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The Evolution of Language

TaeKwonDood writes "We all know language has evolved but mathematicians are trying to take how it has changed in the past to predict what it will be like in the future." From the article: "Mathematical analysis of this linguistic evolution reveals that irregular verb conjugations behave in an extremely regular way -- one that can yield predictions and insights into the future stages of a verb's evolutionary trajectory," says Lieberman, a graduate student in applied mathematics in Harvard's School of Engineering and Applied Sciences and in the Harvard-MIT Division of Health Sciences and Technology, and an affiliate of Harvard's Program for Evolutionary Dynamics. "We measured something no one really thought could be measured, and got a striking and beautiful result.""

528 comments

  1. Of course it's all about the verbs by SpaceLifeForm · · Score: 3, Funny

    It's fuck that, suck this, screw that.

    Verbs, verbs, verbs, that's all anyone thinks about.

    --
    You are being MICROattacked, from various angles, in a SOFT manner.
    1. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by JoshJ · · Score: 4, Funny

      Fuck is actually much more than a verb, you dumb fuck. Now fucking give me the money or I'll blow your fucking brains out.

    2. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by fractoid · · Score: 1

      This seems to be an appropriate time to link the Penny Arcade "The F Word" animation. But I can't find a link. :/

      --
      Rampant carbon sequestration destroyed the Dinosaurs' tropical paradise. I'm here to help repair the damage.
    3. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by Nimey · · Score: 3, Funny

      The fucking fucker's fucking fucked. Fuck!

      --
      Hail Eris, full of mischief...

      E pluribus sanguinem
    4. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by Heddahenrik · · Score: 1

      In the future it will be that I fuck now, yesterday I feck and I'm fooken.

      Interesting that the article never mentioning something about verbs going the other way. Guess that doesn't happen in English at the moment. But in Swedish there seems to be less uncommon with things like "simma, sam, summit" (swim, swam, swum), maybe due to English influence, or maybe because that word is getting more common again.

    5. Re: Of course it's all about the verbs by Black+Parrot · · Score: 1

      It's fuck that, suck this, screw that. Reminds me of a funny line by one of the veterans in the recent Ken Burns documentary on WWII - "In a war you forget all your adjectives except one or two."
      --
      Sheesh, evil *and* a jerk. -- Jade
    6. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by aztec+rain+god · · Score: 1

      Get thee to a fuckery!

      --
      Sig cannot be found.
    7. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by Daengbo · · Score: 0, Offtopic

      Fuck! The use of "fuck" as an ejaculation. How appropriate!

    8. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by selvan · · Score: 1

      You're right, it's much more than just a verb. Osho explains it beautifully in this video here.

    9. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by Hal_Porter · · Score: 5, Funny

      In the UK the Daily Telegraph, a right wing newspaper quoted someone as calling someone else a "F*cking Nigger". The Guardian, a left wing paper, said that they should have written it as as "Fucking N**ger" which I thought was funny.

      --
      echo -e 'global _start\n _start:\n mov eax, 2\n int 80h\n jmp _start' > a.asm; nasm a.asm -f elf; ld a.o -o a;
    10. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by nospam007 · · Score: 1

      It's fuck that, suck this, screw that.

      Verbs, verbs, verbs, that's all anyone thinks about.
      ___________

      I prefer Esperanto, first because no irregular verbs and second, it doesn't evolve, it was created by intelligent design.:-)

    11. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by evanbd · · Score: 4, Interesting

      In fact, Fuck, as in "Fuck you," isn't even properly a verb: English sentences without overt grammatical subjects. To summarize: "Fuck you or I'll take away your teddy bear" is not grammatically correct; neither is "Describe and fuck communism."

      And, of course, XKCD has something to say about computational linguists.

    12. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      In the future it will be that I fuck now, yesterday I feck and I'm fooken.

      Um, actually, TFA states the other way around, toward regularization of irregular verbs, at least in English, that is.

      BTW, "fock" or even "fawk" sounds somehow more proper for past tense then "feck"...
    13. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      abso-fucking-lutely!

    14. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by dintech · · Score: 3, Funny

      You're forgetting this is the evolution of language. Don't you mean "The fracking fracker's fracking fracked. Frack!"?

    15. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Fucking fucker is fuceked.

    16. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by madbawa · · Score: 1

      Shut your fucking face uncle-fucker...

    17. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by ultranova · · Score: 1

      To summarize: "Fuck you or I'll take away your teddy bear" is not grammatically correct; neither is "Describe and fuck communism."

      Well, the first sentence should be "Fuck yourself or I'll take away your teddy bear", but I can't see any error in the second one. While having sex with an ideology is likely to be physically impossible, the sentence itself appears quite correct; it is simply a shorter form of "Describe communism and fuck communism".

      --

      Forget magic. Any technology distinguishable from divine power is insufficiently advanced.

    18. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by Urkki · · Score: 1

      See, that's just the problem with English language... Not enough swear words.

    19. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by xarak · · Score: 1


      "Verb" is a four-letter word.

      --
      Atheism is a non-prophet organisation
    20. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by damaki · · Score: 1

      I prefer the original Monthy Python stuff. Well, it's on youtube but it's too illegal to drop the link here...

      --
      Stupidity is the root of all evil.
    21. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by hitmark · · Score: 1

      bah, why not completely correct (in politics and moral): "F*cking N**ger", or just be direct about it: "Fucking Nigger"...

      --
      comment first, facts later. http://chem.tufts.edu/AnswersInScience/RelativityofWrong.htm
    22. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by BadanTheUgly · · Score: 0

      That doesn't sound like the Guardian. In fact, they printed this complete phrase, without asterisks on at least 19 occasions in the last 5 years: http://browse.guardian.co.uk/search?site=guardian&search=%22fucking%20nigger%22
      The version with the asterisks doesn't show up on a search at all.

    23. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by GeckoX · · Score: 1

      Ehh? It's too illegal to drop a link, but it's on youtube?
      If it can be linked, link away. If someone cares, they'll send a cease and desist to where it is actually hosted.

      Anyways, think most of us know it by heart ;)

      --
      No Comment.
    24. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by Stefanwulf · · Score: 1

      Which is strange, because in almost every other area the English language is amazingly diverse, offering what I've read is a particularly high number of options when choosing the vocabulary used to express a particular idea.

      I know it's possible to fashion very creative and effective curses in English, drawing from the Latin and the Germanic sides of the linguistic history, as well as the vocabulary from other languages that it so readily absorbs. I wonder why such things aren't commonly done, or why they fell out of style? Or perhaps most people throughout history cursed with a few simple words, and my view of the past is being skewed by the writings of a somewhat wordy educated elite.

      In Quebec and in some Cajun French speaking areas, I've heard people toss out some fairly complicated religious profanities. Does anyone know of other modern languages whose speakers commonly curse in diverse or creative ways?

    25. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by Kap'n+Koflach · · Score: 1

      Comment heard from Soldier, to his CO, during a test of some software:
      "The fucking thing is fucking fucked, sir!"

    26. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I haven't read all the lengthy article, but what about the argument that "fuck you" is subjunctive?

      As in:
      Fuck you.
      *I told you to fuck you.

      Versus:
      God save the queen. [clearly in the subjunctive, no?]
      *I told you to god save the queen.

    27. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by myvirtualid · · Score: 1

      "Fuck you or I'll take away your teddy bear" is not grammatically correct

      Fucking prescriptivist.

      --
      I'm here EdgeKeep Inc.
    28. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by frieko · · Score: 1

      I think that's his point. The first sentence makes no sense, which means it's not a verb. Thus invalidating the second sentence as well. "Fuck" in the "fuck you" sense seems to have all the same properties as the entire phrase "I am displeased with". So "describe and I am displeased with communism"? Grammar-ologists out there (in other words, those of you that cringed when you saw "grammar-ologist") what is the term for a word that means the same as a phrase?

    29. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by MarkGriz · · Score: 1

      Only on a site for nerds would people be debating the grammatical correctness of 'Fuck you or I'll take away your teddy bear'
      instead of pointing out that "fuck you" and "teddy bear" are two groups of words that should probably never be used in the same sentence to begin with.

      --
      Beauty is in the eye of the beerholder.
    30. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by Cyberax · · Score: 1

      Ook? Ook ook ook, gook ook.

      Ook!

    31. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by ultranova · · Score: 2, Insightful

      "Fuck" in the "fuck you" sense seems to have all the same properties as the entire phrase "I am displeased with". So "describe and I am displeased with communism"?

      Hmm... But take the phrase "to fuck up". It doesn't have anything to do with being displeased, it just means that someone has just failed, and in a particularly spectacular way at that. So, "fuck communism" could also be interpreted "fuck up communism", or "make communism fail in a spectacular manner". So, the original sentence of "describe and fuck communism" could then be interpreted as "describe communism and make it fail in a spectacular way".

      --

      Forget magic. Any technology distinguishable from divine power is insufficiently advanced.

    32. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by shvytejimas · · Score: 1

      Russian. there are quite a few words equivalent to 'fuck' in weight, which allows for some pretty amusing multi-word constructs.

    33. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by MostAwesomeDude · · Score: 2, Funny

      Both of 'em have it wrong; "nigger" shouldn't be capitalized.

      --
      ~ C.
    34. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by SETIGuy · · Score: 1
      The subject in "Fuck you" is an understood "you" the same way it is in the sentence "Fuck me" or "Bite me." This is the standard English imperative form. The grammatically incorrect portion is the object of the verb, which would more properly be "yourself." However, in common usage, "Fuck yourself" is rarely uttered, and by that token "Fuck you" is proper English.

      The future imperative form "Go fuck yourself" is both gramatically correct and used in common speech.

    35. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by evanbd · · Score: 1

      Actually, the entire point of the paper I linked is that that interpretation is incorrect.

    36. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by Rog-Mahal · · Score: 1

      Let's face it, soon the English language is going to be reduced to 3-letter words and grunts. Listen to the latest rap single and you'll hear what I mean. We could just give up and adopt l33t...

    37. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by AP31R0N · · Score: 1

      As they say in Chicago... fuck you, you fucking fuck!

      --
      Utilizing the synergization of benchmark e-solutions to pre-workaround action items!
    38. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by tehcyder · · Score: 1

      In the UK the Daily Telegraph, a right wing newspaper quoted someone as calling someone else a "F*cking Nigger". The Guardian, a left wing paper, said that they should have written it as as "Fucking N**ger" which I thought was funny.
      I'd say it was pretty revealing, rather than funny.
      --
      To have a right to do a thing is not at all the same as to be right in doing it
    39. Re:Of course it's all about the verbs by M1FCJ · · Score: 1

      Meh... The French... Your mother was a hamster and your father smelt of elderberries!!! Pfffttttt!

  2. Bawstan Habah? by v_1_r_u_5 · · Score: 2, Interesting

    All I'd like to know is how in the hell did Boston become Bawstan and Chowder become Chowda? And what's with the cities around Massachusetts, anyway? Worcester is pronounced Wusta ... ?!?!? They haven't just evolved - they've completely morphed!

    1. Re:Bawstan Habah? by cez · · Score: 1
      there's something in the water... at least they still spell it the same. I'm trying to prevent my goddaughter from becoming an unfortunate victim of trans morphed vernaculars.


      OT, this article is pretty cool, but doesn't take into account the evolution of symbolic representation in language, and the r00tshell.com effect. STFU n00b.


      HAND =)

      --
      Walk with Music;
    2. Re:Bawstan Habah? by pyrrhonist · · Score: 5, Informative

      All I'd like to know is how in the hell did Boston become Bawstan and Chowder become Chowda?

      As a Massachusetts resident, I have no idear what happens to the ahs.

      What really cracked me up is the day they decided to rename, "Great Woods Performing Arts Center", to the, "Tweeter Center for the Performing Arts". It's like they tried to purposely add more ahs!

      "Hey Boston Guy, where's the concert?"
      "It's at the Tweetah Centah for the Performin' Ahts!"

      Worcester is pronounced Wusta ... ?!?!?

      It depends on the speaker. Sometimes its more like Wista. Either way it's usually followed most times by, "Spag's", as in, "If we're going to bother to go to that wretched hive of scum and villainy, Wista, we might as well stop at Spag's".

      They haven't just evolved - they've completely morphed!

      To the point where sometimes people don't understand the normal pronunciation!

      True story:

      One day I went to a, "Boston Market", with my coworker for lunch. On this particular day, we were unfortunate enough to be waited upon by a guy with a Southy accent so thick you'd swear he was an extra from, "Good Will Hunting".

      In case you're lucky enough to be from another country and have never encountered one of these abominations of cuisine, some explanation is in order. Boston Market is a fast food restaurant that sells mainly rotisserie-cooked poultry dishes with your choice of side. At Boston Market you can get a chicken dish that consists of a leg and thigh, which is called a, "Quarter Dark". This is the item that I was prepared to order.

      I am not originally from Massashusetts, and so my pronunciation of these two words are almost identical to anyone in the civilized world (not entirely, or that would be, "civilised world"). I approached the register and ordered:

      Me: "I would like a quarter dark, please."
      Him: "Excuse me?"
      Me (loudly): "A quarter dark, please."
      Him: "What?"
      Me: "QWAHTAH DAHK!!!"
      Him: "Oh, a qwahtah dahk..."

      At least, "job", isn't pronounced like, "jaerb".

      Yet.

      --
      Show me on the doll where his noodly appendage touched you.
    3. Re: Bawstan Habah? by Black+Parrot · · Score: 1

      All I'd like to know is how in the hell did Boston become Bawstan and Chowder become Chowda? And what's with the cities around Massachusetts, anyway? Worcester is pronounced Wusta ... ?!?!? What's funny is that some dialects drop a terminal -r, whereas other ones add a spurious one.
      --
      Sheesh, evil *and* a jerk. -- Jade
    4. Re:Bawstan Habah? by sheriff_cahill · · Score: 3, Funny

      Wanna see morphing? Come to Australia. Even we have trouble keeping track of the changes.

    5. Re:Bawstan Habah? by dwater · · Score: 1

      I think you'll find their pronunciation is more English (adjective).

      When I traveled the US, I noticed that the further west I was, the more differences there were between the language used where I was and English (as in from England). I guess that's to be expected.

      --
      Max.
    6. Re:Bawstan Habah? by UserGoogol · · Score: 1

      Worcester is taken from a city in England, and thus is due to the rather insane things that happened in the English language over the thosuands of years that the Midlands Worcester has been around for. Worcester doesn't seem so odd, though. It's just... slowly mashing the syllables together. War-cest-er, wah-cest-ah, wah-c'st-ah, wuhsta. (Although the rhotic "wuster" is catching on because the Boston accent is dying out.) When you combine city-names taken from England with city-names taken from Native American words, you get a fun hybrid of insanity.

      --
      "Never attribute to malice that which can be adequately explained by stupidity." -- Hanlon's Razor
    7. Re:Bawstan Habah? by Daengbo · · Score: 1

      Hilarious. Reminds me of my own story:
      I was a freshman in WUSTL and my best buddy Mark was from Boston. We were hitting on a couple of other freshmen, and I was pouring on the smooth (this is my recollection, so go with it, OK?). After a couple of good quips, I introduced myself, they introduced themselves, and my friend said "I'm Mahk."
      "What?" was their reply.
      "Mahhk," said Mark.
      "Come again?" they asked. Then he let out the most terrific sound. "Mahrrruurk." He sounded like he was retarded.
      I mean that seriously. My sister is severely mentally handicapped, and Mark sounded like he was heavily downs or something.

      The girls said nothing, turned around, and walked away.

      I'm pretty sure I punched him a couple of times over screwing that up.

      Now that I live in Korea, any fast food restaurant I go into requires me to say things like "Hembohgoh, prenchee praisu & Coku --lahgee." Language is what it is.

    8. Re:Bawstan Habah? by aproposofwhat · · Score: 1

      Added to which, the normal British English pronunciation is 'Wusta', anyhoo :P

      --
      One swallow does not a fellatrix make
    9. Re:Bawstan Habah? by CmdrGravy · · Score: 2, Informative

      The Worcester in the midlands is also pronounced Wuster, the only people who ask directions to War-ces-tah are Americans and Londoners, usually on route to Edin-burg. I think in the general most places, in the English Midlands, at least spelt -cester are pronounced in a similar way e.g. Alcester - Allster, Bicester - Bister, Gloucester - Gloster, Leicester - Lester, Towcester - Toaster apart from the inevitable exceptions - Cirencester although apparently this is still sometimes called sissitter.

    10. Re:Bawstan Habah? by LordSnooty · · Score: 1

      Laow-Bro-aw is my favourite - spelt Loughborough

    11. Re:Bawstan Habah? by Daimanta · · Score: 1

      QWAHTAH DAHK!!! Can you translate that for me? I don't speak Klingon.
      --
      Knowledge is power. Knowledge shared is power lost.
    12. Re:Bawstan Habah? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Actually, that's Luffburra.
      Or Looga Burrooga if you're taking the P.

    13. Re: Bawstan Habah? by $RANDOMLUSER · · Score: 1

      Exactly. They put thier socks in the "draw", but with pencil and paper they "drawer".

      --
      No folly is more costly than the folly of intolerant idealism. - Winston Churchill
    14. Re:Bawstan Habah? by CmdrGravy · · Score: 1

      We get a lot of "Gee, is this Straat - Ford, why does that sign say Berm-ing-HAAM" around here, when everyone knows it's pronounced Struff'ud, so we have to say "No my good man, you have arrived in Burmingum you must needs follow the signs for Lozells and there seek further advice from the good citizens you will find there."

    15. Re:Bawstan Habah? by digitig · · Score: 1

      "Ludge Brudge" in my day. Or "Low brow". But yes, Luffburra is the normal pronunciation.

      --
      Quidnam Latine loqui modo coepi?
    16. Re:Bawstan Habah? by tepples · · Score: 1

      Added to which, the normal British English pronunciation is 'Wusta', anyhoo :P Which follows directly from the pronunciations of the word "worse" and suffix "-ster". "Leicester" is more complicated, involving leveling of a diphthong. "Manchester" and "Rochester" escape the fate, I'm guessing because of the H; I guess it isn't so silent after all.
    17. Re:Bawstan Habah? by Freultwah · · Score: 1

      I keep wondering what's with the Americans making fun of non-rhotic accents. I mean, in GB, it's the predominant way, although in the north and Ireland your kilometrage might be a bit different. Next, someone'll start picking on some US regional dialect using the a: sound instead of æ in words like past, laugh, can't etc. It's fun to watch, but probably for entirely different reasons for me, since I never really understood why something standard on one side of the big water (and in Standard English taught in schools around the world) is is considered bad taste on the other.

    18. Re:Bawstan Habah? by jonadab · · Score: 1

      > At least, "job", isn't pronounced like, "jaerb".

      Ew. Go warsh your mouth out with soap.

      --
      Cut that out, or I will ship you to Norilsk in a box.
    19. Re:Bawstan Habah? by u38cg · · Score: 1

      The pronunciation of Worcester as Wooster is English, and goes back to before the Great Vowel Shift. Quite a lot of English towns mong together 'ces', though where the 'r' went to is anyone's guess.

      --
      [FUCK BETA]
    20. Re:Bawstan Habah? by Chrisq · · Score: 1

      My favourite is happisburgh (haysbru)

    21. Re:Bawstan Habah? by locofungus · · Score: 1

      Worcester is pronounced Wusta ... ?!?!? They haven't just evolved - they've completely morphed!

      The pronunciation probably dates back to before there was written English.

      Towcester = toaster
      Gloucester = glosster
      Leicester = lester

      I think Towcester at least goes back to the stone age although the name has changed over the millenia.

      Then there are names like Featherstonehaugh-Cholmondeley = Fanshaw-Chumley (although I think the hyphenation is more a case of "Just think if a Featherstonehaugh married a Cholmondeley")

      St. John = sinjin http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Norman_St._John-Stevas
      Caius = keys http://www.cam.ac.uk/admissions/undergraduate/colleges/caius/
      Dalziel = deyell http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dalziel
      Menzies = mingiss http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sir_Menzies_Campbell

      Tim.

      --
      God said, "div D = rho, div B = 0, curl E = -@B/@t, curl H = J + @D/@t," and there was light.
    22. Re:Bawstan Habah? by Dragonslicer · · Score: 1

      For some reason, I still think Billerica is worse than Worcester.

    23. Re:Bawstan Habah? by CodeArtisan · · Score: 1

      Cirencester although apparently this is still sometimes called sissitter When I lived there, the locals just called it "Ciren".
    24. Re:Bawstan Habah? by Fieryphoenix · · Score: 1

      My wife is a Worcester girl. She found her Rs again shortly after moving to North Dakota. In the meantime, we had determined that, by and large, the Rs have been going to Texas.

    25. Re:Bawstan Habah? by UbuntuDupe · · Score: 1

      "Non-rhotic accent" is just a euphemism for "doesn't feel like pronouncing trailing r's, but will add them where they don't exist".

    26. Re:Bawstan Habah? by franksands · · Score: 1

      That's completely true. I had to work with an Australian for a couple weeks, and the pronunciation was really different at times. This reminds me of a very lame and politically incorrect joke:

      An australian goes to london, and is crossing the street nonchalantly, when a car screeched to a full stop. The driver, completely mad about the uncaring behaviour of the turist, gets out of the car and yells at him:
      -Did you come here to die?!?
      -No, I came here yestahdie.

      But the most different accent I've ever met, maybe because I learned english from a british school, and therefore am more used to it, was in Scotland. Seriously, I went to Glasgow and Edimburg. *everytime* I spoke with a waiter I had to ask him to repeat around 3 times before I could make any sense out of it.

    27. Re:Bawstan Habah? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Next, someone'll start picking on some US regional dialect using the a: sound instead of æ in words like past, laugh, can't etc.
      Actually, I don't think this is regional to the US. Some people from England pronounce it [æ]. I'm not sure where in England, since I'm not English, but I've heard it before. Further, the [æ] pronunciation used to be the standard all over; it was you across the pond who changed it, and AFAIK, it was only in the last century or two.

      But, about non-rhotic accents: to an American [or at least to me], they sound fine when British people or Aussies use them. They even sound okay coming from New York or New Jersey, at least most of the time. But when a Bostonian speaks with a thick accent, for whatever reason, it sounds like they're YELLING. Notice that the poster typed "QWAHTAH DAHK!!!" in capital letters. I suspect it's not just the non-rhotic accent, but also the changes in vowels (for example the [a:] as you've just mentioned) and further, the manifestation of the stereotype that Americans are kind of loud.
    28. Re:Bawstan Habah? by bograt · · Score: 1

      Very interesting post, but since this is a post about language, I'll allow myself a little Grammar Nazi snark:

      You don't need to put, "commas", around every phrase in quotes. It makes your sentences stilted and difficult to read.

    29. Re:Bawstan Habah? by SQLGuru · · Score: 1

      I would figure that hyphenated city names come about because of nearby locations growing so large that they eventually merge. Tampa-St. Pete's is probably close to that in the US. Other cases, where there was no consensus on the naming or where one was significantly dominant, you find that you use the name of the dominant one or another term altogether (many people say LA when they mean LA and the surrounding area).

      Layne

    30. Re:Bawstan Habah? by Freultwah · · Score: 1

      Wiki has some info on it. If stretched, it can also help explain the US tendency to go with æ (migration from poorer regions up north + Ireland). Then again, it does state that the Boston accent has a:, which was what I had in mind when I came up with the idea in the first place. "So they say culuh and lahst, they must be stupid." I don't know. I am not English, never even been to an English-speaking country, but languages intrigue me and it sounds silly to me to peg some dialects/accents as inferior to others. My language has three degrees of phoneme length, my girlfriend speaks a dialect that sometimes fails to use the overlong one, yet I rarely notice it and when I do, it's lovely and adds versatility to the language.

    31. Re:Bawstan Habah? by hobo+sapiens · · Score: 1

      Haha, good story. What is Spags, though?

      'At least, "job", isn't pronounced like, "jaerb".'
      Now, that's funny! Um, I think you mean Jorb! Or Jaorb! Or Jerb!

      --
      blah blah blah
    32. Re: Bawstan Habah? by UbuntuDupe · · Score: 1

      It's more like:

      a) Some dialects drop a terminal -r, AND add them where they don't exist. These are "non-rhotic".

      ex: I heah a good ideer.

      b) Other dialects pronounce terminal -r's, and DON'T add them where they don't exist. These are "rhotic".

      ex: I hear a good idea.

    33. Re:Bawstan Habah? by gstoddart · · Score: 1

      All I'd like to know is how in the hell did Boston become Bawstan and Chowder become Chowda? And what's with the cities around Massachusetts, anyway? Worcester is pronounced Wusta ... ?!?!?

      Worcester being pronounced "Wusta" probably comes from an older British pronunciation. Take, "worcestershire sauce" -- it's pronounced something like "worshter sauce" by most people, with about half of the letters not really factoring into how you say it.

      The complete lack of discernible Rs??? That one, I have no comment on. I'm a Canadian from Nova Scotia, so we used to get TV stations from Maine ("Dialing for Daahlla's" anyone?) -- that whole New England suppression of the R has never made sense. Probably an accent from way back that's been preserved/amplified.

      You want fun? Try to understand someone from rural Newfoundland!! In places, they speak with an Irish accent that hasn't existed in Ireland in a few hundred years. Get one of those guys drunk and wound up, and they'll talk so fast and incomprehensible that communication all but stops. :-P

      Cheers
      --
      Lost at C:>. Found at C.
    34. Re:Bawstan Habah? by zsau · · Score: 0

      The r's never made it to Boston. They died over in London. From London they lack of r's spread to most of England, New England and the South of the US, Australia, most of New Zealand, South Africa and a lot of the parts of Asia where English is spoken. So I dunno ... while there's probably more US speakers than speakers of other dialects, it's a little unfair on the rest of us to say we're uncivilised. (If I said "quarter dark" in isolation it'd probably sound like "coda doc" to you; much more like your "KWATAH DAHK" than the way you said "quarter dark". PS: I take no offence; I can smell a joke.)

      Also, you seem to be under the misconception that you put a comma before quotation marks. You don't. You put it before a direct quotation after a verb like "said", but normally you run them together. It depends on whether you pause while speaking.

      --
      Look out!
    35. Re:Bawstan Habah? by HeroreV · · Score: 1

      The dialect of English you're referring to is British English.

    36. Re:Bawstan Habah? by Kadin2048 · · Score: 1

      languages intrigue me and it sounds silly to me to peg some dialects/accents as inferior to others. Well, the languages or dialects themselves aren't "inferior," they take on identities based on the people who predominantly speak them. E.g., if you have a certain accent or dialect that's mostly spoken by immigrants or laborers without higher education, chances are over time it will develop a reputation as being a low-status marker. Conversely, the pronunciation, dialect, and accent used by cultural elites tends to be regarded as high-status.

      Generally, the language is used as an earmark of education, class, and background; it has very little meaning in the abstract sense. (Actually, I'd argue it has none at all; all languages are inherently arbitrary and none are really superior to any other, except perhaps in terms of technical vocabularies.)

      The difference between non-rhotic accents and the more common 'American English' pronunciations are not wholly dissimilar to the difference between Cockney and Received Pronunciation in the U.K. I suspect there are similar situations in other languages. (In many places there are 'rural accents' that have a definite cultural stigma associated with them, either currently or in the past. I've heard German definitely does.)

      Wikipedia has an interest article on Prestige dialects (which is different from prestige accents) with worldwide examples.
      --
      "Ladies and gentlemen, my killbot features Lotus Notes and a machine gun. It is the finest available."
    37. Re:Bawstan Habah? by theun4gven · · Score: 1

      The only people I hear call it Tampa-St. Pete are those from St. Pete and that is rare. Everywhere else it's either Tampa or Tampa Bay.

    38. Re:Bawstan Habah? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      What's interesting is that if you listen closely, people in Philadelphia still have a slight remnant of the English (UK) accent.

    39. Re:Bawstan Habah? by rrohbeck · · Score: 1

      Obligatory...
      Pahk the cah in the Hahwahd Yahd!

    40. Re:Bawstan Habah? by Matt+Perry · · Score: 1

      QWAHTAH DAHK!!!
      Can you translate that for me? I don't speak Klingon.
      I think it means, "today is a good day to die" which is what I'd be saying if I had to eat crappy fast food.
      --
      Slashdot: Failed Car Analogies. Amateur Lawyering. Anecdote Battles.
    41. Re:Bawstan Habah? by dwater · · Score: 1

      I'm not above responding to a troll :)

      Actually, it's English, plain and simple. You'll find that what they speak in other parts of the UK (or Britain) is quite different - at times, unintelligably so. To group them together unnecessarily is assinine.

      --
      Max.
    42. Re:Bawstan Habah? by HeroreV · · Score: 1

      Ok, I see what you mean, but that's not just "English". You could call it English English, Anglo-English, England English, etc, but there is no one true English dialect that deserves the title of "English".

    43. Re:Bawstan Habah? by dwater · · Score: 1

      'English' (noun) is just a shortened form of 'English language' and thus is English (adjective). English spoken in England is English, dialect spoken elsewhere (if they're different) aren't - they're dialects; eg US English, Canadian English, Australian English, Chinese English, Franglais etc. It's really quite simple.

      I consider using the term 'British English' to be part of the 'embrace and extend' of other countries, particularly the USA. Yes, the USA is truely the Microsoft of the English language.

      When a something is forked, you don't rename the original, you rename the new branch. Furthermore, if the original continues to change, it doesn't change it's name - it's still keeps the original name.

      So, yes, there is one English (though it's not a dialect) that deserves the title of 'English'. Strangely, that is English (noun and adjective).

      --
      Max.
    44. Re:Bawstan Habah? by dajak · · Score: 1

      This is different for languages that have a language authority: if there is a standard, there is also an objective way to measure performance of speakers relative to this standard. And obviously, if you can educate native speakers in the use of their own language, you may have an implicit standard. And even if you have the standard, it surprisingly isn't necessarily the most important prestige dialect, and the standard is not always modeled on a living prestige dialect.

      The standard for Dutch (basically derived from "biblical Dutch") for instance apparently takes a lot of input from Dutch from Brussels, Belgium, in the 16th century, but Brussels has changed into a French-speaking city in the following centuries, and this prestige dialect is now very dead. Now the dialects in certain rural areas around the major cities in the Netherlands are considered the closed matches to the standard, but these have no special prestige.

    45. Re:Bawstan Habah? by jtcm · · Score: 1

      As a Massachusetts resident, I have no idear what happens to the ahs.

      I found them! The Rs are hiding at the end of other words where they don't belong. "Sawr" for one, as in, "I went to the Tweetah Centah and sawr a great band." Or "lawr" as in "Buckle up in Massachusetts. It's the lawr!"

      Actually, we probably left the Rs in England when we emigrated so many years ago. Have you ever listened to the BBC?

      --
      @ASP.NET's parent-teacher meeting: "Little Johnny.NET is very bright, but he doesn't play well with others."
    46. Re:Bawstan Habah? by tehcyder · · Score: 1

      Worcester is pronounced Wusta ... ?!?!?
      This is more or less as we pronounce it in the UK (Wuss-tuh).
      --
      To have a right to do a thing is not at all the same as to be right in doing it
  3. So we'll be talking like this soon? by Inf0phreak · · Score: 1

    Larp no! Why the loomp would I be quinking of Gundam?

    --
    ________
    Entranced by anime since late summer 2001 and loving it ^_^
    1. Re:So we'll be talking like this soon? by flyingfsck · · Score: 1

      ...and the borogroves all slithy in the wabe.

      --
      Excuse me, but please get off my Pennisetum Clandestinum, eh!
  4. Hari Seldon... by beav007 · · Score: 3, Interesting

    ...is that you?

    1. Re:Hari Seldon... by geekboy642 · · Score: 1

      I was just thinking that. Really, a thorough understanding of language would be the first cornerstone to thoroughly understanding societies in a predictable way.

      --
      Just another "DOJ fascist authoritarian totalitarian bootlicker" -- Zeio
    2. Re:Hari Seldon... by kaizokuace · · Score: 1

      haha. I recently read foundation in my quest to read stuff I should have read long ago. Now i seem to get many more references on this damned site.

      --
      Balderdash!
    3. Re:Hari Seldon... by beav007 · · Score: 1
      For those who DON'T get it, Hari Seldon is the central figure of the Foundation series of Scifi books by Isaac Asimov.
      From the Wiki:

      The premise of the series is that scientist Hari Seldon spent his life developing a branch of mathematics known as psychohistory, a concept devised by Asimov and Campbell. Using the law of mass action, it can predict the future...
  5. I, for one... by exploder · · Score: 4, Funny

    am glad I getted the chance to welcome our new, regularly-conjugated overlords.

    --
    Yo dawg, I heard you like the Ackermann function, so OH GOD OH GOD OH GOD
    1. Re:I, for one... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      > I, for one, am glad I getted the chance to welcome our new, regularly-conjugated overlords.

      You fucking maded me roll on the floor laughing!

    2. Re:I, for one... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Remember Star Trek's Binars': W01010101010e would like to 101010101do some mainten10101010ance on your com010101010puter systems making them 101010101 faster and mo10101010re efficient!

      I think this is how people will talk in the near future. I really do look forward to getting cyberized. Finally my PC's can become apart of me as an extension and enhance my life even extend it into the virtual world. I'm just kidding! People will more likely talk like they did in "Idiocracy". The dumb shall breed the intelligent into extinction.

    3. Re:I, for one... by ingo23 · · Score: 1

      am glad I getted the chance to welcome our new, regularly-conjugated overlords. If you beed really glad, you haved to say it right
    4. Re:I, for one... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You fucking maked me roll on the floor laughing! There, fixed for you.
      (This post bringed to you by the future grammar-nazi squadron.)
  6. Easy- a lot of it will go by dbIII · · Score: 4, Funny

    I predict we will "loose" a lot of words and have them replaced by ones with similar spelling.

  7. As suggested by Mark Twain by Wizarth · · Score: 5, Funny

    For example, in Year 1 that useless letter "c" would be dropped to be replased either by "k" or "s", and likewise "x" would no longer be part of the alphabet. The only kase in which "c" would be retained would be the "ch" formation, which will be dealt with later. Year 2 might reform "w" spelling, so that "which" and "one" would take the same konsonant, wile Year 3 might well abolish "y" replasing it with "i" and iear 4 might fiks the "g/j" anomali wonse and for all.

    Generally, then, the improvement would kontinue iear bai iear with iear 5 doing awai with useless double konsonants, and iears 6-12 or so modifaiing vowlz and the rimeiniing voist and unvoist konsonants. Bai iear 15 or sou, it wud fainali bi posibl tu meik ius ov thi ridandant letez "c", "y" and "x" bai now jast a memori in the maindz ov ould doderez tu riplais "ch", "sh", and "th" rispektivili.

    Fainali, xen, aafte sam 20 iers ov orxogrefkl riform, wi wud hev alojikl, kohirnt speling in ius xrewawt xe Ingliy-spiking werld.

    1. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by wanderingknight · · Score: 3, Insightful

      Actually, written English hasn't changed much since the Middle Ages. It's the pronunciation the one that's changed a lot, and that's why us non-native English speakers are sometimes baffled by the incoherence of the English spelling.

    2. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Ethanol-fueled · · Score: 1

      Damn, I hope not. That "improvment" is like retard english or schizophrenic rambling.

    3. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Dachannien · · Score: 1

      Fainali, xen, aafte sam 20 iers ov orxogrefkl riform, wi wud hev alojikl, kohirnt speling in ius xrewawt xe Ingliy-spiking werld. I think I speak for us all when I say, OMGWTFBBQ.
    4. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Moridineas · · Score: 1

      In case you missed the subject line, it was a joke--by none other than Mark Twain.

    5. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Eli+Gottlieb · · Score: 1

      Actually, 'y' functions as a real consonant in words like "year", whereas 'i' only works as a vowel.

    6. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Repton · · Score: 5, Informative

      Actually, apparently this is widely misattrbuted to Mark Twain; it's actually from a letter by a guy named M. J. Shields.

      --
      Repton.
      They say that only an experienced wizard can do the tengu shuffle.
    7. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Moridineas · · Score: 1

      Interesting! I had always seen it attributed to Mark Twain.. learn something new every day.. thanks for the heads up!

    8. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by siddesu · · Score: 2, Interesting

      The trend for simplification is positively there, and the math is right -- the more complex and often-used it is, the bigger the pressure to simplify.

      Just look at them damned Chinese characters and the reform they underwent last century -- compare the characters used in Taiwan or Hong Kong, those in Japan (that were adopted after the Chinese simplified them once) and those that are used in China now (which were simplified gradually even more). The more them characters evolve, the more they look the same.

      Probably in the end it'll all end up where Korea is -- they have more or less given up on characters and switched to alphabet. Which is where English was back then ;)

    9. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by langelgjm · · Score: 4, Informative

      I'm not sure what you mean when you say "Middle Ages", but written English certainly did change quite a bit from the 8th century to the 16th century, and most people place the Middle Ages somewhere in there, if not starting before that. Here are some examples of the change:

      8th century - Beowulf, which is unreadable for modern English speakers.
      1066 - Norman conquest - Old French would have a massive influence on English. Introduction of lots of Latin roots into English.
      14th century - Chaucer, somewhat readable for modern English speakers with modernized spellings.
      16th century - Shakespeare, more or less readable for modern English speakers without much editing.


      Pronunciation of course also changed drastically, and this was reflected in orthography as well.

      --
      "Anyone who [rips a CD] is probably engaging in copyright infringement." - David O. Carson
    10. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by JoshJ · · Score: 1

      Japanese has a phonetic "alphabet" of sorts that they use when writing things that don't have a symbol, such as foreign words or placenames.
      http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Katakana

    11. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by RuBLed · · Score: 1

      As usual the response to your post should be..

      OH NOES NOT GERMAN...

    12. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by bishop32x · · Score: 1

      Interestingly enough TFA has the opposite correlation, the time it takes an irregular verb in English to become regular is inversely proportional to the square of it's frequency within usage.

    13. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by AoT · · Score: 1

      Did you read the article?

      The whole point is that the less commonly used irregular verbs are more likely to become regularized. It might be different with spelling, but I doubt we'll see much of it in print given the way we have standardized spelling over the past hundred or two hundred years.

    14. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by c_forq · · Score: 1

      Readable if the letters are reformatted I will give you, but have you ever tried reading material from the American Revolution that was written in cursive? Even in print the whole "s" looking a lot like an "f" thing at the beginning and middle of words gets real annoying, along with the goofy connector of "c" and "t" when they appear next to each other.

      --
      Computers allow humans to make mistakes at the fastest speeds known, with the possible exception of tequila and handguns
    15. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Chandon+Seldon · · Score: 1

      Can you give an example where globally replacing "y" with "i" would be ambiguous?

      --
      -- The act of censorship is always worse than whatever is being censored. Always.
    16. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Jimmy_B · · Score: 4, Informative

      The trend for simplification is positively there, and the math is right -- the more complex and often-used it is, the bigger the pressure to simplify.
      No, that is the OPPOSITE of what happens (and what this paper says)! The more often something is used, the LESS likely it is to be simplified. These simplifications aren't the result of someone deciding to change the way they speak; rather, they're the result of successive generations learning their parents' language imperfectly. If an irregular verb is used all the time, you have to learn it or you'll sound like an idiot. Thus, all native English speakers know all of the conjugations of 'to be'. On the other hand, if you only use an irregular verb twice in your lifetime, you probably won't remember its conjugation, so you'll fall back on general rules. When everyone does this, the regular conjugation becomes the standard.
    17. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0, Interesting

      The 's' in print looked a lot like an 'f' because it actually was an 'f'. It was a lot cheaper and easier than trying to get an 's' carved into a block.

    18. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      None of the following would be ambiguous (with the possible exception of Io at the beginning of a sentence), but their pronunciation would definately be non-obvious if we replaced Y with I...

      ion
      iodine
      iambic
      ian
      iota
      iowa
      Io (as in one of the moons of Jupiter)

    19. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by siddesu · · Score: 1

      oops -- thanks for correcting the point, it was a hasty submission.
      don't read too much into it.

    20. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      What makes Twain's idea really funny for Finns is that the "Bai iear 15 or sou, it wud fainali bi posibl tu meik".. part is pretty darn close to how finns would "write" english if they were writing it as it's pronounced..

    21. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by wanderingknight · · Score: 1

      Well, yeah, I was actually thinking in terms of the 14th century onwards. I wasn't actually talking about the Dark Age, more like the ending of the Middle Ages. Still, it's a heck of a long time for a language to remain unchanged in writing while changing the pronunciation so much.

    22. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I've always found this to be a stupid quote, as it uses a very obvious straw man fallacy.

      Better rules for cleaning up our goofy language:
      1) Consistent spelling for long/short vowels (e.g. single vowel is short form, double is long)
      2) Remove redundant c, x
      3) Remove all silent letters
      4) Replace unique pronunciations with the more common form.

      Just following these 4 rules, the above quote becomes:

      For eksampl, in Yeer 1 that uusles letr "c" woud bee dropd too bee replaasd eethr bii "k" or "s" and liikwiiz "x" woud noo longr bee part of the alfabet. The oonlee kaas in wich "c" woud bee reetaand woud be the "ch" formaashun, wich wil bee delt with laatr. Yeer 2 miit reform "w" speling, soo that "which" and "one" wud taak the saam konsenant, wiil Year 3 miit wel abolish "y" reeplaasing it with "i" and yeer 4 miit fiks the "g/j" anomalee wuns and for ol.

      Fiinalee, then, after sum 20 yeerz of orthagrafikl reeform, wee woud hav a lojikl, koheerent speling in uus thruuowt the Inglish speeking werld

      Wich, IMHO, isnt to bad...

    23. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by SurturZ · · Score: 1

      Actually, written English hasn't changed much since the Middle Ages. It's the pronunciation the one that's changed a lot, and that's why us non-native English speakers are sometimes baffled by the incoherence of the English spelling.


      Eh? Pray thee scribe thy missive again perchance.
    24. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by FlyingGuy · · Score: 1

      8th century - Beowulf, which is unreadable for modern English speakers.

      Was that in a cluster?

      --
      Hey KID! Yeah you, get the fuck off my lawn!
    25. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Jehosephat2k · · Score: 1

      It really depends on how you axed the question.

    26. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Actually, written English hasn't changed much since the Middle Ages. It's the pronunciation the one that's changed a lot, and that's why us non-native English speakers are sometimes baffled by the incoherence of the English spelling. Eh? Pray thee scribe thy missive again perchance. Did anyone fail to understand that sentence?
      I thought not.
    27. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Max+Littlemore · · Score: 4, Interesting

      16th century - Shakespeare, more or less readable for modern English speakers without much editing.

      The printing press was a major incentive to standardise spelling, but also let to one of the few problems translating/transcribing Shakespeare.

      Early fonts put a curl to the left on the bottom of the lower case "f" making it look a bit like a letter "s". Because s is much more common than "f", early printers would run out of esses before effs and would substitute an eff for an ess when neceffary.

      My dad has a reproduction of early prints of Shakspeare's plays and the Midsummer Nights Dream song "Where the bees suck, there suck I" is on one such page. This caused a bit of a stir backstage and had to be explained, apparently.

      --
      I don't therefore I'm not.
    28. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by greenguy · · Score: 1

      Thanks for pointing this out, and for bringing up the verb "to be." This is, by default, the oldest verb in any language (except perhaps Russian, which they tell me doesn't have it), and therefore the most irregular.

      Based on this, I have formulated the theory that "to be" is irregular in every language (that has it). In good scientific methodology, I am seeking out evidence to the contrary. Can anyone provide any?

      --
      What if I do the same thing, and I do get different results?
    29. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by GloomE · · Score: 1

      Finally, then, after some 20 year of orthographical reform, we would have a logical, coherent spelling in use throughout the English-speaking world.
      (Shouldn't that just be orthographic? Maybe we need grammar reform too?)

    30. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Insightful

      Yep. Handy for backwards compatibility though, wouldn't you say?

    31. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by lskovlund · · Score: 1

      Thanks for pointing this out, and for bringing up the verb "to be." This is, by default, the oldest verb in any language (except perhaps Russian, which they tell me doesn't have it), and therefore the most irregular.
      Indeed. The lack of a verb "to be" is called zero copula. Plenty of languages like that.

      Unfortunately, Verbix is down at the moment. Otherwise I might be able to find examples of regular 'to be' for you. I imagine pidgins and/or creoles might be good candidate languages.

      Incidentally, I believe the article is full of shit. Apparently they have not had even a single linguist check their results, and they are based solely on English. One data point (language) does not prove anything!

    32. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Daengbo · · Score: 1

      Yeah. And I'm the one who gets stuck saying "proven," when all the EFL lists list it as a regular verb (see The Purdue ESL Pages for an example). See "prove" in there? No? I didn't think so. I look like an idiot every other week at work.

    33. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by TeknoHog · · Score: 1

      "If I had a nickel for every quote misattributed to Mark Twain, I would buy all rights to his name and use it myself." -- Mark Twain

      --
      Escher was the first MC and Giger invented the HR department.
    34. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by greyblack · · Score: 1

      It is interesting that your proposed laguage looks quite similar to norwegian.

      We solve the "ch"-problem by using kj, sj and tj.

      --
      Everybody uses broad generalizations.
    35. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by pfedor · · Score: 1

      Thanks for pointing this out, and for bringing up the verb "to be." This is, by default, the oldest verb in any language (except perhaps Russian, which they tell me doesn't have it),

      You don't want to believe everything they tell you. http://translate.google.com/translate_dict?q=be&hl=en&langpair=en%7Cru
    36. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by dunkelfalke · · Score: 1

      it's not that the russian lacks the verb "to be", it is that this verb in its original meaning is normally omitted in the present tense (and in every russian joke about foreigners you can spot them by their use of this verb in present tense).

      still, even in the present tense this verb is used in an abomination of a language construction as a replacement for "to have". "u menya est' (chto-to)" means "i have (something)" but it can literally be translated as "at me/my own there is (something)".

      the literal "i have" (ya imeyu) also works, but it has sometimes got a sexual connotation with a touch of superiority, something along the lines of the big lebowski nihilits repeating "i'll fuck you in the ass", that's why it is seldom used.

      --
      "It's such a fine line between stupid and clever" -- David St. Hubbins, Spinal Tap
    37. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by janap · · Score: 1

      The person responsible for the original design of the letter 's' was no stone carver, that's for sure.

      --
      A noise annoys an oyster

    38. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by iogan · · Score: 4, Informative

      Thanks for pointing this out, and for bringing up the verb "to be." This is, by default, the oldest verb in any language (except perhaps Russian, which they tell me doesn't have it), and therefore the most irregular. Based on this, I have formulated the theory that "to be" is irregular in every language (that has it). In good scientific methodology, I am seeking out evidence to the contrary. Can anyone provide any?
      Russian does have the verb "to be", just not in the present tense. Its usage varies considerably from English, but then so do most languages. A lot of languages lack the copula-verb (as it is known) in the present tense, and do very well without it. When Borat says "She niiiice" you understand what he means perfectly well without the copula. :)

      The verb is indeed irregular in many languages, but nonetheless completely regular in others. One of the problems people have in deciding whether a feature of language is universal is the very small subset of languages they've been exposed to.

      Most of the languages you can name off hand are all part of the Indoeuropean family of languages, which has a very large number of speakers, but does not constitute a large number of languages. Thus a lot of features common to Indo-european languages are taken to be linguistic universals when really they are common only to a very small subset of human languages.
    39. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by porpnorber · · Score: 1

      Just look at them damned Chinese characters and the reform they underwent last century -- compare the characters used in Taiwan or Hong Kong, those in Japan (that were adopted after the Chinese simplified them once) and those that are used in China now (which were simplified gradually even more). The more them characters evolve, the more they look the same. Probably in the end it'll all end up where Korea is -- they have more or less given up on characters and switched to alphabet. Which is where English was back then ;)

      Except that Chinese characters are stabilised as a (generally) non-phonetic script by being a common notation across many languages ('dialects,' if you prefer, but if these are dialects of the same language then Italian and Portuguese are, too). You will occasionally see our alphabet used to express Jamaica Patois or, say, Geordie, but the spellings must change and mutual intelligibility suffers.

      But spelling reforms (and character revisions) are a different matter from change in spoken language, since they seem to be undertaken by committees of various sorts, who have to maintain a sensitivity to the breadth of their constituency, but at the same time can hope to undertake rational engineering projects. I suspect this is ultimately because very few people 'speak' written languages natively; they learn them, like foreign languages, in school.

    40. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by zeromorph · · Score: 2, Interesting

      English is actually a good example why the mathematical approach is inappropriate. Your step between Beowulf and Chaucer is the crucial. In this period the linguistic situation in Britain became rather complex, while the vast majority of people continued to speak Anglo-Saxon (a West Germanic language of the Anglo-Frisian branch), the Norman nobility spoke Anglo-Norman, while the clergy used Latin. (Not to forget the different celtic tongues used by the people in Cornwall, Wales and Scotland.) All this produced a contact situation in which social (prestige) factors and political developments influenced the linguistic "evolution".

      Of course one can model any change of state over time using a mathematical evolutionary approach, but it won't help in understanding what actually happened. Current mathematical approaches to language change are much to over-simplified to discover anything significant, but if it makes them happy, I guess it won't hurt anyone.

      --
      "Hannibal's plans never work right. They just work." Amy/A-Team
    41. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Bloke+down+the+pub · · Score: 2, Interesting

      I'd not seen that one, but the one where it morphs into German is quite common.

      --
      It's true I tell you, feller at work's next door neighbour read it in the paper.
    42. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by aproposofwhat · · Score: 1

      "Where the bees suck, there suck I" is on one such page. This caused a bit of a stir backstage and had to be explained, apparently.

      An early example of the hive mentality leading to the creation of taboos, perhaps?

      :P

      --
      One swallow does not a fellatrix make
    43. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by aproposofwhat · · Score: 1
      So what form would you use when describing improvements in technology?

      Technologic, or technological progress?

      Or when describing the speech of a politician, perhaps?

      Hypocritic, or hypocritical nonsense?

      Orthographical reform seems just fine in context, especially given that the sentence was written over a century ago.

      --
      One swallow does not a fellatrix make
    44. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by udippel · · Score: 1

      ....
      "But it's my only line !!"

    45. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by PMBjornerud · · Score: 1

      Fainali, xen, aafte sam 20 iers ov orxogrefkl riform, wi wud hev alojikl, kohirnt speling in ius xrewawt xe Ingliy-spiking werld. As a non-native English speaker, I decree that the sentence above would actually be easier to learn to read that the horrendous alphabeth mishmash you employ for your daily use.

      "though, tough, cough, hiccough, plough, through"
      You learn the pronunciation and writing of those like you learn Chinese: You memorize. Completely missing the bloody point (and the genious) of the alphabeth.

      The joke is actually very sensible for the first half, removing confusing and surplus characters. But at the end, the argument become completely retarded. The logic is akin to suggesting that: if removing surplus information is good, then removing useful information must be just as good! Which is bloody daft, and as much tragedy as comic relief that such and argument is accepted as a defense of an awful writing system.

      "As simple as possible, but not simpler." Applies here, too.
      --
      I lost my sig.
    46. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Eivind · · Score: 4, Informative

      To be retains a lot of cruft that has fallen off less used verbs, such as distinct forms for different persons. I am, you are, he is, someone who doesn't know english won't even see any signs that these are the same word at all.

      Compare I bike, you bike, we all bike.... the distinction by person is useless the way it is in english, I wonder if it'll disappear completely outside of "to be". (for other words you have the "he bikes" thing)

      Thing is, this actually -did- make sence at some point (or atleast it served a purpose) in many languages that universally have different forms for different persons, you can remove the personal pronoun, since it's clear from the verb alone which person is meant.

      "I am a boy" is superfluous; "am boy" conveys the same meaning since "am" can only be used for "I". Works that way in finnish, for example:

      "puhun Suomi" (I speak finnish) "puhut Soumi" (you speak finnish), with enough grammar you can do away with many small words, and you can make the sequence of words more freely choosable. In english you make questions by reordering words. "you can have a cookie." "can I have a cookie?", with grammar that can also be done away with; In finnish you use -ko to symbolise question, so no need to reorder words (or add "do you" or similar antics)

      "puhutko Saksa?" ("Do you speak German?")

      In general though, it seems that the trend is that -less- grammar and -more small-word and word-sequence is used. English sure is losing grammar at a noticeable rate, same for Norwegian and German.

    47. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by digitig · · Score: 1

      1066 - Norman conquest - Old French would have a massive influence on English. Introduction of lots of Latin roots into English. Actually, no. There's not much Norman French in English. The French in English is largely Parisian French and came in rather later, as a result of fashion rather than invasion (although the earlier Norman invasion did provide a path for the fashion to spread to England).
      --
      Quidnam Latine loqui modo coepi?
    48. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by digitig · · Score: 1

      Actually, written English hasn't changed much since the Middle Ages. It's the pronunciation the one that's changed a lot, and that's why us non-native English speakers are sometimes baffled by the incoherence of the English spelling. The big changes in written English have been in punctuation, particularly the shift from punctuation based on the rhythms of speech to punctuation based on the logical structure of the sentence. Another change in punctuation is the way hyphenated words tend to drift to compound words, which is still going on.
      --
      Quidnam Latine loqui modo coepi?
    49. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by digitig · · Score: 1

      Unfortunately, Verbix is down at the moment. Otherwise I might be able to find examples of regular 'to be' for you. I imagine pidgins and/or creoles might be good candidate languages. I suppose "Estis" in Esperanto would be considered cheating?
      --
      Quidnam Latine loqui modo coepi?
    50. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by tepples · · Score: 1

      Yep. Handy for backwards compatibility though, wouldn't you say? Yeah, English is the x86 of language. But at some point x86 becomes less than optimal, such as on handheld devices.
    51. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by u38cg · · Score: 1

      In English, 'to be' is the conflation of several related Anglo-Saxon words. In various regions of English, you will hear 'to be' conjugated regularly using only one of the various forms (I be/you be/he be or I is/you is/he is, etc).

      --
      [FUCK BETA]
    52. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by tepples · · Score: 1

      Eh? Pray thee scribe thy missive again perchance. Did anyone fail to understand that sentence?
      I thought not. Only because a lot of us have had the backwards-compatibility libraries for 17th-century English installed, at one of three points:
      • reading a translation of the Christian Bible from 1611,
      • reading plays by Shakespeare as high school students (but I'm confused why high school teachers concentrate on six of his tragedies and zero comedies), or
      • reading the play "The Crucible" by Arthur Miller.
    53. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by professionalfurryele · · Score: 2, Insightful

      If you cant analyze it mathematically, how can you discover anything at all? If you don't have a significance or error to go with your result then you have no idea if your result is ball park, dead on, or just plain wrong. Everything which can be stated as fact requires a standard estimate of uncertainty from statistics. When that is not available the least reliable source or list of sources on which the conclusion is based is quoted. It is then understood that this exists to guide a future mathematical approach, or to set up assumptions.
      The same approach exists in other sciences and even mathematics itself. We haven't proved the Riemann hypothesis, we are not sure if it is true, but there is lots of evidence to suggest as much. And there are lots of things that we have shown are equivalent to proving the Riemann hypothesis. The bottom line however, is that until the Riemann hypothesis is shown to be true, everything based on it is also unproven albeit interesting speculation. The same problem exists in physics. The Higgs particle has never been observed directly, but if we speculate that it is there then we can explain a number of experimental results. Until I see a Higgs particle come out of the LHC however I will not consider it's existence to have been demonstrated.
      The quest for historical fact should be the same as any other science, simply coupled with the acceptance that unlike the hard sciences it is much easier to produce speculation without proof than it is to produce hard results. This results in a difference in method, not in objective.
      The mathematical approach is never inappropriate when your objective is to establish fact.

    54. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by vtcodger · · Score: 1
      ***Probably in the end it'll all end up where Korea is -- they have more or less given up on characters and switched to alphabet.***

      Little chance of that I think. There is a lot of information content in those 'Chinese' characters that is lost when they are presented alphabetically. The problem is homonyms (same sound different meaning -- same alphabetic spelling, different Chinese character). Japanese has a lot of them and I believe that Chinese has a lot more.

      The Japanese probably have more alphabets (Three -- Hirigana, Kataka, Romanji) in general use than anyone else in the universe, but my impression was that they pretty much universally hate alphabetic text presentation of Japanese nouns, verbs, and adjectives. Sort of like a European encountering long expositions in a flowery italicized font where each word has to be individually extracted from all the flourishes and curlicues. Maybe if text messaging becomes a major element of everyone's life. Otherwise, I think kanji are probably in East Asia to stay. That is not to say that they -- especially the irregular ones -- can not and will not be simplified.

      --
      You can't see ANYTHING from a car, You've got to get out of the goddamned contraption and walk...Edward Abbey
    55. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by vtcodger · · Score: 1

      They are just saying that over time "meeted" is more likely to replace "met" than "beed" is to replace "been". And, by implication a newly minted English verb has a very high probability of having an 'ed' past tense. Example: The past tense of to titanic (i.e. to make a really horrendous mistake through a combination of foolishness and overconfidence) would surely be "titaniced". As in "Motorola titaniced the Iridium project."

      --
      You can't see ANYTHING from a car, You've got to get out of the goddamned contraption and walk...Edward Abbey
    56. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Carthag · · Score: 1

      Danish "to be"

      1st through 3rd persons, singular & plural, present tense: er
      1st through 3rd persons, singular & plural, past tense: var

      I'd say the conjugation has become quite regular. :)

    57. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Fruit · · Score: 2, Interesting

      Eh, isn't that simply the long s you're referring to? That has nothing to do with "running out of esses".

    58. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by ichthyoboy · · Score: 1

      I think this has already happened

    59. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Adam+Heine · · Score: 1

      Thanks for pointing this out, and for bringing up the verb "to be." This is, by default, the oldest verb in any language (except perhaps Russian, which they tell me doesn't have it), and therefore the most irregular. Based on this, I have formulated the theory that "to be" is irregular in every language (that has it). In good scientific methodology, I am seeking out evidence to the contrary. Can anyone provide any?
      In Thai, as in some other Asian languages, they do not conjugate verbs at all and therefore do not have irregular verbs. Although I guess that isn't exactly contrary evidence. Someone in this deep thread of comments mentioned that one should not try to deduce things about "language" by looking at just one language. I would add that to truly learn about language, you need to look at multiple language families as well.
    60. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The Japanese equivalent to 'to be', 'desu', is a regular verb.

    61. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by eggstasy · · Score: 1

      I think you're missing the most obvious one, which is Ultima and related medieval games with their somewhat faked middle english :)
      I'm not even a native english speaker but I can read all of that very clearly, which I am sure can be largely ascribed to my misspent youth ;)

    62. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by argStyopa · · Score: 1

      "Fainali, xen, aafte sam 20 iers ov orxogrefkl riform, wi wud hev alojikl, kohirnt speling in ius xrewawt xe Ingliy-spiking werld."

      Cool, my convenience-store cashier posts to Slashdot!

      --
      -Styopa
    63. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by langelgjm · · Score: 2, Informative

      Actually, no. There's not much Norman French in English. The French in English is largely Parisian French and came in rather later, as a result of fashion rather than invasion (although the earlier Norman invasion did provide a path for the fashion to spread to England).

      I'm going to have to disagree with you here. While later French did have an impact on English as a result of fashion, Anglo-Normand massively influenced Old English. From Histoire de la Langue: du Latin à l'Ancien Français, Peter A. Machonis, University Press of America, 1990:

      Cependant, il faut dire que ces trois siècles de contact linguistique avec le français ont beaucoup influencé le cours de l'histoire de la langue anglaise. L'anglo-normand n'a pas influencé la syntaxe de l'anglais, mais il a beaucoup contribué au lexique de l'anglais à l'époque. Pour cette raison, les vocabulaires de l'anglais et du français se ressemblent encore beaucoup de nos jours.

      I assume you read French, but for those who don't, here is a rough translation:

      However, it must be said that these three centuries of linguistic contact with French greatly influenced the course of history of the English language. Anglo-Normand did not influence English syntax, but it greatly contributed to the English lexicon at that time. This is why modern English and French vocabulary look similar.

      Also, from Wikipedia's article on Anglo-Normand:

      Although Anglo-Norman was falling out of everyday use by the 13th century (Middle English was becoming stronger), it has left an indelible mark on English. Thousands of words, phrases and expressions are derived from it. English would have been a very different language without the influence of Anglo-Norman.

      As a specific example, take the word "cattle" (citations are the OED entries on "cattle" and "chattel"):

      In legal Anglo-French, the Norman catel was superseded at an early period by the Parisian chatel; this continued to be used in the earlier and wider sense (subject however to legal definition), and has in modern times passed into a certain current use as CHATTEL, so that the phrase just cited is now also since 16th c. 'goods and chattels'. Chatel, pl. chateux, was the form adopted in legal Anglo-French; it appears in vernacular use in the 13th c., and the pl. chateux is occasional as a technical term in ME.; but the actual form adopted in Eng. was the Norman catel, later cattell, cattle.
      --
      "Anyone who [rips a CD] is probably engaging in copyright infringement." - David O. Carson
    64. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by oliderid · · Score: 1

      Roman language is a Gallo-Romance language, more specifically a Langue d'oïl closely related to the Parisian French (just like all the dialects spoken in Nothern France and Frenchspeaking parts of Belgium who were ruled by Franks).
      ref: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Norman_language

      The Norman (Men from the north) (Scandinavian origins) have adopted over the centuries the language of the French terriroty they were occupying.

      Langues d'oïl are also known as Old French http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Old_French
      While langue d'oc (the other Gallo-romance subgroups) is known as Provençal.

      The previous message was right.
      But you are right too. Modern French has also influenced English just like English today is influencing modern French.

    65. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by ioshhdflwuegfh · · Score: 1

      Spoken like a true prophecy!

    66. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by mapmaker · · Score: 1
      I'm not sure what you mean when you say "Middle Ages", but written English certainly did change quite a bit from the 8th century to the 16th century

      You also don't appear to know what he meant by the word "since". You appear to think he meant "during".

    67. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by langelgjm · · Score: 1

      Appearances are deceiving. I mainly wanted to clarify how much English has changed since its inception, because a lot of people tend to think "Old English" means Shakespeare. The point is, it hinges on how you define "Middle Ages." He later says he was thinking about the 14th century onwards, in which case the changes that took place in the 14th and 15th centuries are important, e.g., the standardizing effect of Chaucer's work.

      --
      "Anyone who [rips a CD] is probably engaging in copyright infringement." - David O. Carson
    68. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      "where the bee sucks, there suck I"

      is actually from The Tempest. And yes, in the first folio, it is printed "bee fucks".

      But at least they weren't doing 3 Henry VI and reading about "blood fucking".

    69. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by tgibbs · · Score: 1

      It always bugs me when I see an "f" substituted for the long "s" when people are trying to give a word an "Olde English" look (the long "s" never has a full crossbar). And the long s-short s ligature "ß" (which is not much used in English printing any more, but is used in German) is sometimes mistaken for (or misused as) the Greek letter beta.

    70. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by amokk · · Score: 1

      still, even in the present tense this verb is used in an abomination of a language construction as a replacement for "to have". "u menya est' (chto-to)" means "i have (something)" but it can literally be translated as "at me/my own there is (something)". Not exactly.

      The construction u menya est' implies something different from the construction u menya. The addition of the verb 'to be' emphasizes the existence of something rather than simple possession. For instance, saying u menya est' cobaka mean "I have a dog" (in the sense that the existence of the dog has not, up until this point, been made clear). However saying y menya byelaya cobaka means "I have a white dog" but the only way this can work is if the existence of the dog had been previously determined.

      I don't know why you are comparing the literal verb imet' to being fucked in the ass by nihilists, but it's also not that simple and has a completely different usage pattern and is perfectly normal to use. Especially in the written language.
      --
      I think, therefore I am an Atheist.
    71. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by background+image · · Score: 3, Informative

      The 's' in print looked a lot like an 'f' because it actually was an 'f'.

      No it wasn't.

      It was a lot cheaper and easier than trying to get an 's' carved into a block.

      Again, this is a bit nonsensical. Do you really think the complexity of letterforms caused printers to modify their shapes? If so, how do you account for "a" or "g" or--even worse--the ampersand?

    72. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by demonlapin · · Score: 1
      the trend is that -less- grammar and -more small-word and word-sequence is used

      ... as is common with pidgins and creoles. Which, effectively, English has crept toward over centuries. I would be astonished if the greater trend toward regularity in American (vs British) English were not a direct result of having enormous numbers of people who don't speak it natively in your society for hundreds of years.

    73. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by dajak · · Score: 1

      The printing press was a major incentive to standardise spelling

      Certainly, but the major reason that early middle ages writing is completely incomprehensible as opposed to late medieval writing may be simply that there was no idea of orthography or language education at all for commoner's languages in the early middle ages. The first written sources may have been almost as incomprehensible then. The major incentive to write comprehensibly is having readers.

      The tiny percentage of the population that was literate only had an education in writing Latin: they apparently made up an orthography on the spot when for some reason they wanted to write down something in a commoner's language.

      This is certainly for some of the first fragments of continental germanic languages. Hardly any pair of early sources use the same orthography, even when they were written in the same age and place. The same author often doesn't use the same orthography for, for instance, roots of the same verb, and in some cases cannot even correctly mark word boundaries, which makes one suspect that the author had little knowledge of the language he was writing down, which may be a third language for him used only for simple communication with the natives. More specifically: some of the first authors of germanic languages may be for instance French clerics, educated in Latin, who write something down for the illiterate natives they work for. The West Franconian sentence in the (latin) Salic Law is a typical example.

      The printing press is the next step: it creates standard languages and orthographies for larger areas as publishers define their markets.

    74. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Viol8 · · Score: 1

      It does make me smile when I hear about french intellectuals getting upset about a few english words becoming common in french (eg: le weekend) when about 20% of common english words are of french/norman origin. I wonder how many of them know that french has influenced english far more than english will ever influence the french language.

    75. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by David+Chappell · · Score: 1

      Russian does have the verb "to be", just not in the present tense.

      Funny you should mention that since the conjugation of the verb "to be" in Russian has undergone a simplification even more radical than what is described in the article.

      For a couple hundred years now Russians have tended not to pronounce the verb "to be" in the present tense. For example, instead of saying, "That is a cat," they say "That--cat." The result is that people gradually forgot how to conjugate the verb in the present tense. Once there were six present-tense forms, for first, second, and third person both singular and plural. Today only two of them survive of which one is seldom used and then only in writing. Most people, on the rare occasions when they pronounce "to be" in the present tense use only the third- person singular.

      If this were done in English, it would work something like this:

      I am --> I is

      We are --> We is

      Thou art --> Thou is

      You are --> You is

      He/She/It is (remains the same)

      They are --> They is (except occasionally in writing where the traditional form is preserved)

    76. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Aaron+Isotton · · Score: 1

      I speak German, and the end result is definitely *not* like German.

    77. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by onosson · · Score: 0

      the distinction by person is useless the way it is in english

      in many languages that universally have different forms for different persons, you can remove the personal pronoun, since it's clear from the verb alone which person is meant
      Redundancy in language IS important.

      In actual speech, not every word may be perfectly intelligible to the hearer, so if some piece of information (such as the subject of the verb) is distributed across multiple words (such as the pronoun AND the verb), then there is a better chance of being understood.

      In general though, it seems that the trend is that -less- grammar and -more small-word and word-sequence is used. English sure is losing grammar at a noticeable rate
      I'm not sure what you mean by "small-word and word-sequence", but surely whatever you are referring to is part of the grammar of the language, i.e. it is not random.
      --
      ? syntax error
    78. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      "early printers would run out of esses before effs and would substitute an eff for an ess when neceffary"

      Bullshit! My old IBM Proprinter never did that!

      Cheers

    79. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Kuvter · · Score: 1

      I lost track of what was going on. So I was wondering what XCKD.com would have to change it's name to?

      --
      "To be is to do." --Socrates
      "To do is to be." -- Aristotle
      "Do-Be-Do-Be-Do..." --Sinatra
    80. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      But the language hasn't remained unchanged in writing that long. Go and look at some 16th-century Shakespeare in facsimile; the spelling and punctuation are totally alien compared to modern English.

    81. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by pintpusher · · Score: 1

      So, is it "titaniced" or "titanicked"?

      I hope you don't panic. I certainly haven't panicked.

      Regardless, nothing beats "embiggened" (or is it "embiggenned"?).

      --
      man, I feel like mold.
    82. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by SETIGuy · · Score: 1

      I suppose "Estis" in Esperanto would be considered cheating?
      We'll let you have that one when Esperanto surpasses Klingon in number of fluent speakers.

      taH pagh taHbe'

    83. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by DavidHumus · · Score: 1

      The verb "to be" does not even have a unique translation in languages other than English.

      In Spanish, there are two forms - "estar" and "ser" - which divide up the meanings covered by the English equivalent; see ahref=http://www.websters-online-dictionary.org/definition/to+berel=url2html-28875http://www.websters-online-dictionary.org/definition/to+be>

      Scots Gaelic has a form which indicates that the existence or truth is questionable or known only second-hand.

    84. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by digitig · · Score: 1

      How about fluent speakers who are not already fluent English speakers?

      --
      Quidnam Latine loqui modo coepi?
    85. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Eivind · · Score: 1

      There's always huge redundancy in language, if terhe wree not you wluodn't be albe to raed tihs.

      What I meant was, there's synthethic and analytic languages, they achive similar things with different methods. synthethic ones put several morphemes in each word, which tends to make the words longer, but you need fewer words, and the sequencing of words into sentences become freer. Analytical languages, in contrast, put less (in the limit, 1) morpheme in each word, which tends to make the words shorter, but you need more of them, and sequence tends to matter more.

      It's not an either-or, it's more like a scale, most languages have -some- elements from both, but there's clear differences. Chinese is almost purely analytical, Finnish is pretty heavily synthethical. It's not better or worse, it's just different ways of achieving similar results.

      For example, the finnish use patterns in the verb to show both person and if it's a question or not, this then frees them from having to put in a personal pronoun, but on the other hand it complicates learning finnish grammar, since there's simply more of it.

      It seems to me, the trend in indo-european languages are we're moving in the direction of more analytical, less synthethical. This -does- seem to be easier to learn, and perhaps that is one reason, people speak more languages in addition to their native one these days.

      An example: "puhutko ...?", finnish verb. Has three morphenes: "speak" "2st person singular" and "question", if you want to express the same thing in english, you need several words: "do you speak ... ?" each of the words have only one morphene, "you" says it's 2nd person singular or plural, "speak" says, well, speak, and the "do" is needed to indicate a question, "you speak german" would be a statement, not a question.

      So, in this case english actually says -less- with 3 words than finnish do with 1, because in english it's not specified if we're talking 2nd person plural or 2nd person singular, whereas in finnish it is. Still, english is by no means -purely- analytical, for example "am" has 2 morphemes, "to be" and "1st person singular", same for "cars" which tells you that the topic is a car, *and* that we're talking plural. A purely analytical language would say "many car" or something to that effect.

      Clearer ? If not, look the two types of languages up on wikipedia or wherever, I'm sure they explain it better than I do.

    86. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Max+Littlemore · · Score: 2, Interesting

      Eh, isn't that simply the long s you're referring to?

      I specifically referred to a page on a reproduction of a genuine contempory (to ol' Bill) print of a Shakespearian play. The word "suck" doesn't and didn't have a long s. On the page it is definitely spealt with "f" and there is a foreword which explains the frequent use of "f" instead of "s".

      --
      I don't therefore I'm not.
    87. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Nefarious+Wheel · · Score: 1
      The 's' in print looked a lot like an 'f' because it actually was an 'f'. It was a lot cheaper and easier than trying to get an 's' carved into a block

      Wrongo!

      It wasn't an 'f', it was a "long s". You'll notice the lack of significant crossbar. The top curve was drawn separately from the bottom stem of the letter, but there was no deliberate crossbar as introduced in the letter "f". Ref: any ductus of Carolingian Miniscule for the difference. Also, the long "s" and the short "s" were intermixed within sentences and sometimes words.

      Report to the SCA for your whipping, please.

      --
      Do not mock my vision of impractical footwear
    88. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by professionalfurryele · · Score: 1

      I appreciate that basic errors can occur in sciences. Assumptions can be wrong. That is precisely the reason you want broad ranging studies like the precursors to this one which establish theories which can later be demonstrated or rejected by a later study.

      The suggestion that mathematics or statistics could have epistemological errors is philosophical hand wrangling. Fine, if you were a philosopher. But only a lunatic would suggest that the field of statistics is in some way undermined by such controversies as the axiom of choice.

      Mathematics is not a science. You cannot get incorrect assumptions, only inconsistent assumptions. Or assumptions that are not necessary or not liked.

      While I don't understand your example from economics (I think you are talking about the difference between a zero sum game and a non-zero sum game), the problem you describe involves replacing an equals sign with a greater than sign. It is entirely possible to handle that situation in mathematics. What is more, since the human brain is just a collection of neurons, anything which cannot be understood mathematically, cannot be understood by humans since you can completely represent all of the possible algorithms the brain can using elementary branches of mathematics.

      You cant advance knowledge without knowing how well you know something. Now I don't happen to believe that most papers that are published advance knowledge. Part of the reason is that nearly every arts, humanities or social science paper makes any number of common errors. Heck even the hard science have these basic errors in them. They might use the wrong statistical test. They might propose a theory without testing it or offering any way of testing it. The bottom line is the only types of paper that actually advance knowledge are those that propose a new theory and a way of testing it, and those that actually test those theories. Unless of course we are talking pure mathematics or philosophy.

      If we really want to improve the quality of studies that are generated then term long statistics courses should be mandatory for any major which seeks to advance scientific knowledge.

    89. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Bloke+down+the+pub · · Score: 1

      It sounds like a German accent when you speak it. No wonder you lost, twice.

      --
      It's true I tell you, feller at work's next door neighbour read it in the paper.
    90. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by jovin6 · · Score: 1

      Russian does have the verb "to be", just not in the present tense. Its usage varies considerably from English, but then so do most languages. A lot of languages lack the copula-verb (as it is known) in the present tense, and do very well without it. When Borat says "She niiiice" you understand what he means perfectly well without the copula. :) This is not entirely true. The Russian verb "to be" does have a present tense conjugation, and there do exist situations where it is not omitted from spoken or written speech. One example is the phrase "There is, after all, such a thing as a ______."
    91. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      Sorry, half my reply got cut off when I used the symbol for a less than sign. (was in a hurry to get out of the office)

      I appreciate that basic errors can occur in sciences. Assumptions can be wrong.

      But how do you *know* the assumptions are wrong? This is entirely in the discipline of epistemology.

      Here's the point I was making. Trade only occurs because that which is received is valued MORE than that which is given away in exchange. It would be an absurdity any other way. But 20th century economists interjected "money" into economic theory as an "equals sign" in trade, formed an entire false sub branch of the discipline called "macro economics", from that error. But whenever you walk into Best Buy and "buy" a dvd for $20, what you are really doing is trading $20 for a dvd. You value the dvd more than the $20. Best Buy values the $20 more than the dvd. That's the only reason the trade occurs.

      But mathematics fails in analyzing, fails in accounting that net subjective value wealth is higher for both you and Best Buy because of the "sale", because of the trade. The same goods which exist before the trade exist after the trade, yet net subjective wealth is higher merely because possession of goods have been transferred voluntarily from trade. There would be no other possible epistemological reason to trade otherwise. This is why economics is in the business of scientifically comparing apples to oranges, while mathematics regards such a topic as in violation of the identity property. Also precise mathematical measurement of the degree to which someone values something else over another something is impossible. All that can be established is a greater than sign, and it is not universally objective, but individually subjective (and objectively known that it is individually subjective).

      What is more, since the human brain is just a collection of neurons, anything which cannot be understood mathematically, cannot be understood by humans since you can completely represent all of the possible algorithms the brain can using elementary branches of mathematics.

      That trade increases subjective value for both parties to an exchange is not a mathematical determination, yet it is proved with the same rigor as any mathematical or physics proof. It's actually *contradictory* to mathematics. Value is literally created out of thin air because of trade. If it wasn't, people wouldn't trade; they would be better off not trading. Trade mathematically means A is greater than B and simultaneously B is greater than A (the subjective material wealth of A and B), just not for both persons, but for each person distinctly.

      From this is proved why the division of labor exists. From this is proved why society exists (bye bye to all that anthropomorphic philosophy from Plato to Rousseau, and whoever else in the meantime).

      One divided by zero is not understood mathematically, is "undefined".

      If we really want to improve the quality of studies that are generated then term long statistics courses should be mandatory for any major which seeks to advance scientific knowledge.

      I disagree. Statistics does not advance knowledge. Only epistemological proof advances knowledge. Example: Knowledge, in so far as it exists, is absolutely known. Anyone who were to argue otherwise would necessarily be arguing that which they say is gibberish to be ignored. Statistics is just a plug and plays for sure formula that incorporates error possibility as a variable. Nothing can ever be proven from statistics. Like I said, statistics does not establish the validity of statistics. Thus, there will never be any knowledge generated from statistics, in the strict epistemological sense. It might be a good guess methodology to shine light on areas for epistemological examination, but it will never prove anything. And tons of absolute garbage is churned out by the academic library truck load from churning and burning statistical research papers.

      This is why it took nearly

    92. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by professionalfurryele · · Score: 1

      You have an odd definition of mathematics. You seem to consider anything which is not a zero sum game to be outside of mathematics when in fact that is not the case. The case you listed can be analyzed mathematically and very simply. It is true that the DVD is worth more to the individual buying it that $20. For example it might be worth up to $25 dollars to them. Best Buy on the other hand value it at less than $20 dollars. They may value it at $15 say. This is not a problem for mathematics. We can analyse the problem using game theory. Very simple game theory. There are four possibilities, each individually agrees to trade or not to trade. It is obvious that there is a net benefit to both parties if they agree to trade and no benefit if neither trades. For the three cases where someone decides not to trade (no trade+no trade, trade+no trade and no trade+trade) the value for Best Buy is $15 dollars and for the buyer it is $20 dollars. If they both agree to trade then Best Buy gets a pay off of $20 dollars (a $5 dollar increase) and the buyer gets a payoff of $25 dollars (also a five dollar increase $5). Everyones position is improved, and the trade leads to an efficient system (one that cant be improved). Heck we can even quantify the amount of value that has been added to the system due to the trade. Overall the system is up $10. Any quantity which can be well defined can be calculated because the example is so trivial.

      You say that subjective value has been increased. What other kind of value is there? We can define the cost of goods, in the sense that the market price for goods will be some amount, but that doesn't necessarily reflect their value because value is inherently subjective.

      You haven't actually proved anything about the world with this example though. You have made a bunch of glaring assumptions. You have assumed that people will trade when in increases the (as you say subjective) value of their wealth. You can show this assumption is on the whole valid by a properly controlled experiment and a good use of statistics, but you haven't learned that it is the case until you do the experiment. You have assumed that Best Buy and the buyer are both rational, that they wont suddenly for no good reason decide not to engage in the transaction. This is actually a serious flaw in more complicated arguments because people do sometimes randomly change strategy and it does lead to complicated effects like efficient solutions not being fluttering hand stable.

      You are misguided if you think that the purely mathematical analysis you have done (which is a crude version of game theory) has taught you anything. If anything, it has concealed what you don't know because you think you have learned a new truth when you have made a collection of unproven (but testable) assumptions.

      Your suggestion that trade in some way violates some principle of mathematics is absurd. If one assumes that the object has intrinsic value outside of what the purchaser is prepared to pay for it then it is true that this value seems at once to be both greater than and less than itself, but this is just an indication that the assumption that objects have value above that which they are worth to individuals (or collections of individuals). Experiment has shown (and your experience has shown) this is not the case. Your reasoning lead you to the correct conclusion but for the wrong reason. It was not the fault of mathematics that the theory "everything has an objective value" is wrong. It is the fault of the assumption of the theory.

      It is certainly the case that these profound assertions, coupled with the experiments that back them up, lead one inexorably to new explanations for the existence of society, for the division of labor and so on. But they theory is inherently mathematical, and it is this mathematical nature which allows you to draw these conclusion.

      I will admit I have no idea what the 'identity property' is. I'm assuming that you mean to suggest that the situation before trade and after trade are iden

    93. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You say knowledge must be absolutely known. I have no problem with this, I just don't think we know a great deal

      We agree there.

      Heck we can even quantify the amount of value that has been added to the system due to the trade.

      We can't quantify it because it is subjective. No matter what example you construct you will always be talking about some quantity of A versus some quantity of B. Any amount of MONEY involved in a trade is no different than any amount of apples involved in a trade. All we know is that Person 1 values B more than A and Person 2 values A more than B, whether A or B is some amount of money. There is no way to determine the quantity amount as every instance of time action occurs at a unique time, and subjective valuation is not necessarily (and most likely not) constant. All we *know* is the mathematical concepts of MORE and LESS. A and B increase net subjective value by some positive amount, by that precise amount is unknowable, especially because money is not falsely being used in an equivocating manner (money is always one element of the trade when it is traded). This is a better simpler example than blue versus green.

      By the identity property I just mean A is A and B is B, A is not B and B is not A. We know that 2 is more than 1 and we know that 1 is less than 2.

      Thus, it would be nonsensical to claim both A and B increase their subjective value by some monetary amount, when some monetary amount is being traded away by one of the parties. Subjective value is immeasurable. It's ordinal, not cardinal.

      It is true that the DVD is worth more to the individual buying it that $20. For example it might be worth up to $25 dollars to them.

      That would be an incorrect statement. The dvd will always be worth MORE than whatever amount of money is traded for it. The value will never be precisely measurable in cardinal numbers. That's the subtle difference with big implications. The precise cardinal amount traded is the object traded, not the value of the object traded. That's the error of false equivocation of value. Value is strctly mathematically greater than or less than in trade.

      You have assumed that people will trade when in increases the (as you say subjective) value of their wealth

      No, no, no. We prove by reductio ad absurdum, proof by contradiction, that people will *only* trade when it increases their subjective value. It is not an assumption. That is the uniquely proved logical case.

      You can show this assumption is on the whole valid by a properly controlled experiment and a good use of statistics, but you haven't learned that it is the case until you do the experiment.

      No. No experiment could validate that because it is a priori true in the same way that 2 is greater than 1 is a priori true. No experiment could test or change that fact.

      You have assumed that Best Buy and the buyer are both rational, that they wont suddenly for no good reason decide not to engage in the transaction

      Nothing is assumed. Every choice, every action, every trade is observed. Value is subjective, inclusive of both rational and non-rational subjective valuation. There's no assumption of rationality. There's no assumption of omniscience. There is just willing voluntary observed action of trade or willing voluntary non-action (or I suppose in some case active) of non-trade. That is the complete full set either/or possibility of trade.

      Example: Best Buy offers the dvd you would willingly trade for at $15. Circuit City offers the dvd you would willing trade for at $18. But because you had a rude employee run-in at Best Buy previously, you choose to buy the same dvd from Circuit City at a higher price. Thus, we can explain even charity as trade. Thus, what mathematics would call irrational behavior is indeed rational behavior which increases subjective wealth value more than the mathematically rationally optimal choice. That's why value is subject

    94. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by professionalfurryele · · Score: 1

      Your response repeats many of what I believe are your previous errors so I will respond more concisely.

      We do not, by your definition know that the Earth revolves around the sun. Can you show absolutely that the Earth goes around the Sun? Can you even show that there is a Sun?

      If you admit this to be the case, then you must admit that we do not even know that people exist either. If people might not exist, trade might not exist. Then your whole philosophy falls apart. Then there is no knowledge except what we define. In that eventuality the only reason you could 'know' more than I do is if you defined more things than I do.

      I also disagree with your concealed assumption that subjective value is unquantifiable.

    95. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by jonadab · · Score: 1

      > Actually, written English hasn't changed much since the Middle Ages.

      Define "much". The total size of the vocabulary has expanded more than tenfold. Verbs (except the being verb, which is highly irregular anyway) no longer inflect for person, which is a fairly major grammatical change completed in the last couple of centuries. Word order structures have become more rigid. The second person pronoun is no longer inflected for case (except the possesive, if you consider that to be a case in English, which is a whole other topic), nor for number in standard English. (Some local dialects have a way of indicating number; e.g., in Ohio the plural is "you guys" or "guys". Tennesee has "youins" or "yins" for the plural. But these forms are not standardized beyond the local region, and the form these dialects consider singular is the old plural objective form, the old subjective and singular forms having dropped out of the language.) The subjunctive mood has changed its forms significantly (though it's still quite weird and obviously not done changing). The verb that used to be implied if elided (come/go) is no longer implied and cannot be elided. These are just some of the changes in the last 400 years.

      More changes are coming, too. Among other things, the first and third person are rapidly losing their inflection for case, as the changeover to a pure word-order case grammar continues. (You can already make yourself understood without using the correct case forms, though it makes a lot of people, myself included, want to cringe.) Also, the only remaining verb with inflection for person (the being verb) is probably losing some of its forms (err, some _more_ of its forms; come to think of it, it's already lost several of them), though it's too early at this point to be sure which ones are going and which ones are staying. Also, inflection for number is gradually regularizing -- I believe there was a story on slashdot recently about some math professors who had studied that phenomenon and were working on trying to make predictions about which verbs are most likely to regularize next.

      If you think English hasn't changed since the Middle Ages, you should try reading Canterbury Tales without the benefit of a modern translation. It's available here:
      http://en.wikisource.org/wiki/The_Canterbury_Tales
      Good luck with that. I grew up reading old literature and am comfortable with Elizabethan English (the language of Shakespeare), but I have real trouble trying to read Chaucer in the original. There are whole sentences where I can't make out a single major word.

      --
      Cut that out, or I will ship you to Norilsk in a box.
    96. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by jonadab · · Score: 1

      > It's the pronunciation the one that's changed a lot, and that's why us non-native English
      > speakers are sometimes baffled by the incoherence of the English spelling.

      Native speakers have trouble with spelling too. There are a number of reasons, but probably the largest one is that English spelling is strongly driven by etymology. Words of Anglo-Saxon and Germanic origin have one set of phonetic rules, and words of Greek and Latin origin have an entirely different set of rules. (Then there are words of French origin: if they came into the language before the Renaissance, they follow the Germanic phonetics, but if they came into the language during or after the Renaissance, they generally follow the French rules (which are even more inconsistent and, at times, outright bizarre (e.g., "hors d'oeuvre" (pronounced "or durv" (Yes, I am a lisp programmer. (Why do you ask?))))).)

      As I said, there are other contributing factors to the difficulty of English spelling (e.g., most "long" vowels in the Anglo-Saxon phonetic system can be spelled several different ways, due to the mechanism by which vowel length is indicated; and yes, the question of what constitutes a "long" vowel versus a short vowel or dipthong is complicated by historic changes in pronunciation), but the etymological issue is, in my considered opinion, the really big one.

      --
      Cut that out, or I will ship you to Norilsk in a box.
    97. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Your response repeats many of what I believe are your previous errors so I will respond more concisely.

      Too bad you're just a petty dumbass then. Maybe next time you should try believing harder then. Yeah, I know, far too precise for your dumbass to copmprehend.

      We do not, by your definition know that the Earth revolves around the sun. Can you show absolutely that the Earth goes around the Sun? Can you even show that there is a Sun?

      How about first I can repeal any funding for your sad bull shit. What are you? A softmore in college?

      If you admit this to be the case, then you must admit that we do not even know that people exist either, from the dumbass perspective. If people might not exist, trade might not exist.

      If you might not be a retard. It's embarassing for you. I'm embarassed for you. Next time can you rub your pussy and cry out loud.

      Then your whole philosophy falls apart.

      Don't worry, next time I'll spell S-T-U-P-I-D for you. Still I can't figure out if you're like in 7th grade, or like freshmen year in college.

      If you admit this to be the case,

      if you ever experience what pussy feels like.

      Then there is no knowledge except what we define. In that eventuality the only reason you could 'know' more than I do is if you defined more things than I do.

      Next time try not to get so much dried out cum holding your eyelids shut. At least you didnt have to resign a profesorship.

      NO, i AIN'T gonna prove shit to you; i'D RATHEr atm revel in your stupidity.

      If you admit this to be the case,

      Wow. You are such a loser. Don't forget your gay costume. Is this the conclusion of the Top Ten, the conslusion of Harvard?

      If you admit this to be the case, then you must admit that we do not even know that people exist either. If people might not exist, trade might not exist.

      You just got ghey sex fucked up the ass, but it's not like you would know the difference anyway, except that your bullshit uncomfortably fits up there.

      Hello? Dumbfuck? Are you there?

      I also disagree with your concealed assumption that subjective value is unquantifiable.

      Whatever dumbfuck. You don't know whether you said anything or nothing.

      Your response repeats many of what I believe are your previous errors so I will respond more concisely.

      You couldn't recognize.

      I also disagree with your concealed assumption that subjective value is unquantifiable.

      STFU, dumbass. Stop using words you admit you don't have the first clue of understanding.

      I also disagree with your concealed assumption that subjective value is unquantifiable.

      Don't stop /slapping yourself then, dumbass.

      If people might not exist, trade might not exist.

      Yeah, welcome to Pre-School you pathetic piece of shit. Close your eyes and pretrend the dumbest Christian Fundamentalist couln't pwn you. Pretend your Union Membership is something else beside your B.S.

      I also disagree with your concealed assumption that subjective value is unquantifiable.

      Well then, big dummby. It's not like ti wasnt spelled out for your. Perhaps you could humur us again with any single simple example. I guess not.

      Then there is no knowledge except what we define. In that eventuality the only reason you could 'know' more than I do is if you defined more things than I do.

      Wrong. Run away again! You don't know shit. Don't forget to bookmark.

      we do not even know that people exist either. If people might not exist, trade might not exist.

      And you don't know that I flipped your dumbass with my middle finger either. For somebody who knows zip zero, you sur can't STFU.

      also disagree with your concealed assumption that subjective value is unquantifiable.

    98. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by jonadab · · Score: 1

      > Eh? Pray thee scribe thy missive again perchance.

      Nay, nay. What he has scriven, he has scriven, and do thou read it as it stands.

      --
      Cut that out, or I will ship you to Norilsk in a box.
    99. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by jonadab · · Score: 1

      > Nay, nay. What he has scriven, he has scriven, and do thou read it as it stands.

      s/he has/he hath/g;

      I really should use Preview when posting in Elizabethan English. An unfortuate tendency I have to mix it up with Modern English, interchanging one with the other phrase by phrase until no recourse the reader hath whereby to divide the twain assunder.

      --
      Cut that out, or I will ship you to Norilsk in a box.
    100. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Nay, Nay, NAY. The NSA suks.

      P.S. Lose some weight, Fat Ass. So that the theoreticians can rule out the significance of your big ass variable, next time. ;p

    101. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Nay, nay. What he has scriven, he has scriven, and do thou read it as it stands. But LISTEN to it, please, to the soundtrack of The Carpenters Superstar.

      s/he has/he hath/g; Good get, I mean, gath.

      I really should use Preview when posting in ElizaBATH English. I mean, BLUE, no, GREEN?! Like a fish, above, and in, water. A dolphin. A DOLPH. In.

      An unfortuate tendency I have to mix it up with Modern English, interchanging one with the other phrase by phrase until no recourse the reader hath whereby to divide the twain assunder. And so, the story is Twun, and spun, Ladies and Gentlemen. Assunder. Assover. Role over and play dead, Rover.

      P.S. Yarrgh! Me word of the image tis be captains.
    102. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      ElizaBATH EngLASH. I'm sorry. Correction.

      P.S. Word "commonds", not commAnds. Yaarrgghh!

      P.S.S. This is not Chewbacca.

      http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/ChewbaccaURL:http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chewbacca>

      Take Two, but not One, for musth be theth "silvery". More than one completes the set, though, the set mayth, not be complete.

      Heh, I love thee the fact that I crushed math. Not once, but twiceth.
    103. Re:As suggested by Mark Twain by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      suks? Suks what? What does it SMELL like? When youv'th gath a definition of thath, tis I consider to rule IN the significa-

      -aca

      -caaa /caw ...

      --aaaahhhh

      fifIfgance of your brown nose reply.

      Word "amplify". Simplify. Amplithfy. + 2.

  8. 1984 by borgasm · · Score: 0, Troll

    double plus ungood ?

    1. Re:1984 by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I've always been a bit bugged by that. Doubleplus isn't right. It should have been Twowiseplus.

  9. a new word by ILuvRamen · · Score: 0

    I predict they're gonna make a new word for how useless and impossible it is to predict how language will change. The most common basic causes of changes in language are unpredictable circumstances and events.

    --
    Google's Super Secret Search Algorithm: SELECT @search_results FROM internet WHERE @search_results = 'good'
    1. Re:a new word by JoshJ · · Score: 1

      Nobody expects the Spanish Inquisition!

      Or the Slashdot Effect. Or Fark. Or lollercoaster/roflcopter/lmaonade/whatever the latest /b/tard neologism is. Technology is driving language now.

    2. Re:a new word by fractoid · · Score: 1

      No. People are driving language now, as they always have. Technology just allows those people to express themselves differently. Admittedly, changing to primarily text-based and later, image-based (ytmnd, lolcats, whatever) communication has given people new opportunities to make up silly things, but it's still the people that have made those things up.

      --
      Rampant carbon sequestration destroyed the Dinosaurs' tropical paradise. I'm here to help repair the damage.
    3. Re:a new word by JoshJ · · Score: 1

      Technology requires new words to be invented. Modern technology has also provided a medium, but seriously, new inventions need words for them. "Camera". "Car". "Truck". "Computer". "Ethernet". "Firewire". Toss in a dictionary of TLA's and you've got an absurd number of words that were invented out of necessity for technology. Granted, some of them (such as FireWire) are trademarked brand names that expanded to the generic term (let's face it, IEEE 1394 just isn't as catchy to the layman) in meaning.

      With all that said, if "I can has" lolcat-speak hits mainstream speech I'm going to have to strangle someone.

    4. Re:a new word by fractoid · · Score: 1

      With all that said, if "I can has" lolcat-speak hits mainstream speech I'm going to have to strangle someone. I'm in ur IRL. Speekin liek dis. (Well, I did just get bitched at by a cow orker for saying "stfu" in as many letters. God save the Queen's English! :( )
      --
      Rampant carbon sequestration destroyed the Dinosaurs' tropical paradise. I'm here to help repair the damage.
    5. Re:a new word by Disseminated · · Score: 1

      They took time away from orking a cow to bitch at you? zomg! :o

  10. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0, Redundant

    It's already happening with commas and lists of words. The final comma in a list, the one before "and", is too often left out when it should be present. (Bugs the crap out of me, too.)

  11. Some love for prepositions by Inf0phreak · · Score: 1
    I'm sure some people are thinking about prepositions too.

    Quite a few are probably thinking about German group sex according to the words 'an', 'auf', 'hinter', 'in', 'neben', 'über', 'unter', 'vor' and 'zwichen'.

    Sorry, o(oooo)ld joke, but it just seemed to fit in.

    --
    ________
    Entranced by anime since late summer 2001 and loving it ^_^
    1. Re:Some love for prepositions by ioshhdflwuegfh · · Score: 1

      I'm sure some people are thinking about prepositions too.

      Quite a few are probably thinking about German group sex according to the words 'an', 'auf', 'hinter', 'in', 'neben', 'über', 'unter', 'vor' and 'zwichen'. Also ver- and ent- and um-. Let's also not forget real verbs, like verdicken!
  12. Werd Up by da3dAlus · · Score: 4, Funny

    I for one welcome our cromulent new verbs!

    --

    Sometimes I doubt your commitment to Sparkle Motion.
    1. Re:Werd Up by tool462 · · Score: 1

      Cromulent verbs like "embiggens?"

  13. Efforts to stamp out irregularity by UbuntuDupe · · Score: 1, Interesting
    FTA:

    Lieberman, Michel, and their co-authors project that the next word to regularize will likely be "wed." Maybe, but Zonk is doing his best to make sure that it's "weave" instead.

    (Zonk has, of course, given up hope on regularizing "to be".)
  14. The Left has already started this by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    PC language is just another example of Orwell's NewSpeak.

  15. this isn't really news by belmolis · · Score: 4, Informative

    This isn't really news. We linguists have known this for a long time, as the article mentions, and we've known why: a child learning a language tends to regularize irregular forms. If he or she then hears the irregular form enough, the child reverts to the irregular form. This is why you'll hear children learning English go through a stage in which their knowledge of verb forms is skimpy but they have irregular forms like "brought", because they are memorizing individual forms, then through a stage in which they produce incorrect but regular forms, which they could not have learned from adults, like "bringed", because they have learned the rule, and through a third stage in which they learn the exceptions to the rule and the irregular forms like "brought" return. Irregular forms will only be learnable if they are sufficiently frequent. The only novelty of this research is the computational ability to carry out an accurate simulation.

    As for predicting the future of the language, that's silly. There is a lot more to language change than what happens to irregular verbs.

    1. Re:this isn't really news by samkass · · Score: 3, Interesting

      More interesting to me than irregular verbs is my son's usage of opposites. He wants me to "plug out" the vacuum cleaner, "buckle out" of his car seat, and-- my favorite-- "shut up" the computer (the opposite, of course, of "shut down"). Also the usages of "hot" or "warm"... the difference between something that is too hot such as food, and something that is too hot like a thick blanket in summer. (When I told him the blanket was too warm for summer, he asked me to cool down the blanket.) The other day he tried Tabasco sauce for the first time, and learned another usage of "hot".

      So are these usages converging the same way as verb irregularity?

      --
      E pluribus unum
    2. Re:this isn't really news by MentlFlos · · Score: 1

      What kind of linguist are you? Cunning perhaps...

    3. Re:this isn't really news by bobdotorg · · Score: 3, Informative

      More interesting to me than irregular verbs is my son's usage of opposites. He wants me to "plug out" the vacuum cleaner, "buckle out" of his car seat, and-- my favorite-- "shut up" the computer (the opposite, of course, of "shut down").

      One can also expand their English vocabulary by working with Indians. Took me a while to figure out WTF 'prepone' meant. As in (say with your best Apu imitation), "We need to prepone the meeting an hour or so." Prepone being the opposite of postpone.

      --
      __ Someday, but not this morning, I'll finally learn to use the preview button.
    4. Re:this isn't really news by meburke · · Score: 2, Interesting

      Rudolf Flesch wrote some books back in the '50's implying that the most modern language we have is...CHINESE! Since Chinese is a spoken language rather than a written language (The writing is mostly pictorial representing whole concepts), it wasn't frozen in place with a bunch of affixes (suffixes, prefixes, etc.) or genders and all that other stuff that makes English hard to learn. Subject, verb, predicate .. That's all there is? You can't regularize verbs better than that! My last girlfriend was Cantonese (from Hong Kong) and since Cantonese doesn't really exist in a written form, it constantly changes patterns and vocabulary. I once had a book that showed 50 common patterns of Chinese language (VERY helpful book!), but it's getting harder to distinguish linguisitc patterns as Chinese "modernizes".

      In Flesch's book, "How to Write, Speak and Think more effectively" he suggests getting clear communication by pretending you were composing in Chinese. Hmmmm..I need to find that book...

      --
      "The mind works quicker than you think!"
    5. Re:this isn't really news by demi · · Score: 1

      We've been preponing meetings this way since long back.

      --
      demi
    6. Re: this isn't really news by Black+Parrot · · Score: 5, Informative

      Rudolf Flesch wrote some books back in the '50's implying that the most modern language we have is...CHINESE! Since Chinese is a spoken language rather than a written language (The writing is mostly pictorial representing whole concepts), it wasn't frozen in place with a bunch of affixes (suffixes, prefixes, etc.) or genders and all that other stuff that makes English hard to learn. Subject, verb, predicate .. That's all there is? You can't regularize verbs better than that! It's a misconception to think that languages evolve toward regularity. There are processes working in both directions. Believe it or not there's an underlying regularity to English's "irregular" verbs - it's just obscured by several thousand years of evolution. (Read up on ablaut, though the Wiktionary article doesn't do the topic justice.)

      Another example is that Modern English has a "weird" class of adjectives beginning in 'a' that don't be have like other adjectives: asleep awry alive, etc. -- there's a pile of them. I talked to a professor of linguistics, who had published a fairly well known textbook on syntax, and he seemed genuinely puzzled by them. But a basic familiarity with language change reveals that they are actually fossilized prepositional phrases. Cf. the line in A Clockwork Orange, "While you are on life" = "While you are alive". So what looks like an unmotivated class of irregular adjectives is actually just the evolutionary reflex of a very normal, regular syntactic structure.

      To add to the confusion, we're now getting a similar class of irregular adverbs with the derivation from the article 'a' rather than an old preposition, "alot", "awhile", etc., which while denegrated as ignorant spelling are actually a clue to the writer's understanding of the language. In a hundred years (or is that "ahundred"?), people without knowledge of English's history will think we have a class of irregular adjectives *and* adverbs, blissfully unaware that they are just evolved forms of very regular structures.

      Oh, and the properties of Chinese have nothing to do with writing or a lack thereof.
      --
      Sheesh, evil *and* a jerk. -- Jade
    7. Re:this isn't really news by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      As a Chinese speaker, I have to say that this is mostly nonsense. Ignoring how extremely imprecise and ambiguous spoken and written Chinese can be (often quite purposefully,) spoken Chinese at anything more than the lowest of registers is laden with extremely archaic grammatical patterns and a preponderance of set phrases (chengyu) that have completely failed to integrate themselves into the vernacular.

      While a beginning student of Chinese may mistakenly assume that, as most early texts consist of sentences no more complicated than "this is my mother's book" the language doesn't get any more complicated than that, I assure you, pick up a piece of modern literature (something by A-Cheng) or any academic publication, and you will find some extremely convoluted sentences. (A quick glance at Wikipedia should be enough to convince even the most casual student of Chinese.)

      Now, note that I have only spoken about formal language. I will admit that the majority of conversational Chinese is not all that bad (with the exception, maybe, of resultative complements,) but I would doubt that if you looked at casual speech in any other language, you wouldn't find the same thing.

      (I wish Slashdot allowed Unicode so I could give you some examples.)

    8. Re:this isn't really news by meburke · · Score: 1

      Yeah, I understand about the written complexity. As I understand it, language is what is spoken, not what is written. (This is a linguistic distinction I got from one of my earliest linguistics books, by a guy named Hall.) I've had a couple of Chinese girlfriends, and I've given up all hope of really understanding Chinese (or understanding women, for that matter). I can communicate basic ideas in Art and Mathematics, but I'm certainly never going to write scholarly papers in Chinese. I can glean some knowledge from a Chinese newspaper and follow the ideographic subtitles on my favorite Chinese martial Arts movies (even when I change from right-channel to left), but I'm not a Sinophile and I don't have the ambition necessary to achieving real Mastery in Chinese.

      However, in spoken-language terms, what Rudolf Flesch said in his book seems to be born out, as you said, in basic learning patterns. More complicated linguistic patterns keep cropping up as I listen in on more serious or technical topics.

      --
      "The mind works quicker than you think!"
    9. Re:this isn't really news by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Right. It has been know for a long time that verbs tend to become regular. The new thing is that it can be put into a mathematical formula. The really interesting thing would be to find out why the verbs became irregular in the first place and the 'rules' that decide which kind of irregularity they were to have. And why today's new verbs (google, googled, ...) rarely are irregular.

    10. Re:this isn't really news by trickyrickb · · Score: 0

      i have contact with alot of indian collegues on a daily basis. One of my favorite of there mangled hinglish phrases is 'do the needful' As in ' if you send me an email with your request, i will do the needful' No amount of correcting will get them to stop saying it as they have been taught from a young age that this is the correct english phrase. Since everyone else in India agrees with them i suppose they are right!

    11. Re:this isn't really news by winterice · · Score: 1

      I believe that there is often also an intermediate stage in which both the irregular form and the grammatical rule are used. The child might move from using 'went' to using 'wented' before returning to 'went', making it seem like there was a decline in the child's grammatical ability while, in fact, the child was just learning to apply grammatical rules and was simply applying them too frequently. I've also seen this with non-native English speakers with words like 'broked' and 'borned'.

    12. Re:this isn't really news by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      LOL... I finally gave up trying to "help" my Indian scabs... er, co-workers... improve their English, and it was all the "please to do the needful" e-mails that finally broke my resolve.

      (And for the mods huffing from the Political Correctness bong, I use "scabs" in the strike-breaking sense... low-dollar replacements... it's only a pejorative until you've been personally replaced by somebody operating in an economy you can't compete with; after that it makes perfect sense.)

    13. Re:this isn't really news by Eivind · · Score: 1

      Dunno. But I've noticed the same in hacker-jargon. I think there's a built in tendency in many of us to regularise and build systems of rules. And that sometimes means ignoring exceptions and sticking to the rule, even when you're aware that that's not the way its normally done.

      Sorta how most hackers tend to absolutely refuse capitalising commands, even when they appear at the start of sentences, because "Ls" is not "ls" dammit, and how we tend to put at the "wrong" place in relation to quotes when that makes sense from a logical POV.

      My 3-year-old used to say that planes "air" when they do the oposite of "land", which makes sense but is wrong. I told him that actually they "take off", which prompted him to agree and then say that when they're done flying they "take on".

    14. Re:this isn't really news by whatteaux · · Score: 1

      Reminds me of my son, when he was about 3:
      Son: "I have a wak in my ear."
      Me: "Did you whack your ear?"
      Son: "No, a wak - IN my ear."
      Me: "Oh! You mean WAX."
      Son: "No, only in ONE ear."

      Classic.

    15. Re:this isn't really news by digitig · · Score: 1

      Absolutely, it's very old news except for the introduction of the formula. See, for example, Steven Pinker's "Words and Rules" for an extensive discussion of the phenomenon, and the brain processes that appear to underlie it.

      And the trouble with the formula is that it seems to assume that word frequencies remain constant. Vocabulary changes with sociocultural changes. If this article had been written a few hundred years ago would it have predicted the decline in influence of the Church or the decline in farming in England? They have both caused changes in frequency of use of words and in the rate of regularisation of irregular verbs.

      --
      Quidnam Latine loqui modo coepi?
    16. Re:this isn't really news by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Bill Poser is way off track with his condescending remarks.

      First, their research uses historical written data - whatever the flaws of that corpus, it's written by adults, so zero connection to child L1 acquisition.

      Second, despite "The only novelty of this research is the computational ability to carry out an accurate simulation." this is a major novelty! Linguistics sofar has been famous for the absence of usable quantitative predictions, so this new research helps make the field more scientific!

      Poser's remarks have to be seen in the light of the widely known fact that theoretical linguists, especially of the MIT variety and Chomskyan traditions, are usually quite inept at math, and not really fond of interdisciplinary work
      (I am a computational linguist who has mingled too much with theoretical linguists in the past not to be hit by this).

    17. Re:this isn't really news by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      My son has asked me "to hire the bed" so he could reach a toy. The meaning became obvious through the opposite: "to lower the bed". The proper spelling should therefore be: "to higher the bed".

    18. Re:this isn't really news by ioshhdflwuegfh · · Score: 1

      Since Chinese is a spoken language rather than a written language [...] (The writing is mostly pictorial representing whole concepts), Here is one for you: LOL! I'm laughing out loud reading your post...

      it [Chinese] wasn't frozen in place with a bunch of affixes (suffixes, prefixes, etc.) or genders and all that other stuff that makes English hard to learn. Subject, verb, predicate .. That's all there is? You can't regularize verbs better than that! LOL! I'm still laughing out loud. Boy that is funny! LOL! Like in: writing being mostly(?) pictorial representing whole concepts. Like LOL? Or u? :-D

      [...]since Cantonese doesn't really exist in a written form, it constantly changes patterns and vocabulary. Do they know then how to read or write?
    19. Re: this isn't really news by pross356 · · Score: 1

      Because irregular forms tend to be common, just a few hundred can take up much of the real estate of a language. There is thus a high payoff to memorizing them as self-contained units. Of course, if such a word becomes rare--who speaks any more of "oaken" buckets?--there will be a powerful tendency to regularize them.

  16. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by JoshJ · · Score: 2, Funny

    As much as that annoys me, I must say that they taught that as a valid way of doing things in my elementary school English classes. Then again, I'm one of those Americans that prefers the British style of punctuating quotes. In other words, I write something like:
    Johnny said, "Bill went to the store".
    whereas the American style is:
    Johnny said, "Bill went to the store."
    Obviously the former makes more sense because it nests properly: (sentence begins) (quote begins) (quote ends) (sentence ends).
    That said, I refuse to put unnecessary u's in words like armor. ;)

  17. Psychohistory? by Xgamer4 · · Score: 4, Interesting

    Admittedly, while it doesn't directly relate to the mathematical analysis of language the ideas behind the study of them are similar. After all, before now mapping out the general patterns of human civilization through mathematical formulas sounded just as absurd as mapping out language patterns using math. And yet, here's an article describing how scientists may have discovered patterns to language. Any thoughts?

    Brief history of psychohistory for those who haven't read The Foundation Trilogy by Asimov:

    Psychohistory is the name of a fictional science, which combined history, sociology, and mathematical statistics, in Isaac Asimov's Foundation universe, to create a (nearly) exact science of the actions of very large groups of people, such as the Galactic Empire.

    From Wikipedia, obviously:
    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Psychohistory/

    1. Re:Psychohistory? by Xgamer4 · · Score: 1

      And I broke the link. My bad. Here's what it should link to for those too lazy to delete the slash on the end of the above post.

      http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Psychohistory

    2. Re:Psychohistory? by langelgjm · · Score: 1

      The Wikipedia link you want is this one.

      --
      "Anyone who [rips a CD] is probably engaging in copyright infringement." - David O. Carson
  18. And as predicted 31 years ago... by bobdotorg · · Score: 1

    And as predicted 31 years ago (damn I'm old), the IM'ers of the future will use the Decibet:

    http://snltranscripts.jt.org/75/75rdecabet.phtml

    --
    __ Someday, but not this morning, I'll finally learn to use the preview button.
  19. Predicting the future using language by Repton · · Score: 4, Interesting

    Stanislaw Lem wrote a book -- I think it was _The Futurological Congress_ -- which included people who predicted future inventions by predicting possible words. The theory being: things won't be popular unless they have a good name, so by thinking of good names, and then considering what might have those names, you can predict future developments.

    --
    Repton.
    They say that only an experienced wizard can do the tengu shuffle.
    1. Re:Predicting the future using language by Crypto+Gnome · · Score: 3, Funny

      So you're saying that Stanislaw Lem "invented" internet domain squatting?

      --
      Visit CryptoGnome in his home.
    2. Re:Predicting the future using language by szobatudos · · Score: 1

      "The theory being: things won't be popular unless they have a good name"

      That's called marketing. Read Dilbert.

    3. Re:Predicting the future using language by aproposofwhat · · Score: 2, Insightful
      Lem - absolutely the best, most well thought out sci-fi ever written.

      His Master's Voice is up there with Borges, Hemingway, Camus, Orwell and Greene in the canon of great 20th century literature.

      Everyone should read HMV at least once in their life - it's a pity I can't read it in the original, as I'm a poor Anglophone with no Polish at all :-{

      --
      One swallow does not a fellatrix make
    4. Re:Predicting the future using language by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      > people who predicted future inventions by predicting possible words

      And now we have domain squatters, who do the same thing!

    5. Re:Predicting the future using language by Simulacrus · · Score: 1

      Although, the Michael Kandel translations of Lem's work must rank amongst the best translations ever created. I only found out after finishing the Cyberiad that it was indeed translated - I found it hard to believe, given the richness and originality of the language.

    6. Re:Predicting the future using language by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      so this explains all the new drugs they come out with?

      man i'm living the future

  20. Programming does that to you by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Funny

    You learn to use the ." format if you program.

    1. Re:Programming does that to you by JoshJ · · Score: 2, Insightful

      Like what?

      System.out.println("Hello, world."); // ?

      Because in that case it makes perfect sense.

      (code begins) (open paren) (String begins) (sentence begins) (sentence ends) (String ends) (close paren) (code ends)

      I have no problem with a sentence like:

      Bill said, "Go to the store."

      Because in that case, it's logical. Well, almost. You could argue that it should read:

      Bill said, "Go to the store.".

      Because there's really two sentences there (the narrator's sentence as well as Bill's) but actually putting two periods is redundant and I have no problem with the internal period in that case.

    2. Re:Programming does that to you by TapeCutter · · Score: 2, Interesting

      "(code begins) (open paren) (String begins) (sentence begins) (sentence ends) (String ends) (close paren) (code ends)"

      It may "make sense" but as is common in programming it does not fit the original simple requirement, in other words: where has the quote gone?

      --
      And did you exchange a walk on part in the war for a lead role in a cage? - Pink Floyd.
    3. Re:Programming does that to you by TeknoHog · · Score: 3, Funny

      Bill said, "Go to the store.".

      Because there's really two sentences there (the narrator's sentence as well as Bill's) but actually putting two periods is redundant and I have no problem with the internal period in that case.

      I wouldn't say it's redundant, since as you said, there are two sentences. However, language often sacrifices logical consistency for fluency and clarity. Having lots of punctuation marks is typographically ugly, and distracts from fluent reading. Frankly, .". looks like an anime character.

      --
      Escher was the first MC and Giger invented the HR department.
    4. Re:Programming does that to you by doctorcisco · · Score: 1

      Because there's really two sentences there

      I won't be a grammar Nazi, because (sigh) this is increasingly common usage. "Because there are really two sentences there" would be correct. English is increasingly lazy on subject-verb agreement if the subject isn't first in the sentence; this is an example.

      doc

    5. Re:Programming does that to you by rkanodia · · Score: 1

      Subject-verb agreement is stupid anyway. Spoken language doesn't need parity bits.

  21. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by markov_chain · · Score: 1

    I was going to call you on that last apostrophe but by gosh you used it properly. You learn something every day.

    --
    Tsunami -- You can't bring a good wave down!
  22. Love! by Xanthanov · · Score: 0, Offtopic

    HAHAHA, I'm in love, you bastards! I'm going on another date with the most wonderful girl I could possibly imagine tomorrow, and I want to tell the whole world!!!!!!!! I've never felt so happy in my whole bloody life!!! HAHAHAHAHAAHAH!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

    1. Re:Love! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Unless she reads this. Then she may suddenly fall ill and need to wash her hair.

    2. Re:Love! by jamesh · · Score: 1

      Why must you people continue making up new words... go and look up 'love' and 'girl' in the dictionary. I'm quite sure you won't find them there. And your use of the word 'date' makes no sense at all.

    3. Re:Love! by ResidntGeek · · Score: 1

      Wait a minute, I know the most wonderful girl you could possibly imagine! You bastard, I was gonna ask her out! Dammit, I'll get you for this...

      --
      ResidntGeek
    4. Re: Love! by Black+Parrot · · Score: 2, Funny

      I'm going on another date with the most wonderful girl I could possibly imagine Is that an indication of the fine qualities of the girl, or the poor quality of your imagination?
      --
      Sheesh, evil *and* a jerk. -- Jade
    5. Re:Love! by artecco · · Score: 1

      Dictionary wtf, nobody use them anymore, google it m8 "girl love" gives A LOT of hits, I know this for sure as its one of my favourite queries...... But I agree searching for "Date" doesn't make any sense at all

  23. Great by MightyMartian · · Score: 1

    Neat discovery, but it's hardly the first time researchers have been able to view trends in linguistic evolution. Check out Grimm's Law.

    --
    The world's burning. Moped Jesus spotted on I50. Details at 11.
    1. Re:Great by ResidntGeek · · Score: 1

      You do know the entire field of historical linguistics is based around trends in linguistic evolution? A wikipedia link about Grimm's Law is hardly the best way to demonstrate your point.

      --
      ResidntGeek
    2. Re:Great by MightyMartian · · Score: 1

      Waddya talking about? It demonstrates sound shifts in PIE languages over large periods of time, demonstrating that language evolution is, in fact, at least a somewhat regular thing.

      --
      The world's burning. Moped Jesus spotted on I50. Details at 11.
    3. Re:Great by ResidntGeek · · Score: 1

      Well, yeah, it's certainly an example of orderly linguistic evolution, but there are 10 billion other examples too. It's like demonstrating the physical applications of math by putting a rock next to another rock to make 2 rocks. It's true, but a massive understatement.

      --
      ResidntGeek
  24. what language are they studying? by quest(answer)ion · · Score: 1

    the missing point in TFA, i think, is where these researchers are drawing their data from. one of the things that's a recurrent problem in charting/predicting linguistic evolutionary trends is what you base whatever new Model #234a you've come up with on. most researchers doing this kind of modeling work use one or a few of the existing databases of english language text, but the question to ask is where exactly this text is drawn from. some databases draw heavily on samples of textual english--books, magazines, websites, etc--to put together their information on forms and usage, simply because it's the easiest way to go.

    for example: the problem with that kind of sampling, as most any linguist will probably tell you, is that while it gives you a bloody enormous body of coherent linguistic data to work with, textual language is 1) different in a bunch of important contextual ways from spoken language and 2) is not actually where linguistic innovation and change often happens. linguistic change is almost always a bottom up phenomenon; lower class influences upper class, spoken language is both a hotbed of innovation (think about street slang), and one of the most powerful influences in what actually becomes accepted as normal usage over time. so what happens in great frequency off of the radar of these databases of recorded text could be running counter to the trends they identified, or might even underline those trends and reinforce them.

    i have no idea whether or not this study is actually drawing on text-only data, or what kind of sampling they used, but it sure would be helpful to know, yeah?

    --
    /. is what happens when geeks talk. get used to it.
  25. But only for English? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    As I gather from the TFA, they have studied 177 irregular verbs from Old English. What I am interested in:

    1) How did they measure the frequency of use of these verbs? Especially now when English is being used as a second language for almost every literate person?
    2) What about other languages? Explicitly German, from which English derived, and where a lot of irregular verbs are still being used? (borrowing of verbs from English is not as common in German as it is in other languages)

    1. Re:But only for English? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Now, now, there's upwards of 250 million people in the United States, and quite a few in parts of Europe that use English as a mother tongue.

      At least some of the British are bound to be literate. Also, I would SWEAR I saw a 'merikan laboriously reading a street sign the other day. So, there's hope for that.

    2. Re:But only for English? by Black+Parrot · · Score: 1

      Explicitly German, from which English derived That's a misconception: they both evolved from a common ancestry.

      It's kind of fun to see all the misconceptions these language articles bring out. (And refreshing, because for the most part they aren't politically motivated.) Language is one of the most familiar of all phenomena, but our intuitive understanding of it tends to be way out of whack with reality.

      --
      Sheesh, evil *and* a jerk. -- Jade
  26. Queue Ocatavio Paz... by IANAAC · · Score: 1

    and all his analysis of the word "chingar" in El laberinto de la soledad.

  27. That link got -1:Troll ?!???? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Jesus Fuck, your linked post should have been +5 Funny/Informative.
    Best grammar Nazi post seen yet.

    Now if you'll pardon me I have to get to what I was "beed" doing.

  28. Bellyfeel! by morari · · Score: 1

    Oldthinkers unbellyfeel Ingsoc...

    --
    "He who can destroy a thing, controls a thing." --Paul Atreides, Dune
  29. Keep the 'mitten' in 'smitten' by xPsi · · Score: 2, Interesting
    Irregular verbs with lower frequencies of use -- such as "shrive" and "smite," with half-lives of 300 and 700 years, respectively -- are much more likely to succumb to regularization.

    I'm not sure what fancy-pants sources these guys are using, but 'shirve' and 'smite' are definitely not low frequency verbs in my crowd. I say keep the 'mote' in smote. They will rue the day when 'smitted' crosses my lips!

    --
    i\hbar\dot{\psi}=\hat{H}\psi
    1. Re:Keep the 'mitten' in 'smitten' by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Once smitted always smut, I ween

    2. Re:Keep the 'mitten' in 'smitten' by porpnorber · · Score: 1

      I'm not sure what fancy-pants sources these guys are using, but 'shirve' and 'smite' are definitely not low frequency verbs in my crowd. I say keep the 'mote' in smote. They will rue the day when 'smitted' crosses my lips!

      ...Surely the correct form is 'smut'?

    3. Re:Keep the 'mitten' in 'smitten' by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Regular conjugation would result in "smited", not "smitted". The latter would be derived from the verb "smit".

    4. Re:Keep the 'mitten' in 'smitten' by aproposofwhat · · Score: 1
      Perhaps the survival of these words is in part due to the existence of a particular translation of a book used every Sunday throughout the (Anglican) Christian world.

      All that smiting and begetting, when repeated often enough, should be enough to keep the words alive (at least until the end days!)

      --
      One swallow does not a fellatrix make
  30. Lolcats by Tatisimo · · Score: 2, Interesting
    I hope it evolves to something like this:

    im in ur internetz, evolving ur languages

    --
    Give Kashyyyk back to the Wookies
  31. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by AoT · · Score: 2, Insightful

    Yes, I cry and cry when people forget the Harvard comma.

    Oh wait, no I don't, it's a useless extra comma that isn't necessary.

  32. In the future... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    ...everyone will speak as lolcats.

    I can haz language?

    1. Re:In the future... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You realize those thieving bastards just ripped off all our cat macros and made a site about it, right? Fuckin' a, they even put Longcat on their site with a damn watermark, like they fucking came up with it.

  33. Yes, well...however...there are other methods. by djupedal · · Score: 0

    Languages are 'derived', sure - they evolve as derivations of other languages and/or common usage that pushes some words into popularity while others fall into history. All languages but one...

    The Korean language that has been in use for the last four hundred years is the only 'human' invented language on the planet. At one time, when the country was unified by one King, it became clear that the multiplicity of dialects in use around the country were barriers prohibiting trade, mobility, communication, learning from each other, etc.

    The top thinkers were gathered and ordered to design a language that was simple to learn and speak...read and write. Once this was done, the King simply decreed that all citizens adopt it, shedding their separate dialects.

    Of course, foreigners still need to train their tongues to make correct sounds, but if you already speak Chinese or Japanese, as examples, you can pick Korean up in short order. Reading and writing are similarly learned.

    My point is that the future of language lies not only in continued evolution. What say we follow the Korean lead and build a new one everyone can use...or perhaps just use Korean :)

    1. Re:Yes, well...however...there are other methods. by belmolis · · Score: 5, Interesting

      Sorry, but this is absolutely false. Korean has dialects that differ significantly from each other - there is no single unified language. Nor did the king ever standardize the language. Korean is no more artificial than any other human language. This appears to be a garbled version of the development of the Hangul alphabet by king Sejong and his advisors. This was a great development, but it was just a writing system, not a standardization of the language itself.

      Furthermore, it is not true that someone who speaks Chinese or Japanese can quickly pick up Korean. Chinese and Korean are not only unrelated but of radically different types. Chinese speakers find Korean quite difficult. Japanese speakers find Korean somewhat easier because the two languages are very similar in grammatical type, but even so most of the vocabulary is quite unfamiliar and the morphology, though similar in a general typological way, is quite different in detail.

    2. Re:Yes, well...however...there are other methods. by theheadlessrabbit · · Score: 1

      I agree that the korean (0r ) alphbet is extreamly easy to learn, (I picked it up in 3 days) individual words are also quite easy to learn, as most words are short and easy to pronounce.

      But when it comes to speaking Korean fluently, and being able to engage in conversation, it is like hitting a brick wall.

      aside from , there are no sounds in Korean that we dont have in English. all you have to do is turn into two seperate symbols and sounds, say 'R' and 'L', and add an 'F' and a 'V', and your set.

      also, in Korean, each block is one syllable, so you know exactly how to say a word by how it is written. '' is 'han-guk', there is no confusion with 'hang-uk' you know how to say it quite easily.

      i'm not even going to go into detail of how each character representes the movement of the tounge inside the mouth. it is so logical and efficient, I'm surprized the Germans don't use it. :P

      unfortunatly, multiple consonance tother just dont work. My land name, Clements, either becomes 'cle-men-te-su' or 'cle-men-chu'.

      while it is a great example of a logical language in its written form, it does have its limitations.

      --
      -I only code in BASIC.-
    3. Re:Yes, well...however...there are other methods. by Estanislao+Mart�nez · · Score: 3, Interesting

      Languages are 'derived', sure - they evolve as derivations of other languages and/or common usage that pushes some words into popularity while others fall into history.

      Linguistics 101 lesson: a language is not a bag of words. Any generalization about language that treats it as if it is some bag of words (e.g., in this case, that language change consists of new words entering the bag, while other words fall out of it) shows a profound ignorance of the fundamental ideas of linguistics. A language is a grammar; people invent and adopt new words spontaneously all the time, but not, say, morphological paradigms, case agreement, or new forms of valence-changing rules like the passive or the causative alternation. (Yes, I'm using words that most people who read this won't understand, but that's the point--if you don't understand terms like that, your "insights" into laguage aren't very valuable.)

      The Korean language that has been in use for the last four hundred years is the only 'human' invented language on the planet. At one time, when the country was unified by one King, it became clear that the multiplicity of dialects in use around the country were barriers prohibiting trade, mobility, communication, learning from each other, etc. The top thinkers were gathered and ordered to design a language that was simple to learn and speak...read and write. Once this was done, the King simply decreed that all citizens adopt it, shedding their separate dialects.

      That sounds like a combination of myth and hyperbole about a perfectly ordinary language standardization process (e.g., the kind that happened in Spain during the reign of Alfonso X of Castile, and again after the publication of Antonio de Nebrija's grammar). I don't know what Korean king you're talking about here; my first thought was Sejong the Great, but the timeline is wrong (he lived about 600 years ago, not 400). At any rate, his great contribution was an orthography (Hangeul) that wasn't adopted until much later.

    4. Re:Yes, well...however...there are other methods. by wiremind · · Score: 1

      that is really cool, the korean's inventing their language, I had never heard about that.

    5. Re:Yes, well...however...there are other methods. by Rinisari · · Score: 1

      Korean: 78M speakers, 400 years = 195,000 speakers/year in existence. Esperanto: 2M speakers, 122 years = 16,393 speakers/year in existence. Okay, the numbers didn't work out like I thought they would, but it seem to be not bad for the language not being forced upon people.

    6. Re:Yes, well...however...there are other methods. by johl · · Score: 1

      Sorry, as cute as your story sounds, it's completely wrong. You probably confuse the history of the Korean writing system (Hangul) with the Korean language. While the writing system was indeed created and introduced by royal order in the 15th century, spoken Korean evolved in a long process from languages of the Han and Buyeo tribes (with similarities to other languages in the Altaic family of languages) to a somewhat unified language in Unified Shila in the 7th century. Today's Korean language is the result of morphological and phonological changes to middle Korean that occured around the 16th or 17th century. Please check your facts. :)

    7. Re:Yes, well...however...there are other methods. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Wait - people only speak Korean for one year in their life..?

    8. Re:Yes, well...however...there are other methods. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      your "insights" into laguage aren't very valuable
      Yeah, well, that's all fine and good, but maybe you should get a better bag of words. :)
  34. You're missing the big one by Estanislao+Mart�nez · · Score: 1

    1) How did they measure the frequency of use of these verbs? Especially now when English is being used as a second language for almost every literate person?

    TFA is short on details, but they must've used a historical corpus (that's linguistese for "a database of texts").

    This of course raises the question of what kind of language the corpus is representative of, and what kind of language is is not representative of. The bodies of text we have for Old and Middle English are far less representative than what we have for contemporary English; e.g., we don't have a lot of transcribed recordings of phone conversations between family members from back in Chaucer's day.

    Of course, it's kind of hard to criticise this study without looking at it. The only thing that strikes me so far: none of the authors seems to be a linguist.

    1. Re: You're missing the big one by Black+Parrot · · Score: 1

      This of course raises the question of what kind of language the corpus is representative of, and what kind of language is is not representative of. The bodies of text we have for Old and Middle English are far less representative than what we have for contemporary English Also, what survives of ME comes in a great and confusing variety of dialects that almost seem like different languages.
      --
      Sheesh, evil *and* a jerk. -- Jade
  35. Question by zobier · · Score: 1

    I mean no disrespect to the researchers involved here, however this seems an appropriate topic for this question.

    I occasionally see algorithms used to predict future outcomes of a system where the algorithm appears to have been manipulated to fit the data rather than actually attempt to model the system in question. A prime example is one where the "novelty" of the universe is plotted over time and spikes appear in correlation with historic events. My question: Is there a specific term to describe this type of shenanigans?

    --
    Me lost me cookie at the disco.
    1. Re: Question by Black+Parrot · · Score: 1

      I occasionally see algorithms used to predict future outcomes of a system where the algorithm appears to have been manipulated to fit the data rather than actually attempt to model the system in question. A prime example is one where the "novelty" of the universe is plotted over time and spikes appear in correlation with historic events. My question: Is there a specific term to describe this type of shenanigans? In the general case it should probably be considered a form of "overfitting", in the sense of what happens when you use a high-order polynomial to pass your plot through all your data points, rather than using a straight line or simple curve and allowing some of the data to scatter around it.

      Of course, if you deliberately do it to misrepresent something, it can be called "lying" rather than "overfitting".
      --
      Sheesh, evil *and* a jerk. -- Jade
    2. Re: Question by zobier · · Score: 1

      I occasionally see algorithms used to predict future outcomes of a system where the algorithm appears to have been manipulated to fit the data rather than actually attempt to model the system in question. A prime example is one where the "novelty" of the universe is plotted over time and spikes appear in correlation with historic events. My question: Is there a specific term to describe this type of shenanigans? In the general case it should probably be considered a form of "overfitting", in the sense of what happens when you use a high-order polynomial to pass your plot through all your data points, rather than using a straight line or simple curve and allowing some of the data to scatter around it.

      Of course, if you deliberately do it to misrepresent something, it can be called "lying" rather than "overfitting". The sad thing in the Novelty Theory case is that it's proponents believe in it.
      --
      Me lost me cookie at the disco.
    3. Re: Question by zobier · · Score: 1

      Thanks by the way.
      I also found this linked to from the wiki page on overfitting which seems appropriate.

      --
      Me lost me cookie at the disco.
    4. Re:Question by jbmichel · · Score: 1

      Hello, It can happen that the algorithms used by researchers to prove such or such result need very specific initial conditions, or use shortcuts that do not reflect the whole range of possibles. We are very much aware of this problem and of the doubt it casts into people's minds, and this is why our algorithm and the complete dataset is freely available at www.languagedata.org. Included are methods to "move" the data around, and the fitting methods, so that you can see for yourself our results are extremely robust. Irregular verbs do undergo exponential decay, at a rate that is inversely proportional to he square root of their frequency. I hope you find this helpful Best, Jean-Baptiste Michel

  36. Re:Keep the 'mittens' in The Kittens by Crypto+Gnome · · Score: 1
    Smitten Zie Deutsche?

    Grocken Zie Greek?

    Seriously folks, now all they need is a study to predict which comes first - the "regularization" of irregular verbs (you'd think they'd just eat-all bran) versus their seriously overdue death.
    • smite
    • shrive
    Aside from their archive of "least used verbs throughout history" where else do you find these words?
    --
    Visit CryptoGnome in his home.
  37. All that just goes to show... by Estanislao+Mart�nez · · Score: 1

    ...that Rudolf Flesch doesn't know what the hell he's talking about.

    Since Chinese is a spoken language rather than a written language (The writing is mostly pictorial representing whole concepts),

    Um, Chinese is no more of a spoken language than English is, and no less of a written language either. Chinese script isn't "pictorial," either; it's logographic, with characters representing words. For mnemonic reasons, characters are related to others in a set of ways that I will not explain. (Because I don't in fact understand it well enough to explain it. See, it is possible to refrain from speaking about what one does not know.)

    it wasn't frozen in place with a bunch of affixes (suffixes, prefixes, etc.) or genders and all that other stuff that makes English hard to learn.

    Oh, yes, of course, because Chinese has no complicated stuff. Oh, no, none at all.

    1. Re:All that just goes to show... by emj · · Score: 1
      ...that Rudolf Flesch doesn't know what the hell he's talking about.

      Since Chinese is a spoken language rather than a written language (The writing is mostly pictorial representing whole concepts),

      Um, Chinese is no more of a spoken language than English is, and no less of a written language either. Chinese script isn't "pictorial," either; it's logographic, with characters representing words. For mnemonic reasons, characters are related to others in a set of ways that I will not explain. (Because I don't in fact understand it well enough to explain it. See, it is possible to refrain from speaking about what one does not know.)

      it wasn't frozen in place with a bunch of affixes (suffixes, prefixes, etc.) or genders and all that other stuff that makes English hard to learn.

      Oh, yes, of course, because Chinese has no complicated stuff. Oh, no, none at all.

      PS there you go
  38. idiocracy by JazzyMusicMan · · Score: 0

    I predict a language where some words take on many meanings, for example fuck will one day be more than a noun, an adjective, a verb, an adverb and pronoun.

    What the fuck?
    Stop fucking doing that!
    I was fucking...
    We were going fucking fast!
    Thats fucking cool!

    Wit da wordz dat survive, we'll abbr. dem, soz we can text fzter.

    Eventually, we'll replace most common words with more common vulgar or shorter ones. And all our plants will get their electrolytes! Cuz its what plants need!

    1. Re:idiocracy by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I predict a language where some words take on many meanings


      Ha ha, you talk like a fag.
  39. How is that relevant? by Estanislao+Mart�nez · · Score: 1

    This isn't really news. We linguists have known this for a long time, as the article mentions, and we've known why: a child learning a language tends to regularize irregular forms.

    Are you aware of any historical linguistics research that makes quantitative hypotheses about the relationship between word frequency and morphological regularization? I don't know if there are any (and I wouldn't be surprised either way), but whether this study is "news" depends on the answer to that question, not on the all-too-well known fact that children learn regular inflectional paradigms before they learn irregular ones.

    1. Re:How is that relevant? by belmolis · · Score: 1

      I think you need to reread my comment, which you haven't understood. Yes, it has long been known that only common verbs remain irregular. The description I gave of the stages in child language acquisition was part of the explanation of why this is the case. So, as I said, the basic observation is not news. The virtue of the study is in providing a more precise quantitative model.

    2. Re:How is that relevant? by Estanislao+Mart�nez · · Score: 1

      I read your comment carefully, and it still strikes me as irrelevant; the study is about the rate of language change, not about mechanisms.

      At any rate, the idea that child language is the primary motor of language change is hopelessly flawed. I'd have to look it up, but IIRC there's a lot of sociolinguistic research that casts doubt on it. Language change seems not to be driven by children, but by adolescents and young adults, who've long. (And the really big mechanism is phonological change, not morphological assimilation, anyway.)

  40. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by flyingfsck · · Score: 1

    "we will "loose" a lot of words"

    Why would the words fall apart? I guess you already lost "lose"... ;)

    --
    Excuse me, but please get off my Pennisetum Clandestinum, eh!
  41. Squatting by Mark_MF-WN · · Score: 1

    I shudder to think what someone from 50 years ago would have imagined if they heard the phrase "Internet domain squatting". It sounds like some kind of hobby for fecephiliac landowners.

    1. Re:Squatting by wiremind · · Score: 1

      I was thinking about this a few weeks ago, and i figured being a programmer what sounds perfectly normal to me might be incomprehensible to my grandparents. To test this theory I used as a sample data set the last few months of my own personal email and (msn/yahoo/aim) chat logs.

      Reading through it I realized alot (20%?) of my emails and chat's would be completely incomprehensible to someone 50 years older than me.

      This was IM'd to a friend a few weeks ago, we've got a hardware based vpn tunnel always-on between our houses, just a fun playground to try out network activity's. We have our own AD domain setup and all the computers at both locations in the same forest. with that in mind, this was the message:

      "hey! i'm back up. i reconfigured my routers subnet to 192.168.15.* and updated the dhcp reservation for the fileserver 'jasmine', in case dns/wins name resolution doesn't work right away, the ip's now 15.10 . If you want to remote desktop to jasmine through the vpn tunnel it should work just fine, i've already joined everyone back to the domain. "

      now, 1) i know that every profession has its own vocabulary, and this slashdot article is more about 'common language', but still, what i wrote, for me at least, is common language, so i consider it fair game.

      i've kinda forgotten my point, i guess i just agree with the parent, alot of what we today consider normal usage wouldnt make any sense to an 80 year old person.

    2. Re:Squatting by Mark_MF-WN · · Score: 1
      Jargon is certainly a special case ... but then again, jargon has a tendency to be one of the more notable mechanisms by which languages change. Jargon by its very nature gets used intensely by those who need it, so it would probably regularize faster. And as the metaphors captured by that jargon spread, so does the jargon.

      Lots of tech jargon has become just a normal part of English (not to mention all of the other languages that don't have governments deliberately managing them). EVERYONE knows what you mean when you say upload, and they have a pretty clear idea what you're talking about when you say bandwidth. They've been already been extensively adapted to non-technical domains.

      One of my history professors had apparently done some very interesting research into how language has changed due to the rise of science -- and made the point that, although western languages haven't actually changed much since then, the metaphors and concepts used in those languages have changed so much that it would be nearly impossible to carry on a conversation with people from Copernicus's time. The underlying concepts and ways of looking at the world would be too different. The changes in how verbs are conjugated, and other seemingly trivial changes, are very much related to that. They all affect the metaphors that we can use effectively, which is a critical aspect of how Humans reason and understand the world.

    3. Re:Squatting by sqrt(2) · · Score: 1

      That's just an example of the specialized jargon different fields have. There's a lot of it in IT and computer related areas, but probably no more than any other specialized field. When I started playing paintball I learned an entirely new set of vocabulary that is all but incomprehensible to someone outside of the hobby. My grandfather commanded tanks and APCs during the Korean war, despite being old I'm sure he knows tons of jargon related to the equipment and tech he worked with back then and most of it would probably be jibberish to me too.

      Try talking about the tech you use today when YOU are 80 years old, see if your grandkids understand what the hell you're rambling on about :P

      --
      If you build it, nerds will come. Soylentnews.org
    4. Re:Squatting by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      As a side note, where I work, they use "bandwidth" as a synonym for "availability," as in the following sentences:

      "Who has bandwith to work on this project?" and
      "How's your bandwith? Can we set up a meeting this afternoon?"

      'course, it is a telecomm company...

  42. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by CodyRazor · · Score: 0

    I prdct nglsh lnguge n grmr bcm mre efcnt n snsbl lk txt msgs

    Seriously thongh i think this is what will happen. As everyone starts using mobile phones and internet messaging theyl get so used to it they'l wonder why they dont do it all the time, and then as the majority of the population is less educated and doesnt understand the beauty and possibility a complex language creates eventually knowledge of english as we know it today will be restricted to a select few with people with the others either ignoring it or bastardizing the words. the same has already happend. e.g. There are four meanings to the word "Imperative". Most people will struggle to give you one.

    Also watch idiocracy, it shows you what will probably happen in the near future.

    "Whycome you dont have a tattoo?" lol

    --
    So Skulldilocks threw acid on the schoolchildrens' faces, cause somebody from the bible told her to do it!
  43. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 5, Funny
    A panda walks into a café. He orders a sandwich, eats it, then draws a gun and proceeds to fire it at the other patrons.

    "Why?" asks the confused, surviving waiter amidst the carnage, as the panda makes towards the exit. The panda produces a badly punctuated wildlife manual and tosses it over his shoulder.

    "Well, I'm a panda," he says at the door. "Look it up."

    The waiter turns to the relevant entry in the manual and, sure enough, finds an explanation. "Panda. Large black-and-white bear-like mammal, native to China. Eats, shoots and leaves."

  44. Re:Keep the 'mittens' in The Kittens by glwtta · · Score: 2, Informative

    Aside from their archive of "least used verbs throughout history" where else do you find these words?

    That is a grievous insult to the English language - shrive yourself or I will smite your ass!

    (ok, so I don't have occasion to use "shrive" too often, but "smite" is a very useful word)

    --
    sic transit gloria mundi
  45. Too late for "wed" by p3d0 · · Score: 1

    According to half a dozen dictionaries, "wedded" is already an acceptable past tense for "wed", and is already in use.

    --
    Patrick Doyle
    I mod down every jackass who puts his moderation policy in his sig. Oh, wait a sec....
    1. Re:Too late for "wed" by Max+Littlemore · · Score: 2, Insightful

      Yes, but they're all American dictionaries, so they don't really count, do they?

      You'll also find "burglarize" in American dictionaries. There's already a prefectly good verb - burgle - from which comes burglar, but you guys get all confused about shortening a noun to verberize it, so you have to make a new, bigger verb so you can feel safe about conjugaterizationerizing that. Does my head in.

      No, American dictionaries don't count, sorry.

      --
      I don't therefore I'm not.
    2. Re:Too late for "wed" by Petrushka · · Score: 1

      "wedded" is already an acceptable past tense for "wed", and is already in use.

      Have you ever met a pair of "newlyweddeds"?

    3. Re:Too late for "wed" by BurntNickel · · Score: 1

      You'll also find "burglarize" in American dictionaries. There's already a prefectly good verb - burgle - from which comes burglar, but you guys get all confused about shortening a noun to verberize it, so you have to make a new, bigger verb so you can feel safe about conjugaterizationerizing that. Does my head in.

      It's funny that you mention that as we often discuss this issue at work. My coworkers and I have discussed how there are people who do this intentionally to sound more sophisticated. We even refer to this effect as "reverbification". (My apologies to reverb.) You start with a perfectly fine verb, turn it into a noun and then back into a verb that is a whole lot more awkward than the one you started with.

      --
      And the knowledge that they fear is a weapon to be used against them...
    4. Re:Too late for "wed" by p3d0 · · Score: 1

      I've got one: "administrate". I can't figure out what's wrong with "administer".

      --
      Patrick Doyle
      I mod down every jackass who puts his moderation policy in his sig. Oh, wait a sec....
    5. Re:Too late for "wed" by Godwin+O'Hitler · · Score: 1

      Orientate is another one. I think it happens by analogy.
      E.g., differentiation is a noun derived from differentiate so orientation/administration must be a noun derived from orientate/administrate.

      --
      No, your children are not the special ones. Nor are your pets.
    6. Re:Too late for "wed" by Control+Group · · Score: 1

      The inverse of this is why I hate the word 'motivation'. You've got your noun, 'motive'. You've got your verbified noun, 'motivate'. Then you've got your nounification of the verbified noun, 'motivation'.

      And the posters suck.

      --

      Reality has a conservative bias: it conserves mass, energy, momentum...
    7. Re:Too late for "wed" by ioshhdflwuegfh · · Score: 1

      You'll also find "burglarize" in American dictionaries. There's already a prefectly good verb - burgle - from which comes burglar, but you guys get all confused about shortening a noun to verberize it, so you have to make a new, bigger verb so you can feel safe about conjugaterizationerizing that. Does my head in. But wait, what about the rule that every noun can be verbed?
    8. Re:Too late for "wed" by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      This happens a lot in the Army (US Type, 1 each). The best I've heard is "publicate" as opposed to "publish."

    9. Re:Too late for "wed" by CrayDrygu · · Score: 1

      The inverse of this is why I hate the word 'motivation'. You've got your noun, 'motive'. You've got your verbified noun, 'motivate'. Then you've got your nounification of the verbified noun, 'motivation'.

      Personally, I see 'motive' and 'motivation' as different concepts. For example, if you're investigating a crime, you'll want to interview everyone who had a motive in order to find out which one had the motivation to go through with it. In other words, not everyone with a reason or desire to do something will have the determination to carry it out.

      --

      --
      "I personal[ly] think Unix is "superior" because on LSD it tastes like Blue." -- jbarnett

    10. Re:Too late for "wed" by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You'll also find "burglarize" in American dictionaries. There's already a prefectly good verb - burgle - from which comes burglar, but you guys get all confused about shortening a noun to verberize it, so you have to make a new, bigger verb so you can feel safe about conjugaterizationerizing that. Does my head in. You're right. We apogle.

      (AC, shamelessly stolen.)

    11. Re:Too late for "wed" by Max+Littlemore · · Score: 1

      But wait, what about the rule that every noun can be verbed?

      Has your house ever been burglared?

      --
      I don't therefore I'm not.
    12. Re:Too late for "wed" by rantingkitten · · Score: 1

      So I suppose British English is the be-all and end-all of proper grammar, then? Tell me, when "are" the band playing?

      You can complain about American English when you guys figure out the concept of collective nouns and subject/verb agreement.

      --
      mirrorshades radio -- darkwave, industrial, futurepop, ebm.
    13. Re:Too late for "wed" by UserGoogol · · Score: 1

      Burgle is a back-formation. The word burglar came first. In fact, looking at the OED (not freely available, but I'm a college student so I have access to their website) "burgle" didn't come into being until the 19th century, where it was somewhat self-consciously silly sounding at least initially.

      --
      "Never attribute to malice that which can be adequately explained by stupidity." -- Hanlon's Razor
    14. Re:Too late for "wed" by Max+Littlemore · · Score: 1

      So I suppose British English is the be-all and end-all of proper grammar, then?

      British English has excellent grammar and spelling, but it lacks the word "trackie-dacks" and that's where it dies in the arse.

      You can complain about American English when you guys figure out the concept of collective nouns and subject/verb agreement.

      The entire gaggle of british subjects complain about anything and everything and invariably agree that none of it is quite up to scratch. Your use of the noun agreement, rather than the verb agree, is incorrect and demonstrates the point that Americans will unecessarily create overenounerations of verbs and extraverberaterize nouns.

      --
      I don't therefore I'm not.
    15. Re:Too late for "wed" by Max+Littlemore · · Score: 1

      You're right. We apogle.

      Be careful there. Once you start applying exceptions to everything as if they are standard, you begin on a slippery slope, the stepth of which should not be underestimaterized.

      --
      I don't therefore I'm not.
    16. Re:Too late for "wed" by Max+Littlemore · · Score: 1

      That explains that one nicely.

      What I don't understand and nearly sends me into a violent crimson rage is the use of utilise where use's use is required! What's with that?

      --
      I don't therefore I'm not.
    17. Re:Too late for "wed" by ioshhdflwuegfh · · Score: 1

      But wait, what about the rule that every noun can be verbed? Has your house ever been burglared? No, not that I know of.
    18. Re:Too late for "wed" by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You might want to seriously reconsider your criticism of the agree/agreement dicohotomy there...

  46. Death of COBOL by Tablizer · · Score: 2, Funny

    The only way that COBOL may ever end is when English changes so much that COBOL no longer reads as English.

    1. Re:Death of COBOL by ioshhdflwuegfh · · Score: 1

      The only way that COBOL may ever end is when English changes so much that COBOL no longer reads as English. Yeah, COBOL, great example, that's really interesting language!
  47. The Future? by jamstar7 · · Score: 1

    Been done, I think...

    --
    Understanding the scope of the problem is the first step on the path to true panic.
  48. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by fyoder · · Score: 1

    I predict we will "loose" a lot of words and have them replaced by ones with similar spelling. You looser.
    --
    Loose lips lose spit.
  49. Not so much... by Jarjarthejedi · · Score: 1

    "the beauty and possibility a complex language"

    Be that as it may, 99% of that beauty and complexity is useless. Just because something is nice doesn't mean it should be used on a daily basis, Latin is nice sounding but I don't want to give a speech in it, English is much better for that purpose.

    Now then spelling might change as a result of text messaging, but speech probably won't since 99% of people pronounce the words (except lol, which gets you ridiculed if you say it but confuses people if you spell it out (laugh out loud?)) as the real word. The written language will probably be hugely affected by text messaging, but speech will be mostly unaffected (besides the addition of a few new words, acronyms, which has been happening for a long time now, ASAP, AWOL etc). It's going to be something else that changes speech.

    As for Imperative, I highly doubt that most people can't link Imperative to Important, especially with it being used a good amount in games/movies. It's other meanings aren't well known (I only had a fuzzy recall of it off-hand) but that's because they're not important to anyone besides an English Major. Imperative has a 5th meaning I'd bet you don't know, it's a form of Computer programming (similar to Procedural programming). Just because people don't know something doesn't imply that knowledge is being lost, most people have no need to learn what Imperative means for grammar, just as most don't need to know what it means in programming.

    --
    There are two kinds of fool One says 'This is old therefore good' Another says 'This is new therefore better'- Dean Ing
    1. Re:Not so much... by CodyRazor · · Score: 0


      Just because people don't know something doesn't imply that knowledge is being lost

      Isnt that exactly what it means?

      i know what your saying tho. im not trying to imply we should all talk like a shakespearean play all day, not at all. but we should have a proper knowledge of the english language. you say its not important to know these things. who are you to judge this? what im saying is as people become less and less aware of these things they eventually dissapear. the language becomes simpler and simpler and eventually we dont have any appropriate language to use in formal or complex situatuions and thats a bad thing. education isnt unnessecery just because we dont use it every day.

      How many times have you come accross someone who tried to explain a complicated idea or concept to you and struggles because they dont have the words or articulation to convey it?

      ulitmate efficiency is not always the idea answer.

      the 5th meaning your talking about was the 4th meaning i was reffering to, although i guess thats a bad example.
      --
      So Skulldilocks threw acid on the schoolchildrens' faces, cause somebody from the bible told her to do it!
    2. Re:Not so much... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Latin is nice sounding but I don't want to give a speech in it, English is much better for that purpose.
      Romanorum sum, tu agrestis insensilis est!
    3. Re:Not so much... by jonadab · · Score: 1

      > except lol, which gets you ridiculed if you say it but confuses people if you spell it out (laugh out loud?)

      LOL is a special case because it has shifted so much in meaning. Originally, LOL meant, approximately, "I'm laughing out loud at what you just said, because it's so funny I can't help myself", but these days it expresses a much milder reaction, almost closer to "eh, whatever you say, mate", or at most "heh, yeah". The original meaning has been pretty much entirely taken over by more emphatic forms, such as ROFL and FOCL. "Laughing Out Loud" is the etymology of LOL, but it's no longer the meaning, or at least not the primary meaning.

      The only way I can imagine pronouncing it, incidentally, is "Ell Oh Ell", but then again I also say "Tee Cee Pee Aye Pee" and "Oh Tee Oh Aych" and "Eks Emm Ell" and "Ess Kew Ell", so maybe I just like to spell things out. (OTOH, I pronounce "mySQL" in two syllables. Then there are local place names. I've heard "Bucyrus" pronounced as one syllable, though it's usually two, three only if you're not from around here...)

      --
      Cut that out, or I will ship you to Norilsk in a box.
    4. Re:Not so much... by Stefanwulf · · Score: 1

      Be that as it may, 99% of that beauty and complexity is useless. Just because something is nice doesn't mean it should be used on a daily basis, Latin is nice sounding but I don't want to give a speech in it, English is much better for that purpose.
      Honestly, Latin always struck me as one of the more efficient, regular, and cleanly structured languages I've ever learned. Worlds beyond English in that regard. It's also my experience, however, that the only useless words in a language are the ones that other people don't know, and then they're only useless when you aren't trying to sound important and knowledgable without saying anything. :)

      With regard to words in common use, some words or forms of expression might initially be redundant, but the subtle patterns of use which emerge start to imbue the choice of one or another with meaning, and then they suddenly _are_ useful, allowing me to distinguish between pork and ham, or between the openings "If I was in the wrong..." and "If I were in the wrong...", or for that matter "If I was wrong". All of them convey different information, place their audiences in a slightly different frame of mind, and allow for more subtle expression of ideas. These are precisely the traits I'd _love_ to have when attempting to move people to action or emotion through speech, and that's why I'll take the complexity of English over the rigid efficiency of classical Latin for any address of the week.
    5. Re:Not so much... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      lawl.

    6. Re:Not so much... by SQLGuru · · Score: 1

      Actually, I would pronounce it more like loll (similar to lull) if I were to actually say it out loud.

      LOL - Loll (but I don't use it that way, I read it as Laugh Out Loud)
      SQL - Cee-Qwell (sequel) -- but then I do this *EVERY* day, and sequel is "shorter"
      TCP/IP - we agree
      XML - we agree
      OTOH - when I read (or say) this, I actually use all of the words: On The Other Hand......because it hasn't lost it's original meaning. Basically if the acronym is used only in informal written form, I don't "pronounce" it but substitute the meaning.

      Layne

  50. Oblig in-joke continuation and brit-com citation by ribman · · Score: 1

    I hope you will not object if I also offer the Doctor my most enthusiastic contrafribularities.

    (apol: blackadder)

  51. Evolved? by andreyw · · Score: 1

    At least for Indo-European languages, the pattern seems to have been deevolution rather than evolution. Compare any of the "ancient" languages to their derivates (examining Romance, Germanic, Slavic languages, Greek, etc..) and you know what I am talking about.

    1. Re:Evolved? by lskovlund · · Score: 1

      You need to learn the difference between syntax and morphology. Both are included in any reasonable definition of grammar, although many laypeople (like you) only consider the latter to be complexity. In general, the level of complexity of each of these will be inversely proportional to the other: A language with small morphological systems (like English) will tend to have many constraints on things like word order. In Latin (which had a large morphological system), word order was essentially free. In English, it is not.

    2. Re:Evolved? by Petrushka · · Score: 1

      I don't know what you're talking about, actually, because it's not clear what you mean by "deevolution". If you mean "simplification", that would be wrong. Over centuries, the main morphological trend is generally not from "complex" to "simple", but from "strong" forms to "weak" forms. That is a never-ending cycle, because different forms become the new weak ones, so that weak forms eventually become strong. Repeat ad infinitum.

      Example: in some Germanic languages, -en is the weak plural ending. In English, -en is used on only a handful of nouns (children, oxen, and some more archaic ones like brethren and eyen); -s is now the weak plural ending. Someday, no doubt, some new plural ending will come along which will become the new default, and -s will gradually become a strong form.

      (I had a bunch of other examples to reel off, but listing them would be about as geeky as writing out my own "Hello world" script in Bronze Age Greek.)

    3. Re:Evolved? by andreyw · · Score: 1

      I mean the loss of the use of cases and the gravitation to prepositional phrases, for example. Basically, you lose a simple way to convey a complex idea, instead relying on entire phrase constructions. You lose flexibility, and word position variation introduces ambiguity or separate meaning.

    4. Re:Evolved? by Petrushka · · Score: 1

      That does make more sense, though I'm not sure why you call it "deevolution". Isn't it simply a shift from suffixes to prefixes (though modern English is also gradually acquiring a set of infixes as well)? I suppose there may be some finely-honed distinction between suffixes and case-endings, but I should imagine it's a bit of an arbitrary one. In any case, I find the extraordinarily strict word-order in some modern languages such as English and French is anything but ambiguous!

  52. What of Bring - Brang - Brung? by zooblethorpe · · Score: 1

    What then of the commonly heard "brang" and "brung"? How would this fit into this pattern? Perhaps there is some intuitive understanding of how strong verbs conjugate that is then misapplied in such cases as this?

    I'm also intrigued by the similarity of strong verb conjugation with the way Semitic consonantal roots derive new words through vowel changes -- though admittedly I know very little about Semitic languages. But the similarity does make me wonder if it's one of the basic linguistic paradigms for word formation -- vowel change, vs. consonant change. Vowel change shows up in Japanese (more my area of familiarity) to some extent as well, with koro koro and kuru kuru both denoting a rolling motion, for instance, from which may be derived korogaru "to roll, intransitive" and kuruma "car or carriage"...

    < sigh. > More evidence that I should get off my duff, make some time in my schedule, and actually get around to reading up on linguistics. :)

    Cheers,

    --
    "What in the name of Fats Waller is that?"
    "A four-foot prune."
    1. Re:What of Bring - Brang - Brung? by pross · · Score: 1

      What then of the commonly heard "brang" and "brung"? How would this fit into this pattern?

      The model for such formations is sing-sang-sung, drink-drank-drunk[en], etc. There are enough such "correct" conjugations among frequently used verbs for "incorrect" ones to creep in by analogy. It helps that bring-brought-brought is itself irregular and thus hard to remember.

      Sometimes such a construction survives long enough to become "correct". For example, the past tense of "dive" used to be "dived" everywhere, but in US English it's now mostly been supplanted by "dove".

      A much older example is wear-wore-worn, which was a weak verb in Old English and would regularly have developed into wear-wear-weared.

      Perhaps there is some intuitive understanding of how strong verbs conjugate that is then misapplied in such cases as this?

      It's the same kind of analogical reasoning that makes strong verbs become weak. If the pattern is common enough and obvious enough, it has a good chance of being reproduced.

  53. "We all know language has evolved" by dolmant_php · · Score: 1

    "We all know language has evolved"? No, we don't. In fact, the evidence is to the contrary. Language poofed into existence.

    As described by Hugh Nibley in Genesis of the Written Word (from Nibley on the Timely and the Timeless): "Many scholars have pointed out that the alphabet is the miracle of miracles, the greatest of all inventions, by which even the television and jet-planes pale in comparison, and as such a thing absolutely unique in time and place ... . It is also argued that by the very nature of the thing it can only have been the work of a single inventor."

    From the preface of the same essay: "And in all of science there never was a more open-and-shut case than the origin of writing: intuitively we know it must have begun with pictures, and traditionally we know it can have developed in only one way - very slowly and gradually from simple to more complex forms, and all that. ... Yet the discerning Kipling, taking a hard common-sense look at the official solution, found it simply absurd. It is the same hpyothesis that we now dare to question ... ."

    So, no, we don't know that language evolved.

    1. Re:"We all know language has evolved" by porpnorber · · Score: 1

      To the contrary, we're even luckier with language than we are with biology. We have historical texts to track linguistic evolution over time (for example, each decade or so sees a new translation of the Bible into English), but better yet, because languages adapt quasi-continuously and do not have strong evolved pro-speciation mechanisms (other perhaps than nationalistic governments), we have all kinds of living intermediate forms. Consider French and Italian, for example; they are distinct languages, but there is no line between them. You can walk from France to Italy, and at each point people (assuming they are speaking normally, not the standard forms promulgated by their governments) can talk to their neighbours. Indeed, there is still an almost-functioning bridge between German and English, neatly attesting to their common history.

      Of course, as with biological evolution, there is a cogent counter-argument: it involves sticking your fingers in your ears and shouting 'nah nah nah I'm not listening!'

      Oh, or, I guess, you could believe in a God who lies a lot. The entire Universe could be a practical joke....

    2. Re:"We all know language has evolved" by emj · · Score: 1

      Ah religion and political views, might be very true but they are very hard to believe if you are not part of that blief circle..

    3. Re:"We all know language has evolved" by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Yet the discerning Kipling, taking a hard common-sense look at the official solution, found it simply absurd.
      Which reminds me of another language joke...

      Guy: What do you think of Kipling?
      Girl: How should I know, you dirty man? I've never kippled!
  54. MOD PARENT UP -- GP is talking out ass by zooblethorpe · · Score: 4, Informative

    As a fluent Japanese speaker and part-time studier of Korean, I can vouch for the grammatical similarities -- most intriguing. And also as a part-time studier of Chinese, I can vouch that Chinese and Korean are about as similar as English and Korean -- Korean has borrowed words from both languages, but structurally resembles neither. Okay, so Chinese influenced Korean (and Japanese too) in terms of how counters are used (words like "brace" in "a brace of ducks", or "murder" in "a murder of crows", or "loaf" in "three loaves of bread"), but otherwise Chinese and Korean have pitifully little to do with each other. For that matter, Chinese is closer to English structurally speaking than it is to Korean, so there. ;)

    Cheers,

    --
    "What in the name of Fats Waller is that?"
    "A four-foot prune."
    1. Re:MOD PARENT UP -- GP is talking out ass by whatteaux · · Score: 1

      Interesting. I'm currently working my way through The Cambridge Encyclopaedia of Language (David Crystal) in which he talks at one point about language families and derivations. Most languages are related to others in one way or another, except Korean and Japanese, which, alone, appear to be totally isolated from any others (and from each other). Nobody knows why.

  55. MOD PARENT UP -- GP is talking out ass by zooblethorpe · · Score: 1

    Now here's someone who gets both their history *and* their linguistics right. Kudos to Sr. Martínez. And with a name like Stanislav as well -- Slavs in Spain, there's got to be an interesting story there somewhere. ;)

    Cheers,

    --
    "What in the name of Fats Waller is that?"
    "A four-foot prune."
  56. Hernh??? by zooblethorpe · · Score: 1

    "We all know language has evolved"? No, we don't. In fact, the evidence is to the contrary. Language poofed into existence.

    "It is also argued that by the very nature of the thing it [the alphabet] can only have been the work of a single inventor."

    Dude, wtf?

    Either you're trolling, or you seriously have to let me know where you bought your stash.

    Cheers,

    --
    "What in the name of Fats Waller is that?"
    "A four-foot prune."
    1. Re:Hernh??? by dolmant_php · · Score: 0, Flamebait

      Those were quotes from Dr. Nibley, a really smart guy. He was fluent in atleast 10 languages, could read more, and studied ancient languages and culture. He quotes from other really smart people, and cites loads of evidence to the point I made. I gave references in my post. Read the essay if you think I'm full of crap. It is of note that he (and I) are from a religious background, and do not believe that man evolved into its current form, but was instead created.

      Nevertheless, there is no evidence that language evolved. Where is the incremental improvement? It is nowhere. The only stuff we have is *fully formed language*. Nothing inbetween. Just immediate language.

    2. Re:Hernh??? by simong · · Score: 1, Flamebait

      No-one who believes in creationism has any right to be regarded as a scientist. Fact. End of.

    3. Re:Hernh??? by CmdrGravy · · Score: 1

      Dr Nibbly ? Ha ha you fuckwit muppet how can you possibly subscribe to anything from a guy whos name sounds like dribbly or wibbly. Dr Wibbly Nibbly, it's pretty obvious without even needing to read anything he's written that he's wrong and that you must be an idiot for taking it seriously !

      fibbly nibbly wibbly. Ha ha.

    4. Re:Hernh??? by digitig · · Score: 1

      Where is the incremental improvement? It is nowhere. The only stuff we have is *fully formed language*. Curious, then, that in my linguistics course I've spent a *lot* of time studying incremental changes to language (including the ones described in the referenced article -- did you read it?), and the internal and external factors that cause them. If somebody claimed that they had another explanation for those changes then it might be worth listening to, but to claim that the changes haven't occurred just shows that you haven't really looked. None of the quotes you provide from Dr. Nibley suggest any such thing -- they refer to written language, and I challenge you to find a serious linguist who doesn't believe that spoken language long precedes written language (and, for what it's worth, there's plenty of evidence for incremental change in written language, too, such as the loss of the letters yogh, eth and thorn and the introduction of g and w in English).
      --
      Quidnam Latine loqui modo coepi?
    5. Re:Hernh??? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      There is evidence for simpler languages, jut not human ones. Several species of primates communicate using sounds that show some of the features of human language. This is not full-blown language, but it does appear to be a step in the direction to human-style language.

    6. Re:Hernh??? by ioshhdflwuegfh · · Score: 1

      Curious, then, that in my linguistics course I've spent a *lot* of time studying incremental changes to language (including the ones described in the referenced article -- did you read it?) Did you read it? The very first paragraph says this

      Verbs evolve and homogenize at a rate inversely proportional to their prevalence in the English language, according to a formula developed by Harvard University mathematicians who've invoked evolutionary principles to study our language over the past 1,200 years, from "Beowulf" to "Canterbury Tales" to "Harry Potter." Not much spoken words here. Yet you still write:

      [...]I challenge you to find a serious linguist who doesn't believe that spoken language long precedes written language [...] What that has to do with the study in the article?
    7. Re:Hernh??? by digitig · · Score: 1

      Curious, then, that in my linguistics course I've spent a *lot* of time studying incremental changes to language (including the ones described in the referenced article -- did you read it?) Did you read it? The very first paragraph says this [snip] Yes, I did read it. Did you read my posting? What I said in that posting was about dolmant_php's claims and those he was attributing to Dr. Nibley (that language doesn't evolve), not about the original referenced article (with which I generally agree, but which I consider to be largely old news).
      --
      Quidnam Latine loqui modo coepi?
    8. Re:Hernh??? by ioshhdflwuegfh · · Score: 1

      Yes, I did read it. Did you read my posting? What I said in that posting was about dolmant_php's claims and those he was attributing to Dr. Nibley (that language doesn't evolve), not about the original referenced article (with which I generally agree, but which I consider to be largely old news). So then it looks like you were talking about evolution/creation of language and I was more like aiming at written/spoken language distinction.
    9. Re:Hernh??? by zooblethorpe · · Score: 1

      Several species of primates communicate using sounds that show some of the features of human language.

      That sounds quite interesting indeed. What sort of "features" do these exhibit? Do you have any links?

      Cheers,

      --
      "What in the name of Fats Waller is that?"
      "A four-foot prune."
  57. Frisian - English, Friesland - Angle-land? by zooblethorpe · · Score: 1

    Interestingly, a friend of mine who seriously studied Old English married a Dutch fellow who's mother was from Friesland. She can understand Fries, though her husband cannot (he was raised elsewhere in Holland, speaking standard Dutch, and never learned Fries). There's also considerable archaeological evidence suggesting that the Angle ethnicity arose from an area around the southern end of the Jutland (Danish) peninsula -- i.e., right around Friesland. I'm not in any way saying that Fries is Old English, but rather pointing out that Fries is a closer relative than German -- but then all three come from the same roots. It's a bit like English and Fries being cousins, with German as that other cousin twice removed on your uncle's side. :)

    Cheers,

    --
    "What in the name of Fats Waller is that?"
    "A four-foot prune."
  58. Re:That's Sick by Daengbo · · Score: 1

    What's sick? The evolution of language? I suppose you would prefer to speak Esperanto since it's "Intelligently Designed?" Go ahead. I won't stop you. ;)

  59. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by Max+Littlemore · · Score: 1

    "Panda. Large black-and-white bear-like mammal, native to China. Eats, shoots and leaves."

    The version I heard was about a wombat. For those who don't know, a wombat is smallish four legged burrowing marsipual which eats roots and leaves.

    --
    I don't therefore I'm not.
  60. Heh by highwaytohell · · Score: 1

    Yes language evolution has evolved greatly. I for one would love to read Shakespeare with a "bootylicious" thrown in occasionally. Or would have loved to have read about F Scott Fitzgerald's Great Gatsby performing a "crunk" at one of his parties that are populated by "celebutantes".

  61. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by JonathanR · · Score: 1

    ...a wombat is smallish four legged burrowing marsipual which eats bush, roots and leaves. There, corrected that for you.
  62. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by Daengbo · · Score: 1
    I'm a big fan of the Harvard comma. Standard use of it makes parsing sentences like the following easy on the first try (as long as you expect it) --
    • "The three of us ordered steak, fish and chips, and ribs." You immediately know that "fish and chips" are not separate elements of the list, even before reaching the next comma. You know that ribs is separate from chips.
    • "The three of us ordered steak, fish and chips and ribs." You don't know (except through convention) whether "fish and chips" is the second element or "chips and steak" is the third element. Longer lists with more complicated syntax get even more confusing, requiring rereading two or three times to clarify. Some sentences will never be clear without the Harvard comma.
    The argument against the Harvard comma is that it isn't necessary in most instances. If you could choose one of the rules, which would you choose? I'd go with the one that makes the language clearer and easier to understand. Consistent use of the comma makes things immediately clear which wouldn't be in casual, required-only use of it.
  63. Ummm by j3w · · Score: 2, Insightful

    I understand this has pretty much nothing to do with the article but my prediction for the evolution of language is something a little closer to New Speak... just look at text messaging- Surely the written word can not take such a grievous blow without some damage spilling over into the spoken word. Just you wait... the future of language is double plus ungood!

    1. Re:Ummm by that+IT+girl · · Score: 1

      u mite b rite.
      "idk, my bff jill?"

      --
      10 FILL MUG WITH COFFEE
      20 DRINK COFFEE
      30 GOTO 10
    2. Re:Ummm by jc42 · · Score: 1

      ... just look at text messaging- Surely the written word can not take such a grievous blow without some damage spilling over into the spoken word.

      Oh, I dunno. In previous decades, we had things like speedwriting, preceded by several varieties of shorthand. They all bear remarkable similarities to TM code, yet none of them had any discernible effect on the spoken (or standard written) language.

      People have been trying to reform the atrocious English spelling system for ages. So far, nobody has had much success at this. And the spoken language continues to amble off in all directions, with total disregard to standard spelling. So I wouldn't worry about transient fads like this having any lasting impact.

      --
      Those who do study history are doomed to stand helplessly by while everyone else repeats it.
  64. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by Verte · · Score: 1

    When you are quoting a sentence, that's not how the nesting works at all. When you are quoting a few words, it is a different story. I hate seeing words spelled incorrectly! "Color" is not a word, at least not in English!

    --
    We at slashdot are scientists, specialists and kernel hackers. Your FUD will be found out.
  65. What about the reverse? by bpjk · · Score: 1
    I see "hotted up" appearing more and more, especially in mainstream media (as in "the debate hotted up after Mr. Smith alleged foul play"). This is a reverse evolution: the current (and still correct, I hope) form is, of course, "heated up".

    Are there any other verbs that are turning into an irregular form for specific phrases? What's the rate for those?

  66. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by Kadin2048 · · Score: 1

    I think the examples on that page illustrate well why the serial comma can be both good and bad, depending on the situation.

    Personally, I hate linguistic prescriptivists. I'll use whichever format is less ambiguous; it's stupid to create a rule just for the sake of having a rule, if it produces a stupid result some the time.

    The only good "rule" is to try to be unambiguous wherever possible, unless ambiguity is the desired effect. Simply picking one or the other and then dogmatically sticking to it, even when the result is inferior, is the mark of a small mind.

    I feel the same way about punctuation and quotation marks. I'll include punctuation within quotation marks when the punctuation is part of the quote (when, for example, I'm quoting a statement that really is the end of a sentence), but I think it borders on intellectual dishonesty to insert anything into the quotation marks that wasn't actually in the quoted text, and that includes terminal punctuation. The placement of a full stop can drastically change the tone or meaning of a statement; it's trivial to use American-style quotation rules to perform what's technically not a misquotation but is certainly out of context or misleading.

    Also, when doing technical writing (e.g. documentation), where you are using quotes to distinguish something in an interface from the rest of the body text, including punctuation in the quotes can be confusing. What should be in the quotes is literally what's on the screen, nothing else.

    The American-style quotation rules are a leftover from old typesetting methods that are no longer in use or relevant; it's time that we retired them in favor of greater precision and flexibility for the writer.

    --
    "Ladies and gentlemen, my killbot features Lotus Notes and a machine gun. It is the finest available."
  67. Evolution of language for /.ers? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Funny

    I dunno, is it anything like this?

  68. The "we-be's" are right (?) by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 2, Insightful

    TFA is fascinating. They predict that the irregular form of "be" will persist for tens of thousands of years. But consider the usage by inner-city blacks in America of the phrase "we be," as in "We be leaving," to mean "We are leaving." The basic verb is "be" and the irregular plural present tense is "are." I know that TFA focused on past tense, but could this be an example of a verb becoming regularized right under our noses?

    1. Re:The "we-be's" are right (?) by JoshJ · · Score: 2, Insightful

      You're talking about a language in which the utterance "ain't" has been around for centuries and yet it has been insisted for equally long that "ain't ain't a word!"

    2. Re:The "we-be's" are right (?) by jc42 · · Score: 1

      They predict that the irregular form of "be" will persist for tens of thousands of years.

      Or we could do as various other languages have done, and drop all present-tense forms of "be" completely.

      In some cases, such as Russian and Hebrew, we have evidence of close relatives that had present-tense forms of "be", so we have a good idea what those words were and when they were lost. But such languages seem to do just fine without them. We could pretty easily drop "am", "is" and "are" from English, too, using verbless sentences instead, just as those languages did.

      Another fun counterexample to claims that common words are persistent is "the", which is English's most common word. But definite articles exist in only about half of all human languages, and such words appear and disappear on fairly short time scales. A thousand years ago, neither Old English (Anglo-Saxon) nor Latin's descendants had definite articles; now they all do. A thousand years from now, most of their descendants could well have lost them. I've had some fun in several language-related fora by writing about this phenomenon and watching to see how long it took for people to notice that I hadn't used any (unquoted) definite articles in what I wrote. I did this, of course, to illustrate how easy it would be for English to lose its most common word. If someone can write natural-sounding English without any definite articles, it's hard to support a claim that such common words are necessary and must survive.

      --
      Those who do study history are doomed to stand helplessly by while everyone else repeats it.
    3. Re:The "we-be's" are right (?) by Sax+Maniac · · Score: 1

      If someone can write natural-sounding English without any definite articles, it's hard to support a claim that such common words are necessary and must survive.
      Good idea. Some people have written whole books without the letter E. We can get rid of all those words, too!
      --
      I can explanate how to administrate your network. You must configurate and segmentate it, so it can computate.
    4. Re:The "we-be's" are right (?) by jc42 · · Score: 1

      Some people have written whole books without the letter E. We can get rid of all those words, too!

      Yeah; things like that can be fun, if a bit silly.

      A similar thing that some people have done is to eliminate (from both speech and writing) any form of the word "be". This is interesting because when you do it the usual effect is to make your language more precise. I've known a number of people who do this in their writing, usually not dogmatically, and say that it's almost always an improvement. To start with, it eliminates the passive voice. Passive has its uses, of course, but the extreme over-use in much management writing is familiar to all of us.

      I once wrote a rather long post on this in another forum, without using any form of "be". I didn't bother in the above paragraph, though. I'll leave that as an excercise for the reader. If you try it, you'll see both the difficulties and the benefits.

      If you want a real challenge, pick two or more such restrictions, and try to apply them all to a document of your choice.

      --
      Those who do study history are doomed to stand helplessly by while everyone else repeats it.
    5. Re:The "we-be's" are right (?) by dwye · · Score: 1

      You're talking about a language in which the utterance "ain't" has been around for centuries and yet it has been insisted for equally long that "ain't ain't a word!"

      Ain't is perfectly good Northumbrian English, but Southern English bigots never liked it, and repeatedly deprecated it, to no avail.

      On topic, or at least on subject, the "we be" form is standard 17th Century and earlier Wessex dialect. Once the "I be, thou be'est, you be, he/she be, we be, y'all be, they be" form was common in all English dialects, but gradually disappeared, with Wessex as the last holdout. As it happened, the first slaves flourished where Wessex speakers settled, and they picked it up, as the masters began dropping it.

  69. What abouht sihlent H? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    These whriters alwhays fohrget the cahse ohf sihlent H. Mohre, ohr fewher? Their modelh ihs silehnt onh this ihssue.

  70. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by Ibn+al-Hazardous · · Score: 1

    No, but in USish it is! ;)

    --
    Yes, I am a biological organism. All rumors to the contrary are just that, rumors.
  71. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by fastest+fascist · · Score: 1

    Since we're on the subject, will someone in the know please enlighten me a bit. I often see people write sentences like "It is a big, red, house.", which bug me to no end because in any grammar lessons I've had in my OWN language, you only ever put commas between adjectives in a list like that, not between an adjective and a noun. Is it different in english, or do so many people really just not grasp the function of the comma in that case?

  72. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by Verte · · Score: 1

    I've seen a few programs here get caught by the color/colour bug. Haven't had or seen any problems with the -ize suffix yet, but I'm sure it will hit me one day.

    --
    We at slashdot are scientists, specialists and kernel hackers. Your FUD will be found out.
  73. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by Ibn+al-Hazardous · · Score: 1

    Seriously, in (geographically) larger projects, and most certainly in open APIs - it tends to be a good idea to define constants twice (eg GL_COLOR and GL_COLOUR in OpenGL). You never know what those pesky Europeans will come up with otherwise.

    Ooops, I'm a European. Well, we learned Oxfordish in school when I was a kid, and I suspect they still do. In a year or two, I'll find out.

    --
    Yes, I am a biological organism. All rumors to the contrary are just that, rumors.
  74. A mathematical perspective by David+Jao · · Score: 1

    The only novelty of this research is the computational ability to carry out an accurate simulation.

    I'm a mathematician, not a linguist, and to me the article is quite newsworthy, even though the mathematics used in the study (that is, statistics) lies outside my research area. It's possible that the majority of linguists (such as you) may not be able to appreciate the novelty of this discovery, because they lack the mathematical background to evaluate the relative strength of this particular statistical characterization compared with other ones that have appeared in analogous studies.

    The computation carried out in the article is not merely a matter of "ability", nor is it fair to characterize it as a simulation. If you read the original article, you'll find that they derive the square-root law for verb decay using two intrinsically different approaches (three if you count the zipfian extrapolation). The most dramatic difference is that the first approach does not on the historical dates of Old and Middle English, whereas the second one does. There is no mathematics-based reason in general why these two approaches would even yield a square-root law at all. The fact that they both produce the same square root law, with coefficient values within three percent of each other, is actually (from a mathematics perspective) quite shocking. It indicates very strongly that their quantification of decay rates is right and likely to hold for future centures (much more strongly than if they had merely presented one statistical fit, which is the norm in most articles).

    A crucial observation is that the data set that they use is not self-selected or biased in any way -- it is simply a complete list of all the irregular verbs in the English language for which documentation of the Old English forms could be found. In my experience it is quite rare for a naturally occurring data set such as this one to conform to two distinct statistical models in exactly the same way.

    1. Re:A mathematical perspective by vtcodger · · Score: 1
      ***The fact that they both produce the same square root law, with coefficient values within three percent of each other, is actually (from a mathematics perspective) quite shocking. It indicates very strongly that their quantification of decay rates is right and likely to hold for future centures (much more strongly than if they had merely presented one statistical fit, which is the norm in most articles).***

      It certainly could indicate that. Or, it could indicate that they fudged their data set (quite possibly unconsciously) to get that answer. Or it could be coincidence. I have some trouble believing that time series data on something as nebulous as language change are going to be bias free at the 3% level. There is such a thing as too good a match.

      Doesn't mean that I think the general conclusion the lifetime of irregular verbs is a function of frequency of use is wrong. Or that the decay rate is something like an inverse square relationship But I'd like to see some other studies on independently derived data before I'd buy into the equation for decay rate having been unequivocally established.

      --
      You can't see ANYTHING from a car, You've got to get out of the goddamned contraption and walk...Edward Abbey
    2. Re:A mathematical perspective by David+Jao · · Score: 1

      it could indicate that they fudged their data set (quite possibly unconsciously) to get that answer. I already mentioned why the data set in the study is of high quality.

      I'd like to see some other studies on independently derived data before I'd buy into the equation for decay rate having been unequivocally established.

      You won't be able to gather any more data for English, because English only has a few hundred irregular verbs to begin with, and the study already accounted for all of them. It would indeed be interesting to compare English with other languages, but there the problem is that few languages have as many irregular verbs as English, and most of the ones that do (i.e. Latin, Italian) have more than one family of regular verbs, making direct comparison difficult.

  75. It has evolved already by bjoeg · · Score: 2, Informative

    This means in future, we will see or actually hear more use of the words "Such as" and "like"

    Every morning I hear the US exchange students (espacially the female ones) in the metro talk, and partly annoyed how the word "like" is used as the every fourth word.

  76. Those who do, keep silent. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Those who don't have the opportunity to do it, talk about it.

    1. Re:Those who do, keep silent. by somersault · · Score: 2, Funny

      What's sudoku got to do with all of this?

      --
      which is totally what she said
  77. I, for one [again...] by gringer · · Score: 1

    I, for one, have been welcoming our new, irregular, old verb laws.

    --
    Ask me about repetitive DNA
  78. What's worse than science fiction? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    A fictional science!

  79. My thoughts on this article... by AbRASiON · · Score: 1

    I could care less...........

    (no really, I could)

    1. Re:My thoughts on this article... by wodelltech · · Score: 1

      Why do you care so much about it?

      --
      Your monitor is staring at you.
    2. Re:My thoughts on this article... by Max+Littlemore · · Score: 1

      s/re/fuck/g

      Hey fucktard, thefucks nothing wrong with fuckvising the English language. In fact, you'fuck already been left behind! ROFLCOPTFUCK!

      The phrase I believe you'fuck looking for is "I could cafuck less"!!!

      --
      I don't therefore I'm not.
  80. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by fiendie · · Score: 4, Informative

    For anyone who liked this:
    It's taken from a book written by Lynne Truss published in the UK roughly 3 years ago.
    Amazon Link

  81. I'll give you language evolution. by liftphreaker · · Score: 1

    u wnt lng evl2n? wid e # of moronz uzng sms syntax online & evn in exam pprs v're doomed 2 idiocracy. v're all fkd.

  82. Why do some languages evolve quickly? by Chrisq · · Score: 1

    I have always wondered why some languages evolve much faster than others. Someone knowing modern Greek can read 2,000+ year-old text with comparable difficulty to someone knowing modern English reading Chaucer. Similarly Italians can read latin (an Italian once told me that the Latin used by Thomas Aquinas read very like a Piedmont dialect!), and Tamils can read ancient Tamil. However we cannot understand more than a couple of words from Beowulf, which is a mere 1300 years old! Why the difference in speed of change?

    1. Re:Why do some languages evolve quickly? by aproposofwhat · · Score: 1
      One reason - the Norman Conquest.

      Beowulf is in a Saxon dialect, and contains many words that failed to survive after the Norman invasion because they had equivalents in the Norman French spoken by the aristocracy that overrode them in common usage as the conquered people became assimilated.

      Some Anglo-Saxon does survive today - it fucking well does, I tell you - but the influence of the Normans was such that even Chaucer wrote in a language vastly different to that of Beowulf, only a couple of centuries after the invasion.

      --
      One swallow does not a fellatrix make
  83. Re:Keep the 'mittens' in The Kittens by Aladrin · · Score: 1

    "Aside from their archive of "least used verbs throughout history" where else do you find these words?"

    Wow, I think this is the first example of 'self-negating prophecy' I've ever seen.

    1) Announce to the world that 'shrive' and 'smite' are least used verbs.
    2) World starts to use said verbs.
    3) ???
    4) Prophet! Err, Non-prophet!

    --
    "If you make people think they're thinking, they'll love you; But if you really make them think, they'll hate you." - DM
  84. Re:That's Sick by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Interesting

    Well, TFA points that natural languages evolve towards being more like Esperanto (in other words, school kids are lazy and they simplify by ignorance, foreigners substitute lack of linguistic knowledge with "common sense"). I don't see the point of your reply to GP, who seems to abhor regularization, not existing irregularities.

  85. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by Bloke+down+the+pub · · Score: 1

    Harvard comma? It's an Oxford comma, you bally colonials!

    --
    It's true I tell you, feller at work's next door neighbour read it in the paper.
  86. Bullshit by nagora · · Score: 1

    Just bullshit. I wish I got paid to make shit up like that.

    --
    "Encyclopedia" is to "Wikipedia" what "Library" is to "Some people at a bus stop"
  87. Language couldn't possibly have evolved by memoreks · · Score: 1

    Language couldn't possibly have evolved on it's own. It's far too complex. It must have been intelligently designed about 4000 years ago by some higher being...

    1. Re:Language couldn't possibly have evolved by ChrisMP1 · · Score: 0, Flamebait

      Oh, come on! Can't /. go twenty-four hours without someone taking a stab at intelligent design? That wasn't even brought up by anything...

      </rant>

      --
      <sig>&nbsp;</sig>
    2. Re:Language couldn't possibly have evolved by OneSmartFellow · · Score: 1

      Of course not, ID is too easy a target. Can you come up with anything more asinine than ID ?

    3. Re:Language couldn't possibly have evolved by jc42 · · Score: 1

      Language couldn't possibly have evolved on it's own. It's far too complex. It must have been intelligently designed ...

      Oh, c'mon; just look at the English language. You call that intelligent design? The designer must have been a total idiot.

      If that's not bad enough for you, take a good look at classical Greek and Latin. Nobody could call either of them an intelligent design, either. They look like they might have been created by humans, actually. By big committees of humans.

      Of course, someone has made the reasonable-sounding conjecture that the entire universe was designed by some god, and that god was an idiot. If true, it would certainly explain why the universe appears to be such an ungodly mess.

      --
      Those who do study history are doomed to stand helplessly by while everyone else repeats it.
    4. Re:Language couldn't possibly have evolved by VJ42 · · Score: 1

      If that's not bad enough for you, take a good look at classical Greek and Latin. Nobody could call either of them an intelligent design, either. They look like they might have been created by humans, actually. By big committees of humans.

      Of course, someone has made the reasonable-sounding conjecture that the entire universe was designed by some god, and that god was an idiot. If true, it would certainly explain why the universe appears to be such an ungodly mess.

      The obvious answer is that the universe was designed by committee.... Polytheism anyone? ;-)
      --
      If I have nothing to hide, you have no reason to search me
    5. Re:Language couldn't possibly have evolved by jc42 · · Score: 1

      The obvious answer is that the universe was designed by committee.... Polytheism anyone? ;-)

      Yeah, that's a tempting theory to throw at the "intelligent design" people.

      But even a cursory look at the universe exposes such an incredible mess that the only real explanation is that there was no intelligence whatsoever behind the "design".

      Another theory I've heard and liked is that there was actually a God that did it all, but He (She? It? Bvqx?) was so embarrassed by the results that He has carefully covered up all the evidence and fled to another universe.

      Then there's the Doug-Adams-like theory that God did it, and got a D- grade for the assignment.

      --
      Those who do study history are doomed to stand helplessly by while everyone else repeats it.
    6. Re:Language couldn't possibly have evolved by ChrisMP1 · · Score: 0, Flamebait

      Wasting time criticizing it?

      --
      <sig>&nbsp;</sig>
  88. Yon exchange by Bloke+down+the+pub · · Score: 1

    Yon means something akin to "that" or "over there" in some dialects. Thus one could confuse a method of water softening with a building where shares or commodities are traded, and which is visble but distant.

    I for one think that's too much of a risk.

    --
    It's true I tell you, feller at work's next door neighbour read it in the paper.
  89. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Ooops, I'm a European. Well, we learned Oxfordish in school when I was a kid, and I suspect they still do.

    Are you sure you haven't perhaps learned an Ogg Swordfish English instead?
  90. Esperanto, Chinese-English crossover by bencollier · · Score: 1

    Well regardless of whether Korean is an invented language, Esperanto certainly is, and *is in use*, albeit on a rather small scale. I'm interested how widespread Chinese-speaking will alter English. "You all today good, question"

  91. Japanese by PMBjornerud · · Score: 1

    What is interesting about Japanese in this context, is that they have a total of 6 or so irregular verbs. Mind you, half of those are irregular only because they skip a double consonant where they stricktly speaking should have had one.

    And it is indeed the most used ones, "to do, to come, to go". I'm not at all surprosed by TFA.

    Agree with TFA that language hooks into culture and social rules. For Japan, the stereotype is certainly "Follow the rules. Irregularity is bad". And without the mental overhead of managing irregularities, they could have the mental overhead of managing politeness and hierarchy instead.

    Anyhow, languages are amazing things. Wish I had time to study more of them, understanding how and why languages work gives some very interesting insight into how our human brains actually operate.

    --
    I lost my sig.
  92. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by zero_offset · · Score: 1

    Since you bring up commas, and the misuse thereof -- the weirdest punctuation habit I've seen is the tendency to insert multiple commas in a series. I know several people who do this, all of whom are otherwise fairly well-educated and relatively competent communicators, and it bothers me to an unreasonable degree. What I find especially odd about it is that, apparently, the number of commas appears to denote the length of the pause they want you to read into whatever they've written. I speak face-to-face with a couple people who do this, and I've started to notice they put more than the usual amount of emphasis and "enhanced timing" in different parts of their spoken dialog. They do this with variations of cadence and the length of pauses. Consequently I've concluded the weird comma-trains are an attempt to capture in writing that element of spoken language that is otherwise difficult to represent. Still,,,,, it's distracting as hell.

    --

    Slashdot quality declines as the number of hot grits posts decreases. - Provolt's Law, Apr-09-2005

  93. Newlyweddeds? by 4D6963 · · Score: 1

    Now may be your last chance to be a 'newly wed'

    While I understand how they came to this conclusion, I doubt people will start to say "newly wedded" anytime soon. Why? Cause "newly wed" is an expression, and also because Newlyweds is an awesome reality TV show. I can't imagine people 50 or 100 years from now ignoring that fact.

    --
    You just got troll'd!
  94. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Whoosh!

  95. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by digitig · · Score: 1

    It was already an old joke when Truss adopted it as the title of her book.

    --
    Quidnam Latine loqui modo coepi?
  96. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by Daengbo · · Score: 1

    That, too. I was following the lead of the GP, using his terminology. Either will do for me, or I'll just accept "the comma before and in a list of stuff." I don't really care.

  97. Re:That's Sick by Daengbo · · Score: 1

    It was an evolution vs. intelligent design joke. Nevermind.

  98. Internet might change these results by Fjan11 · · Score: 2, Insightful

    Darwin showed that adaptation is much larger in small isolated communities than in larger ones. English already changes a lot slower than, say, Dutch. If the internet turns the world into one big English speaking community than I wonder of their predictions based on past data hold.

    --
    This sig is just as redundant as the rest of this posting
    1. Re:Internet might change these results by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Darwin showed that adaptation is much larger in small isolated communities than in larger ones.

      Only, languages aren't DNA. The similarities are limited. The tongues of small, isolated communities often change far less; compare Icelandic with English. Languages don't change because of survival of the fittest, but typically because of petty social conflicts.
    2. Re:Internet might change these results by Fjan11 · · Score: 1

      I think the same process is at work though: aberrations are less likely to propagate if they need to convert a larger installed base. Can you pick up an Icelandic book from the 16th century and read that as easily as you could read Shakespear?

      --
      This sig is just as redundant as the rest of this posting
    3. Re:Internet might change these results by dwye · · Score: 1

      > Can you pick up an Icelandic book from the 16th century and read that as easily as you could read Shakespear?

      Assuming that I could read Old Norse at all, yes and more easily. This is because the Icelanders have made a point of preserving the language as it was spoken in the time of the sagas, far more insistantly than even the French.

      Occasionally, they need new words, so they recycle old ones that were rare but similar purposed. Frex, IIRC, a word describing the flight of an extinct goose now covers airplanes.

    4. Re:Internet might change these results by tuxedobob · · Score: 1

      Wait, what extinct goose is covering airplanes? How do you cover an airplane with an extinct animal?

      Poor commas. :(

    5. Re:Internet might change these results by dajak · · Score: 1

      This intuitively feels wrong to me. Do you have a source for this? Language constructs don't behave like finches in my opinion. The adoption of English by large numbers of non-native speakers over the last centuries would typically favour increased variety in phonology and introduction of loan words due to substrate interference. Compare the development of Latin into the Romance languages.

      I don't buy the statement about English and Dutch. The number of Romance loan words is for instance much lower than in English (see Wikipedia, article on Dutch). As far as speech and grammar are involved, Wikipedia states the following in the 'History of Dutch' article: "Linguistically speaking, Dutch has evolved little since the late 16th century; differences in speech are considered to be negligible especially when comparing the older form with modern regional accents. Grammar has been somewhat simplified though, but a great deal of the grammar lost in contemporary Dutch is preserved in many much-used expressions dating back to or before that time." The only thing that changes slower in English would seem to be orthography, but that can be simply explained with the fact that Dutch has a hyperactive language authority that defines what correct Dutch is, and English doesn't. Written Dutch from the 1500s onwards is largely similar to modern Dutch, barring some consistently applied orthographic changes in the last decades. No huge changes there if you look past the spelling. There is also a recent influx of English loan words, but this has little to do with the size of language communities per se. German never had a big influence, despite its size, and neither did English before television and Internet.

      And Dutch is obviously not even a good example of a small isolated community, considering its location, population size, economy, and widespread multilingualism. Would you also claim that, let's say, Icelandic changes more than English or Dutch because Iceland is a smaller community?

      If the Internet would turn the world into one big English speaking community, English would probably get completely remodeled in the process. If I, as a former speaker of Dutch, would start to speak English to my 1 year old child (who in reality starts crying if I have visitors who don't speak Dutch), he will start making the same phonological errors that I, and the other around him, make when speaking English like, most noticeably, excessive terminal devoicing. Exposure to correct phonology on television will not remedy that. Italians will make a mess of the determiners and excessively voice terminals, etc. The end result will be that English accepts all these things as correct varieties of English since we have all become native speakers, and the dominant phonology will probably be the one derived from Chinese.

      Something else may happen that would help English to resist change, at least as a written language: it might become a secondary, and mostly written, lingua franca instead of replacing other languages. This is likely to happen, but has little to do with Darwin's finches. This is a conscious choice on the part of its speakers to use English as a communication device with people far away, and not with your own family.

    6. Re:Internet might change these results by Fjan11 · · Score: 1

      Thanks for your thoughtful reply. You have good points but without conclusive data I'm not yet convinced the Darwin mechanism doesn't work here. My conjecture that English changes slower than Dutch is based, in good slashdot fashion, on a sample of size N=1: I had to read Dutch and English medieval text in highschool and found the English ones much easier to comprehend. But to add some evidence: The Belgian/Dutch Taalunie revises the Dutch spelling every 5 year years, something that would not be practically feasible for English (too bad by the way, English could use it). Also, the way I pronounce English is already much closer to what a native speaker would do compared to how my parents pronounce English, a result of new technology (mass media) evening out global differences.

      --
      This sig is just as redundant as the rest of this posting
    7. Re:Internet might change these results by dajak · · Score: 1

      I don't think there is a relation between the size of communities and having a language authority. Most small languages don't have any form of language authority, not even a newspaper, that can make decisions on changing the language. French has a language authority. Anyway, Dutch orthography changed in 1804, 1883, 1934, 1947, 1996, and 2006: that's not every 5 years and it is orthography, not language. Even the pannekoek -> pannenkoek change does not change the word: same phonemes, same meaning, only added an n that is not pronounced.

      Also, the way I pronounce English is already much closer to what a native speaker would do compared to how my parents pronounce English, a result of new technology (mass media) evening out global differences.

      Your exposure is primarily to native English media. What if Dutch media switched to English, and you started speaking English inside the home? This would set a new standard for pronunciation, as most of your exposure would now be to others who make the same errors. I have a number of eastern European and Chinese colleagues at work who are an example of this phenomenon: we speak English to eachother all the time, and over time they tend to adopt some of our flaws because we outnumber them and there are no native speakers around.

      American English itself is an example of this: most immigrants were not English, resulting, firstly, in a form of English that is pronounced differently, and secondly in a general relaxation of what is considered proper pronunciation of English.

      You may be right, but for the wrong reason. It may be the case that we will be actually more exposed to media (Internet) than to other human beings in the future, and some (many?) people maybe already are. But this has little to do with Darwin and small, isolated communities. This has more to do with a Darwinesque survival of the most-used language constructs in the mind of the individual speaker, the original thesis of this topic.

  99. (espe)Ranto by tepples · · Score: 1

    I prefer Esperanto Not everyone agrees with you. Some just happen to disagree in great detail.
  100. To google by Ed+Avis · · Score: 4, Funny

    What do they mean, 'new verbs entering English, such as "google," are universally regular.'? Everyone knows that it's

    I google
    I gaigle
    I have googlen

    --
    -- Ed Avis ed@membled.com
    1. Re:To google by thenerdgod · · Score: 1

      What about the Future Semiconditionally Modified Subinverted Plagal Past Subjunctive Intentional tense? Suppose you visit your future and performed a google search based on something you intend to learn from someone you meet in the past? I maywill haven wuollen willbe googlindened?

  101. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by digitig · · Score: 1

    That said, I refuse to put unnecessary u's in words like armor. ;) But they are necessary! They make the spelling correct. ;-)
    --
    Quidnam Latine loqui modo coepi?
  102. Lightning bolt! by tepples · · Score: 1

    Larp no! More like LARP nooooooo! (Or "LARP do not want"?)
  103. Wedded is plu perfect? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    n/t

  104. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by Hieronymus+Howard · · Score: 1

    Long before the book came out, I heard a rather naughtier version - "eats bush and leaves".

  105. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by digitig · · Score: 1

    Since we're on the subject, will someone in the know please enlighten me a bit. I often see people write sentences like "It is a big, red, house.", which bug me to no end because in any grammar lessons I've had in my OWN language, you only ever put commas between adjectives in a list like that, not between an adjective and a noun. Is it different in english, or do so many people really just not grasp the function of the comma in that case? Generally, the rules on punctuation in English are not as well defined as those for other features of the language, despite Lynne Truss's protestations (read David Crystal's "The Fight for English" for an excellent response to Truss, from a real linguist). The final comma in your example is a case in point. Some style guides will forbid it, some will mandate it, some will say do either as long as you're consistent, others will say do either as long as you're clear. There isn't a correct answer, which makes for endless tedious arguments in language forums as everybody is convinced that their own way is the One True Way.
    --
    Quidnam Latine loqui modo coepi?
  106. But "to heil" is regular, and so is "to denazify" by tepples · · Score: 1

    If you beed really glad, you haved to say it right I read the article when it was in Firehose. It states that irregular verbs have a half-life as a function of the verb's infrequency. Extremely common verbs such as "be" and "have" have half-lives longer than England has existed, so they will remain irregular even after the "weak conjugation" (past with -ed or -d, no change to stem vowel) becomes no longer the most common English conjugation.
  107. Autobots learned English from the Internet by tepples · · Score: 1

    Are you sure you haven't perhaps learned an Ogg Swordfish English instead? No, we learned English from Internet MP3s.
  108. Going back in time by weberjn · · Score: 2, Interesting

    OK, languages and english get simpler over time. But, if we go back in time, why were languages more complex?

    Latin is more complex than french or spanish. Then, were the ancestors of latin (indogermanic) super-complex? This is odd, as I guess that prehistoric societies were more primitiv and there was no literature, so why would they have had such complex languages?

    1. Re:Going back in time by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Classical Latin was (or more accurately, is) much more complex than modern Romance languages. However, vulgate Latin, which is what the vast majority of Romans used back in the days of the Empire, was significantly simpler than Classical Latin. Many of the complex grammatical structures found in Classical Latin were not used in the vulgate.

      http://mrsquid.blogspot.com/

    2. Re:Going back in time by qweqwe321 · · Score: 1

      "Latin is more complex than french or spanish. Then, were the ancestors of latin (indogermanic) super-complex? This is odd, as I guess that prehistoric societies were more primitiv and there was no literature, so why would they have had such complex languages?"

      Classical Latin is not more complex, per se, than Portuguese or Spanish--it's that the areas of complexity have changed over time. In Classical Latin, for instance, word order matters a lot less than in, say, Spanish, because Latin's system of affixes enables you to flip around the words without changing the meaning or making the sentence nonsensical, as in Spanish or Portuguese.

      So, comparatively:
      Latin: "Marcus ferit Corneliam" is exactly equivalent to "Corneliam Marcus ferit." (EN: Marcus hits Cornelia.)
      Spanish: "Marco golpea Cornelia" is NOT equivalent to "Cornelia golpea Marco." The first means "Marco hits Cornelia," the second means "Cornelia hits Marco."


      So it's not that the complexity has been reduced, it's that the type of complexit has changed.

  109. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by ZERO1ZERO · · Score: 1
    I'm in Britain and I read that as a pause on each comma, as in "It is a big... red... house...",

    Or look at the commas as list in this way: "It is big. It is red. It is a house."

    Or as a substitute for and as in "It is big AND red AND a house"

    The comma provides more emphasis, other wise it's simply a factualy statement. "It is a big, red house." Great!

  110. The Devolution of Language by Velaki · · Score: 1

    Even in the small world of English speakers, English has devolved to an almost incomprehensible point, thusly:

            The Go Phenomenon : substituting forms of "to go" for verbs of communication, e.g.

                    "So he goes, 'What do you mean?'"

            The Like Syndrome : c.f. The Go Phenomenon using "like", e.g.

                    "So I'm like hi, and he's like hi."

            Dearth of Punctuation : obfuscation of meaning in written communication by lack
                                                            of clear punctuation, e.g.

                    "What do you smell?" vs. "What, do you smell?"

            Tense Aphasia : using the wrong verb form in compound tenses, e.g.

                    "Should have GONE there, " instead of "Should have WENT there."

            Subjunctive Interruptus : using and losing the mood, e.g.

                    "If she were there, we would have gone." (unreal condition) being replaced by

                    "If she was there, we would have gone."

            The Ubiquitous Atrocities : To/Two/Too, Where/Were, They're/There/Their, Than/Then

                    Combinations of these mistakes abound.

            Pejorative Indifference : using "whatever" to mean "Frac off, I have no regard for what
                                                                you just said."

            Number Bewilderment : confusing singular and plural use of words, e.g.

                    "We was," vs. "We were."

            Abject Sloth : being so lazy as to think that it's easier to type "njoy" for "enjoy,"
                                          and using more abbreviations than necessary

            A nasty example of the preceding errata compounded together in a single utterance:

                    "so hes like she goes to bad he dogs her if she was there he coulda went
                      there but im like whatever we was were she was more then there bfs"

    And the excuse I hear frequently is, "It's just online, so grammar and spelling don't matter, " or "She understands what I mean! I don't have to talk good online. This isn't school." (even when she doesn't)

    As for what I do, my rule is that you are responsible for conveying your intended meaning clearly, and that if I have to parse and reparse your sentences more than once, then I will quietly discard them, and assume you said nothing. For me, it is simply an annoyance. For you, it means you might be ignored during a critical situation. <smug>After all, if you are so lazy and bratty that you can't take the time to be understood by people whose help you might need, then your situation -- and you -- can't be all that important.</smug>

    "When communication fails to be important, then communication fails." - me

  111. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by digitig · · Score: 1

    I too heard a rude version before I heard Truss's cleaned-up version, but as that meaning of "bush" is still relatively rare in the UK the version I heard depended on an alternative reading of "shoots".

    --
    Quidnam Latine loqui modo coepi?
  112. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by jonadab · · Score: 1

    On the one hand...

    > Longer lists with more complicated syntax get even more confusing, requiring rereading two
    > or three times to clarify. Some sentences will never be clear without the Harvard comma.

    This is why we have semicolons, so we can include entries in a list that themselves contain commas: The sandwich selection included ham and cheese on rye; bacon, lettuce, and tomato; egg and grilled onion; and reuben.

    On the other hand...

    > The argument against the Harvard comma is that it isn't necessary in most instances.

    Yes, and that's an extremely poor argument. For *most* of the things we use commas for, they aren't necessary for clarity in most instances. Aposition, for instance, would usually be clear enough without being set off by commas, but we set it off because the normal conventions for punctuating the English language call for that.

    Until very recently, there was no debate about the last comma in a list: one simply always included it. I'm not sure exactly where the change came from, but I view it as an unnecessary and unwarranted change and an impediment to clarity.

    However, I think it's already too far gone to stop. Almost a third of the population, perhaps more, are now writing lists without the last comma, exclusively. The convention almost certainly cannot be restored to its former near-universal state.

    --
    Cut that out, or I will ship you to Norilsk in a box.
  113. Why C++ is ++ungood in some apps by tepples · · Score: 1

    double plus ungood ? What does that say about GNU C double plus, where hello world using statically linked iostream entirely fills the 256 KB RAM of a handheld device?
  114. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by Godwin+O'Hitler · · Score: 1

    I believe the original reason for putting the punctuation inside the quotes was a mechanical one. The insertion of a quotation mark leaves the fragile comma or dot exposed, causing breakage on the printing plate.

    I prefer the format myself, but for [a]esthetic reasons.

    --
    No, your children are not the special ones. Nor are your pets.
  115. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by jonadab · · Score: 1

    > I often see people write sentences like "It is a big, red, house."

    On the internet, you will see all kinds of weird punctuation. I've never seen that particular usage in a book, and every set of English punctuation rules I've ever seen would consider it incorrect, at least in the usual case.

    However, comma usage in English does tend to be pretty lax, and in fact some sets of rules even explicitely say, in effect, "if any of these rules causes a lack of clarity in your sentence, then break it".

    The other poster, who says that some style guides forbid the comma here and others mandate it, is confusing adjective separation with the comma-separated list. The instance he's talking about is more like "We painted the house red, green, and blue", which some style guides insist should be "We painted the house red, green and blue". There's a lot of disagreement over that one, but in the case you were talking about, I've never seen a style guide suggest, much less mandate, separating the adjectives with a comma from the noun they modify. That's just a punctuation mistake, plain and simple. But if you read English mostly on the internet, you will see a lot of punctuation mistakes. Most people don't bother proofreading what they write on the internet, much less getting it checked by an editor.

    --
    Cut that out, or I will ship you to Norilsk in a box.
  116. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by cp.tar · · Score: 1

    I prdct nglsh lnguge n grmr bcm mre efcnt n snsbl lk txt msgs

    Ah.

    So it will become more like Arabic and Hebrew.

    --
    Ignore this signature. By order.
  117. That's funny, because... by rbarreira · · Score: 1
    --

    The AACS key is NOT 0xF606EEFD628B1CA427BEA93A9CA9773F
  118. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by Cruise_WD · · Score: 1

    I've read that the end punctuation being inside the quotes is a throw-back to early printing days, where the spacing around the symbols made it look better that way around.

    Could be true or not, but it it sounds suitably plausible.

    --
    [ cruise / casual-tempest.net / xenogamous.com / transference.org / quantam sufficit ]
  119. Orwellian bb newspeak! by shawn_f · · Score: 1

    Well George Orwell already took this to task, and NewSpeak will become our new language!

    ourwelcome bb anteJaggernauts newspeak! (our something like this...)

    Shawn

  120. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by Mushdot · · Score: 1

    Yeh that's how I read it too. I think the emphasis with the extra comma helps you to visualise what is being described better in the sentence. I think little nuances like that are what make English such a powerful language. The extra comma can make a subtle difference to the interpretation of what is being read without the general meaning being changed.

  121. The Future of Linguistics... by Sierpinski · · Score: 3, Funny

    Barbara: "Excuse me Stewardess, but I speak Jive."

    Stewardess: "Oh, good. Please tell him that I'll be right back with some medicine."

    Barbara: (to man) "Jus hang loose blood, she gonna catch you on the rebound with some medicide..."

    Man: "Whatchu talkin' bout momma, my momma didn't raise no dummies, I dug her rap!"

    Barbara: "Cut me some slack jack! (arguing in Jive) Jive-ass fool ain't got no brains... anyhow."

    (Forgive me if I missed a part, trying to do it from memory here....)

  122. The Best One Recently by chasisaac · · Score: 4, Funny

    I work at a detention facility school.

    We get cussed out on a regular basis.

    Sometimes the kids get restrained by trained staff and they will say something like, "I can't fucking breathe." This they know is a magic phrase. We had a teacher recently go in and tell a student:

    You cannot use a gerund with an intransitive verb. You should say I can't fucking. Or I can't breathe. You cannot use I can't fucking breathe. Make up your mind you are either not fucking or not breathing!

    Well this is what happens when english teachers have way to much caffeine.

    --
    -- A computer without Windoze is like a choclate cake without mustard
    1. Re:The Best One Recently by TaeKwonDood · · Score: 1

      That's brilliant stuff. I can't vote it up or I would. Actually, I don't know how to do anything yet because I am a rookie, I am just tickled I had an article get honored. I thought it would have been the one about the guy trying to sell his missile base on Ebay but serious science probably makes for better humor - and I bet all of the Austin Powers jokes that go with owning your own missile silo have been done already.

  123. Did anyone else notice the ads? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    My first reaction to the article was sudo vi /etc/hosts

    1. Re:Did anyone else notice the ads? by erlehmann · · Score: 1

      i assume any sane person uses adblock already.

  124. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by mikael · · Score: 1

    Here's a good guide to American vs. British word use

    The obvious ones are:

      'o' vs 'ou' as in color/favorite/honor vs. colour/favourite/honour
      'ze' vs 'se' as in analyze/criticize/memorize vs. analyse/criticise/memorise
      'er' vs 're' as in center/meter/theater vs. centre/metre/theatre

    More interesting, they have a list of irregular verbs. I tried writing down word I would use, and there no bias either way. Although I did try the word 'lept' for leaping, and 'stroved' for striving.

    to dream dreamed vs dreamt
    to leap leaped vs leapt
    to learn learned vs learnt

    to fit fit vs fitted
    to forecast forecast vs forecasted
    to wed wed vs wedded
    to knit knit vs knitted
    to light lit vs lighted
    to strive strove vs strived

    --
    Vintage computer adverts: http://www.vintageadbrowser.com/computers-and-software-ads
  125. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by mdwh2 · · Score: 1

    The argument against the Harvard comma is that it isn't necessary in most instances.

    No, the argument against it is that it can also introduce ambiguity. See the Wikipedia article.

    If you could choose one of the rules, which would you choose? I'd go with the one that makes the language clearer and easier to understand.

    The obvious answer is to choose which one is clearer depending on the context. It doesn't have to be always one or the other.

  126. I AM FROM THE FUUUUUTUUUURE!!!! by enormo · · Score: 1

    umansHay! Iyay amyay omfray ethay uturefay! oDay otnay ytray otay understandyay ymay advancedyay uturisticfay anguagelay. Youryay imativepray ainsbray ancay otnay oncievecay ofyay ouryay advancedyay ordsway andyay uffstay. owBay ownday otay youryay igusticlylay uperiorsay overloardsyay!!!

    1. Re:I AM FROM THE FUUUUUTUUUURE!!!! by dryersheet · · Score: 1

      !yoB erutuF

      ?tuoba gniklat uoy era egaugnal citsirutuf decnavda tahW

      .degnellahc rammarg dna gnilleps era erutuf eht morf elpoep taht wonk t'ndid I

      Creuncf lbh'q cersre ernqvat guvf va ebg13, znlor gung jbhyq or rnfvre?

      Obor mobaybobe obin ob, aobftober oball, yobu dobo robememober Zobom, yobes?

  127. Changing environment by rbanffy · · Score: 1

    After R-ing TFA, I cannot avoid wondering how the environment changes the rules they observed. While I agree the general principle that less-used constructions may change faster, the environment in which a language exists changes around it and has a huge impact on the mechanisms that effect such change.

    A thousand years ago, written language was much less present than it is today and remained so until about a couple centuries back. The greater the body of older written materials available or the older it is at any given time, the more "exposed" the constructs are and the slower they evolve. Also a factor is the recent arrival of recorded speech that could very well have an impact on how people speak and write for generations to come.

    I will be interesting to watch how language continues to evolve in this environment.

    1. Re:Changing environment by dajak · · Score: 1

      I had the same thought: dictionaries and spell checkers certainly change the equation.

      I am also pretty sure that occurrence, however low frequency, in the (early 17th century) standard bible text has been a near guarantee against change for the last centuries for my language.

      Also a factor is the recent arrival of recorded speech that could very well have an impact on how people speak and write for generations to come.

      The golden standard for speaking appears to be 1950s news readers and politicians here. This point of reference would have been impossible without recorded speech.

  128. Re:That's Sick by Cro+Magnon · · Score: 1

    You might have done better if you'd told it in Esperanto. :)

    --
    Slow down, cowboy! It has been 4 hours since you last posted. You must wait another few hours.
  129. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by Xiaran · · Score: 1

    My mini review of that book was that it was awful. It is an interesting and even important subject... but the writing style is so irritating and preachy that it just made me want to spell poorly and use bad grammar to annoy the woman that wrote that book.

  130. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by Daengbo · · Score: 1

    I read the entirety of the Wiki article before posting, thank you.

    The only possible ambiguity mentioned is one where a comma can make an item appear to be an indeterminate clause. The issue is easily fixed by not omitting the optional who/which/that is. In reality, the ambiguity is caused by taking a shortcut in the indeterminate clause, not by the choice of using the comma, therefore the situation mentioned is not the comma's introduction of ambiguity, but the shortcut's.

    In fact, almost all American style references suggest its use, except for newspapers and journals, who delete it specifically to save space in narrow columns.1&2

  131. Re:Keep the 'mittens' in The Kittens by ioshhdflwuegfh · · Score: 1

    Aside from their archive of "least used verbs throughout history" where else do you find these words? Have you seen the movie Speaking Parts? If you haven't, I recommend it very much. Made in 1989. In one of the scenes, hotel manager tells to one of her workers: "Be careful though, my friend was quite smitten by you". This was also very very important scene in the movie, etc...
  132. linguistic accentuator by Simonetta · · Score: 1

    In English, the word 'fuck' is a general purpose accentuator. It's used to increase the emotional intensity of the words surrounding it. It gets its power to do this through its being proscribed in normal and polite conversation and its legal prohibition from general public media.

        The ability to construct coherent sentences using only variations of this word results from the ability of the English language to have any word become any part of speech often unchanged according to its placement in the sentence. English is unique in this regard among the world's common languages.

        The word 'fuck' in English is one of the few words in that language that shares with Chinese the ability to completely change its meaning according to its accent. The word has different subtle connotations depending on whether it is spoken with a rising, falling, flat, or modulated tone.

        A note of caution here; this word, since it has no clear meaning, can and does invoke strong emotional states in its use. Its use among violent people often serves as an signal to initiate violence, especially around Americans.

        Further study of this linguistic curiosity can be done by viewing Hollywood films of the late 1990's. Recommended are films staring Samuel Jackson (except the second Star Wars trilogy) and Quentin Tarentino.

  133. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by Simonetta · · Score: 1

    U's right about those unnecessary u's.

    Write like Prince.
    Sing like Prince.
    Fuck like Prince.
    Disappear like Prince.
    Au revoir, Prince.

  134. language = biological evolution: no/all directions by peter303 · · Score: 1

    I thought languages were moving in all directions - some simiflying grammar and becoming more analytical while others are becoming more grammatically complex. Biological evolution moves in both directions too- simplification and complexification. We usually just think of the complex organisms, but there has never been as many parasites (viruses, leeches, prions, etc) as there have been now too.

    One direction current languages are moving toward is increasing vocabulary. They add terms to capture the more activities and things in modern society. Some of these are technical and only understood by sub-populations. Others synonyms with subtle nuances. English is rich in synonyms - the old german one, the french term, maybe a modern greco-latin term, etc.

  135. Japanese and Korean odd, but not totally isolated by zooblethorpe · · Score: 1

    Korean and Japanese only appear to be totally isolated from each other because of the political elements that seem to inevitably taint any comparison of the two. Dig a little deeper and you'll find that Japanese was demonstrably related to some degree to Baekje, an older and now extinct Korean dialect that did not survive the Silla consolidation of the peninsula. There is also considerable archaeological evidence that the Yayoi cultural shift in the Japanese archipelago from around 200BCE - 200CE, wherein the previous Jmon hunter-gatherer culture with its relatively unstratified society was overtaken by a very different hierarchical culture replete with all the regalia of mounted warfare, was brought about by a large-scale immigration from the Korean peninsula. This repeated itself to some extent around 400 years later, around 660CE, when the Silla kingdom attacked and overwhelmed the Baekje kingdom, whereupon the Baekje (or at least their elite) fled to Japan, which had been helping the Baekje out militarily off and on for the preceding 250 years or so.

    Anyway, to sum up, Korean and Japanese are only as "totally isolated" from each other as the nationalists and xenophobes in both cultures insist that they are.

    With regard to their relation to other languages, that's more of an open question, but there is some (at least anecdotal) evidence suggesting that Korean (and by extension Japanese) might well be related to Mongolic languages and the rest of the greater Turkic grouping, though admittedly not all agree with the Mongolic-Turkic connection. What's needed is more linguistically trained people familiar with these languages, who are not also hell-bent on making political statements. We need more serious application of the scientific method, rather than nationalistic jingoism about how one group or the other couldn't possibly be related to 'that rabble' over there.

    Cheers,

    --
    "What in the name of Fats Waller is that?"
    "A four-foot prune."
  136. Eventually, we'll all be telepaths by Julie188 · · Score: 1
    Problem solved! (Or maybe I watch too many sci-fi movies.)

    -- Julie

    Microsoft Subnet: the independent voice of Microsoft customers

    1. Re:Eventually, we'll all be telepaths by pintpusher · · Score: 1

      Can you imagine the confusion when someone from Boston tries to telepathically communicate with someone from Scotland and they keep dropping that hint of purple in the pattern for cauliflower that they coincidentally use as a representation for the bathroom and the californian keeps envisioning a tuna roll with extra wasabi in response to the Scot's request for another shot of whiskey?

      --
      man, I feel like mold.
  137. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by SQLGuru · · Score: 1

    When I'm writing in a conversational manner, I use commas for short pauses......and I use a trail of elipses to indicate a longer pause.

    When I write formally, I use more appropriate punctuation. Longer pauses turn into either new clauses or new sentances.

    Layne

  138. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by SQLGuru · · Score: 1

    Best. Explaination. Ever. (Purposefully using CBG form to emphasize/emphasise alternate ways of adding emphasis and pause.)

    But I still disagree with using commas for this non-traditional insertion of pauses. An elipse makes a better indicator.

    It's a big...red...house.

    Layne

  139. "The F Word" by zooblethorpe · · Score: 1

    You missed out, man! Have a look at this important online English lesson. Sample sentence:

    "That fucking fucker's fucking fucked!"

    Cheers,

    --
    "What in the name of Fats Waller is that?"
    "A four-foot prune."
  140. The past as a guide by ucblockhead · · Score: 2, Interesting

    I'm not sure if the past evolution of languages is a good guide to what will happen in the future. The last hundred years are unique in human history in that we can (and do) go back and hear exactly how people talked twenty, forty, a hundred years ago. I suspect that this will have a retarding effect on the rate of language change.

    --
    The cake is a pie
    1. Re:The past as a guide by Alsee · · Score: 1

      I think we can all agree that Television is retarding.

      -

      --
      - - You can't take something off the Internet! That's like trying to take pee out of a swimming pool.
  141. Re:MOD PARENT UP by bladx · · Score: 1

    "Korean has borrowed words from both languages, but structurally resembles neither."


    Actually, Korean resembles Japanese as far as grammatical structure (but not in terms of conjugation.)
  142. Um, spend your time doing stuff you understand. by Estanislao+Mart�nez · · Score: 1

    Thanks for pointing this out, and for bringing up the verb "to be." This is, by default, the oldest verb in any language (except perhaps Russian, which they tell me doesn't have it), and therefore the most irregular.

    What do you mean by "oldest"?

    You'd have an argument there if you'd said "most frequent" instead of "oldest." Other people have pointed out how you messed up Russian (and dear God, can't you look up stuff before you spout off?).

    Based on this, I have formulated the theory that "to be" is irregular in every language (that has it). In good scientific methodology, I am seeking out evidence to the contrary. Can anyone provide any?

    You know, idly making hypotheses about stuff you don't know anything about, and then demanding that others do the hard work of testing them for you, hardly qualifies as "good scientific methodology."

    The question is ill-defined anyway, since you give us no criterion for deciding which words in other languages count as "to be." Do both ser and estar in Spanish qualify? Ok, that one might not be a problem, because they are both "irregular" (but more on that below). Does Cape Verdean Creole é (as in Mi é bu amigu 'I am your friend') count as a verb? That one doesn't vary with person or number, but its grammar is otherwise very odd compared to other verbs (long story).

    An even more profound question: how do we decide if a verb is "irregular"? For example, in the traditional grammars of Romance languages, most verbs are classified as belonging into one of a handful of conjugation groups. In Spanish, for example, these are the verbs that end in -ar, -er and -ir; in French, -er, -ir and -re. Verbs that can't be correctly conjugated just by applying the rules appropriate to one of these classes are called "irregular."

    Now the problem is that these definitions of "irregular" are language-specific; the definition of "irregular verb" for Spanish is no use for Turkish. Therefore, the results that you obtain for one language may not be comparable to those you obtain for another.

  143. Fish will be spelled ghoti by blueZ3 · · Score: 1

    gh making the "fff" sound as in tough
    o making the "eh" sound as in women
    ti making the "shh" sound as in nation

    --
    Interested in a Flash-based MAME front end? Visit mame.danzbb.com
  144. Re:MOD PARENT UP by zooblethorpe · · Score: 1

    Korean has borrowed words from both languages, but structurally resembles neither.
    Actually, Korean resembles Japanese as far as grammatical structure (but not in terms of conjugation.)

    Please re-read my comment -- I meant that Korean has borrowed words from both *Chinese and English*, but structurally resembles neither. I'm personally very much convinced that Korean and Japanese share (at least some of) the same origins, you'll find no argument from me there. And I happily consent that the vocabularies don't have much in common, but then I've not been much of a fan of Swadesh lists on the whole when it comes to non-IE languages; they're a fun analysis tool, but vocabulary differences alone don't strike me as enough evidence to prove unrelatedness, as it were, especially when underlying intrinsic language structures show so much similarity.

    Cheers,

    --
    "What in the name of Fats Waller is that?"
    "A four-foot prune."
  145. Comment removed by account_deleted · · Score: 1

    Comment removed based on user account deletion

  146. Indian English by JimBobJoe · · Score: 1

    One of my personal favorites is how I've heard them use the word "tension."

    When negotiations for a car deal were getting complex: "this is quite a lot of tension."

    The reference here was not to interpersonal tension, but tension can refer to complexity or bureaucracy.

  147. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Forget, the, Harvard, comma, what, about, the, Shatner, comma?

  148. OT: How to disable the new interface. by Kadin2048 · · Score: 1

    Please, for the love of all that is good and holy in this world, switch off the shitty ajax crap that lets me see 25 comments before requiring another click.

    Bloody hell, it is annoying! Get an account, log in, go to Preferences:Comments, and click on "Normal" under "Discussion Style."
    --
    "Ladies and gentlemen, my killbot features Lotus Notes and a machine gun. It is the finest available."
  149. Re:Keep the 'mittens' in The Kittens by RealAlaskan · · Score: 1
    ... shrive yourself or I will smite your ass!

    Man, I'm going to report you to the SPCA! What did that donkey ever do to you?

  150. R.I.P. Spag's by Kadin2048 · · Score: 1
    Spag's:

    Spag's was, from 1934 to 2004, a discount department store on Route 9 in Shrewsbury, Massachusetts. It was founded by Anthony Borgatti, nicknamed "Spag" (short for spaghetti, his favorite dish). Until 1996, customers had to bring their own bags, hence the slogan, "No bags at Spag's." When Spag died in 1996, his daughters took over until 2002, when they sold it to Building 19. The location became Spag's 19, and in September 2004 Building 19 owner Jerry Ellis said the store was not profitable in its current format. Spag's merchandise and operations were converted to Building 19's format. October 3, 2004 was the last day of business for Spag's. For much of its lifecycle, the roof of the main building had the name "SPAGS" written across the east roof, but this was painted over in 2005. Other businesses surrounding Spags, including The Ground Round family-style restaurant, have since closed due to lack of business. In June 2007 tentative plans were announced to close Spags 19 and demolish the building to make way for an affordable housing project.
    Kinda sad, actually. I remember going there, back in the day.
    --
    "Ladies and gentlemen, my killbot features Lotus Notes and a machine gun. It is the finest available."
  151. Frequency is the key property in language by kimb · · Score: 1

    We measured something no one really thought could be measured, and got a striking and beautiful result.

    A bit on a sensationalistic side, as people working in the field of quantitative and experimental psycholinguistics have been working on measuring various aspects of language for some time now.

    The real problem in this field is not measuring itself, but getting good material to make measures on and a proper theoretical framework (i.e. you need to figure out what kind of quantity is relevant).

    It is now possible to predict reaction times on certain grammar forms with ~99% precision based on frequency of those forms in language (I'm to lazy to give links, google it if you are interested, the research was mostly done by Max Planck Institute for Psycholinguistics). The problem was finding a relevant way of grounding grammar into information theory framework—once that was solved mathematics was trivial.

    The value of the Harvard research is that it is probably the first to give some exact measurments on phenomena that has been, so far, only qualitatively noted in the historical perspective of language development. Good work.

    It is also another validation of the idea that frequency (amount of information) of a given linguistic entity is the property that is the most relevant (maybe even the only relevant) for the way our brain processes language.

  152. Predicting the future... or influencing it? by NerdyLove · · Score: 1

    'Lieberman, Michel, and their co-authors project that the next word to regularize will likely be "wed."' It is obvious that because of their relationship issues, they've banded together to try and make references to marriage scarce, and themselves (hypothetically) happier. When we banish the irregular forms of 'wed' from our lexicon, they will see their mistake and start using it again, only to be laughed at by their wedded peers. Duh?

  153. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by smellsofbikes · · Score: 2

    For what it's worth, I first heard that joke over 20 years ago.

    --
    Nostalgia's not what it used to be.
  154. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Interesting

    Y'all know that in Australia, a wombat is someone who eats, roots and leaves. That's not too polite, especially on a first date.

  155. Mod up by PCM2 · · Score: 1

    The GP is right to let "it is a big, red, house" bug him, because it's completely incorrect.

    The serial comma, on the other hand, is still optional. You can either say "it was red, white and blue" or "it was red, white, and blue" ... there is no universal standard, either in British or American English. (Personally I find it is easier to accidentally form confusing sentences if you leave the comma out, but leaving it out does not automatically make the sentence confusing.)

    --
    Breakfast served all day!
  156. compounds by tepples · · Score: 1

    Have you ever met a pair of "newlyweddeds"? "To marry" has become more common than "to wed", but forms of "wed" linger in commonly used compounds.
  157. Ad hominem fails it by tepples · · Score: 1

    No-one who believes in creationism has any right to be regarded as a scientist. Fact. End of. You fail it.
  158. And you, Commander Gravy? by tepples · · Score: 1
    CmdrGravy wrote:

    Ha ha you fuckwit muppet how can you possibly subscribe to anything from a guy whos name sounds like dribbly or wibbly. Ha ha you fuckwit muppet how can you possibly subscribe to anything from a guy whos name sounds like something to be poured over mashed potatoes.
  159. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Informative

    The version we used to hear was a bit more crass, and involved relationships:

    A kiwi eats roots shoots and leaves.

  160. pfft... by djupedal · · Score: 1

    Ok, I stand corrected - 15th century puts it 700 years ago. From elsewhere on the 'net... "unlike almost every other alphabet in the world, the Korean alphabet did not evolve. It was invented in 1443 (promulgated in 1446) by a team of linguists and intellectuals commissioned by King Sejong the Great."

    My comments concerning English versus Korean are based on the differences in how the mouth, tongue, pallate, throat and nasal cavities are employed. While native English speakers are capable of making individual sounds, the correct sounds needed to imitate a native Korean speaker require distinctly different combinations of throat and tongue, using the rear of the mouth, instead of the teeth, as an example. Koreans rarely combine the tongue and front teeth when making the short list of sounds needed to express themselves - native English speakers, however, (USA) rely constantly on THIS TYPE of lip, front teeth and tip of tongue expression. For a native english speaker to sound like a Korean to a Korean takes time and practice, as the use of the tongue in the back of the throat and softer tones made with lips, tongue and nasal breathing are not something their mouths are used to.

    Beyond the date, the rest if your rattling, however, is anecdotal and apparently suffers from your creative imagination :)

    More from the net, such as Wikipedia... "The Korean alphabet, invented in the years 1443-46, is the only true alphabet native to the Far East." Not derived, evolved, bastardized or co-mingled.

    The Korean script which is now generally called Han-gul was invented in 1443 under the reign of Hing Sejong (r. 1418-1450), the fourth king of the Choson Dynasty. It was then called Hunmin Chong-um, or proper sounds to instruct the people. However, evidence for a script version did not appear until 1446 when Hunmin Chong-um appeared in a written document. The motivation behind the invention of the Korean script, according to King Sejong's preface to the above book, was to enable the Korean people to write their own language without the use of Chinese characters. Until the introduction of Hunmin Chong-um, Chinese characters were used by the upper classes, and Idu letters, a kind of Chinese-based Korean character system, were used by the populace. There also seems to have been a second motivation behind the development of Korean script: to represent the "proper" sound associated with each Chinese character.

    In attempting to invent a Korean writing system, King Sejong and the scholars who assisted him probably looked to several writing systems known to them at the time, such as Chinese old seal characters, the Uighur script and the Mongolian scripts. The system that they came up with, however, is predominantly based upon their phonological studies. Above all, they developed a theory of tripartite division of the syllable into initial, medial and final, as opposed to the bipartite division of traditional Chinese phonology.

    The initial sounds (consonants) are represented by 17 letters of which there are five basic forms. The other initial letters were derived by adding strokes to the basic letters. No letters were invented for the final sounds, the initial letters being used for that purpose. The original Humin Chong-um text also explains that the medial sounds (vowels) are represented by 11 letters of which there are three basic forms.

    After the promulgation of the Korean alphabet, its popularity gradually increased, particularly in modern times, to the point where it has replaced Chinese characters as the primary writing system altogether.

    One of the more interesting characteristics of the Korean script is its syllabic grouping of the initial, medial and final letters. However, the Korean script is essentially different from such syllabic writing systems as Japanese Kana. It is an alphabetic system which is characterized by syllabic grouping.

    1. Re:pfft... by zooblethorpe · · Score: 1

      Okay, here we go, something with more meat to it. :)

      More from the net, such as Wikipedia... "The Korean alphabet, invented in the years 1443-46, is the only true alphabet native to the Far East." Not derived, evolved, bastardized or co-mingled.

      While Hangul is indeed a true alphabet, it did not actually arise from a vacuum. There is substantial evidence that at least some of the Hangul symbols were in fact derived from the extant Phagspa alphabet used by the Mongolians of the Yuan Dynasty, and which was in turn based on the Indic Tibetan alphabet. Have a look at the Wikipedia article on Hangul, particularly the section on Ledyard's theory of consonant jamo design. This is not meant to trivialize what King Sejong and his advisers did in deriving Hangul, but rather to point out that Hangul has roots, and did not just spring fully formed from this royal linguistic committee. Hangul is indeed quite notable for the perspicacity shown by the committee in their linguistic analysis of their own language.

      Beyond the date, the rest if your rattling, however, is anecdotal and apparently suffers from your creative imagination :)

      I'm not sure what you think was anecdotal in the GP post here. The GP noted:

      Furthermore, it is not true that someone who speaks Chinese or Japanese can quickly pick up Korean. Chinese and Korean are not only unrelated but of radically different types. Chinese speakers find Korean quite difficult. Japanese speakers find Korean somewhat easier because the two languages are very similar in grammatical type, but even so most of the vocabulary is quite unfamiliar and the morphology, though similar in a general typological way, is quite different in detail.

      All of this is backed up by published linguistic analyses, and is not just "anecdotal". Perhaps you were responding to something else? If you were instead responding to the GP's comment that Korean has notably different dialects in noting that the language has not been a single unified whole since King Sejong's time, as you had stated, this too seems to be borne out by published works. Wikipedia itself mentions different dialects in the relevant section of the Korean language article.

      Sorry to call you on it, man, but if you're going to munge all your facts together, folks who know better are likely to pipe up.

      --
      "What in the name of Fats Waller is that?"
      "A four-foot prune."
  161. What are you sniffing? by djupedal · · Score: 1

    Please see reply above, thanks.

    1. Re:What are you sniffing? by zooblethorpe · · Score: 1

      I'm really not sure what you're referring to, but I'm happy to look for other posts from you.

      Cheers,

      --
      "What in the name of Fats Waller is that?"
      "A four-foot prune."
  162. despite your insulting response... by meburke · · Score: 1

    ...and the futility of trying to communicate with close-minded ignorant folks in the world, I guess you either think you have more knowledge about Chinese than the authors' of the Chinese linguistic books I read or suffer from some other kind of misconception.

    First, Cantonese is a spoken language. Yes, you can write Chinese and a Cantonese speaker can read it using Cantonese words, but my former girlfriend says it is like listening to a person at a scientific conference reading a scholarly paper; it doesn't convey the essence of Cantonese. Mandarin has more structure and is less dynamic than Cantonese. Written Chinese conveys the essentials of Mandarin very well.

    All languages are spoken. The writing that accompanies the language is not the language. It is only a representation of the language. In English, we have an alphabet that we arrange to convey a concept such as "dog" and it takes three letters with whatever number of strokes each letter takes, depending on the handwriting. In Chinese, the concept of "dog" is represented by a single symbol, and the strokes are all essential to conveying the concept. By that I mean that in English I could remove a symbol and still possibly lead a person to reconstruct the concept of "dog" by adding a placeholder, as in "_og" (a pet), but in Chinese, removing any of the strokes destroys the meaning of the concept conveyed.

    You might be able to find an older paperback copy of "An Introduction to Linguistics and Language", by Christopher Hall. This book introduces the history and study of Linguistics, and You wouldn't be such an ignorant sap if you read it or any of the other fine books on Linguistics available.

    --
    "The mind works quicker than you think!"
    1. Re:despite your insulting response... by ioshhdflwuegfh · · Score: 1

      ...and the futility of trying to communicate with close-minded ignorant folks in the world, I guess you either think you have more knowledge about Chinese than the authors' of the Chinese linguistic books I read or suffer from some other kind of misconception. We're getting serious, charges are flying here and there, like "insult", etc. Ok, it's serious I can see, yet by reading you I cannot keep my face straight. Maybe that is not bad after all, I don't know, I am smiling... In your terminology, and perhaps to make a friendly gesture, let me demonstrate that I indeed suffer from some kind of missing conception, like in: my laughing is in fact, objectively, a kind of suffering due to incorrect conception. I am talking about my concept of the letter d, which doubtlessly does not conceive the correct idea of the letter d. I am conceiving it more like a swollen belly. Like the letter D. That would definitely be a conception of the concept of letter D, like in: being pregnant, already conceived. Then, for me, :D is like an ideogram, like smiling or laughing face.

      All languages are spoken. The writing that accompanies the language is not the language. It is only a representation of the language. So then, I got encouraged by your statement: after all, since D is not the language, nor :D for that matter, everything fits into my idea of conception, what it means to be conceived or to conceive. I am already not suffering anymore, have no misconceptions.

      In Chinese, the concept of "dog" is represented by a single symbol, and the strokes are all essential to conveying the concept. By that I mean that in English I could remove a symbol and still possibly lead a person to reconstruct the concept of "dog" by adding a placeholder, as in "_og" (a pet), but in Chinese, removing any of the strokes destroys the meaning of the concept conveyed. So then, as you said, "_og" (a pet) should allow someone to reconstruct the concept of dog. This is possible, because there is accompanying description (it's about a concept that is also a pet) and there is this placeholder. Curious thing that placeholder: it's a stroke, we cannot possibly remove or omit it, for otherwise we end up with '"og" (a pet)'. Now, _ is a stroke that means that a letter is missing at the position where the stroke is. We cannot speak the placeholder. But still, this stroke definitely means that there exists a letter that makes the missing concept not missing anymore. Or it forms from a sequence of letters nothing less but a fully formed concept. It's like a miracle this placeholder.

      Which letter is then missing? Well, I know what conceives the concept, so then I can just write: "Dog" instead of "_og". But then, to be sure, I can write "dog" as well. Or, for all I care, I can reconstruct the missing concept (is "_og" concept at all?) like in :D og. Or :Dog. I like this one. It is the concept that we're talking about: it represents conception, a pet, and a big laugh. It's pregnant with meaning:
      :Dog
  163. Is the extrapolation valid? by AaronParsons · · Score: 1

    A driving force in evolution (linguistic and otherwise) is isolation. Population isolation allows for a subgroup to drift from the global average by preventing the dilution of mutated genes (or memes) into the larger population. Historically, much linguistic evolution can be attributed to the isolation of communities from one another, and this evolution has contributed to the regularization of verbs, as well as the introduction of new irregularities borrowed from neighboring languages, etc. But now, with global communication, language standardization, and a much heavier reliance on the written word, might not the ways in which language evolves change? Global communication adds a lot of inertia to a language (although it does increase cross-breeding between languages). I think it is bold (and inaccurate) to extrapolate from past linguistic mutations to the future in the light of the fundamental changes that have occurred in communication.

  164. Re:Easy- a lot of it will go by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Insightful

    The Aussie version is "Why do they nickname him "Wombat"? Because he eats, roots, shoots and leaves.

    This has been around since the 1960's.

    A note for our American cousins. If a woman is "rooting for her team", she is not waving her hands around but spreading her legs (among other things). Elvis singing "Tuttie Fruitie, I want a rootie" is just plain disgusting.

  165. Re:Cruft by GargamelSpaceman · · Score: 1

    I wouldn't neccessarily write off the irregularity of verbs as useless. Irregularity comes with the price that it is hard to learn, but the different forms serve as guideposts. Imagine listening to someone tell you something in a crowded room where everyone was talking and music was playing. If you hear the was, were, be, been, is, are then you know what to expect, and can often fill in the missing ( mis/un-heard ) bits because the irregularities help you narrow what could have been said. The more often an irregular verb is used, the more opportunities there are for the weirdness to be valuable. If a word is hardly ever used then the effort-cost of learning the weirdness, outweighs the benefits it gives in understanding/being better understood.

    --
    ...
  166. Save the adverb... quickly! by Sody · · Score: 1

    Another evolution of the language that really gets me is the death of the adverb, as in the article:

    "...a verb used 100 times less frequently will evolve 10 times as fast."

    That's right -- it should be "quickly" or some other adverb to modify the verb "evolve." "Fast," which is an adjective, should only be used to describe a noun.

    Am I the only person still bothered by this? I remember at least 10 years ago running across a web site devoted to saving the adverb, but I can't find it any more. Perhaps it simply perished, along with my hopes for my grand children ever using adverbs.

    Of course, my hopes are further dashed by the fact that a Harvard mathematician of all people said, "The data hasn't changed," when we all know that the word "data" is the plural of "datum," so if the data haven't changed, that's what he should have said!

    *sigh*

  167. Re:Cruft by Eivind · · Score: 1

    Well, the fact that the large majority of verbs -arent- irregular is also proof that there's nothing much lost by being regular. Noisy environments are a special case, and one where irregular verbs or not doesn't really make much of a difference.

    And at the same time the irregularities make it much harder to learn correct english, which is a significant impediment.

  168. Linguistic books by pbaer · · Score: 1

    Do you have any particular books you would recommend to someone who wants a serious intro to Linguistics?

    --
    There are 11 types of people, those who know unary and those who don't.