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There Are Infinitely Many Prime Twins

fustflum writes "R. F. Arenstorf from Vanderbilt University has presented a 38-page possible proof of the twin-prime conjecture using methods from classical analytic number theory. The paper is on arxiv.org and is freely available to the public. Twin primes are pairs of primes where both p and p + 2 are prime. "It is conjectured that there are an infinite number of twin primes ... but proving this remains one of the most elusive open problems in number theory." More information about twin primes can be found on Mathworld."

479 comments

  1. Number theory by PHP+Wolf · · Score: 5, Funny
    but proving this remains one of the most elusive open problems in number theory

    I think we all know the most elusive open problem in number theory is "How many licks does it take to get to the center of a tootsie pop?"

    --

    Double Compile

    1. Re:Number theory by Lord+Kano · · Score: 0, Offtopic

      I think we all know the most elusive open problem in number theory is "How many licks does it take to get to the center of a tootsie pop?

      Three. Dumbass. They solved that one when I was a kid.

      LK

      --
      "Hi. This is my friend, Jack Shit, and you don't know him." - Lord Kano
    2. Re:Number theory by DarkHelmet · · Score: 3, Funny

      Let's leave the proof to Physics:

      One... two... three... *BITE*

      ............Three.

      --
      /^[A-Z0-9._%+-]+@[A-Z0-9.-]+\.[A-Z]{2,4}$/i
    3. Re:Number theory by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Let's leave the proof to Physics

      Obviously, since physicists can make complete make sense of things

    4. Re:Number theory by Da+Fokka · · Score: 5, Funny

      Reminds me of a funny story I heard at an algorithm course in college.
      Supposedly this guy thought up this new algorithm to calculate large primes in relatively short time. He was granted the use of the university mainframe. He implemented the progam and ran it.
      After a couple of days the printer started printing out the number, which was so large it needed a pack of sheets to fit on.
      Excited, he looked at the sheets to be gravely disappointed. The last digit was an 8.

      Probably an urban legend, but a nice one for sure :)

    5. Re:Number theory by Kjella · · Score: 0

      "How many licks does it take to get to the center of a tootsie pop?"

      42. Oh, wait that's the answer. The question is supposed to be the most elusive open problem. *has a feeling he just made the world an even more bizarre place* ;)

      Kjella

      --
      Live today, because you never know what tomorrow brings
    6. Re:Number theory by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Nice try but waaaay to obvious. I've seen European schoolgirls doing better trolls. No go fuck yourself, Usian trailer trash dumbfuck.

    7. Re:Number theory by fingerfucker · · Score: 1, Insightful

      How is this funny!!?

      If no one had confidence in theories, if no one thought it is worthwhile to risk resources to find out something new, we would be living in a pretty fscked up world, don't you think? Isn't that what the essence of 'investment' in research is about?

      Instead of a "funny story" or an "urban legend", your story is more like that commercial for Geico where a lawyer taps a prisoner on the shoulder saying "I've got good news." When the prisoner turns to the lawyer with a question full of hopefeul expectation (because the lawyer is the only one who he has at least moderate trust in to get him out of there), he gets an idiotic American smile #6 from him with "I just saved myself a bunch of money by switching to Geico."


    8. Re:Number theory by drinkypoo · · Score: 2, Funny
      It probably did happen, but he wrote the bytes out to the file in endian-order a word at a time rather than using sequential bytes, and the last two digits were transposed...

      A story like that can never be true unless it is ultimately cruel.

      --
      "You're right," Fisheye says. "I should have set it on 'whip' or 'chop.'"
    9. Re:Number theory by drinkypoo · · Score: 4, Funny
      By making what has to be approximately the eleventy-teenth reference to the HHGttG you have only made slashdot a more trite place.

      Put another way, you have entirely failed to receive a wrapper depicting an indian shooting a star.

      --
      "You're right," Fisheye says. "I should have set it on 'whip' or 'chop.'"
    10. Re:Number theory by Deraj+DeZine · · Score: 1

      Please never speak of that company. As long as their advertising works, they're going to keep bombarding us with the worst commercials known to man.

      --
      True story.
    11. Re:Number theory by strictnein · · Score: 1

      he gets an idiotic American smile #6

      American smile? Wow... add another way to attack America... you can now attack our smiles. Strange... very strange.

    12. Re:Number theory by MikeXpop · · Score: 1

      144

      For anyone wondering, I had to do a powerpoint presentation on owls and I threw the commercial in there and happened upon that site. So there's your answer.

      --
      Etiquette is etiquette. He kills his mother but he can't wear grey trousers.
    13. Re:Number theory by shadowbearer · · Score: 1

      you have only made slashdot a more trite place.

      Score +1, Redundant :)

      SB

      --
      It's old. The more humans I meet, the more I like my cats. At least they are honest.
    14. Re:Number theory by sbaker · · Score: 3, Interesting

      My son figured this out - with the help of some Lego - the answer is 332 (except for the Cherry ones that take a few less):

      http://www.sjbaker.org/gallery/lickomatic/index.ht ml

      --
      www.sjbaker.org
    15. Re:Number theory by TheoMurpse · · Score: 1

      thank you, Mr. Owl

    16. Re:Number theory by yerfatma · · Score: 1

      Where can I see these European schoolgirls doing whatever it is they do? And why the hell are you posting about it instead of watching?

    17. Re:Number theory by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Further evidence that Americans don't know how to count. World War 2 ended 59 years ago.

    18. Re:Number theory by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      This is the weekend where we celabrate saving you sick fuck Euro-weanies from yourselves 50 years ago.

      Oh, well done. Except, of course, that America actually made the war a lot worse by staying out so long, and spent longer appeasing Hitler and selling arms and supplies to Germany than any other allied nation. Meanwhile the war was actually won by the Red Army, who sustained losses that make the death toll you're remembering this weekend look pathetic by comparison, and defeated all Hitler's crack troops, thereby softening up the German forces ready for D-Day.

      Sorry, but I'll be toasting Soviet Russia before I toast the US of A.

    19. Re:Number theory by DuckDodgers · · Score: 1

      First, a debt owed 50 years from France and England from 60 years ago is as irrelevant as the one Germany owes all three.

      But that said, remember that France and England let the Nazies grow to power and violate the terms of the treaties after WWI, take Austria, and conquer Poland without doing anything. They didn't get involved until they were attacked directly, which puts them on moral ground no higher than the US.

      Remember too that the US was in a two-front war, and things might have been substantially different in Europe if the Japanese weren't involved.

      You are right, though, that well over half the German soldiers killed in the war died fighting Soviet troops.

    20. Re:Number theory by Dick+Faze · · Score: 1

      Let him go. We invented Cars, Planes, telecommunications and the Internet, etc., against whom should he direct his jealous rage on a rainy afternoon?

    21. Re:Number theory by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Unfortunately, someone discovered an error:
      http://listserv.nodak.edu/scripts/wa.exe?A 2=ind040 6&L=nmbrthry&P=1119

      And the paper was withdrawn:
      http://arxiv.org/abs/math.NT/0405509v2

      Since the corresponding harmonic series is 2:
      http://mathworld.wolfram.com/BrunsConstant.htm l

      Perhaps the old fox will prove that it's unprovable:
      http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Godel's_ incompletenes s_theorem

      *unregistered_Pi

  2. One smart dude by overbyj · · Score: 4, Informative

    I was a grad student at Vanderbilt in a different department but I had some friends in math that really knew this guy. Needless to say, this guy is brilliant. I don't really know much about his work but honestly, I am surprised it took him as long as it did to do this.

    Score another for number theory thanks to this dude.

    --
    No trees were harmed in the composition of this; however, numerous electrons were inconvenienced.
    1. Re:One smart dude by fatphil · · Score: 5, Insightful

      Slow down!
      It's not been reviewed yet.

      I'm waiting until Granville, Odlyzko, Mihailescu, or someone similar gives it the thumbs up.
      However, it's not obvious tosh, and therefore if it does have flaws it may well be correctible, or at least provide new insight.

      The guy certainly _was_ brilliant, but given that he started his peak in the mid-60s, there's no guarantee he's still at it.

      FP.

      --
      Also FatPhil on SoylentNews, id 863
    2. Re:One smart dude by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      is he as smart as good will hunting?

    3. Re:One smart dude by Tatarize · · Score: 1

      Review data? We are computer scientists, anybody says anything it's automaticly true, and if it isn't it will be, or well be so old nobody cares anymore. That's the kind of logic that would say you should diagram out a program before starting to code. Also, why is it that a proof isn't a proof unless it's been reviewed a few times. That distiction has always puzzled me. There's no defined logic that could just be checked out to certify a proof as valid. It has to be checked a few times by a few folks who go, wow nifty.

      --

      It is no longer uncommon to be uncommon.
    4. Re:One smart dude by BarryNorton · · Score: 1

      I'm sorry, but I'd like to venture that there very likely is a logic that would lead to a mechanised proof and, what's more (I'm not sure what community you're talking about - Software Engineers?), we Computer Scientists shouldn't accept a theorem until it is so proven. Long live type theory!

    5. Re:One smart dude by PDAllen · · Score: 3, Insightful

      It's quite easy to write a program that will verify any proof written out in formal logic.
      The problem is that to write out any proof that isn't really obvious anyway in formal logic requires huge amounts of time and space (think 3000+ pages rather than 38, mainly proving the equivalent of 2+2=4).
      There are a few people trying to produce a language for mathematics that a computer can understand and check which isn't quite so completely painful and allows you to quote theorems; but they're still quite messy and most of the theorems you might want to use haven't been included yet.
      So people go for the time-honoured method of writing proofs in a way that makes sense to a human, and then having people check the logic by hand. Then you need someone who works in the same field to verify it, because people working in different fields won't know the theorems and would have to spend a year or so learning the background.
      The reason people don't want to assume something is true until it's been checked is that if you assume that X's proof of a theorem is valid, and you then produce a 200-page proof of the Riemann Hypothesis which assumes the theorem X said he'd proved, then someone checks X's proof and finds a mistake, your proof also collapses.

    6. Re:One smart dude by DuckDodgers · · Score: 1

      Agreed. A college friend mine did his senior thesis on a program that could verify proofs using only two axioms and three transformations that were very simple.

      It was a lot of work, despite the absurdly simple proofs it was checking.

    7. Re:One smart dude by SporkLand · · Score: 1

      As long as your theorem is not one of the ones that may not be provable under Godel's incompleteness theorem.

  3. This is why mathematicians are soooo popular. by The+I+Shing · · Score: 3, Funny

    This stuff is so fascinating that I'm just sure I'll be the life of the party when I start talking about it!

    "You know, mathematicians theorize that there's an infinite number of prime twins, and... hey, where are you going?"

    --
    You are in error. No-one is screaming. Thank you for your cooperation.
    1. Re:This is why mathematicians are soooo popular. by servognome · · Score: 5, Funny

      "You know, mathematicians theorize that there's an infinite number of prime twins, and... hey, where are you going?"
      You would have gotten farther if you had said that without staring the whole time at her "prime twins"

      --
      D6 63 0D 70 89 81 BB 8E 7B 7C 5F 5D 54 EA AB 73
    2. Re:This is why mathematicians are soooo popular. by Geoffreyerffoeg · · Score: 1

      Of course, the obligatory standard defense goes something like it's about as useful as E=mc^2. Terribly useless for the average Joe, terribly useful for some upcoming unknown technological application, or a math/science discovery that depends on this proof that paves the way for said application.

    3. Re:This is why mathematicians are soooo popular. by The+I+Shing · · Score: 1

      Of course, the obligatory standard defense goes something like it's about as useful as E=mc^2. Terribly useless for the average Joe, terribly useful for some upcoming unknown technological application, or a math/science discovery that depends on this proof that paves the way for said application.

      And he's single ladies!

      --
      You are in error. No-one is screaming. Thank you for your cooperation.
    4. Re:This is why mathematicians are soooo popular. by Geoffreyerffoeg · · Score: 0

      Do I care?

      Your ad hominem raises an important point. There're two ways to be useful to te species. One is to produce more lives. The other is to make others' lives somehow better so others can produce more lives. I choose the latter.

    5. Re:This is why mathematicians are soooo popular. by hcg50a · · Score: 1

      Reminds me of a joke:

      Q: What's the difference between an actuary and an accountant?

      A: An actuary has a personality.

      --
      HCG 50a = 2MASX J11170638+5455016
      11h17m06.4s +54d55m02s
    6. Re:This is why mathematicians are soooo popular. by jrockway · · Score: 1

      You don't have to pick just one, though. Haven't you ever tried to find the taylor polynomial expansion of your girlfriend!?!?!

      The next time you're in bed with her, preform a Laplace (Petzval) transform on her! Fucking in L-space is fun!

      Okay. This post clarifies why I will never have children :)

      --
      My other car is first.
    7. Re:This is why mathematicians are soooo popular. by nyseal · · Score: 1

      Unless the person you're speaking to (especially a woman) is a math major or PhD...then maybe you'd finally score. It's not like the majority of the Slashdot crowd hangs out with Buttstreet Boys fans or crack addicts......or do we? OOPS

      --
      [SIG] Remember Mattel handheld games?
    8. Re:This is why mathematicians are soooo popular. by The+I+Shing · · Score: 1

      Your ad hominem raises an important point. There're two ways to be useful to te species. One is to produce more lives. The other is to make others' lives somehow better so others can produce more lives. I choose the latter.

      Leave my hominems outta this, buddy... my hominems got nothin' ta do with it.

      --
      You are in error. No-one is screaming. Thank you for your cooperation.
    9. Re:This is why mathematicians are soooo popular. by ashot · · Score: 1

      sir, I commend you.

      --
      -ashot
    10. Re:This is why mathematicians are soooo popular. by provolt · · Score: 1

      Hurray for infintely many "prime twins".... I mean twin primes!

    11. Re:This is why mathematicians are soooo popular. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      ummm, no. the only kind of usefulness that matters is the planting you're jizz in as many fertile wombs as possible.

    12. Re:This is why mathematicians are soooo popular. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Going by your use of "you're" rather than "your," I think we can all wish that your parents had abstained from that particular process. Way to piss in the gene pool, guys.

    13. Re:This is why mathematicians are soooo popular. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      Since when was being anal about grammar, spelling, or punctuation indicative of intelligence, or whatever you were alluding to?

      This is the fucking InterWeb, dude! The people wanna be free! We don't need no stinkin' grammars.

    14. Re:This is why mathematicians are soooo popular. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Oh, one last thing, genius. Are you implying that ma was gang banged by two or more guys spilling their jizz, cause the feminine of the species generally don't spill her jizz in nobodys womb, and you used the plural?

    15. Re:This is why mathematicians are soooo popular. by imbaczek · · Score: 1

      And what are YOU doing on Slashdot?

  4. Old news by Hamster+Of+Death · · Score: 4, Funny

    Glancing at my list of twin primes I can see it's infinite.

  5. I have a better proof by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 5, Funny

    but it hit /.'s maximum post size limit :(

    1. Re:I have a better proof by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Nice try, Fermat.

  6. I didn't RTFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0, Insightful

    OK, I'm too lazy to RTFA, but, if there are infinite numbers, why would there not be infinite prime numbers, and infinite prime twins? Are there also not infinite perfect numbers, or ...?

    Sorry, why is this news?

    1. Re:I didn't RTFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Funny


      While there are infinite amount of numbers, there are more numbers than others.

      For an instance, there are more irrational numbers than integers. This has been mathematically proven.

      This proof also shows why it is highly unlikely for a mathematics graduate to ever get a date, and is in fact impossible that they get a pretty one.

      Just FYI.

    2. Re:I didn't RTFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Yor comment is a conjecture. A seemingly obvious one, but still a conjecture.

      Who says there isn't a numerical anomily that hasn't been found out that will make this conjecture false. That is why the proof is important.

    3. Re:I didn't RTFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I should have read the article. I'll shut up now.

    4. Re:I didn't RTFA by RackinFrackin · · Score: 2, Informative

      The fact that there are an infinite number of integers doesn't, by itself, imply the infinitude of the primes, the twin primes, or the perfect numbers. Seeing a bunch of them is good evidence, but
      in order to know that they are infinite, a proof is required. There are many proofs of the infinitude of the primes; there are an infinite number of perfect numbers, but this was not known for a fact until Euclid proved it. Thus far, no one has been able to produce a proof that there are infinitely many twin primes, and thus it is still at the conjecture stage. If this guy's proof is good, then it is definitely newsworthy.

    5. Re:I didn't RTFA by Geoffreyerffoeg · · Score: 4, Informative

      Because as numbers get higher, there are a lot more numbers below that can be factors, and thus the frequency of prime numbers decreases. E.g., between 1-10 we have 5 prime numbers, but between 1000-1030 there are only 4. This amusing animation that generates prime numbers demonstrates that prime numbers are more rare as you approach infinity (i.e., the program's "prime density" drops).

      Thus it would make sense that the probability of having a twin prime would drop. The question is if it drops to zero or not.

      It can be demonstrated that there are infinite primes, though, by saying that if there were a finite set of primes, you can get a new number by multiplying all the known primes and adding one. This number divided by any of the known primes always gives a remainder of one. Thus it has no prime factors, and is prime. We would then tend to believe there are infinite twin primes, but this is not so easily proven.

    6. Re:I didn't RTFA by Dominic_Mazzoni · · Score: 5, Informative

      OK, I'm too lazy to RTFA, but, if there are infinite numbers, why would there not be infinite prime numbers, and infinite prime twins? Are there also not infinite perfect numbers, or ...?

      That's a good question.

      The fact that there are an infinite number of numbers doesn't immediately imply that there are an infinite number of primes, but Euclid figured out how to prove this is true in about 300 BC. It only takes a few sentences to explain it; here's one example.

      It is definitely not obvious that there are an infinite number of twin primes. It has been an open question for more than a century, and some of the greatest minds in mathematics have worked on it. If this proof is correct, it will be a major result.

      I was trying to think of a good example of something that there is not an infinite number of. Browsing through MathWorld, I found Truncatable Primes - there are only 83 of these.

      Can anyone think of any other examples of a type of number that only has a finite number of them, even though at first glance it seems like there might be an infinite number of them?

    7. Re:I didn't RTFA by MrByte420 · · Score: 1
      It can be demonstrated that there are infinite primes, though, by saying that if there were a finite set of primes, you can get a new number by multiplying all the known primes and adding one. This number divided by any of the known primes always gives a remainder of one. Thus it has no prime factors, and is prime. We would then tend to believe there are infinite twin primes, but this is not so easily proven.


      Not Quite...

      Either the number your generate is prime or it is divisible by a prime higher than the one you assumed was largest.
      --
      If religous zealots don't believe in Evolution, then why are they so worried about bird flu?
    8. Re:I didn't RTFA by shobadobs · · Score: 3, Interesting

      No, you do not understand his proof. His proof makes the assumption that there is a finite number of primes. Then he disproves that assumption. Again:

      Say there were a finite set of primes. Call the elements of that set P1, P2, ..., Pn. If that set were finite, then the number (P1*P2*...*Pn)+1. would not have any prime factors. Therefore, that number would also be prime. Hence, there cannot be a finite set of primes.

      You are correct in saying that in the real world, multiplying the first N prime numbers together and adding 1 won't necessarily produce a prime.

      For example, 2*3*5*7*11*13 + 1 = 30031 = 59*509.

      However, the fact that such a number might have a rogue factor does not deny the proof of its validity, because the existence of a rogue prime factor would also discount the finite set of prime numbers. However, the above proof is valid without this.

    9. Re:I didn't RTFA by myLobster · · Score: 1

      Nice animation of a bear defacating primes. Kinda puts a fresh spin on going for a number two.

      --

      Ceci n'est pas une .sig
    10. Re:I didn't RTFA by Geoffreyerffoeg · · Score: 1

      In either case, there's still another prime that you didn't count.

    11. Re:I didn't RTFA by tbjw · · Score: 4, Informative
      The cases of Fermat Primes, Mersenne Primes (and therefore even perfect numbers) and of Odd Perfect Numbers are still unsolved, to the best of my knowledge.



      Also, of course, there are many well-known diophantine equations (such as n^3 - m^2 -2 = 0) that have finitely many solutions.



      I suppose the most striking example of 'unexpected finiteness' is the orders of sporadic groups (see mathworld.wolfram.com). These are finite groups which have no normal proper subgroups (so their structure is essentially 'irreducible') but they do not fall into any established category of simple group. The largest of these groups are staggeringly huge, but there are only 26. Why this is so is a complete mystery to me.

    12. Re:I didn't RTFA by mpsmps · · Score: 3, Informative
      Can anyone think of any other examples of a type of number that only has a finite number of them, even though at first glance it seems like there might be an infinite number of them?


      Waring's Problem provides good examples. For example, the only numbers that cannot be written as a sum of 7 cubes are 15, 22, 23, 50, 114, 167, 175, 186, 212, 231, 238, 239, 303, 364, 420, 428, and 454.

    13. Re:I didn't RTFA by psetzer · · Score: 1

      Well, there are infinite even perfect numbers iff there are an infinite number of Mersenne primes. There are a few possibilities on how to go about this, but one method I've thought of was showing that there is an infinite 'chain' of Mersenne primes. That is if M(n) is a Mersenne prime, then M(M(n)) is also a Mersenne prime. By induction, it would hold that there are an infinite number of them. Since I don't go by the handle perdos, I have no idea if that would really work.

      --
      "Anyone who attempts to generate random numbers by deterministic means is living in a state of sin." -- John von Neumann
    14. Re:I didn't RTFA by LnxAddct · · Score: 1

      The same reason that you can have integer values for x^2+y^2=z^2 but put those values to any higher integer power and you'll never find any integers >1 that fit the equation. In regards to the particular story at hand, primes become less common as infinity gets larger, therefore it makes sense that there are an infinite number of primes, but not twin primes, the twin prime conjecture thus makes sense from either viewpoint until someone proves or disproves it.
      Regards,
      Steve

    15. Re:I didn't RTFA by Mathness · · Score: 1

      Can anyone think of any other examples of a type of number that only has a finite number of them, even though at first glance it seems like there might be an infinite number of them?

      My bank account...

      --
      Carbon based humanoid in training.
    16. Re:I didn't RTFA by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      > Can anyone think of any other examples of a type of number
      > that only has a finite number of them, even though at first
      > glance it seems like there might be an infinite number of them

      I am afraid that the non-mathematically schooled will find this a good example:

      "OK, I'm too lazy to RTFA, but, if there are infinite numbers, why would there not be infinite even prime numbers?"

    17. Re:I didn't RTFA by MrByte420 · · Score: 1

      No, I understood this perfectly. The statement I had a problem with was

      Thus it has no prime factors, and is prime

      This is not necessarily true, when you multiply all the factors together it can be composite but since it must have prime factors, they must be larger than the one you assumed was largest.

      The original poster states that the number generated is prime which is wrong.

      --
      If religous zealots don't believe in Evolution, then why are they so worried about bird flu?
    18. Re:I didn't RTFA by MurphyZero · · Score: 1

      You forget that the assumption stated at the beginning was that the set of primes was finite. Given that, the number created IS prime, which invalidates the initial assumption that the set of prime numbers is finite, and therefore the set of prime numbers is infinite (the count of elements of the set). The original poster was correct with all he said. He only failed to finish the proof with what I stated above.

      --
      Our founding fathers removed the guys in charge. Be American. Vote incumbents out.
  7. How many comments... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    'til we reach a twin prime?

    1. Re:How many comments... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      5... Tard.

    2. Re:How many comments... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Insightful

      Actually, 3.

    3. Re:How many comments... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Wrong, 1 isn't prime.

  8. It has new game! by JessLeah · · Score: 1

    It is called "Prime Twins", they look the same!

    Good God. They look so god-damned like the same person... I would say to them, "you want ice-cream cone?", both of them say yes. How in the hell?

    1. Re:It has new game! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      English isn't your native language, right?

    2. Re:It has new game! by zapp · · Score: 1

      Wrong. Actually he was referring to the hilarious cartoon: End of the World

      --
      no comment
    3. Re:It has new game! by Luthwyhn · · Score: 0

      My favorite prime? Schfifty-Five! Group X for life.

  9. Re:Proof by k-zed · · Score: 1, Funny

    I always thought that if God is anywhere to be found, it'll surely have to do something with prime numbers.. these are truly mysterious aspects of our reality.

    --
    we discovered a new way to think.
  10. Can someone buy the editors a dictionary by Timesprout · · Score: 2, Funny

    possible proof of the twin-prime conjecture

    The words possible and conjecture appear above. Where does the definitive statement "There Are Infinitely Many Prime Twins" come into it? Have the the /. editors secretly managed to prove this theory before posting it ?

    --
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    1. Re:Can someone buy the editors a dictionary by topynate · · Score: 1

      "There Are Infinitely Many Prime Twins" is the title of the paper.

  11. dammit by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    A math grad student friend of mine here at Dartmouth came up with several conjectures that would all imply the twin prime conjecture. His work was looking really promising, as I stumbled across some work by other mathematicians that might be invokved to prove his conjecture(s).

    Alas, looks like someone beat him to it =). I figured this would happen, though. There're just too many number theorists interested in this problem.

  12. Re:Proof by dustinbarbour · · Score: 1

    I wouldn't say they're mysterious. Interesting, yes.. Hell, all of mathematics is interesting!

  13. 38 pages? by Wakkow · · Score: 5, Funny

    They should have put it in 37 pages..

    1. Re:38 pages? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 2, Funny
      They should have put it in 37 pages..

      Yes 37 is prime, but 41 is the nearest *twin* prime (with 43). So they should add 3 pages.

    2. Re:38 pages? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Actually, they should have released two versions: entirely identical but with one in 12 point type and one in 12.5 point type, so that they would have been 41 and 43 pages respectively.

    3. Re:38 pages? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Funny


      Dude, you know nothing. Anything but 42 pages is a meaningless number.

  14. cursed mathmaticians by abscondment · · Score: 1

    In 1995, Nicely discovered a flaw in the Intel Pentium microprocessor by computing the reciprocals of 824,633,702,441 and 824,633,702,443, which should have been accurate to 19 decimal places but were incorrect from the tenth decimal place on (Cipra 1995, 1996; Nicely 1996).

    Isn't math great?

    Hopefully this new paper will have some good cryptographic applications.

    1. Re:cursed mathmaticians by fatphil · · Score: 3, Insightful

      "Hopefully this new paper will have some good cryptographic applications"

      It won't. Sorry. Just like AKS, this is something that's entirely in the realm of the theoretical.

      FP.

      --
      Also FatPhil on SoylentNews, id 863
    2. Re:cursed mathmaticians by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Based on the subject line of this post, you'd think there is a F(n-1) term involved.

  15. The joke's on him by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Ha, everyone knows that there are a finite number of primes. And this man calls himself a mathematician!

    1. Re:The joke's on him by gangien · · Score: 1

      wrong. even though yer trolling or whatever..

      take all the primes up to a point, multiply them together and add 1, and you have a prime number.

      3 * 2 + 1 = 7, 2 * 3 * 5 + 1 = 31 ect

    2. Re:The joke's on him by namhash · · Score: 1

      2*3*5*7*11*13+1 = 30031 (not prime)
      2*3*5*7*11*13-1 = 30029 (prime)

      That would be cool if it worked

    3. Re:The joke's on him by TildeMan · · Score: 1
      That's not true. The smallest counterexample is:

      2*3*5*7*11*13 + 1 = 59 * 509

      Adding one to the product of the primes up to n only guarantees no prime factors less than or equal to n. That's why Euclid's proof works; he assumed that there simply were no larger primes, and showed that his assumption was incorrect.

    4. Re:The joke's on him by gangien · · Score: 1

      well you are guarentied a new prime number, be it the number or a factor of the number

    5. Re:The joke's on him by gangien · · Score: 1

      well it means there's another prime number over n. be it the number ittself or a factor of the number

  16. Well, one thing's for sure.. by robbo · · Score: 5, Funny

    they're all odd.

    (Waiting for my spot in the math hall of fame)

    --
    So long, and thanks for all the Phish
    1. Re:Well, one thing's for sure.. by philntc · · Score: 2, Informative

      erm. except one, 2.

    2. Re:Well, one thing's for sure.. by ronsonal · · Score: 3, Informative

      2 isn't a twin prime.

    3. Re:Well, one thing's for sure.. by bn557 · · Score: 1

      two isn't a twin prime. 2+2 is 4, which isn't a prime. Or perhaps we need to go the other direction. 2-2 is 0. Nope, no go there.

      --
      Humans are slow, innaccurate, and brilliant; computers are fast, acurrate, and dumb; together they are unbeatable
    4. Re:Well, one thing's for sure.. by philntc · · Score: 1

      no no no! no 2, ouch, mathematics cramp. nevermind.

    5. Re:Well, one thing's for sure.. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Based on high school math, here... a prime number is a number that can be divided by ONLY 1 and itself to result in a whole number.

      0/0 = 0

      0/1 = 0

      Isn't zero a whole number?

    6. Re:Well, one thing's for sure.. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      0/0 != 0; it's undefined.

    7. Re:Well, one thing's for sure.. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 2, Funny

      0/0 = 0 I was going to refute your post, but got a divide by zero error while thinking about it. Please be more careful next time.

    8. Re:Well, one thing's for sure.. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Actually there is a historical debate over wether 2 is a prime number. The argument against 2 being a prime number is rather technical based on the definition of a prime number, basically there has to be more than just one to divide into a number to be considered a prime. The argument for is if a number is greater than one, is an integer, and is only divisible by one than that number is prime.

    9. Re:Well, one thing's for sure.. by ratamacue · · Score: 1

      So you could say there are infinitely many odd couples.

    10. Re:Well, one thing's for sure.. by TheOtherChimeraTwin · · Score: 2, Insightful

      Two is the only even prime number, which certainly makes it odd.

    11. Re:Well, one thing's for sure.. by mblase · · Score: 2, Funny

      erm. except 2.

      And don't you find that a bit odd? *rimshot*

    12. Re:Well, one thing's for sure.. by tbjw · · Score: 1

      In a very peculiar sense, it is. The reason being that by '2' we mean not only '2' but the numbers { ..., -4, -2, 0, 2, 4, 6,...} (i.e. all multiples of '2'). Now we say a number, a, is a prime if the following holds: a divides xy if and only if a divides x or a divides y. A quick check shows that the prime numbers are 0, 2, 3,5,7,11,... and -2,-3,-5, -7, -11, -13...
      Now, I'm not suggesting that this is the 'correct' definition of primeness, but it is how the word is generally understood in commutative ring theory. One might say that 0 is a trivial prime.

    13. Re:Well, one thing's for sure.. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      2 is not a twin prime in Z. 0 is not a prime in Z. This is because in Z primes are difined for x > 1, and x > 1 only. Prime elements are nonzero. However zero is a prime ideal for any integral domain, which is where you might encounter it as part of commutative rings. That really has nothing to do with "prime numbers," however.

    14. Re:Well, one thing's for sure.. by Unregistered · · Score: 1

      no zero over zero is one. The zeros cancel out. duh.

    15. Re:Well, one thing's for sure.. by tbjw · · Score: 1

      Has more-or-less everything to do with prime numbers, as you know well (vide unique factorisation of ideals in Dedekind Domains, for instance). Of course, you're completely correct about primes in Z. I was just rambling.

    16. Re:Well, one thing's for sure.. by bn557 · · Score: 1

      A little late but...

      0/2 = 0
      and
      0/3 = 0 .....

      --
      Humans are slow, innaccurate, and brilliant; computers are fast, acurrate, and dumb; together they are unbeatable
    17. Re:Well, one thing's for sure.. by Prior+Restraint · · Score: 1

      The reason being that by '2' we mean not only '2' but the numbers { ..., -4, -2, 0, 2, 4, 6,...} (i.e. all multiples of '2').

      I'm going to assume that has something to do with the commutative ring theory you mentioned, because I've never heard "2" used interchangeably with "the set of all even integers."

      That aside, I don't understand your definition of prime. Something is missing, but I can't even guess at what it was. You didn't define x and y at all. Are they any two integers? If so, {a,x,y} = {4,8,3} shows us that 4 is prime (for that matter, permitting a = x or a = y means all integers are prime). Also, zero doesn't divide anything; so far as I've ever heard, that's just one of the rules. Finally, what about 1 and -1? They divide everything.

      The only time I saw a formal definition for primes, it was something like:
      An integer p > 1 is prime if and only if there exists no integer q such that q divides p and 1 < q < p.

    18. Re:Well, one thing's for sure.. by tbjw · · Score: 1

      When, in the 19th century, algebraists were faced with the problem of number-rings without unique factorisation for the first time, they invented a concept of 'ideal number' which was later reduced simply to 'ideal'. As a specific example: if we use Z[sqrt(-5)] as our ring, then 6 has two factorisations, as 2.3 and as [1+sqrt(-5)][1-sqrt(-5)]. You can check that 2,3, 1+sqrt(-5), 1-sqrt(-5) have no further factorisations. Hence 6 factors in 2 unrelated ways.

      The solution to this problem is to associate 6 with the ideal (6) of all multiples of (6). Then (6) can be written uniquely as the product of 'prime ideal numbers' or 'prime ideals' as they are now called. See a book on commutative algebra for what the terms mean today.

    19. Re:Well, one thing's for sure.. by Prior+Restraint · · Score: 1

      I haven't felt this lost after someone's explanation of a mathematical concept since I first heard about transfinite numbers back in college.

      Thanks. I needed a new hobby to pursue this summer, and now I think I know what it'll be.

  17. That's nice by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    I'm just glad he didn't claim that there are an infinite number of prime twins but a finite number of primes.

  18. Re:Proof by benna · · Score: 0, Troll

    I think Pi is much more mysterious. I mean think about it, one of the most simple shapes a has a number with an infanite number of seeminly random dicimals in it.

    --
    "It is not how things are in the world that is mystical, but that it exists." -Ludwig Wittgenstein
  19. Prime Arithmetic Progression also in the news by micha2305 · · Score: 5, Interesting

    Something I read in Science the other day: There's a new proof in review that there are infintely many sequences such as 199, 409, 619, 829, 1039, 1249, 1459, 1669, 1879, 2089 -- primes that differ by a constant offset. See also Mathworld.

    1. Re:Prime Arithmetic Progression also in the news by pjt33 · · Score: 1

      There's an old proof that there can't be an arithmetic progression all of whose members are prime. Such a progression is of the form f(x) = ax + b, and gives a composite number for all values of x which are a multiple of b (or, indeed, which aren't coprime with b). So since your link requires a subscription, could you please explain what the theorem actually says?

    2. Re:Prime Arithmetic Progression also in the news by aardvarkjoe · · Score: 4, Informative
      Quoting directly from the linked article:
      An arithmetic progression of primes is a set of primes of the form p1 + kd for fixed p1 and d and consecutive k, i.e., {p1, p1 + d, p1 + 2d, ...}. For example, 199, 409, 619, 829, 1039, 1249, 1459, 1669, 1879, 2089 is a 10-term arithmetic progression of primes with difference 210.

      In a recently published in preprint, Green and Tao (2004) use an important result known as Szemerédi's theorem in combination with recent work by Goldston and Yildirim, a clever "transference principle," and 48 pages of dense and technical mathematics, to apparently establish the fundamental theorem that the prime numbers do contain arithmetic progressions of length k for all k (Weisstein 2004).

      Take it for what it's worth. This stuff is way over my head.
      --

      How can we continue to believe in a just universe and freedom to eat crackers if we have no ale?
    3. Re:Prime Arithmetic Progression also in the news by dave_f1m · · Score: 1

      OK, so it's saying that there is at least 1 pair of primes differing by a set amount (trivially, 3,5 - k=2), one set of three primes (say, 3,7,11), one set of four, etc. So very neat, although not too similar to this proof. Now I'm off to Mathworld to check out the other referred theorems.

    4. Re:Prime Arithmetic Progression also in the news by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Those numbers differ by 210, note that 210 is 2*3*5*7 - i.e. multiplication of first four primes. This must be related.

  20. He could still have made mistakes by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Informative

    Mathematicians dont tend to produce proof which is machine verifieable ... this remains a possible proof until consensus on it is reached, 38 pages is too much to rely on any single person to verify it's truethfullness.

  21. Too ignorant to be funny. by RatBastard · · Score: 0, Offtopic

    I wish I knew enough about mathematics to make a funny math joke about this. But, alas, I'll have to try and work out an Olsen Twins joke or something equally insipid.

    --
    Boobies never hurt anyone. - Sherry Glaser.
    1. Re:Too ignorant to be funny. by nizo · · Score: 1

      This is probably because math isn't funny, I mean how many comedians do you know who have a PhD in math?

    2. Re:Too ignorant to be funny. by Understudy · · Score: 1

      Let me introduce you to Tom Lehrer
      Now let's go poison some pigeons in the park.

    3. Re:Too ignorant to be funny. by RatBastard · · Score: 1

      Tom never got his degree. He was a career undergrad.

      --
      Boobies never hurt anyone. - Sherry Glaser.
    4. Re:Too ignorant to be funny. by pjt33 · · Score: 1

      Strange. The first Google hit for Tom Lehrer Ph.D. is this biography, which says "In 1960 he stopped performing and devoted himself to his academic calling, returning to Harvard and earning his Ph.D.".

  22. Calm down, boys ... by RealAlaskan · · Score: 4, Funny

    That's ``twin primes'', not ``prime twins''. So, no, there is not an infinite supply of hot double dates.

    1. Re:Calm down, boys ... by PabloJones · · Score: 1

      Not so fast, the article indeed shows that "There Are Infinitely Many Prime Twins." Maybe mathematicians are finally on to something....

    2. Re:Calm down, boys ... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It might be sexy to you, but it's incest to us.
      -- An anonymous twin

  23. Alien by Juiblex · · Score: 4, Funny

    In what Alien language is the article written???

    1. Re:Alien by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      In what Alien language is the article written???

      Mathematics. For most nerds it's the second langunge learned.

    2. Re:Alien by name773 · · Score: 1

      the second langunge learned

      apparently you learned mathematics first and english second.... bravo (seriously)

    3. Re:Alien by fingerfucker · · Score: 1

      That sentence WAS correct. You're the one whose comprehension of English is limited to the point when you can't distinguish between a gramatically correct and incorrect sentence. Go flaimbait to show off your imbecility somewhere else.

    4. Re:Alien by name773 · · Score: 1

      nah, i was just making fun of his spelling. langunge instead of language.... but i did say it was good that he's into math.

    5. Re:Alien by SamSim · · Score: 1

      Maths. Although, as a mathematics student, I got lost at "natural generating function is the Dirichlet series", mainly because as far as I know I haven't been taught the meanings of "natural generating function" or "Dirichlet series".

  24. The REAL "Prime Twins" by Eric(b0mb)Dennis · · Score: 1, Funny

    Just check how long until the Olsen Twins are legal

    --
    Excuse me, I don't mean to impose, but I am the ocean
    1. Re:The REAL "Prime Twins" by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0


      The problem is if you have ever watched a couple episodes of full house, there's not a chance in Hollywood that you'd ever date them even if you'd have the chance, because it'd be like dating a baby eeewwwww!!!!

    2. Re:The REAL "Prime Twins" by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      Or just get 'em in a state (US or otherwise) where the age of consent is 16.

      If there's grass on the pitch, let's play!

    3. Re:The REAL "Prime Twins" by djplurvert · · Score: 1

      I think "date" is far too strong a word.

  25. twins by sacrilicious · · Score: 4, Funny
    Twin primes are pairs of primes where both p and p + 2 are prime.

    Even rarer are those pairs of primes known as the "conjoined twin" primes: those of the form p and p+1. Not many examples are known, but perhaps an infinite number are waiting to be discovered.

    --
    - First they ignore you, then they laugh at you, then ???, then profit.
    1. Re:twins by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      2 and 2+1 count!
      I think.
      is two a prime?
      should I have stayed in school longer?

    2. Re:twins by Eyckelboom · · Score: 1

      Actually only two 'conjoined twin' primes are known.

      The answer is left as an exercise for the reader (it's as easy as 1-2-3).

    3. Re:twins by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      1/1=1
      1/1=1

      (But that's my bride) yes it is, yes it is, YES IT IIIIIS!!!

    4. Re:twins by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      A prime number is often misquoted as being a number divisible by just 1 and itself, such that people think 1 is a prime number on the basis that it is, indeed, divisible by just 1 and itself.

      The actual definition of a prime number is one that has only two distinct factors. 1 has only one distinct factor, so it doesn't qualify.

    5. Re:twins by UserGoogol · · Score: 1

      One isn't a prime number. Prime numbers have two factors, itself and one. One only has one factor. Which is kind of pragmatic, because if one was a prime number, prime factorizations wouldn't work out very nicely.

      --
      "Never attribute to malice that which can be adequately explained by stupidity." -- Hanlon's Razor
    6. Re:twins by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Where's Dr. Mercurious when you need him?

    7. Re:twins by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      DO YOU PEOPLE NEVER LEARN?

      A (rational) prime is a positive integer which generates a prime ideal.

      An ideal is a set, I, of numbers such that a,b in I implies a+b in I and ac in I for any c. A prime ideal is an ideal with the further property that ab in I implies either a in I or b in I; we mantain the convention that the ring itself is not a prime ideal.

      Please mod this up, because you're all talking SO MUCH CRAP IT HURTS. The reason we use these definitions is that they apply to commutative rings in general. (and with a small modification to noncommutative associative rings)

  26. Re:Proof by nizo · · Score: 0, Troll

    If you haven't read Contact (no seeing the movie doesn't count) then quick go get a copy. What I have to wonder is, how do we know it goes on forever? The answer is we will never know (unless it starts repeating in some big way, which doesn't seem likely), because we can always calculate more digits for it. Thus we can only saw for sure that so far we know it isn't a finite number :-)

  27. Kinda like.. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Is this kinda like the olsen twins?

  28. Ummm..... induction? by CHaN_316 · · Score: 1

    If all else fails, use induction to prove?

    Boy, all those foundations of computer science courses I took are really paying off. :|

    --
    "There is no spoon." - The Matrix
    1. Re:Ummm..... induction? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Either that or recursion...

      - a.c.

    2. Re:Ummm..... induction? by SEE · · Score: 1

      "3 is prime, 5 is prime, 7 is prime . . . by induction, all odd numbers >1 are prime."

      Of course, we should consult a newspaper statistician.

      "Hmm, let's take a random sampling of ten numbers, 1-100. In order from least to greatest: 3 16 23 52 64 71 73 82 90 96. We can conclude from this that 40% of all numbers 1-100 are odd, that all odd numbers 1-100 are prime, that no even numbers 1-100 are prime, and that the average number is 57."

  29. Ugh... math... by gwoodrow · · Score: 3, Funny

    I tried to read through some of the paper and math websites... and I was suddenly reminded why the diploma that will be handed to me at the end of the summer will say:
    "Steven Gregory Woods... ENGLISH major"
    Hopefully, math will turn out to be just a fad :)

    1. Re:Ugh... math... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      A fad... like semiotics, dialectics and the forcing of narrative?

    2. Re:Ugh... math... by gwoodrow · · Score: 1

      Touche!

      I'm not ashamed of my English degree though. I tried to give math the benefit of the doubt, but I struck out when I recited the pythagorean theorem to a chick in a bar. I ultimately didn't have time to calculate the speed of her boyfriend's fist before it hit me in the nose. On second thought... I guess English couldn't have helped me any more than math in that situation.

      I'll see how a discussion about "prime twins" works at a club tonight - then I'll report back the results as a measure on the "black eye" scale.

      Aw who am I kidding? I know that all I'll end up doing is posting comments on slashdot tonight. The upside of doing that is that I don't have to use math at ALL.

    3. Re:Ugh... math... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Heh heh. Actually, my friend in college who was the luckiest with the ladies was a math major. He was also an EMT, of course. Now he's pursuing a graduate degree in philosophy. Meanwhile, my English/Comp Lit girlfriend was stuck with... me... and therefore not terribly successful in the love department. You see, I didn't exactly graduate with a major in anything. What this proves, I really couldn't say.

    4. Re:Ugh... math... by daniil · · Score: 1

      I'm mostly replying to the AC, but if one is to believe John Deely, then semiotics is the mathematics of the future (aside from being the most important thing ever discovered (tm)). So you may still have a future :7

      --
      Man is a slave because freedom is difficult, whereas slavery is easy.
    5. Re:Ugh... math... by daniil · · Score: 1

      (BTW, this is what i'm talking about)

      --
      Man is a slave because freedom is difficult, whereas slavery is easy.
  30. Thank goodness! by DanielMarkham · · Score: 3, Funny

    Now I have something to use at the bars to pick up chicks this weekend! "Hey babe, I don't know how cute you think you are, but I know there are an infinite number of prime twins just waiting to factor this integer." That number theory talk always gets them interested.

  31. I wonder... by cyphr555 · · Score: 1

    if any of the twins are sexy. ... Yes, I KNOW no sets of twins are sexy because one is p+2 and the other is p+6, but come on, it's a JOKE people. *sigh*

  32. Re:Proof by dont_think_twice · · Score: 1

    I always thought that if God is anywhere to be found, it'll surely have to do something with prime numbers..

    Hmmmmmmm, I always thought that He would be in Vegas. With His abilities, He would clean up in that town.

  33. For more information by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    For more information read....
    (falls asleep)

  34. Damn, wrong cartoon, same authors by zapp · · Score: 1

    Oops....
    same guys, but I meant to link to This cartoon ("Mario Twins")

    --
    no comment
    1. Re:Damn, wrong cartoon, same authors by JessLeah · · Score: 1

      Actually, Group X didn't do the "End of the World" cartoon. It was another entity impersonating them.

  35. Lehrer by pjt33 · · Score: 4, Insightful

    Have you never heard of Tom Lehrer? If not, shame on you.

    1. Re:Lehrer by drinkypoo · · Score: 0, Flamebait
      Have you heard of (relatively obscure comedian) here? If not, shame on you. I never heard about bill hicks till he was dead. I never got into sublime until what's his ass (being immense it is more appropriate than fact) croaked. I never listened to morphine until dana colley OD'd. Give it a rest already. If I hadn't grown up watching PBS (partially to blame for my insufferable nerdness which offsets the fun factor of my geekdom) I wouldn't know who the fuck he was either :P

      Furthermore I didn't know he had a Ph.D in mathematics. All I knew was that he played the piano and knew more about politics than I did.

      --
      "You're right," Fisheye says. "I should have set it on 'whip' or 'chop.'"
    2. Re:Lehrer by meringuoid · · Score: 1
      Furthermore I didn't know he had a Ph.D in mathematics.

      Neither did I. According to every interview with the guy I ever saw, he left without finishing his doctorate.

      However, you must have suspected something. The author of Lobachevsky (plagiarise! let no-one else's work evade your eyes!) and New Math (base 8 is just the same as base 10... if you're missing two fingers) could only have been a mathematician :-)

      --
      Real Daleks don't climb stairs - they level the building.
  36. Re:Proof by Jim+Starx · · Score: 2, Insightful

    Irrational numbers are mysterious as a whole, I don't think pi is special in that respect. The prrofs are fascinating though. Prooving incommensurability(sp?) takes some very creative thinking.

    --
    The darkness... controls the music. The music... controls the soul.
  37. Not another Eulid! by Thinkit4 · · Score: 1

    One thing that turned me off about math is the insistence in honoring these long dead people. That's focusing more on the discoverer than the discovery. I'm sure a reasonably intelligent person (like most of slashdot readers) could discover "Euclid's" infinitude of primes theorem. We probably would have if we didn't get in class along with the admonition to respect our elders. Take a patent if you want, Arenstorf. But don't insist people centuries from now worship you over the discovery.

    --
    -I am an elective eunuch.
    1. Re:Not another Eulid! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      what the fuck are you talking about? go get hit by a train

    2. Re:Not another Eulid! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Wow! I wonder why this isn't moderated +5 insightful already...

    3. Re:Not another Eulid! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      AHAHAHAHA! It's going up as I type! MWUAHAHAHA! SLASHBOTS! YOU STUPID SUX0RZ!!! HAHAHAHAHA.

    4. Re:Not another Eulid! by drinkypoo · · Score: 1

      Insist? First, Euclid is a dead motherfucker, he hasn't insisted on shit. When this guy is dead, he too will be not particularly peculiarly uninterested in whether it's called Arenstorf's proof or Spam Flambe'. Second, theories, theorems, proofs, and other scientific happenings are referred to with their discoverer/creator's name out of reverence, not guilt. Or at least, that's the spirit in which it should be intended.

      --
      "You're right," Fisheye says. "I should have set it on 'whip' or 'chop.'"
    5. Re:Not another Eulid! by shadowmatter · · Score: 1

      Dead people insisting that people worship them? And how might they, uh, express this desire?

      And if any one mathematician deserves to be honored, Euclid is as good a choice as any. It's rare that one individual makes so many mathematical discoveries that are all so fundamental or important to our understanding of the sciences.

      As an example, traditional RSA encryption relies on the Euclidian algorithm to calculate the inverse of the encryption exponent (which is the decryption exponent).

      - sm

    6. Re:Not another Eulid! by dprovine · · Score: 1
      One thing that turned me off about math is the insistence in honoring these long dead people.

      In the academic world, plagiarism is second only to faking results in the list of "worst kind of misbehaviour". And not far behind is "making up references".

      Citing Euclid, or Gauss, can't do anything about faking results, but it does at one stroke provide a reference for your assertion, and ensure that you do not, even by accident, imply that you did work which was actually done by another.

      Math isn't alone in citing those who did the work first; I suspect if you ask 100 education majors about the Zone of Proximal Development, 80 of them will come up with Vygotsky (but only 40 of them will be able to spell it 8-).

  38. we've known since 1761 by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 3, Informative

    we've known since 1761

  39. Error on page 22 by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    There is an error with b(v) and B(x) on page 22.

  40. This took 20 years by ortholattice · · Score: 4, Informative
    Interesting quote from the paper (p. 3 of the PDF file):
    This work is the outcome of about twenty years of "on and off" search and research on this and the related binary Goldbach problem; in the interim having been lured onto various misleading paths or frustrated by (for me) insurmountable difficulties, before ultimately recognizing and constructing a workable approach.
  41. He makes a mistake... by b0r0din · · Score: 5, Funny

    Look on page 27. He's trying to integrate homeomorphic convergence using a Baxter-Bates supermodality, which Krause clearly explained is impossible for T(s) in a non-linear progression.

    Ok, just fuckin with ya. My mind wandered after I saw the word 'Abstract.' ;)

    1. Re:He makes a mistake... by Lord+Graga · · Score: 2, Funny

      I wonder if it's just me, or did a horde of really scary math geeks just mod that up? I sure didn't get it ;)

    2. Re:He makes a mistake... by fingerfucker · · Score: 1

      You're good.

    3. Re:He makes a mistake... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 5, Funny

      Yeah, I see a lot of people attempting to integrate homophobic conformance using Master-Bates supermoodality, which Krauds exploded as impenetrable for T/bag in a non-lesbian prostation.

    4. Re:He makes a mistake... by abandonment · · Score: 1

      no kidding....i don't see what the point of this is...but then again math always did hurt my brain

    5. Re:He makes a mistake... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      > which Krause clearly explained is impossible for
      > T(s) in a non-linear progression.

      Yes, but you forgot that on Mondays, Wednesdays, and Fridays, Baxter-Bates supermodality behaves like a wave, and on Tuesdays, Thursday, and Saturday, it behaves like a particle. (On Sundays, no one is looking.)

      Thus you can integrate the Hamiltonion of the Baxter-Bates supermodality today by the uncertainty principle.

    6. Re:He makes a mistake... by snake_dad · · Score: 1

      I was so going to make a Heisenberg joke... and then I read your last line :(

      --
      karma capped .sig seeking available Slashdot poster for long-term relationship.
    7. Re:He makes a mistake... by PingPongBoy · · Score: 1

      Suppose there was a mistake. It would be pretty hard to catch for anyone who doesn't understand all the terminology. It's useful to publish a paper that says as much as possible in as few words as possible, but shouldn't proofs of such importance be also expanded step by step?

      A proof is a sequence of deductions where the rules of logical inference are applied to show that the conclusion is implied by the hypotheses. Of course a large number of vital and useful theorems have been used to come to the result here, but is there a library of expanded proofs for those theorems?

      A nice thing to have: a computer program that knows many important theorems I1, I2, I3, ... so that the user can specify "apply I12" followed by an application of I19 and then I6 and so on. The program doesn't have to understand the theorems, just use them in a sequence of deductions, as directed by a mathematician. This program would simplify construction of proofs and verification of proofs.

      --
      Know your pads. One time pad: good for cryptography. Two timing pad: where to take your mistress.
    8. Re:He makes a mistake... by Theatetus · · Score: 2, Informative
      A nice thing to have: a computer program that knows many important theorems I1, I2, I3, ... so that the user can specify "apply I12" followed by an application of I19 and then I6 and so on. The program doesn't have to understand the theorems, just use them in a sequence of deductions, as directed by a mathematician.

      Yeah, it's amazing nobody ever thought of that.

      --
      All's true that is mistrusted
    9. Re:He makes a mistake... by netstat · · Score: 1

      I think there may be. This was posted on the Number Theory mailing list by Gerald Tenenbaum: "It seems, unfortunately, that Lemma 8, page 35, is wrong. Simply take v_0=1, r(v):=(1+\cos v)/\sqrt v, \rho(v)=3/\sqrt v, and \phi(v)=v. I imagine that such a mistake has heavy consequences."

    10. Re:He makes a mistake... by cancerward · · Score: 1

      Yup, Tenenbaum is the author of "Introduction to analytic and probabilistic number theory" and 113 papers in number theory. I think that's the end of this proof, unless it rises from the dead a la Wiles. A pity the average slashdotter has such a short attention span...

    11. Re:He makes a mistake... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Mathematics, abstract
      math.NT/0405509

      From: Richard Arenstorf [view email]
      Date (v1): Wed, 26 May 2004 20:22:18 GMT (28kb)
      Date (revised v2): Tue, 8 Jun 2004 22:51:33 GMT (0kb,I)

      There Are Infinitely Many Prime Twins
      Authors: R. F. Arenstorf
      Comments: This paper has been withdrawn
      Subj-class: Number Theory
      MSC-class: 11A41; 11N05

      A serious error has been found in the paper, specifically, Lemma 8 is incorrect.

  42. My brain hurts by billcopc · · Score: 0, Troll

    Maybe I'm being an ignorant genius, but isn't it just plain obvious that there is an infinite number of primes, thus an infinite number of twin primes. Why ? Because there is an infinite number of possible numbers. Sure, primes get farther distanced from each other as the number increases in magnitude, but there's always one around the corner.

    I wish mathematicians spent more time on matters of current affair, like gas prices! This kind of 'discovery' bullcrap was fine in the egyptian era where school was nonexistent and everyone was a fricking ignorant unless they happened to suck some royalty's appendage the right way. Today it's obsolete, those who do not understand either don't care, or lack the requisite synaptic ability to function adequately in modern times.

    --
    -Billco, Fnarg.com
    1. Re:My brain hurts by ivern76 · · Score: 1

      I'm not a physicist, but it's pretty damn obvious that the sun circles the earth. I mean, it comes up on one side and it goes around and it disappears on the other side. What further proof could we need?

    2. Re:My brain hurts by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      you teh suxor

    3. Re:My brain hurts by Professor+D · · Score: 1

      >Maybe I'm being an ignorant

      Ok then, try this extension to your theory ... There are an infinite number of primes, thus an infinite number of pairs such that p is prime, but p+2 is not. Thus there are an infinite number of twins that are not 'twin primes'.

      The number of 'twins that are not twin primes' clearly outnumber the 'twin primes' so that infinity outnumbers the infinite number of 'twin primes.'

      Therefore there are zero 'twin primes.'

      Chew on that, "genius"

    4. Re:My brain hurts by nuttyprofessor · · Score: 1

      isn't it just plain obvious that there is an infinite number of primes Why ? Because there is an infinite number of possible numbers. Sure, primes get farther distanced from each other as the number increases in magnitude, but there's always one around the corner.


      Not really that obvious. For example, even though there
      are infinite number of positive integers, no 3 of them satisfy
      x^n + y^n = z^n when n > 2.
    5. Re:My brain hurts by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Nice troll - I thought the mention of gas prices would tip people off, but at a mod of 2, Interesting at present, and some reasonable attempts to correct your "misapprehension", you appear to have successfully pulled it off.

      Good job.

    6. Re:My brain hurts by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Maybe I'm being an ignorant

      Let's stop right there. You see, in mathematics, what you believe does not count, only what you can prove.

      Why ? Because there is an infinite number of possible numbers.

      How could you even know this without Euclid's proof?

    7. Re:My brain hurts by nakly · · Score: 1

      > Maybe I'm being an ignorant genius, but isn't it just plain obvious that there is an infinite number of primes, thus an infinite number of twin primes. Prove it. That's the point. It's always seemed obvious, but the point is that no one's been able to prove it. Arenstorf did.

    8. Re:My brain hurts by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      How could you even know this without Euclid's proof?


      Maybe you could just use Euler's proof instead.
    9. Re:My brain hurts by Montreal+Geek · · Score: 1
      I'll bite despite the apparent trollishness.

      What you just stated, basically, is a conjecture. Something that seems right, intuitively, but isn't proven.

      Another example that seems just as "obvious" might be Goldbach's which seems right and has been tested up to very, very large numbers. But it's still not proven.

      To most people, the difference is tenuous, but it's there; and sometimes the difference between having a proof or not has critical applications outside pure math.

      If anyone were, for instance, able to find a way to easily factor large primes them a great deal of today's best encryption would become moot. So, any additional knowledge about the properties of prime numbers is potentially important.

      -- MG

    10. Re:My brain hurts by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Hey moron - you can't factor large primes. That's WHY encryption is so hard to crack.

    11. Re:My brain hurts by barton · · Score: 1

      Ok. I'll bite.

      Let's say that I've got a *really* big prime. Something, say on the order of 10^10^10^34580.
      It's factors are 1 and its self.

      There. I've factored it. Do I get a cookie?

    12. Re:My brain hurts by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      No, not really. Come back when you've got the rest of them.

    13. Re:My brain hurts by peanutbadr · · Score: 0

      Did you mean "no 4 of them"?

      What's a (counter)example for noninteger n?

    14. Re:My brain hurts by fprog · · Score: 0

      And High School students complains about High School Math being too difficult and too abstract. I have no clue whatsoever why...

      Hey, it's easy folks you take a prime twins
      and you try fit this on a parabola...

      Hey, Where did everyone go?

  43. Can someone give me the math here? by fluxrad · · Score: 1, Interesting

    I'm not sure I understand why this is so hard to figure out.

    Assuming that there are an infinite number of numbers (always n+1) then doesn't this have to be the case?

    --
    "It is seldom that liberty of any kind is lost all at once." -David Hume
    1. Re:Can someone give me the math here? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 3, Informative

      well, the fact that there are an infinite number of primes does not automatically mean that after some point there will exist a p with a twin prime. Say for example, after some such point all the primes are >2 apart, then is it not the case that there will be no more twin primes after this, even if there are an infinite number of prime numbers? I dunno, maybe it's too late. Anyway, the article is a "proof of the twin-prime conjecture". It was the slashdot editors that added the infinite number of twin primes.

    2. Re:Can someone give me the math here? by soul_on_fire2001 · · Score: 1

      He proved it has to be the case.

    3. Re:Can someone give me the math here? by iabervon · · Score: 2, Insightful

      There are an infinite number of numbers, but there aren't an infinite number of pairs of primes p and p+3. (There is obviously only one such pair, 2 and 5.) So it's not trivial that there's not something which prevents there from being any further twin primes.

    4. Re:Can someone give me the math here? by Geoffreyerffoeg · · Score: 2, Informative

      Anyway, the article is a "proof of the twin-prime conjecture". It was the slashdot editors that added the infinite number of twin primes.

      No, the twin prime conjecture is that there are infinitely many twin primes, and the title was lifted directly from the paper. Are we now blaming the editors for correctness?

    5. Re:Can someone give me the math here? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Informative

      Clearly, there are some twin prime pairs- 5 and 7, for example. However, just because there are twin primes and there are infinite primes does not mean that there are infinite twin primes. any real number divided by infinite equals 0; or, in other words, the proportion of an infinite population made up by any finite group is 0.

      Therefore... one needs to prove independently of the aforementioned observations that there are infinite prime twin pairs; it can never be proved through induction.

    6. Re:Can someone give me the math here? by fluxrad · · Score: 1

      Yes, but in your example p,p+3 (other than where p=2) p+3 will always be an even number.

      A better example would be the pair p,p+4 - of which there would be an infinite number for the reasons I outlined in my last post.

      Simply put, I can't see how you wouldn't have an infinite number of prime pairs when using the set p,p+n where n is an even number.

      How could that not be the case with an infinite set of numbers?

      --
      "It is seldom that liberty of any kind is lost all at once." -David Hume
    7. Re:Can someone give me the math here? by loserMcloser · · Score: 2, Insightful

      Just the fact that you have an infinite set of numbers doesn't mean that anything and everything will be true about those numbers.

      The set {2,4,6,...} is infinite, but it only contains one prime.

    8. Re:Can someone give me the math here? by fluxrad · · Score: 1

      The set {2,4,6,...} is infinite, but it only contains one prime.

      Yes, and it also contains only one number that is a single digit and ends in two. That, to me, is a mathematical strawman.

      --
      "It is seldom that liberty of any kind is lost all at once." -David Hume
    9. Re:Can someone give me the math here? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Why is it hard to imagine that it wouldn't be the case? You are asking why not, another person is asking why. To know for sure, in mathematics you need a proof.

      In case this new proof is erroneous, it could still be the case that there are only a finite number of twin primes. There might be a simple understandable reason for this, a deduction that mathematicians to date have all missed. But the simplest explanation could just as well be a horrendously complex string of logical arguments, the proof could be so long that it would be impossible to write it down if you used all the matter in the universe for data storage.

      We simply don't know, and cannot know, anything more than a finite amount of the infinite amount of possible mathematical knowledge.

    10. Re:Can someone give me the math here? by PDAllen · · Score: 2, Insightful

      If it's obvious that there are infinitely many pairs of primes p, p+2, then it's obvious that there are infinitely many pairs of primes p, p+3 for the same reason.


      Except there's only one pair like that.

    11. Re:Can someone give me the math here? by iabervon · · Score: 1

      It seems to be the case that there are, in fact, an infinite number of pairs of primes separated by any even number. But it's not obvious that there couldn't be some reason that if p is prime, p+n must not be prime if p is greater than some constant. After all, there is such a reason for n=3. The same reason doesn't apply to even numbers for n, but there could be some different reason that's much more complicated to prove and starts much later.

      It seems like the distribution of primes is such that there is no pattern as to exactly where they occur, and therefore that for any property you can think of which doesn't limit the size of the number, there are 0, 1, or infinity primes with that property, but not some large finite number of them. But this is just a good guess; there isn't really a well-formulated conjecture as to primes not having a pattern, let alone a proof.

  44. How does this affect me... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    and my D&D character?

  45. I have a better proof, and it fits by Atario · · Score: 3, Funny
    1. Given: There are infinitely many primes.
    2. Given: A certain positive percentage of primes differ by two.
    3. Given: Infinity times any positive number is infinity.
    4. Therefore: There are infinitely many primes that differ by two.
    That's my story and I'm stickin' to it.

    (Spot the logical error and you win a cookie!)
    --
    "A great democracy must be progressive or it will soon cease to be a great democracy." --Theodore Roosevelt
    1. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Error in Step 2: How do you know if it's a percentage and not a fixed amount?

    2. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by hoggoth · · Score: 3, Insightful

      > 2. Given: A certain positive percentage of primes differ by two.

      Not necessarily true. It's equally possible that a certain finite number of primes differ by two, not an infinite percentage of primes.

      Give me my cookie now.

      --
      - For the complete works of Shakespeare: cat /dev/random (may take some time)
    3. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0


      2. Given: A certain positive percentage of primes differ by two.


      That's not even true. As you get higher, twin primes get scarcer, so your percentage really approaches 0.

    4. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by Edmund+Blackadder · · Score: 1

      I know every one said "2" but "2" is true (it is a truism). The error is in "3".

      3. Given: Infinity times any positive number is infinity.

      This is not true. If you multiply an infinitely small number by an infinately large number, some times you get a finite number.

    5. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by cubic6 · · Score: 3, Interesting

      You can't assume that a certain positive percentage of *all* primes differ by two as stated in number two, because that's an analogous statement to what you're trying to prove.

      Say I have an infinite number of socks. All are white, except 3, which are grey. I have a positive percentage of grey socks, but that doesn't mean anything since that percentage is infinitessimal. It will be infinitessimal for any number of grey socks, so you can't say that you are assumed have a positive percentage of grey socks *unless* you have an infinite number of grey socks, and that's a tautological argument.

      Chocolate chip, please ;)

      --
      Karma: Contrapositive
    6. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by SashaM · · Score: 4, Informative

      It's equally possible that a certain finite number of primes differ by two, not an infinite percentage of primes.

      Talking about infinite percentages is meaningless. Think about this question - what percentage of all natural numbers are even? On the one hand, it seems that since every second number is even, there would be 50%, right? But what if I pair each and every natural number to an even number so that two different numbers are paired to different even numbers (a one-to-one map)? Would that mean that 100% of all natural numbers are even? But it is done easily - I would pair each number n to 2*n.

      You could try and wiggle out of this problem by defining the infinite percentage to be the limit of the normal percentage until N when N goes to infinity. This would work for some sets, like the even numbers and would even give you a seemingly reasonable answer - 50%. But then consider this question - what percentage of all natural numbers are powers of 2 by this definition? I'll leave that as an exercise to the reader :-)

      See Cardinality

    7. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by mooingyak · · Score: 1

      You could try and wiggle out of this problem by defining the infinite percentage to be the limit of the normal percentage until N when N goes to infinity. This would work for some sets, like the even numbers and would even give you a seemingly reasonable answer - 50%. But then consider this question - what percentage of all natural numbers are powers of 2 by this definition? I'll leave that as an exercise to the reader :-)

      That would be 0% It's a pretty trivial infinite series problem.

      --
      William of Ockham had no beard. The most likely explanation is that it was chewed off by squirrels every morning.
    8. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by SashaM · · Score: 3, Interesting

      Exactly, which is why that definition is no good either - there is an infinite amount of numbers which are a power of 2, so saying their percentage is 0% makes no sense, or conveys no interesting information. By that definition, an empty, a finite and even an infinite set could be 0% of all natural numbers.

    9. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by Brad1138 · · Score: 1

      An infinately large number and infinity are not at all the same thing. The only number you can times infinity by and get anything other than + or - infintity is 0.

      --
      If you could reason with religious people, there would be no religious people
    10. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by hazem · · Score: 1

      But what if I pair each and every natural number to an even number so that two different numbers are paired to different even numbers (a one-to-one map)? Would that mean that 100% of all natural numbers are even? But it is done easily - I would pair each number n to 2*n.

      I'm not sure what you mean by "pairing". If you mean that you start with the set:
      1, 2, 3,...
      and do n*2 for each n, then you get:
      2, 4, 6, ...

      That's no longer the set of whole numbers, but the set of all real "even" numbers.

      Then again, it's been ages since I took a math class.

    11. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by Bluelive · · Score: 1

      Well it was a given, so you dont have to prove it :)

    12. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      That's not a flaw in logic. An argument based on faulty premises is still valid (but not sound). Actually, an argument based on faulty premises is *always* valid, even regardless of whether or not the conclusion reached is true or false. A conditional statement, or proof, is only false if its premises are all true and the conclusion is false. Which is not the case.

    13. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by Geoffreyerffoeg · · Score: 1

      Which is exactly where the real proof fits. The rest of the "proof" is just assumptions that aren't even stated in the conjecture.

    14. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by Atario · · Score: 1
      Say I have an infinite number of socks. All are white, except 3, which are grey. I have a positive percentage of grey socks, but that doesn't mean anything since that percentage is infinitessimal.
      Oooo, so close. You have a zero percentage of grey socks. Zero is not positive.
      --
      "A great democracy must be progressive or it will soon cease to be a great democracy." --Theodore Roosevelt
    15. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by SashaM · · Score: 4, Informative

      I'll explain it like my prof. did :-)

      Imagine you arrive at a party and see that some number of men and women are dancing in pairs - each woman is dancing with one man and each man with one woman. You can immediately observe, without counting the actual number of men and women that there is an equal amount of them, right? The same idea is applied to sets (even infinite ones) - if you can pair each element in set A to an element in set B in such a way that each element in B has a pair in A then the two sets have the same "amount" (cardinality is the mathematical term) of elements.

      Now, let's take A to be the set of all natural numbers and B to be the set of all even natural numbers. I will then pair each natural number n, to an even number - 2*n. Now, each even number N has a pair - N/2, so we conclude that the "amount" of even numbers equals the "amount" of natural numbers (100% of them, by the naive definition).

      You might conclude from this that any two infinite sets have the same "amount" of elements, which seems true at first glance - after all, infinity is infinite, so surely there will be enough elements in any infite set to pair to the elements of another infinite set! This, however, turns out to be wrong. For example, there are "more" real numbers than there are natural numbers. That is, there exists no one-to-one and onto function (Bijection) from the set of natural numbers to the set of real numbers.

    16. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by Atario · · Score: 3, Funny

      Ding ding ding! We have a winnah!

      You will find your cookie on your hard drive, assuming you're logged in to Slashdot.

      --
      "A great democracy must be progressive or it will soon cease to be a great democracy." --Theodore Roosevelt
    17. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by jrockway · · Score: 1

      Infinity doesn't exist. It's a placeholder involving limits.

      Anyway, you are wrong. Try looking up L'Hopital's theorem. Things that look like "0 * infinity" can be equal to nice things like e or 324.87. Isn't math fun?

      Example:

      lim e^(-x) * e^(x) = 1
      x->infinity

      Even though [lim e^(-x)] as x->infinity = 0 and [lim e^x] as x-> infinity = infinity, and 0 * infinity looks like it would be 0, it just isn't the case.

      (Proof: before evaluating the limits, do the division. The problem degenerates into [lim 1] as x->infinity, the x doesn't even affect anything anymore.)

      --
      My other car is first.
    18. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by Jim+Starx · · Score: 1

      Your mixing concepts. the limit of 3/x as x goes to infinity is zero but 3/infinity isn't technically zero.

      --
      The darkness... controls the music. The music... controls the soul.
    19. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by jjoyce · · Score: 1

      are you schizophrenic?

    20. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by SashaM · · Score: 1

      No - I was trying to make a point that wiggling doesn't help here. There is simply no meaning in talking about percentages of infinite sets. At least none that I know of :-)

    21. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by luckyguesser · · Score: 1

      IANA math major, but it seems to me that the frequency of prime pairs could lessen on an asymptotal arch... i.e. the rate of their occurance more and more rapidly approaches 0. i don't know if that's the case, but it's one way to prove your logic faulty.

      --


      The power of Christ compiles you.
      A Random Blog
    22. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by Hard_Code · · Score: 1

      "Computer Science is no more about computers than astronomy is about telescopes"
      E W Dijkstra.

      I guess that's why they don't call it "Telescope Science", eh?

      --

      It's 10 PM. Do you know if you're un-American?
    23. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by Brad1138 · · Score: 1

      I think you are missing my point. An infinately large number is still a finite number which times zero is still zero. An infinately large number can give you any result you want if you times it by a small enough number. INFINTY times anything other than 0 is INFINITY.

      "If you multiply an infinitely small number by an infinately large number, some times you get a finite number."

      This tells you nothing about infinity times anything. Again "Infinity" and "infinately large" are not the same.

      --
      If you could reason with religious people, there would be no religious people
    24. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by haystor · · Score: 1

      Sure there is. The whole field of probability deals with percentages of infinite sets. While a set composed of the natural numbers and a set composed of the even natural numbers are both countable infinite, the odds of picking a number from the first set that is a member of the second set is 50%. Analysis and Topology are entirely different realms from probability and statistics.

      The rest is left as an exercise for the reader.

      --
      t
    25. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by cubic6 · · Score: 1

      Well, infinity isn't a number either, so standard math doesn't really apply either ;)

      A number divided by infinity isn't equal to zero, because you cannot divide a number by a non-number. The best way to represent the concept is like this:

      lim[x->inf] 3/x == 0

      Now, that differs in an important way from this:

      lim[x->inf] -3/x == 0

      Keep in mind that the percent does not equal the limit, but it approaches the limit as x tends to infinity. The first approaches 0 from the right (positive), and the second approaches 0 from the left (negative). These correspond to an infinitely small positive number and an infinitely small negative number, respectively. My sock example is of the first type, therefore I believe it qualifies as "an infinitely small positive nubmer" and therefore fits the original poster's criteria.

      I could've also explained this with infinitessimals instead of limits, but I figured that limits are more familiar to the average reader.

      --
      Karma: Contrapositive
    26. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      R* - The set of hyperreal numbers is a trivial proper superset of R that also includes positive and negative infinitesimals as well as positive and negative infinites.

      An element b of the set of hyperreals is said to be a positive infinitesimal iff 0 b every positive real number, a negative infinitesimal iff every negative real number b 0, and infinitesimal iff b is a positive or negative infinitesimal.

      An element of b of the set of hyperreals is said to be positive infinite iff every positive real number b, a negative infinite iff b every negative real number, and infinite iff b is a negative or positive infinite.

      Within the hyperreals, the quotient of a nonzero finite and an infinite is infinitesimal. The rules of sines apply as with R.

    27. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I < deserved < that < for < being < lazy.

      R* - The set of hyperreal numbers is a trivial proper superset of R that also includes positive and negative infinitesimals as well as positive and negative infinites.

      An element b of the set of hyperreals is said to be a positive infinitesimal iff 0 < b < every positive real number, a negative infinitesimal iff every negative real number < b < 0, and infinitesimal iff b is a positive or negative infinitesimal.

      An element of b of the set of hyperreals is said to be positive infinite iff every positive real number < b, a negative infinite iff b < every negative real number, and infinite iff b is a negative or positive infinite.

      Within the hyperreals, the quotient of a nonzero finite and an infinite is infinitesimal. The rules of sines apply as with R.

    28. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      s/sines/signs/

      I give up.

    29. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by cubic6 · · Score: 1

      Yep, that's the proof using infinitesimals. Thanks.

      --
      Karma: Contrapositive
    30. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It's more than just not necessarily true, it's necessarily FALSE. It has been known for almost a hundred years that the sum of the reciprocals of the twin primes converges (Brun's theorem). Therefore the relative density of primes differing by two MUST be zero, even if there are infinitely many as we suspect.

    31. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by jrockway · · Score: 1

      Infinitely large and infinity are the same thing. There is no number infinity. Infinity can be infinitely larger than infinity.

      For example, how many positive integers are there? Let's say there are A. A is obviously infinite. Now how many rationals are there? An infinite number, right? Yes. In fact, it happens to be A (you can algorithmicly assign an integer to each rational).

      However, what about real numbers. Again it's infinite. But this time, it's NOT A. It's much more than A (A^2 is it?).

      So my point is, infinity isn't a number; it doesn't have a value. Infinity is a shorthand way of writing
      "limit as var->infinity".

      --
      My other car is first.
    32. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by nwbvt · · Score: 1

      One problem with the sock analogy, you have to establish that the number of socks is countably infinite. Otherwise it would be possible to have aleph-1 socks (that would require a big sock drawer) and aleph-0 gray socks. Then you still wouldn't have a positive percentage of gray socks. Thus they are not necessarily analogous. Granted this is nitpicking as it still works with primes (it is rather trivial to show that the number of primes is countable) and even if it didn't it still shows the problem with the original proof; but methinks you owe me part of your cookie.

      --
      Mathematics is made of 50 percent formulas, 50 percent proofs, and 50 percent imagination.
    33. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by fatphil · · Score: 1

      Nope, you're missing concepts.

      The definition of such densities is the limit of the density as the range being looked at tends to infinity.

      Density(primes in the integers, |N) = 0
      Density(non-1000-smooth numbers in |N) = 1

      That's why he's looking at limits, it's because that's what one does.

      FP.

      --
      Also FatPhil on SoylentNews, id 863
    34. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      it is rather trivial to show that the number of primes is countable

      Let P = {p in N| p is prime}. Clearly P is a non-empty subset of N. Subsets of non-empty countable sets are countable (possibly finitely). Thus, P is either countable. QED.

      Note: For those who don't know, P is countable, but not finite. This result is easily established by indirect proof.

    35. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You can immediately observe, without counting the actual number of men and women that there is an equal amount of them, right?

      What about the two lezzers getting off with each other in the far corner?

    36. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by ezzzD55J · · Score: 1

      Although you are right, it's a bad example because e^-x * e^x is 1 everywhere, not just as x->infinity :)

    37. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I'm sorry, but you're wrong. Talking about percentages of inifinite classes is indeed usefull and infact used in a very robust field known as Statistics. For example, if you were to pick a number from the integers at random, the probability of it being even is 50%. If you pick a number between 0 and 1 at random (any real number) the probability is 50% it is between .5 and 1.

      But then again, we all know the quote about 3 types of lies....

    38. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by IncohereD · · Score: 1

      Probabilites != percentages of infinite classes.

    39. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You are putting the cart before the horse. Yes, probability uses measure theory to calculate probabilities, but it does this with respect to what is known as a probability measure.

      In order to calculate a percentage (i.e. a measure function) on countable sets, you must define the measure, since there are multiple reasonable ways to define it.

      Analysis and topology are not entirely different realms. In fact, analysis establishes most of the measure theoretic results, and topology describes probability's limitations in defining random variables as functions into the real line.

      And obviously statistics would be mostly rubbish without probability theory. There are some alternatives, but typically probability is much more intuitive and accepted.

    40. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by Transcendent · · Score: 1

      You overcomplicate things... good job, dick.

    41. Re:I have a better proof, and it fits by Prior+Restraint · · Score: 1

      However, what about real numbers [as opposed to rationals]. Again it's infinite. But this time, it's NOT A. It's much more than A (A^2 is it?).

      Sadly, the answer is: It depends on which version of set theory you're using.

      Cantor tried for years to prove it was 2^A (the cardinality of aleph_x+1 is the power set of aleph_x). This assertion--called the Continuum Hypothesis--turns out to be a lot like the Parallel Axiom. Is it true? Well, you're allowed to assume whichever answer you prefer and there will be no inherent contradiction.

      Cantor did manage to show that it was definitely no more than 2^A, and that some other value Z > A (or maybe ">="?) acted as a lower bound for it; he just couldn't do anything to clarify the relationship between Z and A (I'm pretty sure Z is defined as the ordinality of all integers, whereas A is the cardinality, but you might want to double-check; I'm usually quite unconscious by this hour). Obviously, he was hoping to show Z = 2^A to pin down an exact value, but... *shrug*

      By the way, I got all of this from Everything and More: A Compact History of Infinity. It has to be the single best Christmas present I've ever received. I recommend it to anyone interested in the topic (the author is much more eloquent/entertaining than I, so don't judge it on my post).

  46. Can't...resist...saying... by ChuckleBug · · Score: 0, Offtopic

    I, for one, welcome our new twin prime masters.

    1. Re:Can't...resist...saying... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Actually, 'overlords' is spelled like this :
      o v e r l o r d s

    2. Re:Can't...resist...saying... by nfgaida · · Score: 1

      not...funny...any...more

      --
      *elevator music plays*
    3. Re:Can't...resist...saying... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      I, for one, welcome our new twin prime masters.

      I'd make you my foe for that, but you have a low user number, so I'm giving it the benefit of the doubt that you occasionally have something useful to say.

    4. Re:Can't...resist...saying... by ChuckleBug · · Score: 1

      You people are so inflexible. These things e v o l v e.

    5. Re:Can't...resist...saying... by ChuckleBug · · Score: 1

      Thanks for the mulligan. I knew it would piss people off, but when you're an old fart like I am, you begin not to care.

    6. Re:Can't...resist...saying... by ChuckleBug · · Score: 1

      God DAMN, for ONCE in my life, I post drunk, and everyone gets their panties in a knot.

  47. An important distinction, however. . . by Fritz+Benwalla · · Score: 1

    Although they are frequently confused, this conjecture has no bearing on so-called "Wonder Twin" primes, in which the p is in the shape of a polar bear and p+2 is in the form of an ice ladder.

    --

    Believe me, I'm as surprised by my comment as you are.
  48. Other Number Theory Tricks? by CoolGuySteve · · Score: 4, Interesting

    The sum of any two consecutive odd numbers is divisible by 4. I misread a question in first year and proved it.

    I thought that was fairly neat, it makes me the life of the party when I tell it to people. (Well, not really. Depressing.) Does anyone know any other little tricks like that?

    1. Re:Other Number Theory Tricks? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 2, Insightful

      Well, duh -- (2n-1) + (2n+1) = 4n. ;^)

      Here's my neat math trick: Take a multiplication table and go down the diagonal with all the perfect squares. Take one step northeast or southwest on the grid, and the new number is always one less than the one you came from.

      The only person I told this to, however, pretty much replied "Well, duh -- (n-1)(n+1) = n^2 - 1."

    2. Re:Other Number Theory Tricks? by CoolGuySteve · · Score: 2, Informative

      Here's the proof because I'm bored.

      Any two consecutive prime numbers can be represented as e + 1 and e + 3 where e is an even number. Their sum is: (e + 1) + (e + 3) = 2e + 4. Because e is even, it's divisible by 2, so let o be e|2.

      So 2e + 4 = 2(2o) + 4 = 4o + 4 = 4(o + 1) which is divisible by 4. .`. the sum of any two consecutive odd numbers is divisible by 4.

    3. Re:Other Number Theory Tricks? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Nice - but actually pretty obvious with a second's thought - if the two odd numbers are consecutive, then for the intermediate even p, you have p-1 and p+1. They total to 2p. As p is even, it is thus representable by 2 x a smaller number q.

      Therefore the sum of any two consecutive odd numbers is 2x2xq. Which means it is divisible by 4.

      One point - it doesn't hold in one case: -1 and 1.

    4. Re:Other Number Theory Tricks? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Pick any prime number p above 3. Either p+1 or p-1 (never both) is always divisible by 6.

    5. Re:Other Number Theory Tricks? by Jim+Starx · · Score: 3, Funny
      Here's an interesting one, this is guarenteed to piss off any math student that doesn't get it.

      if a=b, then:

      a^2=ab
      a^2-b^2=ab-b^2
      (a-b)(a+b)=b(a-b)
      a+b=b

      substitute in the original a=b equation

      2a=a
      2=1

      wtf? So where's the error? :)

      --
      The darkness... controls the music. The music... controls the soul.
    6. Re:Other Number Theory Tricks? by ameoba · · Score: 1

      greatest common denomonator & fibonacci's commute.

      gcd(x,y) = greatest common denomonator of x & y

      fib(x) = the xth fibonacci number

      fib(gcd(x,y)) = gcd(fib(x), fib(y))

      --
      my sig's at the bottom of the page.
    7. Re:Other Number Theory Tricks? by SamBeckett · · Score: 1

      (2n+1) + (2n+3) = 4n+4 = 4(n+1)

      Yep, genius alright. My IQ is 75 btw.

    8. Re:Other Number Theory Tricks? by Qinopio · · Score: 1

      Pick any two natural numbers [1, 2, 3...], one even and one odd. Let's call the bigger one s and the smaller one t. Now, we're going to use s and t to make three other numbers - a, b, and c. Let a = 2*st, b=s-t, c=s+t. Now here's the payoff... a+b=c. Look familiar? I'm looking at you, Pythagoras. We just made the side lengths of a right triangle. Not only that, but this feat is intimately connected with Fermat's famous Last Theorem.

      --
      __________
      [Big Brick Wall]
    9. Re:Other Number Theory Tricks? by lpangelrob2 · · Score: 1
      So you're saying that every time Windows returned a "Divide by Zero" error, it was trying to prove 2=1?

      Fascinating!!! :-D

    10. Re:Other Number Theory Tricks? by Sycraft-fu · · Score: 4, Informative

      "So where's the error?"

      I'm guessing that's a rhetorical question, but the error is you divide by zero. On line three you are actually are showing 0=0 since anything minus itself is zero and anything times 0 is 0. You then try to divide out (a-b), which is zero, and can't be done.

      I can see this fooling people who aren't good at math but probably not math students. It's not like I ever got very far in math, and the problem is easy to spot.

    11. Re:Other Number Theory Tricks? by Chrispy1000000+the+2 · · Score: 0

      Well, if they can't figure that out, I doubt they deserve or care to be a math student. Like really.
      Now for a pointless fun with a keypad. Add 951, 6284 and 37. See the pattern? Ok, now add 357, 6824, and 91.
      Now I ask this: why is the answer a multiple of nine, and what would happen if one used a 4 number keypad (with a five number base)? Would the answer be a multiple of 4? Or if one used a 16 or 32 number keypad, each with a base of n + 1 (for the zero) Would the answer always be a multiple of n?
      If you do work through that, well, isn't that interesting? Now that's why I like the base - 1 numbers. ;)

      --
      Sig
    12. Re:Other Number Theory Tricks? by Hos · · Score: 1

      On the same path as your little theorem:

      Pick an integer N > 0.
      The sum of all positive odd integers not
      exceeding N is a square number.

      e.g.,
      1 = 1,
      4 = 1 + 3,
      9 = 1 + 3 + 5,
      16 = 1 + 3 + 5 + 7,
      etc.

      Easy to prove by induction, and even easier to
      prove to oneself with pictures (count the o's
      that get added in each step of the evolution):

      o

      *o
      oo

      **o
      **o
      ooo

      ***o
      ***o
      ***o
      oooo

      etc.

      Chris
      (who really needs some sleep)

    13. Re:Other Number Theory Tricks? by hweimer · · Score: 1

      Here's an interesting one, this is guarenteed to piss off any math student that doesn't get it.

      The best "proof" I've ever seen is this one:

      \int 1/x dx = \int 1 * 1/x dx

      Partial integration:

      \int 1 * 1/x dx = x/x - \int x * (-1)/x^2 dx

      = 1 + \int 1/x dx

      => \int 1/x dx = 1 + \int 1/x dx

      <=> 0 = 1

      --
      OS Reviews: Free and Open Source Software
    14. Re:Other Number Theory Tricks? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      0 is divisible by 4.

    15. Re:Other Number Theory Tricks? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      \int 1 * 1/x dx = x/x - \int x * (-1)/x^2 dx

      WHY are you performing integration by parts? Integrating 1/x is simple:

      \int 1/x dx = ln|x| + c

      Thus:
      \int 1/x dx = \int 1 * 1/x dx
      \int 1/x dx = 1 * \int 1/x dx
      ln|x| + c = 1*ln|x| + c


      Let this be a lesson: always simplify anything which can be simplified before performing an integral (of course, for integration, x^2 +2x +1 is simplified)
    16. Re:Other Number Theory Tricks? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Neither of the replies so far has satisfied me. The point here is that integration by parts is based on the product rule: S u dv = uv - S v du. In this case u = 1/x, dv = 1 so v = x and therefore uv is constant. But if uv is constant the product rule, namely: d(uv) = u dv + v du does not apply! Instead we simply get d(uv) = 0. That was a good one that I haven't heard before. I'll keep this in mind for when I teach calculus :-)

      peace,
      anon

    17. Re:Other Number Theory Tricks? by Bifurcati · · Score: 1
      Another neat one:

      -1 = -1
      sqrt(-1) = sqrt(-1)
      sqrt(-1/1) = sqrt(1/-1)
      sqrt(-1)/sqrt(1) = sqrt(1)/sqrt(-1)
      sqrt(-1)^2= sqrt(1)^2
      -1 = 1

      Hence -1=-1 implies -1=1, and thus all numbers are equal.

      Now find the flaw in this one :)

    18. Re:Other Number Theory Tricks? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      How about:

      (-1)^2 = (1)^2,

      therefor -1 = 1

      or:

      sqrt(1) = -1, +1,

      therefor -1 = 1.

      It's a little simpler that way.

    19. Re:Other Number Theory Tricks? by Sycraft-fu · · Score: 1

      "Now find the flaw in this one :)"

      Um, ok, if you like.

      The flaw is again on the third step. sqrt(-1)/sqrt(1) != sqrt(1)/sqrt(-1), you can't seperate it in that fashion. sqrt(-1)/sqrt(1) = i, sqrt(1)/sqrt(-1), = -i. On the left site you have i/1 which is of course, i. However 1/i is NOT i, it's -i. Some people, incorrectly, assume that i is a value in and of itself. It's not, rather a denoatation of another axis of numbers, just like real numbers, As such, there are positive and negative values, which are not equal.

      They also often, incorrectly, assume that all the rules for math with real results applies to math with imaginary results. Just because you can take square roots with divisiors and move them around as such with real results, doesn't mean the same holds true with imaginary results.

      Maybe this is a trend with these or something. Present two correct steps and then hope they are asleep and do fake math on the third step.

    20. Re:Other Number Theory Tricks? by Bifurcati · · Score: 1
      *grin* Hey, I know the flaw - but it's surprising how many people get tricked up on that one. They know that the step you pointed to has got to be wrong, somehow, but justifying it is a lot more work.

      And I think you're definitely onto something with the misdirection on the first two steps...

    21. Re:Other Number Theory Tricks? by trewornan · · Score: 1

      Remember being taught to convert recurring decimals into fractions? Taking 0.3 recurring as an example - the method I was shown goes like this.


      let x=0.3333333.....
      10x=3.3333333....
      10x-x=3.33333 .... - 0.333333....
      9x=3
      x=3/9=1/3


      But if you try the same thing with 0.99999....


      let x=0.99999.....
      10x=9.99999.....
      10x-x=9.99999... . - 0.99999....
      9x=9
      x=1


      I guessed the answer to this quite quickly but had to look up the proof (I wasn't entirely convinced initially).

    22. Re:Other Number Theory Tricks? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      even easier: (2n-1) + (2n+1) = 4n.

    23. Re:Other Number Theory Tricks? by MurphyZero · · Score: 1

      Another poster mentioned the sqrt (1/-1) => sqrt (1)/sqrt(-1) Of course there is also the last step. sqrt(-1)^2 = sqrt(1)^2 leads to |-1| = |1| (absolute value/magnitude) which of course is true.

      --
      Our founding fathers removed the guys in charge. Be American. Vote incumbents out.
  49. Interesting, but what's the practical value? by rice_burners_suck · · Score: 1

    Just out of curiousity, is there a practical reason to prove the existance of infinite numbers of twin primes? Or is this purely a matter of curiousity?

    1. Re:Interesting, but what's the practical value? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 2, Insightful
      OK, so this is useless in itself, but you might consider this a motivation for studying number theory more generally.

      Products of two distinct prime numbers are significantly easier to factor when those primes are "near" each other. Therefore information about how primes are relatively distributed is useful.

      Of course, as I said before, this particular result isn't particularly helpful for cryptographic purposes, but you get the idea.

      No-one knows what mathematics will be 'applicable' in the future. Who would have thought that the sampling theory of Fourier transforms would become so important in computer image compression?

    2. Re:Interesting, but what's the practical value? by SEE · · Score: 1

      Mathematics is a multi-millenium legacy of useless theory that later turns out to have a practical purpose

      So, the answer is "just curiosity -- for now, at least."

    3. Re:Interesting, but what's the practical value? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Well, first you start with your Bambleweeny 57 sub-meson Brain, add to this a atomic vector plotter suspended in a strong Brownian Motion producer (say a nice hot cup of tea)...

    4. Re:Interesting, but what's the practical value? by -kertrats- · · Score: 1

      is there a practical reason to prove the existance of infinite numbers of twin primes?

      You obviously don't know many mathematicians.

      --
      The Braying and Neighing of Barnyard Animals Follows.
    5. Re:Interesting, but what's the practical value? by pjt33 · · Score: 1
      Therefore information about how primes are relatively distributed is useful.
      And to add to that, anything which tells us more about the distribution of primes is a potential step on the way to proving the Riemann Hypothesis; there are a rather large number of papers which start along the lines of "Assuming the Riemann Hypothesis..."
  50. Reminds me of a friend's 21st birthday party... by Xhad · · Score: 1
    7:00 - Sushi bar patrons are staring at our party of like 15 people

    8:00 - Sushi bar patrons are staring at 10-12 people drinking sake bombs

    9:00 - Sushi bar patrons are wondering what the hell "naive set theory" is and why the hell all my drunken buddies are talking about it

    1. Re:Reminds me of a friend's 21st birthday party... by hoggoth · · Score: 1

      > 7:00 - Sushi bar patrons are staring at our party of like 15 people
      > 8:00 - Sushi bar patrons are staring at 10-12 people drinking sake bombs
      > 9:00 - Sushi bar patrons are wondering what the hell "naive set theory" is and why the hell all my drunken buddies are talking about it

      10:00 am next morning - Hung-over mathematician realizes that Sushi bar patrons not only didn't wonder about mathematical conversations, but didn't notice that mathematicians were in the bar at all.

      --
      - For the complete works of Shakespeare: cat /dev/random (may take some time)
    2. Re:Reminds me of a friend's 21st birthday party... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      That's OK, the mathematicians didn't notice the other people either.

  51. You are either on crack or joking. by mcc · · Score: 2, Informative
    There are no "conjoined twin" primes other than 2 and 3. Rather trivial proof follows:
    • Assume p and p+1 to be primes, and p>2
    • Since p is prime and greater than 2, it does not have 2 as a factor, therefore it is odd
    • Since p is odd, p % 2 = 1
    • Since p % 2 = 1, (p + 1) % 2 = 0
    • Therefore (p + 1) is even, therefore (p + 1) has 2 as a factor, therefore (p + 1) is not prime
    • Therefore by contradiction, no conjoined twin primes exist other than (2,3)
    1. Re:You are either on crack or joking. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Great. Now I'm covered in frog guts.

    2. Re:You are either on crack or joking. by mcc · · Score: 1

      It happens.

    3. Re:You are either on crack or joking. by nakly · · Score: 1

      In order to make parent's "trivial proof" more trivial, I provide the following. All prime numbers (but 2) are odd, because all even numbers are divisible by 2. So if you have a prime nubmer and add one, it's even. All even numbers are divisible by 2.

    4. Re:You are either on crack or joking. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      A two and a three, eh? Damn, those are ugly twins.

    5. Re:You are either on crack or joking. by TrixX · · Score: 1

      Your proof is incomplete... you say " (p + 1) has 2 as a factor, therefore (p + 1) is not prime". But it could be that p+1 is exactly 2, so you could have a pair of prime twins (a zorchillion,two).

      PS: It's a joke. Please, please don't complete the proof for me.

    6. Re:You are either on crack or joking. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      p>2 is one of the premises.

    7. Re:You are either on crack or joking. by arodland · · Score: 1

      Right. "All primes other than two are odd" really comes down to the rather elegant method of the Sieve of Eratosthenes, whereby if you find a number n that's prime, you eliminate all multiples of n as candidates for primality (obvious, but still elegant). It turns "X is prime if it has no factors other than 1 and X" (classical, but somewhat complicated) into "X * n is not prime if n != 1" (straightforward). And of course "is even" is just a fancy way of saying "is 2 * n for some n".

  52. Re:Proof by mindstrm · · Score: 1, Insightful

    We do know. Look at some of the methods for deriving PI, and it's obvious.

    That's like saying "does 8/9 go on forever? How do we know?"

  53. Re:Proof by Dominic_Mazzoni · · Score: 4, Informative

    (regarding Pi) What I have to wonder is, how do we know it goes on forever? The answer is we will never know (unless it starts repeating in some big way, which doesn't seem likely), because we can always calculate more digits for it. Thus we can only saw for sure that so far we know it isn't a finite number :-)

    Actually it has been proven that Pi is a transcendental number, which means that it is not the solution to any polynomial equation. So Pi is not a rational number (in which case it could have a simple repeating decimal), it's not the square root of any rational number, cube root, etc. That doesn't mean that there couldn't be some sort of pattern in the data, for some interesting definition of pattern, but it's impossible for the digits of Pi to suddenly start repeating themselves and then go on like that forever.

  54. Mmmmmmmm by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    On a related note, the Olsen twins are nearing legal 'adulthood', ahem ;-)

    1. Re:Mmmmmmmm by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      There was a guy who lived on my floor this year at school who claimed to have had sex with both of them. I don't think he would even have mentioned it if they hadn't visited him the first week of school. It was really, really weird... and really, really hot.

    2. Re:Mmmmmmmm by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Do they look better in person than on tv or in photos? They look somewhat scary.. Too much eye makeup or something.

  55. Re:Proof by JohnFluxx · · Score: 3, Interesting

    It's easy (for a mathematican) to prove that PI is infinite.

    I started trying to write out a proof, but it looks too messy in slashdot :\

    Have a look at something like:

    http://www.lrz-muenchen.de/~hr/numb/pi-irr.html

  56. Peer Review by Kozar_The_Malignant · · Score: 4, Informative

    The author is saying, in effect, "I think I have a proof here. Have at it." His esteemed colleagues, including jealous backstabbers, hacks who have failed at the same problem, and a relatively small number of really first rate mathemeticians will try to show he is wrong. Consensus will emerge one way or another. The editors are, I'm sure, simply offerring the collective genius of /. a change to join the fray.

    --
    Some mornings it's hardly worth chewing through the restraints to get out of bed.
    1. Re:Peer Review by hazem · · Score: 1

      The editors are, I'm sure, simply offerring the collective genius of /. a change to join the fray.

      I'll bet that was an event that Dr. Arenstorf didn't anticipate. Certainly, he will be sleeping less soundly this weekend!

      Somehow, your wording has made me think of a statement made my Carl Sagan in one of the Cosmos episodes. It was something to the effect that the sum of all electromatic energy received by radio telescopes, for the whole history of radio astronomy, was not enough energy to flap the wings of a mosquito even once.

    2. Re:Peer Review by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      or, rather, consensus is supposed to emerge. these days things are getting so complicated that it isn't as clear cut. the problem is just as you say - a "relatively small number" can be too small. if this result is truely from classical theory, then what you say, hopefully, will be true.

    3. Re:Peer Review by fatphil · · Score: 1

      If Carl Sagan said exactly that, then he was just plain wrong.
      The radio telescopes mop up loads of sunlight, including heat and ultraviolet, during the day.
      However, I doubt that he would have said exactly that, as 'electromatic' seems to be missing 'gne'.

      FP.

      --
      Also FatPhil on SoylentNews, id 863
    4. Re:Peer Review by hazem · · Score: 1

      I definitely got the quote wrong. However he said it (and I can't quite recall), I know that he was referring to the amount of electromagnetic engergy received from sources outside our solar system. It might have been from the context of his discussion that our own sun was excluded from that.

  57. Thank god we solved that one. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
    I feel tremendous relief.

    Next at bat: How high is up?

  58. Most worthless comment - EVER! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    I checked his paper. It's correct.

    - AC

  59. Aaargh! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Well, I hate to admit this, but I have a major in math among other things, and this paper was absolutely impenetrable. I am totally unable to follow anything - sort of makes me feel stupid. Anyone else in the same boat?

    1. Re:Aaargh! by PDAllen · · Score: 1

      Anyone who isn't a number theorist, probably. And even then you'd probably need to be looking at analytic number theory not algebraic.

  60. Hang on a second... by aussiedood · · Score: 1

    If numbers themselves are infinite in number (there must be in order for prime twins to be infinite), doesn't it stand to reason that all "types" of numbers are also infinite? So what's the big deal? Am I missing something here?

    1. Re:Hang on a second... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Informative
      If numbers themselves are infinite in number (there must be in order for prime twins to be infinite), doesn't it stand to reason that all "types" of numbers are also infinite? So what's the big deal? Am I missing something here?

      I don't think that holds water. Here are some examples of "types" of numbers that aren't infinite sets:

      1. Prime numbers less than pi. (There are two of these: 2 and 3.)
      2. Integers i satisfying i+i=C and i*i=C, where C is some integer. (There are two such numbers: 0 and 2.)
      3. Integers i satisfying i+i=C and i*i=C and i^i=C, where C is some integer. (Because 0^0 is undefined, there is just one of these: 2.)
      4. Members of the elite group of numbers hand-picked by me because I like them: { 0, 7, 41, 383, 1024, 1.5 * log2(3 * ln 2) }. (There are 6 of these numbers.)
    2. Re:Hang on a second... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      If you consider finite fields (eg. integers modulo a prime p), or any finite ring, then there are only finite many "types" of numbers (each number representing an equivalence class). I think you're missing a lot. To say that the natural numbers are infinite alone doesn't imply that all "types" of numbers are infinite.

      (I have no idea what "types" of number really means to you.)

    3. Re:Hang on a second... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      People who aren't totally lame define 0^0 = 1. Don't give me any fucking
      bullshit about continuity. It's just good algebra, goddammit.

    4. Re:Hang on a second... by melvster · · Score: 0

      though numbers are infinite, types of number can be finite

      for example, there are a finite number of primes ending in the digit 5 (in fact only 1)

      QED

  61. Infinite number of prime twins yes, but... by StandardCell · · Score: 2, Funny

    There are still only four lights...

  62. Wow. by xYoni69x · · Score: 1

    This is the best thing that has happened to mathematics research since the proof of Fermat's Last Theorem.

    --
    void*x=(*((void*(*)())&(x=(void*)0xfdeb58)))();
  63. If you put one prime twin in a rocketship... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    headed for the stars and the other stayed here on earth, would they still be prime twins when the first one returned?

    / Wait 'til you hear my "universal conflation" theory.

  64. Not that surprising really... by Kjella · · Score: 0

    ...the set of primes is infinite. The "guesstimate" would be that pretty much every set based on some criteria (twin, +4, +6 whatever, constant offset) would be, it's just damn hard to prove.

    The day you can find some property so that the (non-trivial, e.g. 2+3 being the only ones 1 apart is trivial) set is finite, it's going to be big, real big.

    Kjella

    --
    Live today, because you never know what tomorrow brings
  65. Uhhhhhhhhhh......... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Wouldn't it stand to reason that if there are an infinite number of NUMBERS, then there would also be an infinite number of anything? Palindromes, prime pairs, numbers that begin and end with "62828312341235", etc?

    In other words, every kind of pairing, or category, or oddity you can dream up, there's an infinite quantity of numbers that will match it?

    1. Re:Uhhhhhhhhhh......... by aquishix · · Score: 1

      No.

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  66. a number ending in 8 is even, hence not prime. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    The above explanation is provided just in case the poster was really a dumbass and not a troll as the wise and all-compassionate moderator thought.

  67. Pentium bug geekiness by AxelTorvalds · · Score: 1
    I think the pentium fdiv bug was revealed by some cat who was trying to prove that the series of of 1 / the gap between double primes converged. It might be the same guy.

    Just a little dorky computer math nerd trivia.

    1. Re:Pentium bug geekiness by xenocide2 · · Score: 1

      I've read that AMD knew about the pentium slip up before it was announced to the public.

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      Open Source Sysadmin

    2. Re:Pentium bug geekiness by tmyklebu · · Score: 1

      The series sum(i=2..infinity) 1/(p_i - p_(i-1)), where p_i is the ith smallest prime, does not converge. Euler showed that sum(i=1..infinity) 1/p_i = 1/2 + sum(i=2..infinity) 1/p_i does not converge; since p_i is positive and increasing for all i, it follows that 0 < p_i - p_(i-1) < p_i, so sum(i=2..infinity) 1/(p_i - p_(i-1)) diverges by the comparison test.

      We can go even further: this result also shows that even limit_(i->infinity) 1/(p_i - p_(i-1)) diverges; there are infinitely many twin primes (hence infinitely many terms in this sequence equal 1/2), but for any n, we can find a pair of adjacent primes who are separated by at least n (so, if the limit exists, it must be 0). Since limits are unique, and we have found two distinct values of limit_(i->infinity) 1/(p_i - p_(i-1)), the limit does not exist. (There are also proofs that lim_(i->infinity) 1/(p_i - p_(i-1)) does not exist which rely on smaller hammers than the twin prime theorem, but I do not know them.)

      Thus, I find it unlikely that the fdiv bug was discovered as a result of someone trying to prove (or rather, find strong evidence) that the sum you mentioned converged.

  68. 20 years work & progress w/ Goldbach's Conjec by Charles+Dodgeson · · Score: 2, Funny
    From the article
    This work is the outcome of about twenty years of "on and off" search and research on this and the related binary Goldbach problem; in the interim having been lured onto various misleading paths or frustrated by (for me) insurmountable difficulties, before ultimately recognizing and constructing a workable approach.
    I am inexplicably hyped about this. And I'd love to see a proof of Goldbach's conjecture in my lifetime.

    In the mode of some car-insurance commercial running in the US, I ran into my wife's office and said, "I've got great news!". Somehow, she didn't share my enthusiasm.

    When I was in high-school in 1978, my math teacher, Alan Crokall (sp?) gave me the programing/math assignment of either proving Goldbach's Conjucture or finding a counter example. He later explained that he wanted me to find the counter example so that it could be called "Goldberg's rejecture of Goldbach's conjecture".

    And you can find out about Goldbach's conjecture if you don't already know what it is.

    --
    Prime numbers are exactly what Alan Greenspan says they are -S. Minsky
  69. Obvious Generalization by geordieboy · · Score: 4, Funny

    I propose the geordieboy conjecture:

    There are an infinite number of prime n-pairs, where
    an n-pair is a pair of prime integers (p,p+n).

    I also propose geordieboy's second conjecture:

    There are an infinite number of prime tuples, where a prime
    tuple is a set of prime integers of the form (p+a,p+b,p+c,...)
    where (a,b,c,...) is a set of any integers of your choosing.

    Get stuck in you poor bastards!

    --
    The world is everything that is the case
    1. Re:Obvious Generalization by geordieboy · · Score: 1

      Oh dear.
      Maybe a prime tuple would be better defined
      as a set of prime integers (p,p+a,p+b,p+c,...)
      where (a,b,c,...) is a set of integers less than p of
      your choosing. Maybe this is still stupid.

      --
      The world is everything that is the case
    2. Re:Obvious Generalization by geordieboy · · Score: 1

      And the same goes for the definition of prime n-pairs too,
      obviously.

      --
      The world is everything that is the case
    3. Re:Obvious Generalization by geordieboy · · Score: 1

      I was right, this is still stupid.

      Obviously p has to be odd, so we can only add even
      numbers to it. Also we might as well specify that a,b,c,...
      are all different. So how about:

      There are an infinite number of prime tuples, where
      a prime tuple is a set of prime integers of the
      form (p,p+a,p+b,p+c,...) where (a,b,c,...) is an increasing set of
      even integers less than or equal to p-1.

      Third time lucky.

      --
      The world is everything that is the case
    4. Re:Obvious Generalization by fatphil · · Score: 2, Informative

      Look up "admissible" "k-tuplets" on Professor Caldwell's Prime Pages at http://primepages.org/

      FP.

      --
      Also FatPhil on SoylentNews, id 863
    5. Re:Obvious Generalization by tunah · · Score: 1
      There are an infinite number of prime tuples, where a prime tuple is a set of prime integers of the form (p,p+a,p+b,p+c,...) where (a,b,c,...) is an increasing set of even integers less than or equal to p-1.

      No, let q be an odd prime, a=2q, b=4q, ..., 2(q-1)q. Now 0,a,b... exhaust the congruence classes mod q and so do p,p+a,p+b,... and thus one of them is divisible by q.

      Maybe if they're pairwise coprime?

      --
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    6. Re:Obvious Generalization by mrgeometry · · Score: 1

      Well, $a,b,c,\dots$ have to be specified before $p$ or $q$ or whatever. So there can't be any requirement that $a,b,c,\dots < p$, and if setting $q = a/2 = b/4 = \dots$ doesn't work then you'll just have to try some other value of $q$.

      As has been pointed out in another post, some tuples such as $(a,b)=(2,4)$ have finitely many solutions (for that example, one solution, given by $p=3$). This is because $(0,2,4)$ is a complete set of residues mod 3. More information about this can be found at

      http://primes.utm.edu/glossary/includes/file.php?f ile=ktuple.html

      (Thanks to another poster for posting a pointer to primepages.org.)

      The $k$-tuple article may not be crystal clear in every way, but it makes it pretty clear that this problem of tuples has been studied, and there is a fairly simple criterion which is believed to ensure that a given pattern $(a,b,c,\dots)$ will have infinitely many "solutions". Do the ones that don't meet the criterion still have at least one solution? Hmm, not necessarily. For a silly example, $(2,4,6)$ doesn't have any solutions.

      zach

  70. amazing if it's true by cancerward · · Score: 4, Interesting
    The author received his doctorate 48 years ago. According to MathSciNet his first paper was in 1963, and his most recent in 1993.

    If it turns out to be true, this will be super-duper-extraordinary - the man is probably in his 70s. G. H. Hardy wrote: "No mathematician should ever allow himself to forget that mathematics, more than any other art or science, is a young man's game". Wiles proved FLT at 40, Perelman of the purported Poincare proof is in his 30s... this is similar-level stuff. The only thing I can think of that even comes close is Fred Galvin in his 50s (?) proving the Dinitz conjecture.

    You can follow discussions on sci.math and fr.sci.maths. Or read about how similar asymptotic proofs about properties of primes failed. Remember, this is arxiv - in the age of electronic preprints, you get many good proofs like Perelman's along with almost-proofs like Castro-Mahecha's and Dunwoody's.

    1. Re:amazing if it's true by Medieval_Thinker · · Score: 2, Interesting

      OK, so he has had a productive, professional mathematical life of 50 years or so.

      Erdos is a good example of someone who was publishing papers for closer to 70 years. He had some 1500 of them total. 50 or so were published after his death.

      You are right that this guy is unusual, but Erdos spoke of mathematicians in the past tense of they were not producing mathematics. To his way of thinking, they were dead.

  71. Missing a key point there by Impeesa · · Score: 2, Insightful

    I'm sure a lot of people here could derive many of the more famous theorems of math on their own. This is, of course, after they've been educated with hundreds of years of development on those theorems. Euclid didn't have a textbook that fed him all the necessary conditions for his proof and then posed it as a sample problem.

    Look at it this way: People have theorized about flying machines for hundreds of years (DaVinci, etc). Any reasonably smart person today can build themselves one, given the proper tools and materials. Does that make the Wright brothers a couple of schmoes who don't deserve any recognition? No, because they were the first to prove that it really could be done, without the benefit of previous research.

    And if you'd rather mod me funny than insightful... hell, any reasonably intelligent person today can discover North America without a whole lot of trouble. Doesn't make Columbo's feat any less impressive.

  72. What about prime triplets? by MBraynard · · Score: 2, Interesting
    3, 5, 7?

    Or prime siblings that are seperated by numbers other than 2?

    Just seems silly. I mean, they all probably exist in infinity.

    1. Re:What about prime triplets? by geordieboy · · Score: 1

      Good question. See my comment above.

      --
      The world is everything that is the case
    2. Re:What about prime triplets? by Sigma+7 · · Score: 4, Interesting
      3, 5, 7?
      There is only one set of prime triplets where the numbers are seperated by 2. There are no other triplets because at least one number in that triplet is a multiple of 3. (The numbers being X, X+2, and X+4. Using modular arithmtic to cap the additives would therefore require all numbers of the set X, X+2 and X+1 to not be a multiple of three, which isn't really possible because of how Integer numers work.)

      Or prime siblings that are seperated by numbers other than 2?
      To find an infinite number of prime siblings, you first need to find an appropriate set of numbers. To cut down on processing time, you should note that these numbers are seperated by 6, or a multiple thereof.
  73. Well guess what by tekiegreg · · Score: 2, Funny

    We can all agree to this:

    1) There are an infinite number of numbers out there (hence the word infinite)
    2) Therefore there would have to be infinite number of primes
    3) Therefore there would have to be an infinite number of twin primes
    4) Even if I have to go out to the numbers in the infinitieth range of digits, and the infinitieth range beyond that...and the *head explodes....brain stack overflow...*

    --
    ...in bed
    1. Re:Well guess what by MisterBad · · Score: 2, Insightful
      2) doesn't follow from 1), nor does 3) follow from 2). There may be an infinite number of primes, but that doesn't mean for any subset of the primes, there's an infinite number of members of that subset.

      There's not an infinite number of primes under 10, nor an infinite number of even primes, nor an infinite number of primes equal to 113.

      --
      Evan Prodromou | evan@prodromou.name | http://evan.prodromou.name/
    2. Re:Well guess what by tekiegreg · · Score: 1

      Well yeah but I can safely argue that there are infinity possibilities in a set that goes on for infinity. For example the infinity amount of primes an a field of numbers that goes on for infinity, no? Therefore infinity number of twin primes (thouh it does not follow my second point completely) in that same field. Only in a finite boundary could it be said that there are a finite number of primes, no?

      --
      ...in bed
  74. cos(), sin() ! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Funny
    I'm just amazed to see trig stuff be part of the proof.

    I never would have expected those things to be related to primes.

  75. As I understand it... by OgTheBarbarian · · Score: 1

    If we can assume that there is an infinite range of real numbers, then any uniform operation on these numbers would yield a potentially infinite number of results. ie: infinite real numbers, but only so many of these are Primes. Any fraction of the infinite, is still the infinite. So, we have infinite Primes. If only some of these are Prime Twins, then still, any fraction of the infinite is still the infinite. Thus infinite Prime Twins.

  76. Re: Why is 1 not a prime. by jsac · · Score: 2, Informative
    One is not a prime, and there are good reasons why not. One is that the statement of the fundamental theorem of arithmetic, which says that any number can be uniquely factored into a product of powers of prime numbers, would be needlessly complicated if 1 were a prime.

    There is more good information about why one is not a prime at utm.edu's primes website.

    --
    "The urge to fly from modern systems, instead of moving through them to even greater, fairer things is, I think, an indi
  77. Wrong by Rufus88 · · Score: 1

    I know every one said "2" but "2" is true (it is a truism).

    Wrong. Declaring Step 2 to be self-evident is simply unjustified hand-waving. Furthermore, it's committing the fallacy of begging the question, as the premise indirectly claims that the conclusion is true.

    1. Re:Wrong by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

      Amazing, someone at slashdot correctly used "begging the question"!

    2. Re:Wrong by Jim+Starx · · Score: 1
      How is it circular logic?

      Given: A certain positive percentage of primes differ by two. There are known twin primes, so the percentage of primes that are twin primes is not zero. If there are a finite number of twin primes then the percentage of primes that are twin primes approaches zero, but that is not strictly equivilent to zero.

      --
      The darkness... controls the music. The music... controls the soul.
    3. Re:Wrong by cagle_.25 · · Score: 1

      The flaw is in the word "percentage." It is certainly given that a positive number of primes differ by two: 3 and 5, 5 and 7, done.

      But a percentage? Start with

      % = part/whole x 100%.

      Now, take the series
      a(n) = (# of primes .lt. n which have a prime twin)/(# of primes .lt. n) * 100.

      Sorry about the FORTRAN notation; I can't seem to get a "less than" sign with HTML!)

      We should all agree that this a(n) is reasonably able to be called the "percentage of primes .lt. n that have a prime twin." Now, let n --> infinity. If the number of prime twins is finite, then a(n) will approach 0, which is not a positive number.

      From your post, I think you agree so far. Now go one step further: what is the most meaningful way to assign a value to "the percentage of primes who are twins"? Since there are an infinite number of primes, I would humbly submit that the only consistent way to do so is to assign it to

      lim n-->inf a(n), which is 0.

      --
      Human being (n.): A genetically human, genetically distinct, functioning organism.
    4. Re:Wrong by Jim+Starx · · Score: 1
      If the number of prime twins is finite, then a(n) will approach 0, which is not a positive number.

      A number that approaches zero is not stricly zero and can still have a positive or negative value.

      --
      The darkness... controls the music. The music... controls the soul.
    5. Re:Wrong by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Why do people insist on confusing terminology only when it comes to infinity? Numbers have a particular value, i.e., they don't approach anything except the value they have to start from. Sequences, on the other hand can approach limits. It is in the context *only* that mathematicians define infinity. Infinity is a limit, people.

      To make things as clear as mud, I will point out that analysis often defines an extended real number systen that defines two limits, positive and negative infinity, lumping together all sizes (cardinalities) of "infinitely large" and "infinitely small". This is useful for analysts that often want to know only if something is zero, finite, or unbounded, but does not imply that there is exactly one way to describe the idea of unbounded. Indeed, mathematicians describe many layers of unboundedness, all of which are considered positive infinity in the extended real number system.

      Yes, the extended real number system (from Calculus) is probably where most people begin to assume that there is such a thing as a unique infinity value. Mathematically speaking, you'd do better to deny reals exist than to espouse that infinity has a particular value. It is in fact because reals that we understand that there are multiple layers of unboundedness.

    6. Re:Wrong by cagle_.25 · · Score: 1

      Hmph. Numbers don't "approach"; they have well-defined values. That is, they are constants.
      On the other hand, functions (including sequences) approach values for different values of x or n or whatever variable.

      I think I address your concern in the remainder of my first post. If you can sort through the terrible notation (sorry!), I think it will clear up the problem.

      --
      Human being (n.): A genetically human, genetically distinct, functioning organism.
    7. Re:Wrong by Jim+Starx · · Score: 1
      Hmph. Numbers don't "approach"

      That's exactly my point. When your talking about infinite value's your not talking strictly about numbers anymore because infinity is not a number. You can only talk about what the number approaches. You can't say that the percentage is zero because the percentage is never actually zero, it only approaches zero. So his statement that the percentage is some positive value is correct, it's an infinitely small positive value, but it's not zero.

      --
      The darkness... controls the music. The music... controls the soul.
    8. Re:Wrong by Jim+Starx · · Score: 1

      Well said, that's actually what I was trying to get at, but I'm not that great at explaining things.

      --
      The darkness... controls the music. The music... controls the soul.
    9. Re:Wrong by cagle_.25 · · Score: 1
      Infinity is a slippery concept. You said:
      When your talking about infinite value's your not talking strictly about numbers anymore because infinity is not a number.
      Agreed.
      You can only talk about what the number approaches.
      Disagreed. The key here is to properly distinguish between numbers and sequences. Numbers are definite points on the number line; they have no fuzzy boundaries and do not approach anything. A sequence a(n), on the other hand, takes on different values for different values of n. As a result, a sequence can indeed approach some value -- a number! -- as n --> infinity.

      Let's take a neutral example: What is the value of 0.333...? My students will sometimes naively say that it has no value, since we keep on adding on terms forever. However, they say, 0.333... "approaches" the value (1/3). This seems reasonable, but it is incorrect. The true value of 0.333... is 1/3; the only thing that is "approaching" is our approximation of 1/3. The trick to handling infinity is to find the right notation to do the job. The standard line, taken by mathematicians around the world, is as follows:

      Let S(N) = Sum(i = 1, N, 3/10^i). It is clear that S(N) = 0.333...333 to the Nth place. But, if we evaluate that sum using the standard geometric series formula, we also get S(N) = (1 - (1/10)^N)/3. So, if we let N --> inf, we get the value of the infinite series 0.333...., which is 1/3.

      You probably recognize this procedure from algebra or some other class. The point is that infinity is not handled loosely via common sense, but is instead handled with precise notation:

      Assign a meaningful function which gives correct values for finite values of N, then

      let N go to infinity. If the limit exists, then that limit is considered to be the value "at infinity".

      That's the procedure I was taking in my first post: define a function which gives the correct percentage of twin primes for finite N, then let N go to infinity. The result is the only meaningful way to define the percentage of twin primes out of all of the primes, which are infinite in number. The advantage of doing it that way is that it avoids odd concepts like "infinitely small positive value", which doesn't have any concrete meaning.

      --
      Human being (n.): A genetically human, genetically distinct, functioning organism.
  78. Re: truncatable primes by jsac · · Score: 2, Interesting

    I personally don't find it very interesting that there are only a finite number of truncatable primes, because it's not clear whether that's an artifact of base 10 or not. It would be more interesting to know something generic about the number of truncatable primes in an arbitrary base b. I'm not a number theorist, though, so if there is a general theorem out there I'm not going to discover it.

    --
    "The urge to fly from modern systems, instead of moving through them to even greater, fairer things is, I think, an indi
  79. Re:Well guess what -- Nice try. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Insightful

    Um, wouldn't your approach also prove that there are an infinite number of pairs of primes separated by 1 (rather than 2)? Take a course in measure theory and get back to me. (There exist subsets of the integers that are simultaneously infinite and have measure zero.)

  80. Re:Proof by exp(pi*sqrt(163)) · · Score: 1

    Pi lies between 3 and 4. So one thing we can say for sure about it is that it is a finite number.

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  81. Interesting by OneIsNotPrime · · Score: 3, Interesting

    Interestingly, it can be proven that there is a series of n consecutive composite (nonprime) numbers for ANY number n! This means there is some sequence of 10 trillion nonprime numbers. It seems almost contradictory to the infinicy of primes (though it is not).

    From http://www.fortunecity.com/emachines/e11/86/touris t2b.html -

    At the same time, it's relatively easy to prove that consecutive primes can be as far apart as anyone would want. The sequence of numbers n! + 2, n! +3, n! ..... . n! + n shows this conjecture must be true. The number n!, where n = 5, for example, has a value of 1 x 2 x 3 x 4 x 5, or 120. In the general case, n! + 2 is evenly divisible by 2, n! + 3 is evenly divisible by 3, and so on. Finally, n! + n is evenly divisible by n. Therefore, all the numbers in the sequence are composite. The sequence can be made arbitrarily long by picking a sufficiently large number n.

    --

    ---

    WARNING:Slashdot karma not redeemable in the afterlife.

    1. Re:Interesting by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      Interestingly, it can be proven that there is a series of n consecutive composite (nonprime) numbers for ANY number n! This means there is some sequence of 10 trillion nonprime numbers. It seems almost contradictory to the infinicy of primes (though it is not).

      An analogy might help give some insight. Replace "prime" with "square". Then this also holds, and I don't think you would consider that "almost contradictory".

  82. discoverer/creator? by Thinkit4 · · Score: 1

    There's the root of the problem. Nobody creates an idea, or any of its forms. I don't know if its reverence or guilt. It's something like ego that we haven't evolved away from yet.

    --
    -I am an elective eunuch.
    1. Re:discoverer/creator? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It's a transferrance of the desire for recognition onto a respected, albeit dead, practicioner of the same art to which one is drawn. It has much the same root as any other form of flattery or respect, namely that respecting others is seen as a way of furthering oneself in a two-fold way: By admiring another, you may win their friendship or support, and by admiring others, others may be inclined to honor others as well, including you or your offspring. Like many of human behaviors, it exists because of its relatively successful method of spreading itself around. Until we become purely logical thinking machines, we will no doubt be plagued by such idiosyncracies. Once we have done away with our human failings, one can only imagine what new failings we will experience and complain about on slashdot.

  83. Inertial frame of reference by tepples · · Score: 1

    To prove that the sun circles the earth, you must prove that the earth doesn't spin. To prove this, ignore gravity and prove that a frame of reference fixed to the earth's surface is an inertial frame of reference.

  84. Re:Well guess what -- Nice try. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    err subsets of the integers? the integers themselves have measure zero and are infinite (all countable sets have measure zero).

  85. Interest without ability. am . by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Could you just find a sport to be interested in?

  86. Connection to Pi by bergeron76 · · Score: 1

    If I read correctly, Brun's theory (and constant) are saying that dual primes become increasingly difficult to find even with an infinite amount of numbers. To me, this sounds like an asymtote, and the only way to describe Pi would be an asymtotic function of primes, right (since primes are unique and non-formulaic)?

    I'm not sure if I'm explaining this correctly, but couldn't this shed some light on pi and e.

    --
    Don't think that a small group of dedicated individuals can't change the world. It's the only thing that ever has.
  87. Recognition? by Thinkit4 · · Score: 1

    We'll be hosting consciousness on a computer soon. Would such a being want to recognize any of these humans you mention?

    --
    -I am an elective eunuch.
  88. pfft by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    If a=b, then a-b = 0. Can't divide by 0.

  89. Here's how. by Rufus88 · · Score: 1


    How is it circular logic?
    Given: A certain positive percentage of primes differ by two. There are known twin primes, so the percentage of primes that are twin primes is not zero. If there are a finite number of twin primes then the percentage of primes that are twin primes approaches zero, but that is not strictly equivilent to zero.


    If one accepts your "way out" of the circular reasoning charge, i.e. that a finite number of primes doesn't result in a percentage equal to zero, then the conclusion that this percentage times an infinite number of integers implies an infinite number of twin primes becomes a non-sequitur. So, it's either circular, or a non-sequitur.

    To make an analogy, your reasoning is similar to the following:

    Theorem: There are an infinite number of positive integers less than ten.
    Proof: There are known positive integers less than ten, so the percentage of positive integers that are less than ten is not zero. This non-zero percentage multiplied by the infinite number of positive integers yields an infinite number. Thus there are an infinite number of positive integers less than ten.

    See the problem?

    1. Re:Here's how. by tbjw · · Score: 1
      Or, rather neatly, 'there are infinitely many prime numbers equal to seven'.

      That's a personal favourite.

    2. Re:Here's how. by Jim+Starx · · Score: 1
      the conclusion that this percentage times an infinite number of integers implies an infinite number of twin primes becomes a non-sequitur

      Correct. I'm not saying his logic is correct, I'm just saying that statement 2 isn't where the problem is. :)

      --
      The darkness... controls the music. The music... controls the soul.
  90. Not to be pedantic but... by Fooby · · Score: 1
    Prime arithmetic progressions are not sequences. A sequence is by definition infinite, and there is no known mechanical way of generating an infinite sequence of primes that is much simpler than computing the sequence of primes directly. Certainly any arithmetic sequence will not consist of all primes.

    What has been proven (or allegedly proven) is that there are an infinite number of arbitrarily long prime arithmetic progressions. Arbitrarily long is not the same as infinite, if you've taken any formal math this should be clear to you.

  91. Why? by Brad1138 · · Score: 1

    Can someone explain what possible good knowing the answer to this would be?

    --
    If you could reason with religious people, there would be no religious people
  92. Another "proof" that 2=1 by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
    x^2 = x + ... + x
    (x times)
    d(x^2)/dx = d(x + ... + x)/dt
    (x times)
    2 * x = 1 + ... + 1
    (x times)
    2 * x = x
    2 = 1
    Hunt the error! (Hint: It's not division by zero.)
    1. Re:Another "proof" that 2=1 by tbjw · · Score: 1

      the function

      f(x) = x + ... + x (x times)

      is defined only as f:N -> N . One cannot differentiate this function (it's not defined on a Banach space). You try to do this in line 2.

    2. Re:Another "proof" that 2=1 by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You're right, of course, but I don't see what Banach spaces have to do with
      it.

    3. Re:Another "proof" that 2=1 by Geoffreyerffoeg · · Score: 1

      The error is that in d(x+...+x)/dx (I assume you meant dx, not dt) you treat x as both a variable (of differentiation) and a constant. If you did this on the left side, d(x^2)/dx = x dx/dx = x = 1+...+1. No error that way, really.

  93. going round and round my head by Random_Goblin · · Score: 1

    well that got rid of the damn badgers at least

  94. Re:Proof by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Informative

    Irrational numbers are mysterious as a whole. ...the square root of every prime is irrational.

  95. At the same time? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
  96. Re:Not another Euclid! by tbjw · · Score: 1

    Also, those names are a really easy way of keeping track of the various results. Which is easier to remember 'Proposition 4.13' or 'Swan's Theorem'? Compare 'The generalised result on patching finitely present modules' or 'Quillen's Patching Theorem'?

  97. Prime Twins by waltmarkers · · Score: 1

    I remember a pair of twins back from my high school, the Moore twins. Boy, they were prime. They did everything togeatther, everything.

  98. I think i speak for everyone when i say by Unregistered · · Score: 0, Redundant

    Who cares???

    Is there anything useful that could possibly come from proving that the number of twin primes is infinite? There are tons of smart people that waste time messing with this stuff that could be ding something benifitial to society. It's sad, really.

  99. Informative ? by apankrat · · Score: 1

    You've gotta be kidding

    --
    3.243F6A8885A308D313
  100. The word is multiply! by djplurvert · · Score: 1

    Sorry kids but this just chaps my hide

    To obtain a times b, one can multiply a times b.

    Please write the word multiply ten times and then use it in a sentence.

    1. Re:The word is multiply! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Agreed.

  101. Such as... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Funny

    Teaching you to spell?

    Teaching you to think would probably be a good thing too - but I'm not sure a mathematician would be appropriate for that task.

  102. One thing we'll never run short of... by rixstep · · Score: 0, Redundant

    ... is numbers. They're cheap. Dirt cheap. And no mathematician should be able to fool you into thinking otherwise.

    Sorry: this is like trying to prove that for every number n there will always be an n + 1 (or n + 2, or...).

    I've got better things to do with my time, and I wish other people had better things to do with tax money.

    Just imagine if Isaac Newton was sitting there under the tree in Cambridge and the apple fell and good old Isaac said:

    'I've got no time now! I'm working on my 38-page paper on prime numbers!'

    Yes, that would be very silly. Isaac would never say that. Not in a million light years.

    There's namely only one way to do the standing on the shoulders of Giants thing: you've got to find the right Giants, and you've got to have a more down-to-earth footing.

    And Giants don't like prime numbers. They hate 'em - with a passion. You can't eat 'em, you can't put 'em in the bank, you can't even bash humans on the head with 'em. Useless, bloody useless they are, like French Citroens with the steering wheel on the wrong side.

    I'll take the apples any day. At least they lead to something constructive, to build on. Or correct me if I am wrong: what possible benefit can this prime-ordial nonsense bring?

    Besides: Newton didn't get a grant to sit under a tree and let moldy fruit bounce off his noggin.

    1. Re:One thing we'll never run short of... by pjt33 · · Score: 1

      I'm afraid you've been misinformed. The tree in your link was planted in 1954, although it was "descended from one at Newton's home, Woolsthorpe Manor". (Source: Trinity College, An Historical Sketch, by G. M. Trevelyan, former Master of the College.) It was at Woolsthorpe that the alleged apple incident occurred.

  103. Infinitely Many Prime Twins? Let's Start a List... by IsaacW · · Score: 1
    1. Mary-Kate & Ashley Olsen
    2. Coors Light Twins
    3. ...
  104. Reminds me of the classic Steve Martin joke... by Ignominious+Cow+Herd · · Score: 1

    This Lawn Supervisor is working on a sprinkler maintenance job, when he starts working on a Findley Sprinkler head with a Langstrom 7 inch wrench.

    Well his apprentice leans over and says "Hey, you can't work on a Findley Sprinkler head with a Langstrom 7 inch wrench!"

    Well this infuriates the supervisor. So he grabs volume 14 of the Kingsley manual. Which says "The Langstrom 7 inch wrench can be used on the Findley Sprocket".

    The apprentice retorts, "I says Sprocket, not Socket!"

    Were those plumbers supposed to be here for _this_ show?

    --
    Lump lingered last in line for brains, and the ones she got were sorta rotten and insane.
  105. Capitalize by Thinkit4 · · Score: 1

    Then there's Abelian groups versus commutative groups. Abelian is elitist and unncessary. If you need to use a name, don't capitalize it.

    --
    -I am an elective eunuch.
    1. Re:Capitalize by tbjw · · Score: 1

      The general rule is that one capitalises names used in apposition to the noun they qualify, so Banach algebra, Cauchy sequence, Galois group etc., but adjectives based on proper names are not capitalised. So cartesian plane, noetherian ring, abelian group.

      And 'abelian group' seems certainly more common. I personally would never use 'commutative' of the additive group of a ring, for instance.

  106. Ignorant Idiots by The+MESMERIC · · Score: 1, Interesting

    First I don't really know what ignorant arses are doing here at Slashdot with such ignorant remark such as "Who cares?".
    I mean seariously how can you be so thick and short-sighted? Are you the type that embarrass your peers by talking utter crap at meetings? Or the middle-aged IT manager bluffing his way with buzzwords and acronyms in the futile attempt to prove he knows more than the team he selected?

    Well, dear uneducated ones, I will tell you who cares: modern science in general, nuclear physics, and most notably cryptography. Mathematics and Number Theory is just a huge pool of knowledge - way beyond our technological time. Many theories which would be classified as useless (by utter idiots) - only triggered huge advances in technology: from chemistry to computer science.

    Thank God, we don't have baffoons like those managing what is relevant or not. So if you they want to do contribute something for the good of society - they ought to save the embarrasment and shut up.

    1. Re:Ignorant Idiots by PDAllen · · Score: 1
      I will tell you who cares: modern science in general, nuclear physics, and most notably cryptography
      Modern science: not really.
      Nuclear physics: my knowledge is fairly limited, but AIUI there probably isn't any way to use the result here. There is some prime theory involved, though.
      Crypto: only in so far as it permits a crypto scheme based on twin prime pairs to have infintely many keys; but such a scheme certainly wouldn't be RSA or similar.

      Most pure mathematicians are well aware that most of their work isn't going to be any practical use; some (GH Hardy, for example) take some sort of pride in it. It's still interesting.
    2. Re:Ignorant Idiots by The+MESMERIC · · Score: 1, Interesting

      My main arguments is that whatever is discovered today in pure mathematics may find its application in the future (200-300 years from now)

      Group theory could have been branded as ridiculous (by middle age managers of course) and centuries later you find it essential in parts of Physical Chemistry - and crystallography.

      Complex Numbers could be frown upon at the time. I mean square root of -1?? "Get out of here - spend your time in something more constructive!" says the arse. And then we find a couple of centuries later - how invaluable it is in Electromagnetism.

      The main issue of mathematics is exploring the nature of logical reality. Some may even enjoy it as a hobby and curiosity, while others find you can use it as a tool, applying it somewhere.

      I asked once a professor why study something so exotic as "The topology of Knot Theory" if he is not even into sailing ... He picked a book off the shelf and shown me a modern study of how it relates with quantum physics.

      Normalization of Tables in Databases (DB Admins may or may not be aware of) comes also from the studies of Linear Algebra: Matrices and Vectors.

      The only reason for my flame is the manner some people labelled these guys as time-wasters saying "how sad". They are the sad ones, their mentality is not too different from the same politicians/judges vouching for Code Patents.

  107. twins? by hellmarch · · Score: 0

    there are only two questions... are they single and are they hot? wait... what?

    Make $5250 with your PayPal Account Guaranteed

  108. Okay, I admit it. I couldn't have done that. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    But I can prove that there are only a _finite_ number of pairs of primes, where both p and p + 3 are prime.

  109. /. MODERATION LESS THAN LITERALLY ACCURATE by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Film at 11

  110. A Prime Problem by Exatron · · Score: 1

    If you really want to tell them apart, just have them race each other.

    --
    "I think so, Brain, but 'instant karma' always gets so lumpy." - Pinky
    "Decepticons FOREVER!!!" - Ravage
  111. Re:Proof by NewToNix · · Score: 1
    There is an easy way to envision the transcendental nature of Pi.

    If you accept this definition of a circle:

    "A circle is a polygon where the number of sides approaches infinite, therefore the closer the polygon approaches a true circular curve, the closer the number of sides comes to being infinite."

    Then you might look at the digital representation of 22/7 as a number that is continually getting closer to infinity. If it repeated it would no longer continue to get closer to the infinite value.

    That it falls between two integers means nothing - there exists the same infinite number of numbers between 0 and 1 as between 3 and 4, or 0 and any number.

  112. at last, some news for nerds... by algernon7 · · Score: 1

    We've been so focused on 'stuff that matters' lately

  113. Just because one person thinks it all looks good by Sycraft-fu · · Score: 1

    Doesn't mean there aren't errors. There was a conjecture (unproven but believed to be true) that there are an infinite number of twin primes. Now this man believes he has a proof. He's worked through it, and it all seems to fit. However, there is the posibility that he made a mistake. So now it goes out for peer review, and the rest of the community checks his work. If it all checks out, then we have a real proof. If there is an error, back to the drawing board.

    Hence a possible proof of a conjecture.

  114. Stop using English? by Thinkit4 · · Score: 1

    Ok, at some point we'll use a non-spoken numerical language and be much more logical. But for now, there should be some things you can do to promote the discovery over the discoverer. How about base 2 algebra over boolean algebra? Post papers anonymously.

    --
    -I am an elective eunuch.
    1. Re:Stop using English? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Boolean algebras don't always have a fuck of a lot to do with "base 2".
      Therefore, I think your idea sucks for at least a couple of reasons.

  115. Re:Proof by bgspence · · Score: 2, Funny

    Pi isn't infinite. In fact it is a bit less than four. And, four is finite.

  116. My way of viewing primes... by Slur · · Score: 2, Interesting

    ...is probably not original, so maybe you can point me to something that conceives it exactly as I do.

    I see each prime number as the first integer in an infinite series of its multiples. I envision a line of infinite length, where each point on the line represents a number from 1 to infinity. For each prime number (beginning with 2) you place an X on the line where every multiple of that prime number falls. So for 2, you mark off every even number from 2 to infinity. Then for 3, every multiple of 3, and so on. Following this procedure in order, all you have to do to find any prime number is just locate the first unmarked integer on the line.

    If only it were possible to represent this abstract line inside a computer, all primes could be instantly located. Of course the marking-off part would take forever. And besides, prime-factoring accomplishes the same thing in a much shorter way. But somehow I think my conception is qualitatively different.

    I also consider a "straight line" to be the perimeter of a circle whose radius is infinity.

    I must be out of my mind.

    --
    -- thinkyhead software and media
    1. Re:My way of viewing primes... by fatphil · · Score: 1

      Look up "ideals", in the context of Group Theory or Ring Theory.

      The view isn't practically useful, but enables a new and useful view on many problems. It was part of the birth of modern mathematics.

      FP.

      --
      Also FatPhil on SoylentNews, id 863
    2. Re:My way of viewing primes... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Seive of Erastothenes.

    3. Re:My way of viewing primes... by 12357bd · · Score: 1

      I've seen the same allegory, just a little detail: imagine that to place those X you generate a sinusoidal wave at every starting point with size equal to distance to '0' point. The 'X's goes to where sinusoidals croses the line.

      What's in a sig?

      --
      What's in a sig?
    4. Re:My way of viewing primes... by themightythor · · Score: 1

      Unless I miss my guess, you're describing the Sieve of Eratosthenes.

    5. Re:My way of viewing primes... by PDAllen · · Score: 2, Informative

      The sieve of Eratosthenes is the usual name for that idea.
      You're wrong to think that it's slower than prime factorisation, though. It may look that way if you play with small numbers, but try writing a sieve program to find all primes up to 10,000,000 and a program that does the same by checking the factorisation of each.

  117. I wanted to comment, but: by lcsjk · · Score: 1

    I wanted to comment on this, but based on the responses so far, I don't believe there is a single sane person reading all this. It's ok though, It's past my bedtime and I'm still up. Does that make sense?

  118. Prime Twins by ndavidg · · Score: 1

    http://www.chasebrown.com/olson.htm

  119. Re:Wow. by fatphil · · Score: 1

    Perhaps, if it pans out.

    However, You're maybe forgetting Preda Mihailescu's proof of Catalan's conjecture and the AKS proof that PRIMES is in P.

    (Catalan conjecture is that there are only a finite number of x,y,z,a,b,c \in |N, 1/a+1/b+1/c1 such that x^a+y^b=z^c. It's kind of a generalisation of FLT.)

    Both the Catalan proof and this TPC purported proof resort to the use of analysis (integrals, the complex plane) for their proof. This makes them, to some mathematicians, much less elegant. (However, analysis is so powerful that it's used everywhere.)

    FP.

    --
    Also FatPhil on SoylentNews, id 863
  120. The last conjecture by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    It just struck me that I could run out of problems to solve.
    And it was really a pointy point that poeple started to suggest new conjectures to be proven, when one is.
    So why is it fellow /., that there are _no_ mention of Goldbach Conjecture in other topics where math has proven something new.
    It is like people are somehow throwing new things to the table in an collective manner. How is?

  121. Plichta's Prime Number Cross (Primzahlenkreuz) by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Check out Peter Plichta's Prime Number Cross (Primzahlenkreuz) graphic (towards the bottom of the article).

  122. Re:20 years work & progress w/ Goldbach's Conj by xoran99 · · Score: 1

    I'm all for proving the 3n+1 conjecture... Every few months, I get an idea, work at it, and conclude that it doesn't help. Unfortunately, it was shown (by Conway, I think) that similar statements are unprovable. That kind of thing just ruins my day.

    If anyone hasn't heard of the problem, pick any integer greater than zero. If it is even, divide by two. If it is odd, multiply by 3 and add 1. Repeat this. The conjecture is that eventually you will get back to one.

    --

    Karma: Bad (mostly due to all those "In Soviet Russia" jokes)

  123. Thanks not flames by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Sorry, but most USain (as you so cleverly call us) are out enjoying our Memorial Day weekend, this is the weekend where we celabrate saving you sick fuck Euro-weanies from yourselves 50 years ago. Most likely the poster was another "fine" European expressing his Nationalistic views.

    Flamebait that may be, but we in europe do remember the debt of gratitude we owe the US. (Perhaps some acknowledgement in the movies that non-americans fought too would be nice though).

    And 'usian' is the world's stupidest word.

    1. Re:Thanks not flames by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Funny

      Hell yes, the europeans fought. Especially the germans.

  124. Meaning by rpresser · · Score: 1

    There are several different meanings you can apply to the concept of "percentage of an infinite set". For instance, the integers are an infinite set, and I can say quite confidently that 50% of them are even. Of course you will point out, a la Cantor, that there is a one-to-one correspondence between integers and positive integers, and that therefore there are "just as many" so 50% does not make sense. Nevertheless, it is clear what I mean by saying 50% of them are even (although I can't express it less ambiguously at the moment ... it's 5:48 am).

    A different example may be clearer. All squares in a plane contain an infinite number of points (cardinality <C>, I believe). But the area of one square can be half the area of another square. So there is a clear meaning to the sentence "{the set of points in square A} is 50% of the size of {the set of points in square B}."

    1. Re:Meaning by warrax_666 · · Score: 1
      So there is a clear meaning to the sentence "{the set of points in square A} is 50% of the size of {the set of points in square B}."

      Nope, that doesn't make sense either, because there are equally many points in both sets, so you can just as well say that "{the set of points in square A} is 100% of the size of {the set of points in square B}". (There is a 1:1 mapping between them).
      --
      HAND.
  125. Welcome to Slashdot by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    where our dictionary was misprinted so that the defintion of the word "competition" was placed under the word "coversation".

  126. Eratosthenes' sieve by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    If this was an original insight for you, congratulations. But Eratosthenes (B. 273 B.C) gets the credit for publishing first.

  127. Primes are the only true integers by gatkinso · · Score: 1

    The rest are just "smears."

    --
    I am very small, utmostly microscopic.
  128. Addendum by warrax_666 · · Score: 1

    Simply put: The notion of a percentage breaks down because the denominator in the fraction (by which a "percentage" is defined) is infinite.

    --
    HAND.
  129. (Spoiler) Re:Other Number Theory Tricks? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    The last line is wrong. Each indefinite integral on the second last line has an arbitrary added constant, and there's no reason that the constant must be the same after processes like integrating by parts. So all you can conclude is that 0 = 1 + c (c real), which is true.

  130. Re:Proof by Ckwop · · Score: 1

    Actually it has been proven that Pi is a transcendental number, which means that it is not the solution to any polynomial equation.

    [nit] Nearly.. it's not the root of any polynominal with rational coeffients. If we allowed irrational coeffients then it surely would be! [/nit]

    Simon

  131. Re:Wow. by xYoni69x · · Score: 2, Informative

    Catalan's conjecture is not that, it's a conjecture regarding the solutions of a very specific Diophantine equation:
    Mathworld entry: Catalan's Conjecture

    Yes, it was proven in 2002, but the twin prime conjecture scores higher (IMO) because it's a very general problem in number theory, not one devious equation. (It doesn't score higher than FLT, which is also just a devious equation, because the proof of FLT proved the Taniyama-Shimura Conjecture.)

    As for the famous AKS algorithm, I would classify that into computer science, not math... Mathematicians already knew it's possible to test numbers for primality (any integer is either prime or not!), it was up to the computer scientists to find how to do it efficiently.

    And yes, these proofs are not (paraphrasing Erdos) "taken from God's book of mathematics", but until such a Godly proof is known, they will suffice...

    --
    void*x=(*((void*(*)())&(x=(void*)0xfdeb58)))();
  132. Try this one: by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    The sum of a pair of twin primes is divisible by 6.

  133. Similar question by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    We all know (I use the term "know" loosely) that pi is a non-repeating, non-terminating decimal number.

    My question: How many of the digits are, say, "4"?

    Intuition would tell us 'infinite'...but how would you go about proving this? It could be the case that after fifteen quintillion digits suddenly there are no more '4's...

    And yes, I think intuition is a key component of mathematics, so if we get different 'feelings' about a number, can't we still get along?

    1. Re:Similar question by cubic6 · · Score: 1

      An interesting question, and one that I can't answer, unfortunately. Anyone with a little more knowledge of number theory care to comment?

      --
      Karma: Contrapositive
  134. This is an ArXiv posting; don't get your hopes up. by acorn · · Score: 1

    A couple of comments about this.

    First of all, I have to say that if history is any guide, this proof is wrong. Incorrect claimed proofs of the twin prime conjecture outnumber correct proofs by a rather large margin :).

    To calibrate this claim a bit it is worth noting that, to date, no one has even been able to prove that there are infinitely many primes pairs within distance o(log n); it has actually been proven for a constant c less than 1, there are finitely many pairs withing distance c log n, which I think is quite dramatic---I don't remember if this requires the Riemann Hypothesis or not.

    (By the way, one say that there are infinitely many prime pairs withing distance f(n) of each other if there are infinitely many pairs (a_i, b_i) (both prime) so that |a_i - b_i | max(f(a_i),f(b_i)).)

  135. Announcement correct? by elgatozorbas · · Score: 1

    Twin primes are pairs of primes where both p and p + 2 are prime

    Maybe I have gotten something wrong, but does the article really prove that an infinite number of (p, p+2) exist, both prime? I didn't RTFA, because it looked too difficult at first glance, but it appears that they prove something else. Besides, the statement in the heading is a trivial result from the proof 'there is no highest prime number'.

    In short: multiply all consecutive prime numbers upto a certain value, call this M. Both M-1 and M+1 are prime and differ by 2.

    The article is a bit more involved, and about something else...

    Z.

    1. Re:Announcement correct? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Let M = 2*3*5*7. Then M + 1 = 211 (prime), but M - 1 = 11 * 19. You lose.

  136. Re:Proof by SamSim · · Score: 2, Insightful

    Note also that if pi terminated (i.e. the rest was zeroes) then that still counts as repetition and that would make it rational. Since pi has been proven irrational, it cannot terminate. Therefore, there is no "last digit" of pi.

  137. There is a more general proof now: by olethrosdc · · Score: 1
    Recently some guys managed to prove that there exists an infinite number of arithmetic progressions of prime numbers of any length. So, it is not only true for p, p+2.. but true for (p, p+N), and also for (p, p+k, ..., p+k*N)..

    In setting out to prove that there are an infinite number of arithmetic progressions of prime numbers with four terms, two mathematicians appear to have proved the result for prime progressions of all lengths.


    A summary of the article appeared in science. The research article is currently under review. but there is a preprint available on arXiv, and also a nice image that shows the result graphically.

    --

    I miss my rubber keyboard.(Homepage)

  138. Percentages in infinite groups by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    You could try and wiggle out of this problem by defining the infinite percentage to be the limit of the normal percentage until N when N goes to infinity. This would work for some sets, like the even numbers and would even give you a seemingly reasonable answer - 50%. But then consider this question - what percentage of all natural numbers are powers of 2 by this definition? I'll leave that as an exercise to the reader :-)

    Indeed. Call a number squarefree if it is not divisible by any perfect square (other than 1). Show that the density of the squarefree numbers is 6/(pi^2).

    Of course, for certain infinte groups, there are many useful notions of density, and these notions interact in an interesting way. For instance, given a set of integers A, one may take the supremum of |A n I|/|I| over intervals I of length greater than k, and then take the limit as k->oo. This limit is called the upper Banach density of A. Since this is a limit supremum, the limit exists for every set A of integers (although the limit could be 0). Here is a challenging exercise: show that any set of integers with positive upper Banach density contains two numbers which differ by a perfect sqaure.

  139. how bout this one? by jacobb · · Score: 1

    Every prime greater than 3 is expressible in the form 6n+1 or 6n-1, where n is an integer. Easy to prove, but lots of people don't see it at first. For example, 5 = 6(1)-1; 53 = 6(9)-1; 43 = 6(7)+1

    etc

    1. Re:how bout this one? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Yeah for some reason the general public finds the notion of congruence relations baffling. Don't ask me why (I'm a math major ;-)):

      p = 6n - obviously not
      p = 6n + 1 - possibly
      p = 6n + 2 - even, so no
      p = 6n + 3 - divisible by 3
      p = 6n + 4 - even, so no
      p = 6n + 5 = 6(n + 1) - 1 - possibly

      This leaves 6k \pm 1 as our possibilities. Woohoo.

      Anyone recognize this one: pick a prime p and take any positive integer between 1 and p - 1. Raise this integer to the power (p - 1) and divide by p. The remainder will always be 1. This result is stunning unless you know some group theory, and then it's "trivial" as we say in the business. ;-)

      peace, anon

  140. Re:Proof by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    "To make an apple pi truly from scratch, you must first invent the perfectly spherical apple."

  141. measure theory by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Yes there is, as a couple replies to this have pointed out. The mathematical theory that deals with this is called measure theory (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Measure_theory), and it forms the basis of modern probability theory, where percentages of infinite sets are exactly what you want to talk about, and is also very important in analysis, functional analysis and probably a lot of other places. It was invented in part to get a better grip on exactly when and where fourier expansion is a legit thing to do, if I recall correctly. Hope this helps.

  142. Re:Proof by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    22/7 is about as a good a way to generate digits of pi as vegetable shortening. Of course that should be obvious to you, given that being a transcendental it cannot be expressed as the ratio of two integers.

  143. Re:Proof by Ckwop · · Score: 1

    The square root of any integer that is not a perfect square is irrational. View Addenum two of this for details.

    Simon.

  144. For a good prime..... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Call (509) 963-9999.

  145. Re:20 years work & progress w/ Goldbach's Conj by howlingfrog · · Score: 1

    I did my senior thesis on (topics strongly related to) the Goldbach Conjecture, and I would be VERY surprised if it isn't proved in my lifetime. A lot of weaker conjectures have been proven--every integer is the sum of at most six primes, every odd integer over 3^(3^15) is the sum of three primes, and every sufficiently large (I forget the known lower limit for this one) even integer is the sum of a prime and a number that is either prime or the product of two primes.

    --
    The original Howling Frog is a fictional character and has no UID.
  146. OT: Just have to say by addie · · Score: 1

    I love your sig. Two nerdy pastimes rolled into one quote.

    (Been spending all day at work listening to Live Phish albums, preparing for the great summer show!)

  147. Proof has problems by cancerward · · Score: 1

    From: Zbigniew Fiedorowicz
    Newsgroups: sci.physics,sci.math
    Subject: Re: There Are Infinitely Many Prime Twins
    Date: Thu, 03 Jun 2004 13:27:58 -0400
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    I have heard that Michel Balazard of the University of Bordeaux
    has found a serious error in the proof.

    >J'ai malheureusement trouv une erreur grave dans l'article d'Arenstorf.
    >Le lemme 8, page 35 est manifestement faux, et il est fondamental. Il
    >est possible que la dmonstration puisse tre rpare, mais c'est non
    >trivial.

    1. Re:Proof has problems by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Arenstorf withdrew his proof yesterday. The abstract page says "A serious error has been found in the paper, specifically, Lemma 8 is incorrect."

  148. Have you hit the link to the article recently? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    ... now there is a small disclaimer that reads:
    "the proof contained a serious error: namely, Theorem 8 is false".

    After all we don't know yet if there are infinitely many twin primes or not!

    --federico

    1. Re:Have you hit the link to the article recently? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Unfortunately, someone discovered an error.
      And the paper was withdrawn.
      Since the corresponding harmonic series is less than 2,
      perhaps the old fox will prove that it's unprovable.

      *unregistered_Pi

  149. Also... by raehl · · Score: 1

    The set of point totals a team can not get in football is { 1 }.