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Is Mathematics Discovered Or Invented?

An anonymous reader points out an article up at Science News on a question that, remarkably, is still being debated after a few thousand years: is mathematics discovered, or is it invented? Those who answer "discovered" are the intellectual descendants of Plato; their number includes Roger Penrose. The article notes that one difficulty with the Platonic view: if mathematical ideas exist in some way independent of humans or minds, then human minds engaged in doing mathematics must somehow be able to connect with this non-physical state. The European Mathematical Society recently devoted space to the debate. One of the papers, Let Platonism die, can be found on page 24 of this PDF. The author believes that Platonism "has more in common with mystical religions than with modern science."

798 comments

  1. Logical positivism to the rescue... by 26199 · · Score: 5, Insightful

    When faced with an awkward question, logical positivism asks: what would the answer tell me about the future?

    Suppose you had a definitive, 100% guaranteed answer to the "discovered vs invented" question. What would it allow you to do that you couldn't do before? What could you predict? What would you gain?

    Nothing, nothing and nothing.

    It's meaningless; merely a matter of perception, wordplay and people having too much time on their hands.

    Oh, and the correct answer is "discovered".

    1. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 5, Insightful

      Oh, and the correct answer is "discovered".

      No, the correct answer is "both."

      The relationships and observations that we use mathematics to model are discovered. They are out there, we discover them, and then we model them. That should be obvious to all but the most die-hard of idealists.

      The language that we use to do this modeling is invented. It is also refined (i.e. slightly reinvented) over time to better fit our discoveries. That, too, should be obvious to all but the most die-hard of determinists.

      I know, this answer isn't very deep, but in my opinion the question isn't nearly as deep as it is being made out to be.

    2. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by somersault · · Score: 2, Insightful

      I'm just amazed when stuff can be worked down to an amazingly simple formula. Like e=mc^2 . I mean, why exactly ^2 and not ^2.14332544988? I think the correct answer is basically as you've described. Like most absurd debates where both sides are vehemently opposed, the answer actually lies in the middle.

      --
      which is totally what she said
    3. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Insightful

      What would it allow you to do that you couldn't do before? What could you predict? What would you gain?

      Patents, trademarks, copyrights, and with that, giant gobs upon gobs of money.

    4. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Vellmont · · Score: 4, Insightful


      Suppose you had a definitive, 100% guaranteed answer to the "discovered vs invented" question. What would it allow you to do that you couldn't do before? What could you predict? What would you gain?

      I tend to agree. I'm reminded of the Dutch computer scientist, Dijkstra, who said that ""The question of whether a computer can think is no more interesting than the question of whether a submarine can swim." Some questions are just meaningless.

      I think the thing to learn here is that language isn't reality, it merely describes reality.

      Oh, and the correct answer is "discovered"

      No, I think the correct answer is "Why are you asking the question?" There might be a more interesting (and perhaps answerable) question that underlies it.

      --
      AccountKiller
    5. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by zoomshorts · · Score: 1

      The correct answer is DEVELOPED :P

    6. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by JimDaGeek · · Score: 4, Funny

      No, it is not "both". Math exi

      Damn, I am too drunk to type. I have one eye closed as I type.... so you win :-)

      --
      General, you are listening to a machine! Do the world a favor and don't act like one.
    7. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by dreamchaser · · Score: 4, Informative

      The language we use to describe mathematics is not the math itself. The math exists regardless of the symbolism used to describe it. Hence, you are incorrect. It is all discovered, but the means to describe it and put it to use is invented.

    8. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Oh, and the correct answer is "discovered".

      Yeah, I don't even know how this is up for debate. It's like those weirdos who think Lisp was invented.

    9. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by TheTapani · · Score: 2, Insightful

      Suppose you had a definitive, 100% guaranteed answer to the "discovered vs invented" question. What would it allow you to do that you couldn't do before? What could you predict? What would you gain? You can own an invention, but not a discovery.

      So the answers to your questions aren't nothing x 3, but rather in lines with patenting and making money.

      //T

    10. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 5, Insightful

      Because squared gives you the right units.

    11. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by bipbop · · Score: 1

      For a science fictional reason why these answers might not be "nothing", take a look at Greg Egan's short stories _Luminous_ and _Dark Integers_. If nothing else, they're pretty entertaining :-)

    12. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by khallow · · Score: 4, Insightful

      The math exists regardless of the symbolism used to describe it.

      Depends what you mean by "exists". For example, mathematical concepts are not observable (which is the condition for existence in an empirical framework), but physical systems can be observed which implement the concept. One can observe one apple or one galaxy, but one cannot observe the number one.

    13. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I think that math is invented, physics ( e=mc^2 ) are discovered. also it's excactly 2 because you hace to also conserve the units, you can have (in the physic world ) square foots, but what's the physics meaning of foot^2.14332544988?

    14. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by goombah99 · · Score: 5, Funny


      Oh, and the correct answer is "discovered"

      No, I think the correct answer is "Why are you asking the question?" There might be a more interesting (and perhaps answerable) question that underlies it. And how does that make you feel?

      --
      Some drink at the fountain of knowledge. Others just gargle.
    15. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by nine-times · · Score: 5, Informative

      Yes, it's also amazing that the equation isn't 2.14332544988e=2.14332544988mc^2.

      Yes, sorry, I'm being a smart-ass and it's not polite. But c^2 is just a constant.

    16. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by fredcai · · Score: 2, Interesting

      Actually its not quite e=mc^2, thats just the first term in a taylor series for the actual answer. The first term is just close enough that it works for day to day use. The universe is incredibly elegant in its mathematics though.

    17. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by xTantrum · · Score: 1

      actually the concept of quantity was discovered, and its applications in the various fields were invented. this really isn't that hard.

      --
      $action = empty(PHP) ? backToC() : unset(PHP) ; "when the concrete cases are understood, the abstractions are readily
    18. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by professionalfurryele · · Score: 3, Interesting

      The problem with the question is that the answer is predicated on interchangable assumptions. To discover something it has to apriori exist. Inventing something requires that it not. So the fundamental question is:

      Does mathematics which no one knows about exist?

      Well it is obvious that on some level it should. It is likely that whatever new field of mathematics we invent, it will (eventually) be described using axiomatic set theory. But does the fact that we already have the language we need to describe a theorem mean that the theorem already exists? Does a sonnet exist before I write it? All the words I'm likely to use will be in some version of the Oxford English Dictionary. I can symbolically write down the abstract idea of every sonnet imaginable in only a few lines of mathematics. It would seem clear that mathematics, like poetry and prose, is invented then.

      But then mathematics is different from prose, because mathematics can be used to make quantitative predictions about the world around us. It would seem that independent of human being nature itself 'knows' about mathematics. Before we invented calculus the acceleration on an electric charge due to a electromagnetic field could still be found using Maxwell's equations. The Falkland Islands were still there before the Spanish arrived right?

      So now it would seem that at least some mathematics is discovered, at least as to how it relates to nature. Of course the mathematics we use to describe nature is just an approximation. Maybe nature doesn't know about math, maybe we just got luck.

      Then there is another problem, whose to say that just because we think of prose as invented it really is. That might just be our sloppy use of language. I said earlier I could, at least in the abstract, write down every possible sonnet in the English language. That at least implies that those sonnets exist in some way before I write any of them, even if it is as an abstract sonnet.

      Bottom line, it all comes down to what you think exists. If under your philosophy mathematical theorems can be shown to exist independent of if someone knows about them or not, then they are discovered. It is likely sonnet are discovered under that philosophy as well. If on the other hand theorems only exist after someone has conceived of them then they are invented. Now you have to be careful that at least some part of the Falklands weren't invented by the Spanish as well.

      I'm going to have to go with discovered. To me Euler's equation is, was and ever shall be true and there isn't a darn thing anyone in this universe can do about it.

      Of course the discussion doesn't really yield any useful results, so I would like to propose the Dirac interpretation for the uncovering of mathematical knowledge:
      Shut up and calculate.
      It comes with a corollary of my own devising:
      No you cant patent it.

    19. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by nine-times · · Score: 1

      Yes, and if science fiction were real, I could fix every one of my problems by realigning the deflector array.

    20. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by telso · · Score: 1

      It's meaningless; merely a matter of perception, wordplay and people having too much time on their hands.
      Philosophers to the rescue!
    21. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Obviously the answer is 42.

    22. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      If I may gently ask: What makes you think the positivist approach is the correct one?

      Logical positivism has fallen out of favor in contemporary academic philosophy because it suffered from one critical flaw: self-referential inconsistency. (discussed in the Wikipedia article). I would be loath to put forward any sort of pronouncement based on a positivist premise, even if I thought I was correct.

      I personally think mathematics is discovered too, and that the formal system we call mathematics is a mapping to real phenomena.

      But that's only my guess; I can't prove it.... for all the corner points.

    23. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by xtracto · · Score: 2, Interesting

      I agree with your opinion. My first reaction when reading the summary of the story is was to think that mathematics was "discovered" was utter bullshit (and may only make sense if you think that you heavenly $Deitity created it and we mere mortals are just obtaining whatever $Deitity wants to give us).

      But then, thinking a bit deeply, I agree that as you said, maths is both discovered and invented. There is no doubt that mathematical symbols were created by us humans. I just created some symbolisms while doing my thesis. However, those symbols are used to classify or "label" different patterns that *happen* in our universe and that we "perceive". It is then when we use such mathematical symbols to establish a classification of such patters (for example, we know that Weight = Mass Ã-- Gravity, because of experimentation, however we did not created such relationship or pattern. We just labeled it "\times" (or sometimes *).

      --
      Ubuntu is an African word meaning 'I can't configure Debian'
    24. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by HungSoLow · · Score: 1

      I completely agree. I think we need to consider an alien species that is advanced as we are, and what their mathematics would look like...

      I think it's obvious that there would be similarities. Any similarities would probably be due to the ubiquitous nature of mathematics and hence lend credence to the 'discovery' mantra. But as far as I can see, concepts such as matrices, vector spaces and the like are merely tools we've developed and are therefore invented. An alien species would in no way need to have a theory of matrices. It's a tool mathematicians have invented to make their work a hell of a lot easier.

      There are clearly both concepts discovered and invented. A prime number is not something someone has invented. Their distribution is not something someone has invented - both are discovered. How we compute them, on the other hand, is definitely invented.

    25. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by nine-times · · Score: 5, Insightful

      No, the correct answer is "both."

      No, I think the correct answer is, "What are you asking?"

      The problem with questions like this is that it isn't clear what's in the mind of the person asking the question. What do you mean by "invented" and what do you mean by "discovered"? What difference do you see between the two?

      For example, some people will think that "invented" means "made up". So in that person's mind, if math is "invented", then it's based only on human thought, and not on real principles of the universe itself. Of course, this line of thought makes me want to ask what it would mean to be a "real principle", and what is the "universe itself" when detached from human conception, but I'll leave that aside.

      The problem I see immediately with this concept of "invented" is that real inventions don't exist independently of the universe. For example, was the wheel "invented", or did someone discover that rolling a circularly shaped object requires less energy than dragging an equally massive object? Was gunpowder "invented", or did someone discover than mixing certain chemicals together and setting fire to them caused an explosion? Was the telephone "invented", or did someone discover that you could convert sounds into electrical signals and back again by using magnets?

      All inventions are a discovery of sorts, which makes this whole question a bit nonsensical.

    26. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0, Flamebait

      No you are just being an ass, and it is not merely impolite, it is downright rude and arrogant. If c^2 is just a constant then why is the exponent involved exactly 2? Also c^2 is NOT a constant, c is the constant, dickhead. Sorry for being so rude (altho I'm not really) but people like you make /. look like a bunch of undereducated retards.

      The fact that the power in E=mc^2 and other equations is something that has perplexed scientists for decades at least. It's like my electromagnetism lecturer pointed out, we go through pages of turgid mathematics only to end up with these elegantly simple equations...

    27. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Original+Replica · · Score: 4, Insightful

      The math exists regardless of the symbolism used to describe it.

      Math is the symbolism used to describe the universe. Physical reality does not need symbols or tools or sentience to function, we however need math to describe the functions of the universe in precise detail. Math is a tool and so is an invented thing where the ideas have come from observing the world around us, just like a knife or velcro are tools that where invented based off of ideas gleaned from observations of the world around us.

      --
      We are all just people.
    28. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by WK2 · · Score: 1

      You can own patents on inventions and discoveries. Inventions, such as the telephone, and discoveries, such as DNA.

      --
      Write your own Choose Your Own Adventure. http://www.freegameengines.org/gamebook-engine/
    29. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by fuliginous · · Score: 1

      And it begs the next regressive argument, is it merely our inevitable deterministic work as caused by the initial conditions of the universe (and continue to regress).

      In other words, it is only invented if we have free will.

    30. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by MrNaz · · Score: 5, Insightful

      the reason that is it not (some value here)mc^2 is because c is a natural constant with a non-integer value, and all the "non-roundness" that seems to amaze you is contained in this constants. Another example of a fundamental constant is pi. Is it really so amazing that the ratio of circumference to diameter is exactly pi and not 2.143243*pi ? These numbers and constants are discovered, as they clearly exist whether or not we know what they are.

      Other parts of math do resemble invention more than discovery. E.g., the definition of mole being the number of atoms of carbon 12 needed to make exactly 12g and the Coulomb, both of which are numbers that are arbitrarily assigned to fit in with the system of measurements that has been devised over the years. All of these constants could easily be multiplied by any non-integer value and the whole system would still work.

      To answer the article's original question however, my answer would be: Who gives a toss? Math is useful. Whatever semantic definition we apply to the process by which we expand our mathematical capabilities has absolutely zero impact upon that expansion.

      --
      I hate printers.
    31. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by somersault · · Score: 0, Flamebait

      Yes, but it's squared, and not squared plus a bit. Squared gives you the right answer, but it's a very neat and elegant answer. Also, for stuff like magnetic fields and such, you have inverse squares. Perfect inverse squares. Someone further down made a joke about intelligent design, but when faced with stuff like this, I think people are just retarded to not even consider the possibility.

      --
      which is totally what she said
    32. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I believe I roughly agree with your position, but I'd elaborate on it further as follows:

      Mathematics is a science and like any other science, it attempts to explain natural phenomena. Mathematicians will over time observe patterns and try to explain them by forming concepts, operations, and definitions. That intellectual machinery will become a foundation for reasoning about the various phenomena observed. Of course, all the concepts, definitions, and operations are created by man, but tied to reality in some specific way. Floating abstractions are worthless. The observations are the starting points, and the explanations are ultimately discovered. Proofs have to be found in a grueling process of problem solving. But they are not created in the same way concepts are. (Note: I find this last point about proofs a little hard to wrap my head around, but I think it comes down to the fact that if something is true, there is a reason why it's true, and the process of developing a proof is just a process of discovery.)

      An added bonus: I think this question has merit and relevance in today's world, as all too frequently mathematicians get caught up in politics and the struggle to solve problems with relevance only known to few. The worth of a problem should be really tied to the usefulness of the pattern attempting to be explained. If we lose sight of that, then I don't see how mathematics isn't just an elaborate form of puzzle solving.

    33. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by somersault · · Score: 1

      The fact that the power in E=mc^2 and other equations is something that has perplexed scientists for decades at least. It's like my electromagnetism lecturer pointed out, we go through pages of turgid mathematics only to end up with these elegantly simple equations... Thankyou. That was kind of my point - it's just something I'd noticed before, but you've put it into much better terms :)
      --
      which is totally what she said
    34. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 5, Insightful

      math is truth
      truth is discovered
      truthiness is invented

    35. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by 26199 · · Score: 1

      Correct in what sense?

      For me it provides a useful question to ask when things are getting overly confused; a way of pointing out that something has questionable relevance.

      Actually the main reason I referred to it explicitly was to build up to the punchline ;)

    36. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Funny

      God invented the integers.

      All the rest is the work of man.

    37. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by MrNaz · · Score: 3, Funny

      You say "day to day use" as though I'd use e-mc^2 when working out value for money on the small vs large box of cereal in the supermarket or something like that.

      "Hmm... I wonder if the larger box would still be better value for money if I were eating it in a spaceship with a velocity approaching c"

      --
      I hate printers.
    38. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by ZeroExistenZ · · Score: 1

      I think the thing to learn here is that language isn't reality, it merely describes reality.

      It's funny how you illustrate this by quoting a Dutch scientist in English.

      No, I think the correct answer is "Why are you asking the question?" There might be a more interesting (and perhaps answerable) question that underlies it.

      Personally, I'd think the underlying question is; "what are the rules of the universe, can we read it and understand it?". If you'd say "we've discovered the language of the universe" or "We have found a means to communicate, pass on and describe the nature of the universe as we observed it" you'd be saying two entirely different things.
      One also implies the universe is bound to preset rules (what created these rules? why does the universe comply with these rules? can you manipulate these rules? If all is rule-bound, can I predict any event based on that?).

      I find it very fascinating how such ancient knowledge still is at the root of our modern society.

      --
      I think we can keep recursing like this until someone returns 1
    39. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by pikine · · Score: 1

      I think both are correct answers. When it is discovered, it is physics. When it is invented, it is computer science. However, there is plenty of space in between. Oftentimes people discover something but invents a framework to allow a deeper reasoning of the concepts.

      --
      I once had a signature.
    40. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by JFitzsimmons · · Score: 2, Interesting

      Sort of like why you can't have a 2.1908123145 dimensional object. Or maybe you can, but we haven't modeled it yet.

      --
      Beware he who would deny you access to information, for in his heart he dreams himself your master. -Anonymous
    41. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by wealthychef · · Score: 1

      Yes, it is meaningless, because all meaning is created within a conversation between human beings. So to discuss whether any meaning, e.g. mathematics, exists beyond human conversation is completely misguided.

      --
      Currently hooked on AMP
    42. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by ardent99 · · Score: 1

      It really depends on what the meaning of the word "is" is....

    43. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Wavebreak · · Score: 1

      Bloody Star Trek isn't scifi, it's fantasy. Not that there's anything wrong with that, but real scifi takes a real, scientifically viable idea and extrapolates. There might be *some* hand-waving for plot purposes, but the core idea is always something that might actually be possible in the real world. It's called science fiction for a reason.

      --
      Nobody expects the British Columbia Human Rights Tribunal.
    44. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Estanislao+Mart�nez · · Score: 1

      When faced with an awkward question, logical positivism asks: what would the answer tell me about the future?

      Logical positivism? You mean the school of philosophy that was thoroughly discredited by the 50's? You know, Schlick, Carnap, Ayers, etc.?

      And also, what has "the future" got to do with anything here? Perhaps what you mean is: what is the empirical content of the position in question? If there is none, then the position is "metaphysical" (which is the fancy, logical positivist way of saying "bullshit").

    45. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by yariv · · Score: 1

      It might have some meaning when you consider extra-terrestrials. If they exist there is no reason for them to have technologies similar to ours. They might have similar science, but since science is only an approximation (and therefore, invented) of nature, they might prefer other approximations. However, since mathematics is discovered, we will share mathematics (the part we have both discovered, of course), and this might be used for communication (if such thing will ever be possible).

    46. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Dahamma · · Score: 3, Insightful

      No, the correct answer is "both."

      No, I think the correct answer is, "What are you asking?"
      .
      .
      For example, was the wheel "invented", or did someone discover that rolling a circularly shaped object requires less energy than dragging an equally massive object? Was gunpowder "invented", or did someone discover than mixing certain chemicals together and setting fire to them caused an explosion? Was the telephone "invented", or did someone discover that you could convert sounds into electrical signals and back again by using magnets?


      Um, you have just given threee great examples supporting the original poster's answer of *both*...

      In each case the basic scientific principle (mechanics, chemistry, elctricity & magnetism) was discovered (sometimes unwittingly) and then the knowledge of that discovery used to engineer an invention (wheel, gunpowder, telephone). The "discovery" was an observation of a natural phenomenom, etc, and the "invention" was creating something that otherwise did not exist in nature that took advantage of those phenomena. If you wanted to be pedantic you might argue the first "wheel" could have been discovered ("hey, look at how that round rock rolls!") but please don't try to claim that set of 18" forged alloy wheels with vulcanized radials was "discovered".

      This is exactly the same argument the OP was making. Mathematics clearly involves the invention of a language to express discoveries (or assist in making those discoveries).

    47. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by hyperball · · Score: 1

      no, no, it is not "in the middle" it is both aspects at the same time, they are not mutually exclusive. We are immersed in a reality that can be described through mathematical language, but also being part of it(a subset) also makes our activities a mathematical invention(performative) I also don't think it is an absurd debate, arguing things that seem obvious or insignificant has proven to be really useful for western civilization: questioning why the sun sets or why do species of animals differ leads us to "progress"

    48. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by maxume · · Score: 3, Informative

      What happens when you define your system of measurement such that c=1?

      E=M.

      It's remarkable that the relationship between energy and mass is related to the speed of light, but c^2 really is just a constant.

      --
      Nerd rage is the funniest rage.
    49. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by stalker314314 · · Score: 3, Funny

      No, I think the correct answer is, "What are you asking?"

      I don't know what I am asking, but the answer is definitely 42
    50. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by naturjunge · · Score: 1

      If it's "invented" people may feel they played a more valuable role than simply having tripped over something that was bound to be "discovered" eventually. This may increase the sense of ownership, easing any guilt over treating their "discovery" as intellectual property.

    51. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by somersault · · Score: 1

      Yes, but c was defined before that equation was created, was it not?

      --
      which is totally what she said
    52. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by hyperball · · Score: 1

      think the thing to learn here is that language isn't reality, it merely describes reality. I disagree. Language is reality as far as humans are concerned. Anything that we can experience, and thus communicate, falls into the concept of language. If we can make it intelligible or derive a pattern out of it, then it is language. I know many people are against this way of thinking (structuralism and post-structuralism) however try to consider it for some time, not just shut it out.
      I don't think there is a partial answer to the question, but i do think that if it could be answered in terms of "math is an invention" we could perhaps invent other types of mathematics (types that are not real since we don't know them) and moreover, regarding the question of intelligent life in the universe, it would make it clear that other civilizations would have very different math - perhaps depending completely in how the intelligence organ functions. If math is an invention, then intellect would be an emotion.
    53. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by mrbluze · · Score: 1

      I reckon mathematics was invented. Sure, there exists an order of things in nature, a symmetry, constant relationships and so on, but the discovery of that is physics and science. Pure abstract mathematics is philosophy. Counting systems are inventions - like language. They are tools for describing, communicating and imagining.

      Early Man may have discovered his fingers but counting them was an invention.

      --
      Do it yourself, because no one else will do it yourself. [beta blockade 10-17 Feb]
    54. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by StormReaver · · Score: 1

      "What would it allow you to do that you couldn't do before?"

      Patent it and continue the destruction of humanity.

    55. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Davey+McDave · · Score: 3, Informative

      One of my teachers in the physics department mused upon this a few years ago, and he said there was actually a paper proving from a logical/mathematical perspective that all units *had* to be integer combinations. Something to do with how we model dimensions. So, no m(1/2)s(-2) etc.

      I understand what you mean, but it's not something that hasn't been considered in scientific circles.

      --
      I've got the spirit, lose the feeling.
    56. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The answer is indeed both but special circumstances apply. If the mathematics describes some aspect of the real World then it is discvered, eg; Newton's calculus used to define the laws of motion. However, if it is used to model some hypothetical reality we should assume it to be invented. We must then allow for the possibility that we might at some future time wish to revise the category should the hypothetical prove to be actual, eg; matrices in the 19th century were just mathematical toys but in the 20th were found to represent several aspects of the real world. So what is the point of all this? Well it is important because mathematics is truth. If it is discovered truth then that part of the Universe which it describes is real, but if it is invented truth then the Universe it applies to is also invented. In this instance the soundness of the mathematics does not gaurantee the soundness of the Universe, a point often overlooked by Science in the 20th century.

    57. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by eulernet · · Score: 1

      Is it really so amazing that the ratio of circumference to diameter is exactly pi and not 2.143243*pi ? This is just a notation.
      PI could be have been equal to 6.2831853, without perturbing anything.
    58. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by arminw · · Score: 0

      ..Because squared gives you the right units...

      What does this have to do with units?

      A deeper questions would be: Is mathematics absolute truth or relative? Is 2+2=4 true even if the majority of mathematicians would believe it to be false? It is part of the debate on whether there is such a thing as absolute truth, or truth, like beauty is in the eye of the beholder. Is 2+2=4 merely a human convention or is it true apart from the existence of humans, mathematicians or otherwise.

      There is a variant of this question: "Does a tree fall in the forest, if there is nobody around to observe it?"

      These questions are rather academic and distant from every day life when posed in the abstract domain of mathematics, but become very emotionally charged when slid over into the realm of morality and behavior.

      --
      All theory is gray
    59. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by martin-boundary · · Score: 1

      Suppose you had a definitive, 100% guaranteed answer to the "discovered vs invented" question. What would it allow you to do that you couldn't do before? What could you predict? What would you gain?

      Nothing, nothing and nothing.

      I can't believe this view is parroted by so many comments here. Nothing gained? How about, you'll know if you're wasting your time or not, you'll know if mathematics has holes in it, you'll know when to stop improving a prediction.

      The answer to "discovered vs invented" is seriously important. Many things in the world depend on the accuracy of mathematical ideas: the economy, the buildings we live in, the vehicles we use every day, the drugs we prescribe... and much, much work in mathematics is about improving solutions, and *proving* that some types of solutions are both *right* and *optimal*.

      If mathematics is "discovered", then right and optimal means it's backed by reality. If mathematics is "invented", then right and optimal is just a vocabulary game, and reality can bite your shiny *proven* theory in the ass at a moment's notice.

      That's what is at stake. And no, I have no idea what the answer is, but playing philosophical word games about how none of it matters in the end is the kind of twaddle one expects from a first year arts major, not a science student.

    60. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      > Suppose you had a definitive, 100% guaranteed
      > answer to the "discovered vs invented" question.
      > What would it allow you to do that you couldn't do
      > before? What could you predict? What would you
      > gain? Nothing, nothing and nothing.

      If getting a definitive, 100% guaranteed answer to the question was the goal of the exercise, then maybe that's all true. But I doubt that even those most passionate about the issue (and such people do apparently exist) have any illusions of putting it to bed.

      Sophistry is a sport that folks enjoy. Like chess, which also fails your logical positivism tests.

    61. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It's funny how you illustrate this by quoting a Dutch scientist in English.
      What does his nationality have to do with it? Dijkstra wrote that in English.

    62. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by arminw · · Score: 1

      ...Yes, but c was defined before that equation was created, was it not?...

      But the issue is the unit of measurements, not c itself. If the unit of measurement is DEFINED such that c=1, then the formula the previous poster gave is correct.

      --
      All theory is gray
    63. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by arminw · · Score: 1

      ...The universe is incredibly elegant in its mathematics though...

      And it got that way through time and chance? I cannot BELIEVE that.

      --
      All theory is gray
    64. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Ralph+Spoilsport · · Score: 5, Informative
      we have modelled it - it's called fractal dimensions.

      Check it out. cool stuff.

      RS

      --
      Shoes for Industry. Shoes for the Dead.
    65. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by felipekk · · Score: 2, Informative

      I guess you haven't seen the golden ratio yet then:

      g = 1.6180339887...
      g^2 = 2.6180339887...
      1/g = 0.6180339887...

      The 6180339887... thing is exactly the same.
      I used g to represent the golden ration here, although the correct entity is the greek letter phi. I couldn't get phi to show up correctly here.

    66. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by c_sd_m · · Score: 1

      So that's why pi is 3...

    67. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by xactuary · · Score: 3, Funny
      Sad but true. Mathematicians are tools.

      --
      Say hello to my little sig.
    68. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The math exists regardless of the symbolism used to describe it.

      Math is the symbolism used to describe the universe. By the math in the first post was probably meant directly or indirectly observable relationships of the nature.
    69. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      :1
      The question of AI isn't of interest to autistic boobs like Dijkstra because they have no foresight, if it can be excluded from possibility with some fundamental logic it would save a lot of people researching AI a lot of pain.
      goto 1

    70. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by It'sYerMam · · Score: 1

      What do you measure energy in? What do you measure mass in? c is a constant, therefore c^2 is a constant - so if you measured energy in calories and mass in ounces, then you might get c^2.5981734 or whatever, but we don't, because then we'd get weird dimensions.

      --
      im in ur .sig, writin ur memes.
    71. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by LaskoVortex · · Score: 3, Informative

      I have mod points and I'd really love to mod you down, but I figure I'd educate you instead. (Of course you are probably wondering why I would mod you down and that you think your suggestions are intellectual, but they make about as much sense as racial supremacy arguments, which should be modded down as well.)

      Lots of the real neat roundedness of physics (different from math, though many get them confused) comes from how we define (don't forget that word, "define") properties that we require to explain phenomena or make predictions. For example, lets imagine that it is many years ago and we are the first to notice that it is hard to stop a bowling ball. Perhaps in our past we have already came up with a concept called velocity and one called mass. Clearly, the difficulty to stop the bowling ball is related to both, and we make two observations:

      • The more velocity it has, the harder it is to stop.
      • The heavier it weighs, the harder it is to stop.

      So we can take these observations into account and define a quantity which describes "hardness to stop" and give it a one-word name, like "momentum". The simplest formula that combines its component properties of mass and velocity is multiplication of these values. Or, to put it in mathematical terms p=mv.

      Now, someone who has studied the bible more than he has studied physics will look at the simplicity and elegance of the formula and call it proof that god exists. However, in reality its a matter of a simple and self-consistent method of accounting invented (or discovered if you like that word better) by people. So now please move along and convince yourself that some other area of science is proof of god. Hopefully someone else will correct you there as well.

      --
      Just callin' it like I see it.
    72. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by It'sYerMam · · Score: 1

      It is only discovered in the sense of discovering oneself. Maths involves discovering the intuitive notions that you use in the world to do every day math, using those as axioms, and seeing where it ends up. Thus you can say maths is discovered, but it's still all in our heads.

      --
      im in ur .sig, writin ur memes.
    73. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by mikael_j · · Score: 1

      I agree with you that mathematics is something that is discovered. Like another poster said, mathematical language, the symbols we use, is something the we invented but fundamentally the math behind all of it is something we discover.

      However, prior to actually studying mathematics I used to think that it was something invented, my reasons for this were what you might call quasi-philosophical, I associated mathematics with our mathematical language which is something we invented, but after I began studying mathematics I changed my view and "realized" that mathematics in itself is something which is discovered and not invented.

      /Mikael

      --
      Greylisting is to SMTP as NAT is to IPv4
    74. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Suppose you had a definitive, 100% guaranteed answer to the "discovered vs invented" question. What would it allow you to do that you couldn't do before? What could you predict? What would you gain? Once mathematics is defined as an invention, it can be patented and put under copyright. I can predict profits for those who had none before and for those who had almost all the profits already. I would gain negatively as not being able to read mathematical text without worrying about NDA. Science education would soon stagnate and die. Welcome to the new middle ages, now with modern weapons!
    75. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by arminw · · Score: 1

      ....Mathematics is a science and like any other science, it attempts to explain natural phenomena...

      How does 2+2=4 explain a natural phenomenon? Is that an absolute truth or only a way of looking at reality, open to opinion, sort of like the blind men trying to explain an elephant? The elephant is reality, but the blind men's explanation of it may not be, or remain a puzzle to them.

      --
      All theory is gray
    76. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by aidan+folkes · · Score: 2, Insightful

      Suppose you had a definitive, 100% guaranteed answer to the "discovered vs invented" question. What would it allow you to do that you couldn't do before? What could you predict? What would you gain?
      If it were "invented", you could patent it!
    77. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by maxume · · Score: 1

      It was described in measurement systems of the day, yes. Note that it is described, not defined, c is a property of the universe(or so we think, blah, blah, blah).

      --
      Nerd rage is the funniest rage.
    78. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by pclminion · · Score: 3, Informative

      What does this have to do with units?

      Absolutely everything. Many fundamental equations of physics can be correctly arrived at simply by manipulating units. The dimensions of energy are kg*m^2*s^2. A combination of physical quantities which does not have precisely this dimension cannot possibly be a quantity of energy.

      Dimensional analysis is an extremely powerful technique, and something which is learned in basic physics.

    79. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Agree. The laws etc. are discovered, but the methods used to discover them are totally invented.

      It's the same with all of science.

      We can now resolve that other debate:
      Methods of discovery are patentable, but that which is ultimately discovered is not.

    80. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by eepok · · Score: 1

      I was writing the same thing out and then I searched the page to see if someone else had already said so. I concur completely.

    81. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by ZombieWomble · · Score: 5, Insightful
      You say the "simplest" formula which combines the properties of mass and velocity is a multiplication of these values - but it also happens to be the only correct one to describe this new property of matter (barring tomfoolery with constants and so forth).

      Momentum scales linearly with both mass and velocity, fields fall off with inverse square relations, and so on. You cannot change the equations describing them away from these truths in any meaningful fashion without making the equations wrong - this is not human convention or definition, it is how the universe works.

    82. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by confusedneutrino · · Score: 1

      First two visible posts and the problem is solved. Nothing to see here, move along.

      --


      --RIAmAses! Let my MP3ople go!
    83. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by techno-vampire · · Score: 1
      Is it really so amazing that the ratio of circumference to diameter is exactly pi and not 2.143243*pi ?


      The ratio is exactly pi because pi is defined as the ratio of the circumference of a circle to its diameter.

      --
      Good, inexpensive web hosting
    84. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by naasking · · Score: 1

      Math is a tool [...] where the ideas have come from observing the world around us

      You said it. Math and logic was discovered by observing the world around us, and the comonolity in many of these observed relationships was factored out into an invented symbolic language. So math and logic was both invented, and discovered.

    85. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by CastrTroy · · Score: 1

      There's also number like e (2.718281828459045235), pi (3.141592654), G (6.67e-11), and many other numbers that don't end up so round.

      --

      Anthropic principle: We see the universe the way it is because if it were different we would not be here to see it.
    86. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by alexhs · · Score: 3, Interesting

      What do you mean by "invented" and what do you mean by "discovered"? What difference do you see between the two? Yes, the question asked is a question of semantics and philosophy.

      Semantics:

      In old French, both were essentially synonymous.
      • -You can find mentions of Christopher Columbus having "invented" America(s).
      • -"découvrir" both means uncover and discover in French.
      • -From my harrap's shorter french and english dictionnary of 1962 :
        inventer v.tr. To invent. (a) To find out, discover. [...]

      Philosophy :

      Under platonism, there's actually no distinction (see allegory of the cave).
      By suggesting to let platonism die, the anonymous reader seems to want us answer "invent"...
      --
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    87. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Roman+Geyzer · · Score: 1

      Perhaps one could argue that pi is just humans only way to describe the relationship. Its natural "non-roundness" could be better described in some other manner that we have yet to invent or have no capability to understand with our intellects. Mathematics is just a language to describe the physical world around us. As with any language, it is created not bestowed. After all, if 1/4 = 0.25 = (2 * 1)/8 then aren't these three ways of describing the same information. I'm not saying the relationships and order in the universe don't exist independent of our discovery of those relationships. But mathematics is not the same as the relationship - merely a language to describe it, and as such, it is invented.

    88. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      And you presume that just because you can explain one thing that simply, ID must be precluded.

      You might just as well have said that the sky is blue in reply to the GP post positing the possibility of intelligent design. Your intellectual arrogance is on par with the arrogance of creationists who use the limitations of their minds to box in a supreme being that is omniscient and omnipotent.

      Really.

      Is is.

      And I doubt you're smart enough to know that.

    89. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Intellectually sitting on the fence just means you're going to get splinters in your ass.

    90. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Oktober+Sunset · · Score: 2, Insightful

      For someone working with SI units, there are many elegant formulas, now if you dust of an old book from the 50s and look at some formulas in imperial units they are horrible, as all the units are non matching, and need a whole load of constants and secondary unit conversion calculations added to make everything come out right.

      Sure E=MC^2 is very nice looking, but if it wasn't, it would not be famous, take a look at some of the other equations involved in relativity, they are not so pretty.

    91. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by CastrTroy · · Score: 1

      Developers, Developers, Developers, Developers, Developers, Developers, Developers, Developers, Developers, Developers, Developers, Developers, Developers, Developers, Developers, Developers!! Go Balmer :). Ok, now I'm just typing some stuff to get past the compression filter. Hopefully this will be enough.

      --

      Anthropic principle: We see the universe the way it is because if it were different we would not be here to see it.
    92. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by epine · · Score: 3, Interesting
      Oh, isn't it amazing that the integral of x is x^2/2 instead of x^pi. Could it be that the integral of x is geometrically determined as half the area of a square with side x?

      I deviated from the profession of mathematics long ago, but as far as I'm concerned, the question of invented/discovered was adequately retired by Kolmogorov-Chaitin complexity theory. For some reason, most mathematicians and most physicists seem determined to ignore this.

      The formal system you begin with has an arbitrary beginning: the nature of the universal computer used to measure sequence length. In practice, the arbitrary starting point rarely makes a whiff of difference. The maximum disagreement on sequence length is bounded by the complexity of the program by which one machine is able to simulate the other. Since it is possible to construct universal computers of startlingly low complexity (you could easily write out the rules on the back of a business card with a blunt pencil), this bound tends to be minuscule for most universal machines we might choose to adopt for serious purposes.

      I recall reading an article, by Putnam I think, where he talks about two different axiomatic formulations of the integers. Both formalisms agree on all the properties of the integers we regard as essential. However, in one system it is always true that if n < m then the set used to represent n id a subset of the set used to represent m. It the other axiomatic foundation, this is not true.

      Some foundation points can introduce some strange discrepancies, but rarely anything we regard as material. This could probably be stated as an theorem in complexity theory. You'd have to put some elbow grease into the project to come up with a universal machine which can't compute pi using a "short" program where short is less than say Ackermann(4,4) and more likely, within a golf score of Ackermann(3,4).

      Strange fact I didn't know:

      http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ackermann_function

      [The inverse Ackermann function] appears in the time complexity of some algorithms, such as the disjoint-set data structure and Chazelle's algorithm for minimum spanning trees. ...
      In fact, alpha(n) is less than 5 for any conceivable input size n, since A(4, 4) is on the order of 2^{2^{10^{19729}}}. "For all practical purposes", alpha(n) can be regarded as being a constant.

      Perhaps this is why KC theory is so often ignored. People can't wrap their minds around A(4,4) as an example of an extremely small number. The problem is, the philosophical question of invented/discovered demands this cognitive shift. A(4,4) is *not* a large number on the *philosophical* landscape.

      Chaitin's omega, however, is the total perspective vortex of theoretical mathematics.

      There seems to be a small number of special constants, such as e and pi, that any universal computer anyone has ever found a use for can obtain from a short program. Within this nucleus, a nanoscopically small filagree in the multidimensional fractal of all possible mathematics, the balance shifts toward "discovered". The further one departs from this minute filigree of felicity and virtue, the more the scale tips toward "invented".

      If that sounds like fluff, answer this: what is the shortest number one can copyright?

      Due to subitization it has never been possible to copyright the integers 1..4. The copyright on 5 probably expired 50,000 years ago. In modern society, there is evidence that 128-bit numbers remain fair game, though the difficulties of enforcing this are notorious. Clearly, five was discovered, the AACS constant was invented.

      Not everyone agrees with Chaitin. This post makes a coherent statement of what he might be presuming:

      http://coding.derkeiler.com/A

    93. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Vellmont · · Score: 1


      Personally, I'd think the underlying question is; "what are the rules of the universe, can we read it and understand it?".

      I think that's an important question. I just don't think answering "is math discovered or created" is part of answering that question. This question is essentially philosophy (and not terribly interesting philosophy), and not science.

      --
      AccountKiller
    94. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by sootman · · Score: 1

      To answer the article's original question however, my answer would be: Who gives a toss? Math is useful. Whatever semantic definition we apply to the process by which we expand our mathematical capabilities has absolutely zero impact upon that expansion.

      Has nothing to do with expansion. If it is "invented" it can be patented. And owned. And controlled.

      --
      Dear Slashdot: next time you want to mess with the site, add a rich-text editor for comments.
    95. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by fyngyrz · · Score: 2, Insightful

      I'll agree that it's meaningless in the sense you describe, but I'll also add that it's a relatively easily answered question as long as one keeps superstition at bay.

      Mathematics is a language, one intentionally of the most precision we can manage. This language is very well able to, and intended to, describe many of the methods and mechanisms of the universe we live in, and is additionally capable of describing things that are abstract and/or impossible.

      As a language, it evolves with use, and it maintains consistency with use. It also can lose ideas and dialects.

      To get all happy-assed because one has a technically specialized language available is akin to a programmer thinking he is discovering a hitherto unknown facet of the universe because he just learned Python. Fun, interesting, mind-expanding, all that... but not a "connection to a non-physical state." Just a new language.

      The universe works in certain ways. Most languages exist to describe those ways, and how we interact with them. Math is one of a very few languages that attempt to do that precisely, and this is both notable and useful, but it isn't magical. Because the goal is to discover how the universe works, and how abstracts perhaps not in the universe might be expressed, we are driven to extend the language. We don't "discover" it, we invent it.

      To the extent that we meet our goals -- that is in particular, successfully describe how the universe works -- we can expect that someone or something working elsewhere would come to the same or equivalent conclusions. Because knowing how things work seems to be is so fundamental to our industry and technology, we presume that it would be similarly fundamental to the industry and technology of those "others." If that presumption is correct, then thinking of math as a "universal language" is an idea that has legs; but again, there's nothing magical about it. We can be pretty certain that while another race might know what the idea of "pi" represents, they're not going to call it "pi", it's not that kind of universal.

      Math can be expected to be a common ground just as other types of communications and specifications based upon communications are likely to be common ground. Also like metallurgy; chemistry; physics; etc. Not because it's magic, but because the universe offers only certain things to its inhabitants, and as we work with them and extend our knowledge about them, we're going to need very specific ways to describe and represent and work with them. So would anyone else, if they're even remotely similar to us.

      So it's invented. But it is invented to describe something that already exists, in many cases, as well as imaginary things conceived by minds conditioned by experience with other things as they exist. That's why some people think math can be described as "discovered"; but they're simply confusing the universe being described with the description. We might discover how orbits work and very precisely describe that orbit with math; but the math for the orbit is not the orbit itself. It's a description; it's language.

      That's my take, anyway.

      --
      I've fallen off your lawn, and I can't get up.
    96. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by TapeCutter · · Score: 1

      "One can observe one apple or one galaxy, but one cannot observe the number one.

      Apples and galaxies are countable because we percieve them as distinct objects but if you look very closely the 'obvious' distinction between an apple and the rest of the universe is no so obvious after all.

      Putting god(s) to one side, the mind is a mathematical construct that emerges from the activity of the brain and the nervous system. The language of maths does not describe the Universe, it describes our perception of it. In other words the mind is a mathematical entity that is to some degree self describing to other mathematical entities.

      When one thinks of the mind in this way it comes as no surprise that maths is such a powerfull yet simple language for describing the 'real world'?

      --
      And did you exchange a walk on part in the war for a lead role in a cage? - Pink Floyd.
    97. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Vellmont · · Score: 1

      I think you've gone beyond the original point I'm trying to convey. Math is what math is. We come up with a few words to try to describe mathematics, but it's always flawed. For instance, is an electron a particle or a wave? Neither of course, it's an electron. Sometimes it's convenient to describe it as a wave, other times as a particle. That's the sense I'm saying that language isn't real. I'd rather not get into the larger argument you've brought up.

      --
      AccountKiller
    98. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by civilizedINTENSITY · · Score: 1

      But c can't be just '1', because it isn't a just a number. It represents a physical quantity with units. Thus, even if c= 1m/s, energy would still be E=mc^2 and not mc, because the units as well as the number have to be squared.

      That is to say, 1m/s is not equal to 1 m^2/s^2

    99. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Myrddin+Wyllt · · Score: 1

      e=mc^2 works with SI units, but not with BTUs, troy ounces and furlongs per fortnight. The point is that the Joule is defined in terms of kilograms, metres and seconds, BUT is based on the newtonian concept of kinetic energy. The fact that the exponent is exactly 2 (for a mass at rest) is still a gobsmackingly non-trivial idea, since c^2 is not 'just a constant', but has dimensions (m^2*s^-2). Since joules have dimensions kg*m^2*s^-2 you might well expect a constant of proportionality to be expressed in these units, but the fact that this would be equal to the square of the velocity of light expressed in these same units is not just something that automatically follows from the original definition of those units.

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    100. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Roger Zelazny once answered this question in "Lord of Light".

      One of the characters had to deal with these beings that appeared, for all intents and purposes, to be demons. They could fly, possess people, create magic. One character asked what's the difference if you call them supernatural or not, since they acted the same. But that was difference. To call them demons would be to bow down to the supernatural. As rational beings, we don't have that luxury.

      Borge's "Library of Babel" answered a similar question about discovery versus invention..

    101. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by buildguy · · Score: 1

      Logical positivism asserts that only statements about empirical observations are meaningful, effectively asserting that all metaphysical statements are meaningless. Unfortunately, this fundamental tenet of logical positivism belongs to the family of statements that it asserts to be meaningless. As a result, the entire edifice of logical positivism vanishes in a puff of logic. This insight appears not to have occurred to the logical positivist school of philosophers.

      --
      You think that's a building. Now this is a building.
    102. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by knowsalot · · Score: 5, Informative
      I also have mod points and would love to mod you down, because education at this point is probably futile. There is a subtlety to understanding the nature of the universe that is difficult if not impossible to explain to the layman. But I will try.

      Your reasoning is subtly but fundamentally flawed. Yet as with all subtlties, pinpointing the exact nature of the flaw is difficult without having a back-and-forth conversation.

      You are right on target with respect to Ohm's law and Hooke's law -- but quite off base with your general assertion. The deep laws of physics *are* eerily symmetric, independent of our need to describe them so.

      For example, the inverse-square law of gravity or electromagnetism can be derived as a consequence of living in a 3-dimensional universe. (Integrate your favorite conserved quantity over concentric spherical surfaces and you get something that must "fan out" as 1/r^2). Nothing very suprising there. Nevertheless the deeper into exploration of physical laws you get, the more surprising interconnections pop up independent of our need to observe them.

      Your assertion that "momentum" is simply a convenient and observed quantity is both false and misleading. "Momentum" is a fundamental quantity that relates directly and ... well, fundamentally to the nature of energy, space, time, et cetera. It is particularly noteworthy that the nature of space and momentum should relate to our perception of time -- a property/dimension/quality which is quite distinct from all others in its one-way observable nature. The laws of "physics" seem to be time-invariant, yet the laws of "thermodynamics" which are equally fundamental seem to recognize that time is somehow special.

      Thus, it is misleading to imply that our physical laws are simple and elegant because we have simple and elegant requirements to describe the universe. An accurate description of the universe need not be simple -- and often it is not. For instance, I understand (although lack the mathematical sophistication to prove) that the electron spin g-factor has a theoretical value of exactly 2. Yet it is observed to be approximately 2.00232 and is one of the most precisely measured physical constants. So it is not always simple truth and beauty. Which makes it all the more surprising when the simplicity is there nevertheless.

      And while it is true that the inverse-square law breaks down at relativistic energies, even that corrective factor of "gamma" remains mathematically simple, and in fact geometrically constructable via a pythagorean triangle analysis of a certain thought-experiment.

      My point is that the easy examples are easily explained away by laymen, yet the surprisingly simple nature of the fundamental laws of the universe continue to pop up where you wouldn't expect. That is why expert scientists, true geniuses, of the sort that don't come along every day, routinely make comments about the "beauty" of physics. They have a deep understanding and "feeling" about the way the universe fits together that isn't captured by your example about momentum.

    103. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by buildguy · · Score: 1

      The only reason I responded was I could make this logical positivism joke I've had lying in my head for a few years. So we had similar goals.

      --
      You think that's a building. Now this is a building.
    104. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by HiThere · · Score: 1

      But you're arguing in circles.

      Once you define momentum as p, in p=mv, then of course it scales linearly with both mass and velocity. That's straight from the definition.

      If, however, we'd decided we were more interested in something else, that, perhaps, fit the equation w=md, we'd have something else, call it work, that scaled linearly with mass and distance. And if we'd instead decided that we were interested in something that fit mv^2, then we'd define another term to fit that.

      In each of these cases being surprised that the defined term fit the equation would be circular reasoning. If fits it because that's how we defined it.

      OTOH, the regularity had to be there, or we wouldn't have found the term useful...and sometimes centuries have gone by between the time a relationship is described and the time it's found to be useful. In the intermediate period it's "A jewel of pure mathematics". And perhaps many current "jewels of pure mathematics" will eventually find utilitarian interpretations.

      Mathematics is the discovery of these "pure mathematical patterns". Science happens when they are put to work. (Well, that's one mode of science.)

      --

      I think we've pushed this "anyone can grow up to be president" thing too far.
    105. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      "Suppose you had a definitive, 100% guaranteed answer to the "discovered vs invented" question. What would it allow you to do that you couldn't do before? What could you predict? What would you gain?"

      It would allow you to brag.
      That would get you chicks.
      Which in turn would allow you to procreate and avoid the Darwin award. ...when you get right down to it questions of philosophy are to the human species what brightly colored feathers are to a peacock.

      btw. I don't believe any of the bullshit that comes out of my mouth either.

    106. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by danilo.moret · · Score: 1

      Oh, and the correct answer is "discovered".

      No, it isn't. A short answer would be "What is a discovery and what is an invention?", and a slightly longer one would be "This question has no logical answer, just as asking if mathematics is red or blue has no logic. There are not enough axioms defined in it to deduce an answer". I'm not a mathematician, but I think that the main problem to give an answer to that question is that the definitions of what is a discovery and what is an invention are not clear enough.

      Is creating a music, building an artificial molecule, writing a working method, coding an algorithm an "invention" because they don't exist prior to human intervention or a "discovery" because there's the potential for these things to exist or be described, i.e., they are not impossible? If the answer to that question is "discovery", what is an "invention" then? Because finding a continent, observing an atom, meeting a person, locating a planet is usually described as a "discovery". [citation needed] So, is everything an "invention"? Couldn't we come up with a better word to describe it all?

      Once these terms are clearly defined (or, as I see it, once it's defined if everything is a "discovery" or if there's clear division between "discovery" and "invention" or it there's no clear division on the terms to label acquired knowledge) in the question, I think an answer can be given.

      --
      ^[:wq!
    107. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Insightful

      I'm going to have to go with discovered. To me Euler's equation is, was and ever shall be true and there isn't a darn thing anyone in this universe can do about it.

      I'm going to have to go with invented. Euler's equation is true within a particular mathematical system. There is no unique system of mathematics. Do some reading on the old controversy surrounding the Axiom of Choice, and come back and talk about how math is discovered. Math is a game. We arbitrarily decide which rules we play by.

    108. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by saider · · Score: 1

      What would it allow you to do that you couldn't do before?
      Inventions can be patented. Discoveries cannot.

      What could you predict?
      I predict more lawyers becoming interested in the Math department over at the local U.

      What would you gain?
      A dumptruck load of money.

      Before the flames come, I tend towards the "discovered" argument.

      --


      Remember, You are unique...just like everyone else.
    109. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by magarity · · Score: 1

      Also c^2 is NOT a constant, c is the constant
       
      2 is the constant; c changes with the medium through which light is travelling.
       
        dickhead
       
      Oh yeah? Well double dickhead on you.

    110. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by CougMerrik · · Score: 1

      No other sentient species could have devised math any differently, or could successfully disagree with proven mathematical properties.

      If math is not objectively and universally true, then no science which makes observations, correlations, predictions and translates these into mathematical formulas makes any sense, because all such science would not be true to any other society where they have devised some other "math".

      If our observations, translated correctly into our mathematical system, were not true in some other mathematical system, then our correct observations must not match their correct observations, which would require that we were living in separate realities.

      Even if some other society used a different base, a different set of standard operations, etc., they would still be expressable with our operations using some set of conversion functions.

      Math is a good example of things which are true but cannot be observed in the physical world.

    111. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by dreamchaser · · Score: 1

      I feel bad for you, because I have experienced plenty of things that language cannot describe well if at all. Of course, magic mushrooms played a role in it...

    112. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by rrhal · · Score: 1

      We discovered that things tended to come in discreet objects. We invented the Integers to model and enumerate them. We discovered basic truths about these integers - like there's no square root of 2.

      --
      All generalizations are false, including this one. Mark Twain
    113. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by naasking · · Score: 1

      But then mathematics is different from prose

      Mathematics isn't really that different from prose. Theorems naturally follow from the axioms of the logic, so in a very real sense theorems are discoveries. All possible theorems are effectively fixed when the axioms of a logic are defined.

      Equivalently, prose naturally follows from a sequence of words constructed from a vocabularly according to some grammar. All grammatically correct phrases are also fixed by that vocabularly and that grammar.

      So really, prose and math are both discoveries in a very real sense. Now the question is: are axioms and grammars discoveries or inventions? I argued earlier that the answer is "both".

    114. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by worthawholebean · · Score: 1

      Squaring is self-multiplication. That's what makes it special.

    115. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by smurgy · · Score: 1

      Interestingly I have the same notion but I was going to argue it by analogy.

      Let's posit an early agrarian. He has animals in his flock. Sometimes they breed. Sometimes they are eaten by wolves. He discovers the simple (but absolutely mathematical) notions of more and less through observations of this process. From this (and its effect on his welfare) he invents the exact same concepts as a method of regulating his wellbeing - he creates the notion that if he allows his flock to breed and protects them from predators he and his community will fare better in life.

      Let's leap to Fibonacci numbers - invented first as an interesting sequence, then discovered to have many applications in predicting nature.

    116. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by arminw · · Score: 1

      ...When it is discovered, it is physics. When it is invented, it is computer science. ...

      So is 1+1=2 discovered or invented? An invention is an arbitrary thing. Someone could "invent" an N-sided wheel. Can someone invent 1+1=5? Such a wheel would be a subjective thing, depending on N, but 1+1 makes an objective sum of only 2 and nothing else.

      Mathematics is used to describe physical reality, but does it DEPEND on physical things or is it a construct of what we have labeled mind or intelligence?

      --
      All theory is gray
    117. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Damn, I am too drunk to type. I have one eye closed as I type.... so you win :-)


      Lies! If you were drunk, you would of wrote "to drnk too tpey." Instead you just went for an easy joke. Hand in your Comedy Permit.
    118. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by felipekk · · Score: 2, Interesting

      Yes, but if you do pi^2 or 1/pi, you don't get the same sequence after the unit. That's why the golden ratio is so amazing.

    119. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by maxume · · Score: 1

      I don't have a high level understanding of the material, but time isn't something that you and a photon experience in quite the same way. Essentially, from the photon's perspective, it gets emitted and then almost instantaneously collides with something. As far as you can tell, it took years or minutes to complete the journey.

      If you accelerate to 0.5 c and shine a flashlight, light moves away from you at c. Not at 0.5c or 1.5c, but at c. If you were pointing the light at someone, they would see a different wavelength than you would. If you pointed it behind you they would see a lower frequency and if you pointed in front of you they would see a higher frequency.

      So it isn't simply a matter of insisting that the speed of light is a time based unit, but I'm not quite sure what the deeper consequences are.

      --
      Nerd rage is the funniest rage.
    120. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Alsn · · Score: 1

      c is defined as the speed of light in a vacuum and since the speed of light does not vary while in a vaccum c is a constant.

    121. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Artraze · · Score: 1

      > the reason that is it not (some value here)mc^2 is because c is a natural constant with a non-integer value, and all the "non-roundness"
      > that seems to amaze you is contained in > this constants. Another example of a fundamental constant is pi. Is it really so amazing that
      > the ratio of circumference to diameter is exactly pi and not 2.143243*pi ?

      Of course not, because, as you say, one simply needs to redefine pi. But that example doesn't really capture the point.

      The fact is that energy, mass, and c were all defined _before_ the e=mc^2 bit was discovered. Of course we could always define things to work out, but we _didn't_. To map it our for you:

      c - The speed of light. This is a constant.
      m - The constant of inertia OR gravity for some matter. (That's an interesting point there.)
      e - Energy. Derived from mass, distance and acceleration.

      That's where those measurements came from. The fact that the kinetic energy of a mass is so similar to the inherit energy of the matter in the mass is quite interesting.

      Finally, it's not as if every formula works out so well. There are all sorts of constants around. Graviational, Coulomb's, etc. So I wouldn't call it proof of God, but it is kind of interesting.

    122. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Thyrsus · · Score: 1

      "Simplest"? Why not just add them together? Don't complain about units: you've introduced this compound unit of (mass * distance)/(time) and named it "momentum"; why can't I introduce a compound unit of (mass + (distance/time)) and name it "momentum"? Your theory is polluted by observation! By data! By the "given" (to translate the latin)! But leaving teleology aside...

      On a deeper level, you don't address the original question: whether mathematics is "invented" or "discovered". As a (neo^n)Platonist, I assert that the human mind is a component of a mathematically describable reality. That one mathematical system should be able to encompass (or comprehend, or contain) another is no surprise at all: the only requirement is that the containing system be at least as complex as the contained (and *there* is a hint about simplicity/complexity: those metrics are likely not completely ordered). Will you assert the contrary? That reality is *not* mathematically describable?

    123. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by hyperball · · Score: 1

      words are not the only language. Also, since you can still refer to the event/experience with a word, it makes it communicable. An acid trip or a dream can be communicated because they can be experienced, the problem is that we cannot adequately describe it or convey it. Thus, for example, the sublime in art can be provoked, but not readily described. So since we can convey (in many different degrees) such things, they are language. Even when you say "i cannot describe it" you are still figuring it in language. Everything that we can experience is withing language in general. Not being able to explain it with English would be a question of proficiency
      Perhaps the confusion comes from thinking that language is a nomenclature which would refer to an existing thing (e.g. an electron). The point is that language is not a nomenclature of "reality", rather it is a thing in itself. It is not that we describe what math is but rather that we can articulate or interpret reality through mathematical language - or English.
      The article refers to this problem, what makes mathematical language "work" differently than say, English. What would be the relationship of math to what's "out there"?

    124. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by maxume · · Score: 1

      I'm not quite sure about it, but I don't think a photon cares much about what we think a second is.

      I really mean I'm not sure about it. The whole light has its own rules thing is awesome and I think its cool that mass and energy are related to each other and this thing that seems to be a fundamental property of of the universe.

      --
      Nerd rage is the funniest rage.
    125. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by LaskoVortex · · Score: 1

      The fact that the exponent is exactly 2 (for a mass at rest) is still a gobsmackingly non-trivial idea

      Though the math itself is non-trivial, the integer 2 as the exponent is as trivial as the same exponent found in the definition of kinetic energy (1/2(mv**2)), which arises from the integration of p=mv. So, if you took the mass of an object and integrated over dv in p=mv from -c to +c, you would get e=mc**2. The profound part is that the speed of light serves for the limits of the integration. Of course if we had found any other number as the limits, we would be equally dazzled by that number. The exponent, however, is not so profound.

      --
      Just callin' it like I see it.
    126. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Thyrsus · · Score: 1

      I hope you're being sarcastic. Pi is defined as the ratio of the diameter to the circumference of a circle. Either you'd have to change the definition of a circle or demand that the circumference be measured in different units than the diameter -- and those units would have a ratio of exactly (6.2831853/Pi) -- or else you'd need some weird system where the digit places in your number were in some multibase representation (in a way similar to how time is measured in years:days:hours:minutes:seconds (bases infinity,(365+1/4),24,60,60).

    127. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by ubuwalker31 · · Score: 1

      http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Philosophy_of_mathematics

      For those of us who just assumed that numbers existed, this article will be enlightening.

    128. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Thyrsus · · Score: 1

      Except that the change in units would need to be given explicitly, since Energy units are incommensurable with Mass units, thus with C=1(distance unit/time unit): E=M*(distance unit/time unit)^2.

    129. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by LaskoVortex · · Score: 2, Interesting

      "Simplest"? Why not just add them together?

      One adds those things together that can be separated. Mass and velocity are intrinsic to an object, so they can't be separated. In other words, if I accelerate one part of an [inelastic] object, I accelerate all parts that same amount. For example, if I have a 12 kg bowling ball moving 10 km/hr, all 12 kg have to go the 10 km/hr. So, the simplest way to do the accounting is 10*12.

      you don't address the original question: whether mathematics is "invented" or "discovered"

      It depends on what you mean by those words. Did we invent the wheel or simply discover it? Its a very philosophical indeed, but I'm not so sure we achieve anything by trying to answer it, especially since, in the end, it boils down to semantics. In such cases, I usually refer to American Heritage as that is what came with my Mac.

      --
      Just callin' it like I see it.
    130. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by CastrTroy · · Score: 1

      Maybe not in base 10.

      --

      Anthropic principle: We see the universe the way it is because if it were different we would not be here to see it.
    131. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by ghostdancer · · Score: 1

      I think, math was invented, in order to describe what was discovered.

      --
      I rather be free in hell than a slave in heaven.
    132. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by SophisticatedZombie · · Score: 1

      Let's consider a more "physical" example for a moment. Consider the case of a configuration of two hydrogen atoms. What if in a hypothetical universe, all the hydrogen was completely atomic. There was no H2 molecular hydrogen out there at all. Now, H2 is possible in the hypothetical universe, just none of it exists. So you come along, and you stick two H atoms together and make H2. Have you discovered H2, or have you invented it? Does invention cover something that is possible but doesn't yet exist? As soon as you decide to create a symbolic framework, such as the integers, you invent a set of logically self-consistent possibilities. It is the invention of the simple computer described by the earlier poster. So, in my opinion, all math is invented. We invented all the math we are "discovering" now when we first counted from 0 to 1. The question of whether or not 0 and 1 (not-exist and exist) are properties of the universe that we co-opted into our mental models is the interesting one to me. For example, in a universe where nothing exists, an outside observer might decide that that universe could contain existence. Was that invented or discovered. Does the existence of non-existence imply the existence of existence without an example?

    133. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by spongman · · Score: 1
      The way I see it is this: Mathematics is two things:
      1. 1) a bunch of truths (axioms)
      2. 2) a bunch of tools use to create more truths from #1 ad nauseam/infinitum/until you drop out of math class
      1. a) #1 are discovered by using #2
      2. b) #2 are invented in order to (a)
      the question of physicality is irrelevant: humans are capable of abstract thought.
    134. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Yxven · · Score: 1

      I think the better question is: "What difference does it make?"

      If it's discovered, it changes nothing.
      If it's invented, it's one step closer to becoming patentable.

      I vote discovered.

    135. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by samkass · · Score: 1

      Actually, I think the question of invented vs. discovered is one of the primary philosophical differences between those who think software should be patentable vs. those who don't. I personally think writing code can be creative and that algorithmic development is an inventive process. And since software has a direct translation into mathematics, it seems obvious to me that mathematics is a construct of the human mind (which may or may not actually mirror discovered phenomenon.)

      I also think software, which is the result of this creative process, should be patentable if it is truly "non-obvious to one skilled in the art".

      --
      E pluribus unum
    136. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Why is this post modded +5 informative???

      LaskoVortex has just described basic principles in elementary physics. Anyone who did a B.Sc. level would have developed this mental maturity.

      His attitude, however, is far beyond the topic he seems fit to handle.

      The post by Davey McDave has the right answer, but is at score one.

      Science is doomed.

    137. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by GospelHead821 · · Score: 1

      Momentum describes an observable property, though. Although we defined momentum as p=mv, there is good reason to do so. Increasing either the mass or the velocity by an arbitrary factor results in an object with the same quantity of that observable property. It is not inconceivable that this would not be the case.

      --
      Virtue finds and chooses the mean.
      Aristotle, Ethica Nichomachea
    138. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Timothy+Brownawell · · Score: 1

      Like most absurd debates where both sides are vehemently opposed, the answer actually lies in the middle. I fail to see how ed can be considered to be "in the middle" between emacs and vi.
    139. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Spy+der+Mann · · Score: 1

      Oh, and the correct answer is "discovered".


      You just *invented* that, right? ;-)
    140. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Lord+Ender · · Score: 1

      I thought a logical positivist would ask if a finite procedure for conclusively determining whether either claim is true or false exists. And, if there is no such procedure, reject the question entirely for being "cognitively meaningless."

      --
      A slashdotter who didn't build his own computer is like a Jedi who didn't build his own lightsaber.
    141. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Thyrsus · · Score: 1

      The non-stationary bowling ball's I've encountered rarely travel a uniform speed w.r.t. usual frames of reference. At best their axis of rotation may travel a near-constant speed.

      I think the meaning here is clear: "invented" implies that mathematics is an artifact that would not exist if humans (or some other reasoning entitiy) did not create it; "discovered" implies the contrary: that mathematics does have an independent existence. I am thoroughly in the "discovered" camp. And what do we achieve? We acknowledge that (at least in this domain) there is Truth and not just different opinions; the ability to recognize our errors and correct them. The bible says Pi is 3? Not in this near-Euclidean neighborhood; not unless you only need one digit of accuracy.

    142. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by orlanz · · Score: 1
      Explain sqrt(-1) or PI by

      observing the world around us.
    143. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by rastoboy29 · · Score: 1

      Ah, but does the deduction itself exist, except when you make it?

    144. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Why is this post modded +5 informative??? LaskoVortex has just described basic principles in elementary physics.

      The information is in using the basic principles to explain the apparent complexity. Immature people, whatever that means, make things overly complicated.

      Science is doomed.

      Science is an approach to discovering knowledge of the natural world. Perhaps you could describe the last experiment you did and the knowledge gained from it. My guess is that you have never done real Science and thus have no idea whether it is doomed or not.

    145. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by orlanz · · Score: 1

      So -1 does not exist? How about the concept of 1=1 or 2=2 or 1+2=3?

      I do not think I need to "see" -1 widget and 1 widget to know that there are no widgets. Same as 1 widget and 2 widgets to have 3 widgets.

      The concepts of math exist and appear to be absolute, more so than the very existence of "I" (I think therefore I am...). I would have to say that math exists more so than all others!

    146. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by aztektum · · Score: 1
      --
      :: aztek ::
      No sig for you!!
    147. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I'm just amazed when stuff can be worked down to an amazingly simple formula. Like e=mc^2 . I mean, why exactly ^2 and not ^2.14332544988? I think the correct answer is basically as you've described. Like most absurd debates where both sides are vehemently opposed, the answer actually lies in the middle. If we learn to be neutral, then all our questions will be answered...

      ricanboy15@yahoo.com
    148. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Original+Replica · · Score: 1

      PI: scribe a circle, precisely measure it's diameter, precisely measure it's circumference, divide circumference by diameter and you get PI.
      There is no sqrt of (-1) you are just imagining it. It was theorized by observing peyote.

      --
      We are all just people.
    149. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The non-stationary bowling ball's I've encountered rarely travel a uniform speed w.r.t. usual frames of reference. At best their axis of rotation may travel a near-constant speed.

      This is moment of inertia and not momentum.

    150. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Toddlerbob · · Score: 1
      The relationships and observations that we use mathematics to model are discovered. They are out there, we discover them, and then we model them. That should be obvious to all but the most die-hard of idealists.

      This is absolutely true. The failure to recognize this, by the way, is one of the main factors responsible for many of the failures of math and science education in this country. People in charge (politicians, scientists pre-selected for symbolic talents, etc.) simply can't imagine that the process by which we develop mental models of mathematical knowledge differs from the way mathematics itself is built up (i.e. how it reveals itself in order to be discovered)

      By forcing kids to develop mathematical thinking in the manner that mathematical relationships themselves are built up in nature, instead of in the manner that students might actually comprehend them, we produce generation after generation of adults with math phobia, except for the afore-mentioned ones who are talented in symbolic mental representations. And even they, I have a feeling, will probably learn it better if they learn it in a psychologically more natural manner.

    151. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 2, Interesting

      There are different types of dimension. Topological, Lesbesgue, Fractal, Basic.

      However, if you're referring to "unit dimensions" in physics specifically, there's a simple reason for that. And it doesn't have to do with the structure of the world. Quite simply, the fact follows from our use of integer derivatives to study change, as opposed to fractional derivatives. Units are syntactically variables, and must be treated as such during computation. Of course, this is why 3m x 5m is 15m^2. But it is also why the 3/4th derivative of position in time would end up with whacky unit exponents.

      http://mathworld.wolfram.com/FractionalCalculus.html

      The relations derived using the fractional calculus are just as true as the standard treatment. The integral formulation is merely computationally simpler.

    152. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by xouumalperxe · · Score: 1

      That's silly. If it were E=mc^1 you wouldn't even blink. Linear scaling is something that's, well, obvious. But when you use a formula to express a relation that is defined as the integral of a perfect linear relation, you get a perfect square. Pretty simple stuff, eh?

      As an example, the inverse of the time it takes to go from point A to point B doesn't scale ever so slightly supralinearly with speed, it scales in a perfectly linear fashion. Given that acceleration is the derivative of velocity over time, 1/time taken scales quadratically with acceleration. Not acceleration raised to a bit over, or a bit under, the power of 2, but precisely to the power of 2.

    153. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by poopdeville · · Score: 1

      Your neo-Platonism leads you to failure. Look up Russell's Paradox.

      --
      After all, I am strangely colored.
    154. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by jd · · Score: 1
      but one cannot observe the number one

      A quantum is a one. It is the definitive unit. A quantum of what? It doesn't matter, I'm not concerned with the thing, only with the abstract. At the most fundamental level, the universe is just an information matrix, at which point there is no "what", there is only the information which describes it. You don't need a "what', any more than light in space needs an aether. Those who ascribe mathematics as an invention are merely adopting the logic of the aether believers. They are also adopting the mindset of the Intelligent Design folks, insisting that intelligence must form the building blocks of maths/life, rather than maths/life being the building blocks of intelligence.

      Given the number of highly intelligent folk claiming Intelligent Design for mathematics, it is little wonder that I despair of humanity progressing into a new Age of Enlightenment.

      --
      It's a small world and it smells funny; I'd buy another if it wasn't for the money; Take back what I paid (SoM)
    155. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Digana · · Score: 2, Interesting

      This is the crux of the argument between discovery and invetion: symbols versus content. And I would say mathematics is not the symbolism. Mathematics has content, symbols don't. Symbols are meaningless.

      To put it another way, if mathematics were not discovered, we need a pretty good explanation for simultaneous and independent discovery (calculus by Newton and Leibniz, zero by Indians, Mayans, and Chinese, many theorems with a hyphenated name like Schur-Zassenhaus or Cauchy-Kovalevkskaya, gauge or Henstock-Kurzweil integrals). Independent discovery, whether simultaneous or not, is a pretty good argument in favour of the discovery portion of mathematics, that mathematics has an intrinsic content for us to discover that does not depend at all on the formalism of symbols we use to describe that content.

      The day we run into alien civilisation, the first thing I'm gonna ask is to see their mathematical books. I expect to find a lot of familiar things in there.

    156. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by orlanz · · Score: 1

      YES... no... I mean yes... what was the question? Oh, yes I will have fries with that. ^_^

    157. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Lorien_the_first_one · · Score: 1

      The motivation for this question seems to be a desire to divine the notion of "math can be patented" from a debate. Aside from the philosophical ventures expressed in replies to the story, I'd like to point something else out.

      Let's take something like a bridge, as an example. This is most surely an invention. But the invention employs many well understood principles, or laws of nature.

      People who want to patent math will often say "look at all the effort we put into this wonderful mathematical expression. We have a patent on it now, and you can't use it without paying us for it."

      But, like the bridge, the math expresses an observation of principles which existed before consciousness. The patentee will say that his math expression is elegant, and special. What makes it special to him is that he thought of patenting it first. And now he excludes all others.

      Several posts here have noted that different theorems using different equations can arrive at the same solution to the same problem. So it logically follows that patenting math is like patenting a bridge. When you patent the bridge, you patent all paths to the goal of supporting travel over a river or valley. It doesn't matter how you build the bridge, it's covered by the patent.

      Once you have a claim on a space in math, it's pretty tough for others to work around it because the patent is on the solution, not the method used to arrive at the solution.

      This question is a red herring.

      Scott

      --
      The diversity and expression of human opinion is essential to human survival.
    158. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by vikstar · · Score: 1

      The universe is incredibly elegant in its mathematics though No, we are.
      --
      The question of whether a computer can think is no more interesting than the question of whether a submarine can swim.
    159. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      "The math exists regardless of the symbolism used to describe it."

      "Math IS the symbolism used to describe the universe."

      To me the first statement sounds more like mathematician's, and the second a physicist's (who has only had Calc I/II/III).

      People do not invent relationships between quantities. It could be argued that people invented the axioms that math rests on, but people do not invent relationships. Do people invent ideas or methods used to find relationships? This is the "math" they are talking about. Did Newton invent an algorithm for approximating the zeros of a function? Did Euler invent the idea of using generating functions to solve some combinatorial problems?

      To invent is to create. To create is to cause. I don't think people cause ideas or methods to exist.

    160. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by vikstar · · Score: 1

      One can observe one apple or one galaxy, but one cannot observe the number one. 1 <— there it is!
      --
      The question of whether a computer can think is no more interesting than the question of whether a submarine can swim.
    161. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Guppy06 · · Score: 1

      "the reason that is it not (some value here)mc^2 is because c is a natural constant with a non-integer value,"

      c is an integer value, 299 792 458 m/s exactly, by virtue of the meter being defined by the speed of light.

    162. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by JoeDuncan · · Score: 1

      We can observe the number one the same way we observe an apple or galaxy.

      What we observe (our perceptions) is not a direct representation of reality, but rather a reconstruction based on patterns extracted from our inputs.

      The number one might be several abstractions removed from an apple, but we perceive it in fundamentally the same way.

      Any object we observe (whether an apple or the number one) is essentially just correlation between patterns of input.

    163. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by vikstar · · Score: 1

      The question of whether a computer can think is no more interesting than the question of whether a submarine can swim. Love it, my new sig.
      --
      The question of whether a computer can think is no more interesting than the question of whether a submarine can swim.
    164. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Thyrsus · · Score: 1

      My statement has only the most tangential relation to Russell's paradox. I do not claim that a reasoning being contains its own model or that it does not; neither do I claim that it is necessarily one or the other (to do so would indeed invoke the paradox).

    165. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Hemogoblin · · Score: 1

      Can we give the parent post the award for "Most Confusing Slashdot Post Ever"?

    166. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Suppose you had a definitive, 100% guaranteed answer to the "discovered vs invented" question. What would it allow you to do that you couldn't do before? What could you predict? What would you gain?
      1. Patentability.
      2. ???
      3. PROFIT!
      I didn't RTFA, and I don't know if there is a monetary aspect to the debate. And yes, I know that as is, math is not patentable. But if it is presented as an invented process or (software) systems, that would open a can of worms...
    167. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anpheus · · Score: 1

      Phi works even in base 2, and works in all integer bases at least (the effect will be different in non-integer or other 'strange' bases.) Notice how phi^2 is 1+phi? That isn't going to change in base 2. In base 2, 1 is still... 1. So instead of being "1.????" it'll be "10.????" with the -exact same- ???? decimal expansion.

    168. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by promethean_spark · · Score: 1

      Very simple mathamatical truths and relationships are discovered, but mathematical methodologies are invented. They're tools for solving a problem, just because they're abstract tools rather than physical ones doesn't make them less useful.

    169. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by ardle · · Score: 1

      I'd like to put it like: "Nature's idea of what's simple and ours isn't the same". It seems absurd to suggest that Mathematics isn't a natural phenomenon: however, Nature doesn't use it the same way that we do. Nature's most important use of maths, for me, is its use of multiplicity: without that, we couldn't have things like information or memory. Which came first - multiplicity or information? Multiplicity or matter? BTW, I don't think Nature "counts" ;-)

    170. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by niktemadur · · Score: 1

      I think the meaning here is clear: "invented" implies that mathematics is an artifact that would not exist if humans (or some other reasoning entity) did not create it; "discovered" implies the contrary: that mathematics does have an independent existence.

      Good explanation, which leads me to the semantic conclusion that the term "discovered" is loaded in this whole discussion.
      I can accept an Edwin Hubble "discovering" the red shift of galaxies, as it concerns observation of discreet objects and signatures within their energies we detect. When it comes to Mathematics, a more detached term might be "observed", as in regarding an abstract mechanism, detecting patterns, nuances and branches.

      Hang on a tick, I'm having a thought... Reminding myself of the Human Genome Project, maybe the correct term to describe the development of Mathematics is "mapping".

      --
      Lil' Thindime, lilting a lacrimose lament, krashes the kwaint konfines of Kokonino Kounty
    171. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by catmistake · · Score: 1

      You've reminded me that there are people that feel math and experience numbers as shapes or colors (but, of course, I forget what they or their condition is called). It leads me to wonder if math is similar to faith, in the way that sometimes head trauma and lesions on certain areas of the brain can turn athiests into evangelicals, it can also create these weird individuals that feel or even smell numbers. So maybe math is hardwired into brains, like sex drive or respiration. Mathematics then becomes a product of evolution... So, does it make sense to ask if opposible thumbs were invented or discovered? Do we invent our own bodies because we grow, even if not fully conscious of growth because it takes so long? Then... Do we discover our own inventions? Or invent our discoveries? Isn't our language too impovershed to even discuss it scientifically? And isn't true science impossible because objectivity only really exists in language (Heisenberg Principle tells us something of this)? All we know is ... there is experience. But after that, after the "I am, I exist, whenever I think it," philosophically, things get a lot muddier. On the one hand, we can't escape math because its everywhere we look ([mathematics] is the world that's been pulled over our eyes...), but on the other hand, math doesn't exist, or rather, only exists in our experience of it. The question even get Berkelian, because we suspect pi would be pi even if humans never existed... All those proofs would still be true, its just that no one would know it if there was no one. If not for human experience, would even the furnace of stars still be hot?

    172. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by wall0159 · · Score: 1

      So, you think you have evidence for god, because you have _a few_ formulae that look nice and simple, huh?

      What about pi and e - two fundamental constants, both of which appear to require limitless precision to describe. Kinda blows your theory out of the water don't you think? (or will you just class it as something inconvenient, and therefore to be ignored -- a common practice for IDers, I believe..)

    173. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      if you have an apple, wouldn't its applehood be just as observable as its one-hood?

      In other words, everything we come up with to describe the world "exists" in some way that's mostly privy to us, but in many useful cases can be communicated. So a list in your Python interpreter can be played around with, and showed to your friend, just as you could play around with an apple and give it to your friend. Sure, they're different kinds of objects, the list goes away when you switch off the computer and the apple goes away if a meteor comes along and destroys the earth. So the conditions under which you survive are more closely related to the apple's survival conditions than to the list's. But that doesn't mean that the apple is somehow "out there" and the list isn't, does it?

    174. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by anarchyboy · · Score: 1

      c = 3x10^8 m/s yes but the thing is we have defined both what a meter and a second are. (actually we define c and a second exactly which then sets the length of a meter)

      If I decide to measure time in seconds but length in some new unit that just happens to be 3x10^8 meters long then if i measure the speed of light in these units i find it travels exactly 1 unit of length in 1 unit of time. Hence c = 1.

      I think where your going wrong is thinking that setting c to 1 means 1m/s which it doesn't. Also in these units you can measure energy and mass in the same units since the conversion factor c^2 becomes 1. This makes a lot of the maths in relativity easier since you don't have lots of factors of c everywhere to keep track of

    175. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by G3ckoG33k · · Score: 1

      "...one cannot observe the number one" You must be correct, I have never seen one.

    176. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by johannesg · · Score: 1

      What would it allow you to do that you couldn't do before? If mathematics were invented, it would allow you to patent them. I wouldn't call that "nothing", it promises to revolutionize the field! And not in a good way...

      What you call a matter of perception, others will call a matter of money. What you call people having too much time on their hands, others will call a deceptive push towards more patentability.

    177. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0


      p=mv/sqrt(1-v^2/c^2) seems good to me too :)

    178. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by benji+fr · · Score: 1

      The problem with this kind of belief in "magical" properties of phi is that ... it's not magical at all...

      Phi is (among other definitions) <b>defined</b> by the positive root of x&#194;&#178;-x-1=0. So, we see, at once, that x&#194;&#178;=1+x

      There are other interesting properties of phi though, (among other the ones about pentagons, as with pi and circles) but 1+phi and 1/phi are definitely from phi's definition.

      --
      -- .rats live on no evil staR
    179. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Z00L00K · · Score: 1
      Even crows can count. But normally only to three.

      One
      Two
      Three or more...

      Anyone out to hunt crows or other similar intelligent animals can probably confirm this.

      --
      If builders built buildings the way programmers wrote programs, then the first woodpecker would destroy civilization.
    180. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by MrNaz · · Score: 1

      Sorry, you've lost me. How do you figure that the kinetic energy of a mass is similar to the mass' energy equivalence?

      Also, m is not constant of inertia, it is simply mass. The equation em=c^2 would work just fine even if you changed all the units, so long as you changed them all equivalently. Alternatively, if you did not change them equivalently you could easily re-express it as:

      ke=mc^2 where k is some random constant that accounts for the unit difference.

      This is the value of the metric system: All units are designed to add up neatly when plugged into equations, to reduce as much as possible the need for arbitrary constants all over the place.

      --
      I hate printers.
    181. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by benji+fr · · Score: 1

      well, so you say that 1/sqrt(1-v²/c²) is not pretty ?

      well done, I found it pretty impressive and far more than that poor E=mc&#194;&#178; which is, in fact, simple expression of SI units ...

      The 1/sqrt() famous one is harder to explain and much harder to prove, so my opinion is that THIS one is pretty ;)

      --
      -- .rats live on no evil staR
    182. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      According to relativity, 'stopped' is an invention.

    183. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by pjt33 · · Score: 1

      No, it's actually a simplification, the Newtonian limit of p=gamma m v.

    184. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Steauengeglase · · Score: 1

      And that dear children is where we get the phrase, same shit different day.

      You can all go back to your seats now.

    185. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You're unpleasant and think you're smarter than you are. I'm no creationist, but I recognize that there are a lot of elegant formulas that describe the universe. If you're unwilling to examine that elegance as well as the formulas, you're pretty short sighted.

    186. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Skrynkelberg · · Score: 1

      Well, kg*m^2/s^2. Just so people won't begin to wonder. But other than that, you're absolutely correct.

    187. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by kripkenstein · · Score: 1

      First, your approach seems to be utilitarianism, not logical positivism. That is, it appears you care about the usefulness (or lack thereof) of having an answer to the question. Whereas logical positivism is related, in a way, but distinct.

      Second, I feel I must point out that logical positivism has essentially been discredited. You are hard-pressed to find anyone who believes in it today, following the work around the middle of the 20th century of Wittgenstein and Quine.

    188. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by dgallard · · Score: 1

      discovered connotes exists independently of thought

      invented connotes the product of thought

      a problem is that thinking is necessary to observe discovery

      arguably everything is discovered (Plato)

      nothing is new under the Sun

    189. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by ScreamingCactus · · Score: 1

      Any single object you see is an observation of the number one!

      Oh, and clearly math was (and is) discovered. Math is merely a system of laws used to define observed phenomena. Algorithms can be invented, but to achieve the desired results, they must comply with the rest of the mathematical system which is modeled to reflect the physical world. I do believe that certain mathematical concepts were invented, only because they seem to have surfaced in math before they were observed in nature. For example, i was created to solve a math problem, and it wasn't until the rules for complex mathematics were ironed out that people began to see how it in nature. Nevertheless, the intricacies of the physical world existed before humans saw the correlation between them and the math we "invented".

      --
      The path to enlightenment is truly through homemade drugs!
    190. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Antique+Geekmeister · · Score: 1

      Mostly, it doesn't get altered. You get some fascinating effects that retard electromagnetic effects, but the original quanta are usually travelling at C. It gets even more interesting with gravitational effects, because there you have distortions between what a relativistically distinct observer sees with what is occurring in the frame of reference of the photon. It's fascinating stuff, and it's easy to confuse people with the math and get them thinking that you can break the speed of light by confusing these factors.

    191. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by ShakaUVM · · Score: 1

      What would it tell me about the future if logical positivism was true or not?

      Suppose I had a definitive answer if it was bullshit or not. What would it allow me to do that I couldn't before? What could I predict? What would I gain?

      Nothing, nothing, and nothing.

      It's meaningless; merely a matter of philosophy, and people having too much time on their hands.

      Oh, and the correct answer is that logicial positivism is "self-contradictory, and thus cannot be true".

    192. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by shellbeach · · Score: 1

      ... Kolmogorov-Chaitin complexity theory ... [blah, blah] ... Due to subitization [wikipedia.org] it has never been possible to copyright the integers 1..4. The copyright on 5 probably expired 50,000 years ago ... [wtf??] ... [blah] I have no idea what you're on about, but I don't think the answer needs to be that complex.

      Mind you, I also suspect that your post was random noise, and that you're actually a bot.
    193. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by LaskoVortex · · Score: 1

      If you're unwilling to examine that elegance as well as the formulas, you're pretty short sighted.

      You should say "If one is unwilling", because I'm sure you do not intend your admonition to apply to me. I appreciate the elegance many formulas. For example, one of my personal favorites is Boltzmann's definition of entropy, S=k*lnW. However, as elegant as many formulas seem, evidence of god they are not.

      --
      Just callin' it like I see it.
    194. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      No, the correct answer is "both." No, the correct answer is "neither".

      Mathematical concepts are abstractions and idealisations of real-world entities. They're not invented insofar as they're not (usually) pure constructs of the mind; rather, they've got foundations in our physical reality. (Take vector spaces, for instance. You'll never find e.g. an infinite-dimensional vector space in the real world, yet the concept of vector spaces is an important and natural abstraction of space as we perceive it.)

      At the same time, they're not discovered insofar as that they *are* abstractions and idealisations. To turn around the previous example, vector spaces are an important and natural abstraction of space as we perceive it, yet you'll never find e.g. an infinite-dimensional vector space in the real world.

      Of course, there's more to mathematics than describing structures; you also study them. But the results you'll get are already contained in the definitions you start with - you'll just have to find them and prove them.

      Well, modulo the axiom system in which you work, of course, and the proofs you actually consider "proofs", and the logical language with which you work.

      Of course, one might ask, then, which axiom system the real world is based on, which concept of proof, and so on; and my own personal feeling is that at least some of those who say "mathematics is invented, not discovered" want to avoid having to answer this question, as it makes them deeply uncomfortable.
    195. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Bush+Pig · · Score: 1

      IIRC, from my Number Theory lectures a few years ago, it's connected to the representation of phi as a continuous fraction (or maybe it's to do with the relationship between phi and the Fibonacci sequence - or both - I'm too lazy to look up the details).

      --
      What a long, strange trip it's been.
    196. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by tyrione · · Score: 1

      Oh, and the correct answer is "discovered". No, the correct answer is "both." The relationships and observations that we use mathematics to model are discovered. They are out there, we discover them, and then we model them. That should be obvious to all but the most die-hard of idealists. The language that we use to do this modeling is invented. It is also refined (i.e. slightly reinvented) over time to better fit our discoveries. That, too, should be obvious to all but the most die-hard of determinists. I know, this answer isn't very deep, but in my opinion the question isn't nearly as deep as it is being made out to be. It's a beautifully succinct answer that illustrates Universal Equilibrium of Reality and Perception.
    197. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Just make Phi equivalent to a unit. That'll show 'em!
      But you can do that for anything. You could make Pi into a unit and stuff everything else up except factors of Pi.
      Mathematics is descriptive of a subjective view of objective reality (whatever that means)!

    198. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Pi=22/7 That's very precise don't you think?

    199. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by poopdeville · · Score: 1

      You said: "I assert that the human mind is a component of a mathematically describable reality."

      This, of course, is one of the tenets of modern Realism. And it leads to Russell's paradox, almost trivially. This is Realism's dirty little secret.

      The claim that reality is mathematically describable amounts to a claim that the universe is a model (in the sense of model theory) of some theory. This is a big problem for your claim, because any theory that axiomatizes the universe (which is to say, any set of sentences which is true of the universe and exhausts all sentences about it) must include all sentences about the natural numbers. Therefore, Godel's Incompleteness theorem applies. In effect, there must be more models of the theory than just our universe. Does the universe contain them, or not? Presumably, it does, since the class of models is a mathematical object.

      The moral of the story is that any Realist view of mathematics ultimately requires mathematics to exist as a completed whole, which we slowly discover. But there is no completed whole, since the parts "look" into each other. The better moral is that no language can completely describe the universe, but also that the depth to which we can know it is limitless.

      --
      After all, I am strangely colored.
    200. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by rlbond86 · · Score: 1

      I think it's "both," but in a different way.

      For example, differential calculus was clearly discovered. In fact, it was discovered independently by Bhaskara and Newton.

      But on the other hand, what about Reed-Solomon error correcting codes (the kind used in CD and DVD media)? I would say this scheme was invented by the two, using Field Theory and using a special case for BCH codes, which were also invented (independently by B and C, and H. Really, their names are insane).

    201. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Headw1nd · · Score: 1

      It's pretty simple if you follow the link. Human brains have a capability to automatically identify the quantities 1, 2,3,4 wheras any quantity 5 and above we need to count. So the first number "discovered" was five, way back in prehistory.

    202. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Warbothong · · Score: 1

      It depends on what you mean by those words.


      Which, ironically, depends on whether those words are invented or discovered, ie. whether they are convenient human constructs which aren't really well defined or whether they represent true and distinct concepts of the Universe.


      Meta-argument 4TW

    203. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It is very important - big clue - inventions can be patented. Now imagine a world with patented mathematics.

    204. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Jesus_666 · · Score: 1

      Companies might give a toss. If it's discovered it obviously can't be patented. If it's invented, the case against patentability isn't as strong. Math patents could be extremely profitable.

      --
      USE HOT GRITS WITH STATUE OF NATALIE PORTMAN (NAKED AND PETRIFIED)
    205. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Errr, no "c" isn't a natural constant like "pi" is.

      Pi can be calculated as exactly as you which with a simple formulae. It won't ever change.

      c is just an arbitrary number that we refine every now and then through observation. It's completely arbitrary, and while it is related to some other physical constants, those are also arbitrary. You could build a whole physics with a different value of c, but you couldn't change "pi", it wouldn't fit, it would lead to logical contradictions.

    206. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by 12357bd · · Score: 2, Insightful

      The problem is that you both are arguing about 'ideas' (physical laws) and 'reality' (observed nature). Both concepts share a single source, that's human perception, (cultural stimulus processing) but in our days those term have a very different scope. That's where the problem arises, and dicothomy between 'laws' and 'reality' becomes something 'real'. A little philosofy could help to understand that we build 'world images', 'mental representations', 'imago mundis' to talk about things, these images, no matter how exact we think they are, are not the thing being observed or perceived, just our representations.

      Take the concept 'time'. Current interpretation is a somewhat lineal property of experience, not space bounded. Does we 'know' what time is? Clearly not. Does we know time exists? We suppouse the anwser to be yes, but that's just a cultural construct, inherited from our ancestors, our culture. Now we build upon such an undefined concept, the net result is that our knowldege, our science is more about how we perceive the world to be, than how we know the world to be. Pretending both to be the same, equating perception/stimulus and reality/representation, that's the problem.

      --
      What's in a sig?
    207. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by TheoMurpse · · Score: 1

      Whether math is discovered or invented concerns whether mathematical processes can be copyrighted or not. Natural phenomena cannot be patented, while inventions can be.

    208. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by MrNaz · · Score: 1

      The speed of light is a fixed natural value that we know with finite precision.

      Pi is a fixed natural value that we know with finite precision.

      Contrary to what you imply, C is not arbitrary, nor is it "defined". The speed of light is a fixed constant, and whatever units we measure it in, its fundamental value remains unchanged.

      --
      I hate printers.
    209. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by JohnFluxx · · Score: 1

      E=mc^2 is exactly true if m is the relativistic mass. This is the objects gravitational mass, its inertial mass.

    210. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by 26199 · · Score: 1

      That's a matter for lawmakers, not for philosophers. If the law relies on something that is not currently defined then it's the law that needs fixing.

      And anyway you can patent naturally-occuring sequences of DNA in America. Don't tell me those are invented...

    211. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by professionalfurryele · · Score: 2, Interesting

      I'm aware of the various different sets of axioms that you can plug and play with with axiomatic set theory. The reason I didn't want to go there is because it generalises the idea to one of:
      "is philosophy discovered or invented"

      Philosophy is just repeatedly applying rules like mathematics, and I could always play the same trick I did with the poems to concieve a very large number of philosophical system. I would argue all philosophy is discovered.

    212. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by 26199 · · Score: 1

      It is not the case that I feel the need to base my life on a self-consistent and provably optimal set of beliefs.

      In fact, AFAIK nobody has succeeded to do this yet. Certainly 99.999% of people don't even try.

      Logical positivism suggest another way of looking at a problem. I find that helpful.

    213. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by 26199 · · Score: 1

      The idea that you can "believe in" logical positivism is new to me :)... I suppose this is because I am not a philosopher. Hum.

      Different ideas and ways of thinking -- particularly contradictory ones -- can provide useful ways of looking at the world.

      Isn't it about time we gave up on all this internally-consistent nonsense? I'll take happiness any day.

    214. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by 26199 · · Score: 1

      That's nonsense. Whether you can patent mathematics is a matter for lawmakers and lawyers. It has nothing to do with philosophy.

      And if you disagree one way or the other, you're free to lobby. Laws don't spring up from nowhere.

    215. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by 26199 · · Score: 1

      Interesting!

      My major objections to software patents are twofold: software development is almost always incremental, which means new "inventions" are rarely big leaps; and whatever you create, something can be created around it, which means that patenting something blocks everything down the road.

      But I think the question of what should and should not be patentable can be answered on purely empirical grounds ... the whole point of the patent system is to benefit society, after all. Does it? If not, change it.

      In most cases I expect patenting software and mathematics to be damaging to society. So, what should be allowed is very restrictive.

    216. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Dongbu104 · · Score: 1

      Any Slashdot reader worth his salt would immediately recall that 1) Mathematics is obviously discovered and 2) requires both Alphabet and Masonry.

    217. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Chrisje · · Score: 2, Insightful

      May I suggest you all read George Lakoff's "Where Mathematics Comes From: How the Embodied Mind Brings Mathematics into Being" and "Metaphors we live by" before discussing this any further?

      As an aside:
      I'd have to wonder if there is a difference between our "observation" and our "description" of the universe. How do we differentiate between describing a thing as having eerie symmetrical properties and our need to observe said properties? Are we even able to observe that which our minds can't fathom?

      To cut a long story short, the universe pretty much exists in our minds' eye and any statement we make about its nature will invariably be subjective. Even if we choose to use the language of mathematics linked to empirical data.

      Perhaps these geniuses that don't come along too often marvel at the beauty of the human mind and its constructs rather than the universe, and the tricky bit is that neither they nor anyone else can prove any of this either which way.

      This whole discussion is one of semantics, and the original poster is right in that the answers that might or might not be forthcoming are not likely to change our existence overnight.

    218. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by 26199 · · Score: 1

      I think it's a very narrow view to say that because it's logically inconsistent it isn't useful.

      Most (if not all) religions have issues with logic, but that's not a reason to ignore them.

      Starting from nothing, making one logically-inconsistent statement then avoiding completely a whole class of problems seems to be quite a win ;)

    219. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by 26199 · · Score: 1

      Er, no.

      Physics is the application of mathematics to reality. Physics never "proves" something; it creates models that match reality to an increasing degree of accuracy. That's fine, and it works well.

      Mathematical models can have arbitrary complexity and don't have to reflect reality at all. In fact the beauty of mathematics is that a mathematical model is self-contained with no reference to the real world. You don't need to prove it... it just is, because you defined it.

    220. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Chrisje · · Score: 1

      "Truth" is a tricky one too. What is True? A statement can be perfectly true under one set of circumstances/assumptions, yet completely false under another.

      Truth is a label you need to attach to certain things in order not to go mad.

    221. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      This depends on the definition of the word "mathematics". Does the word denote the laws of it or the language to describe the laws of it?

      To me it's pretty clear that the laws of mathematics were discovered and the language of mathematics was invented. So, "both" is right, and as the grandparent said, the question isn't really as deep as it mught appear when you first see it.

    222. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Oligonicella · · Score: 1

      ID explains nothing, hence it's not scientific. Unless you would care to explain how the ID is diddling. Not that it is, but how it is.

      See, that's the problem. They never, never try to explain the how, always leaving it mystical and untestable and therefore unscientific.

    223. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Oligonicella · · Score: 1

      Wow. All that depending from solipsism.

      "'reality' (observed nature)". Uh no, it's "observed nature (reality)". Reality exists, then we observe it.

      Reality is not dependent upon human observation.

    224. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      That's an approximation, and not even a very good one. 355/113 is better, but there is no known simple integer fractional representation of pi.

    225. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Oligonicella · · Score: 1

      the universe pretty much exists in our minds' eye

      Were that the case, the universe would be behaving in multiple ways, as multiple viewers see it behaving differently and science would not work at all. Science does, so that's not true.

      That's the point of science. To eliminate personal view.

      any statement we make about its nature will invariably be subjective

      Baloney. Experimental science is all about proving that wrong.

    226. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I'll tell you about my mother ...
      [BLAM!]

    227. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Evil+Pete · · Score: 1

      I think you may not understand exactly what the poster was getting at. The problem is we may conduct our little experiments etc, but we then have to interpret them. We interpret them via analogistic constructs ... things we know and can relate to: waves, billiard balls, fields (which I'm sure we get from wind and ocean currents). Thing is we have an intuitive view of the world, not a mathematical one. And our intuition is demonstrably terrible at physics. So the universe we see is a subjective view, we can produce some commonality by a common language that produces some overlap in meaning. But it isn't exact. Science is about trying to do the best we can at coming to something consistent with measurements, but the 'something' will look different to different people and is still just tentative.

      Problem is there is a big difference between the Qualitative nature of a solution compared to the Quantitative nature. Newtonian physics is almost the same as Einsteinian at normal velocities, but the ideas are vastly different. Then consider that there is a vast set of theories that is consistent with observation (hence Occam's Razor ... which is only a guide), we pick the most pleasing theory. Hence a subjective view.

      --
      Bitter and proud of it.
    228. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Evil+Pete · · Score: 1

      It doesn't depend on the "universe" at all. Once you define a set of axioms then the structure of the mathematics flows from this logically. However, mathematics is constructed of theorems and lemmae. These are constructed by human beings, one mathematician may prove this one way another may do it another way. A great mathematician may do it with great elegance. So this looks like it is "invented", though the logical framework is inevitable and therefore the mathematicians should merely be discovering it. As you say a problem of definitions. What is mathematics? The set of all logical inferences that flow from a set of axioms? Or the set of theorems constructed by humans beings, usually with personal flair?

      It depends.

      --
      Bitter and proud of it.
    229. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Snowspinner · · Score: 1

      Actually, it's enormously significant, because it determines whether mathematical predictions can be taken as true or as untested hypotheses. This is an important issue for the sciences - if mathematics is nothing more than a cognitive model then it is of limited predictive use.

      Logical positivism would force you to accept "discovered" actually, since mathematics has, as Wigner has pointed out, anticipated empiricism in a number of areas. And, furthermore, since it's very difficult to find a reason to accept logic as metaphysically necessary while rejecting mathematics.

    230. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Mr.+Slippery · · Score: 2, Insightful

      Reality is not dependent upon human observation.

      All statements about reality are statements about human observation; all physical laws are just patterns seen in observations. What is "real" outside of human observation is not answerable.

      The idea that reality continues when no one is looking is a convenient simplifying assumption, but is ultimately, by definition, not determinable - you can't do the experiment to check.

      --
      Tom Swiss | the infamous tms | my blog
      You cannot wash away blood with blood
    231. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by STrinity · · Score: 1

      For example, mathematical concepts are not observable
      I have two apples. You have two apples. Put them together, we have four apples. No matter how hard you try, you cannot end up with five apples.
      --
      Les Miserables Volume 1 now up with my reading of
    232. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by nine-times · · Score: 1

      It doesn't depend on the "universe" at all.

      Sure it does. What I'm getting at is that, obviously, math isn't simply "made up", because if it were I could make any proof of any theorem, following no rules. But if I do that, I get something we'd all agree was nonsense, and it wouldn't prove anything. Like I can't just say:

      1+1=2, 2*2=7, and chickens>bears, therefore E=/=mc^2. QED

      That's not a proof. The fact that it's not a proof demonstrates that mathematical proofs do need to be constructed in accordance with *something* that is beyond the reach of human will. No matter how much I want a math proof to be true, no matter how much I convince myself that it's true, it still isn't. That's all I mean when I say it depends on the universe in some way.

      In the same way, the "invention" of the wheel couldn't have worked if the inventor has chosen to use a square wheel. The invention of gunpowder wouldn't have worked out just as well if the inventor had tried to ignite sand and chalk. There is a reality beyond the influence of our beliefs and will that must be adhered to in order to understand the truth or build things that work.

    233. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Mr.+Slippery · · Score: 1

      because any theory that axiomatizes the universe (which is to say, any set of sentences which is true of the universe and exhausts all sentences about it) must include all sentences about the natural numbers.

      How's that follow? Not all natural numbers, nor all relationships between them, will be observed within the physical universe, which is finite in both area and time. A complete description of the universe need only describe all the observed data.

      Indeed, all the observations that will ever be made will be a finite set. Bam, there's a trivial way to get a theory that axiomatizes the universe: after it runs down, go back and collect every observation ever made, and there's a finite set of axioms that completely describe the universe. (Or, collect all observations up to time T, then destroy the universe. Whichever.)

      --
      Tom Swiss | the infamous tms | my blog
      You cannot wash away blood with blood
    234. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Joseph_Daniel_Zukige · · Score: 1

      How does choosing a non-SI system of units alter E=MC^2?

      Sure, using stones, and furlongs per fortnight, can make the actual calculation a bit more work, but does it alter the E=MC^2 symbolic representation?

    235. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      c is a physical constant. Pi is a mathematical constant. There's a big difference. Pi doesn't exist in the physical world, it's just a number used to describe ideal circles. Whether ideal circles can exist I guess would depend on whether or not the universe is discrete, something that's not known yet. If you however belive that the universe is discrete, then perfect circles does not really exist as a physical thing, unlike c, but perfect circles and spheres are very useful for describing a lot of things in any case as it describes things accurately, just possibly with a higher resolution than physical world so to say.

    236. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by hey! · · Score: 1

      More precisely, is there a way a question can be verified by observation? The statement "I'd be happy if I was a billionaire" probably tells me nothing about the future. However, if somebody with a billion dollars at his disposal wanted to answer the question, they could in principle put the proposition to the test. Therefore the sentence is meaningful.

      The sentence "God created the Universe" is not meaningful an a positivist sense, because if you could verify it observationally, they you'd have to include God's existence within the lifespan of the universe. It's a bit like asking the question, "What's north of the North Pole?" Language is capable of forming questions and statements that have no possible observational significance. It's not that every meaningless sentence doesn't point the way to a real philosophical question, it's that real philosophical questions are sometimes couched in loaded language.

      Of course, mathematics itself is an interesting challenge to positivism. GÃdel showed that every formal system of arithmetic is either inconsistent, or incapable of proving some true statements. A true, but unprovable arithmetic statement is an interesting thing; it can't be said to be meaningless because it could in principle be disproved by counterexample. But it challenges some of the appeal of logical positivism, which seems to make truth something entirely within the grasp of human reason.

      I think the invented/discovered dichotomy is less interesting; it's more of a linguistic bug like the "North of the North Pole" thing. Mathematics basically works like this:"If you assert such and so, you must also accept thus and thus." When you start with a set of postulates, it is often necessary to extend the postulates to handle cases that would seem reasonable. Faced with the problem of describing the diagonal of a unit square, you need to postulate the existence of of real numbers. However doing so is an act of choice, as can be seen in the most famous case of postulate system extension of all: the Euclidean Fifth Postulate.

      Assuming other cases for the Fifth Postulate leads to different kinds of geometry, which have real world applications.

      Therefore there are clearly elements of invention and discovery in the process of "doing mathematics". It's linguistically possible to frame the question about whether mathematical truths are invented or discovered, but any process in which truths are arrived at exclusively by one means or another is not mathematics. Creating postulate systems is not mathematics; arriving at conclusions not inherent in some postulate system is not mathematics either.

      --
      Post may contain irony: discontinue use if experiencing mood swings, nausea or elevated blood pressure.
    237. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by MrNaz · · Score: 1

      Both are natural properties of the universe. Also, congratulations on managing to degenerate a math discussion into semantics in a single reply.

      --
      I hate printers.
    238. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by revengance · · Score: 1

      Actually, I would think that e=mc^2 is a relationship between different variables. That is probably modeled. I think the question of more like is multiplication discovered or invented in this sense. Or is logarithms discovered or invented?

    239. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by civilizedINTENSITY · · Score: 1

      No, if c = 1 unit_dist/unit_time for our chosen system of distance and time, then E = mc^2, *not* mc, because unit_energy = (unit_mass)(unit_dist^2)/(unit_time^2). While numerically similar results occur, (unit_mass)(unit_dist)/(unit_time) is actually (unit_mass)(unit_velocity) which is momentum, not energy. Thus, E doesn't equal mc.

    240. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Is that really so ... is it pointless to ask whether math "exists" seperately of the human mind?

      Does it have no impact on, say, cosmology whether or not 2+2=4 held up before humans came about?

    241. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by YttriumOxide · · Score: 1

      1/4 = 0.25 = (2 * 1)/8 then aren't these three ways of describing the same information.

      I would argue that they're not the same information. They are all equal in value, but they describe different processes that reach that value. The equation is often as important as the answer...

      It's the difference between, "I have 4 people and 1 car" and "I have 8 people and 2 cars" - in both cases, the number of people per car is the same and we can even use the same mathematics, but the information itself is different (and the formulas should be written as 1/4 and 2/8 respectively - the second should NOT be simplified to 1/4, as that's a loss of information).

      --
      My book about LSD and Self-Discovery
      Also on facebook as: DroppingAcidDaleBewan
    242. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by porpnorber · · Score: 1

      Depends what you mean by "exists". For example, mathematical concepts are not observable (which is the condition for existence in an empirical framework), but physical systems can be observed which implement the concept. One can observe one apple or one galaxy, but one cannot observe the number one.

      What a bizarre statement! You can observe photons, but any interpretation of those photons as 'an apple' or 'a galaxy' relies on evolution, learning, interpretive and indeed linguistic skills. Seeing something and interpreting it as 'one' of something involves the same process, but with almost immeasurably less input, experience and technical side conditions.

      Think about it this way: what proportion of sentient beings, universe-wide, would look at one apple and think (anything conceivably translatable as) 'apple'? What proportion would think 'one'?

      It's impossible to draw a perfect line between invention and discovery, since both involve the interaction of mind and universe (how could they not, since the universe hosts and induces the abstraction we call 'mind'?), but 'one' is far closer to the 'observation' end of the spectrum than 'apple' can possibly be!

    243. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by TheoMurpse · · Score: 1

      I had some arguments planned out for this, but then I looked over my GP post and saw that I committed the cardinal sin as far as I'm concerned: I said copyrighted instead of patented.

      I'm absolutely appalled at myself, and I'm going to hide in a cave for the next few years. Apologies to all, Slashdot!

    244. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by ComputerGeek01 · · Score: 0

      This is the fist Score:5 Insightful that I agree with and it is a shame that an AC posted it. Sign in Damn you!

    245. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by maxume · · Score: 1

      Energy doesn't have to be expressed in terms of distance and time. Because it is, the ratio of energy/mass happens to have distance^2/time^2 units. It's still really cool that the ratio can be expressed as the speed of light.

      --
      Nerd rage is the funniest rage.
    246. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by ComputerGeek01 · · Score: 0

      And god spoke and said "... ye shall not stop thy bowling ball with hand nor foot without extreme pain, and many laughs from the Romans". And man said it with math, to explain why... j/k!

    247. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by x2A · · Score: 1

      "our science is more about how we perceive the world to be, than how we know the world to be"

      Not really. Science is more about ruling out variables that could be affecting something, leaving you with the variables that are or could be affecting it (as not all variables may be discovered). If you can show a different result using the same variable values, you can show the model to be incorrect or incomplete. It's very easy, when using deductive logic, to design tests that determine and map the effects of perception (see work under the fields of relativity and uncertainty). The more we know about the effects one thing has on another, the better an idea we can have on its state before it was affected.

      --
      The revolution will not be televised... but it will have a page on Wikipedia
    248. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by x2A · · Score: 1

      "you can't do the experiment to check"

      YOU can't, because you're unable to conveive of a method of ruling out human perception as an affecting variable in an experiment. Common mistake: "generalising from self". It is extremely narrow minded and short sighted, but granted, very human, to believe the limits of your own understanding and your own imagination are also the limits of possiblity.

      --
      The revolution will not be televised... but it will have a page on Wikipedia
    249. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by navarroj · · Score: 1

      God invented 0 and 1.

      All the rest is the work of man.

    250. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by x2A · · Score: 1

      "Is 2+2=4 true even if the majority of mathematicians would believe it to be false?"

      I think you are misunderstand what 2+2=4 means. It's not an observation, it's a definition. It is defining 4 as being the same as what 2+2 is defined as being (or more accurately, saying that 4 is defined as the same as 2+2 is). If you wish to disregard this definition of what '4' means and redefine the symbol as having another meaning, feel free, but you must then also disregard anything else that uses the common definition of what '4' means, because they will no longer apply in your language, in the same way as reading the letter 'b' as having an english 'b' sound when you're reading russian would be errornous.

      --
      The revolution will not be televised... but it will have a page on Wikipedia
    251. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by khallow · · Score: 1

      What a bizarre statement!

      Maybe so, but I'd also characterize it as "correct". And I really don't understand what point you're trying to make. What does it mean to "think 'one'"? And why do you think that's an observation of "one"? Further the matter of existence is orthogonal to the invention/discovery debate. My beef is saying a mathematical concept, like "one", "exists" in the absence of a reasonable, consistent definition of existence.

      The whole debate here seems poorly defined, which is not your fault nor necessarily your problem. Remember the original post in this thread discussed the matter of whether considering math as discovery or invention would affect what I don't know (what they called the "future"). It doesn't. The answer isn't illuminating. Similarly, discussion of whether a mathematical object exists or not doesn't help.

    252. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Burz · · Score: 1, Interesting
      Science and mathematics are another way to see. They reduce and cancel-out the observational variations produced by differing points of view.

      This is why different cultures tend to agree on scientific grounds much more than they do in governance, trade, etc.

      Newtonian physics is almost the same as Einsteinian at normal velocities, but the ideas are vastly different. Then consider that there is a vast set of theories that is consistent with observation (hence Occam's Razor ... which is only a guide), we pick the most pleasing theory. Hence a subjective view. What a steaming pile of hippie philosophy. Physics and math are full of isomorphisms, some matching within only a certain range of parameters, others matching completely. Even in the latter case, such as when five 'different' string theories emerged, the differences create a huge bullseye for lab testing or Occam's Razor. Your worldview would have had people accepting them as five separate subjective views, whereas it was discovered that they were all the same theory expressed in different terms.

      As for Einstein, what he taught us was that relativistic effects can be explained consistently from different points of view. We can factor-in those POVs without reducing our predictions and observations to mere subjectivity.

      We humans (and even some animals) evolved with more than our five senses and intuition. We have the ability to calculate, or deduce, truths that cannot be intuitively grasped.
    253. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by khallow · · Score: 1

      Here's my reply. I should have anticipated this in my original post, but that's the explanation for why I don't agree.

    254. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by CrazedWalrus · · Score: 1

      If math is invented, can it be patented? If it's discovered, can it be? If the answer to the first is "yes", and the second is "no", then there might be a greater importance to this matter of semantics than you think.

    255. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by khallow · · Score: 1

      Then how I should obverse abstract concepts? Especially given that the definition of "abstract" in that sense usually means that it is seperate from concrete reality. As I see it, you are claiming something which doesn't exist empirically by definition, exists because we have mental patterns which encode some concept. That is acceptible to me, if you can come up with a consistent way to determine an observation of this concept. Let's also consider two things. First, for some reason, I may be unable to understand the concept. Does that mean the concept doesnt' exist at least to me? It certain appears to put an element of subjectivity into the definition of existence, while I think an objective definition is not only superior but the only one that makes sense for a community of rational beings. Second, how much understanding is necessary to show existence? If an amoeba reacts differently to the presence of two or more bacteria and to no bacteria, than it does to one, does that indicate an observation of "one"?

    256. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by colinrichardday · · Score: 1

      But are mathematical concepts the same as mathematical objects? After all, the concept of a dog isn't a dog.

    257. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Mr.+Slippery · · Score: 1

      YOU can't, because you're unable to conveive of a method of ruling out human perception as an affecting variable in an experiment.

      No. You can't do an experiment to see what happens when no observation is being made, because doing an experiment involves making an observation. It has nothing to do anyone being "narrow minded and short sighted", it has to do with a logical impossibility.

      We're not talking about using methods to reduce observational biases; we're talking about what is and is not ultimately observable. What happens in the absence of observation is by definition not observable.

      You can't see what someone would see if there was no one around to see, because if you're there to see it, then it's not the case that no one was around to see. See?

      We assume that what we see is the same as what's there when we're not there to see it. It's proved a useful working assumption - an assumption so deep that most of us are unaware of it. It's probably wired into our nervous system, a sort of intellectual equivalent of the persistence of vision.

      But if we're going to have a philosophical discussion about the nature of knowledge, we need to list all of our axioms. "The universe continues to exist and behave in the same way whether observed or not" is an axiom, not a demonstrable fact.

      --
      Tom Swiss | the infamous tms | my blog
      You cannot wash away blood with blood
    258. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      That's the silliest thing I've ever heard. So here's a silly answer:

      If the Matrix were functioning perfectly, what experiment would Neo do to discover it? How would Neo rule out his obvious problem with perception?

      Or how about:

      If no one ever makes observations or recordings of it, how do you know the tree falling in the woods made any noise? If nobody saw or heard it or recorded it, maybe a forest gnome did it silently? Maybe little Twilight Zone gnomes living outside of time build every minute, only building the parts people will see during that minute?

      The point is the only way to rule out human perception in an experiment is to become God. Or maybe you could become Agent Smith. Either way, you would need to first transcend what we perceive of as reality.

      You might as well accuse the OP of being lazy because he can't figure out a way to pick himself up and carry himself around.

      And finally, in case you understand the physics reference:
      No outside observer can be all the away outside of everything.

    259. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by AGMW · · Score: 1
      I'd say that you might well invent a method for solving something, for example calculus, but you most definately discover relationships between numbers - you discover Pi, you discover the square on the hypotenuse ....

      Perhaps it enters a grey area with imaginary numbers though. Some one came up with the idea (invented) of being able to get a square root of a negative number because it then helped them solve some equations. Were these imaginary numbers always there to be discovered?

      --
      Eclectic beats from Leeds, UK
      handmadehands.co.uk
    260. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by colinrichardday · · Score: 1

      The discovery of zero (or at least the use of notation indicating such) was independently discovered by the Mayans and the Hindus, but hardly simultaneously. Also, Kovalevskaya was only seven when Cauchy died, so it seems unlikely that they deiscovered anything simultaneously.

    261. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by colinrichardday · · Score: 1

      I have a problem with Dijkstra's example. Submarines do move through water, so we can ask if that motion is swimming. What do computers do that is even analogous to thinking?

    262. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by khallow · · Score: 1

      I'm not concerned with the thing, only with the abstract.

      That still doesn't help since "abstract" things by definition do not exist in the physical world. Second, the issue of existence is orthogonal to the debate about discovery or invention. After all, whether a concept exists is independent of its status as being discovered or invented. Third, I don't see a useful distinction between discovery and invention at the level of mathematical concepts. I think the whole thing is ill-defined.

      Given the number of highly intelligent folk claiming Intelligent Design for mathematics, it is little wonder that I despair of humanity progressing into a new Age of Enlightenment. If you truly need something to despair about, I recommend finding something that actually matters. It's clear that perceiving math as discovery or invention has no consequence of any sort.
    263. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by HiThere · · Score: 1

      There are many observable properties. We single out the ones that are easy to model for special attention. Once we do that, we frequently find uses for those properties.

      Note, however, that surface texture would also be useful if we could model it in a simple way...but we can't. So we've got the term, but no good characterization of it's properties.

      Or look at friction. We've got several reasonable ways to characterize it, but they don't yield identical "equations", so we use different models in different environments. And none of them are particularly easy to calculate, so we tend to handle friction in clumsy ways.

      Most potentially useful properties don't have simple characterizations. We select out the ones that we can find simple characterizations for, and make extensive use of them. The concept of momentum wasn't needed to create the spear thrower and it's throwing spear. But once we had a simple model, we could build pendulum clocks, which we couldn't before. (I think pendulum clocks came before the current model of momentum, and the crucial invention was the escapement wheel, but the general idea holds... that also depends on momentum being understood clearly. But also on good machining and cleverness.)

      Did Aristotle understand momentum? I haven't read his works, but from brief excerpts I don't believe that he did. Which clearly means that it's not an obvious concept. (Even if he did I would assert that it's not an obvious concept, but that's a considerably less potent argument.)

      --

      I think we've pushed this "anyone can grow up to be president" thing too far.
    264. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by khallow · · Score: 1

      So -1 does not exist? How about the concept of 1=1 or 2=2 or 1+2=3?

      Indeed, that is my assertion. None of those exist. Why do you disagree? What is your definition of existence?

    265. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Nicolay77 · · Score: 1

      I was also thinking about Chaitin's omega, however, your post is so confuse I could never understand any of it unless I already knew about Chaitin theory.

      My take is this:
      - Axioms are always invented. Theorems that derive from this axioms are discovered.
      - To get useful results, you sometimes have to invent as much axioms as you get theorems. And sometimes few axioms give you an amazing lot of useful theorems.

      So the real answer is YMMV. ;)

      --
      We are Turing O-Machines. The Oracle is out there.
    266. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Nicolay77 · · Score: 1

      I don't think the answer needs to be that complex. See this: http://science.slashdot.org/comments.pl?sid=535698&cid=23215866

      --
      We are Turing O-Machines. The Oracle is out there.
    267. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by khallow · · Score: 1

      What's a mathematical object? Unfortunately, I can't answer till I know the difference between the two.

    268. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I thought the GP gave a fairly compelling and coherent argument. Perhaps you could start by reading the link and all the wikipedia pages relating to the terms they used?

    269. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by OldSoldier · · Score: 1

      Suppose you had a definitive, 100% guaranteed answer to the "discovered vs invented" question. What would it allow you to do that you couldn't do before? What could you predict? What would you gain?

      Nothing, nothing and nothing.

      An excellent approach to this subject, but I'm not so sure "Nothing" is correct here. It strikes me that those who put mathematical truths (hints of pi and prime numbers, iirc) on board the Pioneer spacecraft felt mathematics was discovered and hence would be a universal language for any alien intelligence who discovered it. So, if we had a definitive answer and it was "invented" I expect we would have changed what we placed on board the Pioneer to communicate with other intelligences.

      For my part, I'm in the both camp but in a rather mundane way. I believe the axioms and postulates are invented and everything else from there is discovered.
    270. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by 12357bd · · Score: 1

      Reality exists, then we observe it.

      That's an axiomatic statement. It cannot be prouved or disprouved.

      Reality is not dependent upon human observation.

      Strip the 'human' word and then define 'reality' without using the 'observation' concept, and you could have something.

      --
      What's in a sig?
    271. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by whoisisis · · Score: 1

      > Or, to put it in mathematical terms p=mv.

      Or, in fact
      p = mv * 1/(sqrt(1 - (v/c)^2))
      to be absolutely correct.
      Who knows, maybe some day a physicist
      will find a better function to describe
      reality. After all, this is what physics is about.

      Math has nothing to do with reality.

    272. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by x2A · · Score: 1

      "If the Matrix were functioning perfectly, what experiment would Neo do to discover it?"

      What difference does that make? All experiments would lead to a model of how the inner-matrix works, just as all our experiments describe how things in our universe work. Do you think we can develop experiments to describe what's outside the universe we can interact with? No... how is that the same thing as determining what effects human perceiving something has on it?

      We could logically tell that pluto existed before we could see it... we could perceive the effects of the planets mass on Neptune's orbit long before we could perceive the planet itself (no I don't care for the reclassifying of pluto as not-a-planet by a bunch of people who used MS-Word default dictionary to see if their new name for it existed or not... not even google?)... which shows that being able to perceive an object itself has no effect on the gravitational force that interacts with surrounding objects.

      I can set off an experiment, predicting its outcome, not watch it, and compare the results. I can get a machine to pick one of a bunch of experiments to run, then look at the result, decide what the experiment or starting conditions must have been, and then check with the machine that the experiment/starting conditions it chose match up with mine. By removing myself from the experiment, at different degrees, I can show what effects me being present is having on it.

      Yes, the surrounding universe could be some "matrix" that is showing me certain things occording to some rules, but if I've no way of changing those rules, only interacting with them, then these are the rules that I am going to want to study, describe, understand, and know how to work with. If I can interact with and change those rules, then I'm going to want to find out all the things that can affect what it's showing me, then find out how each one of them is affecting it, by controlling the ones you can, and observing the changing states of those which you can't. This is the scientific method.

      --
      The revolution will not be televised... but it will have a page on Wikipedia
    273. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by colinrichardday · · Score: 1

      If mathematics has objects, wouldn't they be different from our awareness of them?

    274. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by x2A · · Score: 1

      (see my reply to your sibling post)

      --
      The revolution will not be televised... but it will have a page on Wikipedia
    275. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Digana · · Score: 1

      Yeah, some of those discoveries were simultaneous, some weren't. I should have clarified further. There are many more examples of simultaenous and independent discovery nowadays, but they're not as accessible as the examples I gave.

    276. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      No, the correct answer is "neither."

    277. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by khallow · · Score: 1

      Yes. But my point is that we have a logically consistent definition of existence of these objects in terms of observation. That is, an object which can be observed, exists. Personally I think that means mathematics doesn't have objects, at least ones that exist physically. If you abandon that perspective, then I don't know what the answer to the above question would be.

    278. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by onemorechip · · Score: 1

      Come from the math party on today's other math thread, did you?

      --
      But, I wanted socialized health insurance!
    279. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by rootpassbird · · Score: 1

      Only *discovered* building blocks are used to *invent* theories.
      And the instrument of invention, the brain, has a finite upper limit, albeit big and complex.
      This isn't like the Dirichlet function, IMO.

      --
      Hackers have long memories. It works both ways.
    280. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You're missing the point.

      All experiments would lead to a model of how the inner-matrix works.

      No. They wouldn't. They would only lead to a model of how humans trapped in the Matrix perceive it to work. If you want a full blown model of how the "inner matrix" actually works, you'd need to perceive it from outside.
      For instance, if there's a minor malfunction in a creche and the human inside it has problems with his spine, that may manifest inside the matrix as degenerative disc disease. No experiment from inside the matrix would ever determine the true cause, only the perceived cause.

      And that's the point. We are prisoners to our perception of reality because we cannot step outside it.

      By removing myself from the experiment, at different degrees, I can show what effects me being present is having on it.

      No, not really, because the entire experiment was conceived from within your frame of reference. Again missing the point. Try putting on your philosophy hat instead of your scientific one for a minute. Image for a minute a colony of army ants living in park somewhere. Huge piles of food seem randomly to pop up from time to time (we'd know these as picnics). Every time they find one, they only have a few minutes to gorge themselves before mystic forces of chaos too huge to see or comprehend start crushing ants and the pile of food is made to be gone. So these ants (they're a bright colony) decide to do an experiment. The next food pile they find instead of piling on top of it and starting to eat, they're going to remove themselves from the experiment and see if the food pile stays peacefully in place. But when they return, the food pile is gone. The ants conclude that food piles destructively remove themselves from existence regardless of whether the ants are there or not. Even using ant cameras and audio recorders, they still reach the same conclusion. There's nobody to tell them that the mere initial sighting of the ant colony by the picnickers is enough to make them vacate the area. Only by transcending their perception and stepping outside (or some might say "above") their perceived reality could the ants ever learn the truth. They'd have to learn all about picnics, which could never possibly make sense to an insect hive mind.

      Again, the original point - "What is "real" outside of human observation [or perception] is not answerable."

    281. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Cairnarvon · · Score: 1

      Like most absurd debates where both sides are vehemently opposed, the answer actually lies in the middle.

      In most debates where both sides are vehemently opposed, either one side is correct or both are flat-out wrong; it happens far less often than people would like to believe that the answer is some mix of both.
      In this particular case, the question is meaningless and both sides are wrong because the entire premise of the debate is flawed.

    282. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      math is truth
      truth is discovered
      truthiness is invented math is a model of the Truth.
      models are invented.
      truthiness is not a word.
    283. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by drissel · · Score: 1

      Theorems are discovered; proofs are invented.

    284. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Bastard+of+Subhumani · · Score: 1

      Many fundamental equations of physics can be correctly arrived at simply by manipulating units.
      Not really, since it doesn't allow for dimensionless constants. What it certainly can do - and this is still valuable - is tell you when your equation is wrong and you should go back to the drawing board.
      --
      Only three things are certain; death, taxes, and apocryphal quotations - Ben Franklin.
    285. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by x2A · · Score: 1

      No, I suggest you taking off your philosophy hat and putting your scientific hat on, you might find you can start rethinking your questions in a way that yields towards answers instead of an amazed dumbfoundedness.

      "if there's a minor malfunction in a creche and the human inside it has problems with his spine, that may manifest inside the matrix as degenerative disc disease. No experiment from inside the matrix would ever determine the true cause"

      We spot patterns. If there is no underlying pattern to all these people who have this apparent spinal disease, we'd, scientifically, be able to tell, that the cause was outside of what we can observe. If it presented with another symptom, then the two can be linked, eg, if all people born with a certain left-leg-length to right-leg-length ratio develop this spinal disease, then we'd have the beginning of a model that holds true within the context of the matrix. A scientist would know that all you'd have to do to prove this model inaccurate/incomplete would be to find someone with either the left to right leg length ratio but no spinal disease, or the other way round. It has become testable, therefore it has become scientific. You're now able to tell, when somebody is born with that l/r leg ratio, that they will develop that spinal disease, prepare for it, or even kill them off (slightly absurd, but hey, you started it).

      And there you have it. Scientifically, we've spotted a link between two observable phenomina, devised testable ways of proving the link to be a false one, and even devised ways which we can use the learnt information (and hey, who knows, if you kill them all off early enough, the "robots" might then notice that children born in those certain tubes aren't as efficient, look into it, and fix the tubes, and we'll see it as an effect of natural selection).

      Yes, we don't know what's going on outside of the context we're testing and observing in, but science doesn't claim to, only what happens within the context/universe. As to whether we perceive something or not... well that's something that happens within the context, so it is something we can look for patterns in. Your ant example... if the ants lay out tiny recording switches in the ground and then scarper, they could then come back and see how long the switches stayed depressed for (in a "i've been pressed!" way, not a "oh I'm only a switch, what's the point of living" type of depressed). If the switch showed that it was pressed for longer period of time than they've ever seen the magic food blankets stick around for, they'd know their presence was affecting it somehow. Your own presence /can/ be tested in a scientific experiment setting, it doesn't require a huge amount of imagination to think of ways how.

      --
      The revolution will not be televised... but it will have a page on Wikipedia
    286. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by CorSci81 · · Score: 1

      Thus, it is misleading to imply that our physical laws are simple and elegant because we have simple and elegant requirements to describe the universe. An accurate description of the universe need not be simple -- and often it is not. For instance, I understand (although lack the mathematical sophistication to prove) that the electron spin g-factor has a theoretical value of exactly 2. Yet it is observed to be approximately 2.00232 and is one of the most precisely measured physical constants. So it is not always simple truth and beauty. Which makes it all the more surprising when the simplicity is there nevertheless.

      Actually, that's not quite correct. You're referring to the observed gyromagnetic ratio which is theoretically 2 if you don't account for relativity. If you use Dirac's equations the theory gives the observed value for g.

    287. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by pclminion · · Score: 1

      Dimensionless constants are irrelevant because the constant can always be subsumed into some other quantity. Other dimensionless quantities, however, can't be predicted through dimensional analysis.

    288. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by poopdeville · · Score: 1

      How's that follow? Not all natural numbers, nor all relationships between them, will be observed within the physical universe, which is finite in both area and time. A complete description of the universe need only describe all the observed data.

      Physical is a word I did not say. Observation is another word I did not say. Realism can be characterized in a few ways -- a straight forward way is that existential quantifiers quantify over "the universe". If something exists, like mathematics does (demonstrably), then it exists in the universe. The ontological status of mathematics -- physical versus non-physical -- is an important question. But your answer takes you outside of the bounds of Realism.

      Indeed, all the observations that will ever be made will be a finite set. Bam, there's a trivial way to get a theory that axiomatizes the universe: after it runs down, go back and collect every observation ever made, and there's a finite set of axioms that completely describe the universe.

      Which is irrelevant to my point. Restricting "the universe" to be the physical universe is not a solution anyway. If mathematics is not a part of our universe, how do we gain any access to it? How do we learn about it? There's plenty of mathematics that hasn't yet had an "observable facade" -- we always hear about the unreasonable degree to which known mathematics works to describe physics. But the point of that quote is that the mathematics existed before a corresponding physical phenomenon was found. Mathematics is not a product of mere observation.

      --
      After all, I am strangely colored.
    289. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by arminw · · Score: 1

      ....saying that 4 is defined as the same as 2+2 is....

      Is that a human definition or is it true outside of any human frame of reference? Is that math definition or human convention the same we have here in the US agreed to drive on the right and stop for a red light etc, rather than something else. Is 2+2=4 independent? Can we by a decree make it 5 or can we by decree make the value of pi 3 so as to make the arithmetic easier? Would or could aliens of another world discover the value of pi in whatever number system they used? If the conversion factor between their number system and ours were taken into account, I believe the value of their pi and ours would be identical since the VALUE of pi is independent, no matter what symbols or number systems are used.

      I think many things are intrinsically true, apart from human recognizing such truths. Gravity worked long before Newton came on the scene. Truth in math and physics is there, regardless of whether we recognize or understand it, standing entirely and independently on its own. The very reason that we can even do science, is because there are certain laws and ratios in the Universe, that are outside of human control. If humans had a say-so over the laws of physics or math, repeatable science observations and experiments would not be possible.

      By the same token of moral laws were no also equally out of human control, civilization, as we have it also would not be possible, or at least very hard. Animals are mostly governed by instinct programmed into ROM, but people have very little ROM. Most behavior must be programmed (learned) into RAM.

      The VALUE of the sum of 2+2=4 is always the same, whether decimal, octal hex, binary or whatever is used and no matter what symbols are used. In short then, number systems and the symbology used to represent these numbers are invented, but the underlying mathematical truth is discovered.

      --
      All theory is gray
    290. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by x2A · · Score: 1

      I thought it was meant to be 7 (+/-2) for most people. I can certainly recognise 5 without a count, as I suspect most people can, as to why the grouping into fives, and due to natural grouping of fives (fingers, toes etc) leaves our brains good at recognising that number. Above that we tend to split into groups of recognisable patters, think dominos or scratch counts (IIII then / through it) on prison walls.

      But then I wasn't alive "way back in prehistory" so won't make any claims as to what brains then could do. I suspect there was a time when even the most advanced brains on the planet couldn't, and likewise even for my own brain :-)

      --
      The revolution will not be televised... but it will have a page on Wikipedia
    291. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by bandmassa · · Score: 1

      Mathematics is purely a language, nothing more than a construct we use to describe the universe in common terms. So as an example the formula for special relativity did not create special relativity, which existed eons before the formula was described, therefore mathematics is discovered. The underpinnings of the universe are described a particular way to suit our maths, this is discovery, not creation.

      --
      "I hope you like Guinness, Sir. I find it a refreshing substitute for, er... food." Col. Jack O'Neil, SG-1
    292. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Listen+Up · · Score: 1

      Math is the symbolism used to describe the universe. Physical reality does not need symbols or tools or sentience to function, we however need math to describe the functions of the universe in precise detail. Math is a tool and so is an invented thing where the ideas have come from observing the world around us, just like a knife or velcro are tools that where invented based off of ideas gleaned from observations of the world around us.

      You are not entirely correct. The universe itself exists and operates Mathematically. Therefore, Mathematics is the language of the universe. That is a fact. While certain components of Mathematics can be used as tools, Mathematics is itself not simply a tool invented by humans, akin to velcro. Mathematics is discovered. While the exact symbols used in Mathematics are not important, the concepts and understandings through Mathematics is what describes the universe in precise detail.

      Regardless of how humans decide to express or discover Mathematics, it would have eventually been discovered in some form over time, as it is how the universe operates and exists. There is no more perfect way to describe and understand the universe than through Mathematics.

    293. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by x2A · · Score: 1

      "c changes with the medium through which light is travelling"

      Does it? Doesn't the mass bend space - ever so slightly - giving the light slightly further to travel? (or is this effect, even multiplied by the number of atoms in the medium, not great enough to account for the difference? Somebody properly knowledgeable might want to answer)

      --
      The revolution will not be televised... but it will have a page on Wikipedia
    294. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Roman+Geyzer · · Score: 1

      I wasn't focused so much on the information being conveyed - rather that Mathematics was invented to communicate the underlying ideas/principles. Depending on the nature of what you're trying to explain, 2/8 may be more appropriate than 1/4 - even though they represent the same ratio.

    295. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by porpnorber · · Score: 1

      Let me try again. The notion of 'apple' is, though it may not appear so, massively culturally conditioned, as is the concept of a 'galaxy'. Absent the appropriate context, an 'apple' is at best a broken piece of tree, and a 'galaxy' some ill-defined slice through the substance of the universe. The notion of 'one', on the other hand, just drops out of the theory of cosets, which is pretty easily accessible (even if 'coset' itself is a fancy academic word) to a broad class of thinking beings. Any being that classifies can arrive at counting, but that is far from sufficient to identifying an apple, even if presented with a table full of fruit and an English dictionary.

      And, for the record, this is indeed a fact with consequences, as you will know if you've tried to shop at a Chinese grocery. It does matter that Platonism is a more nearly usable theory for mathematics than for every day life (indeed, this is why when communicating with my Chinese girlfriend it often saves time to write an integral or indeed (we both live in the same temperature range and pressure range and at the same physical scale) a chemical formula, while for popular music the quickest cultural bridge is to Google for the object itself).

    296. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by jd · · Score: 1

      It does, because it defines sequence (an inventor pre-exists the invented, a discovered thing pre-exists the discovery), the fundamental units (the more complex is built from the simpler) and the simplicity of the model (a parallel would be the infinite complexity required to model the solar system accurately when Earth-centered, compared to the relatively trivial nature of the solar-centered model). That last one tells us not only whether we can get any useful work done with a given model, but it also tells us if the work is optimal for the effort put in. The other two then tell us a great deal about how to optimize the work and what sort of solution we should be looking for.

      --
      It's a small world and it smells funny; I'd buy another if it wasn't for the money; Take back what I paid (SoM)
    297. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by jd · · Score: 1

      Oh, and the physical world doesn't actually exist, it's a product of an informational matrix and probability, both of which are abstracts. These are the fundamental units of all that is real, which is why atoms can superimpose in a Bose-Einstein Condensate. It's also why matter isn't just interchangable with energy but IS energy held in a specific structure. Matter condensed out of raw energy in the early Universe, which is to say matter is secondary, energy is more fundamental. Does that mattr? You can't do modern cosmology and hold to the supremecy of the physical world. Quantum physics denies such an arcane reality. The need to hold onto solid things (wich aren't solid, that's just a field you experience) is mere religion at this point and as primitive as Thor as an explanation of lightning.

      --
      It's a small world and it smells funny; I'd buy another if it wasn't for the money; Take back what I paid (SoM)
    298. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The Truth does not exist but in one's head.
      promotinglinux.com

    299. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by x2A · · Score: 1

      "As with any language, it is created not bestowed. After all, if 1/4 = 0.25 = (2 * 1)/8 then aren't these three ways of describing the same information"

      Sure... but that's number, part of the vocabulary of maths, which yes, I'd say was invented to represent quantity. But maths doesn't necessitate using number, just that number makes it easier/possible to translate in/out of the real world. Examples without number could include geometry (where things have to add up otherwise you can't make ends meet), or an enclosed algebraic system (where everything is defined relative to other variables (aka dimensions) within the context). Translating geometry into number can of course improve accuracy easier than than the alternative (performing the geometry on a larger scale and improving accuracy of drawing aides) when you're good at arithmatic (or have a computer), otherwise, working things out geometrically could prove easier.

      My conclusion: the vocabulary (eg, numbers, symbols, units) has been invented. The language, I'd probably prefer to say was/is 'developed'. That which we use maths to describe, we discover.

      "Perhaps one could argue that pi is just humans only way to describe the relationship"

      Pi I think (top of head, I could spend longer thinking about it!) is just a value that can appear as an artifact for example when translating to number when the concept of 'infinite' is introduced to the geometry (eg, shape with a perfect curve = 'infinite number of sides' etc). Where (or if) quantization exists in the universe, pi wouldn't actually be required in the descriptions (although may not be possible, at least for us, to measure/observe something in greater detail than we can calculate pi as being). (--this is what my mind tells me intuitively, I'd be interested in an example of this not being true).

      --
      The revolution will not be televised... but it will have a page on Wikipedia
    300. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by jcast · · Score: 1

      Pi is defined as twice the least positive number at which cos is 0...

      Also as the least positive number at which cos is -1.

      Also as the least positive number at which sin is 0.

      Also as 1/2 the period of cos and sin.

      Also as 1/2i the period of e^x.

      Also as the least positive solution to the equation e^{xi} = -1. (This is redundant with definitions 2 and 3, in conjunction).

      I may have forgotten a few...

      --
      There are reasons why democracy does not work nearly as well as capitalism.
      -- David D. Friedman
    301. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by jcast · · Score: 1

      On the scale of programmability, emacs > ed > vi.

      On the scale of number of modes, vi > ed > emacs.

      I don't see the issue, here...

      --
      There are reasons why democracy does not work nearly as well as capitalism.
      -- David D. Friedman
    302. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by jcast · · Score: 1

      Put them together hard enough, and you don't have 4 apples any more.

      Or, ask me how to prove that 4 -1 = 5 sometime.

      --
      There are reasons why democracy does not work nearly as well as capitalism.
      -- David D. Friedman
    303. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Roman+Geyzer · · Score: 1

      I agree.

    304. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The thing is, mathematicians "found" new ways of modeling abstract ideas beyond what the modeling of physical observations using the "language" they invented was used for.

      So the question is, were the new abstract concepts found from existing modeling "discovered" or "invented"?

      We know that math for modeling physical observation was "invented". But what if the model allowed us to "discover" abstract concepts beyond what the original model intended, and the concepts are not found in the physical world?

      And the process is a cycle of "discovery" and "invention" stacking on top of each other, probably converging toward "The Absolute Truth", whatever that is.

    305. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by shimage · · Score: 1

      It's not the mass that slows it down; it's an electromagnetic property, not a relativistic one. If it were, the index of refraction would only be a function of density, which it clearly is not. v=1/sqrt(mu*epsilon), where mu is permeability and epsilon is permittivity. Nothing to do with mass.

    306. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Should have studied the law a little more; he's angling so he can "own" an idea by virtue of his "invention" -- somebody should take a lead pipe across this guys kneecaps before his "idea" becomes a reality.

    307. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Who decided the boundary of the Apple or the boundary of the universe?

      What if I refuse to recognize what you are calling the apple because the act of recognizing the apple is completely useless it me because I do not use that thing for any useful purpose (perhaps I have never eaten an apple, or would never)

      The apple means nothing to me and my associates, and so this so called "apple" will never see the light of day because it has never occurred to anyone around me to think upon the Apple.

    308. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Furthermore,

      you and your friends find Apples, eat Apples, name Apples, and talk about Apples.

      Me and my friends talk to you. You mention apples. I have no idea what you are talking about. Because I have never seen Apples, I imagine that you are instead referring to Bananas, because I have eaten bananas, and for all intensive purposes, your description matches what I have experienced as "Bananas".

      You have never seen or known Bananas. However, we talk sensibly about our respective physical entities as if they where one.

      But wait, are they not one concept?

      All an interpretation! Invented.

    309. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by melikamp · · Score: 1

      Invented or discovered? (I mostly agree with you, AC, and I would like to further stress that the philosophical truth about math is anything but black and white.)

      First of all, "Mathematics" itself is neither invented nor discovered. Modern Mathematics is neither a language nor a law of nature; it is a science. As such, Mathematics is "studied". Within its domain, there are things like theorems, proofs, theories, concepts, and (mathematical) objects. We can say that some are invented, others are discovered, and yet others defy our attempts to pigeonhole them into neat categories.

      Two major differences between an invention and a discovery are intention and credit. Discovered objects are not intended to be found. At best, something vaguely similar is being sought, but then a discovery is made, and it always comes as a surprise. Moreover, the making of discovered objects is not credited to anyone but nature or gods: they just sit there, waiting for someone to trip over them. Compare a modern mousetrap to Americas and you will see what I am talking about.

      A good example of a mathematical discovery is the Mandelbrot fractal, and here I am talking specifically about the picture. M. was not setting out to deliver a nice, aesthetically pleasing arrangement of bulbs and gradients. He expected to see some kind of a region in the plain, but what he finally saw with his eyes was beyond his wildest dreams. He boarded the simplest vessel he could find:

      z = x^2 + c

      and stirred it in a new direction. He thought that he was crossing a river, but then he saw what could only be described as Terra Nova.

      And conversely, if you want an example of a mathematical invention, look at the proof of the Poincare conjecture. Perelman had an extremely good idea about the thing he was looking for. All the topologists I know agree that he would not be able to do what he did if not for the efforts of dozens of brilliant mathematicians who developed entire theories with a specific goal to make this problem easier. Consequently, he found pretty much what he was looking for, and won all of the credit, in spite of rather obvious efforts (by other teams) to claim a few pieces of that pie. This is the kind of proof that absolutely cannot be stumbled upon.

    310. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by vivian · · Score: 2, Insightful

      If it is "invented" it can be patented
      I was looking for an appropriate place to say exactly this - and it is the reason why a debate as to whether mathematics is invented or discovered is so important, and should not be ignored as merely frivolous. If we allow enough groups to declare that mathematics is invented, we will soon see patents allowable on mathematics, and any future resistance to expansion of the patent system into both mathematics and other pure sciences will rapidly fall. Mathematics must not be allowed to be seen as being "invented" if we want to still be able to build mathematics knowledge on the foundation of previous efforts unhindered by patents and "intellectual property" claims.

    311. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by ultranova · · Score: 1

      I think the meaning here is clear: "invented" implies that mathematics is an artifact that would not exist if humans (or some other reasoning entitiy) did not create it; "discovered" implies the contrary: that mathematics does have an independent existence.

      Assuming a deterministic or semi-deterministic universe, all the later states of the universe must have been contained in the initial condition, because you could in theory get determine all possible later states from that initial condition./p>

      Given this, and given that we are part of the universe, I don't think it's possible for us to actually create or invent anything in the strict sense. Mathemathics were already contained in the initial condition of the universe; our brains are simply an unzip program inflating it from the there.

      The same, of course, goes to this post: it was destined from the beginning that I would write it or, if one believes that quantum mechanics allow for many possible outcomes, the possibility that I would write it was included in the universe from the beginning. In other words, I'm not creating this message right now, for it has always been part of the universe; I'm merely converting it from one form to another.

      All of this is, of course, splitting hairs with extreme prejudice and a glint of madness in the mind's eye, but that's philosophy for you :).

      --

      Forget magic. Any technology distinguishable from divine power is insufficiently advanced.

    312. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Spot Patterns? Link symptoms? You're just nit picking my example. If the Matrix was working perfectly there would never be a pattern.

      Otherwise why do you keep talking about observing things when the entire argument begins with "What is "real" outside of human observation is not answerable."
      Let's say it again for fun: "What is "real" outside of human observation is not answerable."
      You can't do ANY science on something if you have no way to observe it. Are you arguing that everything, directly or indirectly, can be observed? Are you stuck on semantics?

      I think I'm done here.

    313. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Thyrsus · · Score: 1

      If these are the positions of a Realist, then I am not that kind of Realist.

      "any theory that axiomatizes the universe (which is to say, any set of sentences which is true of the universe and exhausts all sentences about it) must include all sentences about the natural numbers"

      Why would such sentences necessarily include all sentences about the natural numbers? At present, the best evidence we have (big bang) is that the physical universe is finite. Whether space time is necessarily modeled by real (or rational?) numbers rather than (finite) integers is an open question. I do not expect that we finite beings will ever discover all of mathematics. It is now commonplace that we discover one system in which an axiom holds and another in which it does not. I am quite certain we will not discover all of them. I am quite certain we will not discover even a complete description of this universe. That does not mean we won't find some components that can be considered "True"; e.g., that within Euclidean geometry, Pi is a transcendental number.

      "there must be more models of the theory than just our universe. Does the universe contain them, or not? Presumably, it does, since the class of models is a mathematical object."

      Why should the physical universe contain every mathematical object? Are you speaking of "Mathematics" as a universe? That's fine, but I consider the physical universe (and its mathematical description) an infinitesmal subset of the mathematical universe.

      "any Realist view of mathematics ultimately requires mathematics to exist as a completed whole" I don't agree with the tense of the word "completed" because it implies that Mathematics could proceed from an incomplete to a complete entity. Our discoveries are necessarily incomplete, and with luck, go from more incomplete to less incomplete. Analogously, my own discovery of, e.g., slashdot, goes from more incomplete to less incomplete, but that doesn't mean there isn't a "complete" representation of slashdot.

      I conceive of Mathematics as existing outside of space time; among its infinite components are systems of axioms and the statements provable, disprovable, and unprovable within those systems. Some systems of axioms describe our physical universe, and they do not necessarily include any description of an infinite set.

      'But there is no completed whole, since the parts "look" into each other'. You appear to be taking a constructivist position, and you don't want to apply the adjectives "complete" or "whole" to the infinite system which I name Mathematics, and which I conceive to be infinite in content.

      "no language can completely describe the universe, but also [...] the depth to which we can know it is limitless." If by "can", you mean "can be physically realized in this physical universe", then we agree. It would likely take a system equally as complex as the present universe to completely describe the probability field of every fundamental particle at every point in space time (if even that is an accurate "complete" description). But I expect that we may characterize possible descriptions of our universe, and derive properties of our universe from those characterizations. Physics has so far confirmed that expectation.

      I'm enjoying this conversation; please continue to describe weaknesses in my arguments. Thanks.

    314. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by pikine · · Score: 1

      1+1=2 is arithmetic over counting numbers, and counting is something that you observe. However, the reasoning about the structure as to why 1+1 has to be 2 is invented. 1+1 can be 10 in binary, or 11 in unary. The concept is probably discovered, but the form of writing and the algebraic structure is most definitely invented and can be arbitrary.

      For example, one way to define natural number in math is by induction. I say the base case is that 0 is in the set of natural numbers. The inductive case is defined by a successor operation where if N is a natural number, this implies that successor of N is also a natural number. This gives you a unary representation, and the algebraic structure is analogous to a singly linked list.

      (No, writing "{0, 1, 2, ...} is the set of natural numbers" is not a rigorous definition.)

      It is interesting to note that many abstract algebraic properties such as primality is impervious to the form of writing. These are probably discovered. However, the framework used to reason about it, Group and Ring and the many kinds of derivatives (Abelian Group, Principal Ideal Domain, Field) are certainly invented by very clever people.

      --
      I once had a signature.
    315. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Thyrsus · · Score: 1

      A computer has a physical existence, which embodies a mathematical description of how it should behave. (We'll ignore all the states in which the computer is broken.) The computer can "discover" mathematical truths. Is it so mysterious that this physical entity has access to mathematical truth? The key is that it is itself a mathematically describable entity, just as the larger universe is mathematically describable. Remember, none of these entities can discover *all* mathematical truth.

    316. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by shellbeach · · Score: 1

      Um ... but that's not really the issue at hand -- unless you meant to say "invented", rather than "discovered".

    317. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by shellbeach · · Score: 1

      I thought the GP gave a fairly compelling and coherent argument. Perhaps you could start by reading the link and all the wikipedia pages relating to the terms they used? I did read the link, and I stand by what I said before: the answer doesn't need to be that complex.

      Maths is based upon abstract concepts, that are free of language or universal laws. What we are doing, therefore, is discovering universal truths, not inventing them. Recursion theories just aren't necessary.

    318. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Urkki · · Score: 1

      No, originally 2+2=4 is an obserevation. It's a property of ordinary solid objects. Take two objects, add 2 more similar objects, and you have total 4 objects.

      That's an observed fact, and no definition can change it.

      Of course, you can invent all kinds of bizarre definitions and axioms, and base mathematics on them, and then have a horribly complex way of doing "2+2=4" for ordinary solid objects. But even with these new definitons and axioms, you must arrive at the result "2+2=4", or your mathematics is demonstratably wrong.

    319. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Urkki · · Score: 1

      No problem, there are several possible definitions of the so called
      natural units.

    320. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by x2A · · Score: 1

      "The very reason that we can even do science, is because there are certain laws and ratios in the Universe, that are outside of human control"

      I totally support this and believe it to be true.

      "Is that a human definition or is it true outside of any human frame of reference?" [...] "The VALUE of the sum of 2+2=4 is always the same"

      2+2=4 is an expression, and can be true or false depending on how 2 and 4 are defined (eg, on a logarithmic scale, the expression I believe would be false) if they are defined elsewhere. If you are using the expression to define 2+2 as being that which 4 is defined as, then it's simply a statement. You are asserting a fact, that within the context, is almost taken for granted as being true, as it is known that you are only talking about that which is within the logical context. For example,
      If 2+2=4 is true,
      then 4-2=2 is also true.
      If we say 2+2+2=4 is also true,
      then 2=0 must be true, as must 4=0,
      as that is the only way that 2+2=2+2+2 could be true.

      We're not saying that any of it is true, we're just saying that if we assume 2+2=4 to be true, then we can say with 100% certainty that 4-2=2 is also true. This is the beauty of mathmatics, the language itself is pure and absolute; all terms are defined relative to each other. We leave testing the translation-to/from-nature methods to science. Meanwhile we can still work out what must be true assuming that the science is (which can then be used to confirm/refute the scientific theory, eg, if we find that e!=mc^2 (if not familar with programmer vocabulary, != and ^ here means 'is not equal' and 'to the power') for a certain value of 'm', we have proved relativity incorrect or at least incomplete).

      --
      The revolution will not be televised... but it will have a page on Wikipedia
    321. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by qiemem · · Score: 1

      In response to the bit about logical positivism: Logical positivism would, more than anything I think, label this question as meaningless. However, my understanding is that logical positivism has been mostly discredited, largely thanks to Quine. His "Two Dogmas of Empiricism" attempts to break down the analytic/synthetic distinction that the verification principle so heavily relies upon. Furthermore, it seems impossible to formulate the verification principle in such a way that it gets rid of metaphysical questions such as "What is math?" and hang on to the terminology required to do science.

      Carnap gave up on it, convinced by Quine. Wittgenstein, the often cited father of the movement, completely rejected it in his later years.

      However, your point with regards to pragmatism I think is important, though not insurmountable. These questions are important for determining what we consider legitimate mathematics and thus how we should proceed in the study of mathematics. Consider the foundational questions in the first half of the 20th century: Frege's, Russel's, Zermelo's, and Hilbert's programs all had wildly different consequences in terms how one should proceed in mathematics (though they all tried to preserve the main body of it). The most concrete example of this is the bizarre machinery that is required to do calculus: have you ever tried to convince anyone that there are have to be different levels of infinity in order to do that which physics takes as central? When Cantor (and Newton for that matter) first came up with their ideas, they were laughed at! What they showed was not considered legitimate mathematics at first, though it turned out to be crucial for modern science.

      Furthermore, these questions help decide what mathematics' place in the world: what exactly are we trying to accomplish with it? What is mathematics studying and what predictive powers should we expect from it?

      I don't know if this will convince anyone these questions are worth asking, but hopefully they will make people curious. The deeper one goes, the stranger things become. For instance, the Banach-Tarski theorem says that one can break up a ball into a whole bunch of points, and then reassemble them into two balls identical to the first! And this is a theorem, a direct result from ZFC! Or (and this screwed with my head for a long time) Skolem showed that any first order set theory satisfiable by a nondenumerable model is also satisfiable by a coutable one (note: I made that all jargony so that people unfamilar with set theory won't know what I am talking about; dangerous idea if you don't know/believe Cantor's stuff and very easy to misinterpret if you don't know set theory to an okay extent. Even then, takes a while...)

      Second, my answer to the question: Mathematical structure is discovered, but such abstractions do not exist as universals/forms/etc. Mathematics is the study of abstract structure. This structure is inherent in/a result of the causal properties of objects in the universe. There are no forms/universals, just systems of objects and causal relations, and isomorphisms between these systems.

      (I'm a trope nominalist when it comes to properties: http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/tropes/. Further, I believe that the resemblance classes central to the theory are defined by causal similarity. I think this is possible because causal properties ARE qualitative properties. Sorry, just wanted to answer any phil majors up front :).)

    322. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Eivind · · Score: 1

      I agree with this. It is a useful way to weed out lots of philosophical wankery of no consequence.

      It's a bit problematic for weeding out religious wankery though, because frequently people say: Knowing this allows my soul to experience a nicer afterlife.

      If true, this would be useful. But there is no indication (and can be no indication) either way, true or not.

      I personally see no reason to believe in stuff COMPLETELY without evidence -- there is an unlimited collection of such stuff afterall, much of it contradictory, so you can't believe in it all. And the absence of evidence leaves you no usable way of deciding *which* particular set of stuff to believe.

      In practice most human beings seem to deal with this by the simple expedient of believing that which most people surrounding them in their childhood believed. That is easy to -understand-, but it's hard to claim it's particularily RATIONAL.

      For example, the people being strict-line christians here are the very same people who would with a high likelihood be strict-line hindus (or muslims or whatever) had they been born somewhere else.

    323. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by x2A · · Score: 1

      "If the Matrix was working perfectly there would never be a pattern"

      How can it be working perfectly and have a malfunction at the same time? Pick one to argue the effects of.

      "You can't do ANY science on something if you have no way to observe it"

      I don't know why you're so stuck on this idea. You can easily recreate that condition to test it. Lets imagine after coming up with a theory that says that a ball, when released, will roll down a slope. The theory can include details like the minimum angle the slope must be for different materials and other physical properties of the slope and ball. As it's a scientific theory, we can look for flaws, things that, if they happened, would prove the theory was not true, such as if the ball didn't roll at an angle of decline greater than that which the theory says it will do, or if the ball does roll then the slope is flat, when the theory says it won't.

      Now, the theory also states that the ball rolling is unaffected by humans observing it happening. First if we want to test that, we need to rule out things that could make it appear like observation was affecting it... put it in a vaccuum and fix the temperate, to counter for any stray sneezing or radiation from sweaty nervous scientists, and release the ball. Now repeat the experiment with two people watching... and four... a hundred, a thousand, whatever. If you notice any difference, in the way the ball rolls, when you add more people, even very slight, you know the theory is flawed, it would be reasonable to assume that changing the number of observers even further will cause it to deviate from the theory even more. Otherwise, by now, the many many tests done, none of which have produced results other than what the theory predicts, has added quite a bit of weight, credit, to the theory's accuracy. You can rule out that you personally observing it has an affect by having other scientists repeat the experiment with you not present, and report back if removing you causes any deviation from the theory.
      Finally, you could have say a button which darkens the LCD glass case that's got the vacuum, slope etc inside. This would allow you to recreate, at your whim, the condition of being unable to observe the ball roll. The ball is released by a timer in the same way it's been done in all previous experiments, and the glass blocking anyone from seeing ball roll as the theory predicts stays darkened for as long as the experiment takes to complete. Now, here are some of the conditions the theory doesn't allow for, which if they occur, would prove the theory incorrect (remember, these are required for said theory to be said to be scientific, there has to be ways it can be disproven) :
      * When you lighten the glass after the experiment should've completed, you see the ball start to roll.
      * When the glass is lightened, the ball is in a different position to where it ended up after all the previous, observed experiments.
      * When the glass is lightened, the ball is gone!
      * Before you even get to lighten the glass, you hear it smash and the ball comes flying out (sure, you observe this happen, but the change happened during the unobserved part of the experiment)
      * The ball suddenly appears hovering above the case.
      * The ball afterwards appears in the same place as previous experiments, despite objects, a bump or dent, that were in it's path.

      And so on. Any one of these things happening would prove the theory was incorrect/incomplete, as removing the observation of the experiment taking place produced results that the theory and all previous measurements say shouldn't happen. Yes, there are still things that could've happened outside of what the theory says should... it could've sped up and slowed down... it could've not gone to move at all, but by coincidence some freak very rare cosmic rays collided with it that resulted in the same effect as observation would've done... BUT the fact that none of these things did happen, and no changes happened when increasing the

      --
      The revolution will not be televised... but it will have a page on Wikipedia
    324. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by x2A · · Score: 1

      Cool cheers, that does make a lot more sense :-) while i've got ya if you can and don't mind my asking, does the light actually travel at a reduced speed, or just appearing that way over more easily measured distances because it's not travelling in a straight line (or both? Or it's just not that simple :-) hehe)

      --
      The revolution will not be televised... but it will have a page on Wikipedia
    325. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by somersault · · Score: 1

      Wow, you're certainly full of yourself, and overly patronising. I know that a lot of physics is just 'obvious' stuff put into formulae, same as a lot of stuff in psychology is just obvious observable human behaviour then written down and explained away. You have missed the point entirely though. The point is that units for energy and speed were already defined, and C^2 happened to give the right value for E=MC^2. And things like inverse square laws map physical phenomenon perfectly. I understand that you could make obscure units for anything such that you could say E=1*cheese , but the fact is that the universe *does* work with things like squares. I just find that very interesting.

      I wasn't saying that it's a proof of God per se, but it is still very cool and IMO thought provoking. Perhaps you don't like to 'think' though, and prefer to dismiss out of hand anything you didn't pick up in a textbook.

      --
      which is totally what she said
    326. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by somersault · · Score: 1
      So you're trying to say that Joules were defined just for E=MC^2? From Wikipedia:

      A joule is the mechanical equivalent of heat meaning the number of units of work in which the unit of heat can perform. Its value was found by James Prescott Joule in experiments that showed the mechanical energy Joule's equivalent, and represented by the symbol J. The term was first introduced by Dr. Mayer of Heilbronn. So did they define the units of weight and heat just for E=MC^2? You can change units to make some formulae more simple, but then you're just moving complexity to the units. And that's not what was even done for E=MC^2. The formula uses standard pre-defined measurements for the speed of light in a vacuum, and standard scientific measurements for energy and mass.. the fact that the energy is exactly the mass times the velocity squared is very neat, and not just made for convenience' sake. One of us is maybe thinking in circles, but from what I can see, all these units were defined before E=MC^2 (although presumably Einstein defined C around the same time, but he does it in SI units)
      --
      which is totally what she said
    327. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by somersault · · Score: 1

      Yeah I've heard of phi before. I didn't know that stuff though. I thought you were just trying to point out how it wasn't a nice neat number, but now I see it. That's pretty cool too :)

      --
      which is totally what she said
    328. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by somersault · · Score: 1

      Thankyou for explaining that better than I have been :) Something things just make you go 'cool', but it's hard to explain people who just accept everything at face value, or try to explain everything away tritely..

      --
      which is totally what she said
    329. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by somersault · · Score: 1

      Hmm.. okay I see your point, I was thinking that 1/2mv^2 must be related to e=mc^2 in some way.

      --
      which is totally what she said
    330. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by somersault · · Score: 1

      It's absurd when both sides argue that only one or the other can be right. Like the nature vs nurture debate in psychology. There is some merit in finding out exactly how much of a person's personality or other characteristics can be modified, of course, but the way that the researchers on either 'side' were described in lectures, you'd think they were idiots.

      --
      which is totally what she said
    331. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by somersault · · Score: 1

      the question is meaningless and both sides are wrong because the entire premise of the debate is flawed. That's kinda what I meant by 'absurd'
      --
      which is totally what she said
    332. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by somersault · · Score: 1

      I didn't say it was actual evidence, it's just food for thought. Someone else has pointed out that it's simply a result of integration giving the formula 1/2mv^2, and that is a good explanation for why e=mc^2 is so neat. Pi is pretty simple to define as the ratio of circumference to diamater of a circle. I don't see why it blows anything out of the water. It's funny watching people get so defensive and desperate to prove that their intelligence is greater than any other in the universe though..

      --
      which is totally what she said
    333. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by somersault · · Score: 1

      Yep yep. Integrals are a fairly simple concept I guess, and you end up with squares. Been a few years since I've studied maths now.. getting old and all that (24!) :s

      --
      which is totally what she said
    334. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Evil+Pete · · Score: 1

      You still have no idea what I am talking about. Perhaps you should take a course in the Philosophy of Science to get rid of your fuzzy ideas.

      Yes I know about isomorphisms. So what. They are similarities in structure mappable by a relation. You aren't going to try and tell me that there is a mathematical mapping onto the real world are you?

      Bringing up String Theory ... why? It is one of the worst examples of the scientific process ... almost a joke unless they finally get a testable theory.

      About Einstein: now did I talk about effects at high velocity? No. I talked about low velocity. Einstein's relativity is very well tested, still only tentative of course (falsifiability and all). But there are alternative ways of looking at relativity, more experiments can winnow them out as has been done. But it could all still be wrong because we used the wrong interpretation ... there could be an alternative that works just as well or better.

      "truths". No such thing. There is observation, hypothesis, experiment, prediction. 'Truth'? Leave that for people who believe in fairies etc.

      --
      Bitter and proud of it.
    335. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by eam · · Score: 1

      If mathematics is discovered, it belongs to everyone. If mathematics is invented, it can be patented.

    336. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by j00r0m4nc3r · · Score: 1

      Momentum scales linearly with both mass and velocity, fields fall off with inverse square relations, and so on.

      Can you prove this? How do we truly know that momentum scales linearly with mass and velocity ranging from 0->infinity? I don't think we can ever discover how the universe truly works, but instead we merely invent a mathematics that, as far as we can tell, accurately models what we perceive, which is just a tiny fraction of the ranges of things in the universe. I think it's safe to say that we have discovered that there are relationships between things, but I don't believe we can ever validate that our models of those relationships are 100% correct.

    337. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by VeNoM0619 · · Score: 0

      Agreed:
      We discovered the theory of mathematics, but we also invented the numbering system to apply this theory.

      --
      Disclaimer: I am not god.
      We may not be created equal
      But we can be treated equal.
    338. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Math is an invention created to discover the laws of nature.

    339. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by khallow · · Score: 1

      My point is none of this makes a math construct observable nor makes it matter whether the math concept can be observed or not. A good deal of what we consider math is language, which is what allows you to communicate math ideas with your girlfriend so readily. It doesn't imply that the ideas exist just because language to describe them does. As I've said elsewhere in this thread, just because you can label something doesn't mean that it exists.

    340. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by khallow · · Score: 1

      This isn't helpful. The "information matrix" and probability are tools for enabling a model which we think describes reality. At the least, you have to explain why some information matrices are physically relevant and some aren't. Also, there is point of view. At the least, one can chose different coordinates and different projections.

      You can't do modern cosmology and hold to the supremecy of the physical world.

      Why? If a theory doesn't explain the observed world, then why should we consider it? As I see it, you claim that the physical world is composed the product of a couple of objects you label "abstracts". Even if true, they would by their nature and the definition of "abstract" not be abstracts. You haven't explained what an observation would be in this view of the physical world. That alone is a gap too big for your glib explanation to make sense.

    341. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by ChetOS.net · · Score: 1

      "Would the answer tell me about the future?"

      What would the answer to this tell me about the future? Nothing. Therefore, logical positivism is meaningless.

      --
      "If God had intended us to walk he would not have invented roller skates." -- Willy Wonka
    342. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by khallow · · Score: 1
      This is a clever reply. My take still is that it doesn't matter. The distinction between invention and discovery is artificial here. For example, a model of physical phenomena is both. It is a discovery in that the parts of it that better approximate the physical world help us understand something more about that. But it's also an invention because someone put the model together. An argument over how much of the model "existed" prior to its expression just doesn't make sense. Whether it existed or not, the model wasn't helping in any way prior to its expression by someone.

      Parsimony is a desirable feature of models, but it is yet another attribute unrelated to any of the previous ones we've talked about. There's no implication for parsimony in either the existence debate or the invention/discovery debate. And it doesn't make sense to me to claim that any of these above heuristics (sequence, fundamental units, parsimony) are able to tell us what model building/discovering path is "optimal" a priori. Clearly a model that takes considerably more resources to express than exist in the Solar System would be unviable for us to consider now. But given a collection of possible models, the simplicity of the models or their potential for decomposition into more fundamental models, isn't as relevant as their ability to explain observed phenomena.

    343. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by porpnorber · · Score: 1

      Sure. Maybe nothing exists and there's 'really' no such thing as observation, so you can unassailably disclaim anything. But nothing you say changes the fact that mathematical objects are in relative terms more empirical, more observable, than 'everyday' objects. You may personally be averse to abstraction, but I doubt this is a general property of intelligences. Being able to see 'visible' light, on the other hand, is not a property of intelligence at all. I think you're making a mistaken assumption that your own experience is universal, and thus that the ideas that are most readily accessible to you, through your personal experience, are thus somehow more real than ones that took you longer to pick up. I understand that I'm unlikely to be able to explain this to you, but if numbers weren't real, you could never arrive at the observation of an apple. But if apples weren't real, it would make no difference to numbers at all. Many people have never seen an apple, and can still add. Now, I'll certainly agree with you that both apples and numbers are in some sense 'linguistic' constructs, in the very general sense that you have to encode things to think about them. But, for example, (copies of) numbers are part of the structure of broad classes of coding systems themselves, and fruit are not.

      I guess what I'm asking you to do is to apply your own test for whether the idea exists to an apple. An apple described in quantum mechanics terms, that is, not in the linguistically and culturally programmed terms that you so distrust when it comes to numbers.

      Or try it this way: we'll rule out both language and mathematical physics (which, on reflection, I guess you disbelieve in) and do it mechanically and empirically. Which machine do you suppose is easier to build, an apple detector or a counter?

    344. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by khallow · · Score: 1

      I am not adverse to abstraction, I'm just pointing out that one doesn't observe them. One observes the language and thoughts that implement the abstraction. Further, as I've said elsewhere in the thread, abstract objects don't *by definition* physically exist. That's what "abstract" means. I understand what you are saying. Currently, I'm a grad student in mathematical physics with a few papers out there. Ignorance isn't what's driving my side of the debate.

      All along I'm bothered by the sloppiness of saying that math concepts "exist" without saying what existence means. As it turns out, the usual answer is that language and thoughts (and possibly even physical implements of the concept) can and do exist, and that's sufficient for many to say that the concept exists. That would be fine. But I don't see the justification for platonism. That's saying the concepts exist independent of what's going on in the physical world. And frankly, anything unobservable yet somehow exists contradicts empiricism which is one of the more fundamental belief systems. I suppose that's not really a problem since it just means it wouldn't be empiricism and wouldn't have much, if any relevance to the physical world.

    345. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by shimage · · Score: 1

      Light is just a self-propogating electromagnetic wave. It has particle properties as well, but for this question, I think it's best to ignore that. Materials are usually bound by electromagnetic interactions, so it makes sense that when an electromagnetic wave passes through the material, it affects the material in some way; basically, it moves some charges around in the material. Now that the charges are in different places, the fields are different, and this changes the e+m wave, which shifts the charges ... and so on. For linear materials, these interactions are captured in the permeability and permittivity.

      Anyway, long story short, the wavefront is actually moving slower. If you insist on thinking about light as lots of photons ... I think that makes it more complicated than you want it to be.

    346. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Burz · · Score: 1
      Within certain well-known parameters, Einstein's relativity could certainly be considered 'true' much like Newton. It shows that we can hone our ability to explain and predict. This becomes a crucial point when considering that, post relativity, the suitability of Newton's laws did not change in virtually all the situations where they were used.

      As for string or 'M theory', in its current form it does predict more than four dimensions and supersymmetry. These will soon be tested.

      How can the Philosophy of Science tell us that truth doesn't exist when experimental and applied sciences are constantly showing us what is at least provisionally true? Do scientists not struggle to persuade everyone that evolution and anthropogenic climate change are real? Are they wrong to do so?

      "truths". No such thing. There is observation, hypothesis, experiment, prediction. 'Truth'? Leave that for people who believe in fairies etc. The philosopher doth protest too much. You cannot prove a negative, and those are awfully stark and sweeping declarations coming from someone doesn't acknowledge truth. I thought philosophers were supposed to study hypocrisy, not internalize it.
    347. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by orlanz · · Score: 1

      I was stating that although we doubt the very existence of our own beings (or more accurately, per Descartes, everything else around us) we do not doubt that these concepts are true and valid. We can doubt everything that "exists" around us and write it off as an illusion, but even within that illusion, we state that math is valid!

      In fact, we make the assumption, nay the assertion, that these concepts can define ours and everything else's very existence! So I propose that math exists more so than all others and that we merely discover it within the depths of our minds.

      If you were to define "existence" as something that we can poke and prod, then I would have to resolve that math does not exist.

    348. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by mmyrfield · · Score: 1

      Actually, it does allow for dimensionless constants, and in fact often is entirely based on the idea of having only dimensionless constants (see wikipedia's entry on the Buckingham Pi theorem). Dimensional analysis is extremely useful, especially when first coming up with new relationships!

    349. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by mazarin5 · · Score: 1

      But you're arguing in circles. Yes, in circles: Perfect circles!

      Obviously, the fact that humans can argue in perfect circles, divine geometry, is proof of God! After all God, being divine, would create a shape as perfect as a circle, and that we would follow His example is absolute evidence!

      </tongueincheek>
      --
      Fnord.
    350. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by mazarin5 · · Score: 1

      When faced with an awkward question, logical positivism asks: what would the answer tell me about the future?

      Suppose you had a definitive, 100% guaranteed answer to the "discovered vs invented" question. What would it allow you to do that you couldn't do before? What could you predict? What would you gain?



      Nothing, nothing and nothing.

      Patents, patents and patents.

      --
      Fnord.
    351. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by jeffpollak · · Score: 1

      I completely agree with your answer. The relationships are their, we fill in the blanks!

    352. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Bastard+of+Subhumani · · Score: 1

      It can't tell you whether kinetic energy is 1/2 mv^2, mv^2 or 42mv^2 - all are dimensionally correct. It can tell you that it isn't mv^3.

      --
      Only three things are certain; death, taxes, and apocryphal quotations - Ben Franklin.
    353. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Finally, someone else who understands that this is a dead argument. Also, i'd like to point out, as someone who's been asked many a time to prove that 1+1=2, that this is not an equation, it's a definition, 2 is simply the orthographical representation of the number 1+1.

      Oh, and that's right. Next question.

    354. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Deliveranc3 · · Score: 1

      It is discovered in the sense that existing math is conceptualized into human understanding.

      In this sense everything is "discovered."

      Of course invention is the art of creating a subset of possibilities and using this subset to achieve a solution.

    355. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by DriedClexler · · Score: 0

      Okay, I know I'm karmaless, and this discussion is dead, but maybe, just maybe someone is reading this comment that I actually intended to post closer to the posting date of the story.

      To answer your question: yes, the answer to discovered vs. invented matters to ME, and it's clear it will have experimental implications (i.e. we can test it), although it's too complicated for me to formulate.

      How, you ask? Well, it relates to a different question I have: is it possible for a universe to exist in which mathematics as we know it, doesn't exist? Where NO observation is isomorphic to any implication of the e.g. Peano postulates or whatever the standard is now?

      IANAAIP (academically educated in philosophy), but I believe it was Kant who said there are truths we can infer about the world purely from thought, which are necessary for interaction with the world. One example is math. We can derive theorems about the world, he claims, before interacting with it.

      But here's the kicker -- some of the things he said we need to understand about the world to interact with it, were wrong. For example, while we might think in Euclidean geometry, the world doesn't obey it -- it's just an often-useful approximation. So is math like this -- just a useful set of postulates isomorphic to many tasks in the world, but sometimes quite *wrong*?

      We arguably developed math at first to deal with the world. Add a bean to my bag of six beans, I have seven. Cool. But turning back to my question, what if there were a universe where that process simply can't happen? What if there's nothing such as "units" that can be "added" and therefore no need for that universe's conscious entities (if conscious entities can exist in that universe!) to develop peano math to deal with things (if the concept of addable consciousnesses is meaningless too!). Wow, I almost sound high discussing this.

      Does anyone see where I am going? Here is a sketch of the potential experimental implications:

      1) If it's possible for a universe to exist with nothing isomorphic to math, we can maybe construct a computer simulation with mind-blowing implications.

      2) If it's not possible for universes to lack math, then we have discovered a *different* result regarding math universality and thus have another step toward simulating a real universe, since we know a constraint.

      Thoughts? (Damn I wish I posted this before but I couldn't spell it all out at the time.)

      --
      Information theory is life. The rest is just the KL divergence.
    356. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by x2A · · Score: 1

      "If you insist on thinking about light as lots of photons..."

      Not generally, I don't even really like the word 'particle' being used (think 'packet' closer conveys the required meaning so doesn't create as much confusion), but yes here I think I was probably complicating things by looking too closely at the leading edge and being distracted by quantum artifacts of discrete packets, so cheers for the nudge :-)

      --
      The revolution will not be televised... but it will have a page on Wikipedia
    357. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by LaskoVortex · · Score: 1

      I was thinking that 1/2mv^2 must be related to e=mc^2 in some way.

      E=mc**2 is the equivalent to saying that the energy "intrinsic" to an object the greatest amount of kinetic energy you can put into the object (if it behaves classically the whole time). In other words, the integration from -c to +c is like saying that if you have an object of a given mass going c to the left, and you started to put energy into it pushing to the right, then by the time it gets to c going to the right, you would have put as much kinetic energy into it as it has intrinsic energy. This would be true for purely classical behavior. Relativistic behavior doesn't allow this sort of thing so the process is physically impossible, but its interesting to think about the math this way.

      --
      Just callin' it like I see it.
    358. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Energy is kg*m^2/s^2

    359. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by iamfesaj · · Score: 1

      well I am no mathematician but wouldn't it seem to imply that there is order to the universe?

    360. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by shimage · · Score: 1

      To me, "packet" implies that you can break it open and there's something smaller inside, which for photons is not possible. So I don't really like that terminology ("quantum" of light is more precise, but also more confusing ... ). In a practical sense, though, think of it however you want to, as long as it isn't wrong.

    361. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by ioshhdflwuegfh · · Score: 1

      The problem is that you both are arguing about 'ideas' (physical laws) and 'reality' (observed nature). Both concepts share a single source, that's human perception,[...] I don't think so. When you see three apples, you don't see the number three, yet you can count exactly, without errors. Thus Platonism.
    362. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by ioshhdflwuegfh · · Score: 1

      Thing is we have an intuitive view of the world, not a mathematical one. And our intuition is demonstrably terrible at physics. Then what if the mathematical thinking is the proper intuition for understanding of the physical world? Which would then turn the analogies of

      The problem is we may conduct our little experiments etc, but we then have to interpret them. We interpret them via analogistic constructs ... into isomorphisms?
    363. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by ioshhdflwuegfh · · Score: 1

      Apples and galaxies are countable because we perceive them as distinct objects but if you look very closely the 'obvious' distinction between an apple and the rest of the universe is no so obvious after all. Like how?
    364. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by ioshhdflwuegfh · · Score: 1

      [...]my point is that we have a logically consistent definition of existence of these objects in terms of observation. That is, an object which can be observed, exists. Personally I think that means mathematics doesn't have objects, at least ones that exist physically. I'll agree that mathematics has no objects that exist physically, if the existence is mere observation of objects. But, you also say that "we have a logically consistent definition" of such a process of observing, which in effect means that you are still resorting to mathematical-logical concepts in defining the process of observing, which must exist and not be observable to make the consistent observation possible.

      For instance: we both see one apple, but we do not see the number one. Still, required consistency of our observation of the apple requires of us to resort to the idea of number one. The number one therefore does exist, as an idea: it is not observable, but it is required to make our individual observations logically consistent one with another. I think this would be the classic Platonism.
    365. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by ioshhdflwuegfh · · Score: 1

      All along I'm bothered by the sloppiness of saying that math concepts "exist" without saying what existence means. Fair enough, that's the minimum of philosophical rigor.

      But I don't see the justification for Platonism. That's saying the concepts exist independent of what's going on in the physical world. I don't think that's what Platonism is about. Justification of Platonism is in preferring the intelligible to the sensible: I do rather believe in the number two to be true than in those two lumps of something that might be whatever in reality. I do believe so because I believe that the Universe is created not to be chaotic, but intelligible, where everything is modeled after ideal forms of the Creator, etc. We can therefore do the "inverse problem", as you mathematicians would say, and reach the ideal as the truth of the world.

      And frankly, anything unobservable yet somehow exists contradicts empiricism which is one of the more fundamental belief systems. I think what bothers you is more along the lines of the metaphysics vs phenomenology duel. There is not much new to be said here: metaphysics let's you be with the certainty, truth, beauty, God, etc at the expense that the appropriate system does look as if not from this world, while phenomenology definitely appears to be a better way, but tell what can you tell with any rigor starting with a finite amount of appearances?
    366. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by x2A · · Score: 1

      "To me, "packet" implies that you can break it open and there's something smaller inside"

      I guess, perhaps the connotations attached to the word for me that come from networking (where you send/received packets of data) have altered my internal meaning... sure you can look inside a network packet (kind of a requirement!) but it can't go smaller than a certain size, it needs to be big enough to carry it's information, such as the address it's going to, and state information (eg to make sure it won't travel forever if it gets caught in a loop). Any smaller and it can't exist (not as a packet on the network at least). A packet of light has some similarities... it can't exist any smaller, not because it's carrying physical objects, but it does also carry information (wavelength is information, but requires energy to exist)... and in fact quantum cryptography is based on being able to read quantum states of individual (well, entangled) packets of light. So no, we may not be able to physically split it up, but there is more in a packet of light than err.... meets the eye?

      But I think we're probably entering more into the realms of language than physics now :-)

      --
      The revolution will not be televised... but it will have a page on Wikipedia
    367. Re:Logical positivism to the rescue... by papaTango · · Score: 1

      Wow! You can see the future! You're amazing!

      So tell me... while you're doing all this foretelling... who's going to win the Bold Ruler H run at Belmont Park on May 10? I'm just askin'.

      If Platonism is supposed to be so "religious," why is it that logical positivism implies that you have to be a prophet?

  2. Mathematics in the forms of human intuition by traindirector · · Score: 4, Insightful

    I much prefer the Kantian approach, which, simplified, is that space and time are the forms of human intuition, and it is these forms of intuition that lead to us understanding things the way we do (spacially and temporally, whose relationships are mathematical). "Things in themselves" are unknowable, and can only be approached through some set of references, whether it be through the space and time we perceive, other possible ways time and space could work (non-Euclidian geometries?), or ways we can't even imagine. Unlike Plato's idea, which is that mathematics involves universal truths we discover, Kant's "Copernican turn" puts the subject as the one who projects mathematics onto everything it experiences. Arguably, this is the idea that has lead to the "modern era".

    This makes mathematics the study of these forms of intuition, so unlike Plato's approach, we're not "discovering" universal ideas, but rather coming to understand the way we interpret the world (and by "we", I mean me, the beings who do science that makes sense to me, and probably most beings on earth whose methods of sensation resemble that of humans).

    To answer the question of discovery or invention from this perspective, we can invent ways to do mathematics, but the relationships themselves are a discovery of the way we intuit anything we can sense.

    1. Re:Mathematics in the forms of human intuition by Samgilljoy · · Score: 1

      I much prefer the Kantian approach, which, simplified, is that space and time are the forms of human intuition, and it is these forms of intuition that lead to us understanding things the way we do (spacially and temporally, whose relationships are mathematical). "Things in themselves" are unknowable, and can only be approached through some set of references, whether it be through the space and time we perceive, other possible ways time and space could work (non-Euclidian geometries?), or ways we can't even imagine. Unlike Plato's idea, which is that mathematics involves universal truths we discover, Kant's "Copernican turn" puts the subject as the one who projects mathematics onto everything it experiences. Arguably, this is the idea that has lead to the "modern era".

      This makes mathematics the study of these forms of intuition, so unlike Plato's approach, we're not "discovering" universal ideas, but rather coming to understand the way we interpret the world (and by "we", I mean me, the beings who do science that makes sense to me, and probably most beings on earth whose methods of sensation resemble that of humans).

      To answer the question of discovery or invention from this perspective, we can invent ways to do mathematics, but the relationships themselves are a discovery of the way we intuit anything we can sense.

      As soon as I saw "Kantian," I knew what my answer would be to the question, and I am very happy to see that someone articulated it breve et clare much better than I could have.

      .

      Sadly, I'm without mod points today, but I'm tipping my virtual hat.

    2. Re:Mathematics in the forms of human intuition by nine-times · · Score: 1

      Unlike Plato's idea, which is that mathematics involves universal truths we discover, Kant's "Copernican turn" puts the subject as the one who projects mathematics onto everything it experiences.

      Does Kant actually discuss the source of intuition? I don't remember him doing so in anything I've read. In that case, then Kant is not saying that we project math onto anything. What he's really pointing out there is that we don't learn about space (and therefore arguably geometry, and therefore arguably math) through empirical means, but rather through intuition. Whether those things exist "in themselves" depends on whether our intuition is actually accessing some source of real knowledge/understanding/whateveryouwanttocallit. I don't remember him saying asserting that this intuition is not coming from some sort of "world as it is in itself". Instead it seems to me that he indicates that we should trust intuition because we must trust it-- we have no other choice.

      Sorry to be pedantic, but it seems worth noting that Plato and Kant don't really differ that much on this subject. Both of them would say that mathematics are not created by a person, but derived from principles that we know a priori. Of course they might use different words.

    3. Re:Mathematics in the forms of human intuition by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Precisely. Also, mathematicians should stick to math. This question has absolutely nothing to do with mathematics, theoretical or otherwise. It is a question of epistemology. The particular subject is irrelevant.

    4. Re:Mathematics in the forms of human intuition by Reality+Master+201 · · Score: 1

      One could have summed up ever more succinctly:

      Both; see the Critique of Pure Reason, synthetic a priori judgements.

    5. Re:Mathematics in the forms of human intuition by smtrembl · · Score: 1

      I am currently studying and researching the matter, and here is a very good example about the _arguably philosophical_ roots of such a problem (in french):

      http://marsey.org/

    6. Re:Mathematics in the forms of human intuition by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      which just goes to show that Kant was more interested in social engineering than the true progress of mankind. Kant is also possibly the greatest intellectual idiot since Aristotle, or at least Voltaire...

    7. Re:Mathematics in the forms of human intuition by yariv · · Score: 1

      Do not mix science and mathematics, those are to distinct fields. For the objects described in mathematics there is no meaning to the "Things in themselves", they exist only as mathematical concepts. (unlike objects of the world described, in science, with the language of math).

      In my opinion, math is discovered, since there is no margin for change in it.

      Science is invented because it is only an approximation, so Newton invented his laws and Einstein invented similar laws later. Both are accepted because they are close to the way the nature actually behave. Other mechanisms would have been acceptable as well, as long as they are close to the "truth". In math, only the actual truth is accepted.

    8. Re:Mathematics in the forms of human intuition by traindirector · · Score: 1

      The spirit of what you're saying is correct, but you're confusing Kant's nuanced use of terms (which is not surprising if you're not an expert on this or looking at the intro at the moment).

      Does Kant actually discuss the source of intuition? I don't remember him doing so in anything I've read. In that case, then Kant is not saying that we project math onto anything.

      For Kant, there are multiple components of an intuition. Sensations are one part of an intuition; the other are the pure intuitions of space and time. You are correct in that the source of sensations (and therefore partially of intuitions) is not within Kant's scope (and he likely considers it unknowable). However, Kant does make clear that part of the source of intuitions is us. We bring the forms of pure intuition:

      In the transcendental aesthetic we shall, therefore, first isolate sensibility ["Objects are given to us by means of sensibility, and it alone yields us intuitions" (B33)]... we shall also separate off from it everything which belongs to sensation, so that nothing may remain save pure intuition and the mere form of appearances, which is all sensibility can supply a priori. (B36)

      So we "project" our pure intuitions of space and time onto sensations (whose origin Kant does not discuss). "Project" may not be the best verb, but it certainly applies. We are the ones who bring math; it is not within the sensations themselves:

      That in which alone the sensations can be posited and ordered in a certain form, cannot itself be sensation; and therefore, while the matter of all appearance is given to us a posteriori only, its form must lie ready for the sensations a priori in the mind, and so must allow of being considered apart from all sensation...I term all represenations pure (in the transcendental sense) in which there is nothing that belongs to sensation. ---

      What he's really pointing out there is that we don't learn about space (and therefore arguably geometry, and therefore arguably math) through empirical means, but rather through intuition.

      Correct, he is pointing this out, but it's not limited to learning about things; it is important too that we are actually the source. Interestingly, even though Kant doesn't get into this, space/geometry isn't the only link here; time works too (consider half-life).

      Both of them would say that mathematics are not created by a person, but derived from principles that we know a priori.

      I agree that their one-word answers to the question of the post, "is mathematics discovered or invented?", would be the same, but I think this is a pretty stupid question question in itself. The article talks a lot about the problems of Plato's view in accessing some other realm of numbers as if more interesting approaches, like Kant's, haven't been around for centuries. I'd rather discuss these than the question itself, which seems to overwhelming have received the response that it's a false dichotomy.

      Thanks for your postâ"I enjoyed the look back at the Transcendental Aesthetic to make sure I was right!

    9. Re:Mathematics in the forms of human intuition by traindirector · · Score: 1

      which just goes to show that Kant was more interested in social engineering than the true progress of mankind.

      I'm not giving accolades to the entire body of Kant's views and works; in fact, I haven't read most of them. Getting beyond the Critique, and even beyond the Transcendental Aesthetic, I lose interest pretty quickly.

      However, dismissing all the man's work because of the social conclusions he drew is ignorant. The type of non-conventional thinking that lead to the Transcendental Aesthetic is brilliant by any means and I believe it provides a solid base for appreciating individual perspectives much more than it supports the social engineering you reference, even if this isn't where Kant followed it.

    10. Re:Mathematics in the forms of human intuition by Samgilljoy · · Score: 1

      Hmm. The "source" of the intuition is the precondition of our subjectivity. Intuition isn't the best word to use, at least not in English, but yes, that's the first 80 pages of the Critique after the prefaces.

      Plato and Kant differ a great deal. The only reason you're equating them is because you've mistakenly attributed to Kant the idea that our ideas are to some large but undefined extent functions of the things in themselves. All we can say is that they're preconditions of our subjectivity. None of that would have made sense to Plato in the least. Remember Plato's cave: for him, there is ultimate reality and successively dimmer perceptions of it. The ideas are accessible to the most refined reason. To proceed up the chain Platonically is to get a better view of objective reality; the Kantian project brackets off objective reality and elaborates, paradoxically, a sort of transpersonal subjectivity.

      Besides, if you look at the Meno again, no one is deriving principles, we just supposedly know it all already like so many packets of data, and the major underpinning of this notion isn't that such knowledge is a precondition of our existence, or that universals underly our consciousness like archetypes of something, but that we've all lived past lives. The Meno explores the learning paradox. This modern debate may call the discovery of mathematics idea Platonic, but it isn't, unless they are using "mathematics" as short hand for "all knowledge."

    11. Re:Mathematics in the forms of human intuition by martin-boundary · · Score: 1
      You're missing a major point about Kant, namely that he died before non-euclidean geometry was generally discovered, and as a result his ideas about space and time are wrong.

      Kant believed that Euclidean geometry was an a priori synthetic concept, and therefore a suitable foundation to build his philosophy upon. Since everybody in those days believed that Euclidean geometry was the only possible geometry, it made sense to think that such a geometry could be known intrinsically.

      But 30 years after Kant died, Euclid fifth postulate was shown to be replaceable with other assumptions, to the surprise and consternation of many. As a result, what Kant thought was a strong foundation for his philosophy is really not, and he ends up talking much about things which don't make any sense in hindsight.

    12. Re:Mathematics in the forms of human intuition by nine-times · · Score: 1

      Plato and Kant differ a great deal.

      I don't believe they would be on this particular issue, i.e. whether math is "made up" or somehow "inherent" (assuming that's the question that people are really trying to get to). I think both would probably agree that mathematical principles are not "made up".

      Anyhow, I don't really want to get into a generalized philosophic argument, but you might be reading Plato a bit too literally. Plato may have actually believed in reincarnation (who really knows what Plato actually thought?), but it certainly wasn't the only thing at stake in those dialogs. In large part, he was demonstrating an inherent paradox in learning, that you would not be able to learn things if you didn't already have a sort of "knowledge" already, before you began learning, that allowed you to recognize and affirm true things (or at least dismiss false things). You can reconcile that idea with Kant to some degree, if you think of that "knowledge" as being "intuition". While Plato might claim that this "knowledge" must be correct in order for us to know anything, Kant might claim that this "intuition" must be accepted in order for us to think. For both of them, the sort of "knowledge" necessary would include math to some degree. In that sense (if only in that sense), Plato and Kant are not that far apart.

      Sorry if I'm speaking too loosely for you. I'm probably not using terminology in the most proper way, but it's been several years. But I'm fairly confident that my recollection of the ideas isn't far off.

    13. Re:Mathematics in the forms of human intuition by traindirector · · Score: 1

      You're missing a major point about Kant, namely that he died before non-euclidean geometry was generally discovered, and as a result his ideas about space and time are wrong.

      I'm not missing that point; in fact, I would argue that Kant's position on space and time as human forms of intuition made possible the rational explanation of non-Euclidean geometries. If there was no historical connection between his publication leading someone to do work with non-Euclidean geometries, his position certainly suggests their possibility.

      First, consider previous views, like Plato's, that saw geometry as something absolute and independent of the perceiver. Geometry was in a realm of ideas and was absolute, regardless of the perceiver. It described things "as they are". This left no room and made irrational the idea of non-Euclidean geometries.

      Kant believed that Euclidean geometry was an a priori synthetic concept, and therefore a suitable foundation to build his philosophy upon.

      This is where you totally misunderstand Kant. Yes, Euclidean geometry is an a priori synthetic concept for us. But his philosophy is not built on Euclidean geometry. It is built on the idea that we experience Euclidean geometry, but that Euclidean geometry is only the way we experience, not the way things actually are. This idea was pretty radical, and was the first I know of to explain how there could be other possible geometries.

      Once Kant published his idea, a natural question, which isn't Kant's focus but is extremely compelling, is "our intuition provides things in a Euclidean geometry, but can we understand things in other ways?" There are many other possible ways that other beings could experience things, and even different ways that we can imagine things workings (by substituting postulates, etc.) Perhaps other beings' intuitions involve space based on a non-Euclidean geometry. Kant's approach not only acknowledges that other possible forms of intuition could exist; it is rare among positions at the time (if not the only one) that make room for their existence.

      I'm not saying that Kant never said anything that implicates Euclidean as the only type of geometry. I am saying, however, that the base he lays in the Transcendental Aesthetic opens a new realm, not present in previous philosophies, in which non-Euclidean geometries can exist.

    14. Re:Mathematics in the forms of human intuition by martin-boundary · · Score: 1
      I tend to be reluctant to interpret historical works in more modern terms, a case well argued by Ivor Grattan-Guinness.

      When you're arguing that Kant's erroneous beliefs about geometry do not invalidate his main point about intuition, you're taking a modern point of view, wherein a failure of fact in this case is not critical, because subsequent and independent developments by others have given value to the overall conception.

      Yet Kant's philosophy is not clearly superior to other approaches, and therefore it seems to me you should be asking: were Kant's _contemporaries_ clearly convinced of the arbitrariness of intuition about space, time, arithmetic, as we are these days, ie on the strength of his work rather than with hindsight?

      Remember, non-Euclidean geometry was introduced in the 1830s and only seriously considered around the 1850s, that's two generations after Kant, and the foundations of arithmetic only began to be studied in the late 19th century, that's three to four generations already.

    15. Re:Mathematics in the forms of human intuition by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Kant believed that Euclidean geometry was an a priori synthetic concept, and therefore a suitable foundation to build his philosophy upon.

      This is where you totally misunderstand Kant. Yes, Euclidean geometry is an a priori synthetic concept for us. But his philosophy is not built on Euclidean geometry. It is built on the idea that we experience Euclidean geometry, but that Euclidean geometry is only the way we experience, not the way things actually are. This idea was pretty radical, and was the first I know of to explain how there could be other possible geometries.

      A good point. Non-Euclidean geometry doesn't change anything about Kant's explanation of what time and space are (i. e., what they are for us).

      When we imagine non-Euclidean space, we do always do this in terms of Euclidean geometry: When we talk about curved spacetime, we imagine that the Euclidean space is somehow bend--but that imagination always includes a two-dimensional space, with the curve introduced by a "magical" third dimension: That is a classical, three-dimensional Euclidean space. We can talk about the curves, we can make calculations about these curves, but we can't feel--and we can't understand--what these curves actually are, because our mind is all Euclidean.

      The fact that we see, feel and think Euclidean, albeit other geometries are equally or even better suited to describe the universe, strongly supports Kant's theory about space and time being a priori.

    16. Re:Mathematics in the forms of human intuition by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Dude, he deduced from reason alone that time was a phenomena relative to the perceiver, long before the physical theory of relativity. He essentially said "Oh by the way guys, time isn't part of the universe out there. It's part of us. It is an inescapable part of our minds." No, he didn't come up with general relativity. He wasn't even a precursor to it. But he did solve a completely different problem, the philosophical one that he was interested in, in a completely new way that just happened to a) make a hell of a lot of sense, and b) be completely compatible with a radical new theory of the physical universe that only became widely adopted 150 years after he died.

      What everyone else is trying to say here is that he did the same thing with geometry. In fact it was for exactly the same reason - time and geometric truths fall under the same epistemological category for Kant.

    17. Re:Mathematics in the forms of human intuition by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      And in fact that was the basis of his argument: you can conceive of the world being different in all kinds of ways. Your couch could be on the other wall, etc. But you cannot conceive of time not existing, or of effects without causes, or of anything but rigid three-dimensional space (you can put numbers to them, but not spacial imagination), or of 1 + 1 equaling 3.

      Since everything about the sensible world is malleable, and might have been some other way, these things must not be of the sensible world. We must not sense them like we sense other things about the world - perhaps instead they are part of *how* we sense the world. Forms of perception that are impossible to dispense with, because they are the very rules that define our thoughts in the first place.

    18. Re:Mathematics in the forms of human intuition by colinrichardday · · Score: 1

      Did it ever occur to Kant that human "intuition" is itself the result of "things in themselves" imposing themselves on us? That is, that our visual intuition is Euclidean because spacetime is, over the scale of human perception, Euclidean.

      Also, do we impose spacetime on "things in themselves", or is spacetime itself a "thing in itself"?

  3. I know this! by ForumTroll · · Score: 5, Funny

    It's intelligently designed.

    --
    "A Lisp programmer knows the value of everything, but the cost of nothing." - Alan Perlis
    1. Re:I know this! by nabil2199 · · Score: 1

      It's intelligently designed. 6000 years ago like everything else
    2. Re:I know this! by goombah99 · · Score: 1

      It's intelligently designed. by turtles!

      --
      Some drink at the fountain of knowledge. Others just gargle.
    3. Re:I know this! by $0.02 · · Score: 1

      No. Math IS the Designer.

      --
      If enithin kan gow rong it whil. (Murfey)
  4. Patently Obvious.... by headkase · · Score: 3, Insightful

    Of course the answer could lead to further locking up knowledge... You can't read my theorem until you pay the license type deal.

    --
    Shh.
  5. discover? create? same difference by xPsi · · Score: 1

    I think the characterization of "discovered" in this context has been somewhat mischaracterized. Mathematics, the study of generalized rule sets using logic, the language of algorithm, is "discovered" in the same way creative works of literature or music are "discovered." With some generalized state space of rules, every possible output, idea, or concept constrained by those rules can be indexed in this space. This can be in "in principle" thing -- i.e. you don't have to know all the rules to acknowledge a state space exists containing all outputs of the rules; indeed also containing all the possible rules themselves. If that state space is big enough, the process of discovery becomes indistinguishable from creativity, since finding non-trivial points at random in that space becomes very improbable.

    --
    i\hbar\dot{\psi}=\hat{H}\psi
  6. Invented and Discovered by Torodung · · Score: 1

    It is invented, in that we have set the rules of logic, and other rules and therefore it is one of the few disciplines where there is a "correct" answer, and all other answers are demonstrably wrong. That's because we set the rules, and it is therefore a finite system that we can fully understand.

    It is discovered in that when we set new rules, we have yet to discover all the implications of that new rule. Such as chaos mathematics being a natural implication of setting a value to the square root of negative one, which has no real mathematical meaning. We just set a value because we needed to.

    It is also discovered in that we discover how our invented system relates to the real world, the non-finite system, by which all of "nature" operates. Discovering this relationship between our invention, mathematics, and the universe at large, is what drives mathematics. Discovering the point at which they interface is a profound experience.

    So I'd have to say: it is both an invented and discovered system, and the two forces (reality vs. theory) are what drive new mathematical concepts, and most of the natural sciences.

    It's a false dichotomy. Have fun assuming you can't have it both ways, folks. ;^)

    --
    Toro

    1. Re:Invented and Discovered by Nicolay77 · · Score: 1

      I wrote about it in another post, but I think I will repeat it here:

      The answers lies in the computation of Chaitin's omega.

      My simplified explanation is this:
      - Axioms are always invented. Theorems that derive from this axioms are discovered.
      - To get useful results, you sometimes have to invent as much axioms as you get theorems. And sometimes few axioms give you an amazing lot of useful theorems.

      So the real answer is YMMV.

      --
      We are Turing O-Machines. The Oracle is out there.
    2. Re:Invented and Discovered by Torodung · · Score: 1

      Yup. And that set of inventions/discoveries only goes as far as inside the philosophy of mathematics itself. Then you get into the practical application, which is almost entirely a discovery process.

      I jumped off the math truck somewhere after multivariable calc, but I appreciate your summary.

      --
      Toro

  7. Connection to math = The Universe by Shatrat · · Score: 2, Interesting

    human minds engaged in doing mathematics must somehow be able to connect with this non-physical state. Wouldn't this just be our observations of the world around us?
    I haven't read TFA yet but it sounds like a troll written by someone who doesn't really grok math and physics (not that I completely do either).
    Take addition for example.
    Did some balding Greek define addition, or did he have 1 apple in one hand, 1 apple in the other hand, and discover that he had 2 apples total?
    --
    09 F9 11 02 9D 74 E3 5B D8 41 56 C5 63 56 88 C0
  8. How is this a debate? It's both. by ArsonSmith · · Score: 3, Insightful

    The concept was invented.

    What can be done with it is then discovered.

    --
    Paying taxes to buy civilization is like paying a hooker to buy love.
    1. Re:How is this a debate? It's both. by Bill,+Shooter+of+Bul · · Score: 3, Insightful

      Thats absurd.

      The concept was discovered, then we invented new methods of math based upon the discovery of Math ;)

      --
      Well.. maybe. Or Maybe not. But Definitely not sort of.
    2. Re:How is this a debate? It's both. by SpinyNorman · · Score: 1

      That's deep.

      You must be the next fuckin' Plato.

    3. Re:How is this a debate? It's both. by PenguinX · · Score: 1

      I'm not entirely following, are you saying that mankind, or some mathematically non-contingent entity invented Mathematics?

      cheers
      -b

    4. Re:How is this a debate? It's both. by zippthorne · · Score: 1

      It's not both or neither. It's a zen kone.

      First you ask the question.

      Then you think about it for a lifetime.

      Then you go out for ice cream.

      --
      Can you be Even More Awesome?!
    5. Re:How is this a debate? It's both. by Nicolay77 · · Score: 1

      "Concepts" is too general.

      Divide it in axioms, definitions and theorems, and you will see the difference.

      --
      We are Turing O-Machines. The Oracle is out there.
  9. invented by kennylogins · · Score: 0

    it's the name of a system designed to model reality

  10. So why do we care? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    The terms 'discovered' and 'invented' are only ever approximations to what is really going on in someone's head any given situation. They are just words. Why would mathematicians (or non-mathematicians for that matter) care?

  11. MOD PARENT UP by Torodung · · Score: 1

    God, I wish I could say things with such brevity. Bingo. You win the cupie doll.

    --
    Toro

    1. Re:MOD PARENT UP by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      "kewpie".

  12. Discovering the relationship-Inventing the Theory by thinktech · · Score: 1

    We discover the already existing relationship between numbers and we invent the theory that describes this relationship.

    --
    What's up with this box everyone has to think inside of or outside of? Why does there have to be a box?
  13. isn't this more a question of philosophy by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    and the history of philosophy?

    or am i not supposed to bring up the 'fluffy liberal arts major' stuff here on the great engineering round table discussion board?

    1. Re:isn't this more a question of philosophy by PenguinX · · Score: 1

      Yes, perhaps and it would be accurate to say that mathematics, logic, science, and philosophy have more to do with each other than meet the eye.

      -b

  14. Is Mathematics Discovered Or Invented? by SamP2 · · Score: 5, Interesting

    Is Mathematics Discovered Or Invented?
     
    Neither. It is defined.

    1. Re:Is Mathematics Discovered Or Invented? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      That's beside the point. The question is what the nature of a definition is: Does a definition describe or does it create? The object of a definition either existed before the definition or it didn't. It's like asking whether a statue exists "inside" a block of marble before the artist removes the other pieces of marble. Yes, certainly everything that comprises the statue already exists, but the artist's selection didn't. In this case we're not interested in the marble, but in the artist's separation of statue and non-statue.

      The philosophical question behind all that is whether math is "natural", if it is the only "logical" choice of axioms because the set of axioms is inherent to the universe or because it is built into us, who observe the universe. Are we the source of math or do we discover something which exists beyond us?

    2. Re:Is Mathematics Discovered Or Invented? by aztektum · · Score: 2, Interesting

      Too paraphrase some Buddhist thoughts on the idea of value, the only value anything has is that which we create for it. Nothing has intrinsic value until individuals express value for it.

      Applied to math, you could say mathematics is a series of definitions we've created to describe an observed phenomenon or hypothesize the existence of an as yet unobserved phenomenon.

      But what the hell do I know? I'm neither a philosopher or a mathematician.

      --
      :: aztek ::
      No sig for you!!
    3. Re:Is Mathematics Discovered Or Invented? by gmuslera · · Score: 1

      Kinda like when we ask ourselves if a tree falls it make sound if noone is there to observe that. Im more akin to the "define" choice... we just put a name (numbers, operations, etc) of what is already there.

      Dont think in something like a big rock from where we take from it an statue, think in sand, water drops, etc that adds, substracts, etc. At least, for the very basic of mathematics.

      Now. mathematics is too big for a word, probably part can be counted as defined, another part is discovery, and another, invention (maybe non-euclidian geometries, or imaginary numbers fall in this category).

    4. Re:Is Mathematics Discovered Or Invented? by biljir · · Score: 1

      This is actually a smart answer.

      IMO, the truths of mathematics are objectively true - and exist independently of human thought. You will nowhere find aliens who have proved that 1+1 = 3, though you may well find some who think the whole idea uninteresting or useless, and even some who cannot understand what you mean by "one". And this applies equally to excruciatingly difficult truths of mathematics. Fermat's Last Theorem is objectively true, and all that Wells did was find a way to show everyone that.

      Nevertheless, mathematics is an intensely creative process, and the creativity is in what you think about. There are lots of mathematical objects out there, and some of them are more fruitful and more interesting to us humans than others. Oftentimes, the key to a hard proof is coming up with the right objects, the right definitions, to allow you to make the leap of logic to the larger goal. These defined objects have also always been out there in the timeless mathematical universe, but right along with them are an infinite number of useless objects and concepts, as well as some wondrous objects that no one has yet found the use of.

      This is one reason that human mathematicians beat theorem-provers. The mechanical theorem provers have no concept of interestingness, and will prove an infinite number of theorems of no possible interest. Real mathematicians have the intuition, and the cleverness, to not waste their time in the chaff, and to seek out the beautiful and productive. It is extraordinarily creative. And the key act is often "Let's give this thing I have just come up with a name, so it is easier to work with". In other words, the act of definition.

    5. Re:Is Mathematics Discovered Or Invented? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Thank you!
      Not being a mathematician, I was reading the arguments and wondering the obvious word wasn't being employed!
      I am a designer, or at least do some designing, and I am nearly driven to distraction by people who will insist on using the word 'invention'!
      there is a great deal of design done. there is very little 'invention'!

  15. It's both by Eevee · · Score: 1

    It's a floor wax and a dessert topping.

    1. Re:It's both by wbaxter1 · · Score: 1

      Thanks, that line was going around in my brain when I saw your response freakin' awsome :D

  16. I think by maroberts · · Score: 0, Redundant

    ...that an Intelligent Designer made Mathematics about 6,000 years ago.

    --

    Donte Alistair Anderson Roberts - hi son!
    Karma: Chameleon

    1. Re:I think by Philomathie · · Score: 1

      No.

  17. The short answer: by Ethanol-fueled · · Score: 1

    Neither.

    Mathematics is just another rock to the sculptor: It's in plain sight for all to see but it takes skilled artisans to give it life and make sense of it.

  18. Only the integers by Animats · · Score: 4, Interesting

    Integers were discovered. Beyond that, it's human invention.

    I used to do work on mechanical theorem proving, and spent quite a bit of time using the Boyer-Moore theorem prover. When you try to mechanize the process, it's clearer what is discovered (and can be found by search algorithms) and what is made up. Boyer-Moore theory builds up mathematics from something close to the Peano axioms. But it's a purely constructive system. There are no quantifiers, only recursive functions. It's possible to start with a minimal set of definitions and build up number theory and set theory. The system is initialized with a few definitions, and, one at a time, theorems are fed in. Each theorem, once proved, can be used in other theorems. After a few hundred theorems, most of number theory is defined.

    But you never get real numbers that way. Integer, yes. Fractions, yes. Floating point numbers, representation limits and all, yes. But no reals. Reals require additional axioms.

    1. Re:Only the integers by Ralph+Spoilsport · · Score: 1
      Correct. Quantities do exist in the universe - otherwise, the universe wouldn't have things in it, it would just be one big undifferentiated mass.

      But the rest of it? Nope. It's our language center tapping in to our numeracy center, and then confabulating all this "math".

      The Platonists are funny - they get all worked up about this "NO!!! WE ARE DISCOVERING TRUTHS!!!" and well, they're not, but it's nice that they think they are - gives them and their pointy little heads something to thump their chests over.

      A good book on a similar topic is Stanislaus Dehaene's "The Number Sense".

      RS

      --
      Shoes for Industry. Shoes for the Dead.
    2. Re:Only the integers by Sique · · Score: 1

      Those axioms being the Archimedical one and the Cauchy/Dirichlet/WeierstraÃY one.

      --
      .sig: Sique *sigh*
    3. Re:Only the integers by nine-times · · Score: 3, Interesting

      Integers were discovered. Beyond that, it's human invention.

      I can make a strong case that negative integers are invented. Because you can't have -3 apples. We invented the negative numbers to indicate a loss of positive numbers. We also invented fractions to stand in for ratios.

      Sort of.

    4. Re:Only the integers by Guy+Harris · · Score: 1

      I can make a strong case that negative integers are invented.

      Given that the post to which you were replying referred to the Peano axioms, methinks the person who wrote said post meant to say "natural numbers were discovered" (which would then lead to the negative integers being invented), although perhaps he was citing Leopold Kronecker.

    5. Re:Only the integers by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      "Integers were discovered. Beyond that, it's human invention."

      Oh please. Get the quote right:
      "God created the integers. Man the rest."

    6. Re:Only the integers by 644bd346996 · · Score: 1

      Pi is not an integer. Do you believe that it was invented? I think anybody using reasonable definitions of "invented" and "discovered" would say that the fact that the radius and circumference of any circle have the same ratio is a discovered fact, not any human creation.

    7. Re:Only the integers by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I can make a strong case that negative integers are invented. Because you can't have -3 apples. We invented the negative numbers to indicate a loss of positive numbers. We also invented fractions to stand in for ratios.

      I think you are onto something. The "Platonists" tend to think math is discovered because of simple cases like I have two cows and you have two cows. I steal your two cows and now I have four cows. These might be discovered, but there are mathematical things that are invented like imaginary numbers, etc. So it is both, but not at the same time. Some math is discovered (or rather, abstracted from discoveries), but some is purely invented.

    8. Re:Only the integers by Kooshman · · Score: 1

      There are no quantifiers, only recursive functions. Not quite true-- the theorems don't display the quantifiers, but they're there if you look at the underlying logic. All ACL2 theorems are implicitly universally quantified over any "free variable" in the theorem. It would probably also be prudent to mention that ACL2 only accepts total (works on any input) and provably terminating (each recursion decreases some measure) recursive functions.

      Your point about these items forcing it to be heavily constructive still stands, though, for the most part. I'll avoid getting into caveats about using "encapsulation".
    9. Re:Only the integers by neurolux · · Score: 0

      Integers were discovered. Beyond that, it's human invention.

      But can transcendental numbers be found using integers? If not, they were discovered too.
    10. Re:Only the integers by liquidf · · Score: 1

      pfft, now you are going to tell me zero doesn't exist, right after you steal my cows...

      --
      i've had just about enough of your vassar bashing.
    11. Re:Only the integers by koinu · · Score: 1

      And "someone" finally discovered reals while playing around with triangles.

    12. Re:Only the integers by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Yep, people consider the natural numbers to be the only "natural ones".

      Heck, there's still debate about whether zero "exists". Is nothing something?

    13. Re:Only the integers by Animats · · Score: 1

      I can make a strong case that negative integers are invented.

      In fact, in Boyer-Moore theory, negative numbers are defined by creating a type that has a nonnegative number and a sign. Then "Add" and "Sub" are defined for that type, in forms that have conditionals. Then the usual theorems are proved about the new type, with the prover doing the case analysis. It's kind of ugly looking from the perspective of traditional mathematics, and this used to bother some people. You get to the usual statements about the integers in a few seconds of prover time. But they're theorems, not axioms.

    14. Re:Only the integers by austior · · Score: 1

      You don't need additional axioms to define the reals, they are defined using infinite sequences of rational numbers. Oh, and any creative enough theorem prover (mechanized or not) would eventually invent analysis (the study of real numbers)just because it is useful to number theory. Most really hard questions in number theory are difficult or impossible to prove without analysis.

    15. Re:Only the integers by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I can make a strong case that negative integers are invented. Because you can't have -3 apples. We invented the negative numbers to indicate a loss of positive numbers. Not really a case. How is it that you "can't have -3 apples", yet can have "a loss of [3 apples]"? How is that not the same thing, only phrased two different ways? You seem to be implying that Gain is somehow the default action of the universe, with Loss being somehow anomalous. Of course you can have -3 apples, just as easily as you can have +3 apples.

    16. Re:Only the integers by Nicolay77 · · Score: 1

      So, in order to discover real numbers, you have to invent more axioms.

      P.D.: I'm expecting an answer like: "I see what you did there." :D

      --
      We are Turing O-Machines. The Oracle is out there.
    17. Re:Only the integers by Animats · · Score: 1

      The Platonists are funny - they get all worked up about this "NO!!! WE ARE DISCOVERING TRUTHS!!!"

      The original Platonists started from geometry, specifically the geometry of idealized abstract forms. Given that starting point, you're led to invent the mathematics of real numbers.

      If you approach geometry from a numerical perspective, you're led in an entirely different direction.

      Being one of the early developers of game physics engines, I've had the amusing experience of watching the top people in video game physics fill up whiteboards with math. No rigor at all. No proofs. But good work. Totally different from academia.

    18. Re:Only the integers by ghettoimp · · Score: 1

      Formal logics (which mechanical provers use) only establish syntactic rules for manipulating symbols. If you believe your axioms are "true" and your manipulations are "truth preserving," then you may apply the rules in a clever way to conclude some formula is also true.

      I agree that figuring out how to apply the rules is a very inventive process. Yet, the fruit of your invention is, I think, fairly called a discovery: you have discovered that your formula is provable. But this is a fact which follows from your choice of axioms and rules. That is, the formulas has been provable all along. Your invention has not changed this fact, it has only made you aware of it.

      Unrelated ACL2 nitpicking about quantifiers: encapsulate doesn't have anything to do with quantification since you have to provide witnesses to show your constraints can be met, but the infrequently-used "defchoose" command can be used when you want a quantifier. Of course, there are other theorem provers (like Coq and Nuprl) which are purely constructive.

  19. Discovered by sbillard · · Score: 1
    In the first few chapters of Roger Penrose's "The Road To Reality", he convincingly puts forth the argument that mathematics have been discovered by human intellect. More so, mathematical discoveries have been explored long before their physical manifestations were understood, such as hyperbolic geometry, imaginary numbers and the complex plane.


    It's more than a line from the movie "Pi", it's the plain truth; "Mathematics is the language of nature". Too bad we remain collectively illiterate.

  20. Sorry, It's Invented by Discovery by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Here's how it works-- a person discovers how nature works, and then invents math to describe it.
    Most people use the word 'math' to describe both the underlying function of nature and the language we use to describe such events, which is the only reason the debate exists.

    Basically this is just a bunch of people with nothing better to do than argue about terminology that nobody else cares about.

  21. Axioms vs. theorems by G4from128k · · Score: 4, Insightful

    I'd say that one "invents" a set of axioms and "discovers" the inevitable logical consequences of those axioms. For example, one might invent a negation of Euclid's 5th postulate and discover non-Euclidean geometry. In the process, one might "invent" a proof which is a path that leads from axioms to theorems.

    The point is that the axioms don't exist until we create them. But once we create a set of axioms, then the results are an inevitable (if arduous) journey of discovery which might require clever inventions to reach the destination of mathematical knowledge.

    --
    Two wrongs don't make a right, but three lefts do.
    1. Re:Axioms vs. theorems by schnitzi · · Score: 1

      I disagree. Axioms are "discovered" by mathematicians who start with some math that we already know and gradually boil it down to its fundamental elements -- those pieces that we can't derive from other parts. And mathematicians from different cultures working independently tend to arrive at the same set of axioms, which indicates to me that they are "out there" waiting to be discovered.

      If anything, the axioms are the discoveries, and the rest is what we create with them.

      --



      I object to that article, and to the next reply.
    2. Re:Axioms vs. theorems by Kjella · · Score: 1

      I agree with this interpretation. If something is to be discovered, it must already exist. You can dream up endless sets of axioms, things that are so absurd and meaningless with absolutely no foundation in reality but that still is valid math. This tells me that axioms are invented, not discovered. As for theorems, I went a little bit in circles until I started to think about it like discovering a chemical reaction. Even if I never noticed that the sum of 1...n = n*(n+1)/2 it's always been true, even if I've not been aware of it. That is something you discover, just like you discover the chemical reaction even though it's been happening the whole time. In either case it makes no sense to say that you've invented it and somehow changed it's properties to something new. That said, I wouldn't by that say that discoveries are any more or less important than inventions.

      --
      Live today, because you never know what tomorrow brings
    3. Re:Axioms vs. theorems by naasking · · Score: 1

      Axioms themselves can be both discovered and invented. Interesting point about proofs being inventions though. I hadn't considered that line of reasoning.

    4. Re:Axioms vs. theorems by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      "The point is that the axioms don't exist until we create them." -What do you have to say about the axioms that existence exists and that you are conscious of it? That axiom has existed before you could wipe your own ass.

      "But once we create a set of axioms, then the results are an inevitable (if arduous) journey of discovery which might require clever inventions to reach the destination of mathematical knowledge." -Once we discover the axioms at work and realize that existence presupposes consciousness, that is, once you die, existence will keep on going, we have a basis in which to build further knowledge about the world that exists around us through a logical progression of thought based on existence.

      Mathematics is a way to define objects in existence, didn't you guys ever see sesame street?
    5. Re:Axioms vs. theorems by John+Hasler · · Score: 1

      > You can dream up endless sets of axioms, things that are so absurd and meaningless with
      > absolutely no foundation in reality but that still is valid math. This tells me that
      > axioms are invented, not discovered.

      How do you determine that it is "valid math"? Where did you get the rules for doing so? Did you invent them?

      --
      Warning: this article may contain humor, sarcasm, parody, and perhaps even irony. Read at your own risk.
  22. both? by Khashishi · · Score: 3, Interesting

    Geometry and number theory can be derived from a few axioms. These axioms are chosen to give geometries and/or numbers which are useful for describing nature, but you could also generate other geometries by using a different starting point. Since the starting axioms are ultimately arbitrary, everything constructed from them is just an invention. However, at some level, the proofs fall back on pure logic and set theory. Is logic invented? I don't know. There are forms of logic with different rules, but there's seems to be something fundamental about the basic logic of sets. So some of math might be called discovered?

    1. Re:both? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It is interesting that sets are what you consider fundamental. I once studied logic, and what was striking to me was how arbitrary sets were. Sets seem to exist only in that we invented them and rules for the in order to give order to our thoughts.

      There are even logicians that question the theory of contradiction. When we discuss the basic rules on logic, it is less often about which ones are true, and more often a debate of how absurd the results would be if any given one was true or false.

      For the record, I am on the invented side. We don't encounter math. We use math to as a tool to make sense of things, and have selected rules that are very good at doing this.

  23. Parallel by blaster151 · · Score: 5, Interesting

    Are songs discovered or written?

    1. Re:Parallel by Shazow · · Score: 4, Funny

      You mean... is the music on my hard drive stolen or was it collaborated on by hundreds of peers, each telling my box of one small chunk from it?

      - shazow

    2. Re:Parallel by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      assembled.

    3. Re:Parallel by aztektum · · Score: 1

      is the music on my hard drive stolen No it's infringing copyright :P
      --
      :: aztek ::
      No sig for you!!
    4. Re:Parallel by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Not a bad analogy. Music in general is discovered up to a point: harmonics and chordal progressions are a natural phenomenon, not invented by anyone. But past that point, it really depends on your interests and proclivities.

    5. Re:Parallel by pablodiazgutierrez · · Score: 1

      The answer to that would probably have something to do with the disappointing realization by this former college student that most relevant work on AI is essentially a form of constrained searching.

    6. Re:Parallel by Ikester8 · · Score: 1

      If it's a blues song, it's discovered. Everything else is written.

      --
      That's the last time I run code posted in somebody's sig...
    7. Re:Parallel by FreeUser · · Score: 1

      Neither. They're sung.

      --
      The Future of Human Evolution: Autonomy
  24. All the same? by Thyamine · · Score: 3, Interesting

    Isn't it very close to being the same thing. It seems to me that you could argue that anything invented is really just being discovered. Someone can invent carbon steel, but aren't they just discovering the formula that nature says will work? Even complex systems that are invented (machines, computers, etc) are really just taking simple discoveries and weaving them together to discover something new and more complicated.

    --
    I will shred my adversaries. Pull their eyes out just enough to turn them towards their mewing, mutilated faces. Illyria
  25. Discovery Need Not Imply Metaphysics by John+Hasler · · Score: 1

    > The article notes that one difficulty pointed out with the Platonic view is that, if
    > mathematical ideas exist in some way independent of humans or minds, then human minds
    > engaged in doing mathematics must somehow be able to connect with this non-physical
    > state.

    That doesn't follow. The math may be embodied in the physical universe in which the human brains are embedded. One need not postulate a non-physical state. The convergence of math and physics tends to support this.

    --
    Warning: this article may contain humor, sarcasm, parody, and perhaps even irony. Read at your own risk.
    1. Re:Discovery Need Not Imply Metaphysics by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      My answer would be that mathssss is a representation of the fundamental symmetries in nature. What explains the fundamental symmetries? Well if they weren't there we wouldn't be here to ask the question.

    2. Re:Discovery Need Not Imply Metaphysics by Eli+Gottlieb · · Score: 1

      Who says we wouldn't be here? Why should only the particular set of fundamental axioms and constants we observe support human(oid) life?

      Maybe with another set of fundamentals we'd just have a race of Great Old Ones walking around asking the same damn questions we do.

      See Asimov's "The Gods Themselves".

    3. Re:Discovery Need Not Imply Metaphysics by Stalyn · · Score: 1

      That doesn't follow. The math may be embodied in the physical universe in which the human brains are embedded. One need not postulate a non-physical state. The convergence of math and physics tends to support this.

      sad you didn't get modded up for this

      --
      The best education consists in immunizing people against systematic attempts at education. - Paul Feyerabend
    4. Re:Discovery Need Not Imply Metaphysics by colinrichardday · · Score: 1

      A problem with the part that you cited is how can mathematical ideas exist with minds? Mathematical objects, on the other hand, may well be independent of minds.

  26. They assume by jd · · Score: 1
    ....that the abstract must be connected to, as per the Platonic ideas of, say, circleness or triangularness. This is fundamentally flawed, in that it assumes a property is inherited from somewhere. This defies common experience, where things can be approximate, or can even hold multiple characteristics. In other words, things are far more fluid than either pure Platonists or these anti-Platonists would have you believe. Things do not have a single, fixed, unit, discrete value. Well, some things do, and it's nothing to do with humans ascribing the value. Pi would hold the value of Pi had humans never evolved.

    They also assume mathemtics is uniquely human. We know of animals that can perform basic arithmetic and even have a notion of zero. Ergo, mathematics is not uniquely human. Coincidental inventions happen, usually when the basic idea has been around for a while and the invention is "ready" to be invented, but this clearly does not apply to cross-species discoveries of things like zero, as there is no connection whatsoever between those discoveries.

    --
    It's a small world and it smells funny; I'd buy another if it wasn't for the money; Take back what I paid (SoM)
    1. Re:They assume by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You say that "we know of animals that can perform basic arithmetic and even have a notion of zero". Being a bear of very little brain indeed, I am intrigued by this, at the very least from a methodological point of view. Would you care to give references backing up this statement?
      Or do I find myself yet again in the "goldfish have an attention span of seven seconds" territory so dearly held by the tabloid press?

    2. Re:They assume by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Pi would hold the value of Pi had humans never evolved. Since you state that so nonchalantly, I suspect that you don't understand the problem. The concepts which result in Pi and its value may well only exist in us. The fact that we recognize mathematical concepts everywhere, for example in the behavior of animals, does not contradict that.
    3. Re:They assume by jd · · Score: 1

      A subset cannot be its own superset. Ergo, if the superset contains constants on which all can agree by independent observation, it cannot be a property of the subset. QED.

      --
      It's a small world and it smells funny; I'd buy another if it wasn't for the money; Take back what I paid (SoM)
    4. Re:They assume by jd · · Score: 1

      Check prior Slashdot stories and most of the Internet for stories on Alex the African Grey. That's the start of the chain, the story that got people looking. You'll find other examples from there.

      --
      It's a small world and it smells funny; I'd buy another if it wasn't for the money; Take back what I paid (SoM)
  27. "Remarkably"? No. by BorgCopyeditor · · Score: 1

    It's not remarkable that such a thing is still being discussed. It is not a question that mathematics, however advanced, can resolve, since it is not a mathematical question. It's a question about mathematics itself.

    Also, the answer should be "discovered," but some things that people do look more like invention. I think they're fooling themselves, but try telling them that.

    --
    Shop as usual. And avoid panic buying.
  28. Platonic? by DrEldarion · · Score: 1

    Oh no, math and I have a far more... intimate relationship.

  29. My inner electron by goombah99 · · Score: 1

    I must be imbued with electron-ness, I'm made of electrons so by this logic I must have to connect with my inner electron to manifest my existence.

    No, wait, that's all negative. Let me connect with my inner proton, that's a positive outlook. Me thinks that these people who require one to "be the thing you think about" are searching for more than is there. One might say they are "more"-ons.

    Why do I have to have a carrier signal to planet math to use math?

    That said, I do know that when I'm deep inside a program it is a left brained experience. I'm fully aware of the rest of the programs existence even though my right-brained eyes see but a few lines at a time. I feel it's flow though the coed itself never moves.

    To there is a sensory nature to programming that is like being able touch things that are abstractions.

    But so what I can use it without being it.

    --
    Some drink at the fountain of knowledge. Others just gargle.
  30. It is indeed discovered by g253 · · Score: 2, Funny

    Obviously! I mean, look : one apple, two apples, three apples. There. Numbers. See that funny relation between the diameter and circumference/area of a circle? There's pi. And so on...

    I mean, it's a bit like asking wether a tree falling really makes a sound if nobody's there to hear it. Of course it bloody well does!

    1. Re:It is indeed discovered by azaris · · Score: 1

      Obviously! I mean, look : one apple, two apples, three apples. There. Numbers. See that funny relation between the diameter and circumference/area of a circle? There's pi. And so on...

      That reasoning fails when you realize mathematics is not the same as arithmetic. To claim that purely abstract concepts that have no representation in the physical world are discovered pretty much necessitates belief in a Platonic 'world of ideas'.

      I would say a few things are invented (like axioms of plane geometry), then the rest are deduced based on those things.

    2. Re:It is indeed discovered by WK2 · · Score: 1

      I mean, it's a bit like asking wether a tree falling really makes a sound if nobody's there to hear it. Of course it bloody well does!

      But why would the Matrix waste processor cycles on something nobody notices?

      --
      Write your own Choose Your Own Adventure. http://www.freegameengines.org/gamebook-engine/
    3. Re:It is indeed discovered by harry666t · · Score: 1

      > Of course it bloody well does!

      I really wouldn't be so sure. If there's nobody to actually *hear* the sound, is it still a sound, or just a bunch of waves in the air?

      If there's nobody who can make an observation of some event, is there any way of proving that that event has occurred? Can you tell if the "big bang" had any sound?

      What if what you actually think you observe turns out to be an illusion? What if your whole reality is an illusion that is so good (or you're so used to it) that you couldn't tell what it really is?

      What if what we perceive as the reality is actually a simulation, and the guys "outside" are saving resources by not simulating sounds nobody can hear, just like 3D engines do not draw things that the camera can't see?

      And one last question... Let's assume that some "you" will actually hear that sound. *Who* is that one who is actually hearing it?

    4. Re:It is indeed discovered by Tony+Hoyle · · Score: 1

      I mean, it's a bit like asking wether a tree falling really makes a sound if nobody's there to hear it. Of course it bloody well does!

      Prove it.

      You believe it does.. that's fine, and entirely consistent with your worldview. Without personally proving it (which is of course logically impossible) you can't dismiss the idea out of hand though.

    5. Re:It is indeed discovered by c_sd_m · · Score: 1

      I mean, it's a bit like asking wether a tree falling really makes a sound if nobody's there to hear it. Of course it bloody well does!

      But why would the Matrix waste processor cycles on something nobody notices?

      Because it's cheaper than adding a function to check if there's anyone there.
    6. Re:It is indeed discovered by calebt3 · · Score: 1

      I really wouldn't be so sure. If there's nobody to actually *hear* the sound, is it still a sound, or just a bunch of waves in the air? Sound is, by definition, a bunch of waves in the air.

      If there's nobody who can make an observation of some event, is there any way of proving that that event has occurred? Can you tell if the "big bang" had any sound? Yes. A very high-decibel low-frequency sound.

      What if what you actually think you observe turns out to be an illusion? What if your whole reality is an illusion that is so good (or you're so used to it) that you couldn't tell what it really is? What if what we perceive as the reality is actually a simulation, and the guys "outside" are saving resources by not simulating sounds nobody can hear, just like 3D engines do not draw things that the camera can't see? I could be wrong, but I think chaos theory applies here. They have to simulate it if they don't want us to notice something is wrong. Or at least they will.

      And one last question... Let's assume that some "you" will actually hear that sound. *Who* is that one who is actually hearing it? Everything else in the forest.
    7. Re:It is indeed discovered by harry666t · · Score: 1

      > Sound is, by definition, a bunch of waves in the air.

      And how about the definition of hearing?

      > They have to simulate it if they don't want us to notice something is wrong.

      So as well they can simulate us not noticing anything wrong. Or they can rewind the simulation, change the thing that made us wonder if we're being simulated, and run it again.

      >> Let's assume that some "you" will actually hear that sound.
      >> *Who* is that one who is actually hearing it?
      > Everything else in the forest.

      No, no, no. Read my question again: who is "you"?

    8. Re:It is indeed discovered by arminw · · Score: 1

      ...I would say a few things are invented...

      Is the concept of zero in math an invention or a discovery? Did the Roman numeral have a representation for zero? Who invented or discovered the zero?

      --
      All theory is gray
    9. Re:It is indeed discovered by naasking · · Score: 1

      To claim that purely abstract concepts that have no representation in the physical world are discovered pretty much necessitates belief in a Platonic 'world of ideas'.

      Then again, we might all be surprised what shows up in the real world. Certainly previously "purely theoretical" developments have been found in real phenomena.

    10. Re:It is indeed discovered by calebt3 · · Score: 1

      And how about the definition of hearing? Cut 'n Paste from Wikipedia: "It is the ability to perceive sound by detecting vibrations via an organ such as the ear." But isn't that irrelevant? You had already established that nobody heard it. I may be misunderstanding your original argument, but to me its like asking "If there is a blue light source that nobody is observing, is it still blue? Or is it electromagnetic radiation between 440 and 490 nanometers?". It's both.

      So as well they can simulate us not noticing anything wrong. Or they can rewind the simulation, change the thing that made us wonder if we're being simulated, and run it again. Good point

      No, no, no. Read my question again: who is "you"? Sorry about that. Although, if you question whether a falling tree makes a sound, then how can you accept that a tree fell? If your proof is that it must have fallen because it is lying there, I submit that it had to disturb the air as it fell, which we define as sound. Also, if you want to go back to the simulation theory: If whomever is in charge of the simulation doesn't want to simulate sound waves being generated as a tree falls, why would they simulate it falling? Might as well just put it there.
    11. Re:It is indeed discovered by ScreamingCactus · · Score: 1

      And you would not believe how many people will still argue that one! "Well if you're not there to hear it then how can you PROVE it makes a sound?" to which I reply "Well if you weren't there to see it, how can you prove it fell in the first place?"

      Then I kick myself for arguing with them.

      --
      The path to enlightenment is truly through homemade drugs!
    12. Re:It is indeed discovered by harry666t · · Score: 1

      > "It is the ability to perceive sound by detecting
      > vibrations via an organ such as the ear."

      It's not a good nor complete definition, IMHO. What if I plug a microphone to my head via some kind of a hypothetical direct brain interface? It will serve as an additional "ear", that's what. But what if instead of plugging a microphone I'd just plug an iPod and play some tunes?

      > (..) If whomever is in charge of the simulation doesn't
      > want to simulate sound waves being generated as a tree
      > falls, why would they simulate it falling? Might as well
      > just put it there.

      That's true. But it doesn't answer the question, "who is *you*" :)

    13. Re:It is indeed discovered by g253 · · Score: 1
      I'm not sure, I'd say axioms are discovered as well.

      I might be wrong, but to me there is not a single purely abstract concept in mathematics. It seems to me mathematics are simply describing reality. It seems abstract sometimes because the universe is a bit complex to describe...

      Now of course, one could reply "okay math describe reality, but what is reality?" and I guess questions like these are a valid way to keep your brain busy if you really have nothing better to do with it, but personnaly I find it tedious.

      To summarize my point of view about discovery/invention, I'll quote Douglas Adams (in Dirk Gently's Holistic Detective Agency) :

      'St Cedd's,' he pronounced, 'the college of Coleridge, and the college of Sir Isaac Newton, renowned inventor of the milled-edge coin and the catflap!'
      'The what?' said Richard.
      'The catflap! A device of the utmost cunning, perspicuity and invention. It is a door within a door, you see, a...'
      'Yes,' said Richard, 'there was also the small matter of gravity.'
      'Gravity,' said Dirk with a slightly dismissive shrug, 'yes, there was that as well, I suppose. Though that, of course, was merely a discovery. It was there to be discovered.' He took a penny out of his pocket and tossed it casually on to the pebbles that ran alongside the paved pathway.
      'You see?' he said, 'They even keep it on at weekends. Someone was bound to notice sooner or later. But the catflap... ah, there is a very different matter. Invention, pure creative invention.'
    14. Re:It is indeed discovered by g253 · · Score: 1

      Yea, and I can't prove the Flying Spaghetti Monster doesn't exist either I guess, so I can't dismiss the idea of his existence. I just have no reason to believe he exists, that's all.

      I do, however, have many reasons to believe that a falling tree makes a sound.

  31. what can be discovered? by v1 · · Score: 1

    Starting with the most basic maths like multiplying something by 2, that looks like something you could discover. When you get into something like calculus or trig, this is not an intuitive process anymore, and has to be invented, and taught to the next generation. We went for centuries not knowing calculus, but how long have we as a people known addition? We teach our children how to add and multiply in school yes, but isn't that something that they could eventually figure out themselves?

    It's a muddy line, but I'd speculate that simpler maths cannot be claimed to be invented, while more complex maths cannot be claimed to be merely discovered. Obvious = discovered. Unintuitive = invented.

    --
    I work for the Department of Redundancy Department.
    1. Re:what can be discovered? by lahvak · · Score: 1

      We went for centuries without knowing there is America, too.

      Trig is very intuitive, and so is calculus. What is not intuitive is the way we do calculus, i.e. limits and stuff. That was definitely invented.

      --
      AccountKiller
    2. Re:what can be discovered? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Starting with the most basic maths like multiplying something by 2, that looks like something you could discover. Taking your analogy one step further, the magic 9. In base 10, anything times any multiple of 9 has digits that equal nine. 251 * 791,856 = 198,755,856 --> 54 --> 9

      Unfailingly. When was the last time humans ever invented something infallible?

      I would concede that we invented Zero, since you can't divide by it. And we've invented devices that can demonstrate why. Even we can screw up Nothing. ;-)

      Does this trick work in any other base, using whole numbers? Did we just get lucky by choosing 10? Is there an equivalent of Pi in any other base? If we create some random base and find out that Pi or the same magic-multiple technique works with a different number, does that become invented? Can you prove it wasn't invented 400 years ago? How can that not be considered a discovery if it's repeatable?

      Obvious = discovered. Unintuitive = invented. Are you implying antimatter is a human invention? Photons? Gamma rays? Gravitons? We need to distinguish Concept from Existence.

      Moreover, why is this discussion treating physics so separately from mathematics? Did the structure of an atom change like Schrodinger's Cat when we invented the technology to observe it directly? Is math not directly observable? If not, how can we then define proofs and theorems?
  32. i'd say "discovered" by PureCreditor · · Score: 1

    the study of math is the *natural* relationship of numbers, so it should be classified discovered.

    we might *invent* theories to deduce the relationships if they're complex, but it's possible that we just haven't *discovered* the true path from A to B.

    for example, we technically haven't fully *discovered* pi or e, since they're transcendental, but we have *invented* easier ways to approximate them in order to simplify our lives (~3.14 and ~2.72).

  33. Thought Game by Nautical+Insanity · · Score: 1
    One unit together with one unit yields units that are two in number. This happens regardless of human observation, thought, categorization, what-have-you. Everything else follows.

    And speaking of observation...Schrodinger's cat is dead.

    1. Re:Thought Game by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      actually 1 + 1 yields 10.

    2. Re:Thought Game by ceoyoyo · · Score: 1

      You've just invented the concept of "together with." A better word would be "defined."

    3. Re:Thought Game by Nautical+Insanity · · Score: 1

      True, the fallacy of my argument is that I failed to illustrate the function as a universal. However, the function of sum can be derived from observation of the universe. Newton's laws show that the acceleration of an object is proportional to the sum of it's forces. If one experiments with multiple forces on an object, this relationship is easily observed. From this relationship, the observer can derive a "net force" function, essentially the same as a sum function. Since the physics of the universe display the sum relationship without any human invention, the concept of "together with" exists beyond invention.

      And yet, as many before me have already noted, the argument about the source of math, has no instrumental purpose (intrinsic purpose...well, lets not get into that) other than to keep me from doing any real work.

  34. ideas possess a location? by bzipitidoo · · Score: 1, Insightful

    I thought the article was weak. It asked:

    Where, exactly, do these mathematical truths exist?

    Where is the edge of the world? Where is the center of the universe?

    Can a mathematical truth really exist before anyone has ever imagined it?

    Of course it can! For instance, 3 has always been a prime number. There have always been prime numbers. Doesn't matter that the ideas weren't conceptualized and expressed in prehistoric times. This is the same question as the previous, with "when" substituted for "where".

    As to inventions, the almighty lever would have worked the same before our solar system had formed as it does today.

    The article takes a turn to the weird when it suggests that if these concepts already existed and we merely discovered them, then we somehow obtained this information-- from somewhere. From reading the inherent properties of the universe, perhaps. Except I don't see why this "obtaining" should follow. That's rather like saying we couldn't think of things on our own. The article begins to seem like a troll of the same sort as the Intelligent Design and the "God of the gaps" arguments. I also wonder if this is a devious argument meant to justify Intellectual Property laws.

    Perhaps I have it wrong and someone could better express what the author means?

    --
    Intellectual Property is a monopolistic, selfish, and defective concept. It is "tyranny over the mind of man"
    1. Re:ideas possess a location? by danlock4 · · Score: 1

      Where is the edge of the world? Just keep heading east (or west). You'll reach it eventually.
      --
      To .sig or not to .sig, that is the question.
    2. Re:ideas possess a location? by colinrichardday · · Score: 1

      Where, exactly, do these mathematical truths exist?

      Where do the truths (not facts) of physics exist?

      Can a mathematical truth really exist before anyone has ever imagined it?

      Again, can a truth (not fact) of physics exist before anyone has ever imagined it?

      Are there truths without language?

  35. Why so human-centric? by clichescreenname · · Score: 3, Interesting

    Believe it or not, it has recently been discovered that dogs can count. I wouldn't be surprised if apes (other than us) or parrots could do this too.

    So, regardless of the whole platonic debate, basic mathematics definitely exist independently of humans.

    1. Re:Why so human-centric? by RealGrouchy · · Score: 1

      Fine, so let's slightly redefine the question: If a tree falls in a forest and there's no human animal capable of counting to hear it, does it make a sound?

      - RG>

      --
      Hey pal, this isn't a pleasantforest, so don't waste my time with pleasantries!
    2. Re:Why so human-centric? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I have also heard from a birdwatcher that crows can count up to 3

    3. Re:Why so human-centric? by ceoyoyo · · Score: 1

      Parrots can certainly count. There are at least a few African Grays who would be happy to demonstrate for you.

  36. Semantic pointlessness: why distinguish maths? by gedhrel · · Score: 1

    So the question is: were mathematical truths invented by mathematicians, or were they always, platonically true, awaiting discovery?

    Why distinguish mathematics in this question? Take any other field of invention. Is it the case that physical principles that a particular realised invention uses were not true prior to their "discovery"? Or was the operation of the invention always so?

    Platonism would have all invention as merely "discovery". At that point, the word becomes distorted and devalued. It's pretty much a pointless debate.

    Except where Penrose is concerned. As far as his opinion goes, it's extreme mysticism, and he invents (discovers?) an awful lot of hoops to justify his rather odd religion.

  37. But did God invent or discover it? by CustomDesigned · · Score: 2, Interesting
    Did God invent mathematics, or simply make use of it (being omniscient, there is no need to discover)?


    That would be a good question for Theists. The origin of the Universe poses few logical problems for a Theist (thousands of years ago thinkers realized the universe was a sub-reality like a story - or in modern computer terms, a virtual machine). But the origin of things like logic or justice are trickier. For instance, is everything God happens to do "good" because He is God and says so? That view is called Nominalism - "good" is just a label for what God does. Or is what God does "good" in some objective sense? (Realism.) But that would give "goodness" an existence independent of God.


    The answer to that question actual *does* affect future decisions. Unfortunately, it is hard/impossible to *verify* the answer, which is what I though Logical Positivism was about. "Statements which cannot, in principle, be verified, are meaningless." Of course this self refuting formulation would not be popular with adherents.

    1. Re:But did God invent or discover it? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Umm... God doesn't exist.

    2. Re:But did God invent or discover it? by MikeBabcock · · Score: 1

      Which, true or not, is hardly relevant to the conversation at hand in which the gp said "for theists", those who believe in a god.

      And since theists believe in god, its a rational conversation to be had with them.

      Should you be incapable of having rational conversations about things which you cannot yourself prove or choose not to believe in, you might want to study that inability on its own.

      I've had perfectly rational conversations about planetary alignment and druids with people who believe in such things, and many people have had long rational conversations about Klingon mating rituals -- an obvious fiction.

      --
      - Michael T. Babcock (Yes, I blog)
    3. Re:But did God invent or discover it? by harry666t · · Score: 1

      > Umm... God doesn't exist.

      Gimme an empirical proof || STFU, please? Because what I perceive is the exact opposite.

      Hm. But I have no proof either. It's like, one of these things that are too much relying on those senses that are not given to most of the people out there, at least not "out of the box". It's *very* hard to see *anything* if you were born blind, right? And you *do* know that there are really many, many things which we cannot see with eyes nor hear with ears, right?

      Disclaimer: I'm not a Christian or anything, I do not belong to any damn church or anything, and I fsck all the religious authorities and everything related to them.

    4. Re:But did God invent or discover it? by $0.02 · · Score: 1

      Math is timeless. It existed before the Big Bang. I can imagine a different Universe where the laws of physics are different but even there 2+2=4 assuming we are talking about the same definition of the operation + and 1=succ(8) and 2=succ(1) and 3=succ(2) and 4=succ(3). So if math is timeless, independent of anything, is everywhere, rules over the Universe then God did not invent mathematics. Mathematics IS God.

      --
      If enithin kan gow rong it whil. (Murfey)
    5. Re:But did God invent or discover it? by $0.02 · · Score: 1

      of course I meant 1=succ(0)

      --
      If enithin kan gow rong it whil. (Murfey)
    6. Re:But did God invent or discover it? by Dr.+Cody · · Score: 1

      That would be a good question for Theists.
      In the realm of philosophy, the only good question for a Theist is "Does this rag smell like chloroform to you?"

      The person who disagrees with the above statement was never forced to use Summa Theologica as a source.
  38. The super-imaginary number, j. by suck_burners_rice · · Score: 3, Interesting

    If mathematics is invented, then let's invent some right now. First, let's set the scene: Mathematicians ran into this annoying problem that you can't take the square root of a negative number, so they invented this number, i, that is defined as the square root of -1. Then, by using this i in your answer, any root can be expressed. Ok, now that the scene is set, I find it incredibly annoying that you cannot divide by zero. Therefore, I am hereby inventing a number, j, that is defined as one divided by zero. Henceforth, you can express any number divided by zero by using this j in your answer. Who knows, such a thing might actually be useful.

    --
    McCain/Palin '08. Now THAT's hope and change!
    1. Re:The super-imaginary number, j. by John+Hasler · · Score: 1

      > I am hereby inventing a number, j, that is defined as one divided by zero. Henceforth,
      > you can express any number divided by zero by using this j in your answer. Who knows,
      > such a thing might actually be useful.

      Very useful. You can use it to prove that one equals two.

      --
      Warning: this article may contain humor, sarcasm, parody, and perhaps even irony. Read at your own risk.
    2. Re:The super-imaginary number, j. by Tacctc · · Score: 1

      Correct me if I'm wrong.

      lim x -> 0 x/x = 1
      lim x -> 0 1/x = infinity.
      If j is defined as 1/0, j will not hold true for expressing 0/0. Now, in my opinion this implies that I discovered that your invented number j does not hold true for all values.

    3. Re:The super-imaginary number, j. by zhenlin · · Score: 1

      The limit of 1/x as x approaches zero does not exist (unless, of course, you are using a single unsigned infinity), since if you approach it from the left it approaches negative infinity and if you approach it from the right it approaches positive infinity.

    4. Re:The super-imaginary number, j. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Sorry. j is already in use.
      j === i

      Now, go ahead and play your silly games, but pick something not already taken.

    5. Re:The super-imaginary number, j. by onemorechip · · Score: 1

      And if one equals two is true, then anything is true, so you can then prove anything! I can think of a few politicians who might like that.

      --
      But, I wanted socialized health insurance!
    6. Re:The super-imaginary number, j. by Dr.+Cody · · Score: 1

      If mathematics is invented, then let's invent some right now. First, let's set the scene: Mathematicians ran into this annoying problem that you can't take the square root of a negative number, so they invented this number, i, that is defined as the square root of -1. Then, by using this i in your answer, any root can be expressed. Ok, now that the scene is set, I find it incredibly annoying that you cannot divide by zero. Therefore, I am hereby inventing a number, j, that is defined as one divided by zero. Henceforth, you can express any number divided by zero by using this j in your answer. Who knows, such a thing might actually be useful.
      As the proportion of electrical engineers approaches 1, i approaches j .
    7. Re:The super-imaginary number, j. by He-Ja · · Score: 0

      But of course we are already talking about imaginary numbers so what happens when you do it from above (positive imaginary axis), that yields -1 * i * infinity and from down (negative imaginary axis), it yields i * infinity, and what happens when you hit is from any angle?

      What can we us to discover (!) the answer: the polar coordinate system. arg(1/x) = arg(1) - arg(x) = 0 - arg(x) and |1/x| = |1|/|x| = |x|^-1. Thus lim x -> 0, 1/x, undefined or if you want to say something useful: lim x -> 0 for a certain angle [in the complex plane] yields an infinite radius, 180 degrees to the left [or right] of the [given] angle.

    8. Re:The super-imaginary number, j. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      As the proportion of electrical engineers approaches 1, i approaches j.

      J for one welcome our electrjcal engjneerjng overlords.

      (p.s. For anyone who didn't understand the parent post, EE's define j=sqrt(-1) because the letter "i" is already in use as current.)
  39. The Economic Factor by SnarlSlayer · · Score: 1

    I am not a mathematician, however I do know that the question has profound ramifications-- that which has been discovered usually cannot be patented; that which is invented can be patented. Additionally, once the question is answered (if it can be answered) it's only a matter of time before it's applied to code.

  40. No, the answer is CLEARLY invented... by rtilghman · · Score: 1


    The "relationships and observations" you mention have NOTHING to do with the methods and language we have created for understanding and analyzing them. Mathmatics is, by definition, the system we use, not the phenomena themselves.

    You can say that nature lends itself to analysis via mathmatics, but clearly mathmatics doesn't exist as some kind of absolute form.

    Why is this even debated? Sounds like another stupid chicken/egg topic thrown around by people who can't manage deductive reasoning (the egg comes first folks since the first instance of what we define as "a chicken" was a genetic aberration born to a non-chicken).

    -rt

    1. Re:No, the answer is CLEARLY invented... by Eighty7 · · Score: 1

      It is the merest truism, evident at once to unsophisticated observation, that mathematics is a human invention. (Bridgman, P. W. The Logic of Modern Physics)

    2. Re:No, the answer is CLEARLY invented... by epee1221 · · Score: 1

      Mathmatics is, by definition, the system we use, not the phenomena themselves.
      So math is about numerals, not numbers?
      --
      "The use-mention distinction" is not "enforced here."
    3. Re:No, the answer is CLEARLY invented... by arminw · · Score: 1

      ...the first instance of what we define as "a chicken" was a genetic aberration born to a non-chicken...

      That is an opinion of what may or may not have actually happened, not a present observation. All present observations clearly are that all chickens hatch from chickens that lay eggs which hatch into more chickens which lay eggs which hatch into more chickens.... unless you run out of chickens and eggs.

      Therefore, be careful, don't eat ALL chickens and all eggs! If you do, there will be no more of either.

      --
      All theory is gray
    4. Re:No, the answer is CLEARLY invented... by arminw · · Score: 1

      ...So math is about numerals, not numbers...

      So then II+II=IV is not the same as 2+2=4? Does the truth of math depend on numerals?

      --
      All theory is gray
    5. Re:No, the answer is CLEARLY invented... by naasking · · Score: 1

      but clearly mathmatics doesn't exist as some kind of absolute form.

      The meaning of "exists" unnecessarily complicates any argument pertaining to math and logic. All theorems in math and logic follow directly from the axioms upon which it is founded. So all theorems are discoveries. The axioms themselves are often postulated, or invented, by observing something in the world around us, or a relationship in another math or logic. So axioms too are both invented, and discovered.

      the egg comes first folks since the first instance of what we define as "a chicken" was a genetic aberration born to a non-chicken

      The egg the first chicken hatched from was NOT a chicken egg though, it was an egg from the chicken's progenitor, as the hen constructs the eggs not the embryo (assuming it was hatched at all, and if it wasn't the chicken comes first anyway). The egg material and structure of the chicken's progenitor could differ from its mutated offspring, thus, a chicken hatched from its progenitor's egg, not from a chicken egg. This same argument can be extended inductively back to the creation of the first egg-bearing species, likely a singular or multi-cellular organism, from its a progentior, a non egg-bearing species, by whatever mechanism its progenitor reproduces. So in fact, contrary to popular belief, and your own deductive reasoning, the chicken came first.

    6. Re:No, the answer is CLEARLY invented... by orlanz · · Score: 1

      FYI, you are both on the same side of the fence.

    7. Re:No, the answer is CLEARLY invented... by orlanz · · Score: 1

      No, the chicken did NOT come first, cause I (among others) define a "chicken" as something that comes from a chicken egg. Now, that settles the question, until you gone and defined a "chicken egg" as something laid by a chicken!!

      More seriously, there are concepts of math that do not have bearing in the real world, nor can be represented by it (ex: infinity)

    8. Re:No, the answer is CLEARLY invented... by naasking · · Score: 1

      No, the chicken did NOT come first, cause I (among others) define a "chicken" as something that comes from a chicken egg.

      A chicken is a member of the species Gallus Domesticus. Regardless of the mechanism of formation, by divine creation, cloning, or hatching, any genetic member of that species is a chicken.

      More seriously, there are concepts of math that do not have bearing in the real world, nor can be represented by it (ex: infinity)

      Just like "complex numbers" are just imaginary and have no possible analogue or use in the real world. At least, that's what we thought for a hundred years.

    9. Re:No, the answer is CLEARLY invented... by orlanz · · Score: 1

      A chicken is a member of the species Gallus Domesticus. Regardless of the mechanism of formation, by divine creation, cloning, or hatching, any genetic member of that species is a chicken. Actually, I always saw it as a philosophical question, not a physical realistic one. Kind of like, if A and only A produces B, and B and only B produces A, which came 1st? That's why the joke: everything was fine until you defined the second part.

      Just like "complex numbers" are just imaginary and have no possible analogue or use in the real world. At least, that's what we thought for a hundred years. Actually, "complex numbers" aren't used directly in the real world. They are used to get from point A to point C through B which doesn't exist in the real world. Also, their multi-vector like properties are used to keep distinct attributes of an observation separate. What I mean is that there is no "imaginary" and "real" part to an electrical circuit; rather both are real, but must always be separate.

      What I am trying to say is that there are certain concepts in math that can not be fully represented by the real world. In complex numbers' case, certain attributes are representable, and we exploit where we can, but that doesn't mean we have fully represented them. I didn't mean to imply that there are parts of math that will never have real world applications, rather the real world is kind of limited in comparison.

      Also, "real world" for me is defined as our universe, math can seem to go places where the universe and its limited x number of dimensions can not.
    10. Re:No, the answer is CLEARLY invented... by naasking · · Score: 1

      Actually, I always saw it as a philosophical question, not a physical realistic one.

      Yes, its use as a metaphor is the intent, and the paper I linked to argues why it's a bad metaphor, because there is a right answer -- which, ironically, the paper gets wrong. ;-)

      Actually, "complex numbers" aren't used directly in the real world. They are used to get from point A to point C through B which doesn't exist in the real world.

      There is no way to know what is used in the "real world", because there is no way to dircectly observe it. We only have indirect observations available. However, as an electrical engineer, I know that transmission line theory is expressed quite naturally by complex math, so one could argue quite persuasively that it "exists" by any sensible definition of that word.

      Also, "real world" for me is defined as our universe, math can seem to go places where the universe and its limited x number of dimensions can not.

      I do know what you're trying to say, I just don't necesarily agree. Given your current understanding of the world, you believe that things are a certain way. However, our current view of the world is, a) only a model derived by indirect observations, and b) known to be incomplete. There are many computer programs that produce the same output given a limited set of inputs, so we cannot over-generalize the nature of the world based on a model derived from only currently "known inputs".

      Thus, making absolute declarations of existence vs. non-existence is hand-waving metaphysics at best, and religion at worst.

  41. Are jokes discovered or invented? by tomhudson · · Score: 1, Interesting

    Substitute "jokes" in place of "mathematics, and the question becomes both stupid AND enlightening.

    "Are jokes discovered or invented?" Obviously, jokes are invented. Also almost as obvious, more than one person can invent the same joke at around the same time.

    Just as obvious, nobody "invents" the ratio between the circumference and the diameter of a circle - so this mathematical truth is discovered, not invented. It (pi) existed before anyone discovered it and named it.

    Or to put it another way, truths are discovered, not invented (and that REALLY pisses off the politicians).

    1. Re:Are jokes discovered or invented? by zanaxagoras · · Score: 1

      Just as obvious, nobody "invents" the ratio between the circumference and the diameter of a circle - so this mathematical truth is discovered, not invented. It (pi) existed before anyone discovered it and named it. AGAIN, not quite. Pi "exists" only as an observable constant, but Pi only becomes a mathematical concept when a name is given to it. In order to UNDERSTAND the concept of Pi, it is necessary to give it a name and a purpose... otherwise it is merely an interesting natural phenomenon. Thus, we invent the concept of Pi (and accordingly we invent all of math) to identify and make use of interesting natural phenomena, which otherwise do not require a name or purpose to exist.
    2. Re:Are jokes discovered or invented? by tomhudson · · Score: 1

      Nobody "invented" pi. They just put a label on the concept, which has always been true, that there is a specific ratio between the diameter and circumference of a circle.

      Invention requires creativity. It also requires that what is described by the invention not already be pre-existing - or it wouldn't have required creativity to "create" it, now would it?

      That something requires ingenuity (or even creativity) to discover is irrelevant to the core question as to whether a certain mathematical truth was discovered as opposed to created. If nobody had discovered the ratio we label "pi", it would still exist. Contrast this to, for example, a hard drive, which was created, not discovered.

      What next - patenting "2-1=1" as an invention, as opposed to the discovery of a natural fact that every kid makes when they first learn to share?

    3. Re:Are jokes discovered or invented? by zanaxagoras · · Score: 1

      Nobody "invented" pi. They just put a label on the concept, which has always been true, that there is a specific ratio between the diameter and circumference of a circle. The "naming" and "conceptualizing" of Pi *is* an invention. The concept has "always been true" ONLY to the extent that someone identified it and conceptualized it. Like all math, the "concept" of Pi is an invention, which is based on an otherwise utterly non-conceptual constant. Language, like math, is an invention; it does not pre-exist. Humans are innately able to make noises. However, the identification and conceptualization of rules of distinct patterns of distinct noises in a repeatable sequence which have meaning attached to them are what we consider "language". Same with Pi, and math. So, while noises and constants in nature are not invented, our conceptualizations thereof, like "Pi", "math", "Language", etc, ARE quite obviously our inventions. "Pi" ONLY exists because we invented the concept of "Pi". As stated already, the existence of a specific ratio between the diameter and circumference of a circle is otherwise merely an interesting natural phenomena. Unless a kid is told that "2-1=1", all they know is that sharing is entering into a less-than-ideal transaction with someone else. Any smart kid will be the first to tell you that re-imagining that transaction as an education-friendly equation is something only an adult could invent! :)
  42. Lawyers are circling again I see by syousef · · Score: 1

    ...like hungry sharks. If it's discovered, we can patent it. If it's invented we can copyright it. Imagine something as fundamental as Pi falling under copyright. I think that'd be bad. Imagine a cease and desist for reproducing Pi to 10 digits and publishing the forumla for a circle. Then again perhaps patents would be worse. With copyright not requiring registration, if it's obviously frivolous and you can show prior art it's out the door. However I wouldn't put it past certain patent offices to grant a patent for Pi, which would require more effort to fight as you'd need to invalidate a registered patent. Standard IANAL disclaimer, so if I have something wrong, please feel free to correct.

    --
    These posts express my own personal views, not those of my employer
    1. Re:Lawyers are circling again I see by John+Hasler · · Score: 3, Informative

      > If it's discovered, we can patent it. If it's invented we can copyright it.

      No. If it is invented it can be patented. If it is created it can be copyrighted. If it is discovered it can be neither patented nor copyrighted.

      --
      Warning: this article may contain humor, sarcasm, parody, and perhaps even irony. Read at your own risk.
    2. Re:Lawyers are circling again I see by mmcuh · · Score: 2, Informative

      You got it all wrong. You can not patent a discovery, and you have no copyright to an invention. You can, however, patent an invention.

  43. Jumping to conclusions by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Platonism "has more in common with mystical religions than with modern science."

    That in itself is perhaps not really a good argument for Platonism being wrong. One could also question the infallibility of modern science.

    1. Re:Jumping to conclusions by mmcuh · · Score: 1

      Platonism "has more in common with mystical religions than with modern science."

      That in itself is perhaps not really a good argument for Platonism being wrong. One could also question the infallibility of modern science.

      Well, yes - the whole point of science is that it is not infallible. Math, however, is not science.
  44. No, mc^2 is exact for an object at rest by SEMW · · Score: 4, Informative

    Actually its not quite e=mc^2, thats just the first term in a taylor series for the actual answer. No. For an object measured in its rest frame, the energy is possesses is exactly mc^2 (where m = m_0 = rest mass). The only situation where you're using a Taylor series approximation is when you approximate the energy of a moving object with speed v much less than c by mc^2 + (1/2)mv^2. But if you want the exact answer for a moving object it's easy enough to use E = \gamma mc^2 anyway.
    --
    What's purple and commutes? An Abelian grape.
    1. Re:No, mc^2 is exact for an object at rest by smaddox · · Score: 4, Insightful

      How would you suggest I measure an object in its rest frame?

      This may seem like a nitpicking question, but it brings us to the point that I really want to make:

      Mathematics is interesting because there are no ambiguities in a well described mathematical problem. There are many problems that have a finite set of solutions. However, every mathematical model we develop to describe our surroundings is only an approximation of our observations. With time, we can create more and more accurate models, but there will always be something about that model that is derived experimentally, and is therefor imperfect.

      This does, in fact, tell us something about the underlying nature of the universe. Either it was created with some arbitrary parameters, or it exists in a way such that there is no way to perfectly describe it. Or maybe there are other possibilities I have not considered. What philosophical meaning you derive from all this is up to your own reasoning.

    2. Re:No, mc^2 is exact for an object at rest by Bananenrepublik · · Score: 1

      How would you suggest I measure an object in its rest frame? The usual procedure is to have it decay and then look at the momenta and energies of the decay particles to determine the invariant mass of the original particle.

    3. Re:No, mc^2 is exact for an object at rest by ioshhdflwuegfh · · Score: 1

      However, every mathematical model we develop to describe our surroundings is only an approximation of our observations.With time, we can create more and more accurate models, but there will always be something about that model that is derived experimentally, and is therefor imperfect. That's true, but all that you talk about, like "approximation", "more and more accurate models" implies mathematics, which means numbers that are taken care of through some additional mathematics. Thus the imperfection of which you speak might still be completely described through a better mathematical model.

      [... universe] exists in a way such that there is no way to perfectly describe it. Physicists would tell you that using mathematical laws is the way to perfectly describe it, and, even if we don't know yet the ultimate laws, we're getting there, as you also suggest.

      Or maybe there are other possibilities I have not considered. I agree.
  45. Ha! I laughed so hard by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    I fell off my chairness.

  46. What Erds and Feynman believed about this by Beryllium+Sphere(tm) · · Score: 4, Informative

    The late mathematician Paul Erds used to say, perhaps metaphorically, that the most elegant proof of every mathematical theorem was written in a great book in God's library. When he came up with a beautiful proof, he would say it was one from the book.

    Feynman also felt like coming up with a proof was more discovery than invention. He said that the proof felt like it was already there all along, raising the question of where "there" is.

    1. Re:What Erds and Feynman believed about this by crashfrog · · Score: 1

      Platonism collapses under its own contradictions.

      The late mathematician Paul Erds used to say, perhaps metaphorically, that the most elegant proof of every mathematical theorem was written in a great book in God's library.

      So where are the wrong proofs written? The inelegant ones?

      Another book? Say, Satan's book? Then the human brain is "inventing" which book to pull them out of; like Babel's Library, where finding a book is exactly the same thing as writing it. The conclusion here is that we do invent, not discover, the proofs.

      Or in no book at all? Then the human brain has the capacity to invent, by itself, some kinds of proof; once we've admitted that, there's no reason to suspect that the human brain can't invent by itself all kinds of proof, including the elegant ones. The conclusion again is that we do invent, not discover, the proofs.

      The proofs may very well exist in God's book; all mathematical truths known and unknown may very well wait out there in some idea-space, already formed. But that's irrelevant; humans invent, we don't discover, mathematical truths, whether they're out there or not.

      --
      I never have frustrations, the reason is, to wit:
      If at first I don't succeed, I quit!
    2. Re:What Erds and Feynman believed about this by alexgieg · · Score: 1

      Ontologically, you could have something like this:

      At the top, the Absolute, including both the inconceivables and the conceivables.

      The conceivables as a subset of the Absolute.

      The possibles as a subset of the conceivables.

      The mathematical proofs as a subset of the possibles.

      The correct mathematical proofs as a subset of the mathematical proofs.

      The possibilities of concrete existence as a subset of the correct mathematical proofs.

      The multiverse (quantum manyworlds hypothesis) as a subset of the possibilities of concrete existence.

      This concrete universe of ours a a subset of the multiverse.

      And so on and so forth.

      Hence, no, Platonism is far from collapsed. Although, sure, this version has a "bigger" ontology than Plato's original one.

      --
      Conservatism: (n.) love of the existing evils. Liberalism: (n.) desire to substitute new evils for the existing ones.
    3. Re:What Erds and Feynman believed about this by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      A physicist is always going to feel that they are discovering something - physics by its nature is trying to understand the real world. Pure Mathematics and related fields are different to that though.

    4. Re:What Erds and Feynman believed about this by crashfrog · · Score: 1

      Sets aren't real, though. These distinctions would be arbitrary, and thus, exist only in our heads, not the universe (or the universe of ideas.) And, again, apprehending the sets is the same problem as inventing the ideas, so the question becomes meaningless - both outcomes are identical.

      Similarly, surely introducing sets into ontology introduces all the paradoxes in set theory?

      --
      I never have frustrations, the reason is, to wit:
      If at first I don't succeed, I quit!
    5. Re:What Erds and Feynman believed about this by meringuoid · · Score: 1
      The late mathematician Paul Erds used to say, perhaps metaphorically, that the most elegant proof of every mathematical theorem was written in a great book in God's library. When he came up with a beautiful proof, he would say it was one from the book.

      By the way, before anybody gets overexcited about this and adds this great mathematician to their list of 'Clever People Who Believed In God So You Should Too'... Erdos normally referred to God as 'the Supreme Fascist'. Even other mathematicians thought the guy was a bit eccentric.

      --
      Real Daleks don't climb stairs - they level the building.
    6. Re:What Erds and Feynman believed about this by alexgieg · · Score: 1

      Sets aren't real, though. These distinctions would be arbitrary, and thus, exist only in our heads, not the universe (or the universe of ideas.) And, again, apprehending the sets is the same problem as inventing the ideas, so the question becomes meaningless - both outcomes are identical.
      This isn't clear. Since Kant one cannot say that there's any Universe "in itself", at all, outside of our modes of perception, and thus anything we perceive as "a thing" cannot be said as being more than a "phenomenum", even "things" such as "a brain".

      That said, as far as phenomena go one can clearly distinguish among them all on the basis of the the possibilities we perceive they have, which is what Husserl does in his phenomenology. For example, a drawer, taken as a single entity, has a given set of possibilities different from those of the other drawers, that allow you to distinguish it from them, from the whole cabinet, and from everything else. On the other hand, the cabinet with that drawer inserted has another set of possibilities, as has the shelf without any drawers. The same goes for, say, "elephant", "elephant in a beach", "big elephant in a beach on a summer", "big elephant in a beach in the summer of 1956", and so on and so forth. Taken to the extreme, this means that a phenomena can be seen as both an individual possessing such and such individualizing characteristics, as well as a part of a near infinite number of sets of possibilities ("essences"). Both are perceived as real, and we interact with phenomena as both, so it's perfectly valid, logically so, to take them as such.

      If things stopped here it would already be pretty cool, but afterwards another philosopher, Zubiri, took Husserl's phenomenology and extended it in some even funnier ways by studying the "reality" phenomenum and trying to delimit it. Long story short: since the phenomena we deal with we can clearly place into two huge categories, those of the "real" and the "unreal", and furthermore we can clearly distinguish between levels of reality (the events in a movie are clearly less real than a news report, although not unreal, or the movie wouldn't exist at all), we can say precisely that "perception of reality" is our specific mode of perception. Thus, it's valid to talk about something being "real" or not even though we don't know at all whether anything at all is a "thing" or not.

      As a result, you have that husserlian essences can be said to be zubirian real, constructing with both a phenomenological ontology, without any of this being arbitrary. Quite the opposite, this is precisely our mode of perception, and outside of it there is neither perception, nor any "thing in itself" that we can be aware off.

      If Plato is like going from city A to B by passing a bridge, and Kant is all about blowing up the bridge, phenomenology vindicates Plato by kind of leaving A from the back door, circling the world, and still reaching B also kind of by its own back door. The end result is roughly the same, but the voyage is much more enriching. :-)

      Similarly, surely introducing sets into ontology introduces all the paradoxes in set theory?
      If you try to do it too hard, yes. But there's no need to do so. It's just a formal way to describe in a summary form what by its own nature isn't purely formal. After all, mathematics isn't 100% self consistent either (Godel), but that doesn't prevent us from using those bits and pieces of it that fit with the physical objects we manage to abstract from natural phenomena. The same goes for phenomenological essences via set theory: you don't need to dwell into "empty sets" and "sets of all sets" to efficiently deal with them.
      --
      Conservatism: (n.) love of the existing evils. Liberalism: (n.) desire to substitute new evils for the existing ones.
    7. Re:What Erds and Feynman believed about this by crashfrog · · Score: 1

      I have no idea what you're talking about. Is this kind of nonsense common in philosophy? If so I consider myself lucky to have been exposed to it as little as possible.

      Since Kant one cannot say that there's any Universe "in itself", at all, outside of our modes of perception

      I'm aware of Kant's crusade to, essentially, destroy all human knowledge. I don't see why he should be taken seriously.

      If you try to do it too hard, yes.

      No, look, either you introduce sets or you don't, and if you do, then you have all the problems that Russel identified in set theory - sets that contain themselves, etc.

      After all, mathematics isn't 100% self consistent either (Godel), but that doesn't prevent us from using those bits and pieces of it that fit with the physical objects we manage to abstract from natural phenomena.

      Because that's precisely what we invented it to do. Why should I be surprised to find that a human invention does what it was invented to do? Especially if it's one that, as you say, doesn't do so perfectly?

      --
      I never have frustrations, the reason is, to wit:
      If at first I don't succeed, I quit!
    8. Re:What Erds and Feynman believed about this by alexgieg · · Score: 1

      I have no idea what you're talking about. Is this kind of nonsense common in philosophy? If so I consider myself lucky to have been exposed to it as little as possible.

      Hehe, it is nonsense only if you take your assumptions as granted. For example, can you prove that there a world made of things outside of you? No, you cannot. At best you can assume there is one and work from there, but this is jumping to conclusions. If you don't want to do these jumps, if you don't want to introduce "beliefs" in science, even such a belief as "there is a world", then you cannot go around talking about "the world". You can only go around talking about what you perceive, because what you perceive isn't an assumption. To go from "this perception I call 'the world' works in such and such a way" to "the world itself, the one that exists beyond my perception, also works in such and such a way", is a long stretch, and anyone who wants to be rigorous cannot say so for serious without being very careful.

      I'm aware of Kant's crusade to, essentially, destroy all human knowledge. I don't see why he should be taken seriously.

      It's quite the opposite. Kant isn't about destroying our knowledge, he's about making extremely clear what the precise limits of our knowledge are. This is why all modern sciences are built around the concept of phenomena, not of things.

      Notice: in Physics you don't talk about "physical things", you talk about "physical objects", about "physical phenomena". These are Kantian terms. A physical object is a mathematical construct we make by slicing our perception of "the world" and separating from perceived "things" the quantifiable aspects. A physicist won't talk about "warm" or "cold". These are perceptions. He'll talk about "temperature". And he's so comfortable talking about temperature that he goes talking about them even above the point it's so "hot" that not even atoms exist anymore to be shaken.

      If you don't like Kantian science, if you want to talk about things, then you have to go back to the way science was made in the 16th century. What they did? They collected things and described them (say, flowers, or those funny stones that sometimes are found with figures of fish, plants and animals). And that's it. You cannot seek, so to speak, "behind" the things themselves as they are here and now and in your hands, for those hidden constructs such as "DNAs" or "molecules", and then go investigating these instead of the things themselves. For this operation to be possible, you must acknowledge the separation. The thing is one; the many phenomena you can "extract" from it are other, completely distinct.

      And, this is important: one isn't "more real" than the other. Your perception is as much a phenomena as any of the many abstraction around it that the many different sciences research. All these different perspectives are granted citizenship, as neither is more important than the other, what grants to all sciences complete independence to do their own research, of what they see fit, as they see fit.

      No, look, either you introduce sets or you don't, and if you do, then you have all the problems that Russel identified in set theory - sets that contain themselves, etc.

      Do you remember, from when you studied set theory in high school, that you had the set of the natural numbers, the set of the integers, the set of the reals excluding zero, the other set that included zero, etc.? Didn't each of these sets "arbitrarily" throw certain numbers out? Well, if you can do it to certain numbers and classes of numbers, why can't you do it to certain sets and classes of sets? It's feasible, as much as the physics mathematics that say that if a certain result gives infinite somewhere, you can just assume the actual value is the bounding limit, renormalize, and proceed from there. Same goes for set theory: establish some limits, stick to them, and you're all good.

      --
      Conservatism: (n.) love of the existing evils. Liberalism: (n.) desire to substitute new evils for the existing ones.
  47. Is Mathematics Discovered Or Invented? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    It is mostly misunderstood!

  48. Philosophy_of_mathematics by Latinhypercube · · Score: 1
  49. Implications for IP and software patents by Lt.Hawkins · · Score: 1

    The distinction could have implications for mathematical IP and the validity of software patents, if software is a way of getting a computer to do certain math, and math is discovered, vice invented.

    Of course, does that mean that the MP3 encoding algorithm was discovered? And that I'm anxiously awaiting the discovery of Jedi Knight: Force Unleashed?

    --
    -- My Sig is a P228.
  50. Math exists independent of Man, bogus question. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    It's not like Pi (the relationship between the radius and it's circumference) wouldn't exist if mankind didn't exist or know about it. It's not even rational. Nether is the square root of two. Make a square with length one whatever sizes, then measure the distance between two opposite corners. It's not like nature can't work with squares, check out copper crystals. Man certainly didn't "Invent" them.

    > Integers were discovered. Beyond that, it's human invention.

    Totally bogus as well. Whoever started that idea was an arrogant anthropocentric imbecile. Any alien civilization that had to build anything would run across these relationships. It's not a great leap to abstract them into numbers, symbols and rules (what we call Mathematics). There's a obvious and logical progression from counting numbers, zero, the integers (includes negative numbers), rational numbers, irrational numbers, infinity, greater order infinities. To say that they wouldn't exist if Man didn't shows a great lack of understanding.

    Erdos spoke of a book that God possessed that was a collection of elegant proofs. Erdos said he didn't know if God existed or not, but was quite sure the book did, having discovered some of its pages.

  51. Bah by mmcuh · · Score: 1, Interesting

    This argument is completely silly. Of course mathematical results exist before someone thought of them. Were there any integer solutions to x^n + y^n = z^n for n > 2 before Wiles? Was there some weird rational polynomial with pi as a root before Lindemann?

    Philosophers should stick to fluffy pointless subjects that no one cares about. When they start thinking about mathematics the results usually range from stupid to ridiculous.

    1. Re:Bah by psychicninja · · Score: 1

      This argument is completely silly. Of course mathematical results exist before someone thought of them. Were there any integer solutions to x^n + y^n = z^n for n > 2 before Wiles?
      I disagree. I think of it this way: yes, the truths existed before math did, but we had no elegant way to describe them. You may as well say that we 'discovered' language because the phrase "The ball is red" is true of a red ball before we came up with language to say so.

      It seems to me that the question really is "Does mathematics exist the way it does because that is the only way to describe things in reality (discovered), or is it completely dependent on our subjective point of view and the labels that we assign to things (invented)?
  52. dizzigital by dizzigital · · Score: 1

    It is sensed.

  53. The Corrent Question by initialE · · Score: 1

    Is it Patentable?

    --
    Starbucks, Harbuckle of Breath.
  54. Irrational != "Can't be fully discovered" by SEMW · · Score: 1

    for example, we technically haven't fully *discovered* pi or e, since they're transcendental, but we have *invented* easier ways to approximate them in order to simplify our lives (~3.14 and ~2.72). Just because pi isn't expressible in finite digits under the decimal system doesn't mean it isn't "fully discovered" or "fully known". For example, I could express it exactly and succinctly as 4 * sum_n=0^infinity ((-1)^n) / (2n+1). And consider that 1/3 isn't expressible exactly in finite digits under the decimal system either.
    --
    What's purple and commutes? An Abelian grape.
  55. It's both by Zorque · · Score: 1

    Math is an objective way to express things we observe around us, from the strength of gravity's pull to the correlation between the angles in our knees and elbows. Math is a language we invented to show and to prove the things we've discovered.

  56. Transcendental numbers are discoveries! by Coolhand2120 · · Score: 1

    If a tree falls in the woods and there is nobody there to hear it does it make a noise? The question of course to scientist is "of course it makes a nose, noise is the consequence of matter vibrating the air." Math is no more an invention than noise is an invention. Would you also declare the discovery of light beyond the visible spectrum an invention? If invisible light is a discovery, than transcendental numbers must be a discovery: they already exist in their entirety, only as our computing power increases can we calculate what the next number in the sequence is.

    Do you think a circle cares what PI is? Do you think an object along a ballistic trajectory thinks of it's decent as a mathematical formula? Yet the functions exist, have always existed, and are only awaiting our observation and discovery.

    I've saved the best point for last: if math was invented, how could be be "corrected" as new discoveries are made unless it's truly just our interpretation of what we think math is.

    1. Re:Transcendental numbers are discoveries! by colinrichardday · · Score: 1

      If a tree falls in the woods and there is nobody there to hear it does it make a noise? The question of course to scientist is "of course it makes a nose, noise is the consequence of matter vibrating the air."

      I largely agree with your argument, but you should have used the word "sound" instead of "noise", as the latter requires that someone/something hear it.

    2. Re:Transcendental numbers are discoveries! by Coolhand2120 · · Score: 1

      You are correct, I am but a humble programmer and do not know the ways of physics yet.

  57. It's neither by reallyjoel · · Score: 3, Interesting

    It all starts with 1+1=2, and that's neither a discovery nor an invention, it's an assumption. The rest is just semantics.

    1. Re:It's neither by SEMW · · Score: 5, Insightful

      You can go a lot more basic than 1+1=2. Go back to the Peano axioms and you'll find that all you have to assume is the existance of "0", a "successor" function, induction, and a few trivial things like the properties of equality and addition, and you get the whole of arithmetic -- including 1+1=2.

      So you invent/assume your choice of axioms, and everything else follows from them and can be discovered at leisure.

      --
      What's purple and commutes? An Abelian grape.
    2. Re:It's neither by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      So you invent/assume your choice of axioms, and everything else follows from them and can be discovered at leisure. Please, please review GÃdel's incompleteness theorems before making such a sweeping (and incorrect) statement.
    3. Re:It's neither by astrocrack · · Score: 1

      So you invent/assume your choice of axioms, and everything else follows from them and can be discovered at leisure. Please, please review GÃdel's incompleteness theorems before making such a sweeping (and incorrect) statement. I do not understand how that statement contradicts Godels incompleteness theorems. In fact, it seems to fit simply. You can not get a set of axioms from the start so you have to choose some and go from there. The only thing Godels theorems let's you know is that there are will always be some theorems missing no matter how far you discover. ...or I just got it wrong ^^
    4. Re:It's neither by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The whole of arithmetic? I'm not so sure...

      "For any consistent formal, recursively enumerable theory that proves basic arithmetical truths, an arithmetical statement that is true, but not provable in the theory, can be constructed. That is, any effectively generated theory capable of expressing elementary arithmetic cannot be both consistent and complete."

      Gödel's incompleteness theorem
      http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/G%C3%B6del's_incompleteness_theorems

    5. Re:It's neither by SEMW · · Score: 1

      The whole of arithmetic? I'm not so sure... [Gödel's incompleteness theorem] Meh -- depends what you define as "arithmetic". Sure, by Godel I it is possible to construct statements in Peano that are neither provably true nor false, like the ParisHarrington theorem in Ramsey theory. But "elementary arithmetic" usually refers to statements like "(2*3 + 4) / 2 = 5", and all such statements are trivially provable in Peano.
      --
      What's purple and commutes? An Abelian grape.
    6. Re:It's neither by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It all starts with 1+1=2, and that's neither a discovery nor an invention, it's an assumption. The rest is just semantics.

      No, you've touched upon both a discovery and an invention. Early man posited ("discovered") a fundamental need for the grouping of objects; he then proceeded to invent an abstract concept to represent this grouping. Whether for identifying the number of predatory enemies stalking the premises or for rationing food, these concepts served great purpose in early communication.

      Philosophy is truly an obnoxious field - and one where you will draw nothing but flak for trying to atomize high-level concepts. If you want to leave it at "1+1=2", all I can do is extend my deepest thanks to you for not being gratingly pretentious.

    7. Re:It's neither by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      That's not an assumption - it's a meaningful set of verifiable constants within the constraints of an invented counting system. The operation of addition is just as verifiable. If you want to break it down, "1+1=2" is most certainly not the place to start.

  58. religion by frisket · · Score: 1

    But math *is* a mystical religion...

  59. Mathematical languages are invented by LarryIsMe · · Score: 1

    Mathematics has both invention and discovery parts to it.

    Mathematical systems are invented. Non-Euclidean
    Geometry is an invention as shown by the
    varieties available.

    Invention to me is an arbitrary choice made amidst
    a multitude of choices that is often
    made for artistic or stylistic reasons.

    Discovery is what you find when you use a mathematical
    system. Theorems are the discoveries.

    Base 10 is an invention. Pi is a discovery.

    The Euclidean geometric system with its set of
    axioms, definitions, etc. is an invention. The
    Pythagorean Theorem is a discovery.

  60. Meaningless? I disagree. by bluemetal · · Score: 1

    In response to the original post.

    "Suppose you had a definitive, 100% guaranteed answer to the "discovered vs invented" question. What would it allow you to do that you couldn't do before? What could you predict? What would you gain?

    Nothing, nothing and nothing.

    (The Question is) meaningless; merely a matter of perception, wordplay and people having too much time on their hands."

    I must firmly but respectfully disagree that this is the outlook we should have. First of all, we have no true way of knowing what what we could predict or what we could gain if we knew the anser. Even if we knew that right now we could not predict or gain anything, there is no way of knowing that future discoveries wont prove the answer useful. I for one, do not believe it is necessarily the scientist's (and I do mean a scientist of any kind) duty to discover anything useful, insofar as it is difficult to know the full ramifications of a discovery until after it is made. And even if you did have a goal there are always unintended consequences that may overshadow your original design. Just look at TNT.

    Well one could argue this isn't a matter of science, it is a matter of philosophy. Well in that case I would say that even if we don't believe we can find an answer, or even if we don't believe an answer would be useful, it is still part of our human desire to seek these answers, and to deny this is in my estimation, foolish. There is a part of us that thrives on this type of thinking and we should not ignore it.

    This is not to say that all people get any kind of pleasure from this sort of exercise. But all the same, I do not consider it a hollow pursuit, regardless of what the outcome may or may not be, and regardless of if an outcome can even be reached.

    1. Re:Meaningless? I disagree. by 26199 · · Score: 1

      "Regardless of if an outcome can ever be reached."

      That's what I said ... too much time on their hands ;)

      I have nothing against philosophy, in fact I enjoy these discussions, but there are far more important questions in the real world. I thought I'd throw in a bit of perspective...

    2. Re:Meaningless? I disagree. by bluemetal · · Score: 1

      Well I don't mean to say that any one person should be spending all of their time on it. But I do mean to say that it is as worth discussing now as it was 1,000 years ago, even if no answer has been reached.

  61. Math more in common with Mystics - No shit. by Qbertino · · Score: 0, Troll

    The problem with the current wide following of materialisim is that it somehow synthetically imposes a decoupling of the spiritual and the material, in order to then be able to fully dismiss the spiritual as non-sense. I that way todays abundant confession of pure materialisim is just as wacky as the exact opposite: spiritualisim. Which tries to project the laws and mechanisims of the material world on to the spiritual.
    Of-f*cking-course does math have more in common with mysticisim that with natural science - there is no way you can measure or weigh Math. We can sense it in the reflection of our sentinent minds only. That doesn't make it less real. It's called the spiritual world, you twit!

    I'd even go further: I say a modern Mathematician has *much* more in common with ancient religious prophets and leaders than todays blind followers and proponents of constructed confessions people call 'religion'. Be they some variant of the monotheistic theme or some degenerated kit of current liturgies modelled after pantheistic beliefs and traditions, carried out with no true sense of their initial meaning *and* - even worse - with no intent whatsoever to explore or discover, none-the-less discuss their origins.

    In my point of view a bright and carefull thinking & observing philosopher or is far closer to God than some evangelistic priest. The big problem is however that these people often propone pure materialisim and neglegt all holisticisim as pure and utter nonsense. And yet again, with the islam fundamentalists gaining so much attention these days and the most powerfull country in the world run by a evangelistic loonie (both claiming to base their actions on a religious and spiritual inclination and insight) I somehow can't blame them.

    --
    We suffer more in our imagination than in reality. - Seneca
  62. You've just reinvented Projectively Extended Reals by SEMW · · Score: 4, Interesting

    Congratulations, you've just invented the Projectively Extended Reals! Yes, it is certainly possible to get a consistent system with 'a point at infinity'. Trouble is, it isn't very useful. Why not? A lot of things that make the Reals useful come from the fact that they're a field. The projectively extended reals aren't a field, so you lose a lot of useful theorems. And there really isn't very much you can do with them that you can't do with the normal reals or that wouldn't be better done in a Riemann sphere anyway. The complex numbers as an extension to the reals, by contrast, are enormously useful, not only in Mathematics (complex numbers are a field) but also in Physics and Engineering.

    --
    What's purple and commutes? An Abelian grape.
  63. I had a discussion about this recently by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    And I came to the conclusion that everything is discovered. The example I used was Music. All beats, rythms, lyrics, etc, already exist and are waiting to be discovered. It may be a stretch, but I'm starting to believe more in fate than free will, and there is no such thing as Random.

  64. Score +1 by Jane+Q.+Public · · Score: 4, Insightful

    The question itself, as you pointed out but in a different way, is a false dichotomy (is it this or that??). There are a number of explanations that might be found in a mix of the two camps, or somewhere else altogether. As such, the question is pretty much meaningless, really.

  65. My Take by dcollins · · Score: 1, Insightful

    Definitions & Axioms: Invented.
    Theorems: Discovered.
    Proofs: Invented.

    --
    We know where leadership by an anti-intellectual "strongman" who scapegoats minorities and likes boisterous rallies goes
    1. Re:My Take by TakeyMcTaker · · Score: 1

      Definitions & Axioms: Invented. Well you have to start somewhere, so yes the starting point is "invented", but I would posit that a really good starting point relates to some irreducible aspect of physical reality, and that aspect is often "discovered". This middle-ground between fabrication and observation varies by Axiom, and I believe it is a good basis for comparing the value of different Axioms.

      Theorems: Discovered. Agreed.

      Proofs: Invented. This is another area where I would say there is more middle-ground to cover. Just as Axioms can be based on irreducible physical principals that are "discovered", Proofs can also be so complete as to defy any concept of "invention", and at least border on discovery, of pre-existing natural laws. Some Proofs are merely complete "enough", so that extension to base discovery is not fruitful enough to matter. I.E. Conversion of Pi to a rational constant, beyond a given significant digit, is not useful for manufacture of small objects, where precision is inconsequential, like a frisbee. That doesn't make Pi itself an invention, even though the useful (rough) conversions of Pi to rational values could each be considered inventions. Again, I think proof completeness could also be a measure of its relation of invention versus discovery, on some grand scalar between the two. I would tend to find the Proofs that border on discovery more valuable, but that judgement naturally varies by individual measures, such as use value in economics.
  66. Glib answer... by Peet42 · · Score: 3, Insightful

    "Yes".

    To be more specific, Mathematical rules are discovered, Mathematical techniques are invented; "Mathematics" consists of both.

    1. Re:Glib answer... by mindesign · · Score: 1

      my answer, similarly:
      principles are discovered.
      methods are invented.
      all of it beginning with Axiom. be alert to this, and the abstractions it creates.
      and a whole bunch of stuff seems to follow the power law at base, strangely enough.

      --
      everything is closer than you think.
  67. Anonymous Coward by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    The answer is very simple:

    Anything that is universaly true cannot be invented, it can only be discovered because it always existed.

    Mathematical truths always existed so they cannot
    be invented.

  68. I agree completely. by elocutio · · Score: 1

    To me, the argument has nothing at all to do with metaphysics; it's about knowledge, and the semantics of the argument are weak and kind of obvious. The "internalism versus externalism" debate from centuries of epistemological thought is probably wiser (as in wisdom of crowds) than a faddish notion posed by contemporary Euro-math-geek-elites.

    I can accept the semantic difference between principles and observations, and I really don't understand why some people can't. This argument belongs to the same family of paradoxes like "proof of Divine existence," or "whether information can be destroyed." Arguing about the root of knowledge is like shouting to make the wind stop. It might be fun for some, but it just doesn't make sense.

    I don't understand why it's hard to accept that certain points of knowledge are a priori factual, and others need to be supported by other facts. However, I can understand why some people could be anxious to discover (or invent) an ideological foothold that would allow for the irrelevancy of absolutes. To me, the "discovered or invented" argument resembles reconstructionist attempts to Inject connotations where none previously existed. The arrogance with which these reconstructionists would dispute their own contradictions makes me completely nauseous.

  69. Just reading about this... by underworld · · Score: 5, Interesting

    It is coincidental that I was just reading about this in Paul Davies' book "The Mind of God". My opinion on the matter is fairly simple. Mathematics are invented. Period. The reason is simple... all of mathematics is an abstraction. There is no "real" thing called 1 or 2 or 3. In fact, the "integers" we use for counting things is only allowed because of the way we abstract the thing which we count. If we really defined whatever we were counting (say, coins for instance), then we could not count more than one of them.

    Here's a thought problem for you.

    You have the following in your hand:

    A one-cent piece from 1978
    A one-cent piece from 1986
    A one-cent piece from 2004

    I could have said you have 3 cents. But there is no such thing as 3 cents. 3 cents is an idea, an abstraction. It is not a concrete thing in the real world.

    So, despite all that we appear to discover about the world through mathematics, we cannot really say that math is "out there" somewhere waiting for our discovery. Rather, mathematics is our projection onto the universe. It it because of the shortcomings of our abstractions and models that our science must be continuously revised.

    For example, Newton did not discover anything about the universe. He made observations and rationalized (projected?) an abstract model which works very similarly to the observations. It's repeatable and consistent, so we call it a theory.

    But then along comes Einstein. He makes some new observations, some new hypothesis, and voila, a new theory. Even if you argue that Einstein, or anyone else for that matter, has made such discoveries through mathematical observation, that doesn't discount the fact that the observation in that case is made upon the abstraction of the universe, not the universe itself.

    In summary, mathematics is a simulation of the universe. It's an abstraction. One we humans invent. The fact that our model is observable, predictable, and so on in no way justifies the position that we are discovering some thing which pre-existed. Here's a final analogy - a computer model can be created to simulate the design of a car. We can study, observe, made predictions, corrections, and so on with the model. Yet, despite how relevant those observations, predictions, corrections, and so on are to the real car, they are still NOT the real car. The model is our interpretation, our abstraction of the car. We invent it. We make it. We project our ideas about the car into it. We do not "discover" it. The model does not exist without us.

    1. Re:Just reading about this... by aztektum · · Score: 1

      Was language discovered or invented? What you scribble on paper in either realm of language or math are inventions of man to facilitate the passing of ideas/discoveries. This method of description is the invention.

      --
      :: aztek ::
      No sig for you!!
    2. Re:Just reading about this... by TakeyMcTaker · · Score: 1

      I could have said you have 3 cents. But there is no such thing as 3 cents. 3 cents is an idea, an abstraction. It is not a concrete thing in the real world. Your "abstract" analogy has a few problems.

      1. The 3 cents you mention are real. They are physical minted objects.

      2. You are talking about human abstractions more associated with sociology and economics, not mathematics. Depending on the physical qualities of the cents, they may be worth far more to a coin collector. "Value" is a very different basis for abstraction than "1".

      3. All communication is abstraction.

      You are writing in ASCII and/or Unicode right now -- how can it NOT be an abstraction? That has nothing to do with whether the basis of mathematical principals are "invented" by humans that happen to be able to figure out ways other humans will believe the same things, or "discovered" and then interpreted into human languages. In this case, because human abstraction of external and internal principals are innately confused, the term Mathematics is used for both the "invented" form of communication, and the "discovery" which is being communicated.

      Just because all communication is "abstract" doesn't mean the whole universe is made-up! If that was the case, the only possible God is the one in your own head.
    3. Re:Just reading about this... by ShakaUVM · · Score: 1

      I have precisely 0 Jersey Cows in my room right now.

      That said, your arguments mirror that of fuzzy logicians. I'd recommend Fuzzy Thinking by Bart Kosko to think more about the relation of math to the real world, and the imperfection of mapping the real world to math, even though he tends to make the mistake of assuming the truth value of any quantity in the real world is always (0..1) not [0..1] as it should me. I could quite easily not have a single atom of unnilhexium in my room right now.

    4. Re:Just reading about this... by ptitov · · Score: 1

      What about quantum numbers called 1, 2, 3? Energy levels look real and their existence can be verified experimentally.

    5. Re:Just reading about this... by underworld · · Score: 1

      There's no such real thing as "0 Jersey Cows". Your statement is not a mathematical quantification. To say you have "precisely 0" is really a semantic mimic of mathematics. The reason is that all items that really exist have identity. The problem with "precisely 0" is that all things which are not in your room right now share the quantity of "precisely 0". In the context of "your room, right now", there is more than one thing which is not there, thereby removing the identity of any one thing which is not in your room.

      It might be more interesting to say "I have precisely 0 of all things which are not in my room right now, in my room right now." --- although maybe not all that interesting. :-)

    6. Re:Just reading about this... by underworld · · Score: 1

      Your "abstract" analogy has a few problems.

      1. The 3 cents you mention are real. They are physical minted objects. Please re-read the argument. I did not say that each coin wasn't real. What I said is that "3 cents" isn't real. It's easy to observe that each coin exists on it's own. But in order to count them as a set, I must make an abstraction, which reduces the identity of each member of the set. In other words, each member of a set that really exists are not equivalent. To make them "countable", I must make an abstraction which ignores their individual identities ... which in effect "smears" their identities in order to count them as being equal. So, yes, they are physical minted objects as individual things. I can say I have 1 of this kind, and 1 of that kind. But to say I have 2, I have to create an abstraction.

      2. You are talking about human abstractions more associated with sociology and economics, not mathematics. Depending on the physical qualities of the cents, they may be worth far more to a coin collector. "Value" is a very different basis for abstraction than "1". Yet value is itself an abstraction. Value is not an intrinsic quality of coins. It's a quality that humans project onto the coins. If there were no humans here, the coins would cease to have value. When I speak of 1 cent coins, I'm using it in the descriptive sense, not the value sense.

      3. All communication is abstraction.

      You are writing in ASCII and/or Unicode right now -- how can it NOT be an abstraction? That has nothing to do with whether the basis of mathematical principals are "invented" by humans that happen to be able to figure out ways other humans will believe the same things, or "discovered" and then interpreted into human languages. In this case, because human abstraction of external and internal principals are innately confused, the term Mathematics is used for both the "invented" form of communication, and the "discovery" which is being communicated.

      Just because all communication is "abstract" doesn't mean the whole universe is made-up! If that was the case, the only possible God is the one in your own head. I'm not sure what your point is here. I did not suggest that the universe is made up. I suggested that the human model for simulating the universe through mathematics is made up. This has no bearing on any argument for or against God.
    7. Re:Just reading about this... by underworld · · Score: 1

      I think that in order to qualify quantum numbers as different from abstract numbers, we would have to agree that the items being quantified are equivalent. In other words, I cannot count coins because each has its own identity. Do the energies being measured have their own identity? Or can one energy be qualitatively and quantitatively replaced with another and be unrecognizable/unobservable as a change?

      If they can be said to have their own identity, then any counting or quantification of them involves an abstraction. If, on the other hand, you can say they have no identity, then perhaps this may be an instance where you are counting real things. That said, I'm not sure it would lead to us having "discovered" mathematics (which in this case would be described as the study of quantum identities).

      It's an interesting question though.

    8. Re:Just reading about this... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Rather, mathematics is our projection onto the universe. It it because of the shortcomings of our abstractions and models that our science must be continuously revised.

      Unless you consider that "pure" math (for lack fo a better term) might be the relationships that already exist in the universe, and that "modeled" math (again, for lack of a better term) is the best model that we've come up with to explain things.

      So, as others have already said, it's a combination. We observe something that already exists, discover the relationship, then model it as best we can.

    9. Re:Just reading about this... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Not really.

      The distinction, between physical and abstract, is itself an abstraction.

      Additionally, you do not have to count to three to perceive "three". You can perceive "three" just as easily as you can perceive "red".

      The right answer is, as an earlier poster astutely recorded, discovery of relationships following by invention of mathematical language.

      There is no mystery about why mathematics is so useful in the real world, since that is where it essentially came from.

    10. Re:Just reading about this... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      all of mathematics is an abstraction. There is no "real" thing called 1 or 2 or 3.

      The master whacked the student over the head with a bamboo stick.
      "OW!" the student said. You hit me!

      The master smiled, and again whacked the student over the head.
      "Ouch! You hit me a second time!"

      The master raised the stick to strike the student once more.
      At that moment, the student was enlightened.

    11. Re:Just reading about this... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      But then the abstraction itself must be discovered. How does one come up with the thought process of devising an 'abstract model' without first finding out about such a model?

      We seem to forget that 'discovery' and 'invetion' doesn't have to be limited to physical universe, but the potential 'abstract' universe that our physical mind can discover.

      So the real question is, how did this abstract modeling come about? Was it there all along even outside the physical universe?

    12. Re:Just reading about this... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      What do you mean by penny being a "concrete thing?"

      Is the copper the penny?
      Is value associated with the token a penny?
      Is the physical space a penny (and so having plastic pennies and the like)

      If the penny was flattened, would it still be a penny?

      If the penny was cut in two, would it still be a penny?

      So say, "a penny is what you normally think of when I say penny... the average penny"

      What if all the world's pennies where put in one of those penny pressing machines to have my face on it, then someone else's face on it, then other persons face on it.

      When someone says "penny", everyone then thinks of something different.

      What is a penny then?

      OK, so "the penny is what you are pointing to." How do I know we have a common understanding of what you are pointing to? How do you know we know that everyone segments the visual universe in the exact same way?

      Does a fish in the bowl see the penny in the same way you do?

      The fish ignores the penny, and that is important!

    13. Re:Just reading about this... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      But then the abstraction itself must be discovered. Not necessarily.

      An abstraction or model need not exist "somewhere" for us to devise it. For example, Newtonian mechanics is an abstraction. Does it exist somewhere waiting to be discovered? Not really. It's just a model we use. One that Newton "invented" to describe the observations he made. Is it the only model or abstraction? Of course not. The model, however practical, doesn't actually represent reality.

      Again, I'll use the car design analogy. If I have a car, and I study it, measure it, and so on to generate a design or model of the car ... that doesn't mean the design existed waiting for me to discover it. Rather, it's a mechanism by which I can model and simulate the car. It's one I invented to help me understand my observations about the car. But there's absolutely no reason to posit that the design exists waiting for me to discover it. Another person could come by, make their own observations and generate a completely different model of the car. My model may be defined in terms of measurements and major components. But it's possible that some alien species could define a model based on their measurement of the molecules of the thing. Their model would be very different from mine. If those models exist somewhere, then it must be admitted that there exists an infinite (or nearly infinite) variety of such models to be discovered. Where do such things exist? The short answer is, they don't. We don't discover them as we discover dinosaur bones. They don't exist independent of us. We invent them.

      So the real question is, how did this abstract modeling come about? Was it there all along even outside the physical universe? This abstract modeling came about because of the short-comings of humans. We are not perfect. We do not observe and perceive every detail. Our brains "fill in the blanks", so to speak. We smear reality in order to rationalize it. It's not there all along.

      I'm not sure what is meant by "outside the physical universe". There is no such thing as "outside the physical universe" the same way that there is no such thing as "0 Jersey Cows". So, there's limited value to such concepts for this argument.
    14. Re:Just reading about this... by ShakaUVM · · Score: 1

      >>There's no such real thing as "0 Jersey Cows"

      Sure there is. Or, if you're uncomfortable about how we apply labels to things, we can count how many atoms of various types are in my room, and then we can say I have 0 atoms of unnilhexium, quite precisely.

      I'm not interested in semantic games - I consider names to be references to real objects in the same way that pointers are references to objects in code. They are not the same thing as the object, but they do share a certain relation, are useful, and point at the real object.

    15. Re:Just reading about this... by underworld · · Score: 1

      I'm not interested in semantic games - I consider names to be references to real objects in the same way that pointers are references to objects in code. They are not the same thing as the object, but they do share a certain relation, are useful, and point at the real object. That's the point though. It is merely a semantic game to call an object by some name or label... or more accurately to my argument, to call it by some archetype.

      Sure there is. Or, if you're uncomfortable about how we apply labels to things, we can count how many atoms of various types are in my room, and then we can say I have 0 atoms of unnilhexium, quite precisely. The problem with this argument is that you could just as easily say that you have 0 Mercedes-Benz automobiles, 0 Black Holes, 0 oceans, and 0 Ancient Chinese Scrolls, ad infinitum. It adds no value, other than semantic.
  70. obligatory by web_wizard_888 · · Score: 1

    in soviet russia, math discovers you!

  71. Ok, but ... by CustomDesigned · · Score: 1

    what about "goodness" or "justice"?

  72. And I forgot one thing... by Estanislao+Mart�nez · · Score: 2, Informative

    Suppose you had a definitive, 100% guaranteed answer to the "discovered vs invented" question. What would it allow you to do that you couldn't do before?

    That approach is not logical positivism. It's Pragmatism. Two completely different schools. Logical positivists regard all statements as meaningless that do not have a truth value determined by either the logical system itself (tautologies, contradictions) or by contingent empirical facts ascertainable through observation. Pragmatists, on the other hand, don't believe in truth-conditional semantics; the meaning of a linguistic expression is a function of the practical consequences of its use.

  73. Next time I'll hit Preview by Beryllium+Sphere(tm) · · Score: 1

    Let's see if this spelling gets through Slashcode: Erdös

  74. Re:one and one and one is three by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    You can't even round, so spare us the philosophy.

  75. Just out of curiosity... by Kennric · · Score: 1

    who on earth seriously believes that all mathematics exists in some universal psychic brain?*
    Is the Psychic Math Brain Theory (sorry, I mean Platonic Theory) really a serious contender among mathematicians as stated?

    *As opposed, that is, to the idea that physical relationships that exist in our universe are sussed out through experimentation and logic and expressed in mathematical language.

  76. dpends by thermian · · Score: 1

    Our current mathematical framework still carries the stigma of the evil of zero and infinity.
    The idea that zero and infinity were to be feared held us back for centuries, and is so deeply ingrained in our thinking that it has quite possibly prevented us from discovering some quite interesting mathematics. It is for this reason that we cannot yet fully realise the potential of the work of Georg Cantor.

    That aside, invention of mathematics really depends on what viewpoint you take.

    As part of my doctoral thesis I describe a new mathematical technique. Did I invent it or discover it?

    Beats me...

    Personally, I think I invented my method. Mostly because discovery is to my mind reserved for the likes of Pythagoras and his ilk.

    Invention could be discarded, but mathematical discoveries like the properties of triangles are, as far as I am concerned, fundamental statements about the workings of the universe.

    Just a little beyond my league.

    --
    A learning experience is one of those things that say, 'You know that thing you just did? Don't do that.' - D. Adams
  77. same thing by johnius · · Score: 1

    interestingly the word invent comes from the latin inventus: to come upon, to find. "you lucky bastard: you invented world domination by chance. Keep up the good work or we'll throw you to the lions.

  78. Absurdity by jwiegley · · Score: 1

    This is perhaps the most vacuous debate I have ever seen /. post an article about. But it's a very good discrimintation tool for intelligence:

    If you believe mathematical facts exist and operate whether they are known or not and require discovery by analysis, experimentation and critical thinking in order to further our understanding of our universe then you're right. (Yes, I agree the language and symbol used to describe them is invented) In this case please continue to exist.

    If, on the other hand, you believe that you have the power to somehow magically create or invent a mathematical fact simply because you thought of it then please take your psychotic god-complex elsewhere and let the rest of us get on with the business of figuring out how things really work and relieve us from having to be frustrated by your delusions of grandeur. In this case please create a cult for you and your followers based on soul-transport and "sacred" kool-aid.

    --
    I will never live for sake of another man, nor ask another man to live for mine.
  79. I vote "invented" because.... by glitch23 · · Score: 3, Interesting

    mathematics is an abstract concept similar to language. In fact, mathematics should be considered just another language because of the symbols (numerals) used. We use various languages (English, Spanish, etc.) to describe our world in words. We use mathematics to describe the world around us but in a numerical manner. Obviously our world exists without mathematics but we can use various components of mathematics to describe the world and the universe. We have differing numbering systems as well. They all can be used to describe the world around us. An interesting question is if an alien race (which I don't believe in but this is hypothetical) created something similar to mathematics, would it be proper to say that they also invented something and if they did should it be considered mathematics? Or would it be more proper to say they discovered the same thing we did if their mathematics turned out to describe the universe the same way our mathematics does?

    --
    this nation, under God, shall have a new birth of freedom. -- Lincoln, Gettysburg Address
    1. Re:I vote "invented" because.... by TakeyMcTaker · · Score: 1

      mathematics is an abstract concept similar to language. I'm glad you brought up language. I was going to go the other way based on that, and say that original question implies the wrong assumptions to start with, because it ignores the important aspect of communicating discovery. Mathematics is a special language we use to describe those discoveries that can be expressed in numerals or metrics. Therefore I say mathematics is "discovered", just as science is "discovered", even though we also use special scientific jargon to describe some of those discoveries as well. Just because the method used to communicate a discovery is "invented", doesn't mean the discovery itself is also an invention.
    2. Re:I vote "invented" because.... by glitch23 · · Score: 1

      I'm glad you brought up language. I was going to go the other way based on that, and say that original question implies the wrong assumptions to start with, because it ignores the important aspect of communicating discovery. Mathematics is a special language we use to describe those discoveries that can be expressed in numerals or metrics. Therefore I say mathematics is "discovered", just as science is "discovered", even though we also use special scientific jargon to describe some of those discoveries as well. Just because the method used to communicate a discovery is "invented", doesn't mean the discovery itself is also an invention.

      The way I see it is that since language is only a concept within our minds and that the words within our language have arbitrary definitions (but those definitions have been standardized, which is why blue means r=0,b=255,g=0 and not something else) then it must be an invention by the human race. Those words do not exist somewhere for us to find and neither do the meanings. Humans in fact have invented multiple words to mean the same thing both within the same language and obviousy across languages. Why should mathematics be the same way? Mathematics and language were not provided to us somewhere in nature to discover. We had to create them. The concept of 'nothing' wasn't discovered but the way to represent it numerically (i.e. the number 0) and non-numerically (i.e. the word 'nothing') were invented by humans in order to represent that concept.

      The problem to tackle if mathematics is invented is how is it that our mathematics ended up describing our universe. If someone else invented mathematics would their version also describe the universe or did we just get lucky with our version? If it is discovered then it would make sense it describes our universe very well. Then again, if you believe in evolution you must believe in luck and therefore believing mathematics is an invention, not a discovery. I think it is an invention but I don't think we're lucky that it works well.

      --
      this nation, under God, shall have a new birth of freedom. -- Lincoln, Gettysburg Address
  80. This is silly. by pockyninja · · Score: 1

    Discoveries are when you find out about things that have already existed. If you travel to a place where no one has ever been before, you discover it. But it would still exist without anyone knowing about it. Gravity is still gravity, inertia is still inertia, and two plus two is still four. Whether or not we understand it has no bearing on the subject at all. (And don't give me that "high values of two" bunk. Yes, you're very clever, now shut up.)

  81. Let's not get ahead of ourselves by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Hearing well-educated people say "just let it die" is somewhat alarming to me.

    Yeah, of course they're entitled to their oppinion on this, but I sure hope they let their rationality do the ruling on this, and not as some knee-jerk reaction to the less-than-bright creationists who seem to enjoy the spotlight nowadays.

    If they let creationists influence their inclination towards the opposite side of the pond, the damage has already been done.

  82. Exactly by JSBiff · · Score: 1

    You don't need any mystical/religious crap to deal with mathematics being discovered. The ratio between a circle of *any* size and it's diameter is always the same, regardless of whether we have given it a name, or figured out an approximation. Long before this ratio was called Pi, and before we discovered that it was approximately 3.14159, it was still true that this ratio held. Same thing with the ratio of sides of a right triangle.

    Now, one could argue that man invented triangles, and circles, except that, particularly circles, do occur in nature (the earth, the orbits of the celestial bodies, etc), triangles, somewhat less so, though *angles* do exist naturally, and a triangle is just closing the two 'primary sides' of an angle with a third side at some arbitrary distance along one of the sides of the angle. But, with things like shadows, angles occur naturally.

    I think a great example of how mathematics is 'discovered', as opposed to invented, is something I heard about how illiterate shepherds have often used pebbles (or other physical objects) to track that they have the right number of sheep - for each sheep they start out with at the beginning of a day, they put one pebble in a bag, or pile, or pot, whatever. Then they check to make sure they have the same number of sheep as pebbles at the end of the day - without necessarily knowing anything about 'numbers' or how to count. They just remove one pebble from the collection for each sheep at the end. They just better end up with 0 pebbles or else they lost a sheep (or somehow gained one - e.g. from another herd that wandered into theirs). So, addition and subtraction work even when you don't know numbers, or how to count. I think that strongly shows that math is 'inherent' in nature.

    Almost all the rest of math just flows from addition and subtraction.

  83. The real question is how arbitrary maths can be by Twinbee · · Score: 1

    Has to be discovered really. However, there are various degrees to how arbitrary or how 'beautiful' mathematical concepts can be.

    An alien race is likely to also use the majority of our 'foundation' concepts. As the theory gets more fuzzy and more complicated, there may be various other ways, and perhaps some of these ways are less elegant and more arbitrary than other ways. However, it's still possible to get elegant AND complicated mathematicss.

    A good example is the Mandelbrot set. I don't we think we invented that shape ;)

    --
    Why OpalCalc is the best Windows calc
  84. depends.. by jadin · · Score: 1

    I guess I fall in the discovered / defined category and yet the math we use day to day is invented. Our brains are born with the abilities to do complex math 'on the fly' doing physics geometry and who knows what else, simply to catch a ball in mid-flight. Yet if I took pencil and paper it would take me several minutes if not hours to figure out where the ball will be at point x on it's path.

    To me this says that math is in our nature, there to be discovered. However, as we define it with pencil and paper we created [invented] the methods to find the answers we needed. And in my opinion not very efficient ones. When we actually find [discover] the math that's done in our head to catch the ball, I think we'll make some earth-shattering discoveries about well, everything, really.

    I've done very little research on this, so forgive my ignorance if I'm missing something basic or obvious.

  85. Civ by ch0ad · · Score: 3, Funny

    Everyone knows you have to discover mathematics before you can build catapults

    1. Re:Civ by Thyrsus · · Score: 1

      I think the game got it right. Even if the first instance of a catapult was discovered accidentally (suppose someone forcefully hit the handle of a spoon containing an olive, and the spoon was resting on some other implement's handle) then it would nonetheless take large amounts of abstraction to build the "second" catapult - and I assert that those abstractions are different than the object of their physical embodiments: in essence they are mathematics.

  86. short, but on target... by tempest69 · · Score: 1

    The concept was invented.

    What can be done with it is then discovered.

    We invent representations for all sorts of things.. even without math, if you take a basket filled with apples, take an apple out, and place it back in, repeat ad nauseum, the basket will never empty..

    Anyway, we built the representation of natural numbers. Plus, minus, and multiplication are invented transforms on natural numbers that were invented. as is the concept of exponentiation. These representations are useful.. but often have shortcomings.. naturals cant represent all decimal values.. fixed length decimals cant represent irrationals.

    Anyway we invent all sorts of representations, from cartesian coordinates to Hilbert space.. but the relations of the various transforms are discovered... That the hypotenuse of a right triangle squared is equal to the sum of the sides squared is discovered... That 360 degrees are in a circle is invented.. The concept of a right triangle is invented. But the trig that transforms angles to sin/cos is discovered.. Anyway if a representation is wrong, then we can create a new representation, and start discovery from scratch.. IE roman numerals for modern math, horrible for exponents, fantastic for adding numbers together.... however bad discoveries point to a bad model, or to poor logic.

    Storm

  87. Discovered vs Invented by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    So does this debate have a root in the fact that one cannot patent discoveries but can patent inventions?

  88. THE real question is by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    is this debate idiotic or retarded ? Jeez who cares . Please get back to doing some work (math, cs, physics) that might be good rather than wasting time discussing this crap.

  89. Mathematics - discovered or invented? by cslewis2007 · · Score: 1

    Can we not agree that if a mathematical proof is postulated and proved - that it must be by definition, have always been true? Can we agree that the techniques through which we 'discover' these pre-existing mathematical proofs, are indeed, created by men and women?

  90. This isn't a philosophical question by exp(pi*sqrt(163)) · · Score: 1

    It's a perfectly well defined question with a concrete answer. Mathematical symbols and techniques are invented by us, just like tools like hammers and microwave ovens. And just like hammers and microwave ovens we can discover interesting, novel and surprising things to do with them. That's it. No mystery.

    --
    Doesn't it make you feel good to know that our freedoms are protected by politicans, lawyers and journalists.
  91. Best joke ever... by 3p1ph4ny · · Score: 1

    Isn't this discussion purely academic?

  92. why this question matters by Ralph+Spoilsport · · Score: 1
    If there is a platonic world contacted by math where these great mathematical truths exist, then we live in a very different universe from the one where mathematics is a product of the human brain.

    To say we "discover" something with math assumes that the math is "real", and if so, then how we acquire information from such a realm (that clearly doesn't exist in the physical realm) becomes a very significant and serious issue regarding the composition of the universe - far more disturbing than the "missing mass of the universe."

    If we deny that we discover things in math, but instead create things in math, then we are in a different quandary, because then mathematics takes on a certain arbitrariness, and investigations in maths becomes something more like butterfly or stamp collecting than the Fearless and Intrepid Discovery that gives us a reason to go on discovering things.

    If it's invention, then the process is more like Sodoku - filling in the blanks of the universe, as opposed to finding New and Important Things about the world.

    My personal guess is that it is neither - there are things about the universe we can find that is mathematic - specifically, numeracy, which permits addition and subtraction. (Some more things, some fewer things), but the rest of it we make up, as "higher mathematics" (anything above counting, addition and subtraction) is our language center's abstraction capacity playing games with our inherent numerical sensibilities. If i had to come down on one side or the other, i'd side with invention over discovery. I don't think humans are all that special, and I don't think we were built to figure out how the universe works.

    RS

    --
    Shoes for Industry. Shoes for the Dead.
  93. Well it's obviously discovered by trelayne · · Score: 1

    those who see it as being invented are nihilists who cannot see that there is great order to the universe. We've applied math to achieve feats of engineering. Even nature has employed technical mechanisms in organisms that existed long before human- kind came into the picture. To suggest that we invent math is pompous at best.

    Yes we do invent impressive but often inadequate math to simulate or understand the natural world. It is from first realizing that there are simple and then increasingly more complicated mathematical observations that we know there is possibly an ultimate mathematical description of the universe that exists outside of human thought.

    The nihilists believe we are the only intelligent life forms in the entire universe. It is from this viewpoint that they base their argument. Who's the mystic?

    1. Re:Well it's obviously discovered by crashfrog · · Score: 3, Interesting

      those who see it as being invented are nihilists who cannot see that there is great order to the universe.

      I may be the nihilist, but you're the egotist - the one who believes that the order he sees in the universe is really there, not simply the result of his choice to define "order" in such a way that some parts of the universe seem to fit.

      To suggest that we invent math is pompous at best.

      To suggest that we discover it - that our brains, somehow, are able to tune in to an entire dimension of mystical mathematical truths - is arrogant.

      And I have to ask you the question that completely dispels mathematical platonism - where do the wrong ideas come from? If they come from a special universe for wrong ideas, then discerning the difference is the same thing as inventing them. If they come from human imagination, if humans can invent wrong ideas, then surely they can invent right ideas too, and again, it's all invention.

      --
      I never have frustrations, the reason is, to wit:
      If at first I don't succeed, I quit!
    2. Re:Well it's obviously discovered by trelayne · · Score: 1

      Arguing against your post is (strangely) like having to reply to am anti- evolution proponent.

      Your entire argument feels like almost religious doctrine that says "it doesn't make sense that we should understand the universe".

      I can understand your confusion. For hundreds of millions of years there were (we assume) no organisms on earth that could ponder about the nature of the universe beyond the subject of survival.

      However, it is a fact that nature has produced us through a progressive process (we did not simply "appear" by accident as nihilists would like to argue). I would argue that humans (or organisms with the cognitive capacity of humans) are a predictable notch in that process. Therefore, in my opinion, the universe and its math don't need to be invented by our race in particular.

      Maybe it's possible that the universe is not an "absolute truth". That somehow there may be other universes/realities with different math that cannot possibly make sense to us using *our* math. But that is outside the scope of "our universe".The math in our universe makes sense because we exist in THIS universe.

      There is no mysticism here. Unless relativity seems like hocus pocus to you. I know, it's hard to believe that while sitting at your computer the planet is moving at about 30 km/second around the sun. Or that the earth is indeed round.

      We can even simulate reality by applying mathematical formulae and object oriented computation. We are held back from progressively producing more realistic simulations of the universe by the limits of computer processing. Seeing is believing. There is no mysticism there.

    3. Re:Well it's obviously discovered by crashfrog · · Score: 1

      Your entire argument feels like almost religious doctrine that says "it doesn't make sense that we should understand the universe".

      I think it makes perfect sense that we should understand the universe, because a creature that evolved with serious misunderstandings about the universe would not be as successful as one who didn't.

      What doesn't seem true is that a physical brain, unlike any other organization of matter, can somehow "pick up" universal-truth broadcasts from the idea-space. There are only two ways that ideas can enter our minds - they can be picked up by our senses, like when we hear speech or read text; or they can originate there, developed by our imaginations and wills.

      There's no third way. We don't have the organs for it. Thus, human ideas about mathematics must be invention, not discovery.

      However, it is a fact that nature has produced us through a progressive process (we did not simply "appear" by accident as nihilists would like to argue).

      It's a fact? I guess I'd like to see the evidence for that "fact." Humans are an evolutionary corner case, important to no one but ourselves. We are not the "end product" of some teleological evolution.

      The math in our universe makes sense because we exist in THIS universe.

      The math we possess makes sense to us, obviously, because we are the inventors of it. We do not use the math of Alpha Centurions because we are not Alpha Centurions, we are humans.

      We can even simulate reality by applying mathematical formulae and object oriented computation.

      Because that's what we invented those tools to do. Why should I find that any more surprising than the fact that a hammer is a useful tool to pound nails? But you would have me believe that hammers are good for nail-pounding because it is a truth of the universe that they should be so.

      --
      I never have frustrations, the reason is, to wit:
      If at first I don't succeed, I quit!
    4. Re:Well it's obviously discovered by trelayne · · Score: 1

      Nails are a simple human invention. Let's not simplify the matter.

      Humans are actually radically different from other organisms. If we chose to, we might be able to destroy virtually all the large life forms on the planet. No other organism in history has that capacity. After billions of years, this milestone was achieved only decades ago. Hard to say that we are not different.

      We can also leave a biosphere that does not permit other organisms (as far as we know) to leave without technological means.

      We have used our technology to create shelters that allow us to live in harsh climates in larger numbers than would have been possible say twenty thousand years ago.

      Many of us who have been exposed to physics and math realize that the complexity of the universe does not appear to be random or mystical. We can only speak of what we know. And that is that we have used our understanding of nature to create for ourselves and to understand and predict physical realities to great accuracy. This process continues in a progressive manner. And I believe we will make even more *discoveries* that (when applied) will radically alter how we live---just as we always have.

      Therefore the onus is on YOU to prove that we "invent".

    5. Re:Well it's obviously discovered by crashfrog · · Score: 1

      Therefore the onus is on YOU to prove that we "invent".

      I apologize, but since the whole of your argument is a very large non sequitur, the onus is still on you. I've presented an argument. You chose to ignore it and complain about human environmental destruction.

      At best your argument proves that science is a process of discovery, not invention; but that's not a position I disagree with, so you've not accomplished much.

      --
      I never have frustrations, the reason is, to wit:
      If at first I don't succeed, I quit!
  94. But it's not really quite that simple... by Etherwalk · · Score: 1
    1. Re:But it's not really quite that simple... by somersault · · Score: 1

      No it's not. There's 1/2mv^2 for pressure or whatever, inverse square laws for the strength of light/magnetic fields/any radiation.. and probably a lot of others that I don't know about.

      --
      which is totally what she said
  95. why ask this question by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    The underlying question, or question that may come out of this many years later maybe something as outrageous and ambitious as;

    Since the theories of mathematics are models of real world observations, by definition we would consider it a discovery. However, we must acknowledge the underlying language and symbolism which is core to our mathematics is invented. Then the question would be, is this language of maths correct or can it be improved and hence remove some of the anomalies we have in mathematics today. Is our "elegant" language elegant enough?

  96. how can it be squared plus a bit? by tinkerton · · Score: 1

    If you have enery in kg.m2/s2 and you round up the useful variables, that's rest mass, velocity v and lightspeed c.
    Then you already know you can write E as m0.f(v/c).c^2 because otherwise how are you going to get the dimensions right. f can still be any weird thing at that moment, but it's dimensionless. And surely you can set m = m0.f(v/c)/f(0) before starting to find out what the subject is you're looking at. Don't mind me though. streamofconsciousness.

  97. Misquoted by trinarybit · · Score: 1

    The author of the EMS article spends most of it talking about how brains function in understanding mathematics, a different form of Platonism. That mathematical truths would exist without something to understand them is akin to saying A implies B, and A, thus B if and only if something thought about it. As far as the utility of if they are one, the other, or something totally different, if it's more akin to discovery, is there an easier way to survey the land?

  98. succinctly put! by rubypossum · · Score: 1

    I would try to explain it by saying that all equations are out there already in the same way that all integers are out there already. Once we had the idea for the infinite sequence of integers, we knew of every one of them. Even though mankind will never see most of the set. It's the same kind of relationship (a simpler one, but the same.) Cheers

    --
    I have a theory that the truth is never told during the nine-to-five hours. - Hunter S. Thompson
  99. Which Maths? by DynaSoar · · Score: 1

    Mathematics is a field with enormous breadth and depth. I think it highly implausible that given the two possibilities, all of the various areas fall under only one origin. Some math is created to explain observed phenomena, and so "found". Some is created in the purely theoretical sense and only later found to have real world application and so "made". To muddy the waters, in all cases I can think of, those things developed under one of these inevitably are found to have connection with other things developed under the other, meaning neither can lay claim to being the original source.

    I tend to think that not all areas of math that were created theoretically find a real world connection, making these at least purely "made", with no natural frame of reference. However, it can't be said they will never have such a connection until the time constraint for the definition of "never" has been exhausted, "Which is, of course, impossible."

    The main problem I have arguments in the subject of "found" vs. "made" is that both presume to say the human mind is sufficiently advanced enough to be able to recognize true connections with Platonic ideals, or to show that they do not or cannot exist in any sense. The human mind is not terribly advanced beyond the realm of other animals', and in any case is advanced only along the path it has evolved, where as an entirely different kind of mind might only be able to operate under one context or the other, may see no contradiction in holding to both simultaneously. or may hold to a similar but orthagonal set of assumptions that would create a third option, although we might never be able to grasp the thought processes involved; our brain wouldn't be able to think along lines it wasn't evolved to think along (the "the problem with aliens is, they're alien" axiom).

    I do tend to think that the answer, if such exists, will be something like "both, and then some" because absolutist either/or thinking such as the argument presented usually ends up being found to be a naive viewpoint from underdeveloped minds. In any case, from what I can tell, the vast majority of makers and users of mathematics carry on marvelously without tripping themselves up on the question, because the making and using does not require an answer to the question in order for these to happen.

    --
    "I may be synthetic, but I'm not stupid." -- Bishop 341-B
  100. How can you be in two places at once ... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    ... when you're not anywhere at all?

    I have started to wonder about Pi. I mean, isn't it all in the definitions? What's a circle -- it's the set of all points equidistant from a center point, What's "equal" when applied to "distance"? As soon as the distances are of a magnitude where relativity applies -- non-Newtonian space - then, whether two distances are equal depends on the velocity of the observer, on the frame of reference. A circle is only a circle if it's holding still -- but in reality, it's not holding still. So no circle is real; so in reality, there is no Pi. There is only Pi in mathematics.

    Pi is not invented or discovered. It is imagined.

    Then I say, hey, just take this circle and move toward it, or away from it, until you get an ellipse you like -- one where the radii have a nice whole-number relationship to each other and to the circumference -- and throw all those extra digits away. Problem solved.

    That's my story and I'm sticking to it. Ulekewan Manatepe.

  101. The Point Is MOOT! by Tiger+Smile · · Score: 1

    I get the car.

    Seriously, this seems silly to me. Math is a descriptive method of explaining calculation. It seems more akin to a language. Language explains things, unless it's computer docs, then it might explain things, unless it's man pages and then it only explains what you currently know or less(often lessing what you do know). But, basically math explains calculations dealing with numbers or number like things. So it's an expression, and as such could express a discovery, invention, or something else. As a language-like system though it's more line a story than an invention. But, as i type I find myself agreeing more with people say it just explains a natural law. And since often there is only one method for making that observation correctly then it would be dumb as hell to put it under copyright or patents. Could you imagine how that would retard the world of math as it has computers. Kids would not be able to learn in schools that could not afford the 2+2=4 tax, and calculating the taxes on 2+2=4 would also generate a fee. :)

    --
    -- Prepared at the direction of, or to be sent to Legal Counsel, in anticipation of litigation. Attorney Client Pri
  102. Perfection embodied by CallsignBaron · · Score: 1

    Math is perfection embodied and completely logical. Humans are incapable of both perfection and pure logic. We can understand the concepts but we cannot actually achieve them. Conclusion, math is discovered. My two cents anyway and you know what they say about opinions, so the debate shall rage on.

    --
    "I reject your reality and substitue my own." ~ Adam Savage, Mythbuster extraordinaire.
  103. You cannot invent rules of reality. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    You can only discover them. Inventing rules of reality is a pipe dream of the current presidential administration.

    You CAN, however, invent applications of the rules of reality.

  104. Mathematics is the language of the natural world. by zerofoo · · Score: 1

    I'm not a mathematician. My experience with mathematics is limited to my college education (electrical engineering and computer science).

    Mathematics, in my use, is nothing more than language to describe the natural world. In that sense, it is both an invention and a discovery. The invention part is the actual mechanics of the language, and the stuff it is trying to describe is the discovery.

    -ted

  105. Wittgenstein by Alarindris · · Score: 1

    It's a nonsensical question, all you are doing is arguing semantics.

    For example consider how Socrates and his buddies argued about "good". There is no such thing as good existing outside of a "good meal", "good deed", or "good idea". It just modifies the word that follows.

    The ONLY thing this argument is about is the difference between the words "invented" and "discovered". Can you REALLY invent something, or do you just put together previous "discoveries" in a novel way?

    Math is math, good is good.

  106. Ok, but you know what? by certain+death · · Score: 0

    Arguing about math on slashdot is like arguing about pussy...some people think it is good, and easy and feels really good, and yet others having the same math or pussy will not like it, and say it is rough and feels bad. The one constant here is that you will really never get either.

    --
    "My immediate reaction is "WTF? What kind of moron doesn't make things 64-bit safe to begin with?" Linus
  107. Invented. by morari · · Score: 1

    I'm certainly no mathematician, and this questions does seem absolutely pointless, but I'm going to bet on "invented". Sure, quantities of objects (Which could be added, subtracted, etc) would still exist even had we not invented mathematics. But with that in mind, having not invented language wouldn't stop objects with assigned names from existing.

    --
    "He who can destroy a thing, controls a thing." --Paul Atreides, Dune
  108. Why I believe it is invented by azgard · · Score: 1

    The hard part in mathematics are not theorems and proofs; the hard part are elegant (or useful) theorems and proofs. You can generate as many theorems and proofs you want using automated computer (they are, after, recursively enumerable). But then you won't recognize the really interesting ones.

    The point is, the really interesting theorems (and proofs) require good definitions. And the definitions are invented. Consider for example the progress that was made by replacing Riemann's integral by Lebesgue's integral (which is just a different definition of the same concept), or using distributions instead of real functions (again, different definition of similar concept). There are also many examples where good definition simplified existing proof considerably. And don't me even let to start on algorithms... Thus the main progress in mathematics is done by good definitions more than anything else.

    So mathematics, as a usable science (as opposed just to a bunch of tautologies valid within a given axiomatics), is invented, not discovered.

    P.S. When I realized this I also realized that the school of formalism in mathematics is missing the most interesting part.

  109. Michelangelo said it best by PhatKat · · Score: 1

    THe figure resides in the block of marble before he began sculpting. he just chipped away what wasn't the sculpture.

  110. Does it matter by LordZardoz · · Score: 1

    I cannot see anything that would come of being able to say one way or the other if Math is discovered or invented. So why would the distinction matter?

    END COMMUNICATION

  111. Invented! by Lorean · · Score: 1

    Mathematics was invented. Take for example Euclidean geometry which requires perfectly straight lines with no thickness. In the real world, nothing makes a perfectly straight line - not even light. There are no true circles, triangles, parabolas, squares, rectangles. Not to mention planes - which span an unbounded space.

  112. this is best understood as map vs. territory by kennylogins · · Score: 0

    this is a no brainer

  113. A flaming Platonist says by burnitdown · · Score: 0

    You're confusing Platonism with dualism. In Platonic principle, the idea is manifested in reality, so we can discover its form and from that pattern understand its design principle. Ever read the Pattern Language books by Christopher Alexander? Yep, that idea. Dualism says there's another world, and we must touch that world to be able to understand it. It's crazy talk for Semitic shepherds on fly agaric.

  114. travel to Logopolis and find out n/t by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    travel to Logopolis and find out..

  115. Mathematics is discovered by spiker_22 · · Score: 1

    mathematics is simply the science that maps reason to specific; mostly numeric problems. Rudimentary mathematics are simply rudimentary logical operations. and advanced mathematics are advanced logical operations. When a given proof correctly identifies the facts of reality, it becomes the proof or law. The world learned at Hiroshima that Einstein's mathematics were not just academic, but that they correctly identified the facts of atomic reality. Finally, the idea that platonism must de because of its associaltion with mysticism is to toss the baby out with the bath water. The mysticism associated with Platonic theory has indeed died its own death. This despite its absorption by the medieval Catholic church. Do we see any "platonists" as such expressing the same or for that matter any mysticism today?

  116. Mathematics is a technology by mapkinase · · Score: 1

    So, yes, it is invented.

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  117. June 2007 by HuguesT · · Score: 1

    The newsletter of the EMS the Find announcement talks about is dated June 2007, so this no recent debate :-)

    Besides, I believe a lot of maths is invented, but simultaneously the vast majority of it is discovered : Invention first (maybe), then lots of discoveries pertaining to this invention. Sometime the invention is simply an idealisation of the known world.

    For instance, in the same issue of the EMS is the announcement that Stephen Smale was a co-recipient of the 2007 Wolf Prize (major prize in math). He is famous for many things, one of which was a proof that the standard sphere can be pulled inside out while remaining in standard space, without tearing or creasing.

    There are many illustrations of the phenomenon, one of which is called "outside in" found on google video.

    Inasmuch as a sphere is an abstract, "invented objet", the process of eversion, as it is called, a feature of 3-space topology, is definitely a discovered phenomenon.

    In another instance, if one will, one could call natural numbers an invention, however a pretty natural one (eh). All the number theory results are however discoveries of properties of the natural numbers.

  118. Credit where it's due by Myrddin+Wyllt · · Score: 1

    Fermat's Last Theorem is objectively true, and all that Wells did was find a way to show everyone that. Andrew Wiles is the name of that bloke you couldn't quite remember. Agree with the point you make, though.
    --
    [ ]Half Empty [ ]Half Full [x]Twice as big as it needs to be
  119. How is mathematics related to logic, to reason? by (C3PO-Neural_Login) · · Score: 1

    How does mathematics related to logic, to reason? Is the potential truth of a verbal statement invented or discovered? If I say "Maths is discovered (or maths in invented)" is that statement discovered or invented? Does some maths not make observations of purely numerical phenomena? Is all maths applicable to the universe? Does some maths exceed potential limitations in the universe, for example perhaps maths dealing with infinity? Is perhaps the universe, perhaps ultimately purely mathematical? Will one day in thousands of years a formula be dis coved which explains the whole universe?

    1. Re:How is mathematics related to logic, to reason? by (C3PO-Neural_Login) · · Score: 1

      Sorry and I had to had, are not all discoveries indeed interpretations? Or merely electrical impulses in our brain, tools of communication.

  120. Observed by lilfields · · Score: 1

    I'm going to have to say that it was discovered, to me this is like asking "did we invent the earth as a spherical object or did we discover it was a spherical object?"...well we invented the term "spherical" and the language to allow that word, but it has almost always been spherical (I know it's not a perfect sphere). The order in the universe which is measured by mathematics have existed before humans...we simply discovered its order and called the order mathematics. Everything we do is in observation and evaluation, we simply shape our society on the order of everything and observe ways to make it work for us.

  121. Axioms invented, ramifications discovered by barrkel · · Score: 1

    It seems pretty clear to me. All mathematical "knowledge" that can be proved using prior mathematical work and ultimately based on a set of axioms, was implicit in the original axioms. When we do mathematics, all we are doing is "discovering" the ramifications of our axioms - but that doesn't mean that mathematics are discovered from some platonic realm.

    Rather, we have deliberately chosen the axioms, the underlying assumptions of our game. These axioms, and the rules of the game, have been invented to be consistent with one another (Godel aside). All other "knowledge" that comes out of consequences of the rules and axioms isn't "new", as such, but merely an implication of our chosen axioms.

  122. Simple by yellowstone · · Score: 1

    Axioms are invented. Theorems are discovered.

    --
    150 Opening BINARY mode data connection for slashdot.sig (129323052 bytes).
  123. Invented by theeddie55 · · Score: 1

    Invented...
    atleast it is the way I do it.

  124. No need to "connect" by dkarma · · Score: 1

    Why would I need to connect with mathematics to understand it? That's like saying well we're not sure if botany exists because no one connects with plants... When we breed do we not start out at one cell then double and double and double? Isn't that a "connection" with mathematics? The math is there and was there and always will be there. The fact that we understand it doesn't give it being, but rather proves that we are truly special animals in that we can comprehend that which is there. A rabbit doesn't understand exponents, but is able to breed using them...

  125. Doesn't that violate Godel's theorem? by mrraven · · Score: 1

    Defined consistently and in a closed system way? Wouldn't that violate Godel's incompleteness theorem?

    http://www4.ncsu.edu/unity/lockers/users/f/felder/public/kenny/papers/godel.html

    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/G%C3%B6del%27s_incompleteness_theorems

    Serious question BTW, non expert here.

    p.s. Godel's theorem would seem to imply mathematics is discovered, why would we invent something fragmentary?

    --
    Tired of all the isms, don't exploit people as an employer, or a government, mmmmK?
    1. Re:Doesn't that violate Godel's theorem? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I don't see how Godel's theorem implies mathematics is discovered. To me it says there's an unlimited number of ideas to discover or invent, but I don't see how it says more than that. If there was a limit, then I'd say it's clearly just discovery.

    2. Re:Doesn't that violate Godel's theorem? by mrraven · · Score: 1

      As an admitted non-expert clearly the idea that non trivial mathematical systems are incomplete came as a complete surprise to math community, right? I.E. it was a property discovered pre-exisiting in the structure of the theorems. If math were just invented then it seems like it would be impossible to suprise ourselves with discoveries of such unanticipated consequences of our theories, right? Clearly Godel discovered something and didn't just invent this thorny knot in his own head, i.e. it existed before he discovered it, and he brought it to light, how could it work any other way?

      --
      Tired of all the isms, don't exploit people as an employer, or a government, mmmmK?
    3. Re:Doesn't that violate Godel's theorem? by ghettoimp · · Score: 1

      I'm pretty sure that by invoking Godel in this thread, you lose.

  126. Neither - it's simply understood. by Der+PC · · Score: 1

    Like all phenomena that abides a rigid law, mathematics can't be "invented", nor can it be "discovered".

    To be invented, it must first not exist. But since the rules are there, even tho the practicioners may not comprehend them at some point in time, everything still follows these rules and once the rules are understood the notation is invented. Yes, the notation. The way of putting the rules down on paper. That's an invention, as may well be seen with 18th century mathematicians, who many of which managed to understand the same things at similar times at different places in the world, putting them down on paper for future generations. Many of these "moments of enlightenment" are put down so differently that f.ex. when studying discrete mathematics, you generally learn several different notations for the same ground law.

    But to be discovered, there's no requirement of an understanding. It's simply that you stumble upon something possibly great.

    Take f.ex. gravity. We can with farly good certainty say that humans don't know how gravity works. We know that Newtons law og acceleration is affected by gravity, but we don't comprehend the laws and physics behind gravitational forces. Not enough to be able to say with any certainty what the laws of gravitation are.

    But the gravity is still there. Ask anyone over the age of sixty. They'll show you proof.

    Now, if someone really bright would think long and hard about gravity and how it works, he might finally understand the inner workings of gravity itself, and the laws that control it.

    Understand.

    He wouldn't discover anything, since what he was "searching" for was already there. He just didn't comprehend it.

    Much like a native of the Maku tribe of South America wouldn't comprehend a fission reactor, although he might understand that it's a dangerous object, and he would certainly understand that it's there.

    And however much you'd want to be able to claim to have invented the laws of gravity - I think that "doubtful honour" belongs to Al Gore, inventor of the internet, universe and everything. :-)

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  127. uhh.. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    who gives a shit. Get a girlfriend.

  128. we invent a way to discover the math that is there by Dillenger69 · · Score: 1

    Plain and simple.
    The things that math describes are already there.
    We invent a way to frame the concepts that we discover.

    Nothing was nothing before we thought of zero.
    We just invented a way to explain it.
    The discovery is that it actually makes sense.

    --
    09 F9 11 02 9D 74 E3 5B D8 41 56 C5 63 56 88 C0
  129. If its invented - hurry and patent it... by 3seas · · Score: 1

    If its a discovery, who gets the claim to fame?

    But if its just a human created abstraction set created for communication as most all other human created abstractions are for, then the copyright has long expired.

  130. Civilization by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    According to what I've learned from video games, it is discovered, and you need to know "Writing" to be able to do so.

  131. Boolean Response by RickRussellTX · · Score: 1

    Yes.

  132. 3 words by sir+fer · · Score: 0

    stupid fucking question

    --
    Debian FTW ;o)
  133. Invented, selectively by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    We invented mathematics. But we keep only the ideas that we can reuse and adapt in a structured way to a variety of situations. The resulting "harmony", structure, "beauty", etc., we see in the resulting mathematical system are there because we selected the concepts that had those attributes. It's sort of like natural language; different cultures invent different languages to describe the same things, but in essence we all arrive at nouns, verbs, and so on. A hypothetical extraterrestrial race would invent their own mathematical system, which likely would look different from ours, but it would still describe integers, ratios, arithmetic, ...

  134. It depends on your approach. by Starker_Kull · · Score: 1
    I have noticed that serious math people who lean toward theory will almost always say 'discovered', and those who lean toward the applied side or have little native mathematical ability will say 'invented'.

    I suspect this has to do with the problem solving bias one has - if you are a theoretician, you are trying to prove theorems. They are either true or false (yes, I'm ignoring the posibility they are indeterminate), and the fact that you haven't figured out which doesn't mean the answer is some wishy-washy thing - the theorem is TRUE or it is FALSE, we just don't know which yet. This sense of the answer being there but not being found yet is like a process of discovery, seeking something that already exists, but we just don't quite know where.

    Applied people, OTOH, are rarely interested in proving a theorem for it's own sake, but usually are hunting down algorithims for determining answers to well modeled problems, perhaps proving some bounds on how rapidly their solution converges. There are frequently many different ways of calculating something, and when we come up with a faster converging, more computationally convenient method, it seems a clever invention, something new created. We don't think of methods and algorithims as being discovered, because they seem more like plans of action rather than a claim about a static thing.

    People who have no feel for numbers tend to be in the 'invented' camp, but that's because they view mathematics as a bunch of arbitrary rules - the connections and underlying consistency is invisible to them, so they conclude it's all just made up - i.e. invented.

    I personally like Ivar Peterson's interpetation; mathematics is like a vast jungle, of which we have only cleared out the tiniest areas. We have made many forays into the jungle, cleared a few spots, blazed many trails, and quite frequently find that many different trails wind up at the same place; the peaks of mountains, the waterfalls at the edge of a cliff.... Those who focus on the meeting spots and large cleared areas see them as being there already, and think of mathematics as a process of discovery of these common meeting points. Those who focus on the multiple trails, all the random and winding ways they go, watching how old, treacherous ones get replaced by shorter and eaiser ones, in a somewhat arbitrary fashion and with an apparent degree of luck, see mathematics as being invented.

    But it is discovered, you know.... ;-)

  135. Either: It Depends by beaverbrother · · Score: 1
    If a mathematical structure or process is the only way to represent or model something that is physical and already exists, then it is discovered.

    Otherwise, if the math was invented as a tool that is not necessary (i.e. there are other ways to do it), then it is invented.

  136. A little of both by JeffreyBolle · · Score: 1

    I would argue that some maths is discovered and some is invented. A lot of ideas used in mathematics can be found in nature and hence were discovered, the sine and exponential functions are good examples of this. Other maths is simple created either for it's own sake or to help us solve a given problem, examples of this can be found by studying abstract algebraic structures which are often used as tools for solving complex problems.

  137. It's obvious by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Hmm, seems pretty obvious to me. It's both.

    Mathematics is about identifying patterns that exist in the real world. No matter how abstract it becomes later, the topic at hand WILL be derived from past "reality" based observations. This is why math is partly about discovery.

    The notations of mathematics, however, is invented. FTA they make the cliche argument of 2 + 2 = 5 and embellish the conundrum mathematicians have with such an invalid statement.

    But it really isn't much of a problem.

    2 + 2 = 5 is perfectly valid if it has been DEFINED that way. It is fine if we have 2 white dots and 2 black dots to conclude we have "5" black dots if we agree to denote 5 as a symbol for the meaning for four. It is, on the other hand, idiotic to conclude there aren't any dots or infinite dots based on what's observed. The denotation of symbols is the invention side of math.

    It just so happens that, with enough definitions, remarkable conclusions can be made about things that we can't hope to perceive in the real world because our senses aren't capable. These conclusions are related to patterns so qualify as discoveries.

  138. Discover the Inventions by itsybitsy · · Score: 1

    It's been discovered that it's invented.

    Humans invented what they discovered.

  139. that's not logical positivism by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Logical positivism doesn't ask whether an answer will tell us something about the future. Instead, it has a verificationist theory of meaning which states that a sentence is meaningful if (a) it is true by virtue of the meaning of its terms (analytic), or (b) it is empirically verifiable. Besides this, a statement has to be well formed, which means that it conforms to the rules of syntax for that particular language, otherwise it is pure nonsense right out of the gate.

    The meaning/meaningless distinction was intended by the logical positivists to distinguish between scientific statements --statements we can say involve legitimate knowledge claims-- and non-scientific statements. Carnap had an exterminationist mission against metaphysics, and sent as many statements to his guiliotine as possible. Eventually, however, the verificationist theory of meaning had to be executed, and the whole project fell apart.

    This particular question would indeed be tossed by Carnap, on the grounds that statements like, "Mathematics involves Platonic forms," is neither analytic, nor empirically verifiable. The Platonic realm is by definition outside of the realm of experience.

    1. Re:that's not logical positivism by 26199 · · Score: 1

      Hum. Doesn't "empirically verifiable" === "tells us something about the future"?

  140. Invent the Discovery by Tivon · · Score: 1

    I imagine that anyone saying it's both is on the right track, but not in the way most people are thinking. You see in Nature, long before Man, long before our Imagination to Invent Math, there was nothing and then something. From that something became something else and thus a great pattern formed into a complex creature born out of energy from the Universe. Sounds diluted at the scientific basic level I know. Then came Man who knew nothing and then was cast out of Eden having taken the fruit to know good and evil. Now that sounds biblical basic I know. Man with his fresh cleaned slate discovered a great many things in the World and with those discoveries his Imagination grew to Invent and discover more things and so on and so forth this continued till todays question. So do we Discover Math or Invent it? Do other creatures use Geometry to figure the nuts are too many for the capacity for the old tree, No. Does a God need to know Math to the number of floods, No. So then Math is an Invented Tool Created by Man for Man to Aid Himself in Exploring and Discovery. So Math is Invented, but we are Discovering a great many things with it.

  141. Duh! Its invented by uclatommy · · Score: 1

    The act of counting is a human behavior. Counting relies on our ability to differentiate the units of stuff to be counted. Where does one unit begin and end? This is a human notion. Counting gives rise to mathematical operations and also allow us to conceptualize ways to measure the universe (volume, speed, groups and sets, angles, etc..) Math is a model for a human perception of reality and is therefore an invention.

  142. Genes can be patented by snowwrestler · · Score: 1

    And they are discovered, not created.

    I don't think they should be patentable either, but I'm not in charge.

    --
    Build a man a fire, he's warm for one night. Set him on fire, and he's warm for the rest of his life.
  143. Too broad .. by sgunhouse · · Score: 1

    Some math is discovered. Like pi for example. You can say pi is the ration of circumference to diameter in a circle, or also a number that comes up in probability theory, or several other ways you could define it - but they are all the same actual value. Would anyone claim that Euclid invented the value of pi? No, he discoverd it (to the degree he was capable of anyway). But some other aspects of math are invented - say, number systems. Base ten or base two (or for that matter Roman numerals) were invented. Some people have invented number systems based on factorials, or negative or even complex bases - or my favorite, numbers based on the Fibonacci sequence. I suppose that goes back to the second answer above then. Number systems are part of the "language" of math - how we express mathematical statements. Terms like triangle and isometry and the symbol pi are invented, formulas and geometry proofs and finite simple groups are discovered

  144. The answer is simple and lies in logic by brunes69 · · Score: 1

    If Math is invented, then how can mathematical proofs exist? One can't base a logical proof on a theory or invention - a proof is either true, or it isn't.

  145. There is a reason to ask by UnixUnix · · Score: 1

    There IS a reason to ask the question; the answer matters, be it to a few. It has nothing to do with physical applications -- more than half the posts here are irrelevant, because Math not only is not physics; it is not a physical science at all. If Math is "discovered", i.e. if mathematical objects lead a charmed life of their own and are not artifacts of ours, if the notions of "real numbers", "set of real numbers", "the set of sets of real numbers" are meaningful and well-defined, then it DOES maker sense, for example, to look for an answer to the Continuum problem (Cantor's Continuum Hypothesis, "CH")...beyond the current axiomatic framework (ZFC), which is known not to imply CH, nor not-CH. If Math is not, one might retreat into formalism, or formalism of sorts, where CH (among other things) is a consequence of this and its negation is a consequence of that, and so on and so forth...without commitment to, or maybe even a notion of, what is ultimately true. About the real numbers, if you will -- this is no abstruse question regarding large cardinals or something. Some mathematicians are formalists on Sundays; not always, though, when they are grappling with a problem :-P [ Compare: "there are few atheists in the trenches". ] My answer, if you haven't guessed yet: Math is discovered.

  146. Discovered Math Isn't Synonymous With Platonism by ACrappyDev · · Score: 1
    Math is discovered; clearly, it's not invented because 2 + 2 != 5 and any attempt to make 2 + 2 = 5 would simply devolve renaming 4 under a different name.

    Having said that, the counter argument against 'math is discovery' (which is that, if math is discovery, then it must be Platonic, but Platonism is bullshit, so math is not discovery) is that nothing points towards 'math is platonic' more so than other theories, like 'math is a set of ideas that we must inevitably reason towards'(the nomological view)

    Note that the 'everyone knows math' argument doesn't support Platonism; anything that is even meaningful is shareable. (yes, even 'internal' emotions)
  147. a simple test by e**(i+pi)-1 · · Score: 1
    here is a test, to find out whether you belong to the "discovery" or "invention" camp. I write down a 100 digit number (with breaks are to pass the slashdot filter):

    23413241324014151381098383771346 17236763476002374693746767349165862485 77264391763900632417623 9487162394871632948 7162394876193248 716239847169 23874169328746198 237461982374619823746 19283 741928374 1923847619

    did I invent this number, or did I discover it? Nobody has written it down already, so I invented it. However, the number system exists already as a definite point on the number line which we all think to know, so I discovered it.

    1. Re:a simple test by ioshhdflwuegfh · · Score: 1

      here is a test, to find out whether you belong to the "discovery" or "invention" camp. I write down a 100 digit number[...] did I invent this number, or did I discover it? Nobody has written it down already, so I invented it. However, the number system exists already as a definite point on the number line which we all think to know, so I discovered it. Sorry I had to cut off your number. A test for you then would be to answer, invent or discover: whether I did this out of jealousy, because I like your number so much that I wish I had discovered it (bonus here would be to figure out whether this operation is really castration), or because I think what you did is like some monkey-with-the-keyboard sort of experimentation in typing that I found a bit belated due to all the developments in the theory of random numbers.
  148. Discovered, so far. by Rend+Wolfmoon · · Score: 1

    Mathematics is a word with many meanings, it can mean the product of mathematicians researches, what they supposedly refer to, or the human activity of thinking about those stuff.

    Considering mathematics as the set of all possible axiomatic theories, I believe it's discovered, because of its very complex structure, which is what makes mathematics interesting. Each new detail of this intricate structure (proven proposition, theorem) is something no one knew (discovered), and was not under someone's control to make it true or false (invented).

    Axiomatic theories can be developed mechanically, if there were physical systems that acted as theorem-proving computers on some random place in the universe, we could say that mathematics is really about the behavior of those computers (just like biology). There is no need of thinking beings or abstractions.

    The real question is, where does the mathematics structure comes from? Does it depends on computational paradigms or notational systems? Is it specified by some more fundamental system?

    If the answer is that it's somehow specified by aspects we invented or control, it might be considered an invention as well, otherwise, say, "it's a consequence of some physical law concerning information and computation", it might be considered a discovery, and a very special one.

  149. Observer and environment are codependent by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Mathematics exists only as a combination of BOTH the human mind and external reality. Without the human mind there is no mathematics, without the external reality there is no mathematics.

    It is analogous to the colour "blue", which is a combination of the human perceptual system combined with the external electromagnetic radiation at certain frequencies. Remove either and blue no longer exists.

    Does a falling tree create a sound if no one is there to hear it?

  150. my thought is by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    How can you invent something that already exists?

  151. Math is software for your brain by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    I consider math to be software for your brain. The Romans had "Roman numerals I", but most people today have "Decimals 2.0" and "Algebra XP" installed.

    Were Roman numerals invented or discovered? Were decimals invented or discovered? Both were invented, but they point at the underlying concepts that were discovered.

    "e" is an human invention that points at the discovery that all growth rates share a fundamental base. "pi" is a human label for the discovery that all circles share a common ratio.

    We invent the language of math (mental software) to describe relationships that already exist in the wild. We write physical equations (F=ma) to describe relationships that already exist in nature. So I think it's a little of both.

    Does it matter? Yes! Not in the "practical" sense, just like art, literature, music, rainbows and *gasp* Star Wars don't matter in the practical sense. But they are still interesting in their own right, and we are curious creatures. Life would be a miserable place if it was only about making better widgets.

    The feeling of invention or discovery can lead us to a better understanding of knowledge and our relationship with the world. Does Godel's incompleteness theorem change anything in your daily life? Not really, math keeps on trucking along, and 1 + 1 = 2 still works. But it's quite interesting philosophically, that some truths will always be unprovable.

  152. Re:one and one and one is three by liquidf · · Score: 1

    no, one and one make two, two and one make three. it was destiny.

    --
    i've had just about enough of your vassar bashing.
  153. math method is invented, and result is discovered. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    human invented the way of looking at the universe, and discovered many insightful findings.

  154. hmm... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    1

    there, fixed that for ya

  155. Time? by RJFerret · · Score: 1

    Was time discovered or invented?

  156. Re: by stalepie · · Score: 1

    I think it is discovered, but I think this goes for all inventions. It also goes for art. If you believe in God, then you believe that all ideas have already been thought before, before the creation of the world.

  157. Are Chess games "discovered"? by Guppy · · Score: 1

    Consider the game of Chess. It is a deterministic game, with a huge but finite space of games that exist. Any game could then be considered to take a one of the fixed and limited number of paths through through this space. As such, it could be said that a chess game is not "played", it is only "discovered".

    However, the experience of actually playing or watching chess results in an entirely different feeling -- so maybe it is not such a useful way to define it.

  158. So Abstract Perception is non-possible, then? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    WHO is observing, physically? An abstract-entity?

    Why can't this abstract-entity observe/perceive abstractions?

    The Buddhists have held this to be possible for ages ( http://www.amazon.com/Understanding-Mind-Geshe-Kelsang-Gyatso/dp/8120818911/ )

    The Mental Sense Consciousness is what they call it.

    1. Re:So Abstract Perception is non-possible, then? by khallow · · Score: 1

      WHO is observing, physically? An abstract-entity?

      By definition, an "abstract-entity" couldn't be observed physically. So even if it is logically consistent that we can conceive of something that can make whatever impossible observations we desire, we in turn can't observe the being. It doesn't solve the original problem.

  159. Wrong question by thatotherguy007 · · Score: 1

    This question simply is false. Math is neither discovered nor invented: It is applied. What is invented is the structure. The symbol + means something, and that was invented. Digits as well are an invention, but there are uses for these structures. What is discovered is the uses. People don't just make things like integral mathematics up off the top of their head. It is a slow and often painful discovery. Math itself is the constructive use of numbers to describe things. It is the application of equality, functions, and funny letters to explain numeric principals.

    1. Re:Wrong question by Goeland86 · · Score: 1

      I'm not so sure about that. I mean, yes the application is the point, but the application itself is the reason for needing math.
      One could argue that without a need, or application, math wouldn't exist.
      BUT we know that laws of physics, or of logic for that matter, will still follow the same rules. So in essence, math is only notation of universal truths. In that sense, it is neither discovered nor invented.
      The only thing mathematicians invent are notations and names that describe the logic they're trying to work with.
      The logic would be there whether we are aware of it or not. It's like a kid thinking that if he closes his eyes everything else doesn't exist. Just because we don't know much about certain domains in math doesn't mean that they don't exist. Hence mathematics can exist without mathematicians, and is neither discovered or invented, it just is.


      And I'd like to point out something else mathematicians have managed to invent: a perpetuating class of socially inept people...

      --
      ---- I am certain of only one thing : I know nothing else.
  160. Digg Tryin' to be funny (not doin'). -Subject- by dizzigital · · Score: 1

    I've already cleared the block out with just one echo. It is sensed. All this jibber jabber book talk is useless.

  161. old argument... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    haven't these guys read "Zen and the Art of Motorcycle Maintenance?"

    sheesh..

  162. mathematicians should know better by nguy · · Score: 1

    Mathematicians should know better than to have arguments about terms that haven't been defined. "Invented" and "discovered" aren't well-defined terms, and debating about whether mathematics is one or the other is pointless until one has defined them.

    As for Roger Penrose, despite his mathematical insights, he seems to be prone to ill-founded leaps of logic and unfounded generalizations. Being able to reason logically in one domain apparently doesn't generalize to the consistent application of logic in other areas.

    1. Re:mathematicians should know better by dgallard · · Score: 1

      discovered connotes exists independently of thought

      invented connotes the product of thought

      a problem is that thinking is necessary to observe discovery

      arguably everything is discovered (Plato)

      nothing is new under the Sun

  163. Does mathematics describe or does it explain? by SavvyPlayer · · Score: 1

    [eom]

  164. Mathematics as Mental Science by boris_qd · · Score: 1

    In the same way that the other sciences are reproducible physical experiments mathematics consists of reproducible mental experiments.

    Proofs give you the steps to reproduce the experiment.

    To that end math tells us as much about the human mind (what is considered beautifull or elegant in mathematics?) as it does about the universe.

    http://www.maths.manchester.ac.uk/~avb/micromathematics/downloads

  165. By Neruos by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    It was discovered. The universe is made up of 2 fundimental areas. Those that fall into order(structure, logic, positive) and those that fall into chaos(non-structured, random, negitive). Mathematics can be said to be the method used to understand those orders. The connection from man to the order makes it discovered as it existed before man, just that man didn't understand it. Calling it mathematics, is invented.

  166. Wrong by Colin+Smith · · Score: 2, Insightful

    If mathematics is invented it can be patented.

    HTH.

    --
    Deleted
    1. Re:Wrong by 26199 · · Score: 1

      AFAICT you can patent anything you like these days.

      Anyway I hardly think this discussion -- since there is no actual answer in sight -- will have a huge impact on any legal framework.

  167. Confusion about scope of meaning by shanen · · Score: 1

    We do invent the artifact we call pure mathematics. However, the fundamental truths of mathematics are not created just because we 'discover' them. Nor will those truths cease to exist just because we will eventually be extinct. Existence is not an attribute of the concept of a triangle. The confusion of the scope of 'existence' was at the kernel of Plato's problematic regressions.

    In contrast, mathematical physics is purely discovered. That's just figuring out how things are. Applied mathematics is sort of stuck in the crack.

    (While one of my degrees includes philosophy. However, I think the only important thing I learned studying philosophy was that you don't learn anything important from studying philosophy. The important philosophy is how you live.)

    --
    Freedom = (Meaningful - Coerced) Choice != (Speech | Beer^2), and sad sock puppets' bad mods avail them naught.
  168. BS alert! The parent is talking crap.... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    But you never get real numbers that way. Integer, yes. Fractions, yes. Floating point numbers, representation limits and all, yes. But no reals. Reals require additional axioms.

    And that is a weakness of your theorem prover. The nq in NQTHM aka Boyer-Moore theorem prover stands for non-quantified. Quoting from the manual:

    Nqthm does not support, especially well, attacks on theorems in set theory or about such nonconstructive entities as the real numbers.

    Set theoretic formulations for integers exist and no theorem prover is ever going to give you any insight into what is discoverable and what is not. so, please stop spreading that BS around.

  169. A Question of Semantics by Strake · · Score: 2, Interesting

    There exists a distinction between invention and discovery only because we create one. Any given mathematical technique that we "invent" could also be considered a "discovery", because we simply discovered that this particular technique works correctly within the framework of mathematics that we have already defined.

    Let's take an example: calculus. Newton and Leibniz both invented calculus simultaneously. It could be said, then, that they both simply discovered the same thing!

    This is a question of linguistic semantics.

  170. Some arguments for both by beelzebyte · · Score: 1

    I thought this had been settled long ago. Axioms are invented, theorems are discovered.

  171. I hate these questions. by drolli · · Score: 1

    It depends very strongly on each persons style how he or she performs mathematics. I have met some people who are extremely good in developing a certain technique until the point when it makes a new abstraction possible. And then other people may use these tools and maybe can do some discovery. It'like in physics (the subject i have a PhD in): for sure it need a lot of "invention" to build an Atomic Force Microscope. To invest these "invention" is a matter of intuition, even if the process itself is very technical. When the AFM is working "discoveries" can be made. Some of them rqeuire more intution, some less. Some are expected before the AFM is build, others not. Non-Scientists, and some scientists, too, would put the expected discoveries into the "invention" class. However, from a scientific viewpoint the results have the same quality as the unexpected ones. In math it's the same. There are very constructive tehings, like exploring finite fields. In the poor framework of the original question asked, this would be something like an invention. However, sometime things like Fermats conjecture appear out of nothing. The really interesting question is: finally a combination of highly developed abstract methods and mathematical intuition very far beyond my personal horizon did the proof.

    So was this a result of discovery or an invention? I would say it doesnt matter to me!

  172. a litmus test by codehoser · · Score: 1


    If there were no humans, would 2+2 still equal 4? The answer is yes, so people merely discovered this fact. Now, arithmetic is only a branch of math, but the theory applies to the whole (otherwise I'm wrong, and that can't be).

    If there were no humans, would there still be cell phones? The answer is no, so we can say that cell phones were invented. Don't give me any crap about alien cell phones -- you get my point.

    For those that want to get hung up on the first question, it's not as difficult as you're making it out. Of course the symbols would be different if another group of discoverers were to define the language of math, but the fundamental premise would be unchanged.

    If you have any good reason why I'm wrong, I'd appreciate you not letting me know. Adapting to new ideas is a real bitch.

    Kevin

  173. Platonism and Anti-Platonism by Snowspinner · · Score: 1

    Also significant in this debate is Wigner's "The Unreasonable Effectiveness of Mathematics in the Natural Sciences," which observes the myriad of ways in which mathematics predicts rather than describes phenomena.

    Which has always seemed to me the problem of non-Platonic approaches to mathematics - mathematics is a system more precise than reality that nonetheless approximates and describes it. Atoms do not neatly form right angles, and yet we know many properties of right triangles that are repeatedly borne out in the physical world. Mathematics, in this regard, seems like it must have a metaphysical component. Which would require "discovered" to be the answer.

  174. flatis vocis by modustollens · · Score: 1

    That which needs to be explained is the power that mathematics provides vis a vis practical life. Mathematical forms in this regard are said to be normative. So if bald platonism is rejected then the question remains: what explains the normative power of mathematics? The nominalists raised these objections centuries ago - then the post-modernists: these forms are just 'flatus vocis,' empty sounds, symbols without that which is symbolized. Needless to say these two groups can't explain the normative power of mathematics either. Extreme Platonism may be unfashionable, but at least it offers some sort of explaination that the 'invented' camp cannot provide.

  175. Math *is* more mysticisim than natural science by Qbertino · · Score: 1

    The problem is that 'mystic' has a negative co-notation of 'un-scientific'. Which is wrong. Just because a scientist precisely predicting some phenomenon or a programmer doing seemingly decoupled things to suddenly make an automated process work might appear mystic/magical to non-scientists and non-programmers doesn't mean there is nothing but simple reasoning based on true insight into the matter involved.

    The problem with the current wide following of materialisim is that it somehow synthetically imposes a decoupling of the spiritual and the material, in order to then be able to fully dismiss the spiritual as non-sense. In that way todays abundant confession of pure materialisim is just as off the mark as the exact opposite: spiritualisim. Which tries to project the laws and mechanisims of the material world on to the spiritual.

    Of course does math have more in common with mysticisim that with natural science - there is no way you can measure or weigh Math. We can sense it in the reflection of our sentinent minds only. That doesn't make it less real. I'd even go further: I say a modern Mathematician or even a natural scientist has *much* more in common with ancient religious prophets and leaders than somebody simply performing rituals with no understanding of their origins or intent.

    Modern belief seperates *knowledge* of the spritual and *knowledge* of the material just as it would seperate the material and the spiritual itself - despite any kind of knowledge or consciousness allways being spiritual. And very real indeed. Not seeing that clearly imho is the single largest misconception of todays materialisim. Or as a famous philosopher once pointed out: Todays thinkers use all the might of their spirit for the strangest of tasks: To prove that it itself doesn't exist.

    --
    We suffer more in our imagination than in reality. - Seneca
  176. Not So Narrow by jaydge · · Score: 1

    The so-called difficulty regarding the non-physical state is only a difficulty when the narrow-minded (and haughty) assumption is made that the physical is all there is.

    The word "science" originally meant "knowledge" or "to know". i.e. follow the truth wherever it leads, even if it suggests that there must be a non-physical state able to interact with the physical. There is no proof that knowledge is restricted only to the physical dimension.

    It is often because men are afraid to give any leeway to the possibility of God existing that they outright deny the non-physical.

  177. Aliens will tell us... by mbone · · Score: 1

    I think that this is one of those things that will never really be sorted out until we finally make contact with Aliens (if we ever do). The real question in my opinion is : is there something about our brains that makes our mathematics come out the way that it does ? Or would any intelligent creature come to the same conclusion ? I don't see how you can answer that without seeing a few independent realizations.

  178. Patents and definitions by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    I don't think whether mathematics is discovered or invented plays a role in patents - genes are also discovered, not invented (usually). Still they can be patented, simply because it makes economic sense to let the people who invested lots of money into finding out about the build up and role of a particular gene allow to publish their findings and still reap the benefits of them.

    The same could (similar to well/conservatively applied software patents) also be true for "pure" mathematical "ideas". If "discovering" or "inventing" them was done with a lot of effort (think of using super computers), and they have lots of useful commercial applications, why not make sure the people profiting from the research pay a little to the ones who spent so much time developing it (often at the expense of their social life)?

    As to the actual subject of this threat:

    I think some people here are confusing completely different things with the actual question. We are not talking about language, nor about subjective feelings towards mathematical research, we are (as far as I understand) talking about whether there is any "true mathematical entity/concept" underlying this world - whether mathematics exists in some way (discovery-side), or whether it's just a phantasy made up by us to describe what we observe or what we think about (invention-side).

    On a purely practical level, it's obvious that mathematics only exist in our brains, books, and bytes, because it's only a way of modelling/describing things - even the 2+2=4 part. Still it is apparently so that what we find out with our "invented tool" of mathematics often holds true for anything to which it can be applied - a=b, b=c => a=c is basically true all over the universe (within the usual constraints). Obviously, the universe has an "innate" logic or mathematically coherent structure.

    From that, one can safely assume that "logic" is something everything in this universe is subject of. This logic is everywhere, it's not the mathematicians who discover that, but the physicists (and other scientists). The mathematicians basically only develop the "tools" used by all the others, sometimes before, sometimes after the according real world discovery.

    I also see no real difference between discovering or inventing, except in more trivial matters. Both use similar creative processes from a subjective view, so the difference gets less and less the more complex concepts mathematicians deal with. It appears to be only a simplifying distinction between differing degrees of creativity. For things for which there will never be a real life equivalent or which only got created after mathematicians came up with them, like some geometric shapes or encryption methods, I think invention is the more correct word, though. The proof of validity for any of those "inventions" would be closer to discovery, though.

    Still, as the whole logic behind mathematics is innate to our universe, especially the descriptive parts of mathematics can be considered even less - an exercise of "mapping", as someone stated some time ago in this threat. But this map is at least in some parts something which doesn't exist in nature and which may never have come into existence without a sentient being thinking about it. Similar to a differential as it is used in a car. Even in mapping, though, words like discovery (that two objects are close to each other, for instance) or invention (that a certain method easily shows all objects with certain characteristics, for instance) can make sense.

  179. 1^2 == 1 by Joseph_Daniel_Zukige · · Score: 1

    Congratulations, you've just "discovered" how to hide exponents.

    1. Re:1^2 == 1 by maxume · · Score: 1

      Are you snarking? I'm not claiming to have discovered anything. In fact, I read about it when I got curious about whether c^2 was a constant or not. Oddly enough, there is writing about defining systems of measurement with c=1.

      There's no requirement that c has to be defined in terms of distance and time(In fact, SI defines distance in terms of c and time). Notice that c^2 = E/M. If you measure energy in terms of mass, then the units will cancel out and c will in fact be 1. I guess it might not be particularly useful to define energy in terms of mass(Gee, I've got 0.000000000000000000000001 grams equivalent fuel in my gas tank), but the whole point of the equation is that you can do it.

      If you aren't snarking and know what you are talking about, explain why c can't be set to 1.

      --
      Nerd rage is the funniest rage.
  180. You are Incorrect by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Observe and weep: 1

    1. Re:You are Incorrect by khallow · · Score: 1

      Observe and weep: 1

      "1" is a character, a label for a concept. The concept need not exist in order to label it.

    2. Re:You are Incorrect by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The concept need not exist in order to label it. Lord in heaven, but ain't that the truth.
  181. n/t

    Well, okay, I'll rant a bit anyway.

    There are absolutes. We can't approach them very closely as long as we are limited by being mortal. Sometimes that makes us think the whole universe is relative (to us).

    But we can sure try to approach the absolutes, and we can sure learn a lot from our efforts. And if we are careful, the things we can learn can be useful.

  182. False hypothesis by Joseph_Daniel_Zukige · · Score: 1

    A tree falling requires something for it to fall towards. The full version of the question hypothesizes a forest. Forests necessarily contain trees. Trees have means to detect and measure sound waves, thus there is no way for a tree to fall in a forest without a "listener" present.

  183. axioms of plane geometry were invented? by Joseph_Daniel_Zukige · · Score: 1

    I mean, yes. We have other geometries, some of which turn out to have direct application to parts of the known universe.

    But a non-plane geometry rarely makes a good fit for problem areas where a plane geometry fits well.

    How about this? One winesap apple, one crabapple, one Fuji apple, one Golden Delicious apple. Do I have four apples? Three?

    Where does the abstract concept of unity come from?

    1. Re:axioms of plane geometry were invented? by colinrichardday · · Score: 1

      But the axioms as axioms are invented in the sense that we select some truths (at least we hope they are truths) to be axioms, and we derive the other truths. Even given that some spacetime is Euclidean, the choice of which truths thereof are axioms is a human "invention".

  184. the coed never moves? by Joseph_Daniel_Zukige · · Score: 1

    I guess she's bored and gone to sleep? ;-)

  185. verification by Joseph_Daniel_Zukige · · Score: 1

    For my purposes, I can verify the existence of God. I can also recognize that what I understand of "good" is tightly bound with what I understand of God.

    I can also recognize that what I understand is tightly bound to things I am and to things I need.

    I can trace this line of reasoning further, but I'm going to state categorically that the conclusion that I must have created God would require that I had created myself, all the way back to either Adam & Eve or to the primordial swamp.

    Yes, I have created part of my current state of existence. No, neither my conceptions of good nor of God are free from the biases in my brain. But there is something there that is antecedent to both my choices and my biases.

    1. Re:verification by Ikester8 · · Score: 1

      Don't forget to send your antecedent flowers next month.

      --
      That's the last time I run code posted in somebody's sig...
  186. which came first, the chicken or the egg? by Joseph_Daniel_Zukige · · Score: 1

    n/t

  187. we invented the integers, too by Joseph_Daniel_Zukige · · Score: 1

    At least, the integers beyond one.

    The integers are an invention that closely (relative to us) models deeper truths about the physical universe.

    Woops.

  188. Einstein made no observations by wytcld · · Score: 1

    While this may mean nothing to your argument (which I don't understand), it mischaracterizes Einstein's work to say he "makes some new observations." Einstein's key work was based on thought experiments - on visualizations - not observations. These led him to postulate a symmetry, an invariance in the speed of light. He was in a long tradition in both math and physics of exploring an intuition of symmetry, and then finding real-world evidence to fit after, not before, working out a system based on that intuition.

    Good popular books on this are Ian Stewart's Why Beauty Is Truth and A. Zee's classic Fearful Symmetry, giving the accounts from math and physics respectively.

    The story largely goes: if you invent a symmetrical system - even just the abstract mathematics of one - sooner or later there's a high likelihood of it being discovered that some aspect of nature can be very well modeled by the symmetrical system you've invented. How far this works is open to dispute. Currently the string theorists are working hard to make up stuff that fits observation, while the loop quantum gravity theorists are betting on continuing to make progress on the model of Einstein-type application of intuitions regarding symmetries. If the string theory people are right, the run of luck with symmetries has reached its limit. But if the loop quantum gravity people are right, then the symmetry between human mathematical invention and natural discovery may continue to be fruitfully delved into for many centuries to come.

    --
    "with their freedom lost all virtue lose" - Milton
    1. Re:Einstein made no observations by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I think you are supporting the argument. As you've said, the "symmetrical system" which is "invented" is the simulation or model or abstraction. It is distinct from the actual thing which it models, despite strong similarities in some cases (such as the case where symmetry in the model is reflected in the real observation).

  189. It's philosophical... by Bones3D_mac · · Score: 1

    This is like asking whether or not Time exists or if we simply created it by comparing one repetitive event to another. So long as a machine can use the concept to make our lives easier, it's origins really don't matter to anyone other than scholars or historians.

    Besides, concepts like math and time are driven by human greed more than anything. We always want to know who has more than the next guy as a means of quantifying our own existence.

    --


    8==8 Bones 8==8
  190. snarking by Joseph_Daniel_Zukige · · Score: 1

    but it doesn't alter the fact that setting C to one may hide the exponent, but doesn't make it disappear, doesn't make it anything other than 2.

    Nor does the series that more closely models things that have relativistic momentum relative to use make the power any less integral.

    It may be true that the beauty one person perceives in physical realities may be proof to that person about the existence of God (positive or negative, depending on the definition that said person has attached to the concept of God, among other things). That may, indeed be true.

    It may also be true that said proof is applicable only to the person who perceives it so. But the limit of applicability is not a universal proof of God, either, whether negative or positive.

    But to answer your question, making the unit of fuel for your guess tank useful when you set C=1 should point you in the right direction, if it isn't a red herring for you.

  191. it's not either/or by papershark · · Score: 1

    This is of course a problem of semantics. The terms discovered and invented are posed as distinctly different, when they are not. You pose the question as an âeither/orâ(TM) problem. Discovered: is universal Invented: is cultural. Things can be both. Therefore âfireâ(TM) (or mathematics) as a cultural application can be invented, and at the same time there natural universal constants are discovered.

  192. sleep on it by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    The question keeps coming up, if math is "out there" already, where is "there"? I don't have an answer, but I do have an observation. When I am having a "math" problem (writing/debugging a program), I often experience going to bed not knowing the solution, dreaming about it, and waking up knowing the answer. So, wherever "there" is, it's where I go when I dream.

  193. It's a matter of patents ... by KnightTristan · · Score: 2, Insightful

    What would it allow you to do that you couldn't do before?

    If it is invented, you can patent it. If it is discovered, you can not.
  194. Patents by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Assume we determine the answer is "discovered". Then if we could extend this line of reasoning to inventions in general, we could reform our patent system doing everyone alot of good.

    So, the general public would have much to gain as patent abuse affects every level of society.

  195. 1 + 1 = what? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    The truthfulness of the statement "1 + 1 = 2" is not absolute. For example, take this math test:
    1. 1 + 1 = ?
    A. 2
    B. 10
    C. both of the above
    D. none of the above
    2. 1 + 1 = ?
    A. 1
    B. 9
    C. both of the above
    D. none of the above
    For those uncertain, the answers are 1.C. and 2.A. So, even in math, there are multiple right answers. Of course, there are always mulitple wrong answers.

  196. That makes no sense by marcosdumay · · Score: 1

    For once, what we know as addition (and numbers, and equality) was defined that way. If everybody else defined addition on a different way, 2 + 2 could be different from 4 for them. But our definition of addition would still make sense and 2 + 2 = 4 would still hold for it.

    Now, if everybody used a definition where 2 + 2 != 4, and you used our current one, you'd have a severe communication problem, and math would be almost useless for you.

    Math is only usefull if everybody agrees, but it doesn't makes 2 + 2 = 4 less a convention.

  197. It's called thinking by vaf · · Score: 1

    "if mathematical ideas exist in some way independent of humans or minds, then human minds engaged in doing mathematics must somehow be able to connect with this non-physical state"

    ?!

    Human minds are indeed able do that. The "state" is called reality (which is more than the static observable physical realm), and the "connection" is called thinking.

    No big mystery, sorry.

    --
    Vasco Figueira
  198. Re:discover? create? same difference by colinrichardday · · Score: 1

    But is mathematics the study of generalized rule sets using logic?

  199. Why this question matters by Ezekiel68 · · Score: 1
    It matters whether mathematics is discovered or invented when considering how to teach mathematics.

    In the socratic dialogue Meno, Socrates publicly gives an uneducated boy a math puzzle involving 2-dimensional area. This demonstration serves to show that the boy

    • 1) can be sure he knows something when he doesn't know it (because he first comes to an erroneous conclusion)
    • 2) yet has the knowledge in himself of the answer correctly, which needs only to be uncovered by asking non-leading questions.

    That part of the dialogue is summed up with the following exchange:

    • Socrates: And now these opinions [how to solve the problem] have been stirred up in him as in a dream; and if someone will keep asking him these same questions often and in various forms, you can be sure that in the end he will know them as accurately as anybody.
    • Menon: It seems so.
    • Socrates: And no one, having taught him, only asked questions, yet he will know, having got the knowledge out of himself?
    • Menon: Yes.

    I've experienced (roughly) two different kinds of teachers in my life, those who acted like they were pouring knowledge into my mind and those who acted like they were leading me on a journey of discovery. Invariably the latter kind proved more interesting and helpful to me.

    Can you remember back to when you learned the "multiplication tables"? I was initially taught them by rote from 1x1 to 12x12. Then we'd be given speed tests with random two-number problems in that domain. But the rote method didn't work well for me. I can still remember the glorious moment when it dawned on me that multiplication was just a shorthand version of addition and a whole world of beautiful, numeric patterns opened up for me.

    (Somehow I managed not to fall off of John Nash's deep end, but I digress)

    --
    Imagination is more important than knowledge -Einstien
  200. Grammar correction by Ezekiel68 · · Score: 1

    I meant, "knowledge in himself of how to answer correctly"

    --
    Imagination is more important than knowledge -Einstien
  201. Inventable = patentable by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    The answer to this question is important because if we agree math is inventable it also becomes patentable.

  202. Pure and applied maths by bishop's+farewell · · Score: 1

    There seems to be a confusion in many posts between pure and applied mathematics. Applied mathematics is used to describe the physical world, and thus successful mathematical descriptions are discoveries. But mathematics is also used to describe mathematics. This is pure maths.

    In pure maths, you can invent mathematical objects, and define their properties and relationships in a logical sense. These definitions are axioms. Then you can discover facts about this invented world. These facts are theorems. This has already been said more briefly in previous posts.

    Disclaimer: I am an applied mathematician, but I appreciate the value of pure mathematical theorems related to the maths I use.

  203. Both, duh by xenocide2 · · Score: 1

    We invent assumptions, aka axioms, and discover interesting consequences of those assumptions. Those assumptions are often born of our own interaction with the world, such as the idea that the shortest distance between two points is a line, or that two parallel lines never intersect. Whole new mathematical realms are discovered when we relax these rules, but they're not necessarily out there in nature. And there's certainly no rule that nature must follow these rules, everywhere or anywhere.

    --
    I Browse at +4 Flamebait

    Open Source Sysadmin

  204. Re:Logical negativism by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Nothing, nothing and nothing.

    Sounds like Logical Negativism to me.

    Oh, and the correct answer is "discovered".

    Think a little deeper. What follows if you are correct; what if the correct answer is "discovered"?

    If it is discovered:
          - Where is it?
          - How do we discover it?
          - Is there a better way to discover it?
          - etc...

    These are questions tackled by truly deep thinkers like Roger Penrose. He actually follows through with his beliefs. He's championing your "meaningless" answer.

    Penrose's conclusion is wrong (IMHO -- way wrong). But at least he understands why it is important.

    Oh, and the correct answer is "invented" not "discovered". Discovery implies Absolute Truth -- which is a philosophical quagmire.

    Mathematics is a man made tool. And, like all tools, it is shaped (not discovered) by nature.
  205. Internally consistent models by JavaRob · · Score: 1

    Quite right; though so many people confuse the models with reality itself. We build models that map onto the real world, and we consider them more or less "true" as our predictions match up with observations.

    We structure math with rules to make it *internally* consistent, but the mathematical models we build of the world do not always work.

    Another example of models that don't match correctly: "paradoxes", such as the well-known Zeno's.

    Try analyzing them with the understanding that:
    * our words and numbers are NOT reality; they are a model of it
    * the model is often limited or flawed ...and they're trivial to dismantle. You simply find the flaw in the model - you don't assume that reality much be wrong (e.g., concluding "all movement is illusory").

  206. Is Mathematics Truth? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    There's a lot of confusion about what "discovered" or "invented" means. The real question is not about the details of discovery or inventiveness, it's about truth -- absolute truth.

    Is mathematics Truth?
    Is mathematics "written in the fabric of the universe" or should we wonder about its "unreasonable effectiveness"?
    Is mathematics a "sure path to understanding nature" or is it inherently subject to human error.

    Discovery implies that the Truth is "out there" and math is how we find it.

    Invention implies that the Truth is not (yet?) knowable and math is just a tool we use to get a glimpse at it.

  207. NO: the future has nothing to do with it by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    "Empirically verifiable" is not identical with "tells us something about the future." A statement could be empirically verifiable without actually ever being empirically verified, thus telling us nothing about the future. For example, I might declare that inside my grandmother's body is a digital watch. This is a meaningful statement because it is theoretically empirically verifiable. I'm not going to cut my grandmother open to find out, but it is in principle discoverable through experience, the realm in which logical positivists believe proper verification can occur. (As opposed to mystical insights, visions, whatever.) Another example is one in which we evaluate a theory on the basis of past observations recorded in a database; here, again, the meaningfulness of statements do not involve futurity. We could make no further observations, and still hold the theory to be meaningful according to the logical positivists.

    Inductive laws are supposed to tell us something about the future. We posit laws based on limited experience with the hope that those laws will tell us something about the future. Clearly statements that make no claim about the future are not inductive laws. But that is not precisely what is at issue with the logical positivists' verification theory of meaning. To say we cannot develop inductive laws from this debate is to say nothing about how a logical positivist would evaluate it as meaningful or meaningless. They do not distinguish between meaningful and meaningless debates on the basis of induction, but the possibility of verification. This possibility does not have to be actualized because the status of meaningful comes prior to a statement's being accepted or discarded as true.

    1. Re:NO: the future has nothing to do with it by 26199 · · Score: 1

      Still seems awfully close. If it were to be verifiable based on past observations, you would still have to go and look them up in the database. That's a statement about the future.

      Likewise, the presence of the digital watch is a statement that if you did X you would observe Y. This is a statement about the future in that it constrains the set of possibilities for the future.

  208. Well... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Having not read through all of the posts yet, I do not know if this idea has been mentioned.

    I would like to pose a question related to physics first. Are the laws of physics discovered or invented? Gravity, as everyone knows of course, exists independent of whether or not we know about it. The laws of the universe exist and we discover them.

    As for math, say you have two apples, one in one hand the other in the other hand. One apple with another apple makes two apples. Did someone invent this idea, or discover it? This seems like something that would exist regardless of what we think, which probably is how things should be looked at in the first place - how things really are.

    Do these mathematical principles exist regardless of whether or not we do? Would these ideas still exist in our world if we did not know about them? I would have to say yes.

    On another side, taken from a religious point of view, God is the source of all knowledge and truth. Therefore, we do not "invent" anything. Quite simply, God reveals it to us when He deems it necessary for us to have the knowledge.

    Regardless of everything said, I think it should be looked at from a point of view of how things are. It should not be based off opinion, but off of truth and fact. We can debate as much as we want about truth and fact, but that will never change it. (i.e., it doesn't matter how much say, debate or whatever that gravity doesn't exist, it's still there. It's a fact.)

  209. half a hole... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Do hole-diggers really create holes? Or do they merely displace the dirt that obscures them?

    Note to mods: The best post in this thread is the one by alexhs.

    Note to anyone who cringed in anticipation of a strong underwhelming feeling when they read Slashdot's summary of this story, here is a much more interesting question: What does it mean if I build a computer that successfully files 1000 contiguous US patents?

  210. Math is discovered by B-Con · · Score: 2, Interesting

    My position (as an undergraduate math major) has always been simple:

    The laws of the universe are governed by mathematics. In physics, F=MA regardless of what I wished F equaled. In pure math, d(5)/dx = 0 regardless of what I wished the slope of 5 were with regard to x. Math exists, indeed, it *is* the study of pure logic with an extension into the world of computation. Math can no more be invented than you can choose yourself to be born. It is, and why it is how it is is beyond us.

    At the heart of this discussion, I believe, lies a misconception about what math is. There is a difference between math and our representation of math. We make up all of our math symbols, but math is not symbols. We make up our number system, but math is not numbers. We make up all of our vocabulary, but math is not vocabulary. We discover inefficient ways of doing things before we discover more efficient ways of doing things, but math is itself not efficiency.

    And -- this is the one that trips most people up, especially amongst the replies I'm seeing in this thread -- we make up representations and models for the universe and concepts in the universe, but mathematics is not a representation or a model of the universe. It is what allows us to create/make-up a representation or model of the universe. Most people, I believe, err in recognizing the distinction here. They argue that models are not absolute and mere representations. They are correct, but see a limited picture.

    Math is an existence, not a process or a tool. Math is logic. The absence of an absolute mathematics is the absence of logic.

    Yes, this does require the fact that there exists something beyond our physical world. But to any mathematician, this is not a hard concept to grasp. Many do not think of it as an inconvenience, but as a requirement.

    Without making personal attacks, I would like to point out that the majority of people who claim mathematics is "invented" are themselves not mathematicians -- and I do not count amature hobbyists as mathematicians. It strikes me as the naive and/or ego-centric viewpoint, these people either cannot see that there exists something greater than themselves, or they cannot bring themselves to acknowledge the fact that they study something greater and more fundamental to the universe than they can even understand, let alone that they are themselves.

    Now, on the speculative side, here's some flame-bait: I believe that an understanding of math is, in part, dictated by how one is born. It is so abstract that hopes of communicating it to someone without that understanding or changing another's view of math is close to impossible. One is either born understanding it or one is not. If one is not, age and time may help them understand the inherent existence of math better, but they cannot be persuaded by anyone else.

  211. Reality and observers by Slur · · Score: 1

    I agree, it's a mistake to accord any special quality to our brains as ultimate observers. An electron detector is an observer too. It can capture and record an event, and in doing so it collapses the wave function of the electron, creating an absolute where only a potential had existed a blind moment before. As Schrodinger points out, the event is still only a wave function until your brain takes in the measurement.

    Did the wave function collapse for the detector at the moment that the electron hit it, or did the whole shebang collapse when you looked at the screen? Actually, the question is meaningless because the result is the same. Regardless of when it actually happened, for the detector too, the time of the event will be retrospectively consistent. That is, the detector, if it could talk, would say it felt the electron hit it at 1:32 even though it didn't tell you until 1:35.

    From that it should be clear that an observer is just another name for a physical system, so an observation is the same thing as an interaction. Since every observation involves a material interaction of some kind, it is safe to assume that what's true for detectors is true for ourselves. Every time a photon strikes your retina a physical event has taken place, something has been determined, an effect has followed a cause.

    It's important to screen out the false abstraction about human observers being disconnected from the chain of events. If I tell you by email that my detector registered 6.2 you don't have to come touch the detector to make it so. If you theorize that it was still a wave until I told you, that says there's a physical link developed through my act of telling you ... it is not merely an abstract link!

    For as it happens, if you trace the photon from my email back to its physical source, then follow the electrons in your screen's transistors back to their source, and so on, you will find that there's been a direct physical chain set up between my finger hitting the "A" key just now and the expelled CO2 in your amazed exclamation about this fact.

    That puts a new spin on things!

    Philosophically speaking, yes, it is impossible to determine what - if anything - exists in between measured physical interactions. Time could stop while a huge team of quantum elves set up all the dominos for the next moment of the universe, and we would never know the difference.

    So does "reality exist, then we observe it" ?

    I would say, no. Existence, interaction, and observation are all the same thing.

    1. Interaction of energy/matter gives rise to existence in the present.
    2. Observation by an instrument is the state of the instrument, and observation by a mind is merely the conditioned state of that mind.
    3. Knowledge is in part a pure conditioned state, but in effect it only arises when engaged in a process of comparison, and that comparison process only gives a significant effect in the world if it in turn moves a body.

    I want to reiterate one of the most important but subtle points that came up in this rumination, which is that reality only exists right now. And as for that 'now' reality at any given time... how long is it? If the present is itself a phantom, in a sense we cannot really observe it either. We can only see it in any meaningful way, in fact, when we have a previous measurement to take it against. So all observing devices depend on some form of stateful comparison.

    What does this say for "acting" devices, like bodies attached to brains? Can the brain can get the same effect - a useful action to follow a coherent stimulus - without recourse to any form of stateful comparison? I don't think so. A neuron whose resistance increases with current isn't a stateful comparison per se, but could give rise to comparable effects.

    Regardless of the way states are modeled, I would bet that all special observers in nature (nervous systems) evolved from the earliest stages to perform temporal-spatial comparisons. This would be strong evidence that change is a very real phenomenon in the world even when no special observers exist, and that time can make an adaptational mark without itself having an independent existence apart from change.

    --
    -- thinkyhead software and media
  212. Emergent properties by turing_m · · Score: 1

    You make the assumption that the universe is not a simulation (i.e. programmed according to a specific set of rules), or that it does not follow a specific set of rules without having a programmer as such*. If that is true, then all those rules are essentially sitting there waiting to be discovered by whatever emergent intelligent life inhabits such a system.

    In that situation, saying that we "invent" mathematics makes as much sense as saying an ant "invents" a spill of soda somewhere on the ground. Even a mathematical technique is in a way a discovery, because it allows our brains to work a certain way with the wiring that is common to enough people. I.e. it is an emergent property of the system and our brains, which are in turn an emergent phenomenon of the universe. The brains were wired the same way all along, it just took someone to explore enough search space to find the new efficiency.

    Of course, this is one of those things that cannot really be "known" as such by our sensory apparatus. It's a lot like God. I don't believe the existence of God can be proven conclusively one way or another. However... if the universe was not a system that worked according to a specific set of rules, then there'd be a heck of a lot of engineers and scientists out of work. Put my neck under a guillotine pending on the outcome? No way. Put my money on the outcome? You bet.

    The reason why science progresses the way it does is because simpler models provide some benefit. Complex models provide increasing benefit, but the returns are diminishing. For example, I might play a FPS. I make a rough mental model - learn what weapons work best against what targets, learn the map by playing it, etc. It stands to reason that anyone who studies the source code can make a better model... by investing a lot of work. They can see exact damage counts for each weapon, know exact times and locations for respawning, etc. It is a better model and given the same skill level will make them a superior player most probably. But... by no means did they invent anything, they merely discovered what was already in the source code.

    *Note that the existence of quantum mechanical "God playing dice" type effects does not mean that we aren't in such a system. I don't see why God can't make calls to a random number generator. Or why his random number generator can't be perfect, since he operates outside this universe. Or maybe everything does operate according to mechanistic rules, and it is impossible to directly observe such things from within the system.

    --
    If I have seen further it is by stealing the Intellectual Property of giants.
    1. Re:Emergent properties by underworld · · Score: 1

      You make the assumption that the universe is not a simulation (i.e. programmed according to a specific set of rules), or that it does not follow a specific set of rules without having a programmer as such*. If that is true, then all those rules are essentially sitting there waiting to be discovered by whatever emergent intelligent life inhabits such a system. If the universe is not a simulation, then my logic holds. If the universe is a simulation, then the universe, as you've pointed out, is already an abstraction... meaning that the mathematics are an abstraction on top of the abstraction of the simulation. Even if the mathematics were 'real' in this scenario, the simulation itself is an abstraction, thus supporting the initial argument.

      In that situation, saying that we "invent" mathematics makes as much sense as saying an ant "invents" a spill of soda somewhere on the ground. Regardless of what the ant thinks, humans can observe the spill of soda and describe it's physical identity. The same can not be said for mathematics, which is an idea, not a real thing.

      The reason why science progresses the way it does is because simpler models provide some benefit. Complex models provide increasing benefit, but the returns are diminishing. That is entirely correct. But the question, then, is - why are our models simpler than the universe? It's because they are abstractions. The are a "smearing" of complexity into simpler, less precise things. It is the utility of this abstraction, which makes the mathematics work. Take the simple example of 1 + 1 = 2, as someone earlier posited. That math only works if we assume at 1 and 1 each represent equivalent types of things. The only way to arrive at that result is to suspend reality and pretend that each individual thing has some characteristics in common with some other individual thing, which we now call a type or class of thing. But that archetype is an abstraction. To say that 1 penny plus 1 penny equals 2 pennies, requires us to pretend that those pennies are equivalent. The equivalence only exists in our idea or archetype of pennies. It does not exist in the real pennies.

      But... by no means did they invent anything, they merely discovered what was already in the source code. That's a bad example for the reasons illustrated initially. The ability to fully describe a simulation from within a simulation does not reveal anything about reality, only about the simulation, which is an abstraction. In other words, "people" living inside the game of "life" may be able to fully describe their environment or model of the game of "life"; yet, their description is one of the simulation we create. It would reveal much about our ideas for the game, but nothing about the real world within which the simulation runs.

    2. Re:Emergent properties by turing_m · · Score: 1

      It would pay to remember that the initial discussion was discovery versus invention as it relates to mathematics, the important parts of which are useful abstractions. To my understanding, it centers around whether or not an abstraction existed independently before the first human to had that insight (whether discovery or invention).

      A useful abstraction has the property that it virally transmits from one brain to another.

      I would contend that brains are not mystical, that they work in a mechanical fashion. I.e. they are composed of neurons in a chemical bath, so to speak, capable of wiring themselves based on sensory input and computation based on that sensory input and perhaps initial wiring states. Some evidence for this is that you can take parts out of a functioning brain and it will cease being able to do certain operations, sometimes permanently.

      So what then is an abstraction in that context? An abstraction is a very real wiring of our brains in a certain way. These certain wirings, referred to as "abstractions", have a viral property in that the best wirings get virally propagated amongst receptive brains, the more powerful the "abstraction" or wiring, the more virally it propagates or the more likely it is to displace other competing wirings.

      I also contend that there are a (finite?) set of mathematical ideas/abstractions (brain wirings) within the sphere of all possible abstractions. This should be self-evident, as many "bad" ideas do not propagate. For example, say that you start propagating the idea that "there are no pennies". The idea may take hold in an abstract way among a few philosophy students, but at the end of the day that idea will not become common currency, (not even truly among those philsophy students) as the rest of the world knows that if you cease counting pennies (or anything of value) eventually you will become penniless and not be able to afford food.

      So, the idea that there are pennies and that it is useful to be able to count them is a good idea and will displace competing ideas. There are other ideas that sweep the world from time to time (e.g. calculus, notion of forces, energy etc) that didn't exist before and spread virally once they come into being.

      I would contend that if we weren't predisposed/receptive to accepting such good new ideas, they would not take hold. So in the sense that the predisposition for that particular wiring of brain existed all along, mathematics is discovered (i.e. existed before) and not invented. The discovery is of this predisposition, which has to exist otherwise the particular brain wiring that someone tries to propagate simply won't take hold.

      So yes, an abstraction is a figment of our imagination. Our imagination is a property of a very real brain, and somewhere in there that brain is waiting for an inherently good idea (relative to that brain), much like a firecracker awaits a spark.

      --
      If I have seen further it is by stealing the Intellectual Property of giants.
    3. Re:Emergent properties by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      You present an interesting approach.

      One point I want to discuss is this:

      I also contend that there are a (finite?) set of mathematical ideas/abstractions (brain wirings) within the sphere of all possible abstractions. This should be self-evident, as many "bad" ideas do not propagate. Your argument appears to be that propagation of ideas is an ideal measure of ideas or abstractions. And your further argument is that as a result, there is a finite set of such ideas or abstractions.

      I'm not sure I can agree with this. An abstraction need not be propagated or communicated to be correct or useful. My argument would be that the value of an abstraction lies in its ability to be practical. Hence, some practical ideas or abstractions could ignored and not propagated or lost... this shouldn't reduce their practical value ... we are human after all. We often fail to recognize the inherent value of ideas and models. Some good ideas often fail to propagate, as there are many factors which come into play.

      So what then is an abstraction in that context? An abstraction is a very real wiring of our brains in a certain way. These certain wirings, referred to as "abstractions", have a viral property in that the best wirings get virally propagated amongst receptive brains, the more powerful the "abstraction" or wiring, the more virally it propagates or the more likely it is to displace other competing wirings. But I think you would agree that despite the so-called mechanical function of the brain, it represents a highly dynamic system. As such, it's possible to think that different brains can both be "wired" to understand a certain abstraction, and to have multiple abstractions of the same thing.

      So, the idea that there are pennies and that it is useful to be able to count them is a good idea and will displace competing ideas. There are other ideas that sweep the world from time to time (e.g. calculus, notion of forces, energy etc) that didn't exist before and spread virally once they come into being. That's not necessarily true. There can be other, non-competing models or ideas of pennies that co-exist. Yet, all ideas of pennies are abstractions which are limited by our sense of observation and our ability to smear reality. Reality is that all pennies are unique. The idea that we can count pennies relies on the abstraction which reduces the definition of any particular thing we call a penny to a subset of qualities which all pennies share. Yet, it cannot be said that there is any unique penny which has the qualities of our abstraction, since the abstraction is not precise enough to define a unique penny. It is in this idea that the abstraction does not represent the real thing that the argument rests. The abstraction is an idea (however viral). The abstraction is useful for modeling things. It is useful to describe the shape, color, and so on of a penny. It is useful to ascribe a value to the penny. But none of those things exist. The circle shape of the penny doesn't exist. It's not really a circle. It's an imperfect shape, which we abstractly refer to as "circle". It's not really "copper" colored, it's a range of colors which we abstractly refer to as "copper". The value of the penny can be said to be 1 cent ... but that's an abstract value we place on it. It could not be observed to have that value without humans.

      You could argue that the penny retains it's circular shape and its copper color without humans. However, it's more accurate to say that the penny retains its shape and retains its color. Whether that shape is circular, depends on your ability to observe and smear the definition of a circle. It's possible that some alien race with much more granular observational powers than ours could observe the shape of the penny and describe it much more precisely than "circle". It's possible that this alien race would not arrive at the abstraction that all pennies are similar, but rather all pennies are unique.
  213. Improper question by deblau · · Score: 1
    --
    This post expresses my opinion, not that of my employer. And yes, IAAL.
  214. One can ask this question about ANY discipline by 5n3ak3rp1mp · · Score: 1

    I wondered this a long time ago, but in the more general sense. If I find an elegant solution to a programming problem, I feel satisfied. But did I discover it or invent it? It's not like an evolutionary algorithm might not have come up with it, given enough time.

    How is evolution a learning process? Is evolution merely cells "learning" about the world? Our existence is in essence a continual discovery... Or were we there all along, just waiting to be discovered and made flesh?

  215. This sounds more like the camels nose ... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    is under the tent. We had better hope that the eventual conclusion is that "discovery" wins. If mathematics is determined to be "invented" then there will a mad rush to the already screwed up patent offices around the world.

    Beware ....

  216. Neither. It is taught. by Mana+Mana · · Score: 1

    > Is Mathematics Discovered Or Invented?

    Neither. It is taught. Like language.

    Now, if I discovered your wallet in your back pocket logically fallaciously I would have discovered North America in 1492.

  217. Mod +1 - thank you by billstewart · · Score: 1
    I'm glad *somebody* thought to post that; otherwise I was going to have to :-)


    18th century mathematician Leopold Kronecker gets credit for saying it.

    --

    Bill Stewart
    New Fast-Compression-only CPR http://preview.tinyurl.com/dy575ks
  218. David Gale argued for "discovered" by billstewart · · Score: 1
    David Gale was a Berkeley professor of math, economics, and operations research. He died in March, and there was a memorial service for him today at the college. At least one of the speakers talked about David believing that mathematics was discovered rather than invented, and lots of them talked about how much pleasure he got out of finding interesting problems and elegant solutions to them.


    I must confess to not remembering much of the class I took from him 30 years ago (:-), since it's not material I ended up using much over the years, but it did contribute a lot to my mathematical maturity and appreciation of elegance, and had I done more research rather than engineering the matroid theory would have been an especially useful place to work from.

    --

    Bill Stewart
    New Fast-Compression-only CPR http://preview.tinyurl.com/dy575ks
  219. Religion and/or Economics? by slashdot.cc · · Score: 0

    As interesting as I find the discussion, and by the way I believe Mathematics to be "discovered", the real question is, "why is it important?" It comes down to two truths. If Mathematics is invented, then the basis that it can be patented is rock-solid. Yikes! If Mathematics is discovered, then the basis for Intelligent Design is rock-solid. Yikes! Either way, the current chaos continues unabated. I'd like these 3 questions answered together: Invented or Discovered? Patentable or No? Intelligent Design or No? I'll bet the subsequent statistics would be fascinating and enlightening.

  220. I have a better question: Is Math Transuniversal? by Juiblex · · Score: 1

    The invented or discovered dilemma is easily solved by this argument: any basic FACT (not ARTIFACT) that other (possibly imaginary) intelligent alien life discovers (or invents), and it happens to be the same as our discovery (or invention), then it was really *discovered*. So, this applies to Math and to Physics. If they happen to discover the fire, then we both *discovered* the fire. If they invent the wheel, then nothing can be said about it through this argument (because the wheel is an artifact).

    But I have a better question. Is Mathematics Transuniversal? What I mean is:

    Do mathematics (or at least a subset of it) belong only to *our* universe (or some other look-alike universes)? Or can it be said to belong to ALL POSSIBLE UNIVERSES?

  221. Re:one and one and one is three by gr8dude · · Score: 1
  222. O/T: The Secret Mathematic by EMH_Mark3 · · Score: 1

    Offtopic but somewhat related: Cheeseburger Brown (author of Simon of Space and The Darth Side: Memoirs of a Monster) is writing a story right now titled The Secret Mathematic. It's about the discovery of a new kind of math that can be used to effect (no, it's not a typo) the universe. It's up to chapter 20 so far. http://cheeseburgerbrown.blogspot.com/

    --
    Burn the land and boil the sea, you can't take the sky from me
  223. What about invalid math? by hacksoncode · · Score: 1
    The subject may sound like a pedantic nit-pick, but I think it gets right to the heart of this question.

    When a mathematician writes down an subtly, but entirely, erroneous piece of mathematical reasoning, this question gets much easier. Clearly in that case it's "invented", because it can't be preexisting or "real" in any way that makes any kind of sense.

    The question is: why would this process be fundamentally different from writing down a valid piece of mathematical reasoning? One could argue that that validity makes it a "discovery", but the process is exactly the same, and in fact it's often the case that something that appeared valid before appears invalid later or vice versa.

    Does the math switch from "invented" to "discovered" and back to "invented" in that case? Does every bit of discovered/invented math exist in some kind of superposition of those two states?

    Does the concept of "valid" even exist outside of human perception and understanding? Can we know whether there's a real difference between these? Metaphysical, yes, but I think the only valid answer is that what we *perceive* as reality is created by perception as much as it is by anything objective.

    I vote for invented.

    Besides, that will piss off the people arguing against software patents, which this whole discussion is a very thinly veiled reference to anyway.

  224. flowers for my antecedent by Joseph_Daniel_Zukige · · Score: 1

    Dang. I wish I could.

    But either she is gone or she has gone on.

    (Probably the latter, and sometimes watching me from over there and trying still to tell me to do something more useful with my time than post to /.

    1. Re:flowers for my antecedent by Ikester8 · · Score: 1

      Requiescat in pace. I'm sure she'd understand.

      --
      That's the last time I run code posted in somebody's sig...
  225. Re:I have a better question: Is Math Transuniversa by diamondmagic · · Score: 1

    This assumes that they start with the same axioms that we do. Some of the axioms are provided by common sense from the universe, one apple plus one apple equals two apples. Your definition of math doesn't have to define 1+1 as 2, and if it doesn't you will end up discovering different things then me.

    We invent the basic principles (axioms) of math, hopefully so they share the same properties of the universe. We discover the relationships from then on.

    Really there is nothing saying that the universe follows math. We think that the universe follows one giant equation, but that is only because the properties we see have the same properties that our math does.

    If I neglect air resistance, -9.8m/s/s*t*t describes the motion of a falling object quite well. I might even think that the ball knows mathematics! But then I introduce air resistance... and then I have to add more things to describe its motion. What if I move it to another planet, or even far enough away from the earth... all of a sudden -9.8 doesn't apply anymore. So I have to add more properties.

    I think that the fact math describes the universe well is a coincidence, we invented so we could describe natural properties of the universe, those properties we discover. The description of it (mathematics) we invented.

    As for the universe thing, oh, wouldn't it be so cool if there was a universe where pi is 1? -1? i?

    I don't know what this proves or not, but if, literally, there was a universe for every possibility, then at least one universe should be able to teleport into our universe. Thus, universes must be limited in some way less then inter-universe teleportation.

    This is all assuming that the parallel universe theory is true. Keep in mind it was theorized as a way to explain the randomness of the quantum world, and as far as I know, the state of a given particle will not decide the value of pi, so I think that the constants stay the same, only the outcomes of chance are different.

  226. USE THE FUCKING "PREVIEW" BUTTON!!! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    "well, so you say that 1/sqrt(1-vÂ/cÂ) is not pretty ?"

    Use the fucking "Preview" button, and you will (may) look like less of an idiot.

  227. IMO its axioms invented, theorems discovered by paratiritis · · Score: 1
    I would say that axioms are invented because you can choose them to be anything you like, although in practice mathematicians try to find axioms that are "interesting", "deep" or simply "useful", but these I think are just human points of view. Platonists may disagree and say that the axioms were "out there" waiting to be discovered, but in this case so is everything else. A poem or even a book could be similarly said to exist before its creation, as its text existed in the space of all possible texts (typed by a million monkeys etc). But most people would disagree, and say that an author created it. So, I would argue, we should say for the axioms.

    On the other hand once you fix your axioms (and the flavor of logic used in some extreme cases) all derivative propositions are either provable or not (even if we cannot know which, even in principle in nontrivial systems). So we have to discover theorems one by one.

  228. Re:one and one and one is three by liquidf · · Score: 1

    pfft, tell that to tenacious d

    --
    i've had just about enough of your vassar bashing.