of any kind (don't want to be their hero), liars, hypocrites, thieves, etc. I'm guessing there are plenty of groups of "the people" that you would also not care to be their hero. And if I was the hero of any of those groups or some other group - it wouldn't necessarily make me right. Not being the hero also doesn't necessarily make me wrong.

      You be a hero to your people - I'll keep doing and defending what I think is right and fair.

      --
      My present is the activity I am currently engaged in with the purpose of turning the future into a better past.
    82. Re:Good luck by Son+of+Byrne · · Score: 1

      Little old, but better late than never...

      Patents and contracts are different subjects entirely because they relate to actual scarce products or services.

      I'd like to tell you how to make your non-scarce products scarce (naturally), but after some serious thought, I realized that it just isn't possible. I used to (and still do to some degree) write software for a living and I just can't give you a way to make 1s and 0s naturally scarce. I can definitely tell you that your talent is scarce, just not your digital creations. I do think you deserve to be compensated for the work you do, but not at the end of a gun. Leave out all your notions of what you think the argument is about and answer this question: how can you honestly expect me to value your digital good higher than it is actually worth? It is just not viable. And, this system has indeed been around for 200 years, remind me why that makes it a good or viable system?

      Regarding your notion of property rights and stealing and all that other tired language, I will simply say, forget about all that crap and tell me how your product or service is naturally scarce. If you can't, then its time for some serious reconsideration.

      --
      I'd happily pay you Tuesday for a biopsy today!
  23. Omega Watches For Sale !!! Buy Now by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    while supplies last !

    Yours In St. Petersburg,
    Kilgore Trout, C.E.O.

  24. Switzerland... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    The US' legal lap-dog.

  25. From the article linked to by the article... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    "Such an even split among the Justices has the effect of upholding the lower court decision at issue, without setting a nationwide precedent."

    What would that be? RTFAA? :(

  26. What does this mean? by klui · · Score: 1

    So the Dell notebook that's made in China cannot be resold? The article says this indecision would trigger more companies to move manufacturing overseas--way to go if they do that. I guess most corn-based products are safe but they're one-use.

    What does a tie like this imply? The Supreme Court will hear a similar case again or they will ignore it?

    1. Re:What does this mean? by kdekorte · · Score: 1

      What I think that this means is that Costco can't go to a distributor in Vietnam, Cambodia, etc. where Omega watches are sold much cheaper than in the US, buy them, import them and then sell them at the store in the US.

      Basically Costco is using the grey market to sell products cheaper. Omega wanted to block that, and to have Costco use an authorized Omega importer, that charges a whole lot more for the same item, because it is coming to the US.

      This happens with drugs and other products all the time. The suggested retail price in the US is much higher than for the same item in a less affluent country. Omega wants to ensure that people in affluent countries pay more for items because they can.

    2. Re:What does this mean? by TheL0ser · · Score: 1

      "Other products" - Especially college textbooks. Half of the people I knew would grab the international editions online just because they were a fraction of the price.

    3. Re:What does this mean? by TFAFalcon · · Score: 4, Insightful

      Why are only corporations allowed to take advantage of the 'global economy' (outsourcing), but customers should be prevented from purchasing goods where they are cheapest?

    4. Re:What does this mean? by gstoddart · · Score: 2

      What I think that this means is that Costco can't go to a distributor in Vietnam, Cambodia, etc. where Omega watches are sold much cheaper than in the US, buy them, import them and then sell them at the store in the US.

      Effectively supporting collusion and price fixing so that people can sell their products at an inflated rate in the US and other Western countries while selling them for what they really cost elsewhere.

      Brilliant!! Let the gouging begin!

      --
      Lost at C:>. Found at C.
    5. Re:What does this mean? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Because they are better than you.

    6. Re:What does this mean? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Strictly speaking, customers (end-users) aren't prevented from doing so. You are still perfectly free to travel to a different country and purchase Omega watches at a lower price. Heck, the cost for a plane ticket to wherever Costco was buying them might be less than the price difference between there and the US.

      What this ruling is saying is that the customer can't have an intermediary company do the work for them. Not a big distinction, I know. Wonder how the court would rule if it were strictly a buyer's coop doing the work (i.e. one specifically authorized agent of a group of buyers goes and obtains the watches on the behalf of the group).

    7. Re:What does this mean? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Because they bought the lawmakers first?

    8. Re:What does this mean? by TheoMurpse · · Score: 1

      Why are only corporations allowed to take advantage of the 'global economy'

      Isn't the case in question specifically one that went against a corporation (CostCo)?

    9. Re:What does this mean? by jc42 · · Score: 1

      We might note also that there's a similar labor dichotomy: Corporations can move their labor-intensive work to anywhere that labor is cheap, but humans laborers are forbidden to similarly cross borders when it's to their advantage to do so. This is especially blatant now in the US, where there is strong anti-immigrant political activity, but corporations are free to move their production across borders whenever they like. But it seems that governments nearly everywhere support this difference, locking labor into little boxes where you're a citizen, while allowing corporations to be "international" citizens that can roam the world freely and "work" anywhere.

      --
      Those who do study history are doomed to stand helplessly by while everyone else repeats it.
    10. Re:What does this mean? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It's simple, they have the money. If you called up Omega and said, "Hey, I want to sell one of your watches to a friend. Here's $10,000 for licensing or whatever you call it." They'd probably oblige you.

      Money has always driven government, it's just that some (a few?) leaders in the past had a little (a tiny?) bit more scruples and the public interest at heart. The idea of the noblesse oblige died a rather slow death, but I'd say it's gone now and we're left with just the rich and the powerful with no feeling of responsibility for the power they command or toward the people who gave it to them.

    11. Re:What does this mean? by TFAFalcon · · Score: 1

      But still, why? Why legally enforce separate markets for goods?

      If the producer can buy raw materials in country A, build the product in countries B,C and D, while claiming patent protection in country E, while suing competitors in a dozen other countries, why should customers (either end users or other corporations) be limited to what is sold in their neighborhood?

  27. Bad Summary by pavon · · Score: 5, Informative

    The summary is written is misleading. The distinction made by the Ninth Circuit depends both on where an item was made as well as where it was sold. If you legally purchase a foreign made product in the US (ie from an authorized reseller like Walmart), then the right of first sale still applies. However, you can't buy foreign products in a foreign country and then resell them in the US without permission.

    I still think it's a bad decision but the summary makes it out to be even worse.

    1. Re:Bad Summary by jfengel · · Score: 1

      So... a retailer purchasing a product from a (foreign) distributor/manufacturer is treated differently from an individual buying from a retailer?

      From the point of view of a scientist/coder it seems like an arbitrary distinction, but businesses make a lot of such arbitrary distinctions (which then require other arbitrary distinctions). So I'd need to digest it a bit before deciding if it's a bad idea, or where this is the "original" bad idea or just a consequence of the original arbitrary distinction.

    2. Re:Bad Summary by eldavojohn · · Score: 3, Insightful
      Thank you for the further explanation. I did read the article (the original SCOTUS blog) and it said:

      Under other provisions of copyright law, importing a copy of a protected work amounts to an infringement of the copyright if the copy was made abroad and brought back into the U.S. without permission.

      Emphasis mine. What is "permission?"

      So what I'm asking is whether or not Wal-Mart signs agreements with Vietnamese companies that say they can bring them into the United States and did CostCo, like, drop the ball on that one? Did they smuggle them in their coat over to the US? I assume they passed customs from both countries, what level is this illegal on?

      How on Earth would this deal go down any differently for Timex watches made in China sold in CostCo? Are you telling me that CostCo was making money by purchasing Omega watches at MSRP in Switzerland and then reselling them below MSRP in the United States? I'm not an economist but something sounds really strange in that case. This is what the SCOTUS Blog said:

      The case involved a company, Omega S.A., that makes watches in Switzerland and sells them around the world through authorized distributors and retailers. Costco, a membership warehouse club that sells brand-name merchandise to members at prices lower than its competitors, had bought Omega's Seamaster watch abroad and re-sold it in the U.S. Costco's price was $1,299, about a third less than Omega's suggested retail price of $1,999.

      Does anyone else think this sounds like Omega struck a deal selling thousands of watches to CostCo only to find out that when people saw them for $1300 they perceived a devaluation of the one they bought at the mall for two large? I mean, it sounds like Omega is trying to force CostCo to maintain a minimum profit margin. That's not capitalism. It's becoming more and more clear that copyright and capitalism are mutually exclusive concepts. And I'm guessing that this is some bizarre abuse of copyright that any foreign manufacturer could hold over the largest retailer/reseller's head. Evidently it happens on a smaller basis with Omega.

      --
      My work here is dung.
    3. Re:Bad Summary by pavon · · Score: 1

      So... a retailer purchasing a product from a (foreign) distributor/manufacturer is treated differently from an individual buying from a retailer?

      Yeah, but the difference isn't just between retailers and individuals, it is between authorized distributors and everyone else.

    4. Re:Bad Summary by MoonBuggy · · Score: 1

      I don't think that's quite the issue, since this appears designed to be enforced against businesses more than individuals. This case was actually brought against Costco, and it's designed to let manufacturers (Omega, in this case) enforce arbitrary price distinctions between territories.

      Basically, before this, if Omega sold Costco a bunch of watches for $700/each (hypothetical figure) and said that they can only resell in the US for $1000+, the first sale doctrine says that Costco owns the watches and can do what they damn well please with them (although nobody's forcing Omega to continue supplying them, if Costco keep ignoring their terms, of course). That's what 'first sale' means - Omega controls only the first transaction (from them to the Chinese distributor, or to Costco, or whatever) and they can't leverage their copyright on the tiny little logo on the watch face to limit any subsequent distribution. Omega might want watches to only sell for $1000+ in the US, but if Costco can buy them in China at $300 then they can undercut Omega's US pricing and still make a good profit. Omega would, of course, stop selling direct to Costco, but Costco can then still buy at a big discount from Chinese resellers and undercut the American market.

      This ruling says that first sale only applies to sales made in America. If Costco buys Omega watches from a Chinese distributor, Omega still retains control over them through all subsequent transactions, via a bizarre stretch of copyright law that 'first sale' was specifically intended to combat. This is an absolutely, unequivocally bad ruling.

    5. Re:Bad Summary by pavon · · Score: 1

      So what I'm asking is whether or not Wal-Mart signs agreements with Vietnamese companies that say they can bring them into the United States and did CostCo, like, drop the ball on that one?

      Yes, normally authorized distributors do have a contract with the company who they are importing from that authorizes them to import those goods into another country. Retailers will either buy from an authorized distributor, or will buy directly from the company, again with a contract allowing them to resell in the US. CostCo bought them from an unauthorized distributor.

      Are you telling me that CostCo was making money by purchasing Omega watches at MSRP in Switzerland and then reselling them below MSRP in the United States? I'm not an economist but something sounds really strange in that case.

      That is close to what happened, but they didn't them in for MSRP in Switzerland; they bought them at wholesale prices in poorer countries, where they were being sold for less money. It is extremely common for companies to sell products for different prices in different countries, and is one of the main reasons that we have crap like country codes on DVDs and video consoles. By doing this CostCo was undercutting all the US retailers that were buying Omega watches through authorized channels, which would naturally piss them off.

    6. Re:Bad Summary by infalliable · · Score: 4, Informative

      Basically, the decision said that a company can enforce regional pricing and distribution structures through a (broad) interpretation of copyright laws.

      Omega has various pricing depending on region. Overseas they were cheap and expensive in the US. CostCo bought them from a low priced region overseas and imported them to the USA. The ruling was they couldnt do that as it violated the copyright, despite the fact they were legally purchased overseas.

    7. Re:Bad Summary by mdielmann · · Score: 1

      Looks like I have another company to add to my long list of people who tick me off with copyrights. Technically this could apply to any item you buy while outside of the US that happens to have a logo on it. People who say I can't sell my stuff because they put their logo on it tick me off.

      Mind you, I don't generally buy logo'd items anyway. I don't feel a need to be validated by others based on the brands I purchase, and I can't think of any other reason to have it displayed (except as me advertising for the company, after paying them a premium for the opportunity).

      --
      Sure I'm paranoid, but am I paranoid enough?
    8. Re:Bad Summary by CGordy · · Score: 1

      How on Earth would this deal go down any differently for Timex watches made in China sold in CostCo? Are you telling me that CostCo was making money by purchasing Omega watches at MSRP in Switzerland and then reselling them below MSRP in the United States? I'm not an economist but something sounds really strange in that case. This is what the SCOTUS Blog said:

      That's perfectly normal in Australia. For specialty items (such as watches or cameras), US MSRP is often less than half of the Australian price (in US dollars). As we're talking high markup, low manufacturing cost (relative to purchase price) goods, it's to be expected that the manufacturers will try to optimise pricing for each local market to maximise profit.

    9. Re:Bad Summary by jfengel · · Score: 1

      Thing is, being a tie, the ruling has no precedential value (as I understand it; IANAL). It applies only to this case, and it's hard to generalize from here to "copyright" or "first sale".

      And while the copyright argument is frankly bizarre, it may not actually necessarily be unfair. Omega sold the watches to the Chinese distributor with the intent that they be sold cheaper overseas, since presumably they maximize profits there by selling 1,000 watches at $300 than 200 watches at $1,000. And presumably they made the Chinese distributor promise to sell them only to consumers, but being in China, they can't enforce that.

      I see Costco as making a dick move by circumventing that, and probably illegal, just not in a place Omega could do anything about it.

      Which means one could say that the Court decided fairly: Costco is punished, and "first sale" isn't really affected because of the way the case was decided. Two legal technicalities cancel each other out in a way that's not really unjust.

      Of course the Circuit Court's opinion will be cited in other cases to make decisions that ARE unjust, until the Supreme Court decides to clarify permanently. And ultimately Omega is on the same losing side that the RIAA and MPAA are: information wants to be free, and freight is cheap enough that even information as manifested in manufactured objects like watches is not all that much more expensive than "free".

      There will sooner or later be a clearer case where somebody is buying books printed overseas and selling them at a cut rate. Somebody will use first-sale on that, too. But the differences are smaller for books than for luxury items, where there's more room to charge premiums in rich countries than poor ones. Omega might eventually be forced to abandon the idea of trying to maximize profits with differential pricing.

    10. Re:Bad Summary by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Are you telling me that CostCo was making money by purchasing Omega watches at MSRP in Switzerland and then reselling them below MSRP in the United States? I'm not an economist but something sounds really strange in that case.

      It's the same way Milo Minderbender makes a profit buying eggs in Malta for seven cents a piece and then selling them to the mess hall for five cents a piece.

    11. Re:Bad Summary by gstoddart · · Score: 2

      However, you can't buy foreign products in a foreign country and then resell them in the US without permission.

      I hope to hell they clarify this and limit its scope to importing large quantities and doing this for purposes of commerce. Because, this would mean that you can't sell anything you own without "permission" of the copyright owner.

      I mean, if I personally bought an Omega watch (*drool*), I hope to hell I still retain right of first sale and could sell it if I so chose.

      Essentially if this applies to individuals, it means you don't actually own anything. The whole point of Right of First Sale is it is your property. You can use it, loan it, sell it, or destroy it at will.

      I'm not even sure of how copyright applies here -- no copy is being made, and the manufacturer isn't being deprived of either rights or revenue.

      I understand what this is trying to limit, but I'm afraid it will have further reaching implications.

      --
      Lost at C:>. Found at C.
    12. Re:Bad Summary by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Are you telling me that CostCo was making money by purchasing Omega watches at MSRP in Switzerland and then reselling them below MSRP in the United States?

      Yes. It's called arbitrage, and it's actually quite a fairly common way that investors make money. (Somewhat ironically, the Swiss tend to be very good at it.)

      The thing is, you can't sell a Swiss watch in Switzerland for the same amount as you would get in the US. As would be expected, the Swiss have Swiss watches coming out their ears. Americans think Swiss watches are something special. The Swiss think they're normal. Moreover, they also have the really good ones that don't get exported. All this drives down the price of regular Swiss watches in Switzerland. Additionally, manufacturers tend to inflate the price of goods in "foreign" markets (for Omega, Switzerland is domestic, and the US is foreign) to account for shipping costs and additional regulatory issues.

      Moreover, the MSRP of a watch in the US is in US$, whereas in Switzerland it is in CHF (Swiss Francs). While Omega might have originally made the MSRP be 1:1 based on the exchange rate at the time, exchange rates have a habit of moving around. So if the CHF dips against the dollar, and Omega doesn't change the MSRPs, then you can take your dollars, change them into CHF at a good rate, buy from Switzerland at MSRP (in CHF), sell in the US at or below MSRP (in US$), and come out with more dollars than you had to start with. Enough, even, to make up the shipping and currency conversion fees if the exchange rate/MSRP disparity is great enough.

      Arbitrage tends to be a short term thing, as the Efficient Market Hypothesis states that as people exploit price disparities, they'll cause them to be closed up. - Usually this is through economic means (e.g. raising the Swiss price of the watches due to increased demand), rather than regulatory means. Economist are likely shaking their head in dismay at this ruling. Arbitrage is usually seen as a good thing, as the net effect of it is to drive prices to their "true" costs (which is good for the market as a whole).

    13. Re:Bad Summary by david_thornley · · Score: 2

      As long as businesses are allowed to outsource to cheaper countries, not allowing us to buy at prices in cheaper countries is a "dick move".

      --
      "When you have eliminated the unacceptable, whatever is left, however improbable, must be the truthiness" - Holmes
    14. Re:Bad Summary by rjstanford · · Score: 2

      So... a retailer purchasing a product from a (foreign) distributor/manufacturer is treated differently from an individual buying from a retailer?

      Yeah, but the difference isn't just between retailers and individuals, it is between authorized distributors and everyone else.

      But an "authorized distributor" isn't a legal concept, outside of making sure that there weren't any contract violations between two private entities. Now I have to figure out whether or not a retailer is on a list maintained by a distributor (with no legal agreement that the list be made public, since its just a private contract summary) to know whether or not I have ownership of an item I purchase from said retailer?

      That's just crazy.

      Its fine if the distributor doesn't want to honor a warranty - that's a case of the distributor saying, "Hey, if you buy this from someone on this list, we'll give you a free 2 year warranty, but if not, we won't." Perfectly legal contract with terms between two private parties, and I don't have to take the deal if I don't want to (I can just choose not to return it to the distributor if it breaks). Very different than restricting my rights to sell property. Very, very different.

      --
      You're special forces then? That's great! I just love your olympics!
    15. Re:Bad Summary by langelgjm · · Score: 1

      Essentially if this applies to individuals, it means you don't actually own anything. The whole point of Right of First Sale is it is your property. You can use it, loan it, sell it, or destroy it at will. I'm not even sure of how copyright applies here -- no copy is being made, and the manufacturer isn't being deprived of either rights or revenue.

      This is what most people are missing. The whole reason this case invoked copyright law was because of a copyrighted design on the back of the watch. In theory, the discussion is only about the copyrighted design, not the watch that it just so happens to be on.

      First sale doctrine is about copyright, not about goods in general. If what you're reselling doesn't have a copyrighted work emblazoned on it, then this case isn't relevant.

      Of course, the policy problem here is that now everyone might start slapping copyrighted designs on their products solely to take advantage of this decision. If you could prove that was the reason it was being done, you might have an argument that the design was being used for a functional purpose, which as a big no-no in copyright.

      FYI, copyright applies because copyright grants you more rights than just copying. In US law, it also grants you the exclusive right to import the work. I haven't been following this case closely, but IIRC the big question concerned whether the watches were "lawfully made under this title" (17 USC) and Omega had the sole right to import the design.

      --
      "Anyone who [rips a CD] is probably engaging in copyright infringement." - David O. Carson
    16. Re:Bad Summary by rjstanford · · Score: 1

      And while the copyright argument is frankly bizarre, it may not actually necessarily be unfair. Omega sold the watches to the Chinese distributor with the intent that they be sold cheaper overseas, since presumably they maximize profits there by selling 1,000 watches at $300 than 200 watches at $1,000. And presumably they made the Chinese distributor promise to sell them only to consumers, but being in China, they can't enforce that.

      The entire history of commerce (especially in a capitalist society) revolves around the idea of arbirtrage - buying something where its cheap, possibly doing things to it, moving it somewhere else, and selling it for more money.

      How is that "unfair" exactly?

      --
      You're special forces then? That's great! I just love your olympics!
    17. Re:Bad Summary by rjstanford · · Score: 1

      That's perfectly normal in Australia. For specialty items (such as watches or cameras), US MSRP is often less than half of the Australian price (in US dollars). As we're talking high markup, low manufacturing cost (relative to purchase price) goods, it's to be expected that the manufacturers will try to optimise pricing for each local market to maximise profit.

      It should also be expected that other mercantile traders will capitalize on this disparity, perform arbitrage, and profit (albeit less so) on their work. That's how trading (and ultimately all commerce) works, plain and simple.

      --
      You're special forces then? That's great! I just love your olympics!
    18. Re:Bad Summary by jfengel · · Score: 1

      The history of commerce also revolves around contracts, and having some mechanism of enforcing them. In the wide wide world of international trading, that doesn't always hold.

      There is one kind of fairness in places where contracts are enforced, and another kind where they aren't. Commerce is generally a lot slower in the latter, but it's "fair" in its way.

      Costco is trying to play both sides of that fence. As you say, that's just arbitrage, but in doing so they're taking the kind of fair that happens in contract-less countries and importing it into the ones where contracts are enforceable. It's not just arbitrage, but arbitrage to skirt the rules.

      In other words, it's fair only in the sense that nothing is unfair when there are no rules. That's why I said it was unfair.

    19. Re:Bad Summary by mevets · · Score: 1

      Thanks for the clarification; but I think your version is worse than the one implied in the summary. This effectively makes the grey market illegal; and hands arbitrary price-fixing back into the hands of the manufacturers.

    20. Re:Bad Summary by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      From what I'm reading, it seems this decision is more a strike against extending laws internationally, even if a treaty is in place. iow, despite ownership, copyright rights ends up local to a jurisdiction. If this falls under copyright, how does the various international copyright treaties apply? And is this really a poke against limiting power against those treaties?

      Before, when I buy in Japan via Amazon.co.jp, and DHL delivers it to me, I could resell it, given copyright protection was extended internationally, and I had first sale rights in the US.

      This decision seems to limit those rights as being local to where I buy the product. Seems I can't resell a Japanese imported DVD without permission. By that token, is it still mine when I move it across international lines, and if so, what treaties protects those rights? Because as it stands, it sounds like I may not even have the property rights anymore if it's not explicitly spelled out, since buying a good in Japan doesn't extend the property rights to the US automatically then.

      Very weird decision by SCOTUS.

    21. Re:Bad Summary by MidnightBrewer · · Score: 1

      This decision basically affects gray-market products, i.e. those made for retail in other countries. This is actually good for the consumer insofar that it protects them from buying merchandise that can't be serviced under a warranty. A good example would be electronics goods bought abroad: attempting to get them serviced in your home country may be impossible, as the manufacturer may not even have the replacement parts on hand, assuming they even have a presence in said country. This decision is actually *good* for consumers, because it means that retailers can't get away with unloading illegitimate goods with voided warranties onto unsuspecting customers.

      --
      "Give a man fire, and he'll be warm for a day; set a man on fire, and he'll be warm for the rest of his life
    22. Re:Bad Summary by jonwil · · Score: 1

      the "authorized distributor" is anyone authorized by the local copyright holder to import the copyrighted work.

    23. Re:Bad Summary by jonwil · · Score: 1

      The point here is that CostCo did not have permission from the local copyright holder (Omega USA) to import the watches into the US. No deal was done between CostCo and Omega USA, CostCo bought the watches from a foriegn Omega supplier.

      It has nothing to do with the value of the watches, its simply the fact that Omega USA was missing out on profit on watches imported into the US without permission from Omega USA.

    24. Re:Bad Summary by tompaulco · · Score: 1

      I agree. I propose they legislate that anyone who seeks to enforce this ruling also must not outsource any of their labor or source any of their parts from cheaper countries.

      --
      If you are not allowed to question your government then the government has answered your question.
    25. Re:Bad Summary by tompaulco · · Score: 1

      This appears to be exactly what happened, and my answer to Omega is "tough titty". They get to arbitrage cheaper labor and material parts, but they don't want to let their retailers do that. As I see it, they have a contract with Costco. If they don't like what Costco does they can cancel their contract. Costco is still perfectly within their right to buy at retail price in another country and legally import them to the United States and sell them. If Omega doesn't like Costco buying the watches in China or wherever, their only recourse is to try to force their Chinese retailers to not sell to Costco, or to cancel their contract with their Chinese retailers. Or they could go another route and buy off some supreme court justices.
      As an individual, this law will likely not directly affect me, but as a small business retailer, I am extremely tired of the heavy-handedness of the manufacturers, and the way that government protects their ability to rape us small retailers. Example: as a salon, we are contractually disallowed from selling our products on the internet. They say this would be "unfair competition". Now, how is being smart enough to develop a web page and a checkout cart unfair? Meanwhile, the same manufacturers allow companies like Amazon to sell the same products on the internet, and of course with their volumes they are able to sell much more cheaply than we can in our brick and mortar. As far as I am concerned, our contract with the manufacturer doesn't prevent us from competing unfairly. Rather, it prevents us from being able to compete fairly.

      --
      If you are not allowed to question your government then the government has answered your question.
    26. Re:Bad Summary by tompaulco · · Score: 1

      I'm confused. Who do you escalate to when the supreme court makes the wrong decision?

      --
      If you are not allowed to question your government then the government has answered your question.
    27. Re:Bad Summary by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I'm still trying to figure out how CostCo managed to copy the watches and why this isn't an issue of counterfeit merchandise.

      "Right to distribute" is not part of copyright. How did this get into it?

    28. Re:Bad Summary by 91degrees · · Score: 1

      It's bad law rather than a bad ruling.

      A publisher publishes a copyrighted work (e.g. a book) in country A. He licences it to local publisher in country B. These publishers don't want to be competing with each other so they have an exclusive licence to distribute in those countries. Copyright law is written with this sort of arrangement in mind and to prevent an end run around it (for example a publisher selling to their own distributor and then selling on in the other country) so supports exclusive rights to a work in a specific country. This prevents effective circumvention of copyright by exporters.

      The trouble is, this is used to support price segmentation. I have no idea whether this is the intent, but it's certainly how it's used. By making their watches a copyrighted work, they can legitimately prevent import. To most people this feels a bit bizarre. It is bizarre, and seems unfair but according to the letter of the law, it's a correct ruling.

      However, the interpretation in the blogosphere is incorrect! It is not about where they were manufactured. it's where the first sale occurred, and whether that first sale included permission for bulk imports to the US. If the copyright holder granted permission for sale in the US, then the right of first sale applies t o subsequent purchasers.

    29. Re:Bad Summary by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It's a watch, not a piece of poetry, how can it even have copyright protection?

    30. Re:Bad Summary by gl4ss · · Score: 1

      in the usa you go to congress/senate/president, if they wanted(and got along), they could decide _anything_ to be the new laws. you could also escalate to UN or other nations, or trade regulation bodies, but that would be just to put pressure on usa's leadership.

      or just keep doing what you're doing regardless of the laws and get enough others to do it too. worked for pot in usa.

      here's another idea though to the whole problem.. don't buy omegas clocks in usa - you know you're being price discriminated against if you do and they're not worth the money even if you got them a bit cheaper(and actually, manufacturing such stuff has gone _drastically_ down in price over the past 30 years, so much that the price of a fancy watch is just something pulled out of a magic hat basically).

      --
      world was created 5 seconds before this post as it is.
    31. Re:Bad Summary by rjstanford · · Score: 1

      The history of commerce also revolves around contracts, and having some mechanism of enforcing them. In the wide wide world of international trading, that doesn't always hold.

      There is one kind of fairness in places where contracts are enforced, and another kind where they aren't. Commerce is generally a lot slower in the latter, but it's "fair" in its way.

      Costco is trying to play both sides of that fence. As you say, that's just arbitrage, but in doing so they're taking the kind of fair that happens in contract-less countries and importing it into the ones where contracts are enforceable. It's not just arbitrage, but arbitrage to skirt the rules.

      In other words, it's fair only in the sense that nothing is unfair when there are no rules. That's why I said it was unfair.

      But where's the contract violation? Omega sells watches to a Chinese distributor (call them CD), presumably with a minimum price floor that they're allowed to resell at. Perfectly legal. Costco then buys them from that distributor at the price agreed-upon between Omega and CD. Still no contract violations. Costco then sells the watches in the US at a higher price.

      Note that Costco never had a contract with Omega. Omega is well within their rights to withhold any bonuses that normally come along with the watch (for example, not offering extended warranties to consumers who purchase the watch at Costco since Costco isn't an Omega-preferred-reseller). Very legitimate, and a good idea for Omega since it adds value to those resellers who are preferred.

      All contracts (and they existed at every step of the process) were honored, every transaction was 100% above board. But now the US Government is stepping in to say, "No, wait, a foreign company didn't make as much money as they wanted to, so let's find a technicality on which this can be made illegal." That's what I have a problem with.

      --
      You're special forces then? That's great! I just love your olympics!
    32. Re:Bad Summary by rjstanford · · Score: 1

      the "authorized distributor" is anyone authorized by the local copyright holder to import the copyrighted work.

      Were you explicitly authorized by the publisher of the last book you purchased to take it home? No? Why not? Oh, that's right, because there's no legal reason for them to do so. Ever travel with a book overseas on a plane? Were you sued? Of course not - there's no legal reason for anyone to do so.

      Same here.

      --
      You're special forces then? That's great! I just love your olympics!
    33. Re:Bad Summary by jonwil · · Score: 1

      US copyright law says nothing about personal import.
      What it does say is that the anyone who imports a product and then sells it can only legally do so if they have permission from the local copyright holder to import the work.

      Costco can't legally sell Omega watches containing the copyrighted logo unless those watches have been imported with permission from Omega.

    34. Re:Bad Summary by Qzukk · · Score: 1

      So if there's no local copyright holder, then it's OK? I can go buy obscure swiss novels and resell them in the US as long as the publisher doesn't have a branch in America? What constitutes a "local copyright holder"?

      --
      If I have been able to see further than others, it is because I bought a pair of binoculars.
    35. Re:Bad Summary by jfengel · · Score: 1

      Omega sells watches to a Chinese distributor (call them CD), presumably with a minimum price floor that they're allowed to resell at.

      I assume there's also a requirement to sell them retail, not wholesale. If not, they'd add one quickly once they realized what was going on. That's the contract violation.

      If Costco is sending people out to buy the watches one at a time, it's really pushing the limit. If it's being done at a wink from the distributor, it's still a violation of the contract.

      For all I know that's what they're doing to mislead a scrupulous dealer, the way meth labs have networks of people to acquire sudafed despite legal restrictions. But I'd still call it a dick move, the sort of thing that gives us anti-sudafed laws in the first place.

    36. Re:Bad Summary by rjstanford · · Score: 1

      Define retail, then. If Costco can pay the same price that John Q. Xian on the street pays and still make money doing so, its going to be really hard to come up with an enforcable contract that prevents CD from allowing them to do so. Otherwise you have a manufacturer telling a distributor (possibly then telling a retailer) that they can't sell too many watches, even if they're selling them at MSRP for cash money.

      Weird, huh.

      For all I know that's what they're doing to mislead a scrupulous dealer, the way meth labs have networks of people to acquire sudafed despite legal restrictions. But I'd still call it a dick move, the sort of thing that gives us anti-sudafed laws in the first place.

      The anti-sudafed laws were designed to prevent the illegal manufacture of drugs, which happens to be a felony (as do various aiding-and-abetting laws). This is designed to promote maximum profit for a foreign company. See the difference?

      --
      You're special forces then? That's great! I just love your olympics!
    37. Re:Bad Summary by rjstanford · · Score: 1

      US copyright law says nothing about personal import.
      What it does say is that the anyone who imports a product and then sells it can only legally do so if they have permission from the local copyright holder to import the work.

      Er, take another look at what you just wrote, please. Your second sentence totally contradicts your first sentence. If you ("anyone" in your 2nd sentence language) buy a book while on holiday and then get on a plane to go home ("imports a product"), then by this logic you're not allowed to resell it at your local used bookstore without a signed permission slip from the publisher's Mom.

      Still not sounding crazy to you? Nothing in the law says, "Oh, unless its jonwil or someone else who just wants to do it, then its fine." And if it did, that'd be a problem too.

      --
      You're special forces then? That's great! I just love your olympics!
    38. Re:Bad Summary by jfengel · · Score: 0

      There is already a legal distinction between wholesale and retail transactions. The latter is subject to sales tax; the former is not. I don't think that would require a novel legal theory. If you needed one, they'd write "one per customer per day" into the contract, or something like that. I don't think it would be difficult.

    39. Re:Bad Summary by rjstanford · · Score: 1

      There is already a legal distinction between wholesale and retail transactions. The latter is subject to sales tax; the former is not. I don't think that would require a novel legal theory. If you needed one, they'd write "one per customer per day" into the contract, or something like that. I don't think it would be difficult.

      Not true, I'm afraid. If you purchase something in the US for resale and prove documentation to the seller that shows that you're going to resell them, the State generally allows them to defer the collection of sales tax on those items. More accurately, the merchant is required to either collect sales tax or adequate documentation allowing the State to track purchases to someone else on every sale.

      That has NOTHING to do with what happens between two private parties. Hell, Costco could, in this case, choose to pay taxes on the product - although typically those don't apply if you're then exporting them since you pay export duties instead.

      You seem to be confusing contract terms, which may be binding between two individuals (or corporations), and laws, which are enforced by the State. That's the root of this issue - that this should have been purely a contract matter between Omega and the people it directly deals with (that could have follow-on requirements, naturally), for which penalties for violating the contract are spelled out in the civil documents, and laws which are passed by the State for the protection, generally, of the State or its citizens. This is a case where the law is being used to protect the profits of a non-resident company.

      Again I say, "See the difference"?

      --
      You're special forces then? That's great! I just love your olympics!
    40. Re:Bad Summary by jfengel · · Score: 0

      Again I say, "See the difference"?

      And I wish you wouldn't. It's condescending.

      that this should have been purely a contract matter between Omega and the people it directly deals with

      I agree. I said right from the beginning that I found the court's apparent reasoning incorrect. (I say "apparent" because there isn't any in the decision. They upheld the lower court by a tie vote, so it doesn't set any precedent.)

      It is a matter between Omega and its resellers, and I'm making the assumption that they said some variant of "don't sell this to somebody who's going to turn around and sell it to Americans." For all I know they didn't; I haven't seen the contract.

      But I know that Costco was certainly violating the intent of that, if not the letter. Further, they did so in a place where the knew the courts weren't going to help, so even if it is in the letter of the contract there's little that can be done about it. I don't know what could be done in a US court: if the reseller broke the agreement that's between them and Omega. But encouraging the reseller to break a contract is probably illegal, and certainly unfair.

      Costco going to the court saying, "Gosh, your honor, I was just so thrilled to discover these at a third their regular price, and I had no idea that it was intended only for sales in countries where they would sell far fewer at the American price" is disingenuous. Legal, maybe, but I don't feel at all bad about having them slapped down for it. At least as long as the bogus reasoning involved to achieve it doesn't start to apply in other cases.

  28. Not "your watch" by worf_mo · · Score: 1

    The following sentence from TFA might be worth pointing out:

    The decision [...] has serious implications for U.S. retailers that obtain their goods on the gray market.

    As fas as I see you are still free to sell you watch if you please. What you can't do is to turn selling watches into a business while getting these goods from the gray market.

    1. Re:Not "your watch" by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I think the only thing protecting you there is that it's not worth suing you over selling your watch. It's worth suing the guy selling a thousand of them.

    2. Re:Not "your watch" by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      If I can legally see one watch obtained on the "grey market" then I can sell two of them, or a dozen, or ten thousand.

    3. Re:Not "your watch" by RyuuzakiTetsuya · · Score: 1

      Actually, no you can't.

      I'm not sure what the threshold is, but, at some point if you're using grey market suppliers to buy products you're going to sell, you're probably violating tariff laws and other importation laws. This isn't just true for watches. It's also true for books, cars, and even cigarettes.

      --
      Non impediti ratione cogitationus.
    4. Re:Not "your watch" by gstoddart · · Score: 2

      The decision [...] has serious implications for U.S. retailers that obtain their goods on the gray market.

      The problem is, this whole "gray" market thing.

      If you purchase the goods legally in the country you bought them in, there's no gray. If you take property you own and move it from one country to another, there's no gray. If you sell property you own, there's no gray either.

      So, how is legally buying a product in one place, and selling it in another "gray" -- because copyright law says so? So we can guarantee corporate profits? If it costs 20 bucks in Vietnam, why is it worth 2000 bucks in New York?? Does selling this to Americans increase its value?

      This sliding scale for the cost of goods is to all of our detriment -- you're not paying what the product is worth, you're paying what the market can artificially jack up the price to be, and have the courts to enforce that consumers get screwed.

      --
      Lost at C:>. Found at C.
  29. As opposed to Scalia by rsborg · · Score: 1

    Who refused to recuse himself when presiding over a case involving his good friend and hunting buddy, Dick Cheney.

    Meanwhile "conservatives" lose their collective mind that Kagan might "support the RIAA/Hollywood" when in fact she behaves properly.

    --
    Make sure everyone's vote counts: Verified Voting
    1. Re:As opposed to Scalia by Compaqt · · Score: 1

      Really, what case was that? I missed that. (Oh, you mean the 2000 election?)

      I'm of the opinion that judges generally, but especially Supreme Court justices shouldn't be friends with politicians.

      They also don't have any business attending State of the Union addresses. They probably shouldn't vote (in elections) or donate to candidates.

      Basically, you should be ready to undergo a kind of monasticism if you want to be a Justice.

      --
      I'm not a lawyer, but I play one on the Internet. Blog
    2. Re:As opposed to Scalia by jgtg32a · · Score: 1

      As long as we're going with the us vs them mentality why don't you check which way the "liberal" and the "conservatives" voted, on this one.

    3. Re:As opposed to Scalia by rsborg · · Score: 1

      As long as we're going with the us vs them mentality why don't you check which way the "liberal" and the "conservatives" voted, on this one.

      It's not about conservative or liberal, it's about professionalism and avoiding even the appearance of corruption.

      I'm likewise upset, for example, that the Obama administration chose Geithner for the Treasury Secretary despite Geithner's close ties to Goldman Sachs and other too-big-to-fail banks.

      --
      Make sure everyone's vote counts: Verified Voting
  30. Now the U.S. will be no better than the EU by Z8 · · Score: 2

    There they have a different system where creators have more control of their works.

  31. Any ideas??? by Winchestershire · · Score: 1

    I'm a bit confused by the wording of the ruling, does this apply to goods purchased online via a company outside of the country and shipped to me? For example, if I purchase a video games and/or consoles from a source outside my own country/region, does this mean I won't be able to sell these items at some later date if I so desire?

  32. Can I say one thing... by PortHaven · · Score: 1

    FUCK YOU .gov

    Get your guns Davey....Liberty is on a thin thread.

  33. Facism by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Facism [fay-siz-uhm]

    Discrimination based on Physiognomy

    1. Re:Facism by sourcerror · · Score: 1

      That's nazism, which is a subset of fascism.
      Fascism isn't neccesarily racist. (See Italy between the two world war.)

  34. But wait... by theghost · · Score: 2

    But wait, it gets better! This decision is based on a copyright claim over the tiny fucking logo on the back of the watch! Ridiculous barely begins to describe it.

    --
    The only thing necessary for the triumph of evil is that good men do nothing.
    1. Re:But wait... by clone52431 · · Score: 1

      No, you can’t copyright a logo (that’s a trademark – and it’s different). They are claiming that the watch itself is copyrighted (a “creative work”), and the logo on the back is the stamp of their copyright claim on it. In other words, they think their trademark logo is the ©-symbol on their watches.

      “First sale” means that if you buy a copyrighted CD, you are free to sell it to your buddy after you’re tired of it, or sell it in a garage sale, or on ebay, or even to sell it to a used book store that commercially buys and sells used CDs. The copyright holder only has the right to force the first seller to be a licensed and authorized seller of the CD. After that, it belongs to the person who bought it, with the obvious stipulation that they can’t copy it.

      Now they’ve said that this only applies if the product was made in the US. So if you buy something that was made outside the US, and the company who manufactured it claims that it is a copyrighted work, they have the right to control everyone who is allowed to sell it... which means you can’t sell it without their permission.

      --
      Distributed Denial of APK: It takes 15 seconds to reply to him anonymously, but wastes tons of his time if we all do it.
    2. Re:But wait... by SLi · · Score: 1

      Now they’ve said that this only applies if the product was made in the US. So if you buy something that was made outside the US, and the company who manufactured it claims that it is a copyrighted work, they have the right to control everyone who is allowed to sell it... which means you can’t sell it without their permission.

      No, they haven't. This has nothing to do with where the product was manufactured and everything to do with where it was first sold to the public. Therefore, once the product (the individual watch in this case) was first sold in the US with the permission of the rights holder, after that they can no longer control further sales. In this case the watch was never sold in the US with the rights holder's permission, so the first sale doctrine does not apply in the US.

      All this applies regardless of where the watch was actually manufactured. It might have been manufactured in the US but never sold in the US with permission, and the situation would have been the same. So essentially it's not about first sale; it's about first sale in the US.

    3. Re:But wait... by hitmark · · Score: 1

      Well the lawsuit decision it was extended from was based on the copyright of the product label and a hair conditioning bottle (or something like that). not the trademarks, the design of the label!

      --
      comment first, facts later. http://chem.tufts.edu/AnswersInScience/RelativityofWrong.htm
  35. But nothing is made in the USA anymore by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    WTF? Nothing is made in the USA anymore, how does this help anyone?

  36. I guess I`m stuck with my Touareg. I don`t mind. by __aavqan3009 · · Score: 1

    But still....

  37. Exercise Civil Disobedience by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

    I hope anyone wishing to sell something belonging to them goes right ahead in spite of anti-American (anti-freedom) laws that American politicians pass and courts unwisely uphold. Exercise civil disobedience!

  38. Implications are a bit more subtle by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    I'm guessing this has more to do with companies who go overseas, buy goods there at cheaper prices than a parent company would like to see them sold in the US (either new or used from people in that country who bought them) and then brings them back into the US to sell.

    Think how inconvenient it would be for companies if they prices their goods differently in different countries and then someone circumvents that by moving the goods from a cheap market back into an expensive one. I'm guessing that's what's really at stake here, not whether someone can sell a souvenir they picked up in Europe (although of course the intent and the actual impact of things like this are often not the same... like too many things, selling the souvenir may be technically problematic and just overlooked because it is insignificant economically. Until someone in power wants to bother someone they don't like using the legal system, of course...)

    1. Re:Implications are a bit more subtle by MaskedSlacker · · Score: 3, Insightful

      Think how inconvenient it would be for companies if they prices their goods differently in different countries and then someone circumvents that by moving the goods from a cheap market back into an expensive one.

      I should give a fuck why?

      If you actually believe in free markets, strong property rights, and capitalism you should wholly support such reimportation. Hell, even if you don't, you should support it, unless you're some sort of fascist oligarchist.

    2. Re:Implications are a bit more subtle by shermo · · Score: 2

      Free Trade is not for everyone!

      --
      Insanity: voting in the same two parties over and over again and expecting different results
    3. Re:Implications are a bit more subtle by gl4ss · · Score: 1

      your usual, non bullshit product, company wouldn't actually mind where you bought your stuff as long as you bought their product.

      --
      world was created 5 seconds before this post as it is.
    4. Re:Implications are a bit more subtle by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Boo-fucking-hoo?

      Companies can take advantage of global economies (outsourcing, cheap off-shore manufacturing, etc.) but they throw a fucking shit-fit if consumers want to take advantage of the same economies (region coding, etc.).

  39. Re: by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    It only affects games which have a logo. Shit, that's all of them.

  40. The government no longer has any say in anything by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    and the power falls to the people of the United States when it is clear the government and the courts no longer are not only not in sync with the wishes of the people that give them permission to govern, but so far out that I, and indeed no sane man woman or child is ever only going to not follow their rules because they are so patently ridiculous and invoke 0 fear that any sane jury of my peers would ever find anyone guilty of a crime....ever. I've heard of a kangaroo court and now think a new term should be coined. A jester government. A government that makes laws that are so stupid and ridiculous that all you can do is scratch your head, laugh and move on. I don't know of anyone who would follow this law if they even were able to believe it was credulous. It doesn't even pass the laugh test.

  41. Car Analogy by SirAstral · · Score: 1

    It's like Ford or Dodge telling you that you cannot sell your vehicle.

    I am sure someone has done a good job of making the water muddy on the specifics, but when you get down to it the manufactures never want you to own anything. The permanent dream is for you to always have to pay in pure rental agreement. Basically its the software model being forced onto the physical property model.

    Yep just sitting here watching the idiots lose their freedoms one at a time while they continue to vote for their parties like there is a real different. Both seek to take your liberty away, they merely disagree on how to accomplish that!

  42. Its not about the watches really.... by Roskolnikov · · Score: 1

    I believe there is more here than Omega watches, imagine this applied to other 'copyrighted' items, like a Sony game, a Warner Bros Movie, a Telarc CD, a Apple computer.....
    If this decision was broadly applied to all resale (new or used) its a mess that only the corporations could love, in effect it invalidates ownership and turns it into licensing.

    --
    Unix, an obscure operating system developed by bored researchers in an attempt to get a better game playing experience.
    1. Re:Its not about the watches really.... by gstoddart · · Score: 1

      in effect it invalidates ownership and turns it into licensing.

      And you can betcherass that there's a whole lot of people sitting around in the industries you describe which would love for that to happen. In fact, I suspect they're trying every legal strategy they can to be sure of that.

      The whole world ran by EULAs and copyright lawyers.

      --
      Lost at C:>. Found at C.
  43. Why 4-4? Because Kagan recused due to S.G. by PatPending · · Score: 5, Interesting
    For the 81 cases listed for the October Term 2010, Kagan is recused 31 times or 38% of the cases.

    Why? Partly because she was the Solicitor General:

    SHAPIRO: How common is it for a new justice to have to recuse from the number of cases that Kagan is recusing herself from?

    TOTENBERG: Well, it's not common because, at least more recently, we haven't had top Justice Department officials migrating to the court. But it's happened many times in our history. Justice Thurgood Marshall, who was solicitor general, for example, recused himself from about half the cases the court heard in his first year. But that high number was largely because he remained SG until he was confirmed.

    And Kagan didn't do that. She stopped being SG right after her nomination. So, this high number of recusals, I think, is front loaded. She'll probably be recused from about a third of the docket this year, and then next year her recusals will plummet to zero or something close to that.

    One interesting thing, Ari, is that there are a number of cases that she's reused herself from that she really had nothing to do with. And these are cases that generally involve commercial disputes. And the Justice Department filed a notice that it was taking no position, and these are just routine evaluations. They're done by lower-level lawyers but she signed the filing, so she's taking herself out of those cases.

    SHAPIRO: And when she's recused and there are eight justices on the Supreme Court, what happens then?

    TOTENBERG: Well, the case goes forward, as usual. And if there's a four-to-four tie, the lower court opinion is automatically affirmed without the Supreme Court issued any opinion, then presumably the issue can come up in another case, later, where Kagan can participate.

    --
    What one fool can do, another can. (Ancient Simian Proverb)
    1. Re:Why 4-4? Because Kagan recused due to S.G. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Honestly don't mind the situation. If nothing else it shows that the highest court understands its position and takes fairness seriously. Wish I could say the same for the assholes choosing the appointees.

    2. Re:Why 4-4? Because Kagan recused due to S.G. by hansraj · · Score: 1

      Posts like these make me not regret all the hours I waste on slashdot reading (mostly) junk news and (mostly) predictable comments.

      Thank you!

    3. Re:Why 4-4? Because Kagan recused due to S.G. by winwar · · Score: 1

      "Why? Partly because she was the Solicitor General [npr.org]:

      SHAPIRO: How common is it for a new justice to have to recuse from the number of cases that Kagan is recusing herself from?

      TOTENBERG: Well, it's not common because, at least more recently, we haven't had top Justice Department officials migrating to the court."

      The really interesting thing is that there is no requirement for her to recuse herself. Supreme Court justices get to decide for themselves whether they have a conflict of interest. So, for instance, if your wife works for one side of the case you don't have to recuse yourself....

  44. Wait... by macemoneta · · Score: 1

    So a company, for example a book publisher, can move manufacturing overseas and require distributors to purchase from their overseas location? Then those books can be prohibited from resale?

    Wouldn't this provide a major financial incentive to move any remaining manufacture and sales out of the U.S.?

    --

    Can You Say Linux? I Knew That You Could.

    1. Re:Wait... by blueg3 · · Score: 1

      A distributor isn't going to buy books that the distributor can't resell.

      This decision only applies to products obtained overseas, not products manufactured overseas. So if a foreign printer sells books to an American distributor who then sells books to American consumers, the American consumers retain the right to resell their books, since they obtained it domestically. It's the American distributor who could find themselves in the position of being barred from reselling the books.

      What this does is give a foreign manufacturer greater ability to place restrictions on American distributors in exchange for the right to resell their goods. (For example, it can be used to kill foreign grey-market products.)

      So yes, it does provide a benefit to companies to manufacture overseas. Free-trade policies already provide a pretty significant benefit to manufacturing outside the U.S., though. What it doesn't do is give foreign companies direct leverage over American consumers by preventing them from reselling goods.

  45. Two things that make this not quite as bad by sed+quid+in+infernos · · Score: 1

    First, no court has yet ruled whether the watches are covered by the Copyright Act simply because of the log on them. See the government's amicus brief urging the petition being denied at pp. 20-21 (25-26 in the PDF). Costco's misuse-of-copyright defense has yet to be evaluated - the court may ultimately rule that logos do not place an imported product under the umbrella of the copyright act.

    Second, the Ninth Circuit decision specifically calls out several specific factors of this case, including that the firm in question clearly did not set up shop outside the U.S. to gain the protection of the bar on import present in Section 602 of the Copyright Act. The scary hypotheticals people are raising have not been ruled on.

    I'd be interested to hear what people think the import ban actually protects against if the first sale doctrine applies to sales outside the U.S. Off the top of my head, I can't think of any protection the ban on imports adds iif it is not a carve-out from the first sale doctrine. Illegally copied works are already covered by other provisions of the act. Infringing in two ways (import and distribution) doesn't increase the damages a plaintiff could protect. On a first blush analysis, a contrary decision seems to render the Section 602 import ban meaningless - something courts are loathe to do when interpreting law. Again, though, I haven't done more than a superficial analysis on this point.

    None of this is to say the policy outcome is good, or even that the court made the right decision. I just want to clarify that the decision is not nearly as bad as the summary makes it sound, even without taking into account the fact that this is non-binding precedent except in the Ninth Circuit.

  46. How is that any better? by betterunixthanunix · · Score: 1

    How exactly is what you described any better? You are still basically saying that if I have in my possession an item that I purchased overseas, I am not legally allowed to sell it to anyone else, even though I would be legally allowed to sell it if I had purchased it in America.

    It is ludicrous either way. Nobody is going to stop and think, "Did I buy this in another country? Am I allowed to sell it to someone else?" People are going to continue to exercise their natural right to transfer ownership of their property to other people, at whatever price they see fit. Any decision or law to the contrary is a bad idea, it is unenforceable, and it will just result in even more of a disconnect between the law and the average person.

    --
    Palm trees and 8
    1. Re:How is that any better? by Alanbly · · Score: 1

      It's better because absolutely everything purchased legally in the US is covered (only about 10% or less of which is wholly produced here) by the doctrine, not just items produced here. And yes I am saying that you don't have the legal right to resell an item you purchased in another country that is not imported for sale into the US, because technically by bringing the item into the US you agree to abide by the import restrictions, including the lack of resale. Most of the time it doesn't matter, you're a small fish but it has always been illegal. If the court had ruled to extend the First-Sale Doctrine to resellers it would violate a large number of trade agreements and treaties. Extending the First-Sale Doctrine to other countries is what is really unenforceable and an attempt to do so would see the price of EVERY import skyrocket to make up for it. Personally I want to see a world where the whole world has the equivalent of a First-Sale Doctrine, but this "lack of a decision" by the supreme court doesn't actually change the law it just proves that people don't understand international trade regulations as well as they thing they do.

      --
      -- Adam McCormick
    2. Re:How is that any better? by gnasher719 · · Score: 1

      How exactly is what you described any better? You are still basically saying that if I have in my possession an item that I purchased overseas, I am not legally allowed to sell it to anyone else, even though I would be legally allowed to sell it if I had purchased it in America.

      Calm down. You are not importing it. "importing" is bringing into the country with the intent to sell it commercially. If you buy this watch, take it to the USA, and in five years you don't like it, you can sell it on eBay. You just cannot sell it in your own watch store.

  47. It was only a matter of time.... by forkfail · · Score: 1

    ... before physical products were effectively leased and came with software style EULA's that said basically that you were paying a usage fee.

    And while this isn't quite getting us to that point, we're a lot closer now...

    --
    Check your premises.
  48. The APPLE (c) computer by MarkvW · · Score: 1

    Imagine a computer with a copyrighted brand stamp on it.
    Imagine a memory chip or a video card . . .

    Congress will fix this, because it's just commercially TOO crazy.

    1. Re:The APPLE (c) computer by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Yeah right.

      In case you haven't noticed, most congresscritters pander to corporate interests, no matter what side of the aisle they are on. Why would they fix a "problem" that would harm their relationships with those who keep them in power?

    2. Re:The APPLE (c) computer by jonwil · · Score: 1

      The BIOS and firmware on those apple PCs is already (C) Apple. No need to add anything extra.

  49. Okay... fine... by clone52431 · · Score: 1

    That money I paid for it? It’s yours now. Forever. You can’t spend it without my permission.

    --
    Distributed Denial of APK: It takes 15 seconds to reply to him anonymously, but wastes tons of his time if we all do it.
    1. Re:Okay... fine... by Alanbly · · Score: 1

      You produced that money? And trademarked it? And have a trade agreement with the country where they're located? Thought not.

      --
      -- Adam McCormick
    2. Re:Okay... fine... by clone52431 · · Score: 1

      I traded something of mine for something of theirs. Who produced it has nothing to do with it.

      --
      Distributed Denial of APK: It takes 15 seconds to reply to him anonymously, but wastes tons of his time if we all do it.
    3. Re:Okay... fine... by Alanbly · · Score: 1

      You were making a flawed analogy to the situation in question in which the company does produce the item. Now if you were bartering instead of purchasing then you might have a slim point but the humor is otherwise trite and inflammatory.

      --
      -- Adam McCormick
    4. Re:Okay... fine... by clone52431 · · Score: 1

      Money is just a barter system. We could just as well be using bottle caps or round rocks with holes in them or bushels of wheat. It wouldn’t make any difference.

      --
      Distributed Denial of APK: It takes 15 seconds to reply to him anonymously, but wastes tons of his time if we all do it.
    5. Re:Okay... fine... by znerk · · Score: 1

      ...you might have a slim point but the humor is otherwise trite and inflammatory.

      Actually, I'm thinking the topic of discussion (the SCOTUS ruling, or lack thereof) is the "trite and inflammatory" portion of this thread.

      --
      This work is licensed under a Creative Commons Attribution 3.0 Unported License.
  50. Seriously, a tie? by jgeiger · · Score: 1

    Isn't the point of having 9 members on the Supreme Court to avoid ties? If they can't ALL take part they shouldn't be dealing with the case until they ALL can...

    1. Re:Seriously, a tie? by PatPending · · Score: 1
      --
      What one fool can do, another can. (Ancient Simian Proverb)
    2. Re:Seriously, a tie? by Alanbly · · Score: 1

      It was probably intentional so as not to set precedent either direction

      --
      -- Adam McCormick
    3. Re:Seriously, a tie? by sunsurfandsand · · Score: 1

      No; it sets precedent by allowing the 9th Circuit's decision to stand.

    4. Re:Seriously, a tie? by Alanbly · · Score: 1

      It only sets a precedent in the 9th Circuit, if the Supreme Court had made a decision it would have been a national precedent and would have required them to establish a general test to justify their opinion.

      --
      -- Adam McCormick
  51. Starting tomorrow by nedlohs · · Score: 1

    All music CDs, books, DVDs, etc sold in the US will be produced outside the US.

  52. they aren't worried about you, only grey importers by fantomas · · Score: 2

    Nobody is going to take you through the courts for selling your grandfather's Rolex. But if you form a watch company and get a sweet deal on 5000 Rolexes through some intermediary company in Asia, and they offer you another 5000 when you've sold the first lot, then you might get a court summons. These are the people the orginal manufacturers are upset about. They want their expensive looking shops in the premier end of the mall selling their products at a high mark up, and they get upset when a bulk distributor like Costco manages a deal and undercuts the places on Fifth Avenue.

    It's the Fifth Avenue shops that will be the ones who've got this one into the courts; they know people will stop shopping there if Costco do a better deal and they are terrified the online traders like Amazon will jump on board next.

  53. How about pawn shops? by jamsessionjay · · Score: 1

    Will overseas manufacturers be able to stop pawn shops from reselling user trader foreign goods and force them to check that the individual had the permission to resell? I can only see this being used by over aggressive DA's in the US to put pressure on pawn shops they don't like in case they illegally bought a foreign made/sold object. So great. Gotta be careful you're not breaking the law buying that new watch from a small business or the police might be able to repossess your items in the name of them being used in a crime.

  54. Good luck. by Lilith's+Heart-shape · · Score: 1

    The Ninth Circuit has rendered its decision. Now let them try to enforce it.

  55. As usual by Sycraft-fu · · Score: 1, Insightful

    Slashdot is over-sensationalizing a bit, or a lot.

    This does not appear to have any impact on individual rights. You buy something in the US, is yours, you do as you please, including resell it. This covers a different situation where a company goes and buys foreign products in a foreign market, perhaps even with an agreement explicit or implicit as to what they can do with them, but then brings them over to the US for sale. That is what is at issue here. Costco said "We can do that if we want," the 9th Circuit said "No you can't," and the SC is split. That's rather different than an individual doing anything. If an individual bought one of those watches from a US store, they could then do as they liked.

    So this isn't an issue for rights for you as an individual, don't worry. It is an issue for differential pricing. A company might wish to sell a product for different prices in different markets. Say a product costs $5 to make and get to a country for sale, $5 total cost, everything after that is profit. In the US, they discover they can sell it for $25, because the product is unique and people have money. In India they can't get that, people have less money, they have to sell it for $7 which they still make a little on, but not as much. These are all wholesale prices.

    Well what someone like Costco might want to do is go and buy the product in India and import it. There is an arbitrage opportunity. Let's say it costs Costco $10 to buy retail, and $5/item to get them and ship them over. That still puts there per item cost at $15, well below the $25 they'd have to pay normally. That of course lets them undercut competitors.

    That is what is trying to be stopped here. The companies don't want them to do that, they want to be able to have different pricing in different markets. Costco fought back arguing first sale, that after they sold it they can't tell Costco what to do.

    I'm not saying the courts have made the right decision, but as the parent notes, this is not an issue for your and my individual rights. We go to a store (or online) in the US and buy something, first sale applies same as ever this has nothing to do with it.

    1. Re:As usual by MoonBuggy · · Score: 1

      You keep saying it's not an issue of individual rights, then adding the "purchased in the US" caveat. The fact of the matter is that it is an issue of what US citizens can do with their legally owned property within the US, if they happened to buy that property overseas. Sure, that might take a little of the edge off compared to the wording of the summary, but that doesn't mean it's not an issue for individuals.

    2. Re:As usual by jank1887 · · Score: 1

      If I go overseas, say, to India. While I'm there I buy half a dozen of these items. When I get back, up on Craigslist they go for a 100% profit to me but a 25% discount relative to the US market. I sell all of them. I am a private entity. Does the 9th circuit court decision apply at all to what I did?

    3. Re:As usual by pavon · · Score: 1

      Yeah, for the most part this will apply to distributors, not individuals, but there are some sticky areas where it could affect individuals.

      Say your grandpa bought a watch while on vacation, and then he dies and it is sold at an estate sale. According to the ninth circuit this is illegal. Of course the chances of the law being enforced in at a garage sale are rare. However suppose that it was a controversial collectors item which was put up for auction at Christie's, but which the copyright holder would like to see buried. If you are blocked from selling it in that case, are you also blocked from inheriting it?

      Or what if it was for sale on Ebay? This was another issue that was brought up earlier in the trial, however, since then the courts have ruled that Ebay isn't even responsible for counterfeit products sold on the site, so it probably wouldn't be responsible for tracking unauthorized redistribution either.

      The main thing I don't like is that it is applying copyright law to things like watches. I can understand having laws about importing and redistributing products. But saying this is a copyright issue is really stretching it and could be a stepping stone to even more inappropriate applications of copyright law. Another amusing aspect about using copyright to come to this decision is that fashion/clothes are not covered by copyright, so resale of a bracelet wouldn't be restricted by this ruling but a watch is.

    4. Re:As usual by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I'm not saying the courts have made the right decision, but as the parent notes, this is not an issue for your and my individual rights. We go to a store (or online) in the US and buy something, first sale applies same as ever this has nothing to do with it.

      It may not affect our individual rights, but it does affect us individuals. This means you can't buy the Seamaster watch for less that $1,999.99 or whatever price Omega wants to put on it.

      The next step will be that you won't be allowed to have more than one (1) Seamaster watch on your person coming back from say Switzerland, entering the U.S.

      That being said, the more people get inconvenienced with Copyright/DRM issues, the better. Perhaps they'll wake up one day.

    5. Re:As usual by Cederic · · Score: 1

      Jurisdiction aside, yes.

      You do not have the agreement of the copyright holder to distribute their work in the US, and you have no protection under the doctrine of First Sale as you didn't purchase them.

      The ruling basically says that First Sale rights only apply to sales within the US. This makes perfect sense, and if that first sale is without the permission of the right holder then it is not legitimate and thus conveys no protections.

    6. Re:As usual by Builder · · Score: 1

      If the decision had been made and precedent set, then yes, this would absolutely apply. So ignore the fools who are telling you that this doesn't impact individual rights.

    7. Re:As usual by Chowderbags · · Score: 1

      What if I buy some cheap rum in the Caribbean then bring it back to the US? What's stopping Bacardi from coming after me? Rinse and repeat with any product bought by anyone who travels outside the US.

      The subtle point that was argued is that importing anything to the US (even your personal property) may be prevented by the whim of a copyright holder. It's a small step from there to argue that copyright holders should get more power. Do you really see it as that far off until a court upholds some EULA that tears apart the first sale doctrine? We wouldn't want a copyright gap!

    8. Re:As usual by Qzukk · · Score: 1

      this is not an issue for your and my individual rights. We go to a store (or online) in the US and buy something, first sale applies same as ever this has nothing to do with it.

      "Rights" may be too strong of a word, but it does mean I now have to pay American prices for stuff rather than finding a reseller who paid Chinese prices for it.

      --
      If I have been able to see further than others, it is because I bought a pair of binoculars.
  56. People's Republic of America by tbf · · Score: 1

    Awesome protectionism in the former home of capitalism and free trade...

    With all the recent development the U.S. should be hornest and finally give itself an honest name.

    "People's Republic of America" might be a start.

  57. Gray Market Sales by westlake · · Score: 1

    All this means is that export product produced in wholesale lots for overseas buyers cannot be re-exported for retail sale in the U.S. without the consent of the manufacturer. If you want to stock genuine Omega watches, with genuine Omega logos, product designed by Omega for the American market, you must deal with Omega's U.S. distributors.

    1. Re:Gray Market Sales by MoonBuggy · · Score: 1

      Your tone implies you consider this acceptable; I'd be interested to know why?

    2. Re:Gray Market Sales by westlake · · Score: 1

      Your tone implies you consider this acceptable; I'd be interested to know why?

      Products produced for overseas sales may be designed and manufactured to different standards.

      The maufactuer has a problem when a deep discount retailer trades on a brand name better known for its high-end product.

      The customer has a problem when he looks for service and support.

    3. Re:Gray Market Sales by MoonBuggy · · Score: 1

      So rather than, say, mandating a "Non-US procured origin" notification by the US reseller & leaving the choice to the consumer, the route chosen is to give manufacturers perpetual control of their products sold overseas (and thus allow them to severely distort the market even for the many products which are, in fact, identical). Seems to me to be a rather sub-optimal solution.

    4. Re:Gray Market Sales by znerk · · Score: 1

      All this means is that export product produced in wholesale lots for overseas buyers cannot be re-exported for retail sale in the U.S. without the consent of the manufacturer. If you want to stock genuine Omega watches, with genuine Omega logos, product designed by Omega for the American market, you must deal with Omega's U.S. distributors.

      I find it interesting that SCOTUS is, in effect, stating that communism is perfectly okay, whereas capitalism is not. If this were a capitalistic decision, it would be argued that the source of the product is not necessary, so long as the product is genuine (advertised product meets expectations). Since it is being argued that the manufacturer has complete control over the pricing of their product, and is able to fix prices for specific markets, SCOTUS just legitimized single-entity cartels, voided the entirety of the RICO act, and advocated a communist-like approach to the market (from each according to the manufacturer, to each according to their local ability to pay).

      Personally, I find it objectionable that a retailer found a way to reduce the cost of a product, passed the savings on to their customers, and was slapped in the face for it.

      --
      This work is licensed under a Creative Commons Attribution 3.0 Unported License.
  58. Multi faced... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

    As I see it, there are 3 factors going on here.

    1st is Copyright. Foreign Copyright, if duplicated in the US, trade-agreed w/ the US, or NOT, must now be honored by US citizens. I don't recall agreeing to this arrangement when I purchased any good. Also, unless foreign countries with which we have Trade and Copyright agreements with, are reciprocating the same level of oversight with which this ruling precipitates, this is unilateral trade extortion for being the richest country on the planet. Are we reaping what we sow? Could ACTA make this better, worse, irrelevant?

    2nd is First-sale. The distinction with this ruling, is where do "US made goods", begin and end. Presumably now, any good purchased outside the US, and brought back, is subject to all Copyright after the initial sale. It's true that Copyright is not the same as a License, however this scenario makes the argument that the 2 are now equal, and physical goods have imaginary boundary. Is every pawn shop, internet resale posting, and classified ad in the US now illegal?

    3rd is Freedom. As a free citizen, I must be allowed to participate in commerce between parties, both public and private. As I see it, we are now legally required to get external authorization from a party which has already profited from a sale, and must now give OK for commerce which would otherwise exist independent of the party knowing. They're now lumping the 3rd party into sales of goods, which for decades and possibly centuries, hasn't needed the OK. This is an ACTIVE assault on a basic freedom to exist and participate in trade in a presumably free society. International trade is now effecting your abilities to participate in free trade within the US. That is of course, if you care, and feel this law is representative of you.

    Overall effect of this? Let the Copyright lawsuits ensue. I imagine an exponential increase in the amount of lawsuits brought to the courts of East Texas. As a Texan, I'm curious how the 'states rights' and small Gov. Republicans here and in the US, view such a ruling.

  59. Comment removed by account_deleted · · Score: 1

    Comment removed based on user account deletion

  60. I agree with Obama by amiga3D · · Score: 1

    He was right when he dressed down the supreme court publicly before and he needs to do it again. This kind of crap is outrageous. What kind on nonsense says when you buy something the company you purchased it from has the right to tell you what you can do with it? How out of touch with reality can they possibly be? I guess when I buy ground beef I have to get Winn Dixie's permission to use it to make meatloaf? It's so preposterous I can barely conceive of something like this being seriously allowed.

    1. Re:I agree with Obama by blueg3 · · Score: 1

      Well, you've misinterpreted their ruling. The ruling you imagine is much more ridiculous than the actual ruling.

  61. SUUUUUPER PRICEMAN by chronoss2010 · · Score: 0

    prices can go UP UP UP and away.......for everyone.... Merry ho ho form the supreme court of the usa

  62. That's correct (per the 9th Circuit's decision) by Adrian+Lopez · · Score: 3, Insightful

    While the 9th Circuit's ruling is unfortunate, it's not quite as bad as not being allowed to resell any items manufactured overseas. Whereas the 9th Circuit's decision applies to goods obtained overseas, goods legally imported into the United States would still be protected by the first-sale doctrine.

    The decision still sucks, though. Not only do I think it's a perversion of copyright law to add a copyrighted logo to a watch in order to prevent importation that would otherwise be perfectly legitimate, but I also think it's a perversion of justice for copyright law to bar unauthorized importation of nonpiratical copies the way it currently does.

    --
    "In prison you just have to shut your eyes and take it. Here you have to shut your eyes and give it."
  63. Hate to be a pawn shop owner by soldoutactivist · · Score: 1

    Outside the US.

    --
    The downside of being killed is the upside of being dead.
  64. No by Adrian+Lopez · · Score: 2

    "You're right, poor choice of words. It's about good made outside the US, not bought outside the US. Thanks for clarifying..."

    Wrong. It's not about goods made outside the US, but about goods imported illegally into the US. Read the 9th Circuit's decision if you don't yet understand the distinction.

    --
    "In prison you just have to shut your eyes and take it. Here you have to shut your eyes and give it."
    1. Re:No by suutar · · Score: 1

      It's about both. The limitation for foreign-made goods applies to 109(a) specifically (BMG v. Perez, referenced in section A of the decision), but only if the goods were also bought outside the US (Givenchy v. Drug Emporium, also referenced in section A). If the goods were made outside the US and you bought them outside the US, then 109(a) does not apply, and you have no right to sell or dispose of the property without the copyright holder's consent (unless you can find justification elsewhere in 107-122).

    2. Re:No by suutar · · Score: 1

      I should clarify. This case was about illegally imported goods, but it's not the fact that they were illegally imported that makes them not subject to first sale; it's the fact that they're not subject to first sale that makes the way they were imported illegal.

    3. Re:No by h4rr4r · · Score: 1

      It is not illegal to import watches.
      This has nothing to do with illegal import.

      This is about a company charging $100 for a watch in the EU and $110 in the USA. Then claiming I have no right to buy a watch in the EU and import it into the USA. This is total bullshit, once I bought the damn watch it is mine. The copyright code was written for books, it is still BS though. It never was intended to protect watches.

      This only proves the Supreme Court is as for sale as any senator.

  65. Split Decision? by mosb1000 · · Score: 1

    There was a 50/50 split on this?! How and why would anyone conclude that the first-sale doctrine should only apply to locally produced items? Much less 4 supreme court justices. These are dark times we are living in.

  66. No more imports of Games/Videos? by pizzach · · Score: 1

    So does this mean no more importing video games or movies from other countries? How our rights have eroded indeed. I know game companies don't want me to be playing their RPGs in Japanese, but this is rediculous. It's an extension of regioning.

    --
    Once you start despising the jerks, you become one.
  67. but what about the store / supplies that firest pa by Joe+The+Dragon · · Score: 2

    but what about the store / supplies that first payed for it?

  68. I see where the 9th is coming from by ArbitraryDescriptor · · Score: 1
    IANAL, but I've read the 9th circuit's opinion, and I think it's a fair argument; once you realize this is not about the watch (which I'll get to). This comes down to Omega never authorizing the importation of these copyrighted materials. 9th states that

    Second, the application of 109(a) after foreign sales would "`render 602 virtually meaningless'" as a tool against the unauthorized importation of nonpiratical copies because importation is almost always preceded by at least one lawful foreign sale that will have exhausted the distribution right on which 602(a) is premised. Id. at 319-20 (quoting Scorpio, 569 F.Supp. at 49).

    The watches found their way to Costco via "unidentified third parties,"

    Costco obtained watches bearing the copyrighted design from the "gray market"[1] in the following manner: Omega first sold the watches to authorized distributors overseas. Unidentified third parties eventually purchased the watches and sold them to ENE Limited, a New York company, which in turn sold them to Costco.

    I am inferring from this that Costco could not prove that these were authorized replications of Omega's copyrighted material. By ruling in favor of Costco they set a precident which could allow me to sell pirate CDs I bought from 'an unspecified 3rd party' wholesaler in China and claiming 'First sale doctrine, bro; I'm just a reseller.' I get that, kind of, if were were talking about CDs, books, or movies.

    Here is the part that is fucking retarded: Omega isn't talking about the watch, the watch isn't copyrighted. They are claiming infringement on their logo, the "Omega Globe Design," which just happens engraved on the watch, and which they hold a US copyright on. So by my read, Costco is free to file off the logo and sell them however they want.

  69. Private property rights are essential by wcrowe · · Score: 3, Interesting

    PJ O'Rourke wrote a great book on politics and economics called Eat The Rich. In his book, he examines a number of different political systems and concludes that so long as there is rule of law and private property rights, almost any political system can function. This is true of capitalism, socialism, communism, and even fascism. Take away either of those two components -- rule of law or private property rights -- and you've got trouble.

    This story is just another example of our disappearing private property rights. The basic test of ownership is disposal. If you have the right to dispose of an item in some way, through sale, donation, alteration, or destruction (safely, of course), then you own it. If you are prohibited from doing any of these things, then it is not really yours.

    --
    Proverbs 21:19
    1. Re:Private property rights are essential by ShakaUVM · · Score: 2

      >>This story is just another example of our disappearing private property rights

      Sad to say it, but we need a law or amendment stating that the Right of First Sale shall not be abridged.

      The really sad thing is that the Europeans have exactly such a law in their consumer protection acts.

    2. Re:Private property rights are essential by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      He who can destroy a thing, controls a thing.

      Paul Muad'Dib

  70. I wuz robbed! by Max+Hyre · · Score: 2
    The summary you see is a heavily-edited version of the one I submitted. My submission read

    In a [...] 4-4 non-decision

    :-/

    --
    I refuse to believe corporations are people until Texas executes one. -- desert rain on http://www.dailykos.com/user/
  71. And no, again by Mathinker · · Score: 1

    > goods imported illegally

    Pray tell, where in the decision is that limitation made? I don't see it anywhere. The summary of the facts at the beginning of the decision only talks about "gray market", not "illicit market", and does not state that the goods were (necessarily) illegally imported. They may have been, but AFAICS, the decision doesn't depend on that.

    Just because the brand owner didn't authorize the importation, doesn't make it illegal.

    Not yet.... it seems that the countdown has started, tho.

  72. Costco? by Lanforod · · Score: 1

    Does buying wholesale mean that the product comes with manufacturer approval to resell? If not, could this mean a lot of manufacturers could sue anyone who purchases at, Costco for example, and resells?

  73. Unfortunately, it's part of US copyright law by Adrian+Lopez · · Score: 1

    From 17 U.S.C. 602(a):

    "Importation into the United States, without the authority of the owner of copyright under this title, of copies ... of a work that have been acquired outside the United States is an infringement of the exclusive right to distribute copies ... under section 106, actionable under section 501."

    --
    "In prison you just have to shut your eyes and take it. Here you have to shut your eyes and give it."
  74. i'm not even going to rtfa.. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    wtf is going on with our court system? every day is something more absurd.

    this country is being dragged & held down by these idiot politicians & greedy law-makers.

  75. No difference by Comboman · · Score: 2

    As fas as I see you are still free to sell you[r] watch if you please. What you can't do is to turn selling watches into a business while getting these goods from the gray market.

    To the law, there's no difference between selling one watch on Craig's list or selling thousands at Costco. The only difference is how likely you are to get caught.

    --
    Support Right To Repair Legislation.
  76. adding: by ArbitraryDescriptor · · Score: 1

    Since my view of the case hinges on the chain of custody between the rights holder and the distributor getting murky and Omega claiming they were unlawful copies; I'm curious how they would have ruled if Costco bought the watches overseas themselves, and resold them here. If I am understanding them, this should be permissible.

    1. Re:adding: by stinerman · · Score: 1

      That's an interesting idea you've got there.

      Let's say that Costco tried to become an authorized distributor of Omega watches. Omega would certainly demand that anything they bought not be imported into the US or there'd be some sort of price control, etc. They could file suit against Costco for breach of contract if Costco sold them stateside.

      But if Costco got the watches from an authorized distributor and imported and sold them, I don't think the Supremes could rule on copyright infringement.

  77. Illegally as per copyright law by Adrian+Lopez · · Score: 4, Informative

    17 U.S.C. 602(a):

    "Importation into the United States, without the authority of the owner of copyright under this title, of copies ... of a work that have been acquired outside the United States is an infringement of the exclusive right to distribute copies ... under section 106, actionable under section 501."

    It sucks, but it's the law.

    --
    "In prison you just have to shut your eyes and take it. Here you have to shut your eyes and give it."
    1. Re:Illegally as per copyright law by suutar · · Score: 1

      True, but note that the rule being violated is specifically section 106. 602 is essentially a redirect. It doesn't forbid anything itself, it just points to what does forbid the specific act of such importation. And 106 is overruled by 109, except when the items in question were made outside the US and bought outside the US.
      An essential part of the importation being illegal is that 109 doesn't apply.

    2. Re:Illegally as per copyright law by gottabeme · · Score: 1

      Does that mean that if I buy a book or a DVD or a magazine or a CD or ANYTHING overseas and bring it home with me that I'm technically in violation of this law?

      --
      "Those who consume the bulk of goods are those who make them. We must never forget this secret of our prosperity."
    3. Re:Illegally as per copyright law by The+End+Of+Days · · Score: 1

      If only the government would recognize the right of the people to trample copyright protection, trademark protection, and patent protection, then surely we would live in a utopia where everyone gave away everything for free from the kindness of their heart.

    4. Re:Illegally as per copyright law by gl4ss · · Score: 1

      yes, but only if the copyright owner doesn't like you, the opinion of the guy who actually sold it to you doesn't even matter.

      clothes, watches, food.. everything goes under copyright once you print a logo on it, you could apply it to a fancy bag of wheat too(but not to a kilo of wheat, without a bag).

      it's supposed to protect starving artists, but it does no such thing. it's not applied often either, because frankly it's so silly.

      --
      world was created 5 seconds before this post as it is.
    5. Re:Illegally as per copyright law by Mathinker · · Score: 1

      You're hoping for the wrong utopia. You should be hoping for the utopia where people are always willing to pay for things which they value, even if they can obtain them for free (or for a small risk).

      We already live in the reality where everyone has the ability, if not the right, to trample copyright patent protection for private use. This reality isn't going to change (in any society worthy of being called a democracy, of course).

    6. Re:Illegally as per copyright law by Mathinker · · Score: 1

      Wow, thanks for the education.

      I'd been aware that copyright law was really out of sync with common sense, but had missed this whopper of idiocy.

  78. Laptops? by phorm · · Score: 1

    Ummm... but that already applied. I'm in Canada. I once had a laptop produced for the U.S. market (my sister won it for high sales at work, in a U.S. chain that had storefronts in Canada). The warranty for the laptop - as written - applied only to the product within the U.S. That's why there are lots of laptops that have an "international" warranty now, so that if you take your laptop with you overseas and it breaks, it can be fixed in the country you are in. If not, you'll have to find somebody back in your home country to ship the laptop to, and have them handle the warranty work then ship it back to you.

    It's not just the cost/level of support, it's the business presence and shipping costs. Fast-shipping a product replacement/repair from USA->USA is a bit different than from USA->Country X, and I've always just accepted it as such. If I needed an international warranty, I bought a product which stipulated it had one.

    I see no reason why I couldn't resell my laptop from "country X" in the USA or Canada or whatever, so long as I'm not misrepresenting that the warranty applies in my own country, and there's nothing in the product itself that would be illegal in my own country. A bigger issue with that last one might be that different countries have different emissions, toxicity, and other such laws. A wifi card for certain countries may have an output level that's illegal in others, and a cosmetic product may contain levels of materials that aren't legal in some places. The solution I could see for that is that whomever sells it IN the USA had better be sure that it's a legal product for the USA...

  79. No more cheap Canadian Medicine in USA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    If pills made in Canada have copyrighted symbols on them, you can no longer import them into the USA and sell them without the copyright holder's permission. Now Canada's negotiated low drug prices are unavailable to USA buyers. All medicine will now be produced outside the USA.

  80. what about the laws where it's made? by Joe+The+Dragon · · Score: 1

    In EU the laws are better then the USA!

  81. They forget whose backs they stand on... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    The consequence of this of course, will be the same as it always is when the law diminishes the rights of the people in favor of other interests. The people will disregard it. Whether the government reverses itself will depend solely on whether more money comes from oppressing the people (like the war on drugs: private prisons, law enforcement, fines, militarized police departments, permanent state of quasi-war on the lower classes) or not (like prohibition repeal: taxing liquor is easy since it's hard to make your own).

    But that doesn't matter. We've gotten to the point where people are becoming (or long ago became) used to being criminals by default. We simply hide our illicit activities and proceed with our daily lives. The further the state pushes in this direction, the less and less people will respect the righteousness/necessity of the state. And one day, when it needs us desperately, we will not be there. In the words (WAY out of context) of Rorschach:

    "...all the whores and politicians will look up and shout "Save us!"... and [we'll] whisper "no.""

  82. Counterfeit watches by ArbitraryDescriptor · · Score: 0

    Costco obtained watches bearing the copyrighted design from the "gray market"[1] in the following manner: Omega first sold the watches to authorized distributors overseas. Unidentified third parties eventually purchased the watches and sold them to ENE Limited, a New York company, which in turn sold them to Costco.

    Omega claims that the copies of the design were not "lawfully made under [Title 17]" in these circumstances. 17 U.S.C. 109(a).

    Costco bought the watches from a company who can't say where they got them. I believe Omega is using the US copyright on their 'Omega Globe' engraving to try and stop what they believe to be the resale of counterfeit/stolen watches. This would not work for your ASUS example because those motherboards were legally imported.

    1. Re:Counterfeit watches by falconwolf · · Score: 1

      This would not work for your ASUS example because those motherboards were legally imported.

      And these watches weren't legally imported? I bet they were, Omega does not claim the watches are counterfeits.

      Falcon

    2. Re:Counterfeit watches by ArbitraryDescriptor · · Score: 1

      This would not work for your ASUS example because those motherboards were legally imported.

      And these watches weren't legally imported? I bet they were

      The 9th's decision is based on their interpretation that they were not. However, upon a third reading, I think I'm angry again. You are correct in that court allows that these are legit watches. Copyright language is confusing as fuck. I read it as copy cannot be sold in a region it cannot be otherwise purchased. As in, if they aren't selling it in the States yet, you can't either; but if they are: it's fair game. I then assumed that since they were available here, via Omega, all that language about 'grey market' and 'undisclosed 3rd party' was meant to infer counterfeiting.

      Since the only thing protected by copyright here is the little picture on the watch, the 9th's opinion seems to be that art cannot be resold in a country that it was not originally intended for. That's ludicrous.

    3. Re:Counterfeit watches by falconwolf · · Score: 1

      Since the only thing protected by copyright here is the little picture on the watch, the 9th's opinion seems to be that art cannot be resold in a country that it was not originally intended for. That's ludicrous.

      No, what's ludicrous is that those watches are sold in the US but that Costco was selling them for less than Omega wanted them sold for. Costco like Sam's counts on selling at low prices in volumn and for whatever reason Omega doesn't like that. Perhaps it's an elitist mentality? Whether it is or not they're not maximizing profits.

      Falcon

  83. Ideology vs Idiotology by sunsurfandsand · · Score: 1

    Ordinarily, decisions by the Roberts Court are along idealogical lines. "Conservatives" on the court vote as a block, and the "Liberals" vote against them. On hearing the rendered decision, one can usually say, without having to look it up, which justices voted for and against the decision simply by identifying whether the decision pleases "Conservatives" or "Liberals". This decision, however, mystifies me. I cannot guess which justices voted to let the the 9th Circuit's decision stand, and which voted to hear the case and have the opportunity to fix the 9th's mistake. This is therefore a great opportunity to sort out the justices on a criterion other than partisan ideology. I am going to look up who voted each way, and then I'll know which justices are the idiots.

  84. In the end.. more jobs move away by lordmage · · Score: 1

    So a company can now do this:

    Sell in the USA a Widget at 200 dollars. Sell the same Widget in Mexico for 100 dollars. Widget Made in Mexico.

    So Company A does this.
    Company B comes along and buys X number of Widgets in Mexico for 100 dollars, then sells them in US for 150 dollars, 50 dollars cheaper than Company A.
    This is NOW illegal.

    If you MADE the item in the USA, this would not apply and would still be legal... its more incentive for companies to move jobs out of the USA.

    WTG.

    --
    I can program myself out of a Hello World Contest!!
  85. Re:they aren't worried about you, only grey import by rjstanford · · Score: 1

    Sounds like they should stop selling their product cheaply to other distributors then - redress which is completely within their rights and within their abilities.

    --
    You're special forces then? That's great! I just love your olympics!
  86. Because I'm not sure what International law applie by Sycraft-fu · · Score: 1

    Remember that other nations do NOT have the same laws as the US. They have the right to make their own rules. Something that is 100% legal in the US can get you in trouble in another country.

    As a practical matter with a single time they'd never know, but I really don't know the legality of the situation. If you go to another country and the law there is "You buy something, you can't resell it," well then doing so could potentially be violating the law. I doubt they'd charge you and if they did I doubt the US would extradite, but it could be.

    Your individual rights vary per the country you are in. However if you are buying from US stores in the US, then first sale applies since it is all covered by US law.

    If you want some kind of global guarantee, sorry the world doesn't work that way.

  87. Re:they aren't worried about you, only grey import by fantomas · · Score: 1

    I agree. I am not sure how it works. I think though you might find they agree certain prices for certain markets and they don't like it when items get moved between markets.

    When I was in India I noticed that the computer bookshops had local imprints of O'Reilly books for a fraction of the price back home (maybe 10-20% of the cost). They are printed under licence by a local printer and on the back they said 'only for sale in the Indian subcontinent.... illegal for sale outside of these countries.' or something like that. Paper is a bit thinner than the European printing, but the its the same text, same content etc. Naturally on my last day I scooped up an armful of the titles that I'd always quite liked to have a look at but couldn't justify buying and brought them home with me. I think it might be the same situation here.

  88. about 4 months ago.... by n_djinn · · Score: 1

    I had some ebay items removed for "violating" a trademark. They were HK (Heckler & Koch) auto decals that I legally obtained. HK filed a complant with ebay. Pretty lame when you can't sell stuff you bought and own because someone else made it.

    --
    I do not play in the middle of the road
  89. Origin of recusals by Max+Hyre · · Score: 1
    Justice Kagan wasn't recused. She recused herself.

    A vast difference, especially when you check the sorts of cases in which Justices Thomas and Scalia have failed to recuse themselves.

    --
    I refuse to believe corporations are people until Texas executes one. -- desert rain on http://www.dailykos.com/user/
  90. Here you go (energy task force case) by rsborg · · Score: 1

    Took 5 seconds of googling. Here is an analysis of why he should have recused himself rather than writing a poorly reasoned "excuse" to stay on the bench:

    United States Supreme Court Justice Antonin Scalia should be commended for writing an extraordinarily detailed memorandum explaining his reasons for refusing to recuse himself from a case in which his duck hunting partner, Vice President Richard Cheney, is a named party. The Sierra Club alleges in the litigation that energy industry officials were de facto members of the National Energy Policy Development Group (NEPDG), a federal energy task force chaired by Cheney, and that NEPDG’s records and minutes therefore must be made public pursuant to the Federal Advisory Committee Act. The statutory basis for recusal is 28 U.S.C. sec. 455(a), which provides that any judge “shall disqualify himself in any proceeding in which his impartiality might reasonably be questioned.”

    --
    Make sure everyone's vote counts: Verified Voting
  91. forget about watches.... by scharkalvin · · Score: 1

    This will give Nikon, Cannon, etc all the clout they need to prevent places like 47th Street Photo from selling gray market cameras in the US at prices lower than everybody else.

    1. Re:forget about watches.... by russotto · · Score: 1

      This will give Nikon, Cannon, etc all the clout they need to prevent places like 47th Street Photo from selling gray market cameras in the US at prices lower than everybody else.

      47th Street Photo isn't within the jurisdiction of the Ninth Circuit. Most likely they'll try, and it'll end up in the 2nd Circuit, and if the 2nd circuit rules differently, it'll end up back at the Supreme Court, and we'll see what Kagan really thinks.

    2. Re:forget about watches.... by scharkalvin · · Score: 1

      My point was that this whole thing isn't about copyright, that's just the foot in the door. This is about parallel imports, or gray market sales. Nobody here need worry about not being able to resell stuff they have bought from outside the US, that was never the issue.

  92. First, justify 239 bushels extra, by falconwolf · · Score: 1

    nearly equivalent to his allotment, for personal use.

    Chicken feed. There is no law, nor any basis in the Constitution to set a limit on farming chickens.

    Falcon

  93. Read Twain. Twain will save you. by jeko · · Score: 5, Insightful

    If I had the power to destroy one fiendishly wrong-headed notion before I die, the following would be on the short list:

    The justices did what they were supposed to do: Enforce the law as written.

    Sigh. Have you seen the inscriptions over the Court? ""Equal Justice Under Law" coming, "Justice, the Guardian of Liberty" going. Maybe you've seen the statue of the blind-folded chick? Wanna take a guess what her name is?

    The ultimate job of the Court is not just "to follow the rules." A third-grade hall monitor would be sufficient for that. The ultimate job of the Court is to find what is Just. It is the job of a god in the hands of flawed, fallible men. This is the reason why we are supposed to find our nine finest legal minds, our nine wisest elders.

    In our finest legal traditions, we have found that the beginning of Justice, the bare minimum, is to keep the Strong from preying on the Weak, and that is why Dred Scott is such a famously reprehensible decision. We don't condemn the Sharia judges for stoning women to death because they're misapplying the rules. We condemn them for the evil they do by refusing to look beyond the rulebook. The Dred Scott Court cannot excuse themselves by crying "We were just following the rules" any more than other famously evil men can.

    When we put guns in the hands of 18-year-old kids and tell them to go and kill in our name, we give them a warning. If the rules conflict with your conscience, if you do something you know is wrong by following the rules, you will one day be held accountable, and crying "I was just doing what the rules said I should," will not save you.

    The job of the Court is to find Justice as best Humanity can in the year 2010. It is their black-letter job to stand in the gap and say "This rule, written by the Strong to steal from the Weak, is wrong and we will not abide it."

    The Court is supposed to be the Conscience of our Nation, not nine bureaucrats bludgeoning people with the results of lobbies and politics.

    The job of the Dred Scott Court was to keep men free. to be the "Guardians of Liberty" as inscribed, not to safeguard the pocketbooks of their kidnappers and rapists. The Dred Scott judges were not "Bad men, but good judges." They were evil men and bad judges as well.

    --
    He put his boots up on the table and made a face. "The sig," he smirked. "You can waste your life in search of the sig."
    1. Re:Read Twain. Twain will save you. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      so you want 9 people that answer to no body and are in control for their lifetimes to be the ultimate rulers of what we can and can't do in some name of "Justice"? Rather than the hundreds of members of congress that make the laws and are answerable directly to the people through the form of elections. If the Supreme Court makes a judgement that the people don't like, they have simply to lobby their congress members to change the laws or constitution. You seem to recommend that there is no end around of the supreme court by making new laws, they will simply maintain their position and strike down new laws.

      The Supreme Courts real job is to decide on the laws as written and ensure that they don't trample over other constitutionally granted freedoms. Its called checks and balance. Congress makes laws, the Executive branch enforces them and the courts determine if they are just laws. It sounds like your position is equivalent to having no congress at all, the court makes just laws and the Executive office enforces them.

    2. Re:Read Twain. Twain will save you. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The ultimate job of the Court is to find what is Just.

      If this were true, we wouldn't need laws.

    3. Re:Read Twain. Twain will save you. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Men in Black: How the Supreme Court Is Destroying America. Go read it.

      http://www.amazon.com/Men-Black-Supreme-Destroying-America/dp/0895260506

    4. Re:Read Twain. Twain will save you. by Eravau · · Score: 1

      So the laws made by the hundreds of different people we elect to make laws after the will of the people... don't matter. Just the opinion of 9 people who we have no say in at all as a people? I don't think so. It's true that they are there to bring justice... but "justice" is defined by the Constitution (as of primary authority) and the laws that those we elected have enacted (as long as they don't contradict the Constitution). Any other "justice" is out of place.

    5. Re:Read Twain. Twain will save you. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The job of the Court is to find Justice as best Humanity can in the year 2010. It is their black-letter job to stand in the gap and say "This rule, written by the Strong to steal from the Weak, is wrong and we will not abide it."

      No, this is exactly what they are NOT supposed to do. What they ARE supposed to do, is make sure the law falls within the boundaries set forth in the Constitution, and also to resolve situations where the law is in direct conflict with itself.

      The thing you (and many other people) fail to understand about the Dred Scott decision is that they did NOT rule on his status as a slave. They ruled that he did not have citizenship, and thus was not eligible to file a suit based on protections which only applied to citizens.

      This WAS the proper ruling; they were enforcing the laws which were found to be valid under the Constitution. It's not the Court's job to change how the Constitution works, at all.
      And what was the end result of Dred Scott vs. Sanford? Oh, Congress passed the Eighteenth amendment, which makes it so that all people born on US soil are citizens of the US in general even if they are not residents of a specific state. Thus, the Dred Scott decision was overturned by Amendment.

      This is how our government is supposed to work.

    6. Re:Read Twain. Twain will save you. by commodore64_love · · Score: 1

      >>>The ultimate job of the Court is not just "to follow the rules."

      Yes it is. The president Executes the laws. The courts Enforces the rules on a case-by-case basis. ONLY the congress & 50 legislatures are allowed to Make the law. It is NOT the job of judges to be legislators or modify laws. THAT is the job of the People's elected representatives in session.

      "...to presume the Court has power to strike down laws would place us under the despotism of a 9-person Oligarchy. Furthermore they are not subject to the elective control of the People, which makes their unrestrained power all the more dangerous to liberty." - Thomas Jefferson, 1820

      --
      "I disapprove of what you say, but I will defend to the death your right to say it." - historian Evelyn Beatrice Hall
    7. Re:Read Twain. Twain will save you. by Politburo · · Score: 1

      We cannot forget that the FFs were not always in agreement.

      In this instance, Jefferson was in the minority. Judicial review has become a fundamental role of the Court.

    8. Re:Read Twain. Twain will save you. by StikyPad · · Score: 1

      Wanna take a guess what her name is?

      I dunno, but she looks like a Dike.

    9. Re:Read Twain. Twain will save you. by StikyPad · · Score: 1

      It is NOT the job of judges to be legislators or modify laws.

      That's an overly simplistic view. It is the job of the courts to interpret the law, and interpretation may or may not include modification from the original intent because neither English nor any other language can provide a perfect representation of ideas, and because context is important. And context can be anything from surrounding paragraphs to related law and case law and, of course, the circumstances of the case before the court. Immutable law would necessarily require perfect expression of thought, which nobody even pretends exists (except, perhaps, for idealists such as yourself who buy into campaign rhetoric), as well as a perfect body of law designed from the ground-up for consistency and fairness instead of the slipshod, slapped-together, design-by-committee method we currently use. If cars were designed like laws, we'd have the body of a Hummer somehow welded to the chassis of a Model T, and the whole ghastly contraption wouldn't be able to move under its own weight.

  94. Fixed that for ya by Sentrion · · Score: 1

    Just cover the logo with a generic tag. If the buyer removes the tag and exposes the logo, that's their problem.

  95. Re: polygamy? I don't think so..... by macraig · · Score: 2

    Corporations are free to merge with many other corporations, while polygamy is still illegal for 'people' in most states.

    Dude, that ain't polygamy... that's cannibalism.

    (Actually it's usually more like organ theft, since so many "body" parts wind up getting discarded in the process.)

  96. Musopen by tepples · · Score: 1

    I'd be willing to support a model where musicians get good salaries and bonuses, then we all make their recordings public domain --- sort of like government-funded academic research. But I'm not sure who's going to pay for it.

    I supported exactly such a model with $50 three months ago. See a recent story about Musopen.

  97. Copyright as life insurance by tepples · · Score: 1

    In the other direction, if copyright of your work extends to three generations, and you have the opportunity and talent, you can invest twenty years of your life in the holodeck project

    But then you can't draw from other people's work still under copyright because you don't know who currently owns the legal right to sell you a license.

    with the incentive of being able to provide financially not only for your self, but also for your grandchildren.

    If you want life insurance, buy life insurance. Like a good neighbor, State Farm is there. Copyright need not be.

    I'd propose the consolidation of patents, trademarks, copyright and any similar intellectual innovation to a single bill.

    Mr. Stallman would disagree.

    1. Re:Copyright as life insurance by ancientt · · Score: 1

      You make an excellent point with ownership problems. We have that problem now and I don't see a way to resolve it short of changing the law to require copyright to be registered. I think it should have to be registered, but that's not the way it works now.

      I think we agree that a copyright term extending to the grandchildren is too long, but I don't think it can be discounted as an incentive, which was the point I was making. The inventor of the holodeck might be influenced, and unless you are that inventor, you can't promise otherwise. I think that it would be foolish to say that nobody would be interested in passing copyright to their grandchildren, even if you or I might disapprove.

      Thanks for the link, I'd love to use the term GOLEMs if I thought people would recognize the term. I think I understand Stallman's point, but I think that he actually might not disagree with mine, since the examples he cites are legally different, but would all fall in the definition I provided for copyright. (Are you there Stallman? It's me, ancientt.) Of course, my proposed definition isn't how copyright is defined now, nor how patents or trademarks are defined. Suggesting those things shouldn't be as they are legally now is kind of the point of suggesting I would do it that way if I were making the laws.

      --
      B) Eliminate all the stupid users. This is frowned upon by society.
    2. Re:Copyright as life insurance by tepples · · Score: 1
      Under the law as we know it, the differences in scope among copyrights, patents, and trademarks reflect their different purposes. Copyrights and patents exist as incentives intended to benefit an author or inventor; trademarks are closer to consumer protection, letting buyers know who made or endorsed a given good or service. Of the well-known exclusive rights under this banner, only copyright and trade secret care about provenance, requiring access to the original work as an element of infringement; patents and trademarks can be infringed through independent reinvention. Unlike a patent, a copyright has fair use and a wide variety of unregulated uses, and the longer term is thought to compensate for this and for the provenance requirement.

      Of course, my proposed definition isn't how copyright is defined now, nor how patents or trademarks are defined. Suggesting those things shouldn't be as they are legally now is kind of the point of suggesting I would do it that way if I were making the laws.

      I find your ideas intriguing and wish to subscribe to your blog. Have you written up detailed plans as to how you would unify these if you were in charge?

  98. New/Used has nothing to do with it. by marcus · · Score: 4, Informative

    Omega sold that watch to a distributor.

    The distributor sold it to Costco.

    Somewhere along the line it was imported to the US. According to this ruling, any of the purchases/sales along the way from the OEM to your wrist can be forbidden if Omega says so.

    --
    Good judgement comes from experience, and experience comes from bad judgement.
    - W. Wriston, former Citibank CEO
    1. Re:New/Used has nothing to do with it. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Many distributors like WalMart are changing the rules - they are writing contracts such that they never really buy the item (they have it on loan from the manufacturer) until they sell it to you. Meaning that all the inventory doesn't count as company assets, and they aren't out any money until they actually make a sale.

  99. Goods made in the US by nurb432 · · Score: 1

    You mean all 3 of them? This will be overturned as lunacy.

    --
    ---- Booth was a patriot ----
  100. Software by macraig · · Score: 1

    Sorry, but this first-sale-doctrine ship began taking on water decades ago when the absurd concept of a software "license" was allowed to be legally binding.

  101. Then you're in luck! by wholestrawpenny · · Score: 1

    Send your timepieces into Cash4Watch dot com! We'll send you a prepaid envelope, carefully not able to disguise what valuables are inside. Then, once we receive your items (if we even decide to say we received them), we'll likely send you about 10 percent of the market value 6 to 8 weeks later! Try it now! Our business relies on first-time, once-only customers!

  102. Depends what the definition of "it" is by zooblethorpe · · Score: 1

    I don't know, some people just don't seem to 'get it' until enough people have been dicks to them.

    If "it" here means 'syphilis', you might be onto something.

    ( ducks )

    Cheers,

    --
    "What in the name of Fats Waller is that?"
    "A four-foot prune."
  103. It should be goods SOLD overseas by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    The synopsis draws an incorrect conclusion - the actual rule is that the first sale doctrine does not apply to goods first SOLD outside of the US, not manufactured. The Berne Convention, implemented through TRIPS, allows countries to choose how they want to apply exhaustion of rights (first sale), and the Supreme Court first suggested in dicta in the 1998 case Quality King v Lanza, 523 U.S. 135, http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quality_King_v._L%27anza, that this is the rule the US would apply.

    This is such a non-story it is ridiculous. Not only did the ruling not create precedent, but it directly follows what the Supreme Court suggested the law should be 12 years ago.

  104. Because it will do what to costco, by falconwolf · · Score: 1

    harm their trade in used goods?

    You're showing your ignorance. First, the watches are not "used" Neither Costco nor the business Costco bought them from never even opened the packing. And two, no sells mean no money coming in. People shop at Costco, and Sam's Club, because of the cheaper prices they offer. I know, I used to shop at Costco and still shop at Sam's. I was just at Sam's yesterday shopping, and the only reason I shop there is because of the lower prices there. Hell, the fact is is I am on disability and get food stamps so I have to watch my spending, and I'm glad Sam's accepts the food stamps.

    Another thing you've overlooked, or are ignoring, is that it was Costco that was sued not someone else. Of course all that matters to such people is large megacorporations and their political lackeys. If a business is one it is evil.

    What this would really harm is eBay/craigslist/etc. aka the markets for used goods.

    Now you're contradicting yourself. You say Costco is selling used goods but that this will not harm Costco.

    Perhaps you didn't think it through, that you replied on impulse, and if so I hope you actually think it through first next tyme.

    Falcon

  105. slavery in the US by falconwolf · · Score: 1

    At the time it was written, blacks were not considered part of "We the People".

    They were wrong. That doesn’t mean the Constitution was wrong or needed to be changed, only that their interpretation of it was wrong and needed to be changed.

    Some of the Founding Fathers were wrong, though not all, and the Constitution was written the way it was because they wanted it that way. Thomas Jefferson wrote the "Declaration of Independence" and in early drafts he wrote how everybody enjoyed the same rights, including Blacks and women. However some of those who signed the declaration said that they had to be removed otherwise they would not sign it. But as his estate Monticello says:

    "Thomas Jefferson was a consistent opponent of slavery throughout his life.[1] He considered it contrary to the laws of nature that decreed that everyone had a right to personal liberty. He called the institution an 'abominable crime,' 'a moral depravity,' a 'hideous blot,' and a 'fatal stain' that deformed 'what nature had bestowed on us of her fairest gifts.'"

    Falcon

    1. Re:slavery in the US by Politburo · · Score: 1

      Seems Jefferson was just as much a hypocrite as today's politicians. How can one possibly think that the phrase "consistent opponent of slavery" can be synonymous with "slave owner"?

    2. Re:slavery in the US by falconwolf · · Score: 1

      Seems Jefferson was just as much a hypocrite as today's politicians. How can one possibly think that the phrase "consistent opponent of slavery" can be synonymous with "slave owner"?

      That's the way it seems, because as you say Jefferson was a slave owner. However he never bought or sold slaves, the slaves he owned he inherited from his father and his father-in-law. Thomas Jefferson did free some slaves though. He wanted to free them all but was perpetually in financial difficulties and he didn't think he was in a position to free all of his slaves. Thinking about it now I think he underestimated the cost of freeing slaves and overestimated the costs of paying workers a living wage. According to some economic studies I've read or read about many economists believed slavery would have ended without fighting the Civil War because slavery was uneconomical, it cost more to own slaves than pay willing workers a living wage.

      One strike against Jefferson though is that he thought Blacks were inferior to whites.

      Falcon

  106. "Won't be able to serve for years"? by DragonWriter · · Score: 1

    It should be unconstitutional to appoint someone to the Court who won't be able to serve for years

    Assuming that Kagan, as would seem to me to be appropriate, recuses herself from every case in which she, as Solicitor-General, argued or filed a brief on behalf of the U.S. either as a party or as an amicus, that will only affect cases that were already before the Supreme Court at the time she was Solicitor-General.

    The Solicitor-General only represents the U.S. in the Supreme Court.

    The Solicitor-General's office also approves decisions to appeal on behalf of the U.S. from trial court decisions, but doesn't have responsibility for appellate cases at the lower level the way they do for cases before the Supreme Court. Kagan might feel the need to recuse herself from cases that were decided against the U.S. at trial court and for which her office had approved the appeal to the Circuit Court, but wouldn't, as I understand it, have had any direct involvement in cases to which the U.S. was a party or amicus at the appellate level but where the U.S. wasn't the party appealing the trial court decision.

    So there were lots of recusals this term where the cases currently before the Court were ones in which, as S-G, she had argued or filed briefs, and there might be some smaller number in the next few terms for cases where her office had some involvement in approving appeals by the U.S. from trial court decisions. But it is not at all the case that Kagan "won't be able to serve for years".

  107. The constitution permitted slavery by falconwolf · · Score: 1

    What article and section permitted slavery? No matter how many tymes I read and search it I do not find a single reference to "slave" in it. The only way people can get away with saying the constitution permitted it is equating blacks with property. However some Founding Fathers did no such thing.

    Falcon

    1. Re:The constitution permitted slavery by Qzukk · · Score: 1

      The only way people can get away with saying the constitution permitted it is equating blacks with property

      I suppose you're breathing solely because I permit you to do so? Or would you say that perhaps my permission is unnecessary?

      Most appropriately, it would be best phrased that I do not deny you your ability to breathe, and the Constitution did not deny people the ability to own slaves.

      --
      If I have been able to see further than others, it is because I bought a pair of binoculars.
  108. liberalism by falconwolf · · Score: 1

    Even using a liberal interpretation of the Commerce Clause, most federal laws in place today are probably not Constitutionally sound without the Filburn decision.

    Using a liberal interpretation of the Constitution most of what the government does would be unconstitutional. As Thomas Jefferson said "To take a single step beyond the boundaries thus specifically drawn around the powers of Congress is to take possession of a boundless field of power, no longer susceptible of any definition."

    Falcon

  109. polygamy is illegal for 'people' in most states by falconwolf · · Score: 1

    Polygamy has never been legal in any state that I know of. What you are thinking of is not polygamy it is polygyny. In polygamy both males and females can have more than one spouse, what Mormons used to practice, some of it's off-shoots still do, and Muslims practice is polygyny, a man can have more than one wife but a female can only have one husband. And the reverse of that, where women can have more than one spouse is polyandry.

    Falcon

  110. Car Analogy by dduberfourpres · · Score: 1

    Oh wait, don't even need an analogy. Hope you're not buying foreign-made cars, cause once you're done with it... you certainly can't pass it along to your children/family/whatever.

  111. Slashdot, there's a reason I don't pay! by Xtifr · · Score: 1

    If the so-called "editors" can't even begin to get the bare facts straight, it simply takes too freakin' much work to find out what the story actually is. I don't mind stupid people misinterpreting the facts, but I do mind a quasi-reputable site blatantly misrepresenting the facts and confusing the average reader.

    This is a particularly bad example. First of all, the headline implies that this affects overseas, when, in fact, a US Supreme Court decision, pretty much by definition, has no legal impact outside the US. But if that weren't bad enough, it turns out that First Sale is, in fact, tangential (at best) to this issue, and it has absolutely nothing to do with where a good was produced! So what did slashdot get right? Well, the summary suggests that this involved a Supreme Court decision, and that, at least, turns out to be correct. Pretty much everything else was either misleading or flat-out wrong. The Supreme Court failed to overturn a ruling that a purchase is governed by the law of the country where the purchase was made. That's all that happened. Hardly earth-shattering. The First Sale doctrine still applies to all goods legitimately purchased in the US, regardless of their country of origin.

    Slashdot has enough interesting links that I keep coming back, and I don't even bother to block their ads, but as long as the quality of the "editing" remains this low, there is absolutely nothing that will persuade me to buy a membership. What, you want me to reward incompetence? Dream on!

  112. Copyright duration is 70 years after by Nicolas+MONNET · · Score: 1

    the death of the author at most.

    The Omega logo is over 2500 years old.

  113. Fair Use by American+Patent+Guy · · Score: 1

    There is always the fair use doctrine. Perhaps the Costco lawyers forgot about that one. The fair use doctrine allows the owner certain uses of the copyrighted product. It seems to me that a sale of a product where the only copyrights are in an applied logo is a fair use.

  114. Simple resoultion by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    All we need to do is refuse to buy any products from any entity that uses this decision to effect us in any way. Pass it on to any and all who will listen. Eventually The company will realize the fault of their decision when they stop seeing any profits from the U.S. and realize that their outdated views on ownership are flawed. However, i think it needs to be said that this is the basically the same decision currently being enforced by the DMCA, as we are prohibited from "using" anything protected under the DMCA for anything other than what the owner states we can use it for. It also applies to software now, if you look at Windows license (for current versions), the wording has been changed so that we are no longer buying the software, instead we are now leasing the software, this amounts to about the same thing. My personal option is that you should be entitled to compensation only once for something made only once. EG, you make only one copy you should be entitled to payment only once for that copy. I personally find the who idea of patents to be stupid as well, where you get paid continually for just coming up with an idea, you don't even need to get it working you just need to write it up and patent it. It feels as though the system is protecting the rich more and more, and those who are not rich just have to live underfoot of the rich. It's when we the people as a whole decide to make a major impact that this flawed system, based on rules that benefit the rich only will change.

  115. Of course it does by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Omega will give permission for all of those sales up to the point where the watch is bought at retail. After that, no more selling it. Anyone else who wants one has to buy from a seller Omega approves (i.e. not the consumer who wants to offload his watch). They won't stop the wholesaler/retailer since they know they rely on them to make money off of their watches.

    1. Re:Of course it does by cduffy · · Score: 1

      Omega will give permission for all of those sales up to the point where the watch is bought at retail.

      But they didn't! The entire reason this case got started is that Omega objected to Costco selling their watches at too low a price.

  116. No by gottabeme · · Score: 1

    No, that's useful, limited, tangible, inhabitable property.

    Don't compare it to intellectual "property." You're doing us all a disservice by doing so.

    Not to mention the idea of adding some kind of federal IP/copyright tax. And you thought the IRS was a big mess?

    Please don't ever run for office. :/

    --
    "Those who consume the bulk of goods are those who make them. We must never forget this secret of our prosperity."
  117. judge cases by nten · · Score: 1

    The judiciary is supposed to judge cases, plane and simple. There is nothing in article 3 that says they have to rule with the law, there is also nothing giving them the power to rule anything unconstitutional. The idea that we as citizens should let a judge sit that rules contrary to the law is as insane as the idea that we allow a president to sit that violates the judiciaries interpretation of the constitution. If the law says something clearly, and they ignore it, we should press our elected legislators to remove them by the methods set aside for that purpose in the same article. Where the law is less clear, or clear, but a significant portion of the population *choose* to misinterpret it, there is a bit of a problem. Deciding who and what qualify as "people" is a great example. Slaves and fetuses have both fallen into that category, hopefully someday we will have to answer the same question about AI. As a developer when there is an unclear requirement, I don't just interpret it how I want, I get the writer to clarify it. It seems that would be a better way to solve such problems. The judiciary can force an emergency session of the legislature until the law is suitably unambiguous (how that is judged is a whole separate can of worms).

    --
    refactor the law, its bloated, confusing and unmaintainable.
    1. Re:judge cases by molog · · Score: 1

      Are you kidding me? Judges are not supposed to rule on the constitutionally of a law? They are the last line of defense against laws which run contrary to, and destroy the rights and liberties defined in the constitution. So if the Congress passed a law, which the President signed, which stated that freedom of speech were officially abolished, the Supreme Court couldn't rule on its constitutionality? You're kidding? Please, please, please tell me you're kidding. If you are not joking, then is the only way to overturn an unjust law revolution?

      Molog

      --
      So Linus, what are we going to do tonight?
      The same thing we do every night Tux. Try to take over the world!
  118. Because they have more money than you. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Duh!

  119. Same for Patents by Oxford_Comma_Lover · · Score: 1

    > That is the most absurd and arbitrary distinction I've ever heard.

    You haven't read a lot of court cases, have you? :)

    Interestingly, patent law also has a first sale doctrine that applies to patented articles first sold in the United States.

    --
    -- IANAL, this isn't legal advice, and definitely isn't legal advice for you. Also, Squee!
  120. Dred Scott decided wrongly by Oxford_Comma_Lover · · Score: 1

    > Dred Scott may have been an immoral ruling, but it was also legally correct. Under the Union Constitution, each member state had freedom to decide if blacks were Citizens or Property. The justices did what they were supposed to do: Enforce the law as written. It was upto the Congress/States to change the law (via amendment) not the courts.

    That's a very tenuous claim. Dred Scott decided that blacks, even if they were citizens of a state, could never be citizens of the United States.

    The Constitution certainly didn't say that, so it was decidedly *not* the law as written. At best, it was an original understanding of the law, but even that is questionable. Keep in mind that when the Constitution was drafted, there was not an agreement on slavery. Everyone was worried about it, nobody agreed on what to do with it, and basically all they did was agreed to disagree for a few decades. That left a lot of ambiguity in the document.

    But once SCOTUS decided Dred Scott was the law anyway, it took the civil war and the post-reconstruction amendments to overturn it.

    Wickard's foundation was, while not remotely tenable under an "as written standard," one of those things that happens when you let nine justices with liberal arts degrees rationalize something with logic: a person's growth of food, even if it never enters commerce, impacts commerce because he's no longer buying someone else's food. That is theoretically possible, but it was nevertheless an insane decision.

    --
    -- IANAL, this isn't legal advice, and definitely isn't legal advice for you. Also, Squee!
  121. Thus by Trikenstein · · Score: 1

    begins another migration

  122. Rip off americans by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    It means that they sell stuff cheap around the world but really enjoy overcharging americans for it. And they don't want someone to buy them from them cheap in another region and bring them to the USA to sell cheap. Then they would not be able to rip off americans. So the court has decided that they have every right to rip off americans.

  123. This Destroys eBay's Business Model by Zamphatta · · Score: 1

    If this is accurate, it means eBay is going to get sued by every company that wants to make a quick buck. They'll be toast quicker than a p2p music sharer. In fact, this means all auctions will be selling a lot of property illegally, and will be shut down or go out of business. If I want to sell something that I bought which someone else made, does this mean I have to get written permission first and supply it to the auctioneer or pawnshop, etc? This sounds pretty bad for the economy when I think about it...

  124. Re:Bad Summary -- It's much worse than you think by DrJimbo · · Score: 1
    It is worse than you think. I live in the US and I've bought many copyrighted works from over-seas. Sometimes dvds or books I'm interested in aren't released in the US until months or years after they are released elsewhere. Just take a look at eBay or the Amazon marketplace. This ruling makes such purchases illegal. It doesn't just eliminate the first sale doctrine for importers, it eliminates it for individuals as well. It's crazy. We clearly have a government that is of the corporations, by the corporations, and for the corporations.

    What's even worse is the tortuous logic that led to this ruling. The ruling says that the phrase lawfully made under this title actually means lawfully made in the United States. They are saying the US Congress intended the first sale doctrine to only apply to goods manufactured in the US. The obvious intent of the phrase lawfully made under this title was to exclude pirated and bootlegged copies from the protection of the first sale doctrine. It is mind boggling that the US Government would try to twist words around like this in order to so blatantly favor multinational corporations at the expense of US citizens and publishers.

    As long as they don't manufacturer copyrighted goods in the US then corporations are allowed to set one price for the US and different prices for the rest of the world. On the other hand, if they do manufacture their goods in the US then the first sale doctrine applies and other people can legally import the cheaper copies of the same goods to the US, thus leveling the prices. This is an overwhelming incentive for all companies to move all their manufacturing of copyrighted goods out of the US ASAP. It's ridiculous to even imagine that this was the intent of Congress when they wrote the law in question. IMO this ruling borders on being treasonous.

    --
    We don't see the world as it is, we see it as we are.
    -- Anais Nin
  125. Observations by The+End+Of+Days · · Score: 1

    I find it telling that unless the issue presented before Slashdot is purely technical in nature, it is basically a given that the comments will be knee-jerk populist and entirely misinformed.

  126. Re:Supreme Court makes wrong decision, What next? by glodime · · Score: 1

    Convince Congress or 2/3 of the States to change the laws, or live with it. In this case you may be able to bring another, similar case to get a definitive ruling since the court was split 4-4. Changing anything is a long shot if you don't have a lot of money to spend on the issue.

  127. +1 Clear and correct summary by glodime · · Score: 1

    +1 Clear and correct summary of the ruling with a useful illustration of what the ruling prevents Costco or anyone from doing whenever a manufacturer asserts their legal copyright in the US.

    Bottom line: copyright law is a larger dead weight net loss to society than it was before today.

  128. Re:but what about the store / supplies that firest by asdf7890 · · Score: 1

    Contractually speaking they do not buy the item. They hold it in stock so somebody else can actually buy it.

  129. What part of the word "property" ... by Ihlosi · · Score: 1

    ... do the judges of the Supreme Court have a problem with?

  130. That Ayrabhammerer dude by Hognoxious · · Score: 1

    Laws that can be broken are not laws.

    So there's no law against murder, because it actually is possible to murder people?

    We don't call them the laws of thermodynamics because well behaved matter and energy choose to follow them.

    Nobody claimed they did. As you're clearly not a native speaker, let me point out that in English words can have different meanings - and different shades of meaning - depending on the context.

    I think you'll find that the laws of the type "thou shalt not ... or else" were around long before the type you're talking about were formulated.

    --
    Confucius say, "Find worm in apple - bad. Find half a worm - worse."
  131. The importation is not illegal in this case by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    The importation is not illegal in this case. It was sold to the customer, the customer came in to the US and this is legal.

    Just like it's legal to offshore call centre jobs or manufacturing (which would, if your assertion about illegal importing were right, would be illegal importing of jobs to another country).

  132. Re:they aren't worried about you, only grey import by rjstanford · · Score: 1

    ...[T]hey don't like it when items get moved between markets.

    This is very true. It begs the question though as to whether its in the best interest of the citizens of the United States for our country to allow the preference of a foreign corporation to make lots of money to become binding law that affects the residents of this country?

    Heck, I don't like it when people get better deals than I want them to do when I sell stuff on Craigslist. That doesn't mean that the US should enforce my pricing scheme.

    --
    You're special forces then? That's great! I just love your olympics!
  133. Enforcement? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    And just how the fuck do they expect to enforce this?

  134. But you keep saying it's not yours by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    we just need to stand up and kill the top 3% of the people running the planet that have these stupid ideas.

    Maybe we will get to that point, but before so suddenly escalating the situation line that, how about we first voice our disapproval? And I mean voice it in a way other than flaming on Slashdot, like, oh say, voting against it. In USA, the pro-DMCA parties got 100% of the vote in the last election. Were the people to gradually start to show disapproval of DMCA, by say, only voting for its supporters 90% of the time, then 80%, etc there would be no reason to kill anyone.

    I think it's actually pretty slimy for you to suggest they be killed, when the last thing they heard from us, was that we overwhelmingly approve of what they're doing. There's just something .. I dunno .. dishonorable about that. If at least you had complained to them first, then you could say they ignored your warnings and deserve to reap the consequences. But if you tell them that you strongly disagree with the idea that "my shit is my shit" and then less than one election cycle later you're saying "my shit is my shit" and waving a gun around, I think that makes you the bad guy.

    Or to put it another way, we're at the soapbox stage, trying to get to the ballot box stage. You're reaching for the ammo box without ever using the ballot box. That's not a responsible way to act.

  135. Levi v Tesco by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    This is similar to the Levi versus Tesco case in Europe.

    http://www.lawdit.co.uk/reading_room/room/view_article.asp?name=../articles/Levis+vs+Tesco.htm
    http://www.out-law.com/page-2814

  136. Sarcasm. by FatSean · · Score: 1

    I used it. Also, nationalism is for tools. Citizenship is a business relationship.

    --
    Blar.
  137. Laws are Legal. by FatSean · · Score: 1

    So...I was born in this society, born a citizen who has fewer rights than other citizens. I'm supposed to just accept it, try to change the system using means acceptable by the society (!), or leave?

    Ha! The people who have the upper hand in a society always try pulling that one over on you.

    --
    Blar.
    1. Re:Laws are Legal. by Golddess · · Score: 1

      Never said you should just accept it, just don't be surprised when they come to punish you for breaking their laws.

      --
      "I'm not sure I like the fugnutish tone you used in your post!" -RogL (608926)-
  138. "Honor" by FatSean · · Score: 1

    Another arbitrary tool used by a majority to define what the majority likes as good. It's useful for getting suckers to die for the government, however.

    --
    Blar.
    1. Re:"Honor" by lgw · · Score: 1

      No, not at all: a man that cannot keep a solemn promise (or who welshes on contracts, or similar) is fairly useless to society, as you need to be able to count on your neighbors in order to move past the most primitive state.

      --
      Socialism: a lie told by totalitarians and believed by fools.
    2. Re:"Honor" by FatSean · · Score: 1

      Honor is relative. Manning made an oath, and then found that it was predicated on un-truth perpetrated by the military. In that case I think it's a judgement call, not some simplistic "He gave his word, he broke it, he bad" kind of thing.

      --
      Blar.
  139. Re:Because I'm not sure what International law app by Rakarra · · Score: 1

    Remember that other nations do NOT have the same laws as the US. They have the right to make their own rules. Something that is 100% legal in the US can get you in trouble in another country.

    True, but this this has little bearing to getting in trouble in other countries, it's whether you're violating US law when you resell inside the United States.

  140. If anyone mods this "troll" by jeko · · Score: 1

    ... I will personally hunt them down and beat them to death with a Classics textbook. :-)

    --
    He put his boots up on the table and made a face. "The sig," he smirked. "You can waste your life in search of the sig."
    1. Re:If anyone mods this "troll" by StikyPad · · Score: 1

      Thanks... at least someone got it. ;)

  141. OK, Sam, on this week's episode of "Quantum Leap" by jeko · · Score: 1

    ...You find yourself Chief Justice of the Dred Scott Court. Go ahead. Make that call. Enforce a law you know to be morally repugnant. Put that man back in chains, shred that family, damn an entire ethnic group to torture, rape and slavery for as long as you can foresee.

    Are you seriously telling me you can sleep at night telling yourself, "I didn't write the law, I just enforced it as written?"

    If you can, are you by any chance posting from Argentina?

    --
    He put his boots up on the table and made a face. "The sig," he smirked. "You can waste your life in search of the sig."
  142. your royalties are built in to your salary / wage by PoolOfThought · · Score: 1

    "I don't get paid for work I did two decades ago. Why should you?"

    A possible response: "Because work that I did two decades ago is still valued and in demand, while nobody cares what you did yesterday."

    Many people care if they can get to the websites they want. Yesterday I fixed a problem that if left unchecked, today would be preventing people from getting the data that they "demand".

    Perhaps my employer owes me royalties for each 'user' of the newly installed hardware.

    Since you are a person who chooses to describe what they do as "fighting fires" then I am fairly confident that there are probably long stretches of time, perhaps full days, in which you sit around and do nothing, but spend the entire day on slashdot. You can do this because things are working well where you are... perhaps even through some fault of your own. Maybe you just shouldn't get paid for that easy time. You really aren't producting anything of value today. The fact that you don't get canned everytime there is nothing to do should clue you in to the fact that your royalties are built in to your salary / wage. The author gets paid only if they produce something of value and only for however long it maintains value... and only during the time period it is viewed as valuable. You, on the other hand, get paid only as long as you continue to convince your employer that you bring something of value (or will do so in a short enough time in the future for them to pay you during the "downtime"). Again, your royalties are built into your wage.

    --
    My present is the activity I am currently engaged in with the purpose of turning the future into a better past.
  143. Re: polygamy? I don't think so..... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    I was one of those discarded body parts. I got laid off after a merger. It made me so mad that I went postal. Now I deliver mail to my own house.

  144. It violates US law. by yakovlev · · Score: 1

    While I don't like it, US law says that importation constitutes distribution, which is an exclusive right of the copyright holder which can only be exercised with their permission.

    First sale doctrine says that the copyright holder gives up their distribution rights to a particular copy when they "lawfully make" or sell that copy.

    What the Ninth circuit decided was that the importation restriction would be meaningless if the first sale doctrine trumps the importation restriction when the sale occurred in a foreign country, and the good was also manufactured in a foreign country. They actually relied almost completely on existing Ninth circuit precedent to make this determination.

    Swiss law can't control importation into the US, only exportation from Switzerland, so it would have to be US law being violated here.

  145. You're right by yakovlev · · Score: 1

    This is the biggest problem with this definitely unclear area of the law.

    There's no difference under the law between a large reseller buying in a foreign country and importing into the US, and a private citizen doing the same thing.

    The problem is, for a large reseller this decision is at least somewhat reasonable. For a private citizen, this is ridiculous. It requires a private citizen to receive permission FROM THE COPYRIGHT HOLDER to import any item subject to copyright into the US. Thus, this effectively makes it illegal for a private citizen to import anything manufactured and purchased in a foreign country into the US, which I don't believe was the intention. This is even true if the foreign country has a first sale doctrine similar to that of the US.

    Unfortunately, there isn't an obvious legal alternative, which is the really scary part. Who determines "Lawful copy?" Does a US court have to interpret the laws of a foreign country to determine if the copy was made lawfully there? Alternatively, does the court have to apply US law to copies made in a foreign country? What if the copy was lawfully made in the foreign country, but the copy would not have been legal in the US? What if it would have been legal in the US but was illegal in the foreign country?

    One possible way to handle this is through a series of treaties and implementing laws that would effectively cause first sale in a foreign country to create a "first sale" in the US, with some reasonable way of ensuring that the proper courts determine legality of manufacture. However, I wouldn't want the same people writing ACTA to be writing that treaty.

    Another possible solution would be to restrict first sale of foreign goods to only apply to copes sold by the copyright holder or made with the copyright holder's permission and sold. This would specifically exclude "lawfully made" copies that were made without the copyright holder's permission, but would cover most of the cases that we're really worried about here. Also, I think the excluded copies are what congress was really trying to restrict when they created the import restriction anyway.

  146. marbury vs madison by nten · · Score: 1

    In marbury vs madison the supreme court ruled that the supreme court had the power of judicial review and could rule a law unconstitutional. That is kind of odd that they would grant themselves power like that, but it had been discussed at the time the constitution was written, with both proponents and detractors. As written however the constitution left both judicial review and the extent to which judges were constrained by the law vague. However, if the supreme court decides a law is unconstitutional, they probably won't find you guilty of violating it whether or not the legislators agree to strike it from the body of law. They did provide a way for congress to depose a judge that was perceived to be overstepping their bounds though, so it could have gone the other way with legislators angry that their law had been struck down, removing all the offending justices. Perhaps what kept them from doing so is their constituency.

    --
    refactor the law, its bloated, confusing and unmaintainable.
    1. Re:marbury vs madison by molog · · Score: 1

      I must say, I strongly favor the check and balance of a high court which can strike down a law. If that is not in the constitution then we need an amendment specifically granting the high court that authority.

      --
      So Linus, what are we going to do tonight?
      The same thing we do every night Tux. Try to take over the world!
  147. Re:First sale doctrine FDR on Constitution before by Transaction7 · · Score: 1

    Excellent research. Unfortunately, the suppposedly conservativer Rehnquist court, and the "conservtive" Justices thereupon, reaffirmed Wickard v. Filburn in the Raich case dealing wiht California marijuana laws, after two cases where they said the federal Congress had overstepped its bounds. Even Bork has written that there probably is nothing the Court will not allow the federal govenrment to do now. They cqan use the so-called "butterfly effect" theory, too, to reach anything, and the liberal five recently cited their own subjective personal feelings as the ultimate source of Constitutional law, overriding text, original intent, or any other principled theory. It would take a new set of Constitutional amendments to get back toward, not to, anything like the original intent accepted across the board until the infamouis "switch in time that saved nine" in 197 thaqt relied solely upon one brief passage by Hamilton out of context and not one prior opinion of the Court which, in order to uphold Social Security, etc., converted us from a federal government of defined and limited functions and powers to one of virtually unlimited and undefined powers, ie. a dictatorship. At the samde time, a recent U. S. Court of Appeals case has struck down Title II of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) as unconstitutional because some big campaign contributors don't like it and not all the infinite variety of unfair discrimination by states under it were described and documented within the text of the law, always an impossible process. So a small family farm can be regimented but not a big company or arm of government. Go figure.

  148. Honor is relative. by FatSean · · Score: 1

    An oath sworn to a dishonest man or organization can often be discarded. Manning got in, saw that things in the military weren't as they were described when he signed the contract...

    --
    Blar.