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Why There Is No Such Thing as 'Proper English'

Pikoro writes: A recent article in the Wall Street Journal explains why the concept of a "proper" English isn't realistic. Quoting: "It's a perpetual lament: The purity of the English language is under assault. These days we are told that our ever-texting teenagers can't express themselves in grammatical sentences. The media delight in publicizing ostensibly incorrect usage. ... As children, we all have the instinct to acquire a set of rules and to apply them. ... We know that a certain practice is a rule of grammar because it’s how we see and hear people use the language. ... That’s how scholarly linguists work. Instead of having some rule book of what is “correct” usage, they examine the evidence of how native and fluent nonnative speakers do in fact use the language. Whatever is in general use in a language (not any use, but general use) is for that reason grammatically correct. The grammatical rules invoked by pedants aren’t real rules of grammar at all. They are, at best, just stylistic conventions.

422 of 667 comments (clear)

  1. There might not be Proper English by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 5, Insightful

    But it's damn certain there is Improper English.

    1. Re:There might not be Proper English by thechemic · · Score: 4, Funny

      No thangs up in dis biatch found fo' A recent article up in tha Wall Street Journal explains why tha concept of a "proper" Gangsta aint realistic. Quoting: "It aint nuthin but a perpetual lament: Da puritizzle of tha Gangsta language is under assault. These minutes we is holla'd at dat our ever-textin teenagers can't express theyselves up in grammatical sentences. Da media delight up in publicizin ostensibly incorrect usage. .. fo' realz. As children, we all have tha instinct ta acquire a set of rulez n' ta apply em. ... We know dat a cold-ass lil certain practice be a rule of grammar cuz its how tha fuck we peep n' hear playas use tha language. ... That's how tha fuck scholarly linguists work. Instead of havin some rule book of what tha fuck is "correct" usage, they examine tha evidence of how tha fuck natizzle n' fluent nonnatizzle speakers do up in fact use tha language. Whatever is up in general use up in a language (not any use yo, but general use) is fo' dat reason grammatically erect. Da grammatical rulez invoked by pedants arent real rulez of grammar at all. They are, at best, just stylistic conventions..

      --
      Let's make like a bird... and get the flock outta here.
    2. Re:There might not be Proper English by The+Rizz · · Score: 5, Insightful

      I would agree. And I think the notion of teaching "Proper English" is less about saying common usage is wrong than it is with trying to slow down the fragmentation of the language into dialects. If you can teach one set of rules for the language as being "correct" and make sure everyone understands it that way, then at least you have a common starting point for all the different dialects, and hopefully keep people ostensibly speaking the same language actually able to understand each other.

    3. Re:There might not be Proper English by thechemic · · Score: 5, Funny

      Here is all of slashdot translated into "unproper english". Makes me laugh. LOL!

      http://www.gizoogle.net/tranzizzle.php?search=http%3A%2F%2Fslashdot.org%2F&se=Go+Git+Dis+Shiznit

      --
      Let's make like a bird... and get the flock outta here.
    4. Re: There might not be Proper English by Stormwatch · · Score: 3, Funny

      You've got to be kidding me. I've been further even more decided to use even go need to do look more as anyone can. Can you really be far even as decided half as much to use go wish for that? My guess is that when one really been far even as decided once to use even go want, it is then that he has really been far even as decided to use even go want to do look more like. It's just common sense.

    5. Re:There might not be Proper English by ShanghaiBill · · Score: 5, Insightful

      trying to slow down the fragmentation of the language into dialects.

      English is not fragmenting. It is coalescing into a single global language. A century ago, English spoken in widely separated areas, like say Australia and America, were much further apart than they are today. In the past, even different regions of America, like say New England and the Deep South, sometimes had difficulty communicating. Today, regional accents are slowly dying out, and vocabulary is standardizing. Part of the reason is easy air travel, but bigger reasons are the globalization of media and entertainment, and the Internet.

    6. Re: There might not be Proper English by Paradise+Pete · · Score: 1

      That was remarkably difficult to read. My brain kept looping back to earlier in the sentence to try to parse some sense from it.

    7. Re:There might not be Proper English by stephanruby · · Score: 3, Insightful

      I would agree. And I think the notion of teaching "Proper English" is less about saying common usage is wrong than it is with trying to slow down the fragmentation of the language into dialects.

      If governments and institutions really wanted to slow down the fragmentation of the English language, then they would just standardize on American Los Angeles Hollywood English.

      As it stands, most people are selfish and most people are the center of their own little worlds. They're perfectly willing to make their own dialect the new standard that everybody else has to abide to, especially to get jobs and government benefits, they're perfectly willing to make their language a marker of group identity and group pride, but they're unwilling to change their own language when it is found that another dialect is becoming the new standard.

      A perfect manifestation of this kind selfishness is the British queen. Why can't she just learn proper Hollywood english like everybody else? She's just holding her own people back if she continues on this path.

    8. Re:There might not be Proper English by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 2, Insightful

      trying to slow down the fragmentation of the language into dialects.

      English is not fragmenting. It is coalescing into a single global language. A century ago, English spoken in widely separated areas, like say Australia and America, were much further apart than they are today. In the past, even different regions of America, like say New England and the Deep South, sometimes had difficulty communicating. Today, regional accents are slowly dying out, and vocabulary is standardizing. Part of the reason is easy air travel, but bigger reasons are the globalization of media and entertainment, and the Internet.

      Wrong. The English spoken in the British Isles is not only disparate from English spoken anywhere else, it's got nearly as many dialects on the isles as anywhere else. To say that it is no longer fragmenting would be correct from a written point of view as structurally and grammatically it is more or less the same everywhere, however, spoken dialects are still very much alive and well in their respective regions. Not sure where you're getting your info from, but if your experience is just with written English, people in big cities or tourist areas then you do not have enough information to make your assertions even remotely valid, as they are not. You get a Mainer (that would be a person from the state of Maine) from the woods and a Cajun from Louisiana in the same room and see how long it takes them to understand what the other is saying; good luck! Hell, there are people living twenty miles from where I am sitting in southwest Virginia that I need to listen to for a few sentences before I understand them, and I am 43 and lived here for 22 years! Don't even get me started on Cockney slang or Scots English. Sweet baby jeebus are they effing hard to understand as even being English! Language will always have a cultural context. Since there are many cultural differences between the countries and regions where English is spoken there will forever be differences in their spoken language. It's the nature of the beast. I don't know where your assertion of accents disappearing came from, probably the same place the rest of what you said came from, i.e., the south end of a north facing bull.

    9. Re:There might not be Proper English by Chas · · Score: 4, Insightful

      Years ago, in Basic Training, had a guy tell me he was from "Soccolonna"?

      And I was like "Where?"

      South Carolina.

      I'm fine with taking a certain stylistic convention (such as supposed "proper english") and teaching is the norm (similar to Standard Received Pronunciation used to be in the UK).
      This ensures that we can still communicate with one another. Without the regional drifts becoming so bad they become an unintelligible dialect to pretty much anyone else.
      We don't have to declare english a "closed language (see DEAD LANGUAGE)" the way those idiots in France have tried and failed to do.

      But using "English is a living, growing language" to justify "Fo shizzle"isms is disingenuous at best, with me leaning more towards "downright idiotic".

      The point of a language is to be able to communicate in a standard manner.

      Having to decipher pseudorandom grunts and vocalizations defeats that purpose.

      The same thing can be said for the written language.

      Spelling stuff "just any old way" is just unacceptable.

      Try reading medieval English (from the period of Chaucer and before). And I don't mean copies that have been spelling corrected as of today. I mean the originals.

      It can be done. But it's a MASSIVE pain in the balls, and in some cases, requires additional schooling.

      Now imagine people turning in manuscripts, scientific papers, reports, etc, etc like that TODAY.

      Again, you don't have a common point of reference. Therefore you don't have a language.

      --


      Chas - The one, the only.
      THANK GOD!!!
    10. Re:There might not be Proper English by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

      If governments and institutions really wanted to slow down the fragmentation of the English language, then they would just standardize on American Los Angeles Hollywood English.

      Why standardise on the ugliest variety of English in existence? The obvious choice for a 'standard' variety of the English language would be one spoken in England.

    11. Re:There might not be Proper English by shilly · · Score: 5, Insightful

      You mean "distinct", not "disparate".

      While the British Isles has many forms of English, and a number of dialects, regional variations are mainly confined to accents and some vocabulary. There is no mutual incomprehensibility between a Mancunian and a Kentish resident, even if there's the odd word or phrase used by the one and not the other. This is also true for Scottish English, which is very definitely not typically "hard to understand as even being English". Cockney slang as slang is barely used by anyone any more, while more generally Cockney English has, of course, more or less been replaced by Estuary English, which is spoken by people all across the South East. In the East End, English is most likely to be difficult to understand for people who only speak Standard British English because of imported words and features from new immigrant communities such as Sylhetis and Lithuanians.

      Regional variations continue to exist in British English, and will continue to be generated, but it is undoubtedly true that the extent of variation has lessened compared to 50 years ago, and that this is partly driven by migration and partly by media.

      It sounds to me, as a Brit, as though you're simply subscribing to a popular US view of how Britain's language works from several thousand miles away; a view which is inaccurate.

    12. Re:There might not be Proper English by dcw3 · · Score: 1

      Years ago, in Basic Training, had a guy tell me ...

      Ditto. We had a guy from "Baaston", who was talking about throwing a "potty" at the end of basic. It took us a few seconds to realize he didn't mean throw a toilet.

      --
      Just another day in Paradise
    13. Re:There might not be Proper English by Cro+Magnon · · Score: 1

      Yeah, when a guy I know from there said he got into his "caw", it had nothing to do with crow noises.

      --
      Slow down, cowboy! It has been 4 hours since you last posted. You must wait another few hours.
    14. Re:There might not be Proper English by meta-monkey · · Score: 3, Funny

      That's how tha fuck scholarly linguists work.

      If I were a scholarly linguist, this would be my new .sig.

      --
      We don't have a state-run media we have a media-run state.
    15. Re:There might not be Proper English by meta-monkey · · Score: 1

      But using "English is a living, growing language" to justify "Fo shizzle"isms is disingenuous at best, with me leaning more towards "downright idiotic".

      The point of a language is to be able to communicate in a standard manner.

      Says you. The point is to communicate. To express. And not "in a standard manner" like a robot.

      "Fo shizzle" is a useful linguistic construct. You could just say "I concur." But "fo shizzle" is laced with metadata. You now have a hint that the speaker is joking, feigning enthusiasm. If not, you have an insight into their background, interests and attitudes.

      So long as you can understand what someone is saying, floral language adds information. And it's fun. Fo shizzle.

      --
      We don't have a state-run media we have a media-run state.
    16. Re: There might not be Proper English by meta-monkey · · Score: 1

      They don't think it be like it is but it do.

      --
      We don't have a state-run media we have a media-run state.
    17. Re:There might not be Proper English by userw014 · · Score: 2

      Using gizgoogle.net against the WSJ article ends with this statement:

      • Muthafuckas should not be stigmatized fo' tha way they speak, n' they certainly should not have stupid, made-up linguistic superstitions drilled tha fuck into they heads.

      Is this where Hollywood gets it's dialogue from these days?

    18. Re:There might not be Proper English by Andy_R · · Score: 1

      While English in the British Isles used to have mutually incomprehensible dialects, the influence of received pronunciation has drastically lessened this, so I'd argue that it is coalescing.

      Most people I know who have strong regional accents have the ability to switch to a neutral accent and cut out dialect words when they are in formal situations - an ability my father's generation learned from radio, my generation learned from radio and television, and my children's generation will learn from radio, television and internet. If you ask a Hebridean Scot to give a transcript of two Cockneys talking in a pub, or vice versa, they will struggle, but if you arrange a conversation between a Hebridean Scot and a Cockney they will simply both 'talk like the people on the telly' and understand each other perfectly well.

      English was able to fragment because in the past, you rarely had to communicate with people from far away (which is how we ended up with prominent Americans who can't even say their own names properly... yes, Jay-ZED, I'm looking at you!) The internet changes all this, we now have regular interactions with people worldwide, so speaking or writing in a mutually incomprehensible way has penalties.

      Perhaps we should consider the benefits of formalising 'correct' English, lest we be doomed to forever be re-translating Wikipedia into 'current' English?

      --
      A pizza of radius z and thickness a has a volume of pi z z a
    19. Re:There might not be Proper English by operagost · · Score: 2

      Just for Samuel L. Jackson's characters.

      --

      Gamingmuseum.com: Give your 3D accelerator a rest.
    20. Re:There might not be Proper English by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 3, Informative

      Despite everything, I insist that the word "unisex" is incorrect. "Uni" means "one!" It does not mean "many" or "all."

      In the word "universe," it is the "verse" part of the word that makes it mean "all things." The "uni" part of the word means "taken as one."

      The word should be "omnisex." That is what people mean when they say "unisex." So, that is what they should say instead.

      I secretly pass harsh judgment against everyone who says "unisex" when they mean "omnisex."

    21. Re:There might not be Proper English by operagost · · Score: 1

      "Zed" might be a more distinct way of vocalizing the letter "Z", but to suggest that an American should pronounce his professional name that way when we haven't done so since the 19th century is preposterous. For shizzle my nizzle.

      --

      Gamingmuseum.com: Give your 3D accelerator a rest.
    22. Re:There might not be Proper English by operagost · · Score: 1

      Why? Just because "that's where it came from", or even dumber, "because that's where the NAME came from"? American English has actually changed less than what people call "the Queen's English".

      --

      Gamingmuseum.com: Give your 3D accelerator a rest.
    23. Re:There might not be Proper English by nine-times · · Score: 1

      Slashdot: Shit fo' nerds, shiznit dat matters.

    24. Re:There might not be Proper English by bjdevil66 · · Score: 1

      Again, you don't have a common point of reference.

      Well, we DID - the Bible (the King James Version in particular). As society has moved away from that standard, it has pulled up its biggest linguistic anchor.

    25. Re:There might not be Proper English by jedidiah · · Score: 1

      Nonsense. It's intentionally obfuscated to the point where it differs more from the surrounding English than different European language families do. It's interesting to catch the borrowed words between languages where people aren't trying to be obtuse with one another.

      Something like ebonics is fundementally anti-social and anti-assimilationist.

      --
      A Pirate and a Puritan look the same on a balance sheet.
    26. Re:There might not be Proper English by DamnOregonian · · Score: 1

      Na, the US never has, and never will have a national language ;)
      Don't like the demographics? Become a fascist, or breed more.

    27. Re:There might not be Proper English by DamnOregonian · · Score: 1

      Holy fucking racist bullshit, batman!

      You think German is more intelligible to an English speaker than ebonics?
      Anti-social? I suspect it isn't that at all to those who speak it with each other.
      Anti-assimilationist? Ahhh, and your true colors show. Perhaps it's you who is failing to assimilate with the movement of demographics and culture.

      It's not at all uncommon for those who are standing still to look at the vast majority of mankind passing them by and think that it is they who are failing to assimilate. You must be some kind of genius.

    28. Re:There might not be Proper English by circlekhaos · · Score: 1

      One of the (many) reasons English is so successful is where the burden of comprehension lies. It takes two to communicate: I will say a speaker and a listener. With French (to use the obvious example) it is the task of the speaker to speak near-perfect French or the listener is free to dismiss what the speaker has said as incomprehensible. With English, the burden of comprehension lies with the listener. If I go to a convenience store and the recent immigrant behind the cash register demolishes every sentence he utters, it is up to me to figure out what he just said and respond accordingly. Hence, almost anybody can "speak" English because it's okay to mangle every element and still be understood; it's the task of the listener to noodle out the intent of the speaker. There is a wonderful movie called "Joyeux Noel" about an historical incident that occurred on the front lines in France during the first Christmas of the First World War. The movie begins with the French troops who are all speaking French, of course, so the dialogue is subtitled as the characters speak. That was a good thing because my French is almost non-existant. Then the movie switches to the German side where the troops are all speaking German and the dialogue is subtitled as the characters speak, which was a good thing because my German, even after six years of study, ist sehr schlecht. Then the film moves to the Scottish troops, who are all speaking something that is clearly English but I couldn't understand a word they were saying. No subtitles, either. But the film makers know that is my problem because it's English (of sorts) so it's up to me to figure out the dialogue.

    29. Re:There might not be Proper English by cayenne8 · · Score: 1

      Na, the US never has, and never will have a national language

      Well, maybe we should.

      I mean, it IS in the rules there, for becoming a US citizen, that you must show a proficiency in the English language.

      Why don't we make it official and pass laws making English the official national language? I can't really see a downside to it....other countries have national official languages, why not us in the US?

      --
      Light travels faster than sound. This is why some people appear bright until you hear them speak.........
    30. Re:There might not be Proper English by znrt · · Score: 1

      trying to slow down the fragmentation of the language into dialects

      "dialect" is a term used for arbitrary classification. there is absolutely no linguistic difference between what you call a "language" and a "dialect", both are the exact same thing.

      language fragmentation is inherent to geographic distribution. there is no such thing as "proper english" unless maybe you are referring to a particular form of english dominant in england at a given time, which is a pretty useless definition in the current world.

      dominant languages today have become such through military/economic/cultural expansion, and expansion naturally implies fragmentation. there is no more "english" to speak of, but "englishes" or whatever the plural of english would be in your particular english.

    31. Re:There might not be Proper English by v(*_*)vvvv · · Score: 1

      Exactly this. Proper is in the context, and there is proper English for every occasion.

      Kids using broken grammar and butchered words is proper for their audience. But when they need to speak to impress their teachers, their parents, their employers, their investors, their readers, their students... they will speak proper English.

      The issue is whether one can communicate their philosophy, their science, their intentions at the highest level. This is the skill that is lacking in public education in China and Japan and even in the US at lower levels. Learning how to express sophisticated thoughts proficiently requires a higher education even for native speakers, and the Ivy league schools does set the international standard for proper, intellectual, universal English.

    32. Re:There might not be Proper English by DamnOregonian · · Score: 1

      Well, it wasn't added to the rules until 1906, and traditionally, we didn't have a national language, because the framers didn't see a need, and the colonies at the time housed people from many European descents (especially since colonies such as New York weren't originally British, many portions of the newly formed country were very recently French, lost during the French-Indian War, and disputed with Spain, like western Georgia). Later on, it became increasingly relevant as the US "acquired" territories with predominantly non-English speakers (everything west of the Mississippi) through either Conquest (Mexico, Hawaii) or purchase/treaty (France - The entire midwest and Louisiana, Spain - Florida).

      Teddy Roosevelt was the first major person I know of to champion the English-only movement, in the early 20th century, and several states outright rejected it, having de jure multi-lingual government document requirements, and Louisiana having 2 de jure official languages (English, French).

      I don't really see what the benefit of enforcing a national language is. I don't see a multi-lingual government as a shortcoming, I guess; and a majority of the continental US is in fact land that was acquired while populated with Spanish and French speakers. I say let the language demographics evolve naturally.

    33. Re:There might not be Proper English by Grishnakh · · Score: 1

      "Fo shizzle" is a useful linguistic construct. You could just say "I concur." But "fo shizzle" is laced with metadata. You now have a hint that the speaker is joking, feigning enthusiasm.

      No, you don't have any such hint, unless you happen to already be familiar with that particular dialect and subculture. Expecting every English speaker to be familiar with every dialect and subculture around the planet is simply ridiculous. Thanks to modern communications and travel, people are no longer confined to interacting only with people who live within 10 miles; we need to stop dividing ourselves this way as it only hampers communications.

    34. Re:There might not be Proper English by HornWumpus · · Score: 1

      I was somewhat recently warned to 'watch for cops in tourists on the shoulder' by the rental car bus driver in Boston.

      All I could say was 'I'm glad I'm here on business. Doesn't that scare away the tourists?' He was trying to say Taurus.

      --
      John McAfee 'It was like that time I hired that Bangkok prostitute; to do my taxes, while I fucked my accountant'
    35. Re:There might not be Proper English by mcswell · · Score: 1

      Nonsense, my good sir. An Englishman's way of speaking absolutely classifies him; the moment he opens his mouth, he makes some other Englishman despise him.

      There are even places where English completely disappears. In America, they haven't spoken it for years.

    36. Re:There might not be Proper English by cayenne8 · · Score: 2
      Because, a common language solidifies the country and makes it more of the melting pot it used to me.

      Right now, with so many illegal immigrants, they are isolating themselves not only by hiding from the law, but by not speaking English.....

      A common language requirements would force people to learn and integrate more into a larger society.

      The melting pot is disintegrating into more segregation and largely by language.

      --
      Light travels faster than sound. This is why some people appear bright until you hear them speak.........
    37. Re:There might not be Proper English by uninformedLuddite · · Score: 1

      I cannot help but relate your comment to your name. Does that make me evil?

      --
      The new right fascists are bilingual. They speak English and Bullshit.
    38. Re:There might not be Proper English by JakeBurn · · Score: 1

      The obvious choice is the one that already follows existing rules of the language. Brother. There are no V's and TWO R's in the word brother. I don't need special rules as a non-native speaker in order to learn that word in many places around the world but I absolutely would either need special rules or a translator while listening to a British person say that word.

  2. Me fail English... by Patent+Lover · · Score: 3, Funny

    That's unpossible.

    1. Re:Me fail English... by Hartree · · Score: 1

      double plus ungood.

  3. Headline Is Wrong by Shakrai · · Score: 2

    Should be: Why They're Ain't Any Such Thing as "Proper English."

    Your welcome.

    --
    I want peace on earth and goodwill toward man.
    We are the United States Government! We don't do that sort of thing.
    1. Re:Headline Is Wrong by fisted · · Score: 1

      Thanks for you're insight

    2. Re:Headline Is Wrong by sycodon · · Score: 2

      Why they ain't be nothing such as "Proper English"

      --
      When Fascism comes to America, it will call itself Anti-Fascism, and tell you to give up your guns.
    3. Re:Headline Is Wrong by Jane+Q.+Public · · Score: 4, Interesting

      Should be: Why They're Ain't Any Such Thing as "Proper English."

      Author has apparently never heard of Strunk & White.

      It's a bit of a conflict of interest for a writer to say there are "no rules", when in fact there are. And English doesn't actually change anywhere near as fast as many of these folks claim. Fads come and go, while the underlying rules persist, generation after generation.

      If that were not true, you would not be able to make sense of Shakespeare today. But you can, except for the occasional stray word. You still get the meaning.

    4. Re:Headline Is Wrong by khasim · · Score: 3, Interesting

      Someone mod that up. It's better than TFA.

      Speaking of, from TFA:

      There are different dialects of English, all of which conform to grammatical structures.

      He's got the dialect part correct. But he left out things like slang and local idioms and so forth.

      But it is not possible for everyone, or the majority of educated users of the language, to be wrong on the same point at the same time.

      "educated" ... that's the problem.

      If you are "educated" then wouldn't you know the correct usage?

      So he's falling back on whatever the majority (as he sees it) uses as being ... not incorrect.

      But in the end, he's wrong. You can mix Yoda-speak/LOLcat with the latest slang and your friends will probably understand you.

      But it will probably not impress when you use it on your resume.

    5. Re:Headline Is Wrong by rubycodez · · Score: 1

      What's with that city slicker dialect, are you putting on airs? It's "Why thar Taint No Such Thang!"

    6. Re:Headline Is Wrong by Jane+Q.+Public · · Score: 2, Interesting

      Yes, there are rules. For instance, it's acceptable to use apostrophes to show plurals of single lower-case letters. Right, Jane? Flag as Inappropriate

      No. Single quotes are used for that.

      Do you honestly think I (and Slashdot management) don't know who you are?

      Go away. Stay away.

    7. Re:Headline Is Wrong by sjames · · Score: 1

      I can also understand Archie Bunker and Yoda just fine.

      The basic parts of speech remain the same though their arrangement may change and words may sometimes move fluidly from one to the other (verbing nouns for example).

    8. Re:Headline Is Wrong by Pseudonym · · Score: 1

      Author has apparently never heard of Strunk & White.

      ...good thing, too.

      --
      sub f{($f)=@_;print"$f(q{$f});";}f(q{sub f{($f)=@_;print"$f(q{$f});";}f});
    9. Re:Headline Is Wrong by wonkey_monkey · · Score: 1

      Author has apparently never heard of Strunk & White.

      When were Strunk & White appointed the official arbiters of English?

      --
      systemd is Roko's Basilisk.
    10. Re:Headline Is Wrong by shilly · · Score: 3, Insightful

      There is something exquisitely irritating about a post that says "Author has apparently never heard of Strunk & White" when the article explicitly discusses Strunk and White. FFS, Jane Q Public, would it really have troubled you that much to have read the article you've chosen to criticise, at least to save yourself from looking like a complete and utter tit?

    11. Re:Headline Is Wrong by sabbede · · Score: 1

      1920

    12. Re:Headline Is Wrong by dcw3 · · Score: 1

      Me two

      --
      Just another day in Paradise
    13. Re:Headline Is Wrong by Wdomburg · · Score: 1

      Singular they and their goes back hundreds of years, even though there have been periods where it was not the recommended or common generic pronoun.

    14. Re:Headline Is Wrong by paazin · · Score: 1

      Well when the requirement to read the article is enriching Rupert Murdoch's pocketbook I could understand the hesitation.

    15. Re:Headline Is Wrong by Jane+Q.+Public · · Score: 1

      ...good thing, too.

      It was only an example. My point was that rules do exist, and people do pay attention to them.

    16. Re:Headline Is Wrong by Jane+Q.+Public · · Score: 1

      Threats are not appropriate.

      You seem to have a strange idea of what constitutes a "threat". I didn't make any threats here.

      Just another example of your failure to comprehend pain English.

    17. Re:Headline Is Wrong by Jane+Q.+Public · · Score: 1

      FFS, Jane Q Public, would it really have troubled you that much to have read the article you've chosen to criticise, at least to save yourself from looking like a complete and utter tit?

      Prescriptive style guides like Strunk & Whiteâ(TM)s âoeElements of Styleâ are the direct descendants of 18th-century grammarians who first defined what it was to speak âoeproper English.â In fact, these grammarians really just meant the dialect that grew up in and around London; their manuals were intended to teach propriety to an emerging merchant class.

      I was making a point. The person being a "tit" here is the author of the article. It doesn't matter WHY Strunk & White was published. What matters is that it is an example of the kind of "rule book" that people do in fact pay attention to. Oliver Kamm doesn't have to pay attention to such rules if he prefers not to; likely that will make him a worse author. He can like that or not, but there is truth to it.

    18. Re:Headline Is Wrong by Coren22 · · Score: 1

      Try to make sense of this line from Romeo and Juliet

      "Wherefore art thou Romeo?"

      That one took quite a bit of time in my English class in high school.

      --
      APK likes to ask for responses to the same things over and over. Maybe he just likes the responses?
    19. Re:Headline Is Wrong by Coren22 · · Score: 1

      I don't think Taint means what you think it means. You may mean to be typing Ain't instead.

      --
      APK likes to ask for responses to the same things over and over. Maybe he just likes the responses?
    20. Re:Headline Is Wrong by LessThanObvious · · Score: 1

      I understand this article to mean that we have simply given up on having any agreed upon proper English. I'll admit I'm a pretty sloppy writer, but I'd rather that the true academics guide the course of what is considered proper English, than allow language to be whatever general society decides. Rather than saying there isn't one definition of proper English we can simply acknowledge there are regional differences and varying tolerances for lack of strict usage and percentage of slang. In common speech we may accept that with is considered normal, but when the occasion arises that more formal language is expected, the need for proper English becomes evident.

    21. Re:Headline Is Wrong by Jane+Q.+Public · · Score: 1

      "Another" example? Jane, you are aware that "Anonymous Coward" isn't actually a user name... right? The AC you're accusing of not being able to comprehend your "pain English" (what a juicy Freudian slip) isn't the same AC you told to "go away".

      Really? And how would you know that?

      I have reason to suspect otherwise. I generally have reasons for saying the things I say. I grant that I could be wrong, but I do have contradictory evidence.

    22. Re:Headline Is Wrong by BevanFindlay · · Score: 1

      This is Slashdot. Posting without reading the article is almost required etiquette, is it not? ;-)

      (Just realised my comment comes out so much better if the first sentence is read like the line "This. is. Sparta!" from the movie 300).

    23. Re:Headline Is Wrong by Jane+Q.+Public · · Score: 1

      Which is, of course, the only reasonable way for you to know, if you didn't work at Slashdot... if you were one of them (or both).

      Either way, it's still a failure.

    24. Re:Headline Is Wrong by rubycodez · · Score: 1

      There are two "taints". The one for "it ain't" and the other anatomical one, that is involved in the statement about oral sex including taint being like diplomacy, "one slip of the tongue and you're in deep shit"

    25. Re:Headline Is Wrong by Jane+Q.+Public · · Score: 1

      You don't seem to be getting the idea that following my every word for years on end is WEIRD. It's abnormal behavior. Go obsess over someone else. I'm not going to argue with you over things that were said or written months or years ago.

    26. Re:Headline Is Wrong by Jane+Q.+Public · · Score: 1

      You're not going to argue because you're incapable of admitting you're wrong about the simplest points, and yet you continue to lecture everyone about a nigh-infinite set of topics. Frankly, I'd be worried if you thought I was normal.

      You aren't going to pull me in to a stupid argument by trolling me, either. Nice try, but no dice.

  4. u fkn wat by fisted · · Score: 1

    i dun get dis. some1 DTF?

  5. English belongs to the world by AndyCanfield · · Score: 5, Funny

    There are more people studying English in China than the entire population of England. The English language does NOT belong to the native speakers - it belongs to the world. It is the "lingua franca" of our age (and doesn't that phrase piss off the French!).

    1. Re:English belongs to the world by aevan · · Score: 2

      So we should have more aggressively defended our Trademark?

    2. Re:English belongs to the world by Shakrai · · Score: 1

      I think he's saying we should have been born Finnish.

      --
      I want peace on earth and goodwill toward man.
      We are the United States Government! We don't do that sort of thing.
    3. Re:English belongs to the world by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 5, Interesting

      Why would they? They term "lingua franca" (italian for "language of the Frankish") originated during the renaissance to describe a "universal" language spoken throughout the mediterranean and used for commerce and trade. It is composed of mostly Italian (80%) with some greek, portuguese, arabic, spanish, old french, occitan. In this context, the term "Franca" (Frankish) does not describe "France". The term "Franca" was used by Greeks, Arabs and others to describe Western Europe.

    4. Re:English belongs to the world by billstewart · · Score: 2

      A few years ago I was at a conference in Germany, which was mostly held in English, with a few sessions in German. One of the speakers started out by saying that in some previous conferences he'd apologized for his English, but had been told by the moderator (who was Turkish) that "Bad English is the most widely spoken language in the world."

      --

      Bill Stewart
      New Fast-Compression-only CPR http://preview.tinyurl.com/dy575ks
    5. Re:English belongs to the world by quenda · · Score: 1

      It is the "lingua franca" of our age (and doesn't that phrase piss off the French!).

      Why? The original "Lingua Franca" was mostly Italian.
      http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/L...

    6. Re:English belongs to the world by phantomfive · · Score: 1, Funny

      There are more people studying English in China than the entire population of England.

      Most of those Chinese wish there could speak like an American. Or Englishman. Or even Australian (though they regret that soon after ;) ).

      --
      "First they came for the slanderers and i said nothing."
    7. Re:English belongs to the world by stms · · Score: 1

      'Cause we ain't no sissy French here in English we embrace lingual descriptivism.

    8. Re:English belongs to the world by ShanghaiBill · · Score: 1

      Most of those Chinese wish there could speak like an American. Or Englishman. Or even Australian (though they regret that soon after ;) ).

      It is very common for Australians to teach English in China, so a lot of Chinese end up learning English with an Australian accent. I was working in Shanghai when a female coworker asked me if I had a rubber. It took me a few awkward moments to figure out that in Australian English a rubber is an eraser.

    9. Re:English belongs to the world by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

      Yes, but most of the French don't know that.

    10. Re:English belongs to the world by phantomfive · · Score: 1

      Do they regret having learned Australian instead of English?

      --
      "First they came for the slanderers and i said nothing."
    11. Re:English belongs to the world by jrumney · · Score: 1

      It's aimed more at Indians than Chinese, but there is a useful YouTube channel to help with conversing in Australian English.

    12. Re:English belongs to the world by nogginthenog · · Score: 1

      And in British English.

    13. Re:English belongs to the world by DamnOregonian · · Score: 1

      And a cocked smile in America, if you asked for a rubber.

    14. Re:English belongs to the world by gordo3000 · · Score: 1

      people forget it is because the rest of the world has a leg up on American English. Hollywood and our music spread American English around the world, but there is no real force (besides crocodile dundee and an amazing first scene to Dumb and Dumber) to disseminate Australian English or British English in the US.

      Most people don't realize how many American idioms or substitute words are subtly ingrained by this, and then wonder why Americans struggle with words they literally have never heard before.

    15. Re:English belongs to the world by BevanFindlay · · Score: 1

      Quite possibly not, when (apart from the accent and a few very odd localisations - and this is from a New Zealander, though we have our own weird idioms too) Australian English is pretty similar to British ["proper", haha] English. In fact, I think places like Australia and New Zealand have an advantage internationally, in that we take the British stance on most language, but much of our media comes from America, making transitions between the various word-use-dialects easier. This is not an advantage that Americans have though, as American mono-culturalism means that (like the GP) you have no idea that your understanding of a word isn't the only option. I would use the words "rubber" and "eraser" interchangeably (though I am quite aware of the "alternative" meaning for "rubber", which would make we quickly correct if I got a perplexed look from a co-worker - although this isn't something I'd expect from a non-native speaker).

      So, conversely, I could ask whether you regret having learned "American" instead of "English". ;-)

    16. Re:English belongs to the world by phantomfive · · Score: 1

      Quite possibly not

      In other words, you have no idea, but wanted to write a paragraph about it anyway. Brilliant.

      --
      "First they came for the slanderers and i said nothing."
    17. Re:English belongs to the world by AndyCanfield · · Score: 1

      I love that! Thanks! "Bad English is the most widely spoken language in the world."

    18. Re:English belongs to the world by BevanFindlay · · Score: 1

      I saw your speculation and raised you a further speculation! ;-)

      But, to actually answer that, I don't think anyone regrets they language learn, as that's what they consider "normal" - unless it causes problems later. I expect they will think the Australian accent is normal, and that American, British, or other accents are a bit strange. I've heard some rather odd (and occasionally amusing) American accents (and yes, some awful Australian ones too).

      Most people, whether they realise it or not, have a bias to think that their accent is the "normal" one, and everything else a variant off that. I had to spend quite a number of months overseas before I could recognise what a New Zealand accent sounds like, and why anyone thought it was strange. Since then, I have noticed this common tendency for everyone to consider their own as a baseline, when in reality there is no "normal" or "default" or "unaltered" accent - everyone does it, very few seem to be aware that they do.

      I have always been curious to know what an "averaged" accent would sound like though - take away all of the extremes of the various regional versions of English and any obvious variant sounds (so don't use vowels like Australians or New Zealanders - we mangle them in some quite creative ways - but conversely, don't go the other way and sound like a Californian - who seem to only have about 3 vowel sounds). And then try to pick the most intermediate way to say things. I expect you would end up with something that sounds foreign to everyone, though familiar in places. I'd love to hear someone try - and then use this more "neutral" accent for computer voices, instead of what we get now, which is usually a pretty terrible, severely localised version of whatever it is trying to be (although, I haven't ever come across a "New Zealand" accent option on text-to-speech software, so can't compare it easily to my own baseline to know how extreme they are to a native ear).

    19. Re:English belongs to the world by phantomfive · · Score: 1

      Nah, the only reason I've asked is because I heard somewhere that Chinese people feel like Australian is second-rate, they only go there because it's cheaper. Shanghai-Bill presumably lives there, so I was wondering if he could verify that rumor or not.

      You are right though, it seems like most people think of an accent as something other people have. The way they talk is normal. Indeed, even the phrase we use, "he has an accent" contains the implicit idea that some people don't.

      Interestingly, I was looking at these pages that outline some of the differences between various accents in English. I'm kind of interested that you think California accent doesn't have many vowels, though.

      --
      "First they came for the slanderers and i said nothing."
    20. Re:English belongs to the world by BevanFindlay · · Score: 1

      Californian accent doesn't have many vowels, when compared with a New Zealand accent. :-) I'm not even going to attempt to explain the differences in pure text, but it's basically that someone from California tends to have a fairly standard set of vowel sounds across words, whereas NZers' vowels are more heterogeneous. There are a couple of places (and sorry, I can't think of them off the top of my head - it was nearly a decade ago that I visited Cali) where I would use a couple of different vowel sounds and a Californian would use the same one (probably use of the letter "e"?). Someone commented once that I use two vowel sounds (one after the other in the same word) where they would use one (I didn't really understand what they meant at the time though). Intonation is much more varied here too I think (which might account for some of the difference) - sometimes Americans have commented that we always sound like we're asking a question because of the way we up-pitch at the end of a sentence.

      I don't think anyone there ever got how to pronounce my first name correctly (though admittedly, I had trouble with the way "Claudia" was pronounced in Cali). A lot of American accents are slower, more "drawn out", and more even-toned than the rushed, poorly-enunciated, tonally variegated version used here. :-) Though, again, that's not across all - some American accents (one or two of the southern ones for example) feature much more "sing song" tonal variation than anything I hear in NZ (I actually love those kinds of accents - used to know a girl from South Carolina who could do several of them, and a couple really made me laugh).

    21. Re:English belongs to the world by rolandw · · Score: 1

      Rubbish. The English language belongs to the people of England. There is proper English and that is the English that is spoken by the English. Not all British people speak English. Not all English people speak English (listen to the Cornish or a passing Geordie). Americans certainly don't speak English. Neither do Australians. But the difference between English and French is that we English aren't so possessive and uppity about about our language. Besides, we defeated them in 1815 just like we put the Spaniards in their place in 1588. English is continually developing because we've been accepting good, hard working and ambitious people from all over Europe for millennia and people from our former colonies for a hundred years or so and they all bring interesting variations. We made room for them by shipping all the misfits to other places thereby spreading the beauty of our ways. We don't mind you (and everyone else) messing with our language and not being able to spell "programme", "catalogue" or even "colour" because at least you're nearly speaking the same language as us and so we don't have to bother learning another. Instead we can spend our time being the best country in the world by teaching our children to measure in metres (SI) whilst having yards (BS) on our road signs!

  6. Dialects != Language by Zaelath · · Score: 1

    ah doesn't reckon yer thesis is necessarily co'reck, an' thet th' article is cornfusin' dialeck wif language.

    I don't fink yor thesis is necessarily correct, right, and that the article is confusin' dialect wiv 'am sandwich.

    Or maybe you reckon the above is "English"?

    1. Re:Dialects != Language by snowgirl · · Score: 4, Informative

      I imagine that you think Swedish, Norwegian and Danish are all different languages...

      In spelling, Norwegian has two methods of writing: Nynorsk, and Bokmål... one is more like Swedish, the other is more like Danish, respectively...

      But in the end, it's all just spelling the spelling, as they're all mutually intelligible. There is less different between the Scandinavian languages than Spanish and especially Arabic.

      There is less difference between Romanian and Moldavian than there is between American and British English, yet some Moldavians insist that they speak a different language in order to create an "us vs them"

      Linguists know that a language is just a dialect with an army.

      --
      WARNING! This girl exceeds the MAXIMUM SAFE standards established by the FDA for BRATTINESS
    2. Re:Dialects != Language by Zaelath · · Score: 1

      Linguists know that a language is just a dialect with an army.

      Exactly so, but would you think it's acceptable to write a contract in "redneck"? The introduction to the article implies that small groups, "youfs" for example, write correctly because they write as their contemporaries write, it's not comparable to entire countries.

      Admittedly, the body of the article is a long way from the opening paragraph and I suspect a (sub?)editor is at fault. The body is about obscure grammar rules most people don't know, and elements of style which even Oxford and Cambridge can't agree on.

    3. Re:Dialects != Language by sjames · · Score: 1

      Why not, lawyers think it's acceptable to write a contract between two English speakers in legalese.

      The requirement for a contract is that both parties have the same understanding of the contract. Failing that, that an eventual mediator understands it.

      So if 2 rednecks write a contract and the most likely mediator is also a redneck, the requirement is met.

    4. Re:Dialects != Language by Severus+Snape · · Score: 1

      ah doesn't reckon yer thesis is necessarily co'reck, an' thet th' article is cornfusin' dialeck wif language.

      I don't fink yor thesis is necessarily correct, right, and that the article is confusin' dialect wiv 'am sandwich.

      Or maybe you reckon the above is "English"?

      Nicely done. Al' run intae the corner wae ma Scots.

    5. Re:Dialects != Language by Zontar_Thing_From_Ve · · Score: 1

      Linguists know that a language is just a dialect with an army.

      To a certain extent you have a point, but I wouldn't say you're completely correct with that statement. I believe that the most correct statement I ever read on the subject was where a linguist said that it's up to the speakers of a language to determine what is a dialect and what is a separate language. German and Dutch are regarded as separate languages by their speakers yet the degree of mutual intelligibility is extremely high. Spanish and Portuguese are probably roughly 90% the same but the speakers regard them as separate languages. Galician is even closer to Portuguese than Spanish and while it probably really should be a dialect of Portuguese, nobody gets upset that everybody thinks it's a separate language. Speakers of English from the UK or USA wouldn't regard Jamaican English as anything but a dialect. China's official policy is that there is one Chinese language and Mandarin, Cantonese, Shanghaiese, Hakka, Min and others are simply dialects of I guess some theoretical single ancestor language, yet some of these "dialects" are as close to each other as English is to Polish. As far as the Romanian/Moldovan thing goes, you need to remember that the USSR stole Moldova during WWII and kept it and it was in their interest to promote the idea that Moldovans were culturally and linguistically distinct from Romanians. Romania never allowed Soviet troops to be stationed there and operated a relatively independent foreign policy during the Ceausescu era. The last thing the USSR wanted was large numbers of Moldovans seeking to rejoin Romania, hence they overpromoted the idea that Moldovan was a completely separate language. This idea is starting to fade in today's world and I would think that a majority of people in Moldova outside of Transnistria would easily admit that they speak Romanian, not some wildly different "Moldovan" language.

    6. Re:Dialects != Language by nealric · · Score: 1

      As a lawyer, I would like to point out that "legalese" is actually officially disfavored within the legal community. Most law schools caution against legal writing loaded with unnecessary jargon and stress clarity to the extent possible. However, one thing that trips up efforts in clarity is our common law system. Much of the "law" is created by precedents in past cases. The court opinions in the common law tradition often create "magic words" within a contract. For example, the statute may say something has to be done in a "reasonable" amount of time. A lawyer might know that the courts have defined "reasonable" to mean generally 30 days, but a layperson doesn't know what "reasonable" means. It becomes a magic word. Now, you may ask, why not just use "30 days" instead of the word "reasonable?" Well, the court probably has packed into that "generally 30 days" many exceptions that were created due to special circumstances over the years. By using the magic word "reasonable", you neatly incorporate all those exceptions into the contract without having to tediously enumerate and define all of them. "Two rednecks" can and do conclude contracts in their native dialects. The result is usually a train wreck if litigated because their language may or may not map onto the "magic words." One party may be forced to argue that when they said "reasonable" they didn't really mean "reasonable" as defined by the statute and court precedents- they meant the redneck definition (whatever that might be). Their contract may work of the "mediator" is a redneck, but if mediation breaks down, they are left to argue in the court system, which does not operate with a redneck dialect.

    7. Re:Dialects != Language by DamnOregonian · · Score: 1

      Informative.. Educational... Depressing.

    8. Re:Dialects != Language by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      but would you think it's acceptable to write a contract in "redneck"?

      I wouldn't because I don't know "redneck" dialect well enough. But if two people speaking a common dialect wish to celebrate a contract in a dialect other than the formal register of the country in which they live, then I say, go for it!

      Contracts, resumes, etc, are all written in a certain register (smaller than a dialect) because that is the appropriate register for the audience. However, would you walk into an urban depressed neighborhood and go around using the Received Pronunciation register? No, it's not appropriate, because of audience mismatch.

      But punishing a group of people just because the formal register of power in their country is significantly more different from that spoken by a privileged class that need not learn the hojillion needling rules... that's not right.

      --
      WARNING! This girl exceeds the MAXIMUM SAFE standards established by the FDA for BRATTINESS
    9. Re:Dialects != Language by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      Indeed, the situation is more nuanced than one pithy little quote can do justice to. It's just a phrase that linguists tend to use, because they are confronted almost constantly by people insisting that some language is just a dialect or some dialect is actually a language. Often, this is for political reasons (which I shortened to reinforcing the "us" vs "them" cultural difference.). I am aware that Moldova has since changed their official language to Romanian, not Moldovan, so there's some recognition coming to the area in the last 10 years since I studied linguistics in college...

      But yes, everything you posted here is awesome, thank you for expanding upon my original post.

      --
      WARNING! This girl exceeds the MAXIMUM SAFE standards established by the FDA for BRATTINESS
    10. Re:Dialects != Language by sjames · · Score: 1

      The problem is that the magic words defy the intent of a contract to be a meeting of minds. For the minds to meet they have to actually know what the thing means. They're much worse than writing the contract up in Latin. At least if it was in Latin, the parties would know they don't have any idea what it means rather than believing they do when the 'magic words' likely contort it's meaning beyond recognition.

      The law belongs to the people and so the courts are (in theory) obligated to apply law and precedents to intent of the contract. Alas, they seem to favor the magic words. As far as any layman is concerned, that is just as much legalese as the various jargon and archaic words.

      A 'reasonable' court would recognize that the rednecks more probably intended the layman's definition of reasonable, not one you would find in a law book.

    11. Re:Dialects != Language by nealric · · Score: 1

      Perhaps, but here is the problem: the redneck that is advantaged by the use of the "magic word" instead of the redneck definition is going to swear up and down that's what he meant, and it's going to be mighty hard to prove him wrong. The court can't just assume "aww that just a redneck, he couldn't be that sophisticated" because there are plenty of savvy rednecks who might very well have understood what they were putting in the contract. It's true that the courts are supposed to apply the meaning of the contract, but usually there would be no litigation in the first place if the parties agreed what that original meaning was. It may be the case that one party understood the significance of a "magic word" and the other did not. The advantage of this system is that, at least in theory, no matter what dialect you speak, if you are represented by competent counsel, you will be able to enter into and enforce contracts that are fair to your interests.

    12. Re:Dialects != Language by sjames · · Score: 1

      You're not supposed to need council to enter into an agreement. Most can't actually afford it for every agreement they might enter.

      The key to the problem you posted is that the other party clearly did not intend the magic definitions. That would suggest that the first party intended to defy the contract from the start, so the interpretation goes to the other party. Surely the surrounding words would be indicative. For example, if the phrase "ain't no" appears in the contract, it is clearly not meant to be legalese.

      The judgement can be made based on whether the parties used lawyers to negotiate the contract. It can be based on the reasonable expectation as well. For example, for the typical boilerplate most often thrust under a customer's nose to sign, the reasonable expectation is that they have no lawyer present and so the plain English meanings apply. It's the other party's lawyer's duty to recognize that. Contracts are not supposed to be filled with tricks and traps.

    13. Re:Dialects != Language by nealric · · Score: 1

      No, but you generally need counsel to litigate in anything but small claims court. And "clearly did not mean" is rarely so clear. Just because someone uses "ain't no" doesn't necessarily mean they didn't mean to reference a statute (and if it's in their interest, they will argue that). Like I said, the courts try their best to look to the intent of the parties in whatever dialect they used, but in real life things get messy. Really, the legal profession does not intentionally go out and create opaque language or language that is outside the vernacular.

    14. Re:Dialects != Language by sjames · · Score: 1

      It's not deliberate. It was a long and slow process. But nevertheless it must be reversed at some point for courts and legal contracts to have relevance.

      We're already at the point where the reasonable man just clicks agree and gets on with his life and on the criminal side, just does as he was taught in kindergarten and hopes for the best.

      Since most people are not lawyers, it makes sense to assume the common meaning unless it is known to have been negotiated by lawyers on both sides.

  7. Something completely different... by bosef1 · · Score: 2

    The article doesn't explain why there is no prescriptive body for the English Language; something that would be equivalent to the Acdemie fancaise. Instead it discusses how English lacks a prescriptive basis, and how it becomes incumbent upon the speaker to match their use of the language their audience and purpose for speaking.

    1. Re:Something completely different... by Jane+Q.+Public · · Score: 2

      There is in a sense, but it is informal, not institutionalized.

      Elements of Style, by Strunk & White, is one of those informal "rule" books, in the same sense that Emily Post wrote a book that was (informally but very widely) considered to be the "bible" of American etiquette.

    2. Re:Something completely different... by gman003 · · Score: 2

      The lack of a prescriptive body for English is a historical accident, the same way the United Kingdom doesn't have a constitution, just a shitload of case law, treaties and statutes. For quite some time, Norman French was the language of government - naturally, the government did not try to regulate the grammar of a language they never spoke. After that, it was a populist thing - trying to formalize English would cause backlash at your supposed elitism. There was a brief window where a prescriptive body could have been formed, but soon enough there were too many far-flung colonies (and then former colonies) to do so effectively. Now you can't get a single prescriptive body at all, because the British will never bow to an American body, the Americans will never bow to a British body, and there's enough foreign speakers that they could arguably form their own prescriptive body and make it stick to everyone but the biggest two.

      It also fails to note how prescriptive bodies often fail when they try to dictate usage, instead of formalizing actual usage. The French Academy, for instance, insists that the proper word for email is "courrier electronique". Informally, most French just use "email" or "mel", and the Quebecois managed to standardize "courriel". It's a bit of a joke, really, how little authority the French Academy actually has to dictate French.

      Prescriptivism is fundamentally unworkable for languages in general use. The best prescriptive bodies do not dictate language, but formalize existing practices, and standardize where inconsistent. They may title themselves prescriptive bodies, and may sometimes try to dictate usage themselves (and usually fail), but at heart they are not prescriptivist.

    3. Re:Something completely different... by arth1 · · Score: 1

      Emily Post wrote a book that was (informally but very widely) considered to be the "bible" of American etiquette.

      That belongs with "civil war" and "irregular pattern" in a list of oxymorons.

      American etiquette is to smile and say "I'm fine", which is a euphemism for "none of your fucking business".

    4. Re:Something completely different... by trenien · · Score: 1
      Actually, in the case of email, what happened with French is a case-study of how a living language works:

      - A new thing appears (electronic mail), and through common shortening ends up being named email for English speakers.

      - Among many new users of internet are the French who start taking advantage of this new tool. Most of them not being pedant linguist, they don't particularly care about how they name it, they just need to use a word that's both meaningful and non-confusing. Hence, at the start, 'email' works fine.

      - Very quickly, again for the sake of simplicity, 'email' gets shortened into 'mail'. People understand what email is (and the word itself), but since the word 'mail' is English and in no way close to its French equivalent (courrier), there is no risk of confusion.

      - Enter the linguists invoking the need to stay within the parameters of French, and so to create a specific word that arises from French roots : 'courriel' (the exact counterpart to email : Electromic mail ; Courrier Electronique). That's something that worked in the past, and I actually think the word "ordinateur" (the thing that puts into and rearranges order) is actually a better description of what the machine is than the English 'computer'. However, contrary to what happened 20 years before, global communication interferes with the attempt, and the word 'courriel' has never really caught on (except in some official writings) in France. I don't know about Quebec.

      - A last ditch attempt has been made, following the idea that there are no diphtongues in French, the Academie has tried to make people write mail 'mel'. Of course, the reality is that, although it may be true of the official standard French (supposed to be that of the Versaille area), there many regional variations of accent where diphtongues do appear, and I hear as many 'mel' as I do 'mail' in everyday conversations (I won't bother with phonology symbols)

      - End of story, 'lo and behold, there is a new word in French, which describes something very specific (electronic mail), and that word is Mail. It may be a while yet before the final official spelling is accepted as such.

  8. Some pedants are more pedantic than others... by snowgirl · · Score: 2

    The grammatical rules invoked by pedants aren’t real rules of grammar at all. They are, at best, just stylistic conventions."

    Some of us pedants are aware of how non-grammar the "grammar" rules are, and actually champion wider usage!

    Double negatives are totally awesome, and there's no reason to think they're bad. Split infinitives are totally ok too, because the "to" is not actually part of the real English infinitive! And ending sentences with a preposition is exactly what every Germanic language has, dones and always will do. Because it's not a preposition, it's a component of a complex verb.

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    1. Re:Some pedants are more pedantic than others... by ChunderDownunder · · Score: 2

      And ending sentences with a preposition is exactly what every Germanic language has, dones and always will do.

      "This is the sort of bloody nonsense up with which I will not put." - Churchill.

    2. Re:Some pedants are more pedantic than others... by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      You will all my internets for the day.

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    3. Re:Some pedants are more pedantic than others... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 2, Insightful

      Well... the loss in grammar actually loses meaning too.

      In 'proper' English:
      If I were rich...
      and
      If I was rich....
      have different meanings. 'were' implies a hypothetical situation. 'was' implies it might have actually been true in the past.

      Common English uses 'was' for both situations.

    4. Re:Some pedants are more pedantic than others... by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      And in AAVE "he be workin'" and "he workin'" have very different verb moods.

      But everyone seems to insist that it's lazy English... so...

      And no "*If I was rich..." doesn't make any sense when you allow for use of subjunctives. It's a wrong mood verb stuck into a sentence. It's like saying "I were a good girl!" instead of "I was a good girl!"

      The use of "was" as in past tense and "was" as in the subjunctive are actually in mutually exclusive use. That's why English even bothered to lose the subjunctive in the first place.

      Note also, if you take the subjective, "I think that he were walking to the store" is the proper way to say it. Because "think that" means it's the opinion of the speaker, and thus not guaranteed fact, thus subjunctive usage. c.f. French subjunctive use.

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    5. Re:Some pedants are more pedantic than others... by snowgirl · · Score: 2

      "Fuck him, and the horse in on which he rode."

      You know, just because it's hilarious to correct this sort of thing in this thread... ;)

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    6. Re: Some pedants are more pedantic than others... by aruffino84 · · Score: 1

      I like the AC's version better. That would be the one for which I would vote.

    7. Re:Some pedants are more pedantic than others... by peppepz · · Score: 1

      The use of "was" as in past tense and "was" as in the subjunctive are actually in mutually exclusive use. That's why English even bothered to lose the subjunctive in the first place.

      Hello, English learner here, what about the case of a sentence that *was* true in the past (not "might have been true" as the GP suggests)?

      "If I was fooled, that's because I wasn't careful enough."

      "If I were fooled, I'd be sorry now."

    8. Re:Some pedants are more pedantic than others... by dcollins117 · · Score: 1

      Double negatives are totally awesome, and there's no reason to think they're bad.

      No one doesn't think double negatives are not unbad. No trouble won't occur unless you don't unthink what they don't mean to not say

    9. Re:Some pedants are more pedantic than others... by blue+trane · · Score: 1

      "I think that he were walking to the store"

      I've never heard or seen that usage in English; I think that's another blunder in the grandparent post.

      "I think that be another blunder"? Sounds off to me.

    10. Re:Some pedants are more pedantic than others... by bakes · · Score: 1

      Double negatives are totally awesome, and there's no reason to think they're bad.

      Yeah, right.

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    11. Re:Some pedants are more pedantic than others... by taylorius · · Score: 1

      When I was growing up in rural Dorset, lots of country people spoke this way.

    12. Re:Some pedants are more pedantic than others... by taylorius · · Score: 1

      When I was growing up In the South-West of England, people would speak in exactly that way.

      "Last week, when I were walking down Shap'ick, I seen old man Cherett buyin' a new tractor. He were a lovely tractor."

    13. Re:Some pedants are more pedantic than others... by Godwin+O'Hitler · · Score: 1

      The problem with the subjunctive in English is that although the mood clearly exists, only a very tiny number of verbs are capable of explicitly expressing it outside of the third person singular form. And since these days we don't use constructions like "I want that he come", even that form seldom gets used.

      To most English speakers, therefore, the subjunctive exists only in the subconscious. They aren't linguists and they have better things to do. In such a context, "If I were" will quite justifiably go the way of the dodo.

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    14. Re:Some pedants are more pedantic than others... by Godwin+O'Hitler · · Score: 1

      Plenty of languages routinely use double negatives as ways of reinforcing the negative. English should be able to adapt to this too, without ambiguity. And in fact it does.
      Find me a beleivable argument for interpreting "I ain't gonna work on Maggie's farm no more" as "I'm gonna keep on working on Maggie's farm".

      --
      No, your children are not the special ones. Nor are your pets.
    15. Re:Some pedants are more pedantic than others... by Godwin+O'Hitler · · Score: 1

      (blushes) uh... believable, not beleivable!

      --
      No, your children are not the special ones. Nor are your pets.
    16. Re:Some pedants are more pedantic than others... by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      Hello, English learner here, what about the case of a sentence that *was* true in the past (not "might have been true" as the GP suggests)?

      "When I was fooled, it was because I wasn't careful enough."

      There's a different word between "were" and "was" in the conditionals, and so humans want and desire to create a reason for why they are different. Sometimes, they're just two different ways of saying something.

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    17. Re:Some pedants are more pedantic than others... by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      I think I'd say this as "If I had been fooled, I'd be sorry now."

      AH YES! The past perfect form... the form that literally says "this happened, but is over now"

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    18. Re:Some pedants are more pedantic than others... by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      Indeed! And agreed!

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    19. Re:Some pedants are more pedantic than others... by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      It's called Negative Agreement.

      "I don't have any books" is ok, but "*I have any books" is wrong.

      "I didn't go anywhere" is ok, but "*I went anywhere" is wrong.

      Replacing "any" with "no" to form Negative Agreement doesn't actually change the state of the negation. It just changes the term used to construct Negative Agreement.

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    20. Re:Some pedants are more pedantic than others... by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      As per the sibling post, and quoting from a cousin post of mine:

      It's called Negative Agreement.

      "I don't have any books" is ok, but "*I have any books" is wrong.

      "I didn't go anywhere" is ok, but "*I went anywhere" is wrong.

      Replacing "any" with "no" to form Negative Agreement doesn't actually change the state of the negation. It just changes the term used to construct Negative Agreement.

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    21. Re:Some pedants are more pedantic than others... by mcswell · · Score: 1

      "And ending sentences with a preposition is exactly what every Germanic language has, dones and always will do. Because it's not a preposition, it's a component of a complex verb." Sometimes, but not always (at least not in English). For example, "What did you saw off the branch with __?" saw+off is a verb-particle combination, but the "with NP" is just a prepositional phrase.

    22. Re:Some pedants are more pedantic than others... by mcswell · · Score: 1

      I assume you're channeling the story about the professor who claimed in a lecture that there were languages that used double negatives to mean a negative (Spanish), and languages that used double negatives to mean a positive ("I have to do that--I can't not do it"), but no languages that used double positives to mean a negative. And the voice comes from the back of the room, "Yeah, right."

    23. Re:Some pedants are more pedantic than others... by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      Except that people don't actually interpret the sentences that way.

      You're bringing logic to a syntax fight... ;)

      If it is intended to actually double negate, then emphasis is used, "I said, I don't have NO books." This lifts the word up for consideration of special usage. And it is used this way in users of both positive and negative Negative Agreement... "I don't have any books. I don't have NO books." "I don't have no books. I don't have NO books."

      Otherwise, all negative words in a clause are just glomped all together. Which is why "I don't think, that he didn't do it." tends to still double negate, even without emphasis... Even people who use negative Negative Agreement, would likely say "I don't think he did it."

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  9. Talk Proppa, by mjwx · · Score: 1

    Rike wot th queen does.

    --
    Calling someone a "hater" only means you can not rationally rebut their argument.
  10. General Use by psy · · Score: 1

    I think there right!

    1. Re:General Use by mcswell · · Score: 1

      No, their write.

  11. Hard to disagree with TFA by Dutch+Gun · · Score: 1

    Given the copious amounts of written language-related pedantry found here (search for "begs/begging the question" and related discussion), this is a surprisingly relevant topic. I wonder if programmers and other tech types tend to get overly hung up on language rules because of their profession. When it comes to computer languages, after all, if you're not borderline pedantic, you're likely to write sloppy or buggy code.

    --
    Irony: Agile development has too much intertia to be abandoned now.
    1. Re:Hard to disagree with TFA by As_I_Please · · Score: 1

      It's not a programmer thing; just look at the comments to the Wall Street Journal article and you'll find the same complaints. I find that pedantry is mostly a class issue. The educated upper classes (and those who see themselves as such) use pedantry to place themselves above others they view as lower class and uneducated ("begging the question" being a perfect example). You will never hear complaints about Bostonians who don't pronounce "r" (*Pahk the cah in Hahvahd Yahd."); you will hear endless complaints about black people who say "ax" instead of "ask" (even though "ax" is actually the original pronunciation). The Boston accent is perceived as cosmopolitan and part of a historic American tradition. African-American vernacular is saddled with poverty and ghetto stereotypes by those outside the communities.

      By definition, "improper" English is how poor people speak.

      Here are a few words from a posh Brit on the matter.

    2. Re:Hard to disagree with TFA by Cro+Magnon · · Score: 2

      It's not a programmer thing; just look at the comments to the Wall Street Journal article and you'll find the same complaints. I find that pedantry is mostly a class issue. The educated upper classes (and those who see themselves as such) use pedantry to place themselves above others they view as lower class and uneducated ("begging the question" being a perfect example). You will never hear complaints about Bostonians who don't pronounce "r" (*Pahk the cah in Hahvahd Yahd."); you will hear endless complaints about black people who say "ax" instead of "ask" (even though "ax" is actually the original pronunciation). The Boston accent is perceived as cosmopolitan and part of a historic American tradition. African-American vernacular is saddled with poverty and ghetto stereotypes by those outside the communities.

      By definition, "improper" English is how poor people speak.

      Here are a few words from a posh Brit on the matter.

      That's not entirely true. Several of us where I work poked fun at a Bostonian coworker's references to his "cah".

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  12. Re:Stupid question by hcs_$reboot · · Score: 4, Funny

    Difference is the American English is taking over the British English. American culture is invading everywhere through movies and dramas, news etc... Why not just accept once and for all that English is, from now on, American English?

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  13. When you can't tell the difference... by shihonage · · Score: 1, Flamebait

    ... between "terror" and "terrible", "fuhrer" and "furor", "suffering" and "suffrage", you're ripe for being fooled and robbed by politicians at every step. And not just politicians. EULAs can use fancy words, knowing that average Joe is barely literate, and put them in various forms of electronic bondage. Credit card applications... you name it. Everything around you will take advantage of you.

    Having strong grasp of language is VITAL for a society's survival. This is axiomic. There shouldn't be articles about it. It's not a controversial issue, or rather, it only becomes one when average IQ dipped low enough to warrant creating excuses for not learning the language.

    1. Re:When you can't tell the difference... by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      EULAs can use fancy words, knowing that average Joe is barely literate, and put them in various forms of electronic bondage. Credit card applications... you name it.

      Actually, the reason why legal language is so complex is because it has to close loopholes that crazy pedantic intelligent people find.

      It's the idea of "you have to be smarter to debug a piece of code than to write it."

      This specifically comes to a head in that boilerplate contracts are automatically interpreted as opposing the interests of the drafter as the language allows.

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    2. Re:When you can't tell the difference... by shihonage · · Score: 1

      It's not just about the legal language. It's also about politicians who lie their asses off, openly, knowing the the public has long lost a sense of what the hell they're talking about. This is happening _now_.

      Language doesn't have to be "complex". It just has to have agreed-on standards and meanings. And I really shouldn't have to explain or defend this. At all. To anyone.

    3. Re:When you can't tell the difference... by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      Right, but I didn't SELL him the illegal property, I just CONVEYED it to him without monetary compensation.

      I'm read under the law, trust me, it's exactly what happens when you take "agreed-on standards and meanings" to the programmer level of pedantry.

      Again, if you write a boilerplate contract where the other party is only allowed to take it or leave it, not negotiate terms, then the courts will read everything against you if it allows to be read that way.

      If you were writing a contract, and knew that an ambiguity were going to be resolved against you, how would YOU write a contract?

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    4. Re:When you can't tell the difference... by shihonage · · Score: 1

      Did you even read the article? Did you even understand my larger point? Because your comments have branched out into a very specific tangenial subject, which I have no interest in talking about. In fact, there's nothing I can say on this except what's already been said. The article is rubbish. It is axiomic. There are some very good comments under the article itself which explain why it is rubbish.

    5. Re:When you can't tell the difference... by blue+trane · · Score: 1

      What the fuck is "axiomic"?

    6. Re:When you can't tell the difference... by arth1 · · Score: 1

      ... between "terror" and "terrible"

      Sloppy use over time is why terror and horror are near synonyms, but terrific and horrific are near antonyms.
      Not to mention how awfully doesn't signify that something is awful, or that awful doesn't mean full of awe anymore.

      The meaning of words change, and that is unavoidable. But it does cause ambiguity until the "final" meaning of a word has been established.

    7. Re:When you can't tell the difference... by volmtech · · Score: 1

      That kind of thinking runs in my family. My daughter has a PhD in English literature and my son writes and negotiates contracts for 500 billion dollar power systems. You have to make sure that everyone thinks the word you use means what you want it to mean.

    8. Re:When you can't tell the difference... by blue+trane · · Score: 1

      I did. I got links to company names: Axiom IC.

  14. Of course there's proper English by russotto · · Score: 4, Interesting

    However, it has nothing to do with purity. English is famously a language which mugs other languages for their vocabulary. But just because it is impure and inconsistent doesn't mean it doesn't exist.

    1. Re:Of course there's proper English by whistlingtony · · Score: 1

      Yeah. Nothing is verboten in English!

      Actually, the thing I love most about English is the ability to noun verbs, and to verb nouns. I LOVE that. It makes it so easy to convey ideas. When someone heads a ball, it's just obvious what has happened. :D I can google with Google, I can hammer with my hammer. I can boot someone out of my home! Ha! I love that!

    2. Re:Of course there's proper English by serviscope_minor · · Score: 1

      So you don't think that verbing weirds language?

      --
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    3. Re:Of course there's proper English by Viol8 · · Score: 1

      "is just code for racism and classism."

      Ah there we go , there's always some silly little liberal who has to chuck an "ism" into any argument. Do grow up sonny.

    4. Re:Of course there's proper English by shilly · · Score: 1

      "silly"?
      "little"?
      "sonny"?

      Condescension and ad hominem attacks really, honestly, truly, aren't substitutes for actual argument. They're just ways for you to masturbate without having to bother pulling your pants down.

      Controlling language has a long ugly history of being about race and class. Ask the Kurds (but do so in Turkish, or Erdogan will be mighty pissed off). Or ask the presenters with regional accents on the BBC, none of whom would have had a look in only twenty years ago.

    5. Re:Of course there's proper English by Viol8 · · Score: 1

      "Condescension and ad hominem attacks really, honestly, truly, aren't substitutes for actual argument."

      In most cases. But in yours I think an exception can be justified.

      "Or ask the presenters with regional accents on the BBC, none of whom would have had a look in only twenty years ago."

      Right, because everyone with a regional accent is t'working class. Or maybe they're all black?

      Idiot.

    6. Re:Of course there's proper English by shilly · · Score: 1

      Actually, not even in my case, no matter how morally superior you think you are.

      And yes, amazingly, regional accents are and always have been a pretty good proxy for class in the UK. Quite a famous play was once written about this very topic. You could spend some time away from Slashdot watching it. It might do you some good.

      https://www.youtube.com/watch?...

      Specifically, a strong regional accent has until very recently been taken by most British people as a sign that the speaker is not middle class. I grew up in Manchester. The softer your accent, the more posh you were considered. Same was true in Birmingham, Liverpool, Leeds, Sheffield, the West Country. Compare the Glasgow to Edinburgh accents, for another example.

      If you spent a little less time on ad hominems and attacking straw men, you might open up some space to actually learn something about the world. But then, learning's a scary thing.

    7. Re:Of course there's proper English by Viol8 · · Score: 1

      "If you spent a little less time on ad hominems and attacking straw men, you might open up some space to actually learn something about the world. But then, learning's a scary thing."

      When you've graduated then you can start telling me about learning about the world. In the meantime save your fuckwitted opinions for the student debating society.

    8. Re:Of course there's proper English by shilly · · Score: 1

      It's been twenty years since I was a student.

      You don't appear to get very much right, do you?

    9. Re:Of course there's proper English by Viol8 · · Score: 1

      Well apparently you've learned fuck all in those 20 years. Now run along and read The Guardian or Indie or whatever half witted left wing propaganda sheet floats your boat.

    10. Re:Of course there's proper English by shilly · · Score: 1

      What, am I supposed to be cowed now because the nasty man said mean things to me on the internet? You must have very little faith in your arguments, given that all you've been doing is trying (and failing) to insult me with some very hackneyed slurs. I mean, I understand -- your arguments, such as they are, have been really shit, so I'm not surprised you don't have faith in them. But genuinely: you'd be better off trying to learn from why your arguments have failed, than waste your time on yet more bluster. But as I intimated at the outset of this little back-and-forth, you do seem to prefer the tug of a good ol' fashioned ad hominem.

  15. Re:Stupid question by petes_PoV · · Score: 1

    the Brits have the final word on what is true and "proper" English

    The "traditional" view was that proper English is the grammar, pronunciation and maybe even the dialect used by BBC newsreaders. This doesn't really stand anymore, as there are many more regional (british english) dialects on national TV than were encouraged in the past.

    However I can see the confusion as the word for "American" in the american language is "English". That is the language that most of the world learns as english, not "british" english.

    --
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  16. Really? Because by jpellino · · Score: 3, Funny

    unloyal dahlia cloud blacklegged gwyniad timorously. Denoting cobb browser emulsifier kearney underthroating flowage drysdale. Outsprue antipolitics handwrought palatable phosphatized preliberated fico overheadiness. Or maybe not.

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  17. In other news... by Thomasje · · Score: 1

    Latin turned into Italian (and Spanish and French etc.), modern English grew out of Old English which is incomprehensible to everyone except linguists today, and yes, even modern English will be a dead language someday. Languages drift, film at 11.

    1. Re:In other news... by BitterOak · · Score: 2

      modern English grew out of Old English

      Actually it grew out of a combination of Old English and Medieval French.

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    2. Re:In other news... by mjwx · · Score: 1

      Latin turned into Italian (and Spanish and French etc.), modern English grew out of Old English which is incomprehensible to everyone except linguists today, and yes, even modern English will be a dead language someday. Languages drift, film at 11.

      English was derived from proto-Germanic languages from the Anglo-Saxons that colonised Britain, displacing Roman and Celtic languages. It was combined with Latin languages (notably French) later on.

      So English is a language with both Latin and Germanic roots.

      --
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    3. Re:In other news... by Goragoth · · Score: 1

      While historically language has changed a lot over time and it may well do so in the future I wouldn't necessarily bet on it. Never before in human history has there been this level of global communication or this level of permanent record of communications (including audiovisual records). While small changes are a given (new words and expressions enter common parlance all the time), a wholesale shift in language may (or may not) be prevented by future generations continuing to read, watch, and listen to media produced over the last century.

    4. Re:In other news... by Carewolf · · Score: 1

      modern English grew out of Old English

      Actually it grew out of a combination of Old English and Medieval French.

      With a lot Old Norse/Danish words and gramatic simplifications thrown in just to spice it up a bit.

    5. Re:In other news... by Swampash · · Score: 1

      Actually it grew out of a combination of Old English and Medieval French.

      You can put lipstick on a pig, as the saying goes, but it's still a pig. English acquired lots of pretty mediaeval French loan words but underneath the lipstick it's still a Germanic pig.

  18. "My bad" by Tablizer · · Score: 2

    One manager was really bothered by "my bad", which used to be "my mistake". He called it "gang slang". "My bad" has slipped into common usage it seems to me. I'll avoid it around him, but he came across as a fuddy-duddy. He should be thankful people admit their mistakes, something uncommon around here.

    1. Re:"My bad" by wonkey_monkey · · Score: 1

      He called it "gang slang".

      Can't you tell Joss Whedon grew up on the wrong side of the tracks?

      --
      systemd is Roko's Basilisk.
    2. Re:"My bad" by jafiwam · · Score: 1

      One manager was really bothered by "my bad", which used to be "my mistake". He called it "gang slang". "My bad" has slipped into common usage it seems to me. I'll avoid it around him, but he came across as a fuddy-duddy. He should be thankful people admit their mistakes, something uncommon around here.

      "My bad" just doesn't mean "My mistake."

      It means, "there was a mistake, and I expect to not deal with the consequences of that mistake"

      It's outright dismissal of someone saying there needs to be a fix.

      I am not at all surprised that the guy at your workplace doesn't like it. It's a sign his employees are not doing what they should be doing.

    3. Re:"My bad" by nealric · · Score: 1

      I've never understood "my bad" to disclaim responsibility. It's always been synonymous with "my mistake" in my experience.

  19. Re:So, communication is overated? by hcs_$reboot · · Score: 1

    I heard that in 1761, already.

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  20. Nice Try Soulskill by Greyfox · · Score: 2

    There may not be such a thing as proper English, but yours is still bad!

    --

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  21. If that were true ... by wisnoskij · · Score: 1

    your and you're would be synonyms by now. That is problem with such an absolute. Yes languages change natural with use because much of what makes up a language is arbitrary. But much also is not arbitrary, it is a certain way because otherwise it would be impossible to communicate effectively. It does not matter how many millions of people regularly confuse your for you're it will never become correct because it is necessary for the language to have those words remain distinct.

    --
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    1. Re:If that were true ... by shilly · · Score: 1

      Why is it necessary for your and you're to be distinct? We don't need them to be distinct in oral English; that's how the confusion arises in the first place. In oral English, we determine which is intended by context. We could do the same with written English, too.

      We may prefer not to, but it's hardly a need.

  22. Can we still agree that by DeanCubed · · Score: 4, Insightful

    people shouldn't say "For all intensive purposes" or "should/could/would of"?

    --
    Born to Play
    1. Re:Can we still agree that by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      This is a matter of orthography, not grammar.

      Orthography has good rules to follow, tighter than grammatical objections. But at the same time, the spelling of "principle" vs "principal" is entirely arbitrary, and the assignment of denotation is entirely arbitrary. And thus there is no good "rule" between them, except convention.

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  23. Stahr Wors by Tablizer · · Score: 1

    That's unpossible.

    Luuk, eye em yur Fother!

    (Hey, it's another galaxy, diff rules there)

    1. Re:Stahr Wors by vivian · · Score: 1

      Ironically, I am pretty sure that's how Darth sounded before James Earl Jones did the voice-over

  24. It's alive ! by swell · · Score: 1

    Yes it's a frightening fact, our language is alive and if we blink we will be left behind. But it's a wonderful thing to see when our eyes are open. English is by far the biggest language and, lamentably, the most difficult for others to learn but that is exactly the reason to learn it. Many concepts in science, technology, engineering, obscenities, medicine etc cannot be adequately expressed in other languages.

    English has always stolen from other languages (and the other way too) and it has always been a hodge podge of them all. Even mighty Shakespere took liberties, among them spelling his own name in a variety of ways.

    The British Empire and later Hollywood and the internet age have reinforced English as the language of business and entertainment. While language diversity is an interesting thing, and many are struggling to preserve it, English is what you need for most activities.

    And how do you pin English down? It's like nailing jelly to the wall- we have many languages loosely referred to as English: Liverpool, Edinburgh, Dallas, Boston, Sydney, N'arleans, Johannesburg, Mumbai, Hong Kong, (sorry, there is no Canadian city with an interesting variation) ... We are a family of languages that are sometimes intelligible to each other.

    No doubt there are some topics best explored in other languages- music, art, religion, anthropology perhaps. But for modern living we got it goin' on!

    --
    ...omphaloskepsis often...
    1. Re:It's alive ! by David_Hart · · Score: 1

      And how do you pin English down? It's like nailing jelly to the wall- we have many languages loosely referred to as English: Liverpool, Edinburgh, Dallas, Boston, Sydney, N'arleans, Johannesburg, Mumbai, Hong Kong, (sorry, there is no Canadian city with an interesting variation) ... We are a family of languages that are sometimes intelligible to each other.

      No doubt there are some topics best explored in other languages- music, art, religion, anthropology perhaps. But for modern living we got it goin' on!

      Actually, I'm guessing that you haven't traveled to much of Canada. Newfoundland, Cape Breton, and northern New Brunswick all have their own version of English. Though, northern New Brunswick is largely French with a smattering of English words thrown into everyday speech.

    2. Re:It's alive ! by ArcadeMan · · Score: 1

      Though, northern New Brunswick is largely French with a smattering of English words thrown into everyday speech.

      So is French in Québec.

  25. Re: A Language With No Rules... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Interesting

    There are rules. They are just changing.

    Language is a tool for communication. As long as it's understood, it doesn't matter the grammar. English, as the defacto world language, is changing really rapidly durbto the influx of second language learners. Too lazy to look up the article now, but I once read an article about how Ebglish be so much more simplified in 100 years. Things like "he run", "I have drove ", and so on will be essentially standards becquse they are used frequently by ESL learners.

  26. Re:Stupid question by Jane+Q.+Public · · Score: 1

    However I can see the confusion as the word for "American" in the american language is "English". That is the language that most of the world learns as english, not "british" english.

    It has long been accepted that American English and British English are 2 decidedly different variants of the same language. But they ARE different enough that there is "proper" American English, and "proper" British English, and they are NOT the same things.

    There are a number of elements of British English that would get an American student marked wrong on an English exam, and vice versa.

  27. Re:A Language With No Rules... by rubycodez · · Score: 1, Insightful

    All languages have changing rules

  28. Sort of. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

    Proper English can be seen as the documented agreed upon style. "Safe" is an adjective, and not an adverb, in the agreed styles. Therefore "Drive Safe" is improper English, because everyone agrees that "safe" is not an adjective, and you need to say "Drive Safely" because "safely" is an adverb, and everyone agrees on that too. /shrug

  29. The whole premise is an excuse for illiteracy by msobkow · · Score: 5, Insightful

    The whole premise of the article is a pandering to the youth with an excuse for their illiterate and malformed excuses for use of the language. As per usual, "you don't get it, grandpa" is presented as a valid excuse for a lack of education and for football players in university who can't write a simple one page essay that can even garner a 50% grade.

    --
    I do not fail; I succeed at finding out what does not work.
    1. Re:The whole premise is an excuse for illiteracy by Zontar+The+Mindless · · Score: 1

      ^^^ This.

      "*I* know what I meant; it's up to you to figure it out," is a horribly inefficient way to communicate, as well as lazy, selfish, and immature.

      --
      Il n'y a pas de Planet B.
    2. Re:The whole premise is an excuse for illiteracy by physicsdot · · Score: 2

      Actually, when taken as a mass, the youth today are more literate than any generation previously, by a *massive* factor. Before social media, most people after high school wrote little more than shopping lists, and *perhaps* the odd card. Compare that today with the massive amount of writing teens do every day. In terms of basic literacy skills, there is no comparison between past and present.

    3. Re:The whole premise is an excuse for illiteracy by physicsdot · · Score: 1

      ...a horribly inefficient way to communicate...

      I'm sure that you communicate efficiently all the time - I bet you even use "yous" - because you know, it's clearer, more efficient and logical. You can not like someone's language, but don't pretend an objective measure like "efficiency" is what it's all about.

    4. Re:The whole premise is an excuse for illiteracy by wonkey_monkey · · Score: 1

      "*I* know what I meant; it's up to you to figure it out," is a horribly inefficient way to communicate

      Yes...

      ^^^ This.

      What's with the symbols? And "this" what?

      --
      systemd is Roko's Basilisk.
    5. Re:The whole premise is an excuse for illiteracy by serviscope_minor · · Score: 1

      If you want to get good at something, a strong formal education is only ever supplement to doing that thing an awful, awful lot.

      --
      SJW n. One who posts facts.
    6. Re:The whole premise is an excuse for illiteracy by shilly · · Score: 1

      Why is it that *every single* person who has complained along these lines has made a horrible English mistake in their sentence of complaint. Here, the entire first sentence is virtually gibberish.

      1. Pandering is a gerund, not a noun. "A pandering" is just...awful.
      2. "The youth" is equally shoddy. This ought to be "the young" or "young people" with no definite article.
      3. "Excuse for their ... excuses". Excuse me! This is just sloppy sloppy writing. It actually affects the content, too, because I can't imagine that the author really intended to state that the article was only an excuse for the excuses of the young, as opposed to being an excuse for the language usage of the young", yet that is what they have written.

      If you claim to give a shit about clear and correct writing, then take the time to get it write yourself. I make no such claim, but you do.

    7. Re:The whole premise is an excuse for illiteracy by shilly · · Score: 1

      No-one seems to have bitten on any specific egregious baity errors, intentional or no -- including you, assertions with no specifics notwithstanding.

      But any errors are there because I genuinely don't give a shit. I don't aim for 100% or anything close to it; just good enough to be understood by most readers.

    8. Re:The whole premise is an excuse for illiteracy by msobkow · · Score: 1

      1. It's called a "typo." Can you say "typo?" I knew you could. Go treat yourself to a cookie.

      2. "Shoddy" is not a grammatical structure.

      3. Your point being exactly what?

      Your whole "argument" is just to claim some superiority, when I never claimed to use "perfect" English in the first place. In fact, your bitching is about what most people would call "style", which is how one makes the language expressive instead of dryly pedantic.

      But I guess all you ever read is factual textbooks, not recreational prose.

      --
      I do not fail; I succeed at finding out what does not work.
    9. Re:The whole premise is an excuse for illiteracy by shilly · · Score: 1

      1. Removing the indefinite article does not improve the syntax of the sentence.
      2. I didn't claim it was a grammatical structure. But it's certainly shoddy English.
      3. My point being that you made your own sentence virtually unintelligible through your abuse of English, while complaining that other people don't stick to the rules. That makes you appear stupid and hypocritical.

      None of these mistakes give you the vivid style of a Heinlein, a Bellow or a Mantel. They are not stylish. They are just mistakes. Pretending otherwise is the equivalent of the kitten hiding his head behind a sofa, unaware that his ass is sticking out the other side (there's an nice vivid metaphor for you, courtesy of the incomparable RAH).

      As for your guess as to what I enjoy reading...it's exciting, but indicative of your wish to see the world as you would like it to be, rather than as it actually is. I read fiction and fact with equal gusto. Sometimes the latter can be more expressive than the latter. Who'da thunk it?

      I do love the overall premise that your mistakes are lovely special stylistic motifs but other people's mistakes are indications of their idiocy. The ego is a mighty thing to behold. Or as Heinlein also put it (gosh, he was expressive, wasn't he?): Man is not a rational animal, he is a rationalizing animal.

    10. Re:The whole premise is an excuse for illiteracy by jez9999 · · Score: 1

      your totally right. todays youth are much more literate then theyre ancestors. and make less mistakes with grammer punctuation spelling ect...

  30. Re:The obvious example of language evolution by The+Rizz · · Score: 2

    Yipppppppeeeeeee!!!!! is now official English!

    Yippppeeeeeee!!!!!!

    You misspelled it the second time.

  31. nonsensical by argStyopa · · Score: 4, Insightful

    Yes, a language is a dynamic thing. The rules are constantly changing, and what was 'unacceptable' to purists is okay for casual use, and what was casual use only ten years ago might be perfectly acceptable even in rigorous settings today.

    Further, English is a very agglomerative language; it's turned out to be astonishingly tolerant of loan words, adoptions, etc from other languages freely. Thus, at least in American English particularly, there's a tolerance (largely, I suspect, due to our immigrant past) for odd phrasings, word orders, or odd usage that eventually may become common parlance.

    NEVERTHELESS, as much as it's getting down into the weeds of linguistic OCD to insist (or not) on the Oxford comma, or avoiding prepositional endings, or on specific adjectival orders (there's a rabbit hole if you want to see grammarians duking it out), that doesn't mean that there aren't rules of usage that are common for understanding, or that "there are no real rules at all" as this article seems to claim.

    Yes, it's very intellectual to assert there are no rules, but a normal person recognized that's stupid: of COURSE there are rules. Are they regularly ignored? Sure. Should they be? It depends on context; if you're talking with your friends "u" is probably a perfectly acceptable replacement for "you". If you're writing a business letter, it will simply make you look like a moron.

    If someone points it out to you, Insisting with sophomoric sincerity that "well there really are no rules in English anyway" will simply certify their opinion.

    --
    -Styopa
    1. Re:nonsensical by Phil+Urich · · Score: 1
      Indeed, there may be no such thing as proper English, but that doesn't mean all shifts or variations are equal; increased ambiguity can be a practical problem.

      Addendum: I tried to post this comment, but Slashdot mobile appeared to eat it. So I forced the classic site with a "request desktop" switch up, logged back in, found the comment I meant to reply to, and tried reposting. Now it's saying that my exact comment has already been posted, but I don't see it, so one way or another Slashdot is screwing up. Hey /., F U.

      --
      I remember sigs. Oh, a simpler time!
    2. Re:nonsensical by supercrisp · · Score: 1

      "Nonsensical" seems a bit strong. The article describes language's real "rules" as conventional, coming from usage, and labels more pedantic approaches to rules as stylistics. That seems to me to be pretty accurate. The description doesn't approach registers of speech, and we do need to consider those. But there are lots of "grammar rules" that are really just elements of style best ignored and which are often misused. Some examples: don't end a sentence with a preposition, don't split an infinitive, "passive voice." That last one is a hoot because most of the people who complain about its use can't define it accurately and fail to recognize that it is often valuable. It's also a good example of how there are better ways to approach this sort of thing than applying these particular rules. People commonly attack the "passive voice" because it confuses the actor. So it's much better to talk to people about making agency clear in a sentence, or about why one might be trying to obscure agency. Anyway, that's all my two cents. (I am an English professor, and I've taught for almost 25 years, but I am not a linguist nor a composition expert. So, I'm offering an informed but not quite expert opinion.)

  32. The WSJ really went to shit. by jcr · · Score: 2

    I blame Murdoch.

    -jcr

    --
    The only title of honor that a tyrant can grant is "Enemy of the State."
  33. Understanding rules looser than style guide rules by tepples · · Score: 5, Insightful

    The rules sufficient for successful understanding are looser than the rules prescribed by style guides. Still, following the rules in a major style guide will help you stay well within the rules for understanding.

  34. We don't have an "English Academy".... by MtViewGuy · · Score: 1

    ....defining English spelling and grammar like the famous "Académie française" in France or the "Office québécois de la langue française" in Canada does for the French language. As such, the English language has changed at an enormous pace, and people would be amazed that the average English spoken in the USA circa 1900 can be quite different than the English spoken in the USA in 2015.

    1. Re:We don't have an "English Academy".... by Misagon · · Score: 1

      I would say that "The Queen's English" is the reference.

      French was the language of the French king and the region in which he lived, not of all of his subjects within France. There were many widely differing dialects all over France when the king formed the French Academy.

      --
      "We mustn't be caught by surprise by our own advancing technology" -- Aldous Huxley
    2. Re:We don't have an "English Academy".... by wonkey_monkey · · Score: 1

      I would say that "The Queen's English" is the reference.

      So we have to run everything past the Queen? She's an old lady!

      Point being, there is no "Queen's English" to refer to, unless you're invited to Buckingham Palace for a game of Scrabble or to watch Countdown (Her Maj is a fan of both, though presumably not of the 8 Out Of 10 Cats version of Countdown).

      --
      systemd is Roko's Basilisk.
  35. Comment under the article nails it. by shihonage · · Score: 2

    "This reads like a liberal's didactic epistle to instruct the hidebound linguists that the lazy, ignorant and uneducated are their equals, particularly the minority youth and valley girls who might invent or redefine words to describe something because they "zoned out" during that learning opportunity in school. We mustn't judge."

    As for my own words... the article purposely mixes the subject of language evolution (which is understandable) and just abandoning all the rules altogether. It is something straight out of the film "Idiocracy", and the more people stupidly embrace the notions of this article, the scarier our current reality is.

  36. Common ground. by westlake · · Score: 4, Insightful

    Whatever is in general use in a language (not any use, but general use) is for that reason grammatically correct. The grammatical rules invoked by pedants aren't real rules of grammar at all. They are, at best, just stylistic conventions.

    These conventions are what make communication possible between the old and the young, the past and the present. The speeches of Lincoln, FDR, Martin Luther King resonate to this day, without translation.

    1. Re:Common ground. by gronofer · · Score: 1

      It would be nice if the conventions were somewhat stronger. Miscommunication happens all the time just because people use langauge differently, such as words that have more than one meaning or which are used differently in different places. Human languages manage to be simultaneously overcomplex and ambiguous.

    2. Re:Common ground. by blue+trane · · Score: 1

      But the internet provides definitions for slang so anyone can look it up.

      As for compulsory formal rules, what about Bush? "grow the pie higher", etc.

    3. Re:Common ground. by blue+trane · · Score: 1

      But ambiguity is a strength. It helps creativity. Jokes are funny because words and phrases can mean different things. When you try to ban ambiguity you lose expressivity. And formal languages can't get rid of ambiguity: math symbols are often used without fully defining them, leading to you having to read the writer's mind to get what he's trying to communicate.

    4. Re:Common ground. by Your.Master · · Score: 1

      And that is through the principles capitols off the English's peeking world.

      I'm afraid this part doesn't support your point. I understand "the English's peeking world" is "the English speaking world" but I don't at all understand "through the principles capitols off".

    5. Re:Common ground. by shilly · · Score: 1

      You really do not understand the nature of the OED, if you think it is the definitive source for the language. The OED is a record of known usages of English words. It is decidedly descriptive and not prescriptive.

      Sheesh, people! Can we please start seeing the world as it is, rather than as we would like it to be??

    6. Re:Common ground. by sjbe · · Score: 1

      The speeches of Lincoln, FDR, Martin Luther King resonate to this day, without translation.

      Wow, we can understand what someone said 50 years ago. Amazing. [/sarcasm]

      Wait 1000 years and lets see how easy those speeches are to understand. Languages evolve but not usually quite that fast.

    7. Re:Common ground. by pipingguy · · Score: 1

      Four score and twenty hogsheads ago...

  37. Descriptivism vs. Prescriptivism by Anubis+IV · · Score: 1

    So, basically, "proper English" doesn't exist because $standard_descriptivist_summary. All the prescriptivists are wrong.

    I don't understand the value in publishing an article that presents the topic as it does. It's a standard descriptivist argument being presented by someone who—at least from the summary—seems to be blissfully unaware that they were not the first person to think of it and is under the misconception that simply presenting the idea will convince all of us of its merit. Never mind that prescriptivists and descriptivists have been arguing about language since before any of us were born. What next? Are they going to tell us to stop quibbling over what's right or wrong because relativism is a thing? Perhaps suggest everyone convert to Judaism as a means for achieving peace in the Middle East? Tell us that because OS X exists, malware isn't a problem? Toss in a postscript with a pick for vi while they're at it, just to rankle some more people for fun?

    It's a waste of everyone's time to suggest that a matter is closed just because someone can trot out the standard lines espoused by one side.

    1. Re:Descriptivism vs. Prescriptivism by blue+trane · · Score: 1

      Are there any prescriptivists left? How does prescriptivism help Google make a better search engine? Should it refuse to do a search for you, if you violate a "proper English" rule? What if the site you're looking for uses improper English, should it eliminate that site from your results?

  38. English is alive. by Ibhuk · · Score: 1

    This article is something I've talked to people about before. There isn't really a good definition of what is English. We have conventions, but they change over time. This is because English is alive. As soon as a language is written down in immutable rules, it dies. Language needs to be able to evolve with the society that uses it.

  39. Re: Understanding rules looser than style guide ru by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 2, Informative

    It will also help you succeed in society.

    While everyday English may become less and less formal, you will still need to know formal English to succeed in academia and the workplace. While more people may speak ebonics or write textspeak or whatever and not be stagmatized so much by their peers or even society as a whole, these people will never get a job speaking or writing like that. Teaching formal English is more important than ever.

  40. Re:Stupid question by peppepz · · Score: 3, Interesting

    That is the language that most of the world learns as english, not "british" english.

    Actually, in Europe (at least where I live) we do study British English in schools. But then people learn American English because of America's cultural supremacy.

  41. Yes and No by Art3x · · Score: 1

    I agree and disagree with the writer of the article.

    On the one hand, there are a lot of silly rules floating around. The reason you shouldn't end a sentence with a preposition is because Latin doesn't. In fact Latin can't. The same goes for why you shouldn't split an infinitive. The infamous double negative used to be accepted English centuries ago, just as it still is acceptable in Spanish, French, and many other languages. I've come to think of it as a parity bit. Since one simple word flips around the meaning of the whole sentence, it's better to put it in twice.

    But on the other hand, one of my favorite books is The Elements of Style. To its credit, it doesn't mess with chiding writers over ending a sentence with a preposition. It doesn't even advertise itself as a standard-bearer of "proper" English. It is mainly a collection of common-sense tips for improving your craft. It's most famous advice is "too omit needless words." It goes on to show you how to write clearly, rather than wishy washy. In short, how to serve the reader, and help him understand the information while wasting his time as much as possible.

    1. Re:Yes and No by wonkey_monkey · · Score: 1

      It's most famous advice is "too omit needless words."

      Time for another read.

      --
      systemd is Roko's Basilisk.
  42. The only pure English is the language of Beowolf by TarPitt · · Score: 4, Interesting

    Before a bunch of French speaking Vikings invaded in 1066, before Nordic speaking Vikings degraded the language.

    Ða wæs on uhtan mid ærdæge
    Grendles guðcræft gumum undyrne;
    a wæs æfter wiste wop up ahafen,
    micel morgensweg. Mære eoden,
    æeling ærgod, unbliðe sæt,
    olode ðryðswyð egnsorge dreah,
    syðan hie æs laðan last sceawedon,
    wergan gastes; wæs æt gewin to strang,
    lað ond longsum!

    THAT is proper English!

    --
    If your children ever found out how lame you are, they'd murder you in your sleep
  43. Re:Stupid question by thegarbz · · Score: 3, Informative

    Comparing French to English is completely nonsensical. The former has a department regulating the development of language and purity laws that preserve the language and its use. The latter is an all out clusterfuck where the abbreviations LOL, and WTF end up in the Oxford English dictionary simply because they are in "common use".

    So if the primary dictionaries are based on common use, what then determines proper use?

  44. Co'on by hcs_$reboot · · Score: 1

    Just try to listen to a 200 years old English recording, you wouldn't understand it. Languages evolve, and in a few 10's of years no American will understand the current British English.

    --
    Slashdot, fix the reply notifications... You won't get away with it...
    1. Re:Co'on by mjwx · · Score: 2

      Just try to listen to a 200 years old English recording, you wouldn't understand it. Languages evolve, and in a few 10's of years no American will understand the current British English.

      10 years... They already have to subtitle most English accents on TV... And I mean a Londoner, not someone from Blackpool or Yorkshire.

      --
      Calling someone a "hater" only means you can not rationally rebut their argument.
    2. Re:Co'on by Antique+Geekmeister · · Score: 1

      > Just try to listen to a 200 years old English recording

      Name one, such recording, please. The oldest vocal recording I've heard was the Volta recording on an Edision audiograph: the first reliably known audio recordings are from the 1850's.

    3. Re:Co'on by hcs_$reboot · · Score: 1

      Sorry, forgot to mention: use a time machine.

      --
      Slashdot, fix the reply notifications... You won't get away with it...
    4. Re:Co'on by serviscope_minor · · Score: 1

      Just try to listen to a 200 years old English recording, you wouldn't understand it.

      I'll let you know when I find a 200 year old recording to listen to! It's barely 150 years old!

      On the other hand, plenty of books were written 200 years ago which are perfectly easy to understand. In fact, 200 years ago this year, Jane Austen wrote "Emma", which seems to be the most famous of the books written in 1815.

      It is perfectly intelligible. In some cases, the choice of adjectives perhaps would sound a little old fashioned if you used them exclusively in modern speech, and the conversations read a little more formally than people tend to speak now. But then again if you read a modern historical novel about the comings and goings in 1815, having modern style speech would read weirdly.

      But that's about it. There are no unfamiliar words or constructions. There is absoloutely nothing tricky in there for a modern speaker of the language.

      --
      SJW n. One who posts facts.
    5. Re:Co'on by Cro+Magnon · · Score: 1

      If that's true, how the hell are people in America going to communicate with the rest of the world who speak English?

      What I mean is, while Germans and Chinese are communicating effectively in English, because their brains can parse accents and different grammatical patterns, if an American can't even understand what a Londoner is saying, how do they have any hope to communicate with anyone other than an American? They'll have to start teaching "Understanding Global English" as a foreign language class.

      Based on some TV from the other side of the ocean, learning German might be easier than understanding British!

      --
      Slow down, cowboy! It has been 4 hours since you last posted. You must wait another few hours.
    6. Re:Co'on by nealric · · Score: 1

      I would add that even Shakespeare is intelligible to a modern audience. It can be a bit hard to read as literature, but when performed live, subtitles are seldom required. Obsolete words and constructions are sufficiently rare as as to be easily discerned from context if you are watching the action. You have to go back another 100 years to get to the point that written text requires translation for modern audiences. Even much of the Canterbury Tales can be understood by a modern speaker without translation (with considerable difficulty). You have to go back to the time of Beowulf for English to be completely unintelligible to a modern speaker.

  45. Re:Really? Because by John+Bokma · · Score: 1

    correct horse battery staple

  46. Re:A Language With No Rules... by Darinbob · · Score: 2

    If there were rules set fast in stone 500 years ago, then every single one of us who speaks English would be breaking most of them. Even if rules were carved out 100 years ago most of us including English professors would be breaking them. It's like trying to follow a map when old roads vanish and new ones are being built.

  47. nb by shentino · · Score: 1

    Proper english is whatever the people in charge say it is.

  48. Re:A Language With No Rules... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 2, Funny

    All languages have changing rules

    What about PDP11 Assembly Language?

  49. Re:A Language With No Rules... by Stormwatch · · Score: 1

    A dead language, no?

  50. Am I the only one who's noticed? by hyades1 · · Score: 3, Funny

    Funny how often these articles come from the country that brought "sox", "labor", "dialog" and "liter" to the English-speaking world. ;-)

    --
    I've calculated my velocity with such exquisite precision that I have no idea where I am.
    1. Re:Am I the only one who's noticed? by shilly · · Score: 1

      Except that the author is Oliver Kamm, who's as British as they come. His mum translated the Asterix books, for God's sake! And in doing so, created some of the most elegant, witty and precise translations ever achieved, such as the immortal "We've been framed, by Jericho".

      Thank you Anthea Bell! And Derek Hockridge, too, of course.

  51. Whole Quote by Roger+W+Moore · · Score: 1

    Actually the entire quote is:

    ""The problem with defending the purity of the English language is that English is about as pure as a cribhouse whore. We don’t just borrow words; on occasion, English has pursued other languages down alleyways to beat them unconscious and rifle their pockets for new vocabulary." --James D. Nicoll"

  52. Yet Another Vanity License by epine · · Score: 1

    There are a number of elements of British English that would get an American student marked wrong on an English exam, and vice versa.

    This is because half the point of higher education is to master pedantry. There's a huge overlap in the cognitive equipment required to perform careful scholarship and lint-picking misplaced letters and words.

    Students aren't actually marked "wrong" on their tests, despite the convention to speak about it this way. Their answers are marked "acceptable" and "unacceptable".

    In an undergraduate course in computer science on an assignment devoted to algorithmic efficiency, I had a program that ran two orders of magnitude faster than the class median marked 6/10 because I didn't write my program in the mandated coding style with the mandated level of inane comments (requirements which I rejected then, and have continued to reject ever since). The professor liked Pascal and hated C. My coding style was closer to K&R and P. J. Plauger than Wirth.

    Jon Postel

    Be liberal in what you accept, and conservative in what you send.

    In order to be maximally conservative, one must strive for some degree of consistency. There's no way to do this without adopting some kind of norm.

    There's a reason why some editors strongly prefer the Oxford comma. If you don't use it (I tend not to), there are situations where you can end up with your sentence not saying what you intended it to say.

    Among those interviewed were his two ex-wives, Kris Kristofferson and Robert Duvall.

    In the worst case, you can end up embroiled in a libel lawsuit. Many of the stylistic codifications accused of pedantry are similarly battle tested.

    The additional social process that sometimes takes this too far is that you get a team of editors working on manuscripts from multiple authors. If every author has a different style guide, or the editors don't have a consistent reference, the group effort to achieve a consistent manuscript quickly degenerates.

    Unfortunately, this often gets taken to the extreme limit, until you have obscure rulings on the picayune whose utility is obscured in the mists of time.

    I learned to touch type on a manual typewriter, inserting two spaces after the sentence final punctuation mark. In the younger generation, this is portrayed as a fuddy-duddy convention. Do they even know that an advanced typesetting system sets the inter-sentence gap differently than the inter-word gap when they make this declaration?

    I continue to use the double space convention when typing because it makes it easier to proof-read what I've written. My eyes are used to the double space to help me quickly navigate my sentence boundaries. And the extra space is pretty much effortless to type.

    Going to the extreme of portraying the established conventions as nothing more than a bunch of "he said / she said" is complete bullshit. It's difficult to come up with a set of conventions that maximizes the conservatism (in the Postel sense) of a written text. What's the logic for coming up with your own? It's not so different than coming up with your own software license. There's a significant likelihood that what you come up with isn't legally solid, and there's a considerable burden imposed on everyone else to navigate Yet Another Vanity License. Why don't you also roll your own encryption method? It could work.

    For me where it goes to far is when the standard authorities (e.g. Chicago Manual of Style) seem to forget that language standards are living standards. The underlying technology changes and the publishing demands also change. What was justifiable thirty years ago is perhaps irrelevant today.

    I personally can't stand folding punctuation marks under an end-quotation mark. As far as I'm concern

    1. Re:Yet Another Vanity License by Jane+Q.+Public · · Score: 1

      Students aren't actually marked "wrong" on their tests, despite the convention to speak about it this way. Their answers are marked "acceptable" and "unacceptable".

      You sure as hell don't live in the same world I do.

      In an undergraduate course in computer science on an assignment devoted to algorithmic efficiency, I had a program that ran two orders of magnitude faster than the class median marked 6/10 because I didn't write my program in the mandated coding style with the mandated level of inane comments (requirements which I rejected then, and have continued to reject ever since). The professor liked Pascal and hated C. My coding style was closer to K&R and P. J. Plauger than Wirth.

      I had a very similar thing happen to me as well. However, it's completely irrelevant to the subject at hand.

  53. Re:Really? Because by porges · · Score: 1

    Goddammit, I read your comment out loud and Siri recognized my bank password and withdrew all my money. You're in big trouble now, bub.

  54. Your usage categorizes you by SlithyMagister · · Score: 1

    As an earlier poster so ably illustrated, if you talk like a gangsta, you will be thought of as one.

    Similarly, if you talk like an uneducated idiot, people will assume you are one.

    While I quite agree that the English language is -- and should be -- a dynamic language that grows and develops, it has backwaters and dead ends.

    Newspapers -- and I assume that this includes the Wall Street Journal -- have a style manual that *is* rigidly followed, so there is nothing inherently wrong with rules -- at the very least they provide consistency. By teaching the rules of grammar to schoolchildren, they will at least have a chance of sounding like they know what they are talking about.
    Inasmuch as a person has a choice they will choose the language style of the group that they identify with, regardless of how stupid they sound to everyone not of that particular group.

    Peace

  55. The nice features of English as a world language by staalmannen · · Score: 1

    As a non-native speaker using English daily with other non-native speakers, I must say that it is the ideal global lingua franca. First of all, it is very open-minded about "broken" pronounciation and minor grammatical errors ("Bad English" is actually a thing). In contrast to other big languages, it is not as obviously tied to a single nation or culture - so everyone can make it "theirs". (Other large languages expect perfection and a non-native speaker will be treated as intellectually inferior) I think one explanation for this could be that English itself stared off as a hybrid language (Germanic Saxon/Scandinavian mixed with Latin midevial French - and possibly some ancient Celtic in the mix).

  56. salt and freshly ground black people by epine · · Score: 3, Funny

    As a coda to my post, consider this howler:

    World's Worst Typo Leaves Publisher Reeling

    An Australian publisher is reprinting 7,000 cookbooks over a recipe for pasta with "salt and freshly ground black people." ... The reprint will cost Penguin 20,000 Australian dollars ($18,500) ...

    This incident was mentioned in a book I read not long ago about the fine art of editing to a high standard.

    It appears that tiny slip cost some poor sod real money. If the writer is sloppy or inconsistent in his/her usage standard, the proof-reading job becomes ten times harder. The writer probably accepted the wrong spell-checker suggestion when he/she was bleary with late-night fatigue.

    1. Re:salt and freshly ground black people by blue+trane · · Score: 1

      I think of baby chicks sexed by workers, the males sent to a grinder because that's the best economic use for them. All those little lives ended so soon after birth, by a fucking grinder.

      Meat is murder.

    2. Re:salt and freshly ground black people by blue+trane · · Score: 1

      I enjoy a good cop-killing, 'tis true.

    3. Re:salt and freshly ground black people by gnasher719 · · Score: 1

      A British furniture company sold a sofa in several colours, including one dark brown that they called "niger", which btw is the name of both a river and a country in West Africe.

      You can imagine what spelling mistake happened. Or maybe someone thought that "niger" was a spelling mistake.

  57. Re:A Language With No Rules... by blue+trane · · Score: 1

    That's why formal languages are so much less evolutionarily fit than natural languages.

  58. English and American by Roger+W+Moore · · Score: 2

    I imagine that you think Swedish, Norwegian and Danish are all different languages...But in the end, it's all just spelling the spelling, as they're all mutually intelligible.

    Which is pretty much the same state of affairs with English and American although there are quite a few words which are completely different: lift vs. elevator, car bonnet vs. car hood, courgette vs. zucchini, aubergine vs. egg plant, car boot vs. car trunk etc. and more confusing an English word can have a different meaning in American and vice versa often to embarrassing effect e.g. rubber, pants, suspenders, chips, fanny etc.

    This is why it is helpful to give the two 'languages' different names: they may be mutually intelligible (for the most part) but it can be helpful to know whether the language is English or American so that words like 'chips' with different meanings can be correctly interpreted. Calling it 'English English' and 'American English' is just redundant and it typically gets shortened to just English and then you are left guessing based on spellings or context what is meant.

    1. Re:English and American by Coren22 · · Score: 1

      I don't think I have ever heard one of my fellow countryman call it American, usually what we in the USA speak is English, and if there is a need to distinguish, it is US, UK, and AU English.

      --
      APK likes to ask for responses to the same things over and over. Maybe he just likes the responses?
    2. Re:English and American by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      "mutually intelligible" is unfortunately a continuum, rather than a binary quality. It stands though that Scandinavian languages are closer to each other than some Spanishs or Arabics.

      --
      WARNING! This girl exceeds the MAXIMUM SAFE standards established by the FDA for BRATTINESS
  59. Re:The only pure English is the language of Beowol by g01d4 · · Score: 1

    You'd be better of with Chaucer. He's surprisingly not too hard to parse with a little effort, mostly with spelling and some with vocabulary. You'd think the efficiencies derived from proper spelling would make the case for proper English.

  60. Re:A Language With No Rules... by Z00L00K · · Score: 1

    British people fond of Oxford English looks down on American English and to some extent Australian English. American English people looks down on everyone using English as second language and the twists of the English language that appears there; German English, Indian English, East Asian English (Engrish), Latin English (Spanglish)...

    Add to it local accents as well that twists the language; Cockney, Afro-American accent etc.

    --
    If builders built buildings the way programmers wrote programs, then the first woodpecker would destroy civilization.
  61. When does a P becomes a D? by bidule · · Score: 1

    There's no "proper" English, but there are many "improper" ones. If your P becomes so misshappen that it can be seen as a D, you aren't communicating anymore.

    It's the same thing for words: u, m8, w8, pwn aren't proper per se but have a clear and unambiguous mapping to the proper word. Even when using misspellings like seperate or convinsable, you are still communicating clearly enough.

    It's only when you use the spelling of a different word that you screw up. Errors such as board/bored, hoard/horde, straight/strait send a sentence straight into damnyouautocorrect, if not Alice's Wonderland. You cannot "evolve" a word by having treasure and army become a single concept, unless you want to speak Smurf. And even then, they can smurf which smurf means smurf.

    --
    ID: the nose did not occur naturally, how would we wear glasses otherwise? (apologies to Voltaire)
  62. seling something by bigdavex · · Score: 1

    [quote]
    Mr. Kamm is an editorial writer and columnist for the Times of London. His latest book is âoeAccidence Will Happen: The Non-Pedantic Guide to English Usage.â
    [/quote]
    Nevertheless, the author has also thought up some rules that he thinks will help you write clearly and would like to sell them to you.

    --
    -Dave
  63. Bollocks by bytesex · · Score: 1

    Typical American attitude: we can't do it, so nobody must be able to do it. Also: 'grammatical sentences' ?

    --
    Religion is what happens when nature strikes and groupthink goes wrong.
  64. actually... by arth1 · · Score: 2

    No matter how good the accent is, injecting the word "actually" several times in a sentence marks the speaker as an Indian.
    Mind, you can identify a native New Yorker the same way, by the references to coitus and oedipal desires.

    The problem with "bad English" is that it tends to be imprecise and ambiguous. Using a word "wrongly" might not be bad when talking to friends, but when placing a large order or designing an airplane, precise use of the language can really make a difference.

    1. Re: actually... by Phil+Urich · · Score: 2

      Indeed, there may be no such thing as proper English, but that doesn't mean all shifts or variations are equal; increased ambiguity can be a practical problem.

      --
      I remember sigs. Oh, a simpler time!
    2. Re:actually... by gnasher719 · · Score: 1

      The problem with "bad English" is that it tends to be imprecise and ambiguous. Using a word "wrongly" might not be bad when talking to friends, but when placing a large order or designing an airplane, precise use of the language can really make a difference.

      There was a story a few years ago where a company lost an eight digit dollar sum because of a misplaced comma in a contract, which totally changed the meaning.

    3. Re:actually... by arth1 · · Score: 1

      There was a story a few years ago where a company lost an eight digit dollar sum because of a misplaced comma in a contract, which totally changed the meaning.

      Going by memory, United States of America Inc.. lost a lot of duty payments due to "all South-American fruit trees are exempt .." became "all South-American fruit, trees are exempt".

      And what do you do when the vice president leaves you a memo that you need to "literally make the programmers work around the clock"?
      Is he telling you to start a crunch, hire people and divide into three shifts, or pay 200% overtime and deal with law mandated recovery time?

    4. Re:actually... by DamnOregonian · · Score: 1

      or pay 200% overtime and deal with law mandated recovery time?

      Wait... what? Do we live in the same US? A salaried programmer making more than $455 a week (see: all of them) in the US is exempt from FLSA overtime pay requirements (yay!)

    5. Re:actually... by arth1 · · Score: 1

      Offshore development follows offshore laws...

    6. Re:actually... by HornWumpus · · Score: 1

      You ignore the micromanagement and work your people as to get the most from them.

      The VP is just an idiot who doesn't know how to give general direction.

      --
      John McAfee 'It was like that time I hired that Bangkok prostitute; to do my taxes, while I fucked my accountant'
    7. Re:actually... by shutdown+-p+now · · Score: 1

      No matter how good the accent is, injecting the word "actually" several times in a sentence marks the speaker as an Indian.

      Actually, that's not at all true - for example, I'm not actually an Indian. ~

  65. Re:Understanding rules looser than style guide rul by shaitand · · Score: 1

    It is probably best to stop referring to the style guides as rules but rather as guidelines. One can reference guidelines and in some cases even require them but for the most part a guideline is not a requirement but a best practice which may have exceptions.

  66. Re:A Language With No Rules... by Antique+Geekmeister · · Score: 5, Funny

    I could care less.

  67. Cult of dumb at WSJ by mattr · · Score: 2

    The problem is a popular culture that celebrates stupidity. If you want to break grammatical rules, either do so after reading Strunk & White and learning how to write properly. Then it's an artistic decision. Or you can learn English from lolcats and rappers, in which case you are just flaunting ignorance. I remember a drawing anatomy teacher who bemoaned a young artist's work. He had talent but never learned how to draw the human form. It is hard. However there's a difference, even if you paint abstract. There may be talented and educated rappers, but just because you can text and rhyme doesn't make you a poet or a journalist.

    1. Re:Cult of dumb at WSJ by blue+trane · · Score: 1

      So the rules are more about credentialing than communication?

    2. Re:Cult of dumb at WSJ by mattr · · Score: 1

      Hello,
      No S&W is not awesome, but it's what they used when I was in school. Substitute any other syllabus you choose.The point is not to kill the language and grade pedantically, or "credential it" but simply know there do exist things such as grammatical rules. Then you can break them as you see fit. Why not recommend a better book or open courseware to anyone honestly interested in lucid, compelling writing technique? Last one I remember is, type up a whole book of authors you like. That's also old fashioned... it was pre computer anyway.

    3. Re:Cult of dumb at WSJ by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      I think it more helpful to recognize that some dialects of English are sufficiently different from the formal SAE register that teaching it requires teaching people basic language features and areas of grammar that normally only have to be taught to foreign language speakers. (i.e. No one has to explain to kids growing up around English that it is SVO order. They get that all on their own.)

      If we recognize that we have to teach written English like a foreign language to some people (very specifically for Deaf people it will always be a foreign language) then perhaps we can work better at getting them to be able to produce it when the audience deems it appropriate.

      --
      WARNING! This girl exceeds the MAXIMUM SAFE standards established by the FDA for BRATTINESS
  68. Formal speech for formal documents by Antique+Geekmeister · · Score: 1

    If your document is not in clear, precise language, then it can and will be re-interpreted by everyone who reads it. This can be vital for fiction or poetry, where the purpose is to engage the reader's imagination and create a full, vivid world with as little text as possible. But if there is no "right", then the interpretations are usually destined to be "wrong" because of the ambiguities. This is part of every language, including spoken English, written English, contracts, legal text, programming, and mathematics. If you do not have a well defined structure, you cannot define or handle exceptions.

    One classic version of such ambiguity is dates. When you write "01/02/03", to You mean January 2nd, 2003, as Americans do? Or Febuaryy first, as the UK and some European nations do? Or do you follow the German convention, and mean the year February 2nd of 2001?

    This kind of confusion is why we have "formal" English, so people can write 2001-02-03 and make it unambiguous, and so that speakers separated by age, time, or local history can communicate consistently. It's quite vital to a worldwide economy and political ecology, and it is _critical_ in engineering and computer science.

    1. Re:Formal speech for formal documents by blue+trane · · Score: 1

      But computer science is so brittle. Disobey a rule and the program crashes. With ambiguous constructions, we don't have to crash; we can make guesses, look for context. If you see 01/02/03 you look for another clue to the author's convention.

  69. For all intensive purposes... by Kingofearth · · Score: 1

    For all intensive purposes, using grammers good ain't important. I dun get why all these people got to try and correct our speak. It really begs the question, why is people so upset about grammers?

  70. two branches by Orgasmatron · · Score: 4, Insightful

    Linguistics has two branches. One branch is descriptive linguistics which studies how language is used. The other is proscriptive, who describes how a language should be used. This divide is covered pretty often by language log (worth reading pretty often).

    This article is just someone discovering descriptive linguistics for the first time and ecstatic that their prejudgments are backed up by a branch of something that sounds like a science. Congratulations. "Science" has "proved" that there are no standards for language and all those teachers that marked up your papers with red pens were just being mean.

    There is no One True English, but there sure as hell is a Don't Sound Like a Moron English. Like it or not, people hear more than just what you say. They also hear how you say it, and they tend to figure out who you are, or at least, who you are similar to.

    Same goes with clothes. People know who you are just by looking at you. They may be wrong occasionally, and you can feel smug for subverting their expectations, but it is a tool that is right most of the time, and it seems to be wired very deeply into us, so no one is going to stop doing it.

    You can whine all you want about how unfair it is, but if you want your ideas heard, your best bet is to sound (and look) like someone worth listening to.

    --
    See that "Preview" button?
    1. Re:two branches by nine-times · · Score: 1

      Congratulations. "Science" has "proved" that there are no standards for language and all those teachers that marked up your papers with red pens were just being mean.

      Your sentiment matches mine more or less, but I also think there's something that needs to be thrown into the debate: whether we should try to use grammatical/spelling/usage rules prescriptively is not really a question of science or history. You can say that attempts to prevent the evolution of language often fails, at least to some degree. You can point out that our current rules of "proper English" are not an absolute and unchanging set of rules that have "always been that way." However, none of that addresses the question of whether we should try to stick to a particular set of rules.

      That's one of the things that people who are really into "descriptivism" as a theory often miss. Languages are dynamic, yes. There are various dialects with different rules, of course. Nobody is arguing about that. The question of whether we want to teach people to use the Oxford comma... well, that's something we get to decide, and not exactly a question for scientific study. To clarify: In trying to decide, we could devise a scientific study to attempt to find out which kind of comma usage is more confusing to more people, but we could still debate many other related issues.

      Ultimately, if you write something like, "I should of gone to the store yesterday," it makes you look, at best, uneducated. Of course, we all have typos and little brain farts. And yes, if people keep saying "should of" and "could of", it may eventually be considered valid within some dialect. In fact, it's perfectly reasonable for an author to use that choice in dialog to convey the casualness with which someone is speaking, or the educational level of the speaker. However, until we have a whole separate dialect in which that's considered proper, it's supposed to be "should have" or "should've".

      And that's another key issue here: these rules are contextual, but they are rules. You can have a dialect where the grammar is different, but then there are still rules, just a different set of rules. Slang usage can be different from "proper" usage, but even slang has a meaning and a set of rules that are understood and accepted.

      I don't know that anyone is arguing that there should be a "one, true, proper English". However, in whichever context you're speaking English, there are rules for how you speak, and you should probably follow them. Knowing those rules might include knowing when to use slang, even when to break the "rules" in order to create an effect and clarify your meaning. But there are still rules.

  71. Re:A Language With No Rules... by gdshaw · · Score: 2

    Yes, but the ultimate goal is communication, and to that end some change is useful, some is harmful - and almost any change will have the effect of making older texts less readable.

    Think of descriptivists as scientists and prescriptivists as engineers (albeit, it must be said, not always very good ones). I think there is a role for both.

  72. who owns it is irrelevant by supernova87a · · Score: 1

    We can debate all we like about whether there is or is not an absolute standard or "owner" of the language.

    But I will still use the ability to write and speak according to the refined rules of whatever standard is adopted, as a filter to figure out if the person I'm talking to has a certain level of qualifications and skill... and is able to understand and think clearly within rules and structures, whatever they may be.

    Just because the owners of those may change doesn't mean that poor logic, thinking, and inability to write are suddenly excused.

  73. Re:Understanding rules looser than style guide rul by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Funny

    For understandability amongst illiterate Marxists, also known as Slashdotters, shouldn't that be "loser than"?

  74. Re:Understanding rules looser than style guide rul by Dutch+Gun · · Score: 4, Insightful

    Also, take note of one of the rare times "looser" is actually used appropriately. Nowadays, my brain makes a nearly audible 'tic' whenever it first spots that word anywhere on the internet, probably because of the tiny mental trauma inflicted on me each time someone misspells "loser".

    --
    Irony: Agile development has too much intertia to be abandoned now.
  75. Re:The obvious example of language evolution by bakes · · Score: 1

    Maybe he misspelled it the first time.

    --
    Ho! Haha! Guard! Turn! Parry! Dodge! Spin! Ha! Thrust!
  76. Re:Understanding rules looser than style guide rul by Pseudonym · · Score: 2
    --
    sub f{($f)=@_;print"$f(q{$f});";}f(q{sub f{($f)=@_;print"$f(q{$f});";}f});
  77. Re:Understanding rules looser than style guide rul by Sardaukar86 · · Score: 4, Funny

    For understandability amongst illiterate Marxists, also known as Slashdotters, shouldn't that be "loser than"?

    "Loser then", if I'm not mistaken.

    Not sure it's confined entirely to us 'illiterate Marxist Slashdotters' though. =)

    --
    ..Mullah or Pope, Preacher or Poet, who was it wrote: "Give any one species too much rope and they'll fuck it up"?
  78. Grammar isn't pedantiv by umafuckit · · Score: 4, Insightful
    The grammatical rules invoked by pedants aren’t real rules of grammar at all. They are, at best, just stylistic conventions.

    This is a silly blanket statement. It's true of some things, such as the split infinitive. Other things, such as correct comma placement, play an obvious role in understanding a sentence. I agree that languages evolve, but I don't think "text speak" is part of that evolution. Text speak is just lazy.

    1. Re:Grammar isn't pedantiv by T.E.D. · · Score: 1

      This is a silly blanket statement. It's true of some things, such as the split infinitive. Other things, such as correct comma placement, play an obvious role in understanding a sentence

      Funny you should bring this up as your example of an absolute rule. "Correct comma placement", is actually the source of biggest ongoing stylistic argument in the English language: the Oxford comma. Its like the "vi vs. Emacs" of the literary world. This is one of the strongest arguments you could have picked supporting the point you were looking to refute.

      Massive example fail.

    2. Re:Grammar isn't pedantiv by umafuckit · · Score: 1

      Funny you should bring this up as your example of an absolute rule. "Correct comma placement", is actually the source of biggest ongoing stylistic argument in the English language: the Oxford comma. Its like the "vi vs. Emacs" of the literary world. This is one of the strongest arguments you could have picked supporting the point you were looking to refute.

      Massive example fail.

      The Oxford comma is a style issue, sure. Commas in general are not, since their presence or absence can change the meaning of a sentence. I don't think the comma is an "example fail" or anything like the vi/Eamcs wars.

  79. Experimental science says otherwise. by tgv · · Score: 1

    Psycholinguists could easily argue that reality says otherwise. If a person read incorrect English, his/her brain has more trouble reading it: reading times slow down, comprehension levels drop, brain activity increases. So it would be pretty fair to say that there is a shared basis for normal English that native and very competent 2nd language speakers expect.

    Oliver Kamm, the author of the piece, on the other hand, just has an opinion, mainly based on his political views.

    1. Re:Experimental science says otherwise. by blue+trane · · Score: 3, Insightful

      Sounds like flawed assumptions. You can have very proper English that makes you think harder than the equivalent in slang. That's why txting is so popular, because it's easier to understand. But an oldster might be at a loss.

    2. Re:Experimental science says otherwise. by tgv · · Score: 1

      That would be because you're accustomed to slang. There are rules and conventions for slang, too. Improper use will (slightly) confuse you.

      > That's why txting is so popular, because it's easier to understand.

      Talking about flawed assumptions.

    3. Re:Experimental science says otherwise. by moeinvt · · Score: 1

      Excellent point. I was thinking exclusively about the spoken word, but when you said "reading" I realized that incorrect grammar would find it's way into text as well. I would definitely inhibit my reading ability if I was suddenly exposed to books and articles that contained prolific grammatical errors.
      +1 insightful if I had points and could resist commenting.

  80. Re:Wall Street Journal Reasoning by blue+trane · · Score: 1

    Who gets hurt if you dangle a particle?

    Though I guess the Supreme Court can affect millions in its ruling on the ACA use of "state".

    My opinion: "state" is commonly used to refer to the Federal government. If I say "the state should pay for healthcare", I clearly mean the Federal government, not an individual state. But if the court takes a narrower view, then they are essentially enforcing a usage rule.

  81. Re:A Language With No Rules... by Dutch+Gun · · Score: 5, Interesting

    Nowadays, it's very likely someone using somewhat broken English on the internet simply doesn't speak it as a primary language. The way I figure it, I'm pretty sure their command of my language is a heck of a lot more impressive than my command of theirs. If I'm conversing with someone and they apologize for their poor English, I'll often pull out this quip to reassure them that not everyone is so shallow as to nitpick about stuff like that.

    Sure, we all laughed at "all your base are belong to us", but there's a difference between chuckling at some examples of Engrish versus some sort of language snobbery. I suppose the Japanese or Chinese version of those sorts of jokes are when Westerners get kanji tattoos that don't quite mean what they thought. I think it's fine as long as it doesn't get mean-spirited or personal.

    --
    Irony: Agile development has too much intertia to be abandoned now.
  82. Re:A Language With No Rules... by NoOneInParticular · · Score: 2

    Losen up. Your begging the question.

  83. ...as spoken by the English by mjgday · · Score: 2

    Surely, if we want to define a Proper English, it should be English English[0], all 287 dialects of it http://sounds.bl.uk/accents-and-dialects/survey-of-english-dialects

    English has always been a bastardised language, an amalgam of tribal languages specifically chosen to baffle the foreigner (read French courts of the middle ages) and then augmented with every interesting word in every language spoken in every port the Navy got to.

    It's flexibility and adaptability is the foundation of it's strength, expecting it to remain static is just crazy.

    [0] Yes this is a troll for all you usian mods.

    --
    foo
  84. Re: Understanding rules looser than style guide ru by Rei · · Score: 2

    and not be stagmatized so much by their peers

    Let's hope that their friends aren't so mean as to stagmatize them!

    --
    "TAMS shouldn't be destroyed. They should just tag us before releasing us into the wild." -- Maeglin
  85. Re:Understanding rules looser than style guide rul by Rei · · Score: 1
    --
    "TAMS shouldn't be destroyed. They should just tag us before releasing us into the wild." -- Maeglin
  86. Re:A Language With No Rules... by Rei · · Score: 3, Insightful

    Um, that is the nature of mapmaking, reflecting the changing landscape due to, say, old roads being bulldozed and new roads being built. At a faster rate than linguistic change, I might add.

    --
    "TAMS shouldn't be destroyed. They should just tag us before releasing us into the wild." -- Maeglin
  87. Not just English by houghi · · Score: 2

    This is the same for any living language. However I think that the rules stay similar over a very long time.Words might change, but gramar stays largely the same.

    Only when you start to look closer will you find difference. Not only over time, but also per region. These differnces will influence each other or not. e.g. with Dutch and Afrikaans, there is now a clear difference. When looking at Dutch and Flemish, you will notice that the difference is much smaller and mainly pronounciation and worduse.

    No matter how much (some) liguists would like to treat language as a fixed thing, it isn't.

    You can't determine speed and location at the same time and that is what they are trying to mdo.

    --
    Don't fight for your country, if your country does not fight for you.
  88. Re:Really? Because by nuckfuts · · Score: 1

    Your example misses the point:

    Whatever is in general use in a language (not any use, but general use) is for that reason grammatically correct.

  89. Re:there is a difference by blue+trane · · Score: 1

    spoken but retards? Do you think your empirical language rule inferer would reject that sentence?

  90. Re:A Language With No Rules... by gnasher719 · · Score: 4, Insightful

    Nowadays, it's very likely someone using somewhat broken English on the internet simply doesn't speak it as a primary language. The way I figure it, I'm pretty sure their command of my language is a heck of a lot more impressive than my command of theirs. If I'm conversing with someone and they apologize for their poor English, I'll often pull out this quip to reassure them that not everyone is so shallow as to nitpick about stuff like that.

    Oh bugger off. I can see from a mile whether some unreadable rubbish is produced by a lazy, uneducated American or by someone who is learning the language. Bloody Americans who don't know the difference between their, there and they're never apologize for it.

    However, since there are indeed many people on the internet whose first language isn't English, you should realize that using improper English makes it a lot harder for these people to understand you, and in the worst case they learn improper English from you. So being lazy and using improper English is impolite to the extreme.

  91. Re:The only pure English is the language of Beowol by dunkelfalke · · Score: 1

    how the hell do you pronounce "thrythswyth"?!

    --
    "It's such a fine line between stupid and clever" -- David St. Hubbins, Spinal Tap
  92. Re:A Language With No Rules... by jellomizer · · Score: 1

    The story didn't say no rules, but no fixed ruled.
    I just can't say "gurety nop phlanipifpa" and expect people to know what I am saying. Also there are important stuctured such as the object is described before the qualifier. "The dog is hot" vs "The hot is dog"
    However we come up with new words and replace old ones. Some words we make to have a double meaning based on the context.

    --
    If something is so important that you feel the need to post it on the internet... It probably isn't that important.
  93. Re:A Language With No Rules... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

    It requires less brainpower to remember the difference between the two when writing, so it's an evolutionary advantage to those who just spew drivel all over the internet, because nobody reads most of their shit anyway.

  94. Re:A Language With No Rules... by shilly · · Score: 1, Interesting

    "So being lazy and using improper English is impolite to the extreme."

    Motes and beams, people!
    If you're going to moan about "improper" English, it's best not to make lots of errors yourself:
    - you started your sentence with "So". The word you ought to have used was "Thus".
    - you missed out the comma that should have followed the "So"
    - the expression is "in the extreme", not "to the extreme"
    - even had you used "in the extreme", it would still have made for an awkward and inelegant sentence, compared to the obvious alternate of "... is extremely impolite."

    I personally don't think any of this matters much; however, given that you claim to care about correct English usage, it surely behooves you to check, double-check and triple-check your own writing before posting.

  95. Re:The only pure English is the language of Beowol by Maquis196 · · Score: 1

    Ah its good to see the eth (ð) and i (æ) outside of my Icelandic studies. French did a lot of "damage" to languages all over Europe during the late middle ages, one of the reasons I'm enjoying Icelandic with no real outside influence beyond the Danish trying a little bit.

    English and Old Norse were spoken along side each other for ages in Britain, especially back when we had Norse kingdoms (like Jórvik) and Danelaw. All in all, its a shame we lost some of those extra characters which as I understand it, started to happen when the printing press came out. The Dutch machines didn't have ð or so instead they'd use th, and thus began the end.

    An anecdote I've come across (which might not be true) is the fact the "ye olde sweet shop" should in fact be "e olde" but because the machines didn't have the thorn () char, they just started using y at first before using th.

    Ah languages, gotta love them. Oh, if you like languages and use Linux, google for the compose key!

  96. Presumptions and prescriptions by hoakley · · Score: 2

    A few comments make incorrect presumptions. First, Oliver Kamm, author of the WSJ essay, is British, and pretty solidly so as he write leaders for The Times. Second, he is a former prescriptivist who has seen the error of his ways, and has not just recently become anti-prescriptivist. Third, most of the arguments put here in favour of prescriptivism are demolished in his recent book "Accidence will Happen: The Non-Pedantic Guide to English Usage" which I commend not only for its arguments, but also for its guide to usage. I have reviewed it in detail here. There I also suggest one reason for prescriptivism which no one has yet mentioned - the Mother Tongue and old, battered teddy bears. Enjoy!

  97. Re: Understanding rules looser than style guide ru by msauve · · Score: 3, Funny

    Its a mute point. Your begging the question, "Y"?

    --
    "National Security is the chief cause of national insecurity." - Celine's First Law
  98. Re:A Language With No Rules... by Dutch+Gun · · Score: 2

    Oh bugger off.

    unreadable rubbish is produced by a lazy, uneducated American

    Bloody Americans who don't know the difference between their, there and they're never apologize for it.

    So being lazy and using improper English is impolite to the extreme

    I see... It's impolite, is it? I'll certainly keep that in mind. We wouldn't want to be impolite now, would we?

    --
    Irony: Agile development has too much intertia to be abandoned now.
  99. Re:A Language With No Rules... by Rei · · Score: 5, Insightful

    Ah, the old "American English is a corruption of good pure British English" attitude. Sorry, but both languages have been devolving from their divergence point, neither is more pure than the other. For example, British English is non-rhotic (r-dropping), while except in a few regional accents (ex: Boston), American English isn't. 17th century English was rhotic, like American English; people weren't going around saying "hard" and "yard" as "haad" and "yaad". American English retains secondary stresses more, for example "secretary" and "dictionary" rather than "secretr'y" and "dictionr'y". American English also has little T-glottalization, like 17th century English, while modern British English does it heavily (ex: "city" as "ci-ey"). The more cockney you sound, the less you sound like a 17th century English speaker. As for vowels, American English wins some of those comparisons and loses others - but for example the american A in words like "cat" and "path" is historic, unlike the British pronunciations which match the a in "father" (of course, if you want to go even further on accuracy, Scottish English retains the historic vowel pronunciation better than both British and American English - something I think most Brits would be loathe to admit. ;) )

    Langauge shifts usually happen faster in urban environments than rural ones. Here in Iceland, for example, one sees the same thing with the countryside accents much closer to historical accents than that of the Reykjavík metro area. Throughout much of its history, the US was a sparsely populated agricultural country, while the UK was industrialized and urban. In fact, one word that is still used commonly used in British english - "reckon" - is largely looked down on as hick talk in the US, in that its use has significantly declined from its historic commonness in American urban environments in the past century but has been retained in rural ones. Counterbalancing the historic rural nature of the US was the significant need for new words, having been thrust into a very different environment. Both sides of the pond met with heavy interaction with people speaking foreign languages and adopted words from them, although the levels of exposure to each language and words borrowed were different.

    Anyway, if you're curious, one can find a number of other evolutions from 17th century English here, both on the American and British sides.

    --
    "TAMS shouldn't be destroyed. They should just tag us before releasing us into the wild." -- Maeglin
  100. Thesaurus by Deliveranc3 · · Score: 1

    It's not a dinosaur, and using it while editing is often the most gratifying part.

    You can do it while tired, always learn something and finding the word you want is gratifying!

    GO ENGIES!

  101. Re: Understanding rules looser than style guide ru by 3.5+stripes · · Score: 1

    While your comment about exclusion has some merits, most of the reason would actually be that in situations where formal english is "required" you will quite often be dealing with people who have english as a second language, and the language they learned in that case will not be slang based, so it would not be very wise in business, banking or teaching to be using a language that acts as a barrier to understanding.

    Capice?

    --


    He tried to kill me with a forklift!
  102. Re: Understanding rules looser than style guide ru by Anne+Thwacks · · Score: 3, Interesting
    In the days of Fidonet, I had a BBS, and quite a few of the people I communicated with were Russian. Several complained that even one spelling mistake was a problem for them, because they had to look up every single word in the dicitonary. Mistakes like lose/loose are totally mystifying if you don't understand what you are translating.

    It made me try much harder with spelling, and rely less on automatic spelling corrections, and also gave me a new insight into the Bible!

    --
    Sent from my ASR33 using ASCII
  103. Re:Understanding rules looser than style guide rul by tburkhol · · Score: 2

    The rules sufficient for successful understanding are looser than the rules prescribed by style guides.

    This is particularly true for spoken English vs written English. In spoken English, intonation and body language contribute to communication, eg bad vs bad. You're expected to fill in missing/garbled words from context. Written English is an attempt to encode all of that information.

    So, sure, sloppy spelling, poor grammar, and homophone substitution may be understandable to your close friends. That makes it more of a code language or private language, and there's plenty of times where we like to share private, insider conversations. If you actually want to communicate with everyone, you have to use the parent language - step back from the Southern drawl or the Scots brogue and speak Common.

  104. Re: Understanding rules looser than style guide ru by shilly · · Score: 2

    You're missing my point. Anyone who's aspiring to a career in, say, banking is pretty likely to make an effort to learn some form of "standard" English. But this is really about trying to control the language spoken by people who could not give two shits about a career in banking, because they are living very different lives in which such an aspiration is not only absurd but potentially dangerously distracting too.

  105. Re:A Language With No Rules... by sg_oneill · · Score: 1

    All languages follow rules. Its just not the rules you probably think they are.

    --
    Excuse the Unicode crap in my posts. That's an apostrophe, and slashdot is busted.
  106. Re:A Language With No Rules... by Buchenskjoll · · Score: 2

    I think non-native English users make all sorts of errors, while native speakers make the constistent errors that are all over the internet. For instance "between you and I" is the result of some mistaken political correctness, that you can never say "and me". It's horrible, it's ungrammatical and it must stop now. "Then/than" and "your/you're" problems aren't confined to non-natives either. PS: I am not a native speaker of English

    --
    -- Make America hate again!
  107. Okay by ThatsNotPudding · · Score: 1

    Still fascinating that no one can agree on the origin of the once slang 'OK'.

    1. Re:Okay by mattr · · Score: 1

      Hmmm!! That is interesting. Thought it wsd all korrect but a link I cannot paste at mentalfloss says it started as a joke.

  108. Re: Understanding rules looser than style guide ru by jafiwam · · Score: 3, Informative

    This is really an argument about values, isn't it? Quite a lot of people want "others" (and as your post implies by referring to ebonics, the other here is typically young black people) to value what they value -- a good job in academia or business. And want them to *de*-value, literally, the form of English they have grown up using, and see it as worthless to "getting ahead". This, despite the pretty obvious fact that if you used what you describe as "formal English" in the context in which many people live, it would be detrimental to your interests, just as using ebonics would be detrimental to your interests if used in a merchant bank. It's really about an underlying desire to not want alternative value systems to evolve, in which getting ahead may mean something other than getting a good job at a corporate or institution.

    As the guy doing the hiring, you had fucking better share my "values" or at least be able to fake it.

    It is my experience that those that don't want to speak reasonably correct English do so on purpose, and do to set themselves apart into a different (lower) class deliberately. Those speeking Thugeese and Dinduese do so as a way of fitting in with their group. I am more inclined to let the strategy work as I am never going to want to be around someone who's main negotiating ability is over who gets to sell crack on what corner.

    Speak however you want. No loss, it makes it easier to pick out the gems from the garbage.

  109. Re:Understanding rules looser than style guide rul by Godwin+O'Hitler · · Score: 1

    Shouldn't that be "one of them rare times"?

    --
    No, your children are not the special ones. Nor are your pets.
  110. May I by d'baba · · Score: 1

    ... mambo dogface to the banana patch?

  111. Brought to you by the country... by Tomsk70 · · Score: 2

    ...that decided many, many perfectly good words needed respelling anyway.

    1. Re:Brought to you by the country... by shutdown+-p+now · · Score: 1

      I didn't realize that Wall Street is in UK.

    2. Re:Brought to you by the country... by shutdown+-p+now · · Score: 1

      We speak Freedom English on this side of the pond, leave your French to yourself. ~

  112. Re:A Language With No Rules... by Godwin+O'Hitler · · Score: 1

    The GP did not say American English was wrong. He (or she) said Americans were lazy and uneducated. "Their", "there" and "they're" are identical both sides of the pond.
    I'm not saying I agree with him because I see a lot of the same sloppy writing on UK-only forums.

    By the way would you mind providing a link to the recordings of 17th century English you based your remarks on.

    --
    No, your children are not the special ones. Nor are your pets.
  113. Elements of Style is not authoritative by sjbe · · Score: 3, Informative

    Author has apparently never heard of Strunk & White.

    The Elements of Style by Strunk & White is a set of opinions, not a set of rules. All the difference in the world. I can point you at numerous books and experts on grammar and writing that disagree with significant portions of that overused book.

    It's a bit of a conflict of interest for a writer to say there are "no rules", when in fact there are.

    There is no single authoritative set of rules for the English language. There are rules in the sense that there are commonly agreed to informal "standards" which persist for a time based on culture and comprehensibility but it is quite correct to say that that there aren't any rules in the sense of rules laid down by an authoritative body.

    Fads come and go, while the underlying rules persist, generation after generation.

    Quite simply not true. You merely have to go back far enough in time to get to a point where the language is no longer the same. Old English is for all practical purposes a completely different language than our modern version of English.

    If that were not true, you would not be able to make sense of Shakespeare today.

    Perhaps you haven't actually studied Shakespeare. Significant portions of his writing are quite inscrutable today without an explanation of the context, temporal usage and intent. That said, Shakespeare isn't so far removed from us that it is impossible to read - it's just a few hundred years and languages usually don't evolve that quickly. Go read Beowulf in the original Old English and tell me again that the rules of the language never change over time.

    1. Re:Elements of Style is not authoritative by sabbede · · Score: 1
      Linguistic shift is a bit more complex then what you seem to be suggesting. Old English (aka Old Anglo-Saxon) was a Germanic language beginning to take on Brythonic (Romano-Celtic) elements because the Angles and Saxons invaded and colonized Britain. It became Middle-English after the Norman invasion brought vulgar romance (that's a linguistics joke) to the Isle.

      Pronunciation changes in predictable ways over time (see Grimm's Law), but major shifts like changes to grammar and syntax require deep interactions with other languages. The printing press complicated things further, giving rise to new normative pressures that have only increased as communication technology has improved.

    2. Re:Elements of Style is not authoritative by snowgirl · · Score: 1

      After I learned German, "wherefore" stopped confusing me. "dagegen" "darüber" "danaben" all of them composed of "there" and a preposition. The corresponding question words for them are "wogegen" "worüber" "woneben". Or "where-preposition". And where is used even when the preposition doesn't refer to a location, but an idea. (persons are composed of "preposition who"). "Wofür hast du das gemacht?" (For what purpose did you do that?)

      Knowing how German works yields great insight into the grammatical usage of the English used by Shakespeare. Because English has been traveling towards a "creole-like" grammar for a very long time... i.e. before the norman invaders, and before the norse invaders.

      Actually, watching Beowulf (the "horrible" CGI one, which for amateur linguists wasn't horrible at all, because OMG OLD ENGLISH THIS IS AWESOME!), I was kind of actually able to understand Grendel... or more accurately, with subtitles I could pick out words whose meaning I could accurately place in them.

      --
      WARNING! This girl exceeds the MAXIMUM SAFE standards established by the FDA for BRATTINESS
  114. Technology model by snsh · · Score: 2

    In technology you have an RFC published by a body whose authority supported by consensus. Then when you implement that technology, you can choose to be as compliant with RFC as you want. English teachers tend to see things as right vs. wrong, while in technology it's compliant vs. noncompliant, strict vs. loose/flexible. Loose compliance is often beneficial - how many people you know actually type the trailing dot on all of their FQDN's (e.g. http://slashdot.org./story)? The RFC says you're supposed to, but people rarely except when editing DNS records. Do we say that everyone is "wrong", or just noncompliant with RFC?

    I find the technology model far less judgmental.

  115. Re: Understanding rules looser than style guide ru by shilly · · Score: 1

    Again, you're missing my point. Talking as though the only thing standing between a bright young guy from the projects and a job at Goldmans is their poor command of standard English is just absurd. They don't value what Goldmans offers. They can't afford to value it, because it's a dangerous distraction from the world they actually have to navigate, which poses rather more immediate and visceral challenges than doing well at interview. It reminds me of the slackjawed incomprehension I saw on the faces of young bright compassionate managers at a big 4 accountancy when they tried to run a program for disadvantaged teens here in the UK, and the teens weren't hugely interested: the managers were deep in Rumsfeldian not-knowing what they didn't know territory. They lacked the insight and lived understanding of what the teens had to go through every day, to see why what was on offer was just not that appealing.

    They could have done with watching this. https://www.youtube.com/watch?...

  116. Re:A Language With No Rules... by shilly · · Score: 1, Interesting

    I went to Cambridge, so while I will use an Oxford comma, I only do so where it helps avoid ambiguity, which was not the case here.

    In any event, did you miss the first part of my sentence? I don't care. But the OP said that they did.

  117. No stupid question - only inquisitive idiots by sjbe · · Score: 1

    Yes, there IS such a thing as a stupid question and this is one of them.

    It is correct that there is no such a thing as a stupid question. A question by definition cannot have intelligence and therefore it cannot be smart or stupid. The person asking the question CAN be smart or stupid or ignorant or informed. If someone asks a question they should either already know or be able to figure out the answer to, then that person is possibly a stupid person but the question is neither stupid nor smart. Someone else could ask the same question and it could be a reasonable inquiry. An English speaking adult ought to know that "A" is the first letter in the English alphabet whereas a young child would not necessarily know this and it would be unreasonable to expect them to know this fact. The question would be the same question therefore how could the question be stupid? Therefore the correct thing to say is that there is no such thing as a stupid question but there is such a thing as an inquisitive idiot.

    I'll say the French have the final word on what's truly French, the Spaniards have the final word on what's truly Spanish, and the Brits have the final word on what is true and "proper" English.

    Going to call bullshit on that one. Just because that's where the language originated does not grant those countries any sort of authority over how or where the language is used outside their own borders, particularly after hundreds of years. American English did not evolve from modern British English any more than humans evolved from modern apes. They both come from a common ancestor and have evolved along separate paths ever since. The Brits have no more say over how English is used than the Americans or even Chinese do. Languages do not work like that. Spanish spoken in South America is every bit as legitimate as Spanish spoken in Spain.

  118. Quantum Foam of Style? by sabbede · · Score: 1

    Strunk and White must be rolling in their respective graves.

  119. Re:A Language With No Rules... by disposable60 · · Score: 1

    And proscriptivists are antiquarians?

    --
    You're looking for quotes? See my journal.
  120. I beg to differ by moeinvt · · Score: 1

    "It is well past time to consign grammar pedantry to the history books."

    Me and him be disagreein'. It's a given that language is always going to be dynamic and evolving. We see the proliferation of neologisms and common misspellings of words and phrases(e.g. cancelled) become so common that they end up being acceptable. There must be some sort of foundation however.

    "People should not be stigmatized for the way they speak..."

    Wrong. I can understand getting over things like "comprised of" and "cancelled" as being too overwhelming to eradicate. I can't deal with improper use of they're, their and there, double negatives and improper verb conjugation. Those should definitely be stigmatized

    "I can't get no satisfaction" is a bloody song, not a speech. It works because "I can't get any satisfaction" doesn't roll off the tongue quite so smoothly. That doesn't mean we should dispense with the conventional use. Completely discarding grammar would be a quantum leap backward in effective communication, which is already suffering in the electronic age,

    Irregardless of what he think language should be comprised of, do he thinks we's be wanting too tolerating verbal chaos?

    1. Re:I beg to differ by psmears · · Score: 1

      There's nothing wrong with "cancelled" - it's the correct spelling outside the US!

  121. Distinctions without differences. by sjbe · · Score: 1

    Students aren't actually marked "wrong" on their tests, despite the convention to speak about it this way. Their answers are marked "acceptable" and "unacceptable".

    A distinction without a difference. Call it whatever you like and it will mean the same thing.

    I learned to touch type on a manual typewriter, inserting two spaces after the sentence final punctuation mark. In the younger generation, this is portrayed as a fuddy-duddy convention. Do they even know that an advanced typesetting system sets the inter-sentence gap differently than the inter-word gap when they make this declaration?

    Do you even know that this does not necessarily matter? Just because it has been done a certain way does not mean it must continue to be done that way. I think lots of them know, they simply don't care and I think that is a reasonable viewpoint.

    I continue to use the double space convention when typing because it makes it easier to proof-read what I've written. My eyes are used to the double space to help me quickly navigate my sentence boundaries. And the extra space is pretty much effortless to type.

    That does not imply that it is necessary or useful to others however. It's not actually required for comprehension, readability and while the extra effort is small it is not zero either. I don't think double spaces between sentences is a bad idea (I tend to do it too) but that doesn't mean it is a good idea either.

    I personally can't stand folding punctuation marks under an end-quotation mark.

    I happen to very much agree with you on this. Never made much sense to me.

  122. Dumbest reasoning I ever heard. by Krakadoom · · Score: 2

    I know this is how language scholars in my country think as well, but it's idiotic. This approach is what warps language and creates misunderstandings, when you can no longer determine from spelling or pronounciation the etymology of a word. Artists also shouldn't adopt misheard lyrics as the correct way to perform their songs. Although that might be slightly interesting.

    Picking the lowest common denominator is just plain sad when it comes to language.

  123. Yes texting will influence the language by sjbe · · Score: 1

    I agree that languages evolve, but I don't think "text speak" is part of that evolution.

    Then you will be wrong. We don't know exactly how it will influence our language in the long run but you can be quite certain that it WILL influence it. You can already see abbreviations and texting conventions making their way into every day usage. You don't even have to look hard. We have entire generations growing up with texting as a key means of communication. Do you seriously think this will have no influence on their use of language? If you do then you are being intentionally naive.

  124. Re:The only pure English is the language of Beowol by marcello_dl · · Score: 1

    I imagined a cluster of syllables, and there it is.
    Putting an end to such a miasma of glyphs might be the only nice thing the French have ever done in their entire history.

    Romans ruled the world with 23 letters, all caps. This is what I call a proper thing.

    --
    ---- MISSING MISCELLANEOUS DATA SEGMENT --- [sigdash] trolololol
  125. Re:A Language With No Rules... by T.E.D. · · Score: 2

    Langauge shifts usually happen faster in urban environments than rural ones.

    Interestingly, in the USA the dialect of English spoken in the rural Appalachians is often claimed to be the closest thing you will find to Elizabethan English in the modern world. It is simultaneously probably the single least prestigious dialect of English in North America.

    (Note: "Prestige" is how linguists talk about dialects being perceived as wrong or bad by other speakers. IOW: Most people will tell you someone speaking this dialect has "bad English". Irony.)

  126. Re:A Language With No Rules... by aaarrrgggh · · Score: 1

    Autocorrect seems to make their there's worse. They're not always at fault.

  127. Re:A Language With No Rules... by Swampash · · Score: 1

    For example, British English is non-rhotic (r-dropping)

    If that were true then American English would be non-rhotic too. It was immigration from the West Country - Corrrnwall, Dorrrset, Somerrrset (et al) - that brought the rhotic r to the colonies.

  128. There is English and English as a second language. by Gonoff · · Score: 1

    Many years ago, my parents moved from Central Scotland to that area of Northern Nigeria now in the news for all the wrong reasons.

    At the age of 6, I was the only person in my school who was not Nigerian. English was at that time the common language and that was what was used in the school I was at.
    Every now and again, I would be sent along to one of the older classes to help with pronunciation - "Look at the size of this boy. If he can pronounce it, so can you!" type lessons from the teacher.

    So, the next time you see the town of Sokoto, just consider that here will be people there with highly differentiated vowels, glottal stops and rhotic pronunciation (rolling R's).

    --
    I'll see your Constitution and raise you a Queen.
  129. Re:A Language With No Rules... by Swampash · · Score: 1

    Parent posts offensive impertinence, up with which I will not put.

  130. Re:Wall Street Journal Reasoning by jmac_the_man · · Score: 1

    At the beginning of the ACA, they define a bunch of words as used in the Act. For ACA purposes, "The word "state" means one of the 50 states or the District of Columbia."

  131. Re: Understanding rules looser than style guide ru by Muad'Dave · · Score: 1

    My head just exploded. Excellent troll.

    --
    Tiller's Rule: Never use a word in written form that you've only heard and never read. You will end up looking foolish.
  132. Re:A Language With No Rules... by gsslay · · Score: 1

    For example, British English is non-rhotic (r-dropping)

    Not it's not. There is no such thing as "British English" pronunciation. English as spoken in Britain varies a great deal in pronunciation. You are comparing just one variation with American English.

    Scottish English retains the historic vowel pronunciation better than both British and American English

    Scottish English is a sub-set of British English, they are not distinct.

    something I think most Brits would be loathe to admit. ;) )

    What, even the Scottish Brits?

  133. Re:phonetic rules? by Gonoff · · Score: 1

    More important is people differentiating between...

    Than & Then
    Father & Feather
    Aunt & Ant
    Whales & Wales
    and so on

    Possibly another good thing would be to make sure to pronounce the letter T as that and not as a D.
    Bidder & Bitter
    Shutter and Shudder
    and so on

    --
    I'll see your Constitution and raise you a Queen.
  134. Re: A Language With No Rules... by sycodon · · Score: 2

    But that's the point. It's the linguistic equivalent of relative morality. If there not a single morality, then there is no morality. If there are no fixed and unchanging rules, then there may as well be no rules. A common frame of reference is required.

    How would a physics work if the rules of physics changed at the whim of the physicist? How could programmers work if they were able to change the syntax on a whim? When they do, they call it a new language.

    If you don't follow the rules, then you can't order chicken or fish

    --
    When Fascism comes to America, it will call itself Anti-Fascism, and tell you to give up your guns.
  135. Re:Descriptivisim vs. Prescriptivisim by moeinvt · · Score: 1

    Interesting article and some good URLs at the bottom.

    I always thought the idea that "ebonics" was a separate language was a bogus excuse for not learning "proper" English. I didn't know I was implicitly subscribing to "prescriptivism". If language is defined by "how people use it", then descriptivism would suggest that it really is a separate language. You couldn't possibly take an ebonics speaker and a typical New England yankee and, for the purpose of descriptivism, identify them both as "native speakers" of English.

  136. Re:A Language With No Rules... by yagu · · Score: 3, Funny

    Oh bugger off.

    Tisk tisk. Cannot end a sentence with a preposition

    Oh bugger off, jerk. There, FTFY.

  137. Re:A Language With No Rules... by pr0nbot · · Score: 4, Funny

    From the z in apologize I'd think we're dealing with an American troll.

    Your's,

    The Grammar Nasi

  138. Hmph! by garryknight · · Score: 2

    Don't believe them. They don't write proper English.

    --
    Garry Knight
  139. Nature doesn't owe us any favors. by hey! · · Score: 3, Interesting

    At least it doesn't act like it does. For example, it is notoriously unwilling to allow us have our cake and eat it too.

    In this case Nature doesn't permit our language to have both unlimited adaptability and unlimited stability. A language moves with the mass of people who employ it every day, adapting to changes of mores, media, and needs without need of some kind of central coordinating authority. Which is near miraculous if you think about it. The downside is you need an interpreter to follow Shakespeare's dialog.

    The trade-off for having effortlessly adaptable, good-enough communication is that at no point in time is it perfectly satisfactory. It is understandably galling to someone who prides himself on his mastery of a language to have that language re-made by the largely ignorant masses. But that ideal language of his (usually) school days is itself the handiwork of generations of largely ignorant masses, who while typically hopeless at precision of expression are nonetheless geniuses at linguistic adaptation.

    "Prescriptivists" are fighting a pointless battle, because their objective (preserving the language as they learned it) simply isn't possible. The best guides to optimal written usage are style manuals crafted by people who in the practical business of editing written communication. These are like taking a moving average of the chaos of recent language changes.

    In the end we all have to accept that whatever our favorite edition of our language is, it will eventually make us sound like old fogies to younger people (some of us managed that while still in our teens), and like foreigners to future generations.

    --
    Post may contain irony: discontinue use if experiencing mood swings, nausea or elevated blood pressure.
    1. Re:Nature doesn't owe us any favors. by blue+trane · · Score: 1

      "Nature doesn't permit our language to have both unlimited adaptability and unlimited stability."

      Why not? Filter what you don't want, or translate it to what you think it should look like.

      So if someone writes "its" for "it's", automatically insert the apostrophe before you read it.

      It's an AI challenge. If gizoogle tranzizzle can go from English to Ebonics, can't we do the reverse?

    2. Re:Nature doesn't owe us any favors. by hey! · · Score: 1

      Why not? Filter what you don't want, or translate it to what you think it should look like.

      Of course nothing stops you from doing this. The practical barrier is getting everyone else to go along. Attempting to shape the course of language is like trying to nail jello to the wall.

      --
      Post may contain irony: discontinue use if experiencing mood swings, nausea or elevated blood pressure.
    3. Re:Nature doesn't owe us any favors. by blue+trane · · Score: 1

      Each language user can have their personal, customizable filter, so they speak and hear the language they like, while everyone else speaks their preferred language. We simply need to improve our translation tech.

  140. Judgement-Free Zone by vga_init · · Score: 1

    Language is pretty complicated. The culture among linguists today is summed up by this rule: "Keep it descriptive." While I agree that description is important and useful, I think that it's possible to throw the baby out with the bathwater by denying prescription *completely*. Yes, pedantry is awful, and so being overly prescriptive isn't helpful, but there has to be some possible argument at times for why prescription is beneficial.

  141. prescriptive/descriptive by spitzig · · Score: 1

    There is an argument that's been going for hundreds (or longer) of years. Is English prescriptive or descriptive. Does it follow rules or is the language just the way people use it?

    I generally fall on the side of it being descriptive.

    Things like the article's example: "I can't get no satisfaction." This can be considered in three ways:
    1. It's improper to use double negatives. Conversation with most groups of friends, it's fine. A formal talk or a research paper, it's not.
    2. Most native speakers of English know the intended meaning. (English is descriptive)
    3. The "rules" of English would say the sentence means the opposite of the intended meaning.

    I've been teaching English in a country where English is not the main language, or even the second most common language. When I ask myself whether English is prescriptive or descriptive in context of my career, I ask myself "What do I tell my students?" I can't just give them vocabulary, tell them to make sentences, and tell them if they've made sentences that I understand. I also need to give them rules. What is the difference between "I ate." and "I have eaten."

    Sometimes there is disagreement about whether something is proper English. That can also mean there is a disagreement about the meaning.

  142. Re:Understanding rules looser than style guide rul by Enigma2175 · · Score: 1

    Hear hear!

    I think you mean "Here, here."

    --

    Enigma

  143. It's all about frequency and statistics by DarkL · · Score: 1

    Although I most definitely agree with using style guides for various publications, enforcing a prescriptive notion of proper usage on the general English-speaking population is a futile endeavour. The English language has had major influences from other languages such as German and French in the past and is currently undergoing a revolutionary evolution due to modern communications. As one of the most human of all activities, learning language is what each of us does every day of our lives. If you hear a word you don't understand just once, the chances of you recalling it later are minimal. But if you start hearing that word very, very often in specific circumstances, it will only be a matter of time before you start using it yourself in just those circumstances. After all, you want to be understood by others and this is the way we do it. And English no longer belongs exclusively to native speakers nor is it always native speakers contributing to the language. This is typically referred to as Globish or World English. Just one example: Ever use the expression "Thanks in advance"? Up to about 20 years ago I had never heard or seen this used by native speakers, only by students of mine in English correspondence courses when attempting to write "Danke im Voraus", which back then was always "Thank you for your attention and I look forward to hearing from you soon." But Germans starting writing "Thanks in advance" on faxes and e-mails sent across the world and it was only a matter of time before it became a perfectly acceptable and widely used expression in English, also used by native speakers. IMHO, language is all about the frequency of occurrence and statistical probabilities in distinct contexts. If you want to be understood, you should always follow a descriptive - not a prescriptive - grammar.

  144. Re:Understanding rules looser than style guide rul by NotDrWho · · Score: 1

    "illiterate Marxists"

    BAND NAME! Called it!

    --
    SJW's don't eliminate discrimination. They just expropriate it for themselves.
  145. Re:Stupid question by Godwin+O'Hitler · · Score: 1

    The English most of the world learns is called EFL. There is a profession called TOEFL, a subject called TEFL, translations intended for non-native speakers are often required to be in EFL.
    EFL is neither EN_US nor EN_UK. It's "English as a foreign language". Listen to a teacher speaking EFL and you'll see what I mean.

    --
    No, your children are not the special ones. Nor are your pets.
  146. Re:The only pure English is the language of Beowol by Andy_R · · Score: 1

    Rather badly, I guess?

    --
    A pizza of radius z and thickness a has a volume of pi z z a
  147. Re:A Language With No Rules... by friesofdoom · · Score: 1

    Most British writing style guides advise against the Oxford comma.
    "Thus" and "so" both work in his sentence as they are both being used as synonyms for "therefore" and meaning "as a result".

  148. Re:Understanding rules looser than style guide rul by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1

    An addendum:

    When a looser knot comes untied, loosing whatever the knot was binding, one might lose whatever that object was when the knot came loose. Do not use loose knots or you might lose whatever had been knotted up.

    Next lesson: American politics.

    The political situation in the USA can be described in simple terms of Left and Right. Those on the Left believe going to the right is wrong, and the left is right. Those on the Right know that going to the left is wrong, and after discarding all of that, what is left must be right. So it is all a muddle. This is particularly bad for USA politicians, since they each want to be right in the middle of it all, and not a one of them wants to be left out of the squabbles. Fortunately for us, English allows left and right to assume context-dependent overloadings, such that left may be right and right may be wrong, and whatever remains after an operation is completed is left, which may or may not be right in the grander scheme of things. So thanks to the versatility of English expression it is easy to understand American politics.

    Once English becomes the universal language, the World will be in peace. Or maybe in pieces.

  149. Re:A Language With No Rules... by psmears · · Score: 1

    "So being lazy and using improper English is impolite to the extreme."

    Motes and beams, people! If you're going to moan about "improper" English, it's best not to make lots of errors yourself: - you started your sentence with "So". The word you ought to have used was "Thus". - you missed out the comma that should have followed the "So" - the expression is "in the extreme", not "to the extreme" - even had you used "in the extreme", it would still have made for an awkward and inelegant sentence, compared to the obvious alternate of "... is extremely impolite."

    Do you have a credible source for any of these so-called rules? In particular:

  150. Re:A Language With No Rules... by tnk1 · · Score: 1

    You don't need recordings of 17th Century English to use. Analyzing poetry, for instance, is one method of working that out, as it was meant to be read in a way where sounds and word pronunciations would matter. There are likely other textual methods based on how speech was recorded.

    Linguistics is a real science, and there are some pretty smart people doing it.

  151. Re:A Language With No Rules... by NotDrWho · · Score: 1

    Even now we're suffering from the conflicting between modern society and historical rules of English grammar. For example, there is no gender-neutral, third-person, singular pronoun. This is no problem for English users before the mid-20th century, of course. They just used "he" for everything, because fuck women. But with changing mores of gender-equality, now we're stuck with the awkward "he or she." So English is likely to change again on this. Either "they" will become an accepted singular pronoun, or "it" will become acceptable for people, or some new pronoun will be created.

    --
    SJW's don't eliminate discrimination. They just expropriate it for themselves.
  152. Re:A Language With No Rules... by shilly · · Score: 1

    Who said anything about rules? That's the whole point, it's a question of taste. I'm not the one venerating Strunk & White et al here, I'm the one calling out the hypocrisy of doing so while not sticking to their standards.

    However, I can promise you that professional writers will not start a written sentence in this context with "So" in place of "Thus".

    On "in the extreme", you've got yourself muddled. As you say, "in the extreme" is a perfectly valid phrase; "to the extreme", which is what the OP used, is not. There is the phrase, "to take X to extremes", but this is not the sense intended by the OP.

  153. Re:Stupid question by Whorhay · · Score: 1

    A dictionary is not a book about rules. It of course does have some rules of its own so that it can define ways to pronounce the words it describes. The entire point of a dictionary is to give meaning to the words in use by a society. If a dictionary does not define the words in common use, or some other historical time period, then what is its use?

    A word may start as an abbreviation for something, LOL being a particularly interesting example. The purpose of LOL in online conversations started as a way to express a sense of amusement at something, and abbreviates the phrase Laughing Out Loud, which is probably an exageration most of the time anyways, but it worked. At some point though younger generations of people have started using the abbreviation as an actual word in regular conversation as a means of vocalising their sense of amusement at something at a threshold prior to actually laughing out loud about whatever it is that is being discussed. I often teach a class of teenagers from all different backgrounds and every one of them uses LOL as a word.

  154. Re:A Language With No Rules... by psmears · · Score: 1

    but for example the american A in words like "cat" and "path" is historic, unlike the British pronunciations which match the a in "father"

    You make some interesting points, but you clearly have some very strange ideas about British pronunciation :) For example, the vowel in "cat" (in "standard" British English - what, for example, most announcers would use on the BBC) is nothing like the vowel in "father". And many British accents are rhotic, too!

  155. no comment by Falos · · Score: 1

    >Whatever is in general use in a language is for that reason grammatically correct.

    THEN IF IT WASN'T IN GENERAL USE IT WAS FUCKING WRONG

    "Incorrect", "Improper", whatever.

    I'm also looking at you, UD.

  156. Re:A Language With No Rules... by operagost · · Score: 1

    You don't need recordings. We know about linguistics based on poetry.

    --

    Gamingmuseum.com: Give your 3D accelerator a rest.
  157. Re:A Language With No Rules... by blue+trane · · Score: 1

    The ambiguity is nearly always resolved by the context.

    You might stop and spend some brainpower correcting the usage in your head, but that's more a consequence of your having learned an arcane spelling, one that is no longer necessary.

    It's a signal that "official" English spelling is getting further and further away from phonetics, and that is holding back the language's natural development .

    That's my quick two-cents'-worth argument.

  158. Re:A Language With No Rules... by srmalloy · · Score: 3, Interesting

    I think non-native English users make all sorts of errors, while native speakers make the constistent errors that are all over the internet.

    The errors that people for whom English is a second language mage cannot properly be characterized as 'all over'; they are almost invariably errors that result from adults, who lack the flexibility to learn new languages readily, running past the end of their knowledge of English and by reflex applying the grammar and lexicon rules of their own language to English. Where there have been populations that spoke another language that became integrated into the English-speaking population -- the Welsh, Irish, Scots, and Vikings, among others -- aspects of grammar from their own languages got absorbed into English, cases where English grammar were overly complicated got elided. For example, Celtic languages have a 'meaningless do' -- where, in other Germanic languages you would say 'saw you him today?', in Welsh it would be 'did you see him today?'; similarly, nouns lost the forest of cases, genders, and plurals that other Germanic languages retained. And this ignores the vocabulary changes from words the speakers of other languages brought; for example, the perfectly good 'ingang' has long since been buried by the Norman French 'entrance', while other Anglo-Saxonisms got relegated to a 'lower-class' status by French and Latinate words by association with the social class that used them -- 'ask', 'question', and 'interrogate', for example, or 'quick' vs. 'rapid', 'look' vs. 'regard', 'daze' vs. 'stupefy', 'room' vs. 'chamber', 'learning' vs. 'erudition'.

    "The problem with defending the purity of the English language is that English is about as pure as a cribhouse whore. We don’t just borrow words; on occasion, English has pursued other languages down alleyways to beat them unconscious and rifle their pockets for new vocabulary." -- James D. Nicoll

  159. Re:A Language With No Rules... by DamnOregonian · · Score: 1

    Apologize? Now, that's not how the Queen spells it, is it mate?
    Hoser, or self-loathing American?

  160. Re:A Language With No Rules... by DamnOregonian · · Score: 1

    Also possibly a Canuck, they too forsake the Queen's spelling of apologise.

  161. You can keep telling yourself that. by OrangeTide · · Score: 1

    The grammatical rules invoked by pedants aren’t real rules of grammar at all.

    You can keep telling yourself that when you're sitting in a Nazi Grammar Prison.

    --
    “Common sense is not so common.” — Voltaire
  162. There sure is "Professional English" by Theovon · · Score: 1

    When you're hanging out with your friends, in person or online, you can use the English language any way you want. Seriously, I don't care.

    But if you want to write something that is meant to be professional, where you expect some respect, then English has a set of rules for you to follow. The rules are an arbitrary consequence of history, but exactly what the rules are doesn't matter. What matters is having SOME kind of standard for common communication. There's no reason red should mean "stop." We just accept that as a convention, and if you don't follow it, you're going to crash. By having these common language conventions, it aids in clear communication that reduces ambiguity, and clear commuication has self-evident value in in science, journalism, politics, diplomacy, and countless other areas.

  163. Re:Understanding rules looser than style guide rul by penandpaper · · Score: 1

    Hear here.

  164. Re:A Language With No Rules... by jklovanc · · Score: 1

    I wonder how many people missed your meaning. The usual phrase is "I couldn't care less". As in I give no care at all. Saying "I could care less" is saying there is a level of care lower that my current level of care therefore I care. So many people get it wrong.

  165. Re:A Language With No Rules... by jez9999 · · Score: 1

    So could I!

  166. Re:A Language With No Rules... by jc42 · · Score: 1

    ...is no Language.

    On the contrary; the lack of (legally enforceable) rules is one of the major reasons that English has become the world's main language for most technical uses.

    Some years back, I read a good explanation of this by a French researcher, who explained why he published all his papers in English rather than French, and why his group in France used English as their "working" language. His explanation was that, in French, l'Académie Française is the government body in Paris that has the power to set and enforce the standards for the French language. The problem is that in his specialty, as in any technical specialty, it's important that the specialty develop a body of precise technical terms that is clearly understood by the others in the specialty. The major way of doing this is normally to take terms in the general language, and restrict their meaning in the technical jargon. Secondarily, words may be borrowed from other language, or new terms just made up. However, in French the Académie has the legal power to override them, declare their papers to be nonstandard French, block their publication, etc. This potentially makes it difficult for the specialists to develop a precise, unambiguous terminology that they all understand. Government bureaucrats who don't understand the specialty have veto power of their technical terminology.

    The English language, however, has no such legal body in any country. This gives English-using researchers, theoreticians, engineers, etc. to discuss issues amongst themselves, and develop their technical jargon as their subject requires. New discoveries can lead to changes in terminology without the permission of the bureaucrats. So, for effective communication among specialists in a technical field, English gives them the freedom to develop jargon that fits their needs, and revise their terminology as the need arises.

    If English (most likely of the American variety ;-) were to establish an enforceable set of rules, it would end this technical usefulness, and would eventually push for a shift to a different language without such restrictions.

    The followups to this explanation included a number of comments from people with lots of other native language, who all basically agreed with the writer, and said that their field did the same thing.

    (OTOH, I had a math prof in college who learned Rumanian, because about half the people in his specialty were in Romania, and published their preliminary papers locally in their native language. They published their main papers in English, but he wanted to follow their local discussions. He already read French and Italian, so it wasn't difficult to pick up a new "degenerate Latin" language. There are a number of other subject areas that have similar situations. Others here can probably comment on other fields with a similar mix of English and one or more local languages.)

    --
    Those who do study history are doomed to stand helplessly by while everyone else repeats it.
  167. Re:A Language With No Rules... by Coren22 · · Score: 1

    You looser!

    --
    APK likes to ask for responses to the same things over and over. Maybe he just likes the responses?
  168. The only proper dictionary is .... by Dareth · · Score: 1

    The only proper dictionary is ....the Scrabble Dictionary.

    --

    I only look human.
    My mother is a halfling and my dad is an ogre, so that makes me an Ogreling
  169. Like Vampire Weekend would say... by cloud.pt · · Score: 1

    "Who gives a f*ck about an Oxford comma", let alone a your/you're mistake. The single most beautiful thing about English is that when it is verified, everyone will know aliens exist. Probably through a Stephen Hawking tweet

  170. Re:A Language With No Rules... by Headw1nd · · Score: 1

    I looked up "loathe to admir", It brought up something about Bosnian given names. Perhaps if I looked up loathe to admit... No, I am sure a flawless individual like yourself would never misspell a word in a post, nay, the very sentence, that attacks someone for using a highly similar homophone.

  171. My hovercraft is full of eals by jfdavis668 · · Score: 1

    I will not buy this record, it is scratched.

  172. Re:The only pure English is the language of Beowol by Quirkz · · Score: 1

    Just like it's spelled.

  173. Re:The only pure English is the language of Beowol by snowgirl · · Score: 1

    English was actually degrading before the Norse and Norman invaders...

    --
    WARNING! This girl exceeds the MAXIMUM SAFE standards established by the FDA for BRATTINESS
  174. Re: A Language With No Rules... by blue+trane · · Score: 1

    "How would a physics work if the rules of physics changed at the whim of the physicist?"

    Isn't that what happens? Newton's laws are changed by Einstein? Higgs creates his boson on a whim, and other physicists follow along, and eventually find some data they say supports that whim? Aren't there other whims that could also account for the observations? Why select Higgs's? Popularity? Social pressure?

  175. Comment removed by account_deleted · · Score: 1

    Comment removed based on user account deletion

  176. Re:A Language With No Rules... by NotDrWho · · Score: 1

    "One" has a very formal connotation. And it doesn't work as a substitute for he/she/him/her because it doesn't refer to a specific individual. Consider the following sentences. "Jim went down to the market. One bought some milk there."

    --
    SJW's don't eliminate discrimination. They just expropriate it for themselves.
  177. Re: Understanding rules looser than style guide ru by blue+trane · · Score: 1

    Include a definition entry under 'lose' that refers to 'loose' as a variant spelling, and vice versa. Context usually makes it clear, because the misspelling is based on the spoken sound which doesn't need to be spelled to be understood.

  178. Re:Mod parent down for outrageous hypocrisy by blue+trane · · Score: 1

    I wonder what kind of toxic assets he's negotiating about selling off of whose balance sheet?

  179. Re:A Language With No Rules... by blue+trane · · Score: 1

    Better example: "Someone goes down to the market. They buy? He buys? He/She buys? He or she buys? It buys?

    I accept any of those. Call them in "free variation". Myself, I'd use "they" or "he".

  180. Re:A Language With No Rules... by blue+trane · · Score: 1

    It's impolite to the max! Yo!

  181. Re:A Language With No Rules... by Grishnakh · · Score: 1

    I have to agree. In fact, it's astounding how many times I see a message from some non-native English speaker apologizing for his "bad English" when his message is perfectly comprehensible and almost entirely error-free, and certainly far better than many lazy Americans (I say that as an American, BTW) who are too stupid or lazy to use proper spelling, know the difference between they're/their/there, know the difference between it's and its, know how to use an apostrophe, etc. It's pathetic.

    Bloody Americans who don't know the difference between their, there and they're never apologize for it.

    What's interesting here is that you've used two Britishisms ("bugger off" earlier, and "bloody" here), and then you spelled "apologize" in the American way...

  182. Re: A Language With No Rules... by BevanFindlay · · Score: 1

    This is exactly the problem: yes, living languages are subject to change, yes, prescriptivists will always look quaint when viewed later, but there is the point that language is syntax to convey meaning. If you don't have common, comprehensible syntax, you by definition cannot have comprehensible communication (try and read poor Engrish or some people's txt speak and tell me if you can get unambiguous meaning out of it). It's a bigger problem, I think, with written rather than spoken language, as you can always ask for clarification when having a conversation (not so with uni-directional speech such as speeches or television though). There is a reason that lawyers are pedantic with grammar in contracts: when errors in meaning have significant monetary impacts, you need a very tight definition.

    As noted by the parent, programmers must be extremely precise with their syntax, because computers cannot "guess" (my exposure to software development is also one of the reasons why I tend to be a grammar pedant - especially with punctuation). If you need precision, you need clearly-defined rules; sure, "free-form" grammar and spelling are fine where meaning isn't important (social chatting for example), but not when meaning really matters (academic paper style guides enforce particular rules - it's arguable whether there are the "most correct" forms, but it gives a consistency that ensures clear communication of meaning).

    As an aside, seeing as verbal communication with machines is on the rise, is verbal precision going to take on more importance just to get computers to understand us, or will computers be trained specifically to deal with our messy linguistic ambiguities?

  183. Re:A Language With No Rules... by rubycodez · · Score: 1

    Many of what we call "dead languages" didn't die at all, they became the languages we use today or influenced them in ways we don't even totally know.

    And as for your PDP-11 joke, it isn't dead at all: http://www.theregister.co.uk/2...

  184. Re:A Language With No Rules... by rubycodez · · Score: 1

    You seriously ask, a college educated slashdotter such as yourself who knows the difference, vs. the ghetto moma with three children by three different men not making distinction? Who is education favoring, ye olde virgin?

  185. Re:A Language With No Rules... by rubycodez · · Score: 1

    Evolved, the VAX CISC instruction set was based on it

  186. Re:Thanks to 'Indlish', now we have 'Do the needfu by HornWumpus · · Score: 1

    In America 'Doing the needful' means teaching your foreign replacements how to do your job incredibly wrongly. e.g. When the backup software asks for a second tape, just feed it the first one again.

    --
    John McAfee 'It was like that time I hired that Bangkok prostitute; to do my taxes, while I fucked my accountant'
  187. Re:A Language With No Rules... by mcswell · · Score: 1

    FORTRAN is a counterexample. It has evolved, and it therefore must be fit. For something. I'm sure. I just can't remember what.

  188. Re: Understanding rules looser than style guide ru by mcswell · · Score: 1

    "reasonably correct English": You're missing the point: there is no such thing as correct/ incorrect English (at least for native speakers). There is such a thing as standard English, but it is no more _correct_ than driving on the right-hand side of the road.

  189. Re:The only pure English is the language of Beowol by mcswell · · Score: 1

    Chaucer's been blogging of late: http://houseoffame.blogspot.co...

  190. Re:Stupid question by mcswell · · Score: 1

    "...what then determines proper use?" Who sayeth that there be such a thing? Of a truth, thou dost not speak it.

  191. Re:A Language With No Rules... by shutdown+-p+now · · Score: 1

    Mistakes around "then"/"than", "its"/"it's" and similar cases of homophones, are actually more common for native English speakers. That's because non-native speakers usually learn the language in a formal environment, where spelling is learned alongside pronunciation, so the difference is readily visible. Furthermore, such learning is usually done by establishing equivalents in one's native language, and they are usually not homophones. So when you speak English by first forming non-English sentences in your head, and then translating them (which, again, is a hallmark of formal language learning), the chances of making such a mistake are pretty low because the difference is prominent on the very first step.

    OTOH, native speakers learn by listening, and only much later do they learn the spelling and the underlying structure.

  192. Proper English, Not in the USA by lsatenstein · · Score: 1

    The US has distorted English so badly, that some US authors have to hire off-shore editors to insure legibility of understanding. Organizational flow of the text is fine, but sentence construction is the pits.

    Do you write on a disk or do you write onto a disk? I stand on the floor and using my computer I write onto it's disk. Do I go in the house, or do I go into the house?

    There are 4 cars from which to choose, or 4 chars to choose from?

    --
    Leslie Satenstein Montreal Quebec Canada
  193. Professor Higgins by tmjva · · Score: 1

    Pygmalion or My Fair Lady anyone?

    He could tell what street of London you were from based on a just a few words.

    --
    Tracy Johnson
    Old fashioned text games hosted below:
    http://empire.openmpe.com/
    BT
  194. A Language With No Rules... by TiggertheMad · · Score: 1

    "How would a physics work if the rules of physics changed at the whim of the physicist?"

    Isn't that what happens? Newton's laws are changed by Einstein? Higgs creates his boson on a whim, and other physicists follow along, and eventually find some data they say supports that whim? Aren't there other whims that could also account for the observations? Why select Higgs's? Popularity? Social pressure?

    No that isn't correct. When Einstein proposes a change to the observed laws of physics, there is an absolute truth to test it against. (Reality). The whim of the scientist is irrelevant, if it cannot be successfully tested it doesn't get added to the 'laws' of physics.Y can explain something any fashion you want to, but it has to pass the test.

    --

    HA! I just wasted some of your bandwidth with a frivolous sig!
  195. Re:A Language With No Rules... by aestrivex · · Score: 1

    "Between you and I" is gramatically correct. The "political correctness" that you speak of, I agree of course was innovated away in the language hundreds of years ago (but you can still see this in other indo european languages where "Between you and I" is the only sensible way to say it. But there's nothing ungrammatical about the statement you are pointing out.

  196. Surely thou jests by eric_harris_76 · · Score: 1

    Every improvement in grammar was initially "ungrammatical". (And don't get me started about "made up words".)

    --
    There's no time like the present. Well, the past used to be.
  197. Re: A Language With No Rules... by rubycodez · · Score: 1

    Unlike eurotrash, who use intelligent sounding sentences to reveal their vacuous minds having only addiction to fashion and "must be seen here" places as driving forces; though the females also have the anorexia hobby going.

  198. Re:A Language With No Rules... by blue+trane · · Score: 1

    There are many possible ways to explain "Reality". Einstein's is just one. The ether theories have not been disproved but simply disdained. Yves Couder's experiments can be taken as support for ether theory (he doesn't go that far, but Bohm does).

    So current models are just whims. There are other possibilities that haven't caught on for purely social reasons. Similar to language rules...

  199. Rules? What rules? by MoarSauce123 · · Score: 1

    Spelling is illogical within English and spelling of the same word is different depending on the region in the world you happen to be. Comma rules are almost non-existent and the few that there are make no sense and are often very vague. Why are single words at the beginning of a sentence to be separated by a comma, but an infinitive structure within a sentence is not despite that making the sentence way more readable? And pronunciation? Makes no sense either! Why do "pipe" and "recipe" not rhyme? English in itself has substantial logical flaws that vary by region, so why get bent out of shape for not using "proper English"? As a matter of fairness, all other languages have their pointless oddities as well.