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Oldest Modern Humans Found

DrLudicrous writes "Anthropologists have reconstructed and dated three skulls from Ethiopia that they believe to be the oldest anatomically modern human skulls in existance. They date to 160,000 years ago, in agreement with genetic studies that pin the arrival of modern humans to at least 150,000 years ago. The skulls also demonstrate evidence of ritual burial." UC Berkeley has the original release as well.

861 comments

  1. Wait a minute... by jkauzlar · · Score: 0, Interesting

    Ethiopia? Didn't humans come from the Philippines?

    1. Re:Wait a minute... by kramer2718 · · Score: 1

      Are you being serious? If so, please explain where you would get that idea. If not, please explain the joke.

    2. Re:Wait a minute... by shatteredpottery · · Score: 3, Informative
      I think what he's referring to was a project a few years ago. The premise was, since all of our mitochondria are inherited from our mother, it should be possible to track human mitochondrial DNA back to a single female ancestor (or "Eve", fo r obvious reasons).

      The first such major project to act on this took several years and thousands of DNA samples. They determined that Eve was from the Phillippines, and this was announced with quite a bit of publicity, articles in Time magazine, etc. Unfortunately, it was soon found that the analysis had been done with a faulty understanding of how the analysis software worked. Or something like that. Can't remember anymore. Anyway, for whatever reason, the results were not meaningful, and the data they had gathered couldn't be re-used. It was quite a disappointment for all involved. But you still hear references to Eve having lived in the Phillippines because of this.

      --

      A witty saying is worth nothing - Voltaire

    3. Re:Wait a minute... by boomgopher · · Score: 5, Informative

      Saw a show on something related to this, "The Journey of Man", difference was using mutations on X chromosomes, which are passed unchanged from father to son, aside from random mutations. Anyways, a researcher (Spencer Wells) analysed the mutations in the X chromosomes from people all over the world, and came up with a map of sorts on the way people branched out.

      In summary, we're all descendant of a man who lived in Africa about 50,00 years ago (~2000 generations), with genes basically the same as bushmen.

      The researcher laid it out quite clearly and convincingly, so it's worth a watch/read:
      http://pup.princeton.edu/titles/7442. html

      It really made me realize how related we all are, and silences the idiots who think blacks are closer to the apes, and whites are more advanced, etc.

      --
      Your hybrid is not saving the environment. Its purpose is to make you feel good about buying something.
    4. Re:Wait a minute... by msaavedra · · Score: 5, Informative

      Just a small nit-pick: I believe you mean Y chromosome, not X. All men get their X chromosome from their mother, and can only pass it on to their daughters. Y chromosome inheritance works as you described, though.

      --
      "Any fool can make a rule, and any fool will mind it."
      --Henry David Thoreau
    5. Re:Wait a minute... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      bushmen ... you mean the bush clan? heh

    6. Re:Wait a minute... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      silences the idiots who think blacks are closer to the apes
      Actually, blacks are, geographically speaking, a lot closer to apes, than whites. At least on average. And discounting people working in zoo's.
    7. Re:Wait a minute... by drmike0099 · · Score: 2, Informative

      There is also a good deal of information on using mitochondrial DNA to track this information, which comes down through the women only (the men pass mitochondria along with sperm, but it gets left behind with the "shell" and only the regular DNA is used for fertilization). This mitochondrial DNA is very stable and you can track human spread over very long periods of time. The Y-chromosome, which isn't quite as stable and mutates, can be used to track migrations over a shorter span of time.

    8. Re:Wait a minute... by the_2nd_coming · · Score: 1

      what is interesting is that all non african people come from one woman who migrated out of africa with her family becasue all non africans are part of the same mDNA tree and africans have a more diverse mDNA tree.

      --



      I am the Alpha and the Omega-3
    9. Re:Wait a minute... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      It really made me realize how related we all are, and silences the idiots who think blacks are closer to the apes

      Try saying that after you see this ape-man.

      Looks like an ape to me.

    10. Re:Wait a minute... by la1n · · Score: 1

      No, Mitochrondria is basically a mini-cell within a cell. These "power plant" units have their own DNA. These can only come from the egg, so the mitochrondia DNA isn't re-combined with that male/female XX/XY process. Thus, it is a much better way to map history than the usual DNA.

    11. Re:Wait a minute... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      And why and how is this intersting, I may ask?

    12. Re:Wait a minute... by macshune · · Score: 1

      Occasionally sperm can contribute mitochrondrial DNA, though. It does happen.

  2. Call the editor! by illuminata · · Score: 5, Funny

    It's time to revise the Bible again! Damn science, it makes my work so much harder.

    --


    Until Slashdot fixes the funny modifier, use insightful or interesting. The poster knows your intentions.
    1. Re:Call the editor! by JebusIsLord · · Score: 1

      You are if that girl ain't your wife! :)

      --
      Jeremy
    2. Re:Call the editor! by JebusIsLord · · Score: 1

      Yes, BTW, every morning I wake up and say to myself "so, should I go have sex today, or dig a hole with this rediculously tiny shovel? Shovel it is then!"

      I assume you don't even have time to go to a job then, what with all the woman wooing you do.

      --
      Jeremy
    3. Re:Call the editor! by fohidac · · Score: 0

      apparently schools in georgia have decided to use the biblical value of pi as well as teach creationism.

    4. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You won't believe this...or will you?
      http://www.reasons.org/

    5. Re:Call the editor! by fohidac · · Score: 0

      no, i won't believe that twaddle.

    6. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      And specifically what part is twaddle? Oh, I see, you just a priori rejected it 'cos it doesn't suit your worldview. Yawn...there's none so blind as those that won't see.

    7. Re:Call the editor! by fohidac · · Score: 0

      and when you're really dumb you invent religion.

    8. Re:Call the editor! by CyberBill · · Score: 2, Insightful

      If you belive the bible hasnt changed in thousands of years maybe you should either read the bible, or go to church. Better yet go to a few different churches that use the 'same' bible. There are HUNDREDS of niche's of christianity and each one has a slightly different bible.

      Oh, and btw, the dead sea scrolls arnt written in english....

      -Bill

      --
      -Bill
    9. Re:Call the editor! by fohidac · · Score: 0

      "Hugh Ross reveals exciting new geophysical evidence for Godâ(TM)s carefully orchestrated activity during the Earthâ(TM)s early formation to prepare our planet for the first life." this has got to be a joke, right? what evidence has god left? his signature? 'God was here' spray painted on a rock somewhere? replace 'God' in the quote above with 'our alien masters' and it makes more sense.

    10. Re:Call the editor! by Negatyfus · · Score: 3, Insightful

      I feel I must correct you here.

      The bible has most certainly changed over the last few thousand years, especially in the first few centuries after Jesus' supposed crucifixion. The Dead Sea Scrolls pose some interesting contradictions to the bible, as well-- many pertaining to the Nephilim described in the old testament. Over the years those who had the power (kings and churches) sought to enhance and secure their position by keeping the people dumb and manipulating them by altering passages from the bible in their favour. So many bits and pieces have changes, been ommitted or added, that you don't even know anymore what parts were actually in the original scriptures and which not.

      That said, someone else pointed out the way science works: these are theories and they work from the basis of that. Nothing is 100% sure and when somebody finds out this and that is more true than the other thing, no one will feel shamed when this fact becomes the generally accepted one.

    11. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      yep. If you don't know the answer, say the invisible man in the sky must have been behind it all. Oh, and throw in a few good fairy tales to make it sound like you at least tried to explain it.

    12. Re:Call the editor! by fohidac · · Score: 0

      and persecute your neighbour because he thinks/feels/believes differently to you (does that mean apple users would have been burnt as witches?).

    13. Re:Call the editor! by Zork+the+Almighty · · Score: 2

      It's pretty easy to knock something if you don't really understand it or appreciate it. There's more than enough ignorance to go around these days, and you're doing nothing to remedy it.

      --

      In Soviet America the banks rob you!
    14. Re:Call the editor! by LNN · · Score: 2, Interesting

      "So the earth is flat?"

      As another poster here on slashdot (I wish I could remember who, giving him/her the credits..) pointed out about half a year ago in a similiar discussion, there is nothing in the bible saying the earth is flat. The closest thing you can get to this is the mentioning of the sun going up and going down, but then, we all see the mentioning of the sun going up and down in the morning newspaper.

      My apologies for going a bit off-topic. This isn't especially related to those corpses, said to have been dead for 150'000 years. Personally I'm a bit sceptic about the estimated age. For instance, living pengiuns have been dated dead since 8'000 years.

    15. Re:Call the editor! by inaeldi · · Score: 1

      It does say that there were "4 angels standing in the 4 corners of the Earth" or something along those lines. No, that doesn't necessarily mean that it's flat. It could still be curved with 4 corners. But it does mean that it can't be a sphere.

    16. Re:Call the editor! by fohidac · · Score: 0

      i understand theology more than most so don't accuse me ignorance. but you're right, i don't appreciate it. but what's to appreciate? i admit religion once had its place and was perhaps essential if humans were to progress. but that time was a long time ago. we don't need fairy tales. and we certainly don't need the pain and anguish that religion inflicts on millions of people each day (do i really need to talk of the intifada in the middle east, bush and his islamophobic chrisitian fundamentalist views, the catholic church denying women contraception, sharia law in saudi arabia, the holocaust?) do you really believe there is an omnipotent, omnipresent being 'out there'? well, hei's not been very potent for a long time and his present has been sorely lacking for just as long. if so i think it's you who is ignorant.

    17. Re:Call the editor! by Gsus411 · · Score: 3, Interesting

      I don't know where this comes from. There are many different translations of the Bible. The majority of the differences come from omissions in manuscripts that aren't doctrinally important or from differences in wording the translators used.

      The only really popular Bible translation out there that is radically different in content from the rest is the New World Translation by the Jehovah's Witnesses.

      And so what if the Dead Sea Scrolls are in Hebrew and Aramaic? You can certanly translate them!

    18. Re:Call the editor! by I(rispee_I(reme · · Score: 2, Interesting

      Here
      is a list of quotes from the bible regarding the shape of the earth. Admittedly,
      it's from infidels.org, but surely the host doesn't matter, since they're
      quoting infallible scripture...

    19. Re:Call the editor! by hazem · · Score: 2, Interesting

      It is also my understanding that the reassembly and "translations" of the Dead Sea Scrolls have required a lot of guess work and artistic license.

      Take a look at this image:
      http://www.ibiblio.org/expo/deadsea.scrolls.exhibi t/full-images/enoch-b.gif

      There are parts that are very faded... and those pieces on the left... how do they know where to put them - they are totally connected.

      On a program that might have been Nova, or on Discovery, theyed showed people generating the digital versions. They would take the images and darken and lighten parts with a touch-up brush to make the letters stand out. But, the girl doing the work admitted that you could easily make it say anything you want - even to include putting her own name in there.

      Part of their work was based on arranging the pieces to match other documents. So, of course, they match other documents!

      I'm not saying what is written on those scrolls is not true, but I don't believe they are conclusive of much.

    20. Re:Call the editor! by Zork+the+Almighty · · Score: 1

      do you really believe there is an omnipotent, omnipresent being 'out there'?
      For the record, no. It's irrelevant to my point anyway. The serious problems you point to are caused by peoples' ignorance. Ignorance of their own supposed beliefs, and ignorance of the beliefs of others. To chalk it all up as the fault of religion, and to demonize religous beliefs is simply another version of the same thing.

      --

      In Soviet America the banks rob you!
    21. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      What is this 9th November date everyone keeps on going on about?

    22. Re:Call the editor! by bsartist · · Score: 2, Insightful

      Do I need to understand and appreciate the koran before I condemn 9/11?

      No, you don't. But, you do need to understand it in order to realize that the nut cases who commited that act of terror were about as "mainstream" as the Christian nut cases who blow up abortion clinics.

      --
      Lost: Sig, white with black letters. No collar. Reward if found!
    23. Re: Call the editor! by Black+Parrot · · Score: 1, Funny


      > Yeah, like I'm going to choose to believe some nerdy anthropologist who would rather dig with his tiny shovel out in the desert than be with a girl.

      That's rich, coming from a Slashdotter.

      --
      Sheesh, evil *and* a jerk. -- Jade
    24. Re: Call the editor! by Black+Parrot · · Score: 4, Insightful


      > Don't you mean revise science, the Bible hasnt changed in thousands of years (note the dead sea scrolls which are the same as the current versions of the Bible). It is science that changes its mind everytime something new is discovered, cant they stick with one story.

      And there's the difference between science in religion. Religion wants to preserve a tradition, so its adherents stick to their story regardless of what the evidence says. Science wants to understand the universe, so it goes whereever the evidence demands.

      Of course... it only takes a casual familiarity with history to see that religion slowly changes its views over the generations as well, however much the practitioners want to pretend otherwise.

      --
      Sheesh, evil *and* a jerk. -- Jade
    25. Re:Call the editor! by The+Benefactor · · Score: 2, Insightful

      Why is it that whenever the Creationist Vs Evolutionist debate rages its always between the Bible and science, are these the only two schools of thought on this subject? What about any other world religions belief structures?

      --
      To err is human, to arr is pirate.
    26. Re: Call the editor! by Black+Parrot · · Score: 1


      > As another poster here on slashdot (I wish I could remember who, giving him/her the credits..) pointed out about half a year ago in a similiar discussion, there is nothing in the bible saying the earth is flat. The closest thing you can get to this is the mentioning of the sun going up and going down, but then, we all see the mentioning of the sun going up and down in the morning newspaper.

      But you rarely read claims that the sun stops in its path for a few hours as a result of sorcerous tricks.

      --
      Sheesh, evil *and* a jerk. -- Jade
    27. Re:Call the editor! by canicus · · Score: 2, Interesting

      While I am a Christian, I must say that the Bible has certainly changed over
      time. It has changed in regard to its content, for there were multiple canons
      competing one against the other before the Jews and Christians each agreed on
      their respective canons, and it took until the late fourth and early fifth
      centuries for the Christian church to finally say, "Ok, so this is the NT and
      the common man will regard these books as Scripture and not others." It didn't
      drop down out of the sky.

      The LXX represents the oldest readings of the Hebrew Bible, and it diverges
      from the Masoretic Text, Hebrew text of today, in a large number of ways.
      There are additions to biblical books found only in Greek. The book of Jeremiah
      is in a different order than in the MT, and I would think the order of a book
      has an impact on interpretation. In many places, there are variations
      resulting from its translation and the MT of today, which cannot be assumed to
      just be in translation.

      The Dead Sea Scrolls, as constructed (it has been noted this is iffy),
      challenge the current Hebrew text as much as they support it. Yes, the DSS
      Isaiah is very close to the MT of today. Jeremiah (again), though, is much
      different. It is much shorter, and again, is in a different order. The
      Penteteuch of the DSS is more favorable to the LXX and Samaritan Penteteuch
      than it is to the MT.

      The above are observations. There are still others which are made about the OT
      and show that it must have been composed in an extended editorial process (the
      Documentary Hypothesis on the Penteteuch, for example). There are places where
      it is clear that something has been omitted. In Numbers, God sends Balaam, and
      then sends an angel to kill him in the way because he went. I can postulate
      that God, as presented in the text, is fickle and kills people for obedience,
      that there was a story in between God's sending him and the ass speaking which
      was omitted and would have explained why he was being punished, or I can see it
      as an oversite in editing together several stories (the Documentary Hypothesis).
      I don't see many other rational arguments for it in the text.

      I could mention more differences and alterations over time in the Hebrew Bible,
      but I don't see a need to. Likewise, I think that my point is made and I do
      not need to proceed into the New Testament to show the great number of changes
      over time in it. That the texts of the books of the Bible has changed is an
      observation. To deny it is either to not look at the evidence or to be wholly
      irrational.

    28. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1

      This is obviously false. There are difference here and there, but they are scribal errors or things of that nature. If someone wanted to edit the Bible to edit it for political purposes, I'm sure those changes would have made the Bible much more obviously "in their favour". As it is, though, the Bible supports the weak rather than the strong, so your theory doesn't make sense.

      As for the "kings and churches" in power, if you look at history, you'll see that for the most part, the kings have often been the enemies of the Church. Look at, for instance, the history of the Holy Roman Empire vs. the Church. If one side had tried to change the Bible in their favor, would the other side have accepted it? No.

      Thirdly, Christianity had from an early date spread out quite widely over the world. A change in the Bible in one part of the world would not appear in Bibles on the other side of the world. Biblical scholars use manuscripts from around the world for this very reason, and the differences found are not that large.

      Fourth, we have Biblical manuscripts that are very old, so any subsequent changes to the Biblical text would be pretty obvious when compared to these early texts.

      Fifth, the Bible is actually considered sacred, so people would not manipulate it (or would not allow others to manipulate it) for the cynical reasons you suggest.

      Sixth, the idea that the rulers wanted to "keep the people dumb" is just propaganda.

      Even if we speak of the Old Testament, we can see by a comparison of the Jewish Bible with that kept by the Samaritans that there are not very large differences between those texts either. In any case, the Jews would not edit the Bible for political purposes. Have you ever read the Old Testament? It's not very kind to Jewish rulers.

    29. Re: Call the editor! by Black+Parrot · · Score: 4, Insightful


      > Sixth, the idea that the rulers wanted to "keep the people dumb" is just propaganda.

      When you have a bit of idle time, visit the talk.origins newsgroup and ask about the role of religion in the Neocon "wedge document". As one guy puts it in his .sig there, for a certain branch of Neocons "religion is the opiate of the masses, and that's a good thing".

      IIRC their philosophy goes at least back to Plato, who (IIRC) suggested a model state where the "guardians" knew religion was a hoax, but espoused it anyway in order to control the masses.

      Notice in passing how convenient it is for a government to send soldiers to their deaths and then assure the public that they have a secure spot in Heaven (as if the politicians would know!), or to shrug off "collateral damage" when everyone 'knows' that God won't let the innocent suffer in the afterlife.

      --
      Sheesh, evil *and* a jerk. -- Jade
    30. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      Agreed. Where's his wife, Lilith? Never hear about her, eh? :)

      The chain of Christian religous documents goes like this (from latest to oldest); revised/modernized/translated bibles inc. Mormon and other sects, old latin/greek/hebrew, jewish texts and split from them, jewish tribal stories (differing), jewish polytheistic (Yahweh & Lilith as husband and wife gods), Zorasterians, ... who knows what came before the Zorasterians?

      So, the *original* documents were stories. If you don't have a time machine and a cruise ship full of researchers, forget it.

      There are so many true religions and religous texts to choose from!

    31. Re:Call the editor! by ragnar · · Score: 1

      Usually a post moderated "insightful" will have some specific examples to substantiate the claim. I am legitamately interested to know, because up until now all I've ever heard about the dead sea scrolls is that they have been remarkebly accurate. Mind you, I can't read the scrolls and I'm no biblical scholar, but I'm curious how you came upon this conclusion.

      --
      -- Solaris Central - http://w
    32. Re: Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 2, Insightful

      The fact is that people in the Middle Ages believed in Christianity. Thousands of people devoted their lives to it, including rulers, which according to your theory should have known better. Some of the greatest saints were rich and powerful men who gave up their wealth and power to become monks. For example, St. Francis of Assisi, St. Anthony of Padua. St. Thomas Aquinas was imprisoned for two years by his aristocratic family for wanting to turn his back on his wealth and become a monk.

    33. Re: Call the editor! by Black+Parrot · · Score: 2, Interesting


      > The fact is that people in the Middle Ages believed in Christianity. Thousands of people devoted their lives to it, including rulers, which according to your theory should have known better.

      Yes, just as these and these should have known better.

      You can't justify religion by appeals to human rationality

      --
      Sheesh, evil *and* a jerk. -- Jade
    34. Re:Call the editor! by dkh2 · · Score: 1
      inaeldi spake from the ether: 'It does say that there were "4 angels standing in the 4 corners of the Earth" or something along those lines.'

      Of course, that all depends upon what translation you're reading. The only way to really understand the intent and meaning of any passage is to read it in its original language in light of the contexts of everything around it and knowledge of what was happening in the world at the time when it was written.

      Any quote from a third or fourth generation translation runs the risk of losing all of its original meaning. Reading New Testament scripture in Latin is a couple of steps better than reading the New Revised Standard Version but, in most cases is still a step or two away from the original meaning.

      Arent there something like 50 different words for "snow" in the Innuit language? If you ssy "there's snow outside," which of those 50 kinds of snow do you mean?

      --
      My office has been taken over by iPod people.
    35. Re: Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1

      The point is that the saints I mentioned were among the rulers of the time, and so if Christianity, as was suggested in one of the parent posts, were being used by the aristocracy merely as a means of control of the rest of the population, then these saints would have known about it. Clearly that isn't the case.

    36. Re: Call the editor! by Tikiman · · Score: 1
      Notice in passing how convenient it is for a government to send soldiers to their deaths and then assure the public that they have a secure spot in Heaven (as if the politicians would know!), or to shrug off "collateral damage" when everyone 'knows' that God won't let the innocent suffer in the afterlife.

      It is true that religion can be used to manipulate masses of people - however this speaks nothing as to whether any particular religion is "true" or not. I can use a rope to tie people up, but it doesn't mean that the rope doesn't exist. It is impossible to construct that "control" is the reason a religion like Christianity exists, given the lives of the earliest Christians - obviously they weren't trying to manipulate large masses of people, and were opposed to the government.

    37. Re: Call the editor! by Waab · · Score: 1

      And there's the difference between science in religion. Religion wants to preserve a tradition, so its adherents stick to their story regardless of what the evidence says. Science wants to understand the universe, so it goes whereever the evidence demands.

      While it's true that religions tend to stick to their stories regardless of the evidence, the same tendency has been observed among scientists as well. If you had asked Einstein about non-local effects in quantum physics, I imagine you'd have gotten the same kind of response you'd get by asking Jerry Falwell about evolution.

    38. Re: Call the editor! by Black+Parrot · · Score: 4, Insightful


      > > And there's the difference between science in religion. Religion wants to preserve a tradition, so its adherents stick to their story regardless of what the evidence says. Science wants to understand the universe, so it goes whereever the evidence demands.

      > While it's true that religions tend to stick to their stories regardless of the evidence, the same tendency has been observed among scientists as well. If you had asked Einstein about non-local effects in quantum physics, I imagine you'd have gotten the same kind of response you'd get by asking Jerry Falwell about evolution.

      Yes, science is practiced by humans and therefore all the usual human follies can be observed among scientists.

      However, scientists are well aware of that fact, so science as a "field" or "institution" is based on the notion of sanity checks and second opinions. The bad stuff like Piltdown Man and Cold Nuclear Fusion eventually get weeded out, because although they appeal strongly to individual's follies they can't stand up to the checks.

      I.e., ultimately Einstein's personal opinion doesn't matter.

      --
      Sheesh, evil *and* a jerk. -- Jade
    39. Re:Call the editor! by osgeek · · Score: 5, Informative
      The difference is that when Science learns that it's wrong, it admits it and moves on to try to learn more about the universe.

      When the Bible is shown to be wrong, people hold to it doggedly, making excuse after excuse until they're left in exile on the lunatic fringe defending the utterly laughable (Fundamentalists), or they must dilute the "facts" in the Bible so much that what they're left with is practically useless as a religious text describing an almighty Creator(Catholics).

      For those who take the Bible literally, believing that all words of the Bible are true and perfect:
      • No, a rabbit does not chew its cud.
      • Jesus lies quite egregiously to try to save his own skin in the Bible when questioned by the Pharisies.
      • The Earth is not flat with four corners.
      • No evidence exists for a worldwide flood between 4,000 and 6,000 years ago, and even less evidence exists that we and all land/air animals came from creatures that rode an ark during that time.
      • The Egyptians, who were meticulous record keepers, made no mention of massive Jewish slave use that was ripped away from them by the coming of Moses. Further, if the Nile had been turned to blood, it would have caused untold destruction upon the entire region that depended upon it for their very survival. We would have learned about it by now, most likely.
      • Jesus describes his "kingdom" in some detail then goes on to say how not even all of his Apostles would be dead by the time he returned to his glory for all to see... I think it's safe to say that prophecy was full of crap.
      • Christians are completely unable to do any of the things that Jesus claimed they could with even a little faith: They can't move mountains, they can't whither trees or tell them to jump into the ocean (well, they can, but nothing happens), they can't walk on water, they can't provably cure the sick, they can't do shit. Furthermore, all followers of Christ are supposed to be able to prove the divinity of their cause. Jesus said they would prove it by drinking deadly poison, handling deadly snakes, and speaking in tongues (in a way such that all people of all languages can understand what they say).
      • To believe that Jonah spent days inside a whale is an utter joke. Do you believe all of the ridiculous claims made by Islam and Hindu texts? Hmm, I wonder why not? Can we say special pleading?
      • Hey, from your perfect Bible, name me the exact ten commandments.
      Face facts. The Bible is so obviously wrong, you'd have to be heavily deluded or bribed to believe otherwise. I guess the elusive promise of everlasting life is quite a bribe. I'd go for it too, but my sense of intellectual honesty just can't stomach all of the bullshit.

      Just because Christians are so simple as to believe in an obviously wrong religious text doesn't mean that Science is inferior when it admits its mistakes and moves on.
    40. Re:Call the editor! by Negatyfus · · Score: 2, Informative

      Try this website for starters. It contains a lot of honest information. Google is your friend, too.

    41. Re:Call the editor! by jroseborough · · Score: 2, Informative

      I would like to see some credible evidence before I'll believe that contradictions exist in the Bible. I would agree that apparent contradictions exist, but I haven't seen a legitimate one yet in any accurate translation (ASV, NASB, or NKJV are a few accurate ones that come to mind; New World Translation is an example of an purposefully mistranslated text.)

      Refutations to many apparent contradictions can be read here:
      Bible Difficulties

      The original Hebrew and Greek texts of the Bible are preserved well. No translation is or can be perfect, and all translations are an additional step away from the autograph. Often, the English does not carry the full meaning of a verse. That is why it is good to examine several translations of the verse to try to get a better understanding.

      It is easy to misuse or not interpret scripture accurately and come to the conclusion that it's all false. Jesus recognized that the best way to address Satan's lies and misuse of the truth was to respond with the truth of the scriptures. (Matthew 4)

      In my experience, many folks pretend to know that the Bible is false, when in reality they never investigate it first. I hope that you will investigate it. The truths in the Bible have changed my life in many positive ways.

    42. Re: Call the editor! by Black+Parrot · · Score: 2, Insightful


      > It is true that religion can be used to manipulate masses of people - however this speaks nothing as to whether any particular religion is "true" or not.

      I don't offer it as an argument about religious truth. As I understand this thread, someone claimed that the Bible had been manipulated in order to manipulate people, someone else replied that such a claim was preposterous on the face of it, and I tried to show that such a claim was not preposterous.

      What I find preposterous and somewhat irksome is that a politician would speak at the funeral of a soldier who died in a dubiously motivated war and make a bald-faced claim that the soldier is now enjoying a bit of R&R with his maker. Surely that's beyond the competence of judgement even for the president of a superpower, even if the Bible is true in every word?

      It pays to consider why politicians would make such claims, so regularly.

      --
      Sheesh, evil *and* a jerk. -- Jade
    43. Re:Call the editor! by f97tosc · · Score: 1

      It is science that changes its mind everytime something new is discovered, cant they stick with one story.

      Science is progressive, and while it updates and refines its stories, it does not change its mind altogether.

      Some facts and theories are well established, other areas are still controversial and scientists argue over them in conferences and scientific papers. But as this happens, the general level of understanding increases, controversies are settled and the field moves on to new ground - where there are new mysteries and room for new revisions.

      In this case, Darwin's general theory of natural selection is well established. The general principles have not changed. A rich set hominid finds have given us a more and more complete view of human evolution. Finding one more skull makes the picture more complete, but it is not like all previous finds are made useless. Rather, some of the hypotheses formed with the old fact base have to be updated.

      Tor

    44. Re: Call the editor! by EvilTwinSkippy · · Score: 1
      What I find preposterous and somewhat irksome is that a politician would speak at the funeral of a soldier who died in a dubiously motivated war and make a bald-faced claim that the soldier is now enjoying a bit of R&R with his maker. Surely that's beyond the competence of judgement even for the president of a superpower, even if the Bible is true in every word?

      Frankly, no priest or pastor would ever claim to know where a person was headed in the afterlife. They will tell you that they THINK that the person is going to heaven, but really God is the decider of such things.

      --
      "Learning is not compulsory... neither is survival."
      --Dr.W.Edwards Deming
    45. Re:Call the editor! by Cleon · · Score: 1

      Check out http://www.talkorigins.org/origins/faqs-youngearth .html and http://climchange.cr.usgs.gov/info/lacs/radiocarbo n.htm for a good understanding of how C-14 dating works.

      Carbon dating is useless on living organisms; the whole point is measuring the carbon decay *after* death (when the organism stops ingesting carbon).

      In any event, C-14 dating is only used to about 50,000 years before present, so chances are another method was used.

      --
      Gifts for Geeks - Stuff that really matters!
    46. Re:Call the editor! by geronimo87 · · Score: 1

      I've often wondered that myself. I mean, if we teach the Judeo-Christian Creation mythology in schools, why don't we also have to teach the hundreds of other Creation myths? I'd sure love to see how parents react when little Johnny comes home and explains how the Walrus God created the universe.

    47. Re: Call the editor! by jamesmrankinjr · · Score: 1

      Yes, science is practiced by humans and therefore all the usual human follies can be observed among scientists. However, scientists are well aware of that fact...

      So, religous people aren't aware of the fact that they're human, too?

      Peace be with you,
      -jimbo

    48. Re: Call the editor! by Black+Parrot · · Score: 4, Informative


      > I would like to see some credible evidence before I'll believe that contradictions exist in the Bible. I would agree that apparent contradictions exist, but I haven't seen a legitimate one yet in any accurate translation

      That's because the interpretation is underconstrained. Theologians can cough up any "explanation" at all, so long as they preserve the claim that the Bible is true.

      For example, the New Testament variously reports that Judas hanged himself or that he threw himself down a stairway and burst open. In Sunday School I was taught that he hung himself at the top of a stairway, the rope broken, and he tumbled down the stairway.

      Fairy tales and the fairy-tale logic used to explain away the obvious contradictions in them simply aren't falsifiable. You could give Homer or Raiders of the Lost Ark the same treatment.

      Meanwhile, if you try to evaluate the Bible objectively by comparing it to what we know from history, archaeology, geology, etc., it is found often to be very, very wrong. Once you grok that fact you suddenly lose interest in adding extra-biblical epicycles to reconcile the contradictions, because you see the book for what it is: a centuries-long accumulation and repeated re-editing of traditional stories, all done at the hands of superstitious and falible men.

      Though there's still some wisdom mixed in with the fiction and nonsense, for those who care to look for it.

      --
      Sheesh, evil *and* a jerk. -- Jade
    49. Re: Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Mr. Parrot, since you grew up in a Baptist home you should understand that Jonestown and Heavens' gate cultists had distorted and perverted the bible. Why are you engaging in trolling by claiming that they were Christian when you know better?

      And why are you letting stand claims that medieval Roman Catholicism had anything (other than using some of the same terminology) to do with true biblical Christianity? Again, from your Baptist upbringing, you were made aware of the facts in your youth.

    50. Re:Call the editor! by operagost · · Score: 2, Informative

      The Dead Sea Scrolls are not scripture and are not, and never were, part of the accepted canon. The apocrypha contained in those scrolls were never cited by Christian church fathers or Jewish rabbis as inspired. If they conflict, it is irrelevant and not even surprising as they were placed there by divergent sects.

      --

      Gamingmuseum.com: Give your 3D accelerator a rest.
    51. Re:Call the editor! by jamesmrankinjr · · Score: 1

      The Earth is not flat with four corners.

      And Jesus was not physically a gate, or literally a sheperd. Your point is?

      The Egyptians, who were meticulous record keepers, made no mention of massive Jewish slave use that was ripped away from them by the coming of Moses.

      And you think the Eqyptian historians would record such an utterly humiliating defeat?

      Jesus lies quite egregiously to try to save his own skin in the Bible when questioned by the Pharisies.[sic]

      Don't suppose you'd like to back that up?

      To believe that Jonah spent days inside a whale is an utter joke.

      By saying this, all you're saying is that you don't believe in the supernatural. Why stop there? How could a man be born to a virgin? How could the blind be made to see and the deaf to hear?

      Christians are completely unable to do any of the things that Jesus claimed they could with even a little faith: They can't move mountains, they can't whither trees or tell them to jump into the ocean (well, they can, but nothing happens), they can't walk on water, they can't provably cure the sick, they can't do shit. Furthermore, all followers of Christ are supposed to be able to prove the divinity of their cause. Jesus said they would prove it by drinking deadly poison, handling deadly snakes, and speaking in tongues (in a way such that all people of all languages can understand what they say).

      I've certainly have heard testimony to some of these things. And I certainly know people who have been healed after prayer in ways that doctors have been hard pressed to explain. Also, I believe you're inserting the "all" in there yourself; my reading is that these are things that Christians will do as a group, not that all of these things will be done by all Christians. For example, Paul quite explicitly makes the point that speaking in tongues is a gift given to some, and other gifts are giving to others.

      Peace be with you,
      -jimbo

    52. Re: Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      WHO are the 'innocent'? If you commit murder and the jury convicts you but you are a good friend of the JUDGE, guess what? You are going to jail! If you don't meet God's standard to get into heaven, guess what? You are going to hell!

      Simple enough for you?

    53. Re: Call the editor! by Black+Parrot · · Score: 1


      > > Yes, science is practiced by humans and therefore all the usual human follies can be observed among scientists. However, scientists are well aware of that fact...

      > So, religous people aren't aware of the fact that they're human, too?

      What I find interesting about your post is that you cut my sentence off where you did, including the part that agreed scientists have the same weaknesses as religious believers but excluding the part that explains what scientists do about it.

      The difference isn't in the people; it's in the methods they employ (or don't employ) to keep them from fooling themselves.

      --
      Sheesh, evil *and* a jerk. -- Jade
    54. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Well, I believe the three dominant reasons that this fight is always christiantiy vs. science is because:

      * The bible is the source of the creationist fallacy.
      * The other religions don't adamantly disagree with what science is trying to piece together (read buddhism, diesm, etc.)
      * Some other religions have beaten any deviant thought in the regions they dominate into submission (read Islam).

      Your question almost reads similar to "why is it that whenever the PPC vs. Intel debate rages its always Mac vs PC...? What about the Amiga, Commodore, Sun, IBM servers, etc.?

      Because the other religions have nothing/little to do with the debate.

    55. Re:Call the editor! by arethereanynamesleft · · Score: 1

      The level of your naivete is staggering... "The Bible is considered sacred, so people would not manipulate it..." are you just trolling or do you really believe this???

      I will give you the benefit of the doubt and assume you believe this. That being the case, you should maybe pick up a history book sometime. Take a look at the Church from the 13th thru 16th centuries.

      What will you find? Kings posting their own Popes ("The Babylon Captivity"), Popes involved in love triangles with their son and daughter, Orgies that would make Romans blush, Parties costing 100,000s of ducats, Popes giving Red hats to nine year olds, and the selling of forgiviness for sins that people will commit in the future.

      There was absolutelty NOTHING sacred in the church for the entire span of 300+ years.

      And your ignorant suggestion that "the rulers wanted to "keep the people dumb" is just propaganda" is an even dumber statement. You could have atleast provided a source for such a foolish proclomation.

      The Church forbade ANYTHING to be written in the venacular. Why? Because only priests were allowed to learn to read and write Latin. The church did not even want people to be able to read the Bible. In fact, it was highly discouraged. Reading the Bible was only for those of the cloth, the common man was too "dumb" to be given such a privledge.

      When Erasmus wrote criticisms of the Church in Latin, the Pope read them, laughed and enjoyed them as good entertainment. When Erasmus threatened to write in venacular he was threatened with excommunication...he moved to England shortly thereafter.

      I could site you hundreds of other such occassion, but i suspect that given your disposition to make uninformed blanket statements with no sources you are not interested to begin with.

    56. Re:Call the editor! by Peter+La+Casse · · Score: 1
      Here is a list of quotes from the bible regarding the shape of the earth. Admittedly, it's from infidels.org, but surely the host doesn't matter, since they're quoting infallible scripture...

      None of the quotes from the bible on that web page were literal statements describing the shape of the earth. They were descriptions of dreams or quotes used to describe some theological point to illiterate shepherds thousands of years ago, not scientific claims.

      Of course, the linked article is not intended to be a rigorous disproof of a particular claim, it's intended to be a satirical article poking fun. Or at least, that's what it claims. You weren't intending for it to be taken seriously, were you?

    57. Re:Call the editor! by young-earth · · Score: 2, Informative

      The difference is that when Science learns that it's wrong, it admits it and moves on to try to learn more about the universe.

      Which is why it took over fifty years to recognize Piltdown was a fraud? Or why an extinct pig's tooth was ballooned into an entire human population before exposed as wrong? Or why DuBois hid the skulls that exposed his "Java man" to be bogus for decades beneath the floorboards in his house? Science is no more honorable than the individuals in it, and there are shysters and hucksters in all branches of humanity. Sadly, that means there are frauds in science, and will be for as long as there are people in the field.

      When the Bible is shown to be wrong, people hold to it doggedly, making excuse after excuse until they're left in exile on the lunatic fringe defending the utterly laughable (Fundamentalists), or they must dilute the "facts" in the Bible so much that what they're left with is practically useless as a religious text describing an almighty Creator(Catholics).

      I thank you for making a distinction between Christians and Roman Catholics, that discernment is rare. However you are incorrect that fundamentalists are on the lunatic fringe. There are many respected scientists in the mainstream who are fundamentalists. Many have to hide that however due to persecution and other attitudes of closed-minded individuals.

      The rest of your claims are just plain wrong:

      No, a rabbit does not chew its cud.

      Rabbits do chew their cud, in that they eat again what has passed through their system, by practicing refection. They do eat their food again. Note the claim was not that they have multichambered stomachs, merely that they eat again what they have already eaten. I don't know about you, but a caprophagic animal is a pretty good definition of an unclean animal that I would certainly not find appealing to consume.

      Jesus lies quite egregiously to try to save his own skin in the Bible when questioned by the Pharisies.

      Accusations such as this without detail are not worth answering. Provide detail and you will be answered.

      The Earth is not flat with four corners.

      Who said it was flat with four corners? That's your misinterpretation, ignoring literary constructions. The phrase "to the corners of the earth" is still in use today as an expression.

      No evidence exists for a worldwide flood between 4,000 and 6,000 years ago, and even less evidence exists that we and all land/air animals came from creatures that rode an ark during that time

      Mitochondrial Eve has been shown in secular literature (ever heard of the magazine "Science") to have lived ~6000 years ago. Evidence of the flood here.

      The Egyptians, who were meticulous record keepers, made no mention of massive Jewish slave use that was ripped away from them by the coming of Moses. Further, if the Nile had been turned to blood, it would have caused untold destruction upon the entire region that depended upon it for their very survival. We would have learned about it by now, most likely.

      Of course the Egyptians removed records of the slave Hebrew population, they are well documented revisionists. Note they don't mention losing battles either; no wonder they wiped out references to the crushing defeat they were handed. Same with the Nile, that large a defeat they would wipe out. And it was not blood for ages as you seem to imply.

      Jesus describes his "kingdom" in some detail then goes on to say how not even all of his Apostles would be dead by the time he returned to his glory for all to see... I think it's safe to say that prophecy was full of crap.

    58. Re:Call the editor! by rgoer · · Score: 1

      I didn't realize current version of the Bible included The Gospel according to Mary Magdalene, one of the more important aspects of the Dead Sea Scrolls.

    59. Re:Call the editor! by StingRayGun · · Score: 1

      Yeah, um just like the Romans, right? They were really good at documenting their losses, and they never once decreed that somethign be stricken from the records....

      I should not be, but I am suprised by your complete lack of tact/information in this matter. Science is full of crap (it always has been), your "world is flat," comment should prove that. Though I subscribe to almost all modern scientific theories, I am not suprised when any of them are turned completly on their heads.

      As far as the biblical stuff goes, the same applies. The difference between me and you would be: I have not decided that I alone possess all the answers. You assumably have.

      You should go back and read/watch Sagan's Contact for a nerdy/lack-of-attention-span forray into this stuff.

    60. Re:Call the editor! by ianscot · · Score: 2, Informative
      I would like to see some credible evidence before I'll believe that contradictions exist in the Bible.

      Your page amounts to a huge number of attempts at apologia for some pretty glaring "contradictions." It doesn't do much of a job with the first item on its list: the different order of the creation accounts in Genesis 1 and 2. I've seen better tries at that one -- involving the tenses of the verbs, for example.

      I guess it's pretty obvious you're reading it all in the original Hebrew and Greek, though, because otherwise, as you say, it'd get to being a total muddle. Good luck with that -- I'm sure it's all perfectly clear with no contradictions at all then...

      --
      "Fundamentalism" isn't about divine morality. It's about human authority.
    61. Re:Call the editor! by arethereanynamesleft · · Score: 1

      Old Habits die hard. It should be noted that even now, in the 21st Century, The Church still refuses to release it's condemnation of Galileo. "...the Church, repository and guardian of truth, found it hard to admit error and change course. How hard? One hears nowadays that Rome has finally, almost, rehabilitated Galileo after almost four hundred years." - pg. 181, The Wealth and Poverty of Nations, D.S. Landes, 1998

    62. Re: Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      So, religous people aren't aware of the fact that they're human, too?
      That's right. Many religious people are in obstinate denial of the fact that the authors of the Bible were human. And even those who are aware of this generally believe that they were somehow super-human, or taking dictation, as it were, from an infallible being.

      So don't try to equate them with scientists. They're not even in the same ballpark.

    63. Re:Call the editor! by hesiod · · Score: 1

      > Arent there something like 50 different words for "snow" in the Innuit language?

      FYI, no, there is not -- that "fact" was made up. There are, in reality, only a few (2-5?), which is still interesting (maybe).

    64. Re:Call the editor! by ajberg · · Score: 1

      Why? Theres no real proof. http://home.gowyo.com/creation/

    65. Re: Call the editor! by 3Bees · · Score: 1
      IIRC their philosophy goes at least back to Plato, who (IIRC) suggested a model state where the "guardians" knew religion was a hoax, but espoused it anyway in order to control the masses.

      I'm afraid to say that while you do recall correctly, you misunderstand the context of that statement. Plato did comment about the guardians (philosopher kings) not believing in gods. However, he does not say that they should espouse these beliefs, but that the stories about the gods should be continued. Please remember that there is very little that is held in common between modern organized religion and the ancient Greek pantheistic culture. I've said culture and not religion here, because that is the part that Plato advocates perpetuating, not religion as we view it today. He discusses these stories as being the basis of moral teachings, and the beginnings of instruction on how to be a good citizen of his ideal city-state.

      If you want to look at the idea of religion as political instrument of control, you will have to get quite a bit more contemporary. Marx is the most famous of the philosophers who pointed out that those in power use the tool of religion and the myth of afterlife to keep those they depend on (workers in modern terms) quiescent. IOW, don't struggle or fret too hard about your condition now, you will be rewarded later. Trust us and keep working.

      --
      "I think we should tax people who stand in water! " - Mr. Gumby
    66. Re:Call the editor! by cens0r · · Score: 1
      Mitochondrial Eve has been shown in secular literature (ever heard of the magazine "Science") to have lived ~6000 years ago.
      That is complete bullshit by 6000 years ago modern humans had populated almost the entire globe (save for a few remote islands), and agriculture and civilization had already started throughout much of the world. Try 160,000 years ago, and you'll be much closer.
      --
      Jack Valenti and Orrin Hatch will be first up against the wall when the revolution comes.
    67. Re: Call the editor! by Black+Parrot · · Score: 1


      > The point is that the saints I mentioned were among the rulers of the time, and so if Christianity, as was suggested in one of the parent posts, were being used by the aristocracy merely as a means of control of the rest of the population, then these saints would have known about it. Clearly that isn't the case.

      As best I can tell we've got two parties talking past each other in the thread. One party is saying (ISTM) "Christianity has been exploited for political ends", but the other party is hearing (ISTM) "all Christian leaders were con men", and responding to that.

      I think the first statement is true and the second is false. What do you think?

      --
      Sheesh, evil *and* a jerk. -- Jade
    68. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Ann Gibbons, âoeCalibrating the Mitochondrial Clock,â Science, Vol. 279, 2 January 1998, p. 29.

      Read it and perhaps you'll reconsider your prejudices.

    69. Re: Call the editor! by Black+Parrot · · Score: 1


      > Mr. Parrot, since you grew up in a Baptist home you should understand that Jonestown and Heavens' gate cultists had distorted and perverted the bible. Why are you engaging in trolling by claiming that they were Christian when you know better?

      Who's claiming that they were Christian? I'm just pointing out that a willingness to make sacrifices for a belief has no bearing on whether or not that belief is actually true.

      Heck, I didn't even know that the Heaven's Gate cult was Bible-based.

      > And why are you letting stand claims that medieval Roman Catholicism had anything (other than using some of the same terminology) to do with true biblical Christianity?

      For that matter, I don't think any Christian sect in existence today has much to do with "true biblical Christianity". For that matter, it could hardly be more plain from reading the New Testament that the "true biblical Christianity" of Paul didn't have anything to do with the "true biblical Christianity" of James, other than a few shared names and memes.

      > Again, from your Baptist upbringing, you were made aware of the facts in your youth.

      I'm pretty sure I didn't obtain any "facts" from the Baptists or any other fundamentalist sect.

      --
      Sheesh, evil *and* a jerk. -- Jade
    70. Re: Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      Everyone who reads the Bible distorts and perverts it. This is why different sects and denominations exist. The Bible lends itself to multiple interpretations.

      If these cults cannot be called Christian, then no denomination of Christianity can be called Christian -- or at best, only one.

    71. Re:Call the editor! by junkgrep · · Score: 1

      This is just silly. Yes, we use the expression today, but it came from that period BECAUSE that's what people thought back then. There is no reason at all to think that the Biblical writers did not think just like everyone else did, before and after their time, about the shape of the earth, and used the words to describe that misconception. If they "knew" that the world was spherical, this would have been an astounding insight: yet we see nothing of it: instead the common descriptions based on the idea that the Earth was flat.

    72. Re: Call the editor! by junkgrep · · Score: 1

      The great thing about the liberal scientific method is that it doesn't require individual people to be free of dogma or sutborness. All it requires is that there be a system of open criticism based on evidence that a diverse range of people participate in. Along with capitalism (decentralized system for allocating economic activity) and democracy (decentralized system for allocating political authority), science is one of three pillars of astounding human progress.

    73. Re:Call the editor! by junkgrep · · Score: 1

      Mitochondrial Eve has been shown in secular literature (ever heard of the magazine "Science") to have lived ~6000 years ago. Evidence of the [creationscience.com] flood [trueorigin.org] here [answersingenesis.org].

      Sigh. mEve also lived thousands of years different from yAdam. How does that fit into this neat little flood picture? The fact is, no competant geologist believes that there was a universal flood a couple thousands of years ago. A cite to a bunch of crackpots who cobble together misunderstood facts, ignoring all the oher evidence when necessary, is hardly a compelling argument.

    74. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The difference is that when Science learns that it's wrong, it admits it and moves on to try to learn more about the universe.

      Which is why it took over fifty years to recognize Piltdown was a fraud?


      Because it took a while to realize it. What's your point?

      The point you should have taken away is that science is a self-correcting process. In religion, there is no method for testing for and reliably culling flawed explanations. Fundamentalists don't even accept the possibility of flawed explanations, no matter what the evidence is.


      There are many respected scientists in the mainstream who are fundamentalists. Many have to hide that however due to persecution and other attitudes of closed-minded individuals.


      Hardly. What some of them have to "hide" is their flawed scientific ideas. (Also note that not all fundamentalists are young-earth creationists.)


      Rabbits do chew their cud, in that they eat again what has passed through their system, by practicing refection.


      Which is a process entirely different from chewing cud.

      Note the Bible didn't say "eating again what has passed through their system".


      Who said it was flat with four corners? That's your misinterpretation, ignoring literary constructions. The phrase "to the corners of the earth" is still in use today as an expression.


      Heh. Funny how you're willing to accept some parts of the Bible as "literary constructions", and others as literal statements of fact.


      Mitochondrial Eve has been shown in secular literature (ever heard of the magazine "Science") to have lived ~6000 years ago.


      This is incorrect, by an order of magnitude.

    75. Re:Call the editor! by cens0r · · Score: 1

      I'd have to say they were wrong, or that mitochondrial DNA can't be used. try these links: here
      and here
      and here
      So you see, I have just as much evidence you have to refute me. Plus the archaelogical record backs me up.

      --
      Jack Valenti and Orrin Hatch will be first up against the wall when the revolution comes.
    76. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Heh. The idea of humans originating ~6,000 years ago contradicts many other independent lines of scientific evidence. In fact, Gibbons does not believe that the genetic evidence indicates that humans originated 6,000 years ago, even in light of her mtDNA calibration paper -- as would be apparent if you read her other papers. Read them and perhaps you'll reconsider your prejudices.

    77. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You mean the Catholic Church? I find it a little sad that so many people are quick to site the fact that many sects have âoebroken offâ (Mormons, Protestants, Baptists ectâ¦) as part of supposed proofs that the Bible has errors or has had changes made. Yet you are quite happy to lump them all together merely because they have a similar form of community, and say that âoethe churchâ says this or that. Also I must point out that all of those âoesectsâ either are in direct contradiction to the book they claim to base everything on (i.e. Mormons, Latter Day Saints, Catholics) and thusly have made changes or ignore those parts that contradict what they want to do. Like the part that says all men are imperfect (*cough*pope*cough*). Or they are merely a group of people that place extra importance on ONE part of the Bible; Baptists being a prime example of this.

    78. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      "The Bible is considered sacred, so people would not manipulate it..." are you just trolling or do you really believe this???

      I really believe this.

      Popes involved in love triangles with their son and daughter, Orgies that would make Romans blush, Parties costing 100,000s of ducats

      No one denies that human beings are sinful. However, this doesn't take away from the fact that the Bible was considered an inspired text.

      the selling of forgiviness for sins that people will commit in the future

      This is not true.

      There was absolutelty NOTHING sacred in the church for the entire span of 300+ years.

      There was much that was sacred. You're merely showing your anti-Catholic bias here.

      And your ignorant suggestion that "the rulers wanted to "keep the people dumb" is just propaganda" is an even dumber statement. You could have atleast provided a source for such a foolish proclomation.

      I thought it was those who make accusations who have to provide evidence.

      The Church forbade ANYTHING to be written in the venacular. Why? Because only priests were allowed to learn to read and write Latin. The church did not even want people to be able to read the Bible. In fact, it was highly discouraged. Reading the Bible was only for those of the cloth, the common man was too "dumb" to be given such a privledge.

      Really? What about Dante's "Divine Comedy"? What about the various vernacular editions of the Bible made before the Reformation?

      Nor is it at all true that the Catholic Church was opposed to the printing and distribution of Bible translations in vernacular languages (it did oppose some Protestant translations which it felt were inaccurate). For instance, between 1466 and the onset of the Protestant Reformation in 1517 at least fourteen editions appeared in High German, and five in Low German: Strasburg: 1466, 1470, 1485; Basel, Switzerland: 1474; Augsburg: 1473 (2),1477 (2), 1480, 1487, 1490, 1507, 1518; Nuremburg: 1483. Bible Translations in Low German include: Cologne: 1480 (2); Lubeck: 1494; Halberstadt: 1522; Delf: before 1522 (2)

      The situation was no different in other European countries. From 1450 to 1550, for example, there appeared (with express permission from Rome) more than forty Italian editions or translations of the Bible and eighteen French editions, as well as others in Bohemian, Belgian, Russian, Danish, Norwegian, Polish, and Hungarian. Spain published editions starting in 1478 with the full approval of the Spanish Inquisition. A total of 626 editions appeared, of which 198 were in the vernacular languages, with the sanction of the Catholic Church, before any Protestant version saw the light of day.


      Concerning Dante's use of the vernacular in the "Divine Comedy":

      The use of the local (Tuscan) dialect of Italian rather than Latin was a daring gamble at the time; most serious writing was done in Latin because the vernacular languages kept changing and people were afraid that no one would be able to read them in a few years. Some dialects lasted better than others and luckily, Tuscan did pretty well that way.


      When Erasmus wrote criticisms of the Church in Latin, the Pope read them, laughed and enjoyed them as good entertainment.

      Really? Where's your evidence for this?
    79. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Of course she didn't believe it, she has tried various ways to fudge the data and rationalize away the facts. She tried (and others also) to say that multiple changes had happened at one site, causing the method to be suspect. Nice try, but the facts are the facts. Reinterpreting them once the results are in is fudging (there are less charitable names for it as well). Regardless, 6000 is not 600,000 no matter how you fudge the data.

    80. Re: Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I would like to know how you're basing the following: Meanwhile, if you try to evaluate the Bible objectively by comparing it to what we know from history, archaeology, geology, etc.,

      I'm curious because it is my understanding that archaeology has backed up alot of the Bible, in terms of location of certain places and certain events. My point is if the majority of the Bible, or any other historical text for that matter be it religious or otherwise, is documented to be accurate; is it safe to make the assumption that most/all of it is accurate? I would say yes.

      But this is just my opinion so take it for what it's worth.

    81. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      eh. Funny how you're willing to accept some parts of the Bible as "literary constructions", and others as literal statements of fact.
      This is called using a brain. When the bible says Jesus said "I am the door" we don't think He has hinges. You are attempting to parse way out of context and then draw arbitrary rules. Just read the bible using your own brain, and you'll see what it really means.

      Follow the good advice of Greg Koukl: never read a bible verse. Read the verse in context; single verses are too easy to misinterpret.
    82. Re: Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Use your own brain and read the bible, follow it, and you're closer to Christianity than any organized denominational religion. Way closer than Mormons or Catholics.

    83. Re:Call the editor! by pierreg0 · · Score: 1

      I'm not sure that the Bible's teachings and evolution are mutually exclusive. The Bible says that God created the heavens, the earth, the water, night and day, all plants and animals on the earth, and humans. It also says that God created man in his image, created Eve from Adam's rib, and told all living things to "Be fruitful and increase in number..." From this, we can only assume that in the beginning men had ribs. I don't believe that the Bible ever claims that man never changed.

    84. Re: Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Heaven's gate cult was not bible-based, that is the entire point. And you're right that sects have little to do with biblical Christianity; only unaffiliated local churchs have a chance. Getting into a denomination gets into the nicolaitans, which our Lord Jesus Christ clearly stated He hates. Yow - strong words, be careful!

      You claim that Paul's church model differs from James' model. Please expound that concept, why do you hold to that?

    85. Re: Call the editor! by insanecarbonbasedlif · · Score: 1
      For example, the New Testament variously reports that Judas hanged himself or that he threw himself down a stairway and burst open. In Sunday School I was taught that he hung himself at the top of a stairway, the rope broken, and he tumbled down the stairway.

      Hmmm. Stairway, huh? Ya know, I looked, and looked, and I found no mention of a stairway anywhere... We've got
      So Judas threw the money into the temple and left. Then he went away and hanged himself. The chief priests picked up the coins and said, "It is against the law to put this into the treasury, since it is blood money." So they decided to use the money to buy the potter's field as a burial place for foreigners. That is why it has been called the Field of Blood to this day. Matthew 27:5-8
      and
      With the reward he got for his wickedness, Judas bought a field; there he fell headlong, his body burst open and all his intestines spilled out. Everyone in Jerusalem heard about this, so they called that field in their language Akeldama, that is, Field of Blood. Acts 1:18-19
      So, obvious contradiction, huh? Well, maybe, maybe not. What I think actually happened, and what the people I've talked to believe, is that (Obviously Judas didn't buy the field) the chief priests bought the field with Judas' money, and Judas hung himself somewhere else. When the people found his body, they threw it in the field that was bought with his money, and because his body was a few days old, it split open...

      Now, you can believe what you will, but the world is not so "cut and dried" as you try to make it look, Mr. Parrot.
      --
      Just because I doubt myself does not mean I find your position compelling.
    86. Re: Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1

      There's a difference between, on the one hand, certain cases of exploiting religion for political ends (and anything can be exploited in such a way), and the idea that there was a widespread conspiracy to exploit religion in such a way, to such an extent that the Sacred Scriptures would be tampered with to that end. Clearly the latter did not happen, nor is there any evidence that this happened.

    87. Re: Call the editor! by bigmattana · · Score: 1

      I don't know what Bible you are reading, but mine says nothing about any staircase or rope breaking.
      You can always go back to the original copies of the text if you think your copy has gotten skewed. There is bound to be some slight discrepancies, but by an large the four accounts of the time of Jesus are incredibly accurate when you consider they were written by four different people who were not always in the same place at the same time.

      Also, you say that the interpretation is underconstrained, but most Christians believe that the majority of the Bible is fairly literal, while it is the atheists and agnostics in general who would like people to have a looser interpretation because they think this "only way" stuff is dangerous. However, there is bound to be some figurative writing in the Bible because part if it is written in poem, and if you remember how Jesus spoke, it wasn't exacly literal. In fact he had to translate everything because people didn't want to make any attempt to figure out what he was talking about.

      As for the Bible contradicting archeology, this is simply not true. For example, just recently, the a city was unearthed that fits perfectly with the Bible's description of Jericho, and even the walls were still intact, with one section of them broken down. What they found in the structures fit with the Jews taking over the city.

      The only part where any real contradictions exist is in the creation account. Yes, this does depend on how you interpret it, but the contradiction can also depend on how you interpret scientific findings. The scientific community is just as guilty of trying to disprove the Bible as the so-called "Christian scientists" (no not the denomination) are of trying to search for evidence to prove the Bible.

      There will always be people who believe in God because when you see REAL miracles in response to prayer, speculation over a skull in Africa seems irrelevant.

    88. Re: Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1

      The various sects can be called Christian in the sense that they believe in the basics of Christianity, such as those expressed in the Nicene Creed, and have a valid baptism (through which we enter the Church).

      But you're right, there's only one true Christian Church. Christ only had one flock, and only founded one Church, the Catholic Church:

      Matthew 16:18-19
      "And I say also unto thee, That thou art Peter, and upon this rock I will build my church; and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it. And I will give unto thee the keys of the kingdom of heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt bind on earth shall be bound in heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven."

    89. Re: Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1

      Roman Catholicism is biblical Christianity. We have the Pope, bishops and priests, the Eucharist (the Body and Blood of Christ), the forgiveness of sins by clergy, etc.

    90. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Christianity is the most prevalent, and thus we rag on it the most.

    91. Re:Call the editor! by Walt+Dismal · · Score: 1

      Age of the skulls was confirmed when a punchcard deck with a COBOL program was found nearby.

    92. Re: Call the editor! by deadhammer · · Score: 1

      Don't you see that you're doing exactly what he's claiming? You found two apparent contradictory stories and you're bending over backwards trying to reconcile them. You're adding new stuff to explain things just so the Bible is still perfect. It'd be the same thing if a fairy came by Judas' hanging body, waved her magic wand, and turned him into a field.

      --
      I'll be honest, we're throwing science against the wall to see what sticks. -Cave Johnson
    93. Re: Call the editor! by Tony-A · · Score: 1

      Both accounts write Judas out of the script with a very few lines.
      Both accounts make a point that the Chief Priests reapropriate the money but have sufficient integrity to use it to buy a burial field for Judas.
      Irrelevant details are required to tell the story, and can be expected to differ among different story tellers.

    94. Re:Call the editor! by jjhlk · · Score: 1

      The bible implies several times that the earth is flat. It's stuff like this that shows the bible as being old mythology - explaining the world with stories. And it certainly detracts from anything else you might get from the bible.

      Do you have any evidence that the eqyptions wouldn't record something that makes them look bad? You'd have to look at the sorts of things they did record to tell if they would or not. What your argument is is only a guess.

      Not only does Jesus lie, he's quite rude to his parents ;)

      No, somebody cannot be born to a virgin, you can't heal the blind with happy thoughts, and of course you can't survive in a whale. Do you believe in the Greek mythological stories too? Probably not.

      Empirical evidence has shown again and again that there are no valid claims that people can do these miraculous things. EG. the stigmatism that some people had, well they pricked themselves sneakily; and levitating east indians, they were magicians (good as misdirecting attention and tricking ppl).

      I take comfort in the fact that cultural evolution will weed you out.

    95. Re: Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      If you're going to base the RCC upon Matthew 16:18-19, there is one key thing you need to understand. The greek word (Petros, a small movable stone) translated as Peter is masculine, as you would expect referring to Peter. However the word used (Petra, a boulder, massive foundation stone) for the rock upon which the church is to be based is a feminine gender noun in the greek. Though the words obviously have a common root, any good greek source from the first century will tell you those words are quite differently used, both in sacred and secular writings of the time.

      So no, the RCC claims that they derive legitimacy from that passage are as bogus as their reworking the ten commandments to leave off Exodus 20:4-6
      Thou shalt not make unto thee any graven image, or any likeness of any thing that is in heaven above, or that is in the earth beneath, or that is in the water under the earth. Thou shalt not bow down thyself to them, nor serve them: for I the LORD thy God am a jealous God, visiting the iniquity of the fathers upon the children unto the third and fourth generation of them that hate me; And shewing mercy unto thousands of them that love me, and keep my commandments.
      Or their allegorizing Revelation, or inventing purgatory, or praying to saints, or praying to Mary, or asserting Mary was a perpetual, sinless virgin. All of those positions are non-biblical. The RCC (and others) also ignore Acts 8:37 which shows that baptism is only done to those who believe, pedobaptism is again non-biblical.
    96. Re:Call the editor! by ragnar · · Score: 1

      For what it is worth, I did a cursory walk through the site and used their search tool to find information on the dead sea scrolls, but must have missed it. I'll keep looking, but before I go down a rabbit hole, are you by chance making some sort of statement to the effect that I'm intolerant because the "insightful" parent to my post contradicted everything I've heard before?

      --
      -- Solaris Central - http://w
    97. Re:Call the editor! by jjhlk · · Score: 1

      Just something to counteract your propaganda, for any impressionable people reading slashdot...
      http://www.talkorgins.org

      The best I could agree to is a flood in Sumeria, but there certainly wasn't a global flood. Don't be retarded.

    98. Re:Call the editor! by jamesmrankinjr · · Score: 1

      Do you have any evidence that the eqyptions wouldn't record something that makes them look bad?

      The fact they were human makes it quite likely. Interestingly, the Jews DID record lots of things in the Bible that make them look bad. This is quite rare in historical accounts.

      I take comfort in the fact that cultural evolution will weed you out.

      My my. Aren't we feeling insecure. Lots of people have tried to "weed out" Christians, from the Romans to modern day Communists and Muslims. Most of the time, they only succeed in making more of them.

      Peace be with you,
      -jimbo

    99. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Ahem. Many people "using a brain" arrive at vastly different interpretations of the same text. That was my point: there is no such thing as "the" literal interpretation of the Bible. Everyone chooses which parts they think are literal, and which aren't, and someone who claims that they are following "the strictly literal interpretation" is a hypocrite.

    100. Re: Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      Amazing... you said
      Roman Catholicism is biblical Christianity. We have the Pope, bishops and priests, the Eucharist (the Body and Blood of Christ), the forgiveness of sins by clergy, etc.
      Yes the RCC has every one of those. Most unfortunately many don't have the Lord Jesus Christ as their saviour, as they are not generally following John 3:5.

      Every one of the items you listed is non-biblical:

      The pope claims to be the "vicar of Christ", saying that he is "in the place of Christ" (look up vicar and see what it means). In Matthew 24:23-24 you can see what that equates to:

      Then if any man shall say unto you, Lo, here is Christ, or there; believe it not. For there shall arise false Christs, and false prophets, and shall shew great signs and wonders; insomuch that, if it were possible, they shall deceive the very elect.

      Celibate bishops and priests: You claim Peter as the first pope, he was married, you have a problem there. In 1 Tim 3:2-5 you can see why a celibate clergy is dead wrong

      A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach; Not given to wine, no striker, not greedy of filthy lucre; but patient, not a brawler, not covetous; One that ruleth well his own house, having his children in subjection with all gravity; (For if a man know not how to rule his own house, how shall he take care of the church of God?)

      The eucharist. The blasphemous claim here is that the Lord Jesus Christ dies again each time in the eucharist. Compare this with John 19:30 where, as He died, He said "it is finished". Not "well, that's one, only 500 billion more to go". And compare Hebrews 7:26-7

      For such an high priest became us, who is holy, harmless, undefiled, separate from sinners, and made higher than the heavens; Who needeth not daily, as those high priests, to offer up sacrifice, first for his own sins, and then for the people's: for this he did once, when he offered up himself.

      Forgiveness of sins by the clergy. Wow, I can't believe you cite auricular confession as biblical. Check out 1st John 1:9

      If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.
      Where the subject of the sentence is our Lord Jesus Christ; a priest is not mentioned there at all. In fact a confessional is not mentioned anywhere in either the OT or NT.

      I realize that based on the Council of Trent
      "Whoever shall say that the mode of secretly confessing to a priest alone, which the Catholic Church has always observed and still observes, is foreign to the institution and command of Christ and is a human invention, let him be accursed."
      that you have to consider me accursed, but I am far more interested in what God thinks of me than what you or other Catholics are told to think of me.

      If you are willing to see the actual roots of Catholicism, please read Hislop's "The Tow Babylons". It is available online if you don't want to buy a copy.
    101. Re: Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      My point is if the majority of the Bible, or any other historical text for that matter be it religious or otherwise, is documented to be accurate; is it safe to make the assumption that most/all of it is accurate? I would say yes.


      Are you kidding?? There is a huge gap in plausibility between accurately recording historical events, and providing evidence of supernatural events.

      Go read the Illiad. I'm sure a lot of it documents the history of the Trojan wars; I'm also sure that a lot of it is fabricated (especially given the pechant for tailoring the story to different audiences), particularly all the bits with the Greek gods in it.
    102. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      And when you get tired of reading the propaganda on talkorigins (which has some amazingly sloppy writing passed off as scientific), you can also try here instead.

    103. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Of course she didn't believe it, she has tried various ways to fudge the data and rationalize away the facts.


      Bullshit. All it tells us is that we don't understand the calibration as well as we thought we did.

      Funny how you're willing to buy the validity of one of her publications, but not all of the others. Now who's prejudiced?


      She tried (and others also) to say that multiple changes had happened at one site, causing the method to be suspect.


      In fact, multiple changes do happen at one site.


      Nice try, but the facts are the facts.


      Data is data, but we are talking about inferences here, not "facts".


      Reinterpreting them once the results are in is fudging (there are less charitable names for it as well).


      What nonsense. Data are reinterpreted all the time in light of new data and hypotheses. In fact, that's how essentially all new theories arise: the data were once thought to be evidence of one theory, but in a new light and combined with other data, are later understood to be actually evidence for another theory. A priori assumptions are not and should not be fixed in science; if they were, then science could never progress.

      What coloring book did you get your science education out of?


      Regardless, 6000 is not 600,000 no matter how you fudge the data.


      Nobody thinks that 600,000 is a plausible figure for mitochondrial Eve, either. 200,000 is the max, and is more likely to be several times smaller than that.

      Incidentally, even if 6,000 years were right for mitochondrial Eve, that would not imply that the human race originated 6,000 years ago. Not only are your prejudices wrong, they're stupid.
    104. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      So we should instead consult a completely unscientific, uniformly sloppy site?

    105. Re:Call the editor! by jjhlk · · Score: 1

      I meant that I hope the evolution of our society will weed out silly ideas like God. I needed to make up a term for a concept that I didn't know of a term for already. (cultural evolution) Whereas evolution isn't active, it's passive.

    106. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Read about "memes".

    107. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You know, I saw Jesus on the subway today and I said, "hey man how's it going?" The Christ himself couldn't seem to say anything in return...not a blessing for me or anything. He just stood there supporting himself from an overhead handle, slung like a wet-shirt over the railing at a public pool. You know, and the funny thing was that he had chocolate all over his face. I'm dead serious! Chocolate all over his face! Isn't that wierd? -Bobo.

    108. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0


      (you wrote) "And you think the Eqyptian historians would record such an utterly humiliating defeat?"

      Great point. Now a question for you:

      The Jews overthrow their oppressors with the help of God, God sends down 10 plagues, etc. etc.

      Pretty big deal. What's the Pharoah's name? Please show, using scriptural sources only (don't forget to cite which translation!), the name of the Pharoah in Exodus.

      You would think that SOMEONE would have written it down, right? Is there any reason whatsoever why they would not have mentioned this in their very compelling story of their triumph?

    109. Re: Call the editor! by pod · · Score: 1

      I don't think how a key character died is an irrelavant detail. The devil IS in the details (pardon the unintended pun). A work rests on the details. The details give it authenticity. If you just make up the details or skim over them, then the rest relies and builds on bullshit.

      The way to credibly discredit something is to attack its foundations. If you can prove the foundations false, that which builds on it cannot be trusted.

      --
      "Hot lesbian witches! It's fucking genius!"
    110. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You are very good to make stupid stuff sound intersting, anyway, i dont care what you think, i wont stone my children as the Bible says i should if they dont respect old people.

    111. Re:Call the editor! by Bobspamming · · Score: 1

      "A rich set hominid finds have given us a more and more complete view of human evolution. Finding one more skull makes the picture more complete, but it is not like all previous finds are made useless. Rather, some of the hypotheses formed with the old fact base have to be updated."

      What? To date there has not been even one find of a skull that shows the evolution on man. And as for "it is not like all previous finds are made useless", the only thing those "finds" where ever good for was evolutionist propaganda, and have all been shown to be frauds 50 years ago. The best I have ever gotten out of anyone is that someone somewhere said they found the missing link and saw a really convincing picture and thatâ(TM)s good enough for them. Most scientists KNOW that they have come up dry so far, but they have faith that they will find something soon.

      I truly challenge you to show me this âoerich set of hominid finds.â

      If scientists are really so open to adjusting their theories, then what about all of the discoveries the Smithsonian has covered up and suppressed because they don't agree with evolution?

      Evolution isnâ(TM)t even a scientific theory.

      sciâence
      n.

      (1)
      a. The observation, identification, description, experimental investigation, and theoretical explanation of phenomena.
      b. Such activities restricted to a class of natural phenomena.
      c. Such activities applied to an object of inquiry or study.
      (2)Methodological activity, discipline, or study: I've got packing a suitcase down to a science.
      (3) An activity that appears to require study and method: the science of purchasing.
      (4) Knowledge, especially that gained through experience.
      (5) Science Christian Science.

      It's true that science is a progressive gaining of knowledge. But most scientists believe in evolution and it ticks them off that the more they learn the less they have to support their theory (the only major theory accepted that doesnâ(TM)t require God for us to exist).

      Theories are needed before sufficient facts are available. Evolution has only been kept alive by the dogmatic faith that so many âoescientistsâ have in it. Am I the only one thatâ(TM)s noticed that there hasnâ(TM)t been another missing link âoediscoveryâ ever since DNA work has been firmly established? It makes it a lot harder to file a jaw bone to make it rest higher in the scull for that just out of the cave look when we can run some tests and see that itâ(TM)s just a normal human skull. Or even find a single tooth and make up a whole skeleton from it, when we can just look and see âoeoh, itâ(TM)s a pigs tooth.â

      Do I really need to point out that nothing in the Bible has EVER been disproven and that over time science has been slowly coming more and more in line with what the Bible says? And yet there are those like the âoeCosmic ancestryâ people who fully admit that life couldnâ(TM)t possibly have evolved on earth so they claim we devolved from more complex beings from another part of the universe. Although they also fully admit that life couldnâ(TM)t have evolved there either.

      For years people claimed that all âoetrueâ scientists KNEW that evolution is a fact. Yet they never really agreed on exactly HOW we evolved. Now there are tons of scientists that fully recognize that evolution couldnâ(TM)t have happened so they say they just donâ(TM)t know.

      I also find it sad that so many people who claim to believe only in logic donâ(TM)t see the paradox of that statement. Just the fact that we are here is illogical unless there is a God that exists outside of the confines of logic. Logic is based on the law of causality. Therefore in order for anything to exist there must be a cause. And in order for God to exist He would have to come from outside the confines of causality. This really isnâ(TM)t as absurd a statement as some people try and make it ou

    112. Re: Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Also, nuns, monks, popes, celibacy, indeed, all of Vatican and the structure of modern church, are completely non-biblical in origin. I guess there was just no money in everyone following their own unorganized religious beliefs.

    113. Re: Call the editor! by Black+Parrot · · Score: 3, Insightful


      > I don't know what Bible you are reading, but mine says nothing about any staircase or rope breaking.

      Whoops - spank me for the staircase; that's what I get for relying on memory rather than looking it up. But if you delete the staircase and procede from there, my post should still make sense.

      And yes, the broken rope is an extra-biblical fiction. That was part of my point. (I suspect the staircase was also an extra-biblical fiction that I was taught as a child, with some Sunday School teacher thinking he needed somewhere to "fall headlong".)

      > As for the Bible contradicting archeology, this is simply not true. For example, just recently, the a city was unearthed that fits perfectly with the Bible's description of Jericho, and even the walls were still intact, with one section of them broken down. What they found in the structures fit with the Jews taking over the city.

      Ah, Jericho has long been excavated; even as a child I was fed nonsense about the archaeologists finding that "the walls had fallen outward, rather than inward as would have happened in an ordinary seige".

      And BTW, the oldest walls a Jericho are older than the universe, at least according to the dates derived from the Bible.

      But more to the point, finding archaeological sites that correspond to Bible stories does nothing to validate the bigger claims of the Bible. I mentioned elsewhere in this thread earlier that The Illiad guided an archaeologist to historical Troy, but no one concludes from that fact that The Illiad is a true story.

      > The scientific community is just as guilty of trying to disprove the Bible as the so-called "Christian scientists"

      There may be some scientists pursuing such a grudge, but by and large that's not what's going on at all. Scientists (by and large) are just trying to find out about the universe. That endeavor fell afoul of the Bible over two centuries ago, even though the scientists of the day were (by and large) religious men.

      The Bible no longer falls within the goals of science in general, although recent political pushes to have it substituted for a real science curriculum are causing more and more scientists to speak out on that topic.

      "Christian scientists", OTOH, correctly understand that over the last couple of centuries the facts have refuted their religious beliefs over and over again, so they busy themselves with discrediting mainstream science, or at least forcing open a small gap that they can hide their God in, because they perceive that their religion would be falsified otherwise. (Notice that most Christians outside Fundamentalist sects simply take the findings of science in stride. It's only those who take biblical literalism as an article of faith who have problems with science.)

      > There will always be people who believe in God because when you see REAL miracles in response to prayer, speculation over a skull in Africa seems irrelevant.

      "REAL miricales in response to prayer" suffer the same problem that unconstrained biblical interpretations do. People pray for rain and they get it, so they credit God with it; other people pray for rain and don't, and they conclude that God is trying to teach them patience. I.e., people think they get "REAL miricales in response to prayer" whether anything actually happens or not. Substitute peace, health, etc. for rain, and the same observation still holds.

      --
      Sheesh, evil *and* a jerk. -- Jade
    114. Re: Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      There were no popes in the Bible. Priests weren't celibate, and didn't forgive anyone's sins. There was no mass. All these things are completely non-biblical in origin.

    115. Re: Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      'think', 'mostly', 'probably', 'likely'.... and many more... such convinient wiggle words. When you have a figure of authority saying something, it doesn't matter how many disclaimers and qualifiers he places before and after. If someone 'important' claims something and 'backs it up' with Biblical passages, 'true' believers' will take everything at face value. This is the whole point. Consciously or not, intentionally or not, the Bible and organized religion have long been used to control and direct the masses.

    116. Re:Call the editor! by Omestes · · Score: 1

      Actually some of them were doctrinal "truth" before Christ, when sects of judeaism were evolving to a more "cristian" feel, meaning more polarized, more emphasis on evil, more apocolyptic. But when the bible was officially coalated by the early church, much of it was removed because of the "gnositic" content. When Paul ruined Christianity buy making it non-Jewish and for the masses he removed all of the semi-popular dualist tendencies (badly, its still in the Bible if you look closely). Early Christianity was very close to its Zoroastrian roots, with Flesh being evil (read material world), and spirit being good. Satan created THIS universe/world, we must escape this world to Gods realm, the realm of pure spirit, do this by eschewing pleasures of the flesh, and baseness. Basically it is like all of the later heresies (Albegensian, Mani... blah).

      The Apocrypha WERE in the bible, the informal bible of the time, before it was standarized. The bible now is a living political construct, if one wants to be close to the "spirit" of xtianity one must go buy sources of the times closer to Jesus than we have now, meaning the Dead Sea Scroll, and the biblical Apocrypha.

      Also the Dead Sea Scrolls has text reported to have actually came from Jesus himself, and not some biased-after-the-fact quotes like the current Bible. Might as well get it from the mans mouth, and not what early church fathers wanted you to hear.

      --
      A patriot must always be ready to defend his country against his government. -edward abbey
    117. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      jimbo speaking that christian mumbo jumbo... arguing about religion. another pointless preacher trapped in the illusion of endlessness... like so many others dancing fire and wind. therefore un relinquished. maybe one day a hydrogen bomb will take you all away. at least i can hope to see it.

    118. Re:Call the editor! by Omestes · · Score: 1

      Nobody really beleived that the earth was flat.

      --
      A patriot must always be ready to defend his country against his government. -edward abbey
    119. Re:Call the editor! by Omestes · · Score: 1

      Rabbits DO chew cud, read Watership Down, or the book tha Mr. Adams based it on, The Secret Life of Rabbits.

      Evidence DOES exist for such a flood, I saw it on Discovery, must be true. And also that biblical myth was taking from Gilgamesh, so this flood was EARLIER than some silly biblical scholar says, and it happened when the ocean invaded the dead sea, there is archiological evidence of this.

      There are other ways to say that the nile turned to blood, such as plumes of reg algae, which happens frequently in the Red Sea. Perhaps such a thing happened in the Nile, or perhaps someplace upstream there was a flood, pouring red mud/clay into it. Don't take things so literal, people haven't always been as damn literal as us, they had imagination, and the lack of scientific method.

      Have you ever heard of metaphore or alogory? Yes? Well perchance couldn't "explain away" most of your problems?

      Even today we use the term "the corners of the earth" in common speach. Does that mean we mean it is a literal truism? Nope, metaphore.

      --
      A patriot must always be ready to defend his country against his government. -edward abbey
    120. Re: Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1

      The pope claims to be the "vicar of Christ", saying that he is "in the place of Christ" (look up vicar and see what it means).

      Jesus himself made Peter His vicar. Just before He ascended into heaven, Jesus, the Good Shepherd, told Peter, "Feed my sheep." (John 21:17) He would no longer be on earth as the visible head of the Church, so He made Peter the visible head.

      Jesus also made others His vicars (on a smaller scale) earlier on, and said to them, "He that heareth you heareth me; and he that despiseth you despiseth me; and he that despiseth me despiseth him that sent me." (Luke 10:16)

      Paul said he acted in Christ's place: "Now then we are ambassadors for Christ, as though God did beseech you by us: we pray you in Christ's stead, be ye reconciled to God." (2 Corinthians 5:20)

      You claim Peter as the first pope, he was married, you have a problem there.

      There's no problem with this, lots of Catholic priests (especially in the Eastern rites) are married.

      In 1 Tim 3:2-5 you can see why a celibate clergy is dead wrong... A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife

      What he's saying here is the husband of at most one wife (that is, not divorced and remarried, since that would make him a bigamist). You quote Paul here; have a look at the following passage, in which he says that it is better to remain celibate in order to devote oneself to God:

      He that is unmarried careth for the things that belong to the Lord, how he may please the Lord: But he that is married careth for the things that are of the world, how he may please his wife. (1 Corinthians 7:32-33)

      The eucharist. The blasphemous claim here is that the Lord Jesus Christ dies again each time in the eucharist.

      Not at all. The Eucharist, which makes the bread and wine become the Body and Blood of Christ, as He Himself said, does not sacrifice Christ over and over again. The sacrifice of the Mass is the one sacrifice of Christ, which is made present to us.

      Forgiveness of sins by the clergy.

      "And when he had said this, he breathed on them, and saith unto them, 'Receive ye the Holy Ghost: Whose soever sins ye remit, they are remitted unto them; and whose soever sins ye retain, they are retained.'" (John 20:22-23)

      Obviously, if they are to forgive sins, they must know what those sins are. Thus, they have to hear those sins confessed. And so we see who we are to confess to in the following:

      "If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness." (1 John 1:9)

    121. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You're not under OT law, Jesus freed us from that. If you're going to quote or allegorize out of context, you should really take the time to understand the topic first.

    122. Re:Call the editor! by f97tosc · · Score: 1

      I truly challenge you to show me this âoerich set of hominid finds.â

      Well, if you would read mainstream scientific journals you would know that every few years they dig up something new interesting that looks brainier than a modern monkey but less so than modern man. And of course, the vast majority of these are not frauds. This last find is one example, australipathecus (spelling?) is another. If you by "show evolution of man" demand water-tight proof for a particular evolutionary path, then you are right; the finds do not do this. But put together with modern cladistic techniques they form a more and more complete view of likely evolutionary paths and relationships between the finds. For more modern finds you can also use DNA, for example Neanderthal DNA was recently used to rule out the possibility of extensive cross-breeding with modern humans.

      For years people claimed that all âoetrueâ scientists KNEW that evolution is a fact. Yet they never really agreed on exactly HOW we evolved

      This is certainly true but I don't really see the contradiction. Scientists agree on some basic evolutionary principles, perhaps the relative age of various finds, but not on some particulars like the relationships between different incomplete finds. Similar behaviours are true for all scientific fields; scientists agree that T-Rex ate meat but disagree over exactly how (some say it was a vulture, others a predator).

      Evolution has only been kept alive by the dogmatic faith that so many âoescientistsâ have in it

      When you throw out evolution, do you do so in general or just for your own species? Because evolution of for example bacteria and viruses can and has been observed directly in a lab - you don't need dogmatic faith to believe in something that is happening in front of your eyes! If you change the sugar mix for some bacteria you can observe how they after every replication become (on average) better and better adapted to methabolize the new type of food (and less so to the old type no longer provided).

      Logic is based on the law of causality. Therefore in order for anything to exist there must be a cause. And in order for God to exist He would have to come from outside the confines of causality.

      Well, we both agree that everything cannot be caused by something else; that leaves no room for a first thing. However, you draw the conclusion that this first thing, which is not caused by something else, is an intelligent all-powerful being with a particular interest in what humans do on Sunday mornings and to whom they have sex. In my mind the first thing that is not caused by something else may as well be a collection of particles in a dense space.

      Best, Tor

    123. Re: Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1

      If you're going to base the RCC upon Matthew 16:18-19, there is one key thing you need to understand. The greek word (Petros, a small movable stone) translated as Peter is masculine, as you would expect referring to Peter. However the word used (Petra, a boulder, massive foundation stone) for the rock upon which the church is to be based is a feminine gender noun in the greek.

      Peter, in fact, was given the name Cephas (or Kepha), which is a "large rock" in Aramaic. He's called Petros and not Petra in Greek because Peter was a man, and wouldn't be called by a feminine name.

      Leaving this aside, note that in the same passage, God the Father reveals something to Peter that is revealed to no one else, and it is for this very reason that Jesus gives Simon a new name (which is significant in the Bible). Also, Jesus gives Peter the keys to the kingdom, and anything that Peter binds or looses on earth will be bound or loosed in heaven. So Jesus gives Peter authority that reaches heaven.

      So no, the RCC claims that they derive legitimacy from that passage are as bogus as their reworking the ten commandments to leave off Exodus 20:4-6

      Nothing is left off. The part you quote falls under the commandment to worship God alone. The fact is that God only forbids images that are intended to be false gods. We know this because God commanded many images to be made. For instance:

      Exodus 25:18-22
      And thou shalt make two cherubims of gold, of beaten work shalt thou make them, in the two ends of the mercy seat. And make one cherub on the one end, and the other cherub on the other end: even of the mercy seat shall ye make the cherubims on the two ends thereof. And the cherubims shall stretch forth their wings on high, covering the mercy seat with their wings, and their faces shall look one to another; toward the mercy seat shall the faces of the cherubims be. And thou shalt put the mercy seat above upon the ark; and in the ark thou shalt put the testimony that I shall give thee. And there I will meet with thee, and I will commune with thee from above the mercy seat, from between the two cherubims which are upon the ark of the testimony, of all things which I will give thee in commandment unto the children of Israel.

      Exodus 26:1,31
      Moreover thou shalt make the tabernacle with ten curtains of fine twined linen, and blue, and purple, and scarlet: with cherubims of cunning work shalt thou make them.... And thou shalt make a vail of blue, and purple, and scarlet, and fine twined linen of cunning work: with cherubims shall it be made:

      Numbers 21:8-9
      And the LORD said unto Moses, "Make thee a fiery serpent, and set it upon a pole: and it shall come to pass, that every one that is bitten, when he looketh upon it, shall live." And Moses made a serpent of brass, and put it upon a pole, and it came to pass, that if a serpent had bitten any man, when he beheld the serpent of brass, he lived.

      As for the rest of your points, go to Catholic apologetics sites and you'll find them addressed there.

    124. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1

      the catholic church denying women contraception

      What you should realize is that the use of contraception leads to the devaluation of women. Without contraceptives, sex can often mean a pregnancy, and this would be a problem for an unmarried couple. So people would tend to wait until marriage to have sex, and single men would see women as potential spouses. With contraceptives, people don't worry about children being conceived, and so men are free to see women as objects to be used for their own pleasure, rather than as potential wives and mothers of their children.

    125. Re:Call the editor! by I(rispee_I(reme · · Score: 1

      Nowhere in the bible does it specifically mention the exact number of years since the Earth was created, yet hard-line literalists have added the ages in the "begat" section to get the ridiculous age of 6,000 years. If it is fair for them to do that, surely it is fair to take the other authors of the Bible at their literal word, and determine that a)the Earth is flat. b)the value of pi is three. If you are not one of the fools who believes that every word in the bible is literal, concrete truth, then it shouldn't bother you that the Bible contains these questionable statements.

    126. Re: Call the editor! by vladb · · Score: 1
      For one, I'd first doubt the ability of fallible man (speaking of which, you even spelled that word wrong!) to produce accurate calculations, before beating the superstitious of us with the Bible over their heads.

      Scientists seem to like the idea of dealing with astronomical and by and large fictitious numbers as they are hard to dispute objectively - for noone knows the right figure! It is now common for a scientist to simply state "this foobar took place million million years ago.. whereas this happened some million billion years go"... Those kind of statements are shallow and clearly without substance. Most are based on unsubstantiated inference about the surrounding world and how it functions. Who's absolutely sure that our knowledge of cosmos reflects the reality? What if all that we see is an image, a veil pulled over our eyes and masked behind yet unexplained physical phenomena?

      As far as believing the Bible or believing the scientists, I'd choose the former. Even today, scientists discover (or should I say "stumble over") theories that have long been mentioned in the Bible (take this recent study of human extinction in the past and compare it to Noah's story in the Bible!). If you so assert that the Bible was written by inapt superstitious fanatics, then how could those 'sub humans' and 'degenerates' possibly come up with numerous scientific facts that are only now being discovered by the modern science (read the book of Job!)? How would it also be possible for them to talk about an event that would only take place some hundreds and thousands years in the future (refer to passages in Old Testament talking about the coming of Jesus Christ)?

      I'm no stranger to physics, nor do I shy general science (particularly interested in nuclear science and theory of relativity). However, I wouldn't go as far as start to lambast the Bible and those who believe in it. Your disbelief is probably as good as their belief. In the end both are believers. You believe in 'nothing', whereas they believe in the Bible.

      Be well!

    127. Re: Call the editor! by jroseborough · · Score: 1

      You shouldn't have trusted your Sunday school teacher. Study for yourself! Obviously, you didn't check the information at the link I cited in my original message. The apparent contradiction you mention about Judas is shown to not be a contradiction after all.

      Matthew 27:3

      You proved the point I was making: study with the attitude that you're seeking to understand the Bible before you make bold statements about its veracity.

      >Meanwhile, if you try to evaluate the Bible objectively by comparing it to what we know from history, archaeology, geology, etc., it is found often to be very, very wrong.

      Back up your bold assertion with some facts! Come on - read a little archaeological history. Read about the Hittites. Before the 19th century, skeptics said that the Bible was wrong because the Bible mentioned Hittites, and yet they weren't found in archaelogical history. Years later, their existence was discovered and the critics ate crow. Google for it, or read "The Discovery of the Hittites" at this page.

      Archaeology and the Old Testament

    128. Re: Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      You miss a major point about the gender issues here with Petros and Petra. If the Lord wished to say Peter's name in Aramaic, He would have. But He chose Greek, where the distinction would be quite significantly made. Specifically, if Jesus was referring the second word to Simon Peter he could have said "epi tauto to petro" (using the masculine gender in the dative case) the same word as "Petros." But what he said was "Epi taute te petra" using Petra, a different Greek word. Subtle but all-important.

      Why do you insist on saying Peter was the first Pope, when Paul was the apostle to the Gentiles? See Galatians 2:7
      But contrariwise, when they saw that the gospel of the uncircumcision was committed unto me, as the gospel of the circumcision was unto Peter; (For he that wrought effectually in Peter to the apostleship of the circumcision, the same was mighty in me toward the Gentiles:)
      So Peter was appointed to be the apostle to Jews, and Paul to Gentiles. That is very discordant with your claim of Peter running a catholic (that word means universal) church.

      Did you get to read the "Two Babylons" book by Hislop yet? If so, check out the part where the fish-hat the pope wears is identified with Dagon the fish god
      The two-horned mitre, which the Pope wears, when he sits on the high altar at Rome and receives the adoration of the Cardinals, is the very mitre worn by Dagon, the fish-god of the Philistines and Babylonians. There were two ways in which Dagon was anciently represented. The one was when he was depicted as half-man half-fish; the upper part being entirely human, the under part ending in the tail of a fish. The other was, when, to use the words of Layard, "the head of the fish formed a mitre above that of the man, while its scaly, fan-like tail fell as a cloak behind, leaving the human limbs and feet exposed." Of Dagon in this form Layard gives a representation in his last work; and no one who examines his mitre, and compares it with the Pope's as given in Elliot's Horoe, can doubt for a moment that from that, and no other source, has the pontifical mitre been derived. The gaping jaws of the fish surmounting the head of the man at Nineveh are the unmistakable counterpart of the horns of the Pope's mitre at Rome. Thus was it in the East, at least five hundred years before the Christian era.
      And the really interesting part about that is that the pope's hat used to say "MYSTERY" on it until protestants made such fun of it that he stopped doing that. Be sure to read Revelation 17 and check for where "MYSTERY" on the forehead, and you'll see why the RCC allegorizes the book of Revelation when it has to deal with it. How often have you heard a sermon on Revelation in the RCC?

    129. Re: Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      There's a world of difference between Peter being told to feed the flock and the pope claiming to be the vicar of Christ. He is claiming in effect to be Christ on earth. Again, since you didn't seem to understand it the first time, Jesus' warning about how to recognize the end times:
      And as he sat upon the mount of Olives, the disciples came unto him privately, saying, Tell us, when shall these things be? and what shall be the sign of thy coming, and of the end of the world? And Jesus answered and said unto them, Take heed that no man deceive you. For many shall come in my name, saying, I am Christ; and shall deceive many.


      Your mixing of 1st Timothy (a letter about how to run a church) with Corinthians is really weird. In Corinthians Paul is talking to some very persecuted believers, warning them that during the times of heavy persecution the idea of getting married carries an additional burden beyond regular times. At the beginning of the section you extracted a verse from this is clear; from 1Cor 7:26 " I suppose therefore that this is good for the present distress". Putting the verse you extracted in a little more context, it's quite clear that your attempt to get celibate priests is still non-biblical.

      And again you took 1stJohn 1:9 out of context; John does not call for anyone to confess sins to him (and since he was the only apostle left living at that time, he would be the best choice). John does not say that he confesses sins to any man. Merely he says that we are to confess our sins, and that He will forgive us. Study the grammar and it will be clear to you that the implied receiver of the confession is also the granter of the forgiveness. And from the rest of the chapter that is unmistakably God Himself.
    130. Re: Call the editor! by Black+Parrot · · Score: 1


      > You proved the point I was making: study with the attitude that you're seeking to understand the Bible before you make bold statements about its veracity.

      Been there; done that; found it wanting.

      > > Meanwhile, if you try to evaluate the Bible objectively by comparing it to what we know from history, archaeology, geology, etc., it is found often to be very, very wrong.

      > Back up your bold assertion with some facts! Come on - read a little archaeological history. Read about the Hittites. Before the 19th century, skeptics said that the Bible was wrong because the Bible mentioned Hittites, and yet they weren't found in archaelogical history. Years later, their existence was discovered and the critics ate crow. Google for it, or read "The Discovery of the Hittites" at this page.

      By happy chance I have read up on the Hittites. And not merely at a casual level either - I've actually read a bit of the language, much more in translation, and lots of supporting scholarly documents. I would guess that my hoarde of books and papers about the Hittites amounts to a stack about 5" deep, all of it scholarly rather than pop, New Age, etc.

      And the interesting thing is... the Hittites weren't actually "Hittites". The great empire that was discovered should actually be called the Nessites (or perhaps Knessites - there are some issues here). They were mis-labeled as "Hittites" by their discoverers because - you guessed it - they were trying to read the Bible into what they found. Scholars wring their hands over that fact, but all recognize that it's too late to change it now due to the amount of material that has been published and the confusion that would result from a name correction after all these years.

      In fact, if you want to map the Bible's Hittites onto history/archaeology you have to assume that the Bible uses "Hit" (or HÃt, IIRC) to refer to three different tribes/kingdoms in the region, namely (IIRC!) (a) an otherwise unattested tribe in Caanan or perhaps along the south/southeastern border, (b) that Hattites, the kingdom with capital at Hatti in Anatolia on the site where the Nessites later established their kingdom and empire, and finally (c) some other kingdom in Syria, very possibly one of the so-called "Neo-Hittite successor states".

      If you try to interpret the biblical word to mean the same thing everywhere you get too many "Hittites" in the wrong place at the wrong time.

      But back to the bigger picture. Sure, the Bible has some facts in it. So does the Illiad. Scholars were astonished when Troy turned out to be real, astonished again when they discovered that you really could see it from the highest point of one of the Aegean islands (as claimed in the Illiad), astonished again when excavations of Bronze Age Greece turned up a boar's tusk helmet as described in the Illiad, and astonished yet again when the "Hittite" imperial archives gave the names of cities and regions that correspond with the geography in the Illiad. And all this was revealed in the last ~100 years, after being forgotten for 2-3 millenia (depending on which fact).

      Should we therefore conclude that the Illiad is a factual depiction of events in the Bronze Age? A divine revelation? And should we start making sacrifices to the Greek gods because the archaeology "proves that the Illiad is true" and the Illiad tells us that those gods existed?

      Now back once more to your -

      > Back up your bold assertion with some facts!

      We need go no further than the nominal topic of this thread: humans living 160,000 years ago falsify any interpretation of the Bible as being both (a) literal and (b) correct. Or we could talk about the flood. Or about confusion over who was who in Persia. Or the ordering of events during "creation". How many times does the Bible have to be wrong before you conclude that it's not all true?

      --
      Sheesh, evil *and* a jerk. -- Jade
    131. Re: Call the editor! by Geekbot · · Score: 1

      I'm glad to know that things such as the earth being flat and the sun revolving around the earth that people accepted as undeniable fact a short time ago are proven wrong. I can look at an apple and say it is red. I can touch it and say it is solid. I can taste it and say it is sweet. All of these are true depending on how I am looking at that apple. It doesn't feel red though. It doesn't look sweet.

      Science and religion are very similar things. They are attempts to understand everything and where we fit in. The difference between the two is that science is generally believed to be able to prove beyond a doubt what is true. And religion admits that we're not going to figure it out because it is beyond our capabilities. I know everyone thinks we've just about got it all figured out now, but it wouldn't be the first time for that.

      Science can help us understand a lot of things. There are things it can't help us understand and that's what religion is for.

    132. Re: Call the editor! by Perdition · · Score: 1

      It's sorta funny, this. I mean, the very first reactionary knee-jerk we see on this post is someone monkey-piling on the Bible. Before that, had anyone from the Bible camp said anything about this post? Maybe they did and I missed it. We then get to the bickering and fact-mangling phase of said "debate", and soon all the hackles are raised and it's the blood-shot wild-eyed fundamentalists against the enlightened scientists who seem very smug in the ability to find a funny rock. Meanwhile, if I read my Bible right, Satan laughs until he wets himself, because he's found the ideal way to keep anything spiritually relevant from ever happening in this world: the desire for proof. As long as we are wrapped up in the support or destruction of God, nothing important is getting done for anyone. I can't tell anyone anything about God but what He's done for me. After that, it's either false piety or the philosophies of man chasing their respective tails. So I say, "Fine. Believe in God or not, because in the end, what you do with God is just that; what you do with God. It does not change God or eliminate God or silence God."
      If you're curious about the outside world, open a window, but if you want anything from God (including His destruction), you're going to have to open your heart, and few are brave enough to do it. Right now, there are people reading these words, their brains boiling with pithy ways to take my words apart, argue them away, or turn them against themselves. Don't bother, you've won. However, if there is someone out there who is tired of what they've seen so far and desire more, abundantly more, know this: God is neither hidden nor complicated. He is neither a force nor a figment. If you're looking to disprove Him, you're wasting your time, time that could be well spent doing this old world some good. If you are trying to prop Him up with logic, you're distracted, and you need to put your hand back on the plow and actually serve God with something more than your hollow words. Personally, no monkey-skull has ever talked to me about who I am am or how I should be, but God has, and it's been uphill all the way. Call me names and marginalize me, use the force of logic to ridicule me, take up arms and kill me if you have to, but never say that you didn't hear or weren't told. John 1 sums it up better than I ever could, so go to biblegateway.com and read it for yourself. As much as I have failed to prove it, I sincerely believe that I should show love to you all, and that's gonna tick off about half of you in itself. But show you love I will... by shutting up.

      --
      Windows XP SP2 told me to install third-party software that prevents viruses and protects stability... I chose Ubuntu
    133. Re: Call the editor! by Tony-A · · Score: 1

      I pretty well agree with you, ..... but can't resist ...

      The details give it authenticity.
      Even made-up details to give shape and color to the telling.

      The way to credibly discredit something is to attack its foundations. If you can prove the foundations false, that which builds on it cannot be trusted.
      The question is what are the foundations and what is the gingerbread. The relevant standards are more like tales over a campfire than modern scholarly historians. That Judas quickly died at his own hand seems more like a foundation than exactly how he did it. Died quickly of unknown causes does not a good story make.

    134. Re: Call the editor! by Black+Parrot · · Score: 1


      > Have you ever heard of metaphore or alogory?

      No.

      --
      Sheesh, evil *and* a jerk. -- Jade
    135. Re: Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1

      You miss a major point about the gender issues here with Petros and Petra. If the Lord wished to say Peter's name in Aramaic, He would have. But He chose Greek,

      No, he actually said it in Aramaic, which was the language used in Palestine in that time. That's also why Peter is sometimes called Cephas in the Bible. Peter (or Petros) is just the Greek translation of it, as it appears in the Bible.

    136. Re: Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1

      There's a world of difference between Peter being told to feed the flock and the pope claiming to be the vicar of Christ. He is claiming in effect to be Christ on earth.

      No, the Pope does not claim to be Christ on earth. That's not true and presumably you know that.

      For many shall come in my name, saying, I am Christ; and shall deceive many.

      The Pope does not claim to be Christ, so I don't see why you're citing this passage. Also, the Popes have been claiming the same things for two thousand years, so clearly the Papacy is not what's being referred to here as a sign of the end of the world.

      In Corinthians Paul is talking to some very persecuted believers, warning them that during the times of heavy persecution the idea of getting married carries an additional burden beyond regular times. At the beginning of the section you extracted a verse from this is clear; from 1Cor 7:26 " I suppose therefore that this is good for the present distress".

      Right, and it was in that time that the celibacy rule began. And since then, there have been many persecutions against the Church (in Muslim, Protestant, and Communist countries) which makes the celibacy rule a good one. Besides, what Paul says is true for all times: if you don't have a spouse, it's one less thing to distract you from devoting yourself totally to Christ.

      Also, remember that Jesus supported celibacy for all times:
      "For there are some eunuchs, which were so born from their mother's womb: and there are some eunuchs, which were made eunuchs of men: and there be eunuchs, which have made themselves eunuchs for the kingdom of heaven's sake. He that is able to receive it, let him receive it." (Matthew 19:12)

      And again you took 1stJohn 1:9 out of context; John does not call for anyone to confess sins to him (and since he was the only apostle left living at that time, he would be the best choice). John does not say that he confesses sins to any man. Merely he says that we are to confess our sins, and that He will forgive us.

      "And when he had said this, he breathed on them, and saith unto them, 'Receive ye the Holy Ghost: Whose soever sins ye remit, they are remitted unto them; and whose soever sins ye retain, they are retained.'" (John 20:22-23)

      So how is John supposed to know what sins to remit if no one confesses their sins to him? Is he supposed to guess?

      Study the grammar and it will be clear to you that the implied receiver of the confession is also the granter of the forgiveness. And from the rest of the chapter that is unmistakably God Himself.

      Yes, it is God who forgives sins. When we confess our sins to priests, it is God who forgives us our sins through the priests. If God did not intend to act through men to forgive us our sins, then why did Jesus breathe on the Apostles and say that whatever sins they forgave would be forgiven?

    137. Re: Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Again you seem to have missed the point. Examine the construction again (as in my previous post) and see that.

      Your further claim that the original was in Aramaic has been disproven by some recent computer studies. Seems the Koine Greek as written in the NT shows a very clear evidence of Hebrew behind it. This of course makes sense as the authors were Jewish. Were the original to have been in Aramaic as you claim, that sense would have been lost.

      Further, as you yourself pointed out, Peter is sometimes called Cephas. Not always.

    138. Re: Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      As to your final point, explain the thief on the cross. He made no confession of sins to our Lord Jesus Christ yet he was told that he'd be in paradise that day. He didn't receive Final Unction nor did he get any of the sacraments. He was being executed for a crime, so he clearly had some of what the RCC calls mortal sins. He couldn't do any meritorious works, he was being executed!

    139. Re:Call the editor! by LNN · · Score: 1
      I was actually unaware of that. Thanks for enlighting me. I haven't read all of the bible, and what I have it's in Swedish, so the wordings are not the exactly same. I looked this up and found it to be in Rev 7:1:
      7:1 And after these things I saw four angels standing on the four corners of the earth, holding the four winds of the earth, that the wind should not blow on the earth, nor on the sea, nor on any tree.

      Reading the notes along with it you get the following:
      The word for "corners" (Greek zonia) is translated "quarters" in Revelation 20:8, obviously referring to four directions, not to a flat, square, earth, as some critics allege.

      and
      The angels are seen as controlling the four winds; thus one is probably at each pole, the other two at opposite ends of some key equatorial diameter, restraining the winds which control the great atmospheric circulation. These winds are normally driven by the sun's heat and earth's rotation, so to keep them from blowing would require tremendous power. This gives a slight insight into the excelling strength of God's holy angels (Psalm 103:20). Since the atmospheric circulation is essential for continental rains, the angels will have been restraining these rains ever since God's two witnesses called for no rain on the earth at the beginning of the tribulation (Revelation 11:6).

      I'm not saying this is right, but this is what the English translation I've got here says.
    140. Re: Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Bullshit.

      Facts is written under the Holly Spirit advocation, as Mathew's book.

      Since it can't be both things at a time...

      DOES JUDAS BOUGTH OR BOUGTH NOT THE BLOODY FIELD?

      Either Mathew or the Apostols Facts book is not respecting the facts or may both of them, and that IS a fact.

      If Holly Books are not respecting the facts in such an easy and modern and trivial fact, what else can be pure shit?

    141. Re: Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      "The question is what are the foundations and what is the gingerbread. [...] That Judas quickly died at his own hand seems more like a foundation than exactly how he did it."

      Please, pay attention that Holly Books are either directly dictated by God, or under His Divine Inspiration. Now, know that God, being omniscient and almighty sees not difference between foundations and gigerbread; He can be with same attention and intensity with both at the same time.

      Now, all these literal-bible-readers (at the end, not so literal), creationshits and other related kind of morons should know that either those books are as false as a wood-coined dollar (as all over the dumb level know) or EACH and EVERY line has a meaning since there can't be overseeings nor wrong interpretations nor anything regarding the Work of the Almigthy. At any rate, they wouldn't be loosing their time consolidating both Facts and Mathew's story (to talk by example) regarding Judas' die, but paying their most attention to the fact that God wanted to say something to them by those apparently stupid differences.

    142. Re: Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      As to your final point, explain the thief on the cross. (...) He was being executed for a crime, so he clearly had some of what the RCC calls mortal sins.

      Well, we don't really know if he was in the state of mortal sin, but for the sake of argument let's assume that he was.

      He made no confession of sins to our Lord Jesus Christ yet he was told that he'd be in paradise that day. He didn't receive Final Unction nor did he get any of the sacraments.

      An act of perfect contrition will cleanse us of our sins. The reason for the sacraments is that perfect contrition is rather rare, and so God wants to make things easier for us. The following is from the Catholic Encyclopedia:

      PERFECT CONTRITION WITHOUT THE SACRAMENT

      Regarding that contrition which has for its motive the love of God, the Council of Trent declares: "The Council further teaches that, though contrition may sometimes be made perfect by charity and may reconcile men to God before the actual reception of this sacrament, still the reconciliation is not to be ascribed to the contrition apart from the desire for the sacrament which it includes." The following proposition (no. 32) taken from Baius was condemned by Gregory XIII: "That charity which is the fullness of the law is not always conjoined with forgiveness of sins." Perfect contrition, with the desire of receiving the Sacrament of Penance, restores the sinner to grace at once. This is certainly the teaching of the Scholastic doctors (Peter Lombard in P.L., CXCII, 885; St. Thomas, In Lib. Sent. IV, ibid.; St. Bonaventure, In Lib. Sent. IV, ibid.). This doctrine they derived from Holy Writ. Scripture certainly ascribes to charity and the love of God the power to take away sin: "He that loveth me shall be loved by My Father"; "Many sins are forgiven her because she hath loved much". Since the act of perfect contrition implies necessarily this same love of God, theologians have ascribed to perfect contrition what Scripture teaches belongs to charity. Nor is this strange, for in the Old Covenant there was some way of recovering God' grace once man had sinned. God wills not the death of the wicked, but that the wicked turn from his way and live (Ezech., xxxiii, 11). This total turning to God corresponds to our idea of perfect contrition; and if under the Old Law love sufficed for the pardon of the sinner, surely the coming of Christ and the institution of the Sacrament of Penance cannot be supposed to have increased the difficulty of obtaining forgiveness.


      He couldn't do any meritorious works, he was being executed!

      Meritorious works don't save you. For a work to be meritorious, you must already be in a state of grace - that is, you must already be saved. Someone who is in a state of mortal sin can do all the good works he wants, but it won't do him any good - he must first accept God's sanctifying grace.
    143. Re: Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1

      I never said the original of the Bible was in Aramaic. I said that Jesus spoke in Aramaic, as evidenced by the name Cephas, which sometimes doesn't get translated into Greek since that was the actual name (Kepha) that the Jewish Christians were accustomed to calling Peter.

      That Jesus "says" things in Greek in the Greek Bible doesn't mean He actually spoke those things in Greek. A French translation of the Bible has Jesus speaking those words in French, but that doesn't mean Jesus spoke French. Greek in those days was an international language, much like English today. The New Testament was written in Greek in order for as many people as possible to be able to read it, and not because everyone was speaking Greek when the original events described took place.

      As for the computer studies you mentioned: it's been known for a while that at least the Gospel of Matthew was written in Hebrew or Aramaic (which are related languages), both for textual reasons, and also because one of the early Christian writers (Eusebius, maybe?) said that the book of Matthew was originally written "in the language of the Jews", which could have been either Aramaic or Hebrew.

    144. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Of course no one uses a "strictly literal" in a wooden lockstep fashion; "I am the door" does not mean He has hinges. There is a bit of brains assumed to be in operation. Perhaps for the pedantic critic a better phrase is to take the bible "seriously".

    145. Re: Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      If you don't think that a compatriot of Barrabas would have a mortal sin, you are really in a bit of denial. At the very least he would be an accomplice to murder, if not worse. His statements clearly indicate that he knows he deserves the death penalty (Luke 23:41) and the execution he is undergoing, and anything that he would consider the "due reward of our deeds" being death would not be a venial sin (by RCC reasoning). Your kind granting of a concession on that point does not help your argument, as it is very clear from the scripture that you are making no concession at all except to the truth.

      You then claim that by an act of perfect contrition the thief could have bypassed the RCC rigamarole and gotten a get-out-of-hell/purgatory free card. Yet what act of contrition is recorded? The only statements he made were "this man hath done nothing amiss" and "Lord, remember me when thou comest into thy kingdom" (Luke 23). He did not do anything more than recognize Jesus Christ as Lord; where do you get a perfect act of contrition out of the words he is recorded to have said?

      And quoting from the Council of Trent is a bit inflammatory, seeing as how it dictates that any true bible-believing Christian must be seen as anathema.

      If you're going to quote the council of Trent, don't miss these parts of the sixth session:

      Canon XXIV. If any one saith, that the justice received is not preserved and also increased before God through good works; but that the said works are merely the fruits and signs of Justification obtained, but not a cause of the increase thereof; let him be anathema.

      Canon XXX. In any one saith, that, after the grace of Justification has been received, to every penitent sinner guilt is remitted, and the debt of eternal punishment is blotted out in such wise, that there remains not any debt of temporal punishment to be discharged either in this world, or in the next in Purgatory, before entrance to the kingdom of heaven can be opened (to him); let him be anathema.

      And these parts of the thirteenth session:

      Canon I. If any one denieth that, in the sacrament of the most holy Eucharist, are contained truly, really, and substantially, the body and blood together with the soul and divinity of our Lord Jesus Christ, and consequently the whole Christ; but saith that He is only therein as in a sign, or in figure, or virtue; let him be anathema.

      Canon VI. If any one saith, that, in the holy sacrament of the Eucharist, Christ, the only-begotten Son of God, is not to be adored with the worship, even external of latria; and is, consequently, neither to be venerated with a special festive solemnity, nor to be solemnly borne about in processions, according to the laudable and universal rite and custom of holy church; or, is not to be proposed publicly to the people to be adored, and that the adorers thereof are idolaters; let him be anathema.

      Canon VIII. If any one saith, that Christ, given in the Eucharist, is eaten spiritually only, and not also sacramentally and really; let him be anathema.

      And in the fourteenth session:

      Canon III. If any one saith, that those words of the Lord the Saviour, Receive ye the Holy Ghost, whose sins you shall forgive, they are forgiven them, and whose sins you shall retain, they are retained, are not to be understood of the power of forgiving and of retaining sins in the Sacrament of penance, as the Catholic Church has always from the beginning understood them; but wrests them, contrary to the institution of this sacrament, to the power of the preaching of the gospel; let him be anathema.

      Canon VI. If any one denieth, either that sacramental confession was instituted, or is necessary to salvation, of divine right; or saith, that the manner of confessing secretly to a priest alone, which the Church hath ever observed

    146. Re: Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      You assert
      it's been known for a while that at least the Gospel of Matthew was written in Hebrew or Aramaic
      Quite a surprise to many scholars and writers in the past. Care to back up that claim, and if so, are you going to fall back on the corrupt Vaticanus and Sinaiticus manuscripts?
    147. Re:Call the editor! by mugley · · Score: 1

      Or post to ./

    148. Re: Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You've ignored the points about Dagon, the fish hat the Pope wears, and the fact that he used to have "MYSTERY" on the front of it (Julius III removed it when he heard that bible readers had figured out the match to Revelation 17:5). Why won't you comment on that?

    149. Re:Call the editor! by Negatyfus · · Score: 1

      No, I just think it is a good site. I don't actually know if there's anything on there about the Dead Sea Scrolls, but most probably there is (and lots more).

    150. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You're quite the Catholic apologist, but you are inaccurate when you claim the Catholics were not upset by vernacular translations. Otherwise why was Tyndale burned at the stake - all he did was translate the bible into English that a common person could understand. The Catholics chased him, caught him, and horribly killed him for that.

      The Roman Catholic Church is "drunken with the blood of the saints, and with the blood of the martyrs of Jesus" as it says in Revelation 17:6.

      As the bible says in Revelation 18:4-5 "Come out of her, my people, that ye be not partakers of her sins, and that ye receive not of her plagues. For her sins have reached unto heaven, and God hath remembered her iniquities". Come out of the RCC, stop violating our Lord Jesus Christ's commandment in Matthew 23:9 "And call no man your father upon the earth: for one is your Father, which is in heaven". Stop listening to man, listen only to the holy words of God.

    151. Re: Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      This is from the Catholic Encyclopedia:

      According to Eusebius (Hist. eccl., 111, xxxix, 16), Papias said that Matthew collected (synetaxato; or, according to two manuscripts, synegraphato, composed) ta logia (the oracles or maxims of Jesus) in the Hebrew (Aramaic) language, and that each one translated them as best he could.

      [...]

      Finally, were the Logia of Matthew and the Gospel to which ecclesiastical writers refer written in Hebrew or Aramaic? Both hypotheses are held. Papias says that Matthew wrote the Logia in the Hebrew (Hebraidi) language; St. Irenæus and Eusebius maintain that he wrote his gospel for the Hebrews in their national language, and the same assertion is found in several writers. Matthew would, therefore, seem to have written in modernized Hebrew, the language then used by the scribes for teaching. But, in the time of Christ, the national language of the Jews was Aramaic, and when, in the New Testament, there is mention of the Hebrew language (Hebrais dialektos), it is Aramaic that is implied. Hence, the aforesaid writers may allude to the Aramaic and not to the Hebrew. Besides, as they assert, the Apostle Matthew wrote his Gospel to help popular teaching. To be understood by his readers who spoke Aramaic, he would have had to reproduce the original catechesis in this language, and it cannot be imagined why, or for whom, he should have taken the trouble to write it in Hebrew, when it would have had to be translated thence into Aramaic for use in religious services. Moreover, Eusebius (Hist. eccl., III, xxiv, 6) tells us that the Gospel of Matthew was a reproduction of his preaching, and this we know, was in Aramaic. An investigation of the Semitic idioms observed in the Gospel does not permit us to conclude as to whether the original was in Hebrew or Aramaic, as the two languages are so closely related. Besides, it must be home in mind that the greater part of these Semitisms simply reproduce colloquial Greek and are not of Hebrew or Aramaic origin. However, we believe the second hypothesis to be the more probable, viz., that Matthew wrote his Gospel in Aramaic.

      Let us now recall the testimony of the other ecclesiastical writers on the Gospel of St. Matthew. St. Irenæus (Adv. Haer., III, i, 2) affirms that Matthew published among the Hebrews a Gospel which he wrote in their own language. Eusebius (Hist. eccl., V, x, 3) says that, in India, Pantænus found the Gospel according to St. Matthew written in the Hebrew language, the Apostle Bartholomew having left it there. Again, in his "Hist. eccl." (VI xxv, 3, 4), Eusebius tells us that Origen, in his first book on the Gospel of St. Matthew, states that he has learned from tradition that the First Gospel was written by Matthew, who, having composed it in Hebrew, published it for the converts from Judaism. According to Eusebius (Hist. eccl., III, xxiv, 6), Matthew preached first to the Hebrews and, when obliged to go to other countries, gave them his Gospel written in his native tongue. St. Jerome has repeatedly declared that Matthew wrote his Gospel in Hebrew ("Ad Damasum", xx; "Ad Hedib.", iv), but says that it is not known with certainty who translated it into Greek. St. Cyril of Jerusalem, St. Gregory of Nazianzus, St. Epiphanius, St. John Chrysostom, St. Augustine, etc., and all the commentators of the Middle Ages repeat that Matthew wrote his Gospel in Hebrew. Erasmus was the first to express doubts on this subject: "It does not seem probable to me that Matthew wrote in Hebrew, since no one testifies that he has seen any trace of such a volume." This is not accurate, as St. Jerome uses Matthew's Hebrew text several times to solve difficulties of interpretation, which proves that he had it at hand. Pantænus also had it, as, according to St. Jerome ("De Viris Ill.", xxxvi), he brought it back to Alexandria. However, the testimony of Pantænus is only second-hand, and that of Jerome rem

    152. Re: Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1

      If you don't think that a compatriot of Barrabas would have a mortal sin, you are really in a bit of denial.

      Was the Good Thief really a compatriot (or accomplice) of Barabbas? I don't remember seeing that in the Bible...

      In any case, we don't know if the Good Thief was in a state of mortal sin when he was on the cross. For instance, what if he had had his sins forgiven before he was arrested?

      Yet what act of contrition is recorded? The only statements he made were "this man hath done nothing amiss" and "Lord, remember me when thou comest into thy kingdom" (Luke 23). He did not do anything more than recognize Jesus Christ as Lord; where do you get a perfect act of contrition out of the words he is recorded to have said?

      Well, Jesus knew what was in his heart, no matter what the thief said.

      And quoting from the Council of Trent is a bit inflammatory, seeing as how it dictates that any true bible-believing Christian must be seen as anathema.

      Not at all. Catholics are true Bible-believing Christians.

      But, in any case, I'm not going to refrain from citing from particular ecumenical councils just because you disagree with them. After all, one of the main points of the Council of Trent was to point out Protestant errors.

      By the way, I'm a little surprised that you don't agree that, when we are saved, God cleanses us of all our sins and of all temporal punishment due to our sins. I thought Protestants believed that. (I'm speaking of Canon XXX, which you quoted.)

      These have never been rescinded.

      Why should they have been rescinded? If you culpably (note the emphasis) deny one of these teachings of the Church, then how can you be counted as a member of the Church?

      Which does a nice job of explaining that you have a very strong justification for rejecting everything said here, provided you are willing to take the rules of a manmade institution (the RCC) over the Word of God.

      The Catholic Church was founded by Jesus Christ. In Matthew 16:18-19, He told Peter He would do so, and In John 21 Jesus gave Peter authority over His Church.

      The Catholic Church doesn't contradict the Word of God. If you look at the things you quoted, many of them are straight from the Bible. For instance, that the Eucharist is the Body and Blood of Jesus Christ.

      As you might guess, I vote the other way. Sola Scriptura.

      Where does the Bible teach Sola Scriptura?

    153. Re: Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1

      This is just a ridiculous anti-Catholic fairy tale.

      By the way, Aaron wore a mitre too:

      "And these are the garments which they shall make; a breastplate, and an ephod, and a robe, and a broidered coat, a mitre, and a girdle: and they shall make holy garments for Aaron thy brother, and his sons, that he may minister unto me in the priest's office." (Exodus 28:4)

      According you what you imply, Aaron must have been secretly worshipping Dagon.

    154. Re: Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      'Fraid it's not just a fairy tale. Yes Aaron wore a mitre, but on his it said "Holiness to the Lord". The pope's said "mystery". Comparing those two, well, you better go read Revelation 17 again. Aaron's mitre did not resemble a fish; observe the pope in profile and you'll see the clear imagery. BTW have you read any of Hislop yet, or are you only willing to look in Catholic-approved books?

    155. Re: Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You assume I'm protestant; I'm not, I'm a baptist. Baptists existed from the beginning of the church, whereas the RCC was started by Constantine, and protestants are a result of the reformation, and in reaction to the RCC. Protestants and the RCC both allegorize the book of Revelation, whereas independent evangelicals and baptists believe it as written. And of course we believe that God cleanses us of all sins. The point of disagreement is that we believe Jesus when he said "It is finished"; the RCC teaches that his finished work on the cross was not sufficient. The RCC teaches that penance and such are necessary, that Christ must suffer again each time there is a eucharist, and that any who doubt transubstantiation are anathema. And it has the utterly unscriptural invention of purgatory.

      You claim that the Lord Jesus Christ gave authority over the church to Peter. If you really believe that, and apparently you do, how do you explain Acts 15 where James is the head of the church, when Paul went to dispute versus Peter for a ruling on circumcision for Gentile Christians. James rendered judgment in that case, clearly he was the authority, Peter was not. In that section, even your Catholic sources generally agree that James ran the show, while Peter and Paul were not in charge. Had Peter been in charge, James would not have been. Clearly Peter was not in charge of the church, contrary to RCC doctrine.

      You are trying to say the thief had somehow been forgiven, yet he knew that he was being justly executed, so he did not believe he was forgiven. Had he been forgiven, don't you think he'd be aware of the fact? The only reason given in our holy bible that the thief was to be in paradise with our Lord that day is that the thief expressed faith in the Lord. Nothing else. Salvation and Justification by faith alone (sola fide).

      Where does the Bible teach sola scriptura? Perhaps the most important illustration for you as a Catholic is 1 Cor 4:6 "...that ye might learn in us not to think of men above that which is written, that no one of you be puffed up for one against another". In other words, do not take the word of men above the Word of God.

    156. Re: Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Some other places that are relevant to sola scriptura: our Lord issued very severe rebukes to the Pharisees (calling them hypocrites in Mark 7:6) in Mark 7:7-8 "Howbeit in vain do they worship me, teaching for doctrines the commandments of men. For laying aside the commandment of God, ye hold the tradition of men". And a few verses later in 13 "Making the word of God of none effect through your tradition, which ye have delivered: and many such like things do ye".

      And Matthew 15:3 "Why do ye also transgress the commandment of God by your tradition?". And Matthew 15:6-9 "Thus have ye made the commandment of God of none effect by your tradition. Ye hypocrites, well did Esaias prophesy of you, saying, This people draweth nigh unto me with their mouth, and honoureth me with their lips; but their heart is far from me. But in vain they do worship me, teaching for doctrines the commandments of men."

      And Colossians 2:8 "Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the rudiments of the world, and not after Christ."

      A widely expressed doctrine. And as for adding or removing things in the Bible, well, there is Revelation 22:18-19: "For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book: And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book." Exactly the dangerous kind of thing the Douay Rheims (RCC) bible does in Genesis 3:15 where it changes the pronouns to feminine (the basis of Mary statues stomping a serpent's head).

    157. Re: Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      All your sources are hearsay. Some direct evidence comes from papyrus Magdalen Greek 17/P64 which was proven (using a scanning laser microscope) to be contemporaneous with the living apostles. Since that is in Greek, and exactly matches the Textus Receptus, it's clear that even if an original was in another language, that the accurate Greek text was in use during the time the apostles were alive. Therefore the Greek text we have in the TR is accurate (and there are a LOT of other proofs of that). And the Greek text clearly shows that Peter and the rock of faith the church is founded on are not the same, as detailed in the prior post in the Greek grammatical analysis.

      Also, Matthew was a publican (customs/tax official). As such, he would have been quite capable in shorthand transcription of verbal discourses. And those would have been in Koine Greek, the language of commerce in the Roman Empire then. His shorthand would not have been Hebrew, as that would not have been useful as a Roman official in any way. And when he was recording the words of our Lord, using his shorthand training would certainly explain why he got the entire "long version" of the Sermon on the Mount (Matthew 5-7) recorded verbatim. And have you ever examined greek vs. hebrew letters? It's a lot easier to write greek letters with speed and accuracy than it is hebrew, which is far more subtle in its letter formations. Shorthand in greek letters would be a lot easier (though I really prefer this keyboard for speed and comfort (and it's cheap!).

    158. Re: Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1

      'Fraid it's not just a fairy tale.

      I agree. It's not just a fairy tale, it's a ridiculous fairy tale. First of all, the shape of the mitre changed over the years, so any present resemblance to anything is coincidental. Secondly, the mitre began to be used around the year 1000, and by that time no one knew anything at all about Dagon, so to say that people were worshipping Dagon doesn't make sense.

      Thirdly, even if the Pope's hat had the word "mystery" on it, and I don't know that this was the case, so what? Assuming that you're referring here to Revelation 17:5, the Bible says that the harlot has more that just "mystery" on her forehead. The full name written is "Mytery, Babylon the Great, the mother of harlots and abominations of the earth". So the word "mystery" in itself doesn't fulfill what the Bible says.

      But my guess is that the whole "mystery on the mitre" thing is a fabrication anyway.

      Aaron's mitre did not resemble a fish

      How do you know this?

      BTW have you read any of Hislop yet, or are you only willing to look in Catholic-approved books?

      "Hislop's research is as shoddy as a tabloid. For instance, Hislop claims that Semiramis was the mother of Nimrod, although Nimrod was the grandson of Noah, and Semiramis did not rule in Babylon until three centuries after Moses."

    159. Re: Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1

      You assume I'm protestant; I'm not, I'm a baptist. Baptists existed from the beginning of the church

      Baptists came out of the Protestant movement. There's no evidence that they existed before then.

      whereas the RCC was started by Constantine

      Have a look at this site. You'll see that the early Christians believed in the same things that Catholics do. For instance, the Real Presence of Jesus Christ in the Eucharist.

      Protestants and the RCC both allegorize the book of Revelation, whereas independent evangelicals and baptists believe it as written.

      I'm not sure what you mean by "allegorize". For instance, when you say that you "believe it as written", do you mean that there will literally be a woman riding a scarlet beast with seven heads and ten horns? (Rev. 17:3)

      The point of disagreement is that we believe Jesus when he said "It is finished"; the RCC teaches that his finished work on the cross was not sufficient.

      This isn't true. Christ's sacrifice on the cross was sufficient to save all mankind.

      The RCC teaches that penance and such are necessary,

      Not for salvation as such, but to cleanse us in preparation for going to heaven. If our sins are forgiven but we die without doing penance, we'll still go to heaven, although perhaps first undergoing the cleansing of Purgatory.

      that Christ must suffer again each time there is a eucharist,

      No, this isn't true. The Eucharist makes present to us the one sacrifice of Christ at Calvary.

      and that any who doubt transubstantiation are anathema.

      We believe what Jesus said:

      "And as they were eating, Jesus took bread, and blessed it, and brake it, and gave it to the disciples, and said, Take, eat; this is my body." (Matthew 26:26)

      And it has the utterly unscriptural invention of purgatory.

      "Every man's work shall be made manifest: for the day shall declare it, because it shall be revealed by fire; and the fire shall try every man's work of what sort it is. If any man's work abide which he hath built thereupon, he shall receive a reward. If any man's work shall be burned, he shall suffer loss: but he himself shall be saved; yet so as by fire." (1 Corinthians 3:13-15)

      If you really believe that, and apparently you do, how do you explain Acts 15 where James is the head of the church, when Paul went to dispute versus Peter for a ruling on circumcision for Gentile Christians. James rendered judgment in that case, clearly he was the authority, Peter was not.

      James was the head of the church in Jerusalem (as the local bishop), but not the Church as a whole. In any case, the Bible shows us that Jesus did place the Church under Peter's authority, and He never did that for James.

      You are trying to say the thief had somehow been forgiven, yet he knew that he was being justly executed, so he did not believe he was forgiven.

      Let's say you murdered someone, and then you received forgiveness from God for the murder you committed. So if the police arrest you, you are brought to trial, and sent to prison (or executed) for your crime, would you consider that you are being unfairly treated by the government? Does having your sins forgiven somehow mean that you are suffering an injustice by being punished for your crime?

      The only reason given in our holy bible that the thief was to be in paradise with our Lord that day is that the thief expressed faith in the Lord. Nothing else.

      Actually, the thief does show repentance for his sins. "And we indeed justly; for we receive the due reward of our deeds." (Luke 23:41)

      Salvation and Justification by faith alone (sola fide).

      Strictly speaking, what the Bible teaches is that we are saved through the sacrament of baptism. Of course, when

    160. Re: Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      You claim there's no evidence of Baptists prior to the reformation? What do you call the anabaptists who were in the Coliseum? The "Trail of Blood" is a brief history of Baptists. I know the RCC trashes it, as they do anything that makes them look bad. But even the RCC admits they persecuted the Waldenses for holding to no purgatory, which at the time the RCC defended based on the apocryphal Maccabees books. So there is evidence even from RCC sources that many parts of the Trail of Blood are accurate. It cannot be flatly dismissed.

      The point of reading scripture is, as the well-known adage goes:

      When the

      plain sense of Scripture makes common sense, seek no other sense. Therefore, take every word at its primary, ordinary, usual, literal meaning, unless the facts of the immediate context, studied in light of related passages, and axiomatic and fundamental truths, indicate clearly otherwise. God, in revealing His Word, neither intends nor permits the reader to be confused. He wants His children to understand.

      So when reading the book of Revelation, verse 1:19 (" Write the things which thou hast seen, and the things which are, and the things which shall be hereafter") is the key given to us to understand the book. The "things which thou hast seen" are the prior bits in chapter 1. The "things which are" covers the letters to the churches. The "things which shall be hereafter" are, as it says in 4:1 ("things which must be hereafter") what happens once John is shown things from a heavenly perspective, things which happen after John wrote (and still future to us now).

      The rest of the Revelation is based in part on signs, mostly based on the OT. It was sign-ified (see Rev 1:1). For example the woman with the stars is based on Joseph's dream in Genesis. There are, on average, roughly two OT references per verse in Revelation. If you don't have a very strong OT understanding, you will profit greatly from a good commentary when reading it. Of course John's audience had the very strong OT immersion and they grasped his meaning quickly.

      About purgatory, how can you reconcile simple facts like Matthew 25:46 "And these shall go away into everlasting punishment: but the righteous into life eternal"? There are two choices there, heaven or hell. No third choice of medium-rare; you're cooked forever or you're not.

      About the eucharist, when the Lord said "Take, eat; this is my body" He was still using His body and His blood; which piece do you claim he passed around? Following the simple logic of the above rule, clearly that was an allegory. Also in Genesis 9:3-4 ("Every moving thing that liveth shall be meat for you; even as the green herb have I given you all things. But flesh with the life thereof, which is the blood thereof, shall ye not eat") consuming blood was forbidden for everyone. And under the Law, which Jesus said in Matthew 5:17 ("Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil") that He came to fulfil, eating of blood was very clearly forbidden (Leviticus 3:17 "It shall be a perpetual statute for your generations throughout all your dwellings, that ye eat neither fat nor blood" and many, many other places). He was having a Passover meal, as a Jew, with a group of Jews, under the Law, fulfilling the Law. To suggest that He would provide blood for them to drink is worse than suggesting that He passed pork ribs and oysters around.

      You recognize that James was in charge of the meeting in Acts 15. Then you claim that James only ran Jerusalem. But the issue being decided there was about a worldwide topic, not about a local topic. James rendered judgment which was accepted by all. James was therefore making a ruling that covered the entire world, then and now. It was about the Gentiles, which covered everywhere outside Judea, and you agree James had Judea. That means the world.

    161. Re: Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Tell ya what; ignore Hislop and all the flawed human writers. Base you belief and practices on God's holy Word, and that will be best for all of us. See the other thread for the challenge...

    162. Re: Call the editor! by alexo · · Score: 1
      Please forgive the rearrangement of the paragraphs.
      Science and religion are very similar things. They are attempts to understand everything and where we fit in. The difference between the two is that science is generally believed to be able to prove beyond a doubt what is true. And religion admits that we're not going to figure it out because it is beyond our capabilities. I know everyone thinks we've just about got it all figured out now, but it wouldn't be the first time for that.
      This may be the way religion views science but it is not an accurate description. Science, as I understand it, is a collection of methodologies that allows us to model the way the universe (or rather selected parts of it) works and to make objective and consistent "predictions" of the outcome of an action in given circumstances. A good analogy would be a set of tools which, once you get skilled in their use, allow you to build things. Some of the tools are better then others, some got inherent limitations, some get replaced by more complex ones (in time), etc.

      Religion, on the other hand, can only explain things post factum. It is also wholy subjective and deals mostly with unquantifyable things (morals, ethics, beliefs).

      One difference is that science paints an open picture. It allows you to adapt and refine (sometimes even change) your view of the universe to conform to new discoveries. Religion is mostly static.

      But the biggest difference, IMO, is that religion is dogmatic. It (as opposed to science) does not, cannot, prove anything. And before you start spewing indignation, consider this:
      In order to prove something, you need to have a possibility to disprove it. For each scientific "law", one can devise an experiment that, if performed successfully, will disprove it.

      I can suggest an experiment to prove that gravitation does not follow the inverse square law, that the speed of light in vacuum is not constant, etc.
      In fact, a prime example of this is that Newton's "laws" were proven to only be a good approximation at low speeds and break completely at relativistic ones.

      Now, look at religious arguments. Some people purport to have proof of their god's (or gods') existance but such "proofs" are meaningless without offering "counter-experiments" that may possibly refute this claim in a definite way.

      A more specific example would be the Judo-Christian belief that the "world" was created 5763 years ago. What I usually say to the proponents of this idea is: "Offer me an experiment that can definitevely disprove this claim. If I (and others) fail to do it, then I'll regard your claim as credible."

      I can look at an apple and say it is red. I can touch it and say it is solid. I can taste it and say it is sweet. All of these are true depending on how I am looking at that apple. It doesn't feel red though. It doesn't look sweet.
      Ah, but science does not not tell you that the apple is "red" or "sweet". What it does tell you is that the apple reflects the light in the 600nm range better than the rest of the visible spectrum and that it contains organic molecules (glucose) that bind to certain receptors in your mouth which cause certain signals to be sent to your brain. The rest is subjective.

      Science can help us understand a lot of things. There are things it can't help us understand and that's what religion is for.
      If by "religion" you mean "faith", "philosophy" or "a consistent set of beliefs" then I concur. Some things are currently outside the domain of science (and science readily acknowledges this). However, if is my firm belief that most organized religions are more about power and control than anything else.
    163. Re: Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      You claim there's no evidence of Baptists prior to the reformation? What do you call the anabaptists who were in the Coliseum? The "Trail of Blood" is a brief history of Baptists.

      Those weren't Baptists. They believed in doctrines that were totally different from those of the Baptists; some of them were actually pretty close to Catholicism.

      On some of the sects mentioned in the "Trail of Blood":

      Carroll identifies many divergent groups throughout history, claiming them as baptistic. These groups are a montage of unrelated sects and heretics, including the Albigenses, Cathari, Paulicians, Arnoldists, Henricians and more. The Cathari and Albigenses taught that Christ was an angel with a phantom body whose death and resurrection were only allegorical and the Incarnation impossible since the body was evil, created by evil. Since the Catholic Church took the New Testament literally was seen as corrupted and doing the work of the devil. They also rejected the resurrection of the body and the existence of hell.

      The Paulicians, similarly believed that there were two fundamental principles: a good God and an evil God; the first is the ruler of the world to come and the second the master of the present world. By their reasoning, then, Christ could not have been the Son of God because the good God could not take human form. They were basically dualists and Gnostics. Other groups rejected the government of the Catholic Church but not her dogma. What linked many of the groups was not a denial of Catholic dogma but a common concern for rigorous spirituality, a demand for the return to apostolic poverty, the refusal to take oaths, criticism of lax clergy, etc. many believed in the Real Presence, the ever-virginity of the Blessed Virgin, regenerational baptism and the rest of Catholic dogma. The Waldenses, started by Peter Waldo (c. 1150-1218) are an example of a group Baptist successionists would consider baptistic, maintaining "Baptist churches" in the midst of persecution during the medieval period. Edward T. Hiscox, author of the classic Baptist handbook, Principles and Practices for Baptist Churches (Grand Rapids, Mich.: Kregel Publications, 1980) claims the Waldenses and the above mentioned groups held to the principle points "which Baptists have always emphasized". Hiscox, however, doesn't inform his readers that the Waldenses for the most part believed in the perpetual virginity of Mary, the effectiveness of the sacraments, infant baptism, that "the Sacrifice [of the Mass], that is of the bread and wine, after the consecration are the body and blood of Jesus Christ", that good deeds of the faithful may benefit the dead, to name just a few. That Baptist successionists can claim the Waldenses as their ancestors-sharing a common belief and practice-is quite untenable, if not disingenuous.

      I know the RCC trashes it, as they do anything that makes them look bad.

      Here's what a Baptist says:

      Baptist James Edward McGoldrick, professor of history at Cedarville College, summarizes the situation well. "Perhaps no other major body of professing Christians has had as much difficulty in discerning it historical roots as have the Baptists. A survey of conflicting opinions might lead a perceptive observer to conclude that Baptists suffer from an identity crisis. . . . Many Baptists object vehemently and argue that their history can be traced across the centuries to New Testament times. Some Baptist deny categorically that they are Protestants and that the history of their churches is related to the success of the Protestant Reformation of the sixteenth century. Those who reject the Protestant character and Reformation origins of the Baptists usually maintain a view of church history sometimes called 'Baptist Successionism' . . . enhanced enormously by a booklet entitled The

    164. Re: Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      Where does the Bible teach sola scriptura? Perhaps the most important illustration for you as a Catholic is 1 Cor 4:6 "...that ye might learn in us not to think of men above that which is written, that no one of you be puffed up for one against another". In other words, do not take the word of men above the Word of God.

      This doesn't say anything about Sola Scriptura. Paul is saying that people should not exceed the guidelines he had just provided (including quotes from the Old Testament). However, nowhere does he say that only what is in the Bible should be believed. Keep in mind that just a few chapters later, Paul would write: "Now I praise you, brethren, that ye remember me in all things, and keep the ordinances, as I delivered them to you." (1 Corinthians 11:2) Here, Paul is praising the Corinthians for heeding his oral teaching, and not the Scriptures alone.

      Some other places that are relevant to sola scriptura: our Lord issued very severe rebukes to the Pharisees (calling them hypocrites in Mark 7:6) in Mark 7:7-8 "Howbeit in vain do they worship me, teaching for doctrines the commandments of men. For laying aside the commandment of God, ye hold the tradition of men". And a few verses later in 13 "Making the word of God of none effect through your tradition, which ye have delivered: and many such like things do ye".

      And Matthew 15:3 "Why do ye also transgress the commandment of God by your tradition?". And Matthew 15:6-9 "Thus have ye made the commandment of God of none effect by your tradition. Ye hypocrites, well did Esaias prophesy of you, saying, This people draweth nigh unto me with their mouth, and honoureth me with their lips; but their heart is far from me. But in vain they do worship me, teaching for doctrines the commandments of men."

      And Colossians 2:8 "Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the rudiments of the world, and not after Christ."


      What does this have to do with Sola Scriptura? Jesus said that they were "laying aside the commandment of God" and replacing it with their own traditions that they made up themselves, for their own benefit. That's why Jesus calls them hypocrites: they say they're holy because they follow rules, but the rules they made are self-serving. Jesus gave an example of what He was getting at in Mark 7:9-13.

      And he said unto them, "Full well ye reject the commandment of God, that ye may keep your own tradition. For Moses said, 'Honour thy father and thy mother'; and, 'Whoso curseth father or mother, let him die the death': but ye say, 'If a man shall say to his father or mother, it is Corban, that is to say, a gift, by whatsoever thou mightest be profited by me; he shall be free.' And ye suffer him no more to do ought for his father or his mother; making the word of God of none effect through your tradition, which ye have delivered: and many such like things do ye." (Mark 7:9-13)

      So instead of their rules being in harmony with what God wants, and thus leading to holiness, they're used as an excuse to avoid their duty (and thus go against God's will).

      In any case, this says nothing about whether all religious truth is to be explicitly found in the Bible.

      By the way, Catholic Tradition comes from the Apostles. Some of it came in written form (the Bible), and some of it in oral form (everything else). Christians must keep it all, and not reject one or the other. Imagine if the early Christians ignored all that the Apostles told them unless it was written down first. That's more or less what you'd have them do, apparently.

      A widely expressed doctrine.

      Then perhaps you might be able to find one place in the Bible where it is expressed.

      And as for adding or removing things in the Bible, well, there is Revelation 22:18-19: "For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unt

    165. Re: Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      I already told you, there's a challenge for you involving reading the Bible, not Catholic apologetic websites.

      In case you missed it last time:

      These discussions have been enlightening, but at this point I see the usefullness waining. My prayers for you and suggestion to you are that you engage in a simple challenge exercise. Sit down with a pad of paper and the New Testament. As you read the NT, write down every time a uniquely Catholic doctrine is commanded or clearly laid out. For example:

      Jesus talked about Hell frequently. Mark down every time he mentions purgatory as clearly as He mentions Hell.

      Infant baptism.

      Baptism by sprinkling.

      Auricular confession.

      Celibate priests.

      A clergy ruling over a laity.

      A strong religious governing system.

      Denominational governance.

      Altars consecrated by interring dead saint's bones.

      Indulgences:

      scapulars;

      pilgrammages;

      holy doors;

      Blessed objects of piety.

      Masses for the dead.

      Celebration of Christmas.

      Lent.

      Canonization of saints.

      Prayers to saints.

      Prayers to Mary, or places where Jesus says "Ooh that's a tough one, better ask my Mom".

      Prayers to dead relatives.

      Mary's perpetual virginity.

      Mary's goddesshood or Queen of heaven (see Jeremiah 7:18, 44:17-25).

      Rote or repetitious prayers.

      Rosary or prayer beads (research the buddhist origin of these).

      Worship or reverence to statues or images or idols.

      Veneration of pieces of bread (the "host").

      Tabernacles to house this "holy" cookie.

      Blessing objects (crucifixes, paintings, etc.).

      When you're done with that, ask yourself honestly just how biblical the RCC is. Then find yourself a nice independent local New Testament church instead; many have pastors who grew up in the RCC and they will be very understanding, accepting, and loving when you go to see them.

    166. Re: Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      These discussions have been enlightening, but at this point I see the usefullness waining. My prayers for you and suggestion to you are that you engage in a simple challenge exercise. Sit down with a pad of paper and the New Testament. As you read the NT, write down every time a uniquely Catholic doctrine is commanded or clearly laid out. For example:

      Jesus talked about Hell frequently. Mark down every time he mentions purgatory as clearly as He mentions Hell.

      Infant baptism.

      Baptism by sprinkling.

      Auricular confession.

      Celibate priests.

      A clergy ruling over a laity.

      A strong religious governing system.

      Denominational governance.

      Altars consecrated by interring dead saint's bones.

      Indulgences:

      scapulars;

      pilgrammages;

      holy doors;

      Blessed objects of piety.

      Masses for the dead.

      Celebration of Christmas.

      Lent.

      Canonization of saints.

      Prayers to saints.

      Prayers to Mary, or places where Jesus says "Ooh that's a tough one, better ask my Mom".

      Prayers to dead relatives.

      Mary's perpetual virginity.

      Mary's goddesshood or Queen of heaven (see Jeremiah 7:18, 44:17-25).

      Rote or repetitious prayers.

      Rosary or prayer beads (research the buddhist origin of these).

      Worship or reverence to statues or images or idols.

      Veneration of pieces of bread (the "host").

      Tabernacles to house this "holy" cookie.

      Blessing objects (crucifixes, paintings, etc.).

      When you're done with that, ask yourself honestly just how biblical the RCC is. Then find yourself a nice independent local New Testament church instead; many have pastors who grew up in the RCC and they will be very understanding, accepting, and loving when you go to see them.

    167. Re: Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1

      Well, since the doctrine of Sola Scriptura is false, I don't see what you're trying to prove with this. The Bible never teaches Sola Scriptura, or that everything we do must be contained in the Bible. Does your church use electrical lights? That's not in the Bible.

      In fact, the Bible often denies the doctrine of Sola Scriptura:

      2 Thessalonians 2:15
      Therefore, brethren, stand fast, and hold the traditions which ye have been taught, whether by word, or our epistle.

      2 Timothy 2:2
      And the things that thou hast heard of me among many witnesses, the same commit thou to faithful men, who shall be able to teach others also. [This is precisely how Catholic Tradition works, by the way.]

      1 Thessalonians 2:13
      For this cause also thank we God without ceasing, because, when ye received the word of God which ye heard of us, ye received it not as the word of men, but as it is in truth, the word of God, which effectually worketh also in you that believe.

      Anyway, as to the points you listed:

      # Jesus talked about Hell frequently. Mark down every time he mentions purgatory as clearly as He mentions Hell.

      Jesus didn't talk very often about the Trinity either. So does that mean the doctrine of the Trinity is false?

      Infant baptism.

      Acts 2:38-39
      Then Peter said unto them, "Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost. For the promise is unto you, and to your children, and to all that are afar off, even as many as the LORD our God shall call."

      Acts 16:15
      And when she was baptized, and her household, she besought us, saying, "If ye have judged me to be faithful to the Lord, come into my house, and abide there." And she constrained us.

      Acts 16:33
      And he took them the same hour of the night, and washed their stripes; and was baptized, he and all his, straightway.

      1 Corinthians 1:16
      And I baptized also the household of Stephanas: besides, I know not whether I baptized any other.

      Baptism by sprinkling.

      "Then will I sprinkle clean water upon you, and ye shall be clean: from all your filthiness, and from all your idols, will I cleanse you. A new heart also will I give you, and a new spirit will I put within you: and I will take away the stony heart out of your flesh, and I will give you an heart of flesh. And I will put my spirit within you, and cause you to walk in my statutes, and ye shall keep my judgments, and do them." (Ezekiel 36:25-27)

      Auricular confession.

      John 20:22-23
      And when he had said this, he breathed on them, and saith unto them, "Receive ye the Holy Ghost: Whose soever sins ye remit, they are remitted unto them; and whose soever sins ye retain, they are retained."

      Celibate priests.

      Matthew 19:12
      For there are some eunuchs, which were so born from their mother's womb: and there are some eunuchs, which were made eunuchs of men: and there be eunuchs, which have made themselves eunuchs for the kingdom of heaven's sake. He that is able to receive it, let him receive it.

      1 Corinthians 7:32-33
      But I would have you without carefulness. He that is unmarried careth for the things that belong to the Lord, how he may please the Lord: But he that is married careth for the things that are of the world, how he may please his wife.

      A clergy ruling over a laity.

      1 Timothy 5:17
      Let the elders that rule well be counted worthy of double honour, especially they who labour in the word and doctrine.

      # A strong religious governing system.

      In New Testament times, the Apostles and clergy governed the Church.

      Denominational governance.

      I don't know what you mean here. If you mean the division of Christians into denominations, we don't support this. All Christians are to belong to the flock of

    168. Re: Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1

      See this post.

    169. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1

      You're quite the Catholic apologist, but you are inaccurate when you claim the Catholics were not upset by vernacular translations. Otherwise why was Tyndale burned at the stake - all he did was translate the bible into English that a common person could understand.

      No, it wasn't for being a vernacular translation, but for being a bad translation, with errors that changed the meaning of the text in order to support heresy.

      The Roman Catholic Church is "drunken with the blood of the saints, and with the blood of the martyrs of Jesus" as it says in Revelation 17:6.

      This passage is speaking of Jerusalem, not the Church that Christ founded.

      As the bible says in Revelation 18:4-5 "Come out of her, my people, that ye be not partakers of her sins, and that ye receive not of her plagues. For her sins have reached unto heaven, and God hath remembered her iniquities".

      In other words, leave Judaism and become Christians.

      stop violating our Lord Jesus Christ's commandment in Matthew 23:9 "And call no man your father upon the earth: for one is your Father, which is in heaven".

      Jesus called people Father (Luke 16:24). And Paul (Acts 22:1), Stephen (Acts 7:2), and John (1 John 2:13) called people "father" too. The Bible explicitly says just before Stephen spoke that he was "full of faith and power" (Acts 6:8), and that he spoke by "the Spirit" (Acts 6:10). If what Stephen said was spoken by the Spirit, then there can't be anything wrong with it.

      In any case, what Jesus was talking about when he said "call no man Father" was that we should be humble, and not filled with pride like the scribes and Pharisees. In the same passage (Matthew 23:8-12), Jesus also said that we shouldn't allow ourselves to be called "teacher" either, but Protestants seem to ignore this "commandment"... The fact is that Jesus was using exaggeration here, just as He did when He said we should hate our family (Luke 14:26). He didn't really mean we should hate our family, but rather that we should love God more than our family. In the same way, if we are a father or a teacher, we should not let this go to our head; we should keep in mind how lowly we are in comparison to God.

    170. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      If Tyndale was burned at the stake for, as you put it, making a translation " with errors that changed the meaning of the text in order to support heresy", then why wasn't the team that put together the Douay-Rheims burned at the stake for their doctrinal pro-Mary-as-divine change in Genesis 3? Could it be because Tyndale's "heresy" was anti-papal, and Douay-Rheims was pro-Catholic?

      Your claim about Jerusalem being Babylon has been dealt with already:

      Revelation 17:9 states "And here is the mind which hath wisdom. The seven heads are seven mountains, on which the woman sitteth". Can you find a single source that says Jerusalem was known at the time John wrote Revelation (90-95 A.D.) as a "city on seven hills"? It doesn't have seven hills, Mount Moriah is its chief feature. Or perhaps you could admit that even today Rome is universally known as the "city on seven hills"? Additionally, the source you quote confuses the Whore

      OF Babylon with the city, as he cites OT references to Jerusalem as a harlot city. The Roman Catholic Church is not the city of Rome, but it's located there. Thus the seven hills are the hills on which the women sitteth. Further, when John wrote, Jerusalem had been destroyed at least twenty years earlier. It was rubble, not one stone was left on top of another.

      On the theme of OT references to harlotry, I recommend you read the book of Hosea. The entire book is given to that theme. It shows how God views spiritual infusion of pagan practices and other pseudo-gods into worship of Him.That is what God considers harlotry against Him. And notice that Hosea is directed to Israel (and Judah as well, but primarily the northern kingdom of Israel). The book is certainly not directed solely at the capital (Jerusalem) of the southern kingdom. Now that you see what harlotry is about, examine Jeremiah 7 and 44, see what God thought of worship directed to "the queen of heaven". Then check here, here, here, here, and here. Sadly, the RCC has enthroned a co-mediatrix and called her "Mary", declaring in recent times that she was immaculate, a perpetual virgin, and assumed into heaven directly. Hence the RCC has committed spiritual adultery, worthy by God's standard of being called a whore or harlot.

      Also further, the woman in Revelation 17-18 is "drunk with the blood of the saints". Jerusalem has not, from the time John was writing (you agree with me that it was after the apostles were killed, 90-95 A.D. is usually accepted), conducted enough exterminations of Christians to be drunk on the blood of saints. Yet the RCC has been the primary persecutor, tormentor, and killer of the saints (saints in the Biblical, not RCC sense). See here, or check into the history of the city of Beziers, where the pope's legate had every man, woman, and child brutally murdered because some of them deny transsubstantiation.

      And although you state "since all scripture hadn't been written until after they [the apostles] died (when John wrote the book of Revelation)" showing that you realize that Revelation was written after Jerusalem was destroyed, this conflicts directly with the source you cited which claims that the destruction of Babylon in Revelation was of Jerusalem. Since Revelation 17-18 is part of prophecy, it really wouldn't make any sense to predict a past event. And the destruction of Babylon is by means clearly spelled out. In Rev 18:8, "the kings of the earth, who have committed fornication and lived deliciously with her, shall bewail her, and lament for her, when they shall see the smoke of her burning".

    171. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1

      If Tyndale was burned at the stake for, as you put it, making a translation " with errors that changed the meaning of the text in order to support heresy", then why wasn't the team that put together the Douay-Rheims burned at the stake for their doctrinal pro-Mary-as-divine change in Genesis 3?

      It is never even implied that Mary is divine. The change in pronoun here was due to an innocent copyist's error, not due to a knowing change of the Bible.

      Could it be because Tyndale's "heresy" was anti-papal, and Douay-Rheims was pro-Catholic?

      There's no such thing as a pro-Catholic heresy. But apparently Tyndale's translation had a very great number of errors.

      Your claim about Jerusalem being Babylon has been dealt with already

      And my reply is here. But read the article I linked to (or its Google cache), it actually makes a lot of sense.

      Then you get going with the unfortunately common RCC anti-Semitic view, characterized here with your interpretation that Jesus called people out of Judaism into Christianity.

      It's not anti-Semitic to say that Jesus wanted the Jews to become Christians, Christianity being the fulfillment of Judaism.

      Paul, a former Pharisee, never called Jews out of Judaism, he simply called sinners to Christ.

      And abandon Jewish things like circumcision, etc.

      When Christ was walking the hills of Judea, he did not call people to leave Judaism, but to recognize Him as Saviour.

      The Jewish people still had a chance to accept Him as a people at that time. But in the end they (or their leaders, at least), rejected Him. So some Jews became Christians, and others didn't.

      Peter preached in the Temple, and at places other than the court of the Gentiles, so he was using a status of being a Jew.

      Sure, Peter preached to the Jews (and Paul preached to the Gentiles). Christianity is the fulfillment of Judaism, and fulfills various Jewish prophecies. Why not try to reach out to them in light of this?

      Your attempts to say that when Stephen said "Men, brethren, and fathers, hearken" that he was calling someone "Father" is patently absurd. The command against calling someone Father or Rabbi (Matthew 23:9) is about referring to someone as being positionally above you in a hierarchy, not about a familial relational concept.

      Aren't the "fathers" there religious leaders? In any case, Paul calls himself a "father" in the spiritual sense that the Church uses:

      1 Corinthians 4:14-15
      I write not these things to shame you, but as my beloved sons I warn you. For though ye have ten thousand instructers in Christ, yet have ye not many fathers: for in Christ Jesus I have begotten you through the gospel.

      1 Thessalonians 2:11
      As ye know how we exhorted and comforted and charged every one of you, as a father doth his children...

      Philemon 1:10
      I beseech thee for my son Onesimus, whom I have begotten in my bonds...

    172. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      You claim:
      If Tyndale was burned at the stake for, as you put it, making a translation " with errors that changed the meaning of the text in order to support heresy", then why wasn't the team that put together the Douay-Rheims burned at the stake for their doctrinal pro-Mary-as-divine change in Genesis 3?

      It is never even implied that Mary is divine. The change in pronoun here was due to an innocent copyist's error, not due to a knowing change of the Bible.

      Could it be because Tyndale's "heresy" was anti-papal, and Douay-Rheims was pro-Catholic?

      There's no such thing as a pro-Catholic heresy.
      Yet in the official (i.e., "infallible", ex cathedra) papal enclyclical by pope Pius XII in 1950, he stated in item 39:
      We must remember especially that, since the second century, the Virgin Mary has been designated by the holy Fathers as the new Eve, who, although subject to the new Adam, is most intimately associated with him in that struggle against the infernal foe which, as foretold in the protoevangelium [Genesis 3:15], would finally result in that most complete victory over the sin and death which are always mentioned together in the writings of the Apostle of the Gentiles. Consequently, just as the glorious resurrection of Christ was an essential part and the final sign of this victory, so that struggle which was common to the Blessed Virgin and her divine Son should be brought to a close by the glorification of her virginal body, for the same Apostle says: "When this mortal thing hath put on immortality, then shall come to pass the saying that is written: Death is swallowed up in victory." [emphasis and reference added]
      So that change in pronouns is clearly only favorable to the RCC, and is now officially a matter of doctrine. Aren't you going to have to confess going against that doctrine to your confessor? Or are you a priest that can absolve yourself?

      And while we're on the topic of Mary, the idea of her perpetual virginity (another "infallible" declaration of the papacy) is another heresy of the RCC. In Matthew 1:25; 12:47; Luke 2:7; John 2:12; and Acts 1:14 it is clear that she and Joseph had a family after Jesus was born. If she _had_ denied Joseph marital relations, that would have been a sin, and she would not then be the sinless being the RCC claims her to be. Of course Mary knew she was a sinner like all of us, she clearly stated her need for a Saviour in Luke 1:47 where she says "my spirit hath rejoiced in God my Saviour".
    173. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      So that change in pronouns is clearly only favorable to the RCC, and is now officially a matter of doctrine.

      What the Pope is talking about in the protoevangelium, Genesis 3:15, has nothing to do with the pronoun I mentioned. Here's the verse in question:

      "And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel." (Genesis 3:15)

      In the context of what the Pope is talking about, the woman in question is Mary, and the woman's seed is Christ.

      Now, the Pope says, "the Virgin Mary..., although subject to the new Adam, is most intimately associated with him in that struggle against the infernal foe." The Bible says that there is "enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed". So far so good: the woman and her seed struggle against the serpent and its seed.

      Then the Pope says that the "struggle against the infernal foe ..., as foretold in the protoevangelium [Genesis 3:15], would finally result in that most complete victory over the sin and death." The Bible says that the serpent's head will be "bruised", which symbolizes "that most complete victory over the sin and death". The Pope never says that it is the woman who gains the victory over the serpent. What he says is that the struggle, in which both the woman and her seed participate, will end with the defeat of "sin and death" (the serpent).

      So what the Pope said has nothing to do with whose heel (in Genesis 3:15) bruises the serpent.

      Or are you a priest that can absolve yourself?

      Priests can't absolve themselves.

      And while we're on the topic of Mary, the idea of her perpetual virginity (another "infallible" declaration of the papacy) is another heresy of the RCC. In Matthew 1:25; 12:47; Luke 2:7; John 2:12; and Acts 1:14 it is clear that she and Joseph had a family after Jesus was born.

      Matthew 1:25

      "And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name Jesus."
      Luke 2:7
      "And she brought forth her firstborn son, and wrapped him in swaddling clothes, and laid him in a manger; because there was no room for them in the inn."

      That Jesus was firstborn doesn't mean there were other children after Him, it means there were none before Him. Here's the Biblical definition of the firstborn:

      Exodus 13:2
      "Sanctify unto me all the firstborn, whatsoever openeth the womb among the children of Israel, both of man and of beast: it is mine."

      Matthew 12:47

      "Then one said unto him, Behold, thy mother and thy brethren stand without, desiring to speak with thee."
      John 2:12
      "After this he went down to Capernaum, he, and his mother, and his brethren, and his disciples: and they continued there not many days."
      Acts 1:14
      "These all continued with one accord in prayer and supplication, with the women, and Mary the mother of Jesus, and with his brethren."

      The use of the word "brethren" doesn't prove anything. For the Jews, the word "brother" was used to refer to just about any close relative. Here are some examples:

      Abraham was Lot's uncle:

      Genesis 11:26
      Now these are the generations of Terah: Terah begat Abram, Nahor, and Haran; and Haran begat Lot.

      But here, Lot is called Abraham's "brother":

      Genesis 14:12,14
      And they took Lot, Abram's brother's son, who dwelt in Sodom, and his goods, and departed. And when Abram heard that his brother [Lot] was taken captive, he armed his trained servants, born in his own house, three hundred and eighteen, and pursued them unto Dan.

      In the following, cousins are called "brethren":

      1 Chronicles 23:21-22
      The sons of Merari; Mahli, and Mushi. The sons of Mahli; Eleazar, and Kish. And Eleazar died, and had no sons, but daughters: and their brethren the sons of Kish took them.

    174. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Oh "Pall", how you torture the scripture. Which order are you in that teaches you such methods?

      Your claim about Mary denying Joseph being agreed to by both of them is extrabiblical; as in many of your arguments, you argue from silence. This is a common but worthless debate technique.

      Consider that in Judaism at the time, a woman was blessed if she had many children, and considered cursed by God if she had none. Contrast Elizabeth in Luke 1 for an example at that exact time. Blessed was to have a "quiver-full", or five children. Sons, in their accounting, were of greater worth than daughters. Mary had, according to scripture, five sons including our Lord, plus some number of daughters. That indeed makes her quite blessed. The RCC attempts to say she only had one child would make her anything but blessed in the world she was in.

      Further, if you want to dispute Matthew 1:25, that Joseph "knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son", I suggest a book for you to read on the topic. See ISBN 1879737450 at your favorite bookseller or library (it's probably not in the RCC library). Read the chapter on Matthew 1:25.

      When you can stop twisting scripture by arguing from silence, it will be worthwhile discussing with you again. Until then, keep reading the Bible with only God's help, not the RCC's.

    175. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      I'll be replying here to your latest posts in both threads.

      Clearly your favorite debate tactic is "argument from silence".

      I find it somewhat ironic that you accuse me of arguing from silence, when the very reason you think I'm doing so is that you've accepted a doctrine that is based on an argument from silence. Briefly, you're saying that if I assert something, and if that assertion isn't explicitly stated in the Bible, then I am arguing from silence. According to you, the Bible is the only source of religious knowledge we have. However, this position of yours is self-contradictory, as the Bible itself never teaches this. The Bible never says that all religious truth is to be found in the Bible. So the doctrine of Sola Scriptura is false, since the Bible never teaches it, and so the doctrine of Sola Scriptura, by its own criteria, declares itself to be unBiblical and thus false.

      The Bible doesn't teach Sola Scriptura. It teaches that the Apostles passed down the Gospel to future generations, all the way down to the present day, either in writing (the Bible) or through oral teaching:

      1 Thessalonians 2:13
      For this cause also thank we God without ceasing, because, when ye received the word of God which ye heard of us, ye received it not as the word of men, but as it is in truth, the word of God, which effectually worketh also in you that believe.

      2 Thessalonians 2:15
      Therefore, brethren, stand fast, and hold the traditions which ye have been taught, whether by word, or our epistle.

      2 Timothy 2:2
      And the things that thou hast heard of me among many witnesses, the same commit thou to faithful men, who shall be able to teach others also.

      So there are some things that the Church teaches that were passed down to us through the oral teachings of the Apostles, and the Bible acknowledges that this is the case. For me to say that these teachings are true is not to argue from silence, since the Apostles did actually teach these things, and the Church has continued to teach them, generation after generation, since then.

      Since you have a very strong bias to prove the Roman Catholic Church position, you force that interpretation on scripture wherever you find it, regardless of the plain meaning that one gets from just reading scripture.

      Again, I find it ironic that you say this, since you do this sort of thing yourself. For instance, I don't think you believe that the Eucharist is really the body and blood of Christ. And yet, Jesus states that it is:

      Mark 14:22-24
      And as they did eat, Jesus took bread, and blessed, and brake it, and gave to them, and said, Take, eat: this is my body. And he took the cup, and when he had given thanks, he gave it to them: and they all drank of it. And he said unto them, This is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many.

      Paul also says that the Eucharist is truly the body and blood of Christ, and that those who receive the Eucharist unworthily are committing a mortal sin, since they are not showing proper respect to the Lord's body present in the Eucharist:

      1 Corinthians 11:26-29
      For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the Lord's death till he come. Wherefore whosoever shall eat this bread, and drink this cup of the Lord, unworthily, shall be guilty of the body and blood of the Lord. But let a man examine himself, and so let him eat of that bread, and drink of that cup. For he that eateth and drinketh unworthily, eateth and drinketh damnation to himself, not discerning the Lord's body.

      Such as your interpretation of the thief on the cross. The plain reading of the Bible is that the thief is saved merely by confessing faith in Jesus as Lord.

      Actually, I don't think we're that far apart on how the Good Thief got saved. However, I believe my explanation is more complete than yours. F

    176. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      Pall, your scripture twisting has gotten pretty bad. First of all, if you showed Matthew 1:26 to 100 non-religious people and asked what the plain meaning of that passage was (explaining that "knew her" was a euphemism for coital relations), how many would say that the meaning of that was anything but the meaning everyone but the RCC gets from it?

      Second, you keep alleging that the RCC is not drunk with the blood of the saints. Take a trip to Beziers, France some day. They have an entire tourist industry built around the day the RCC killed nearly 100,000 men, women, and children in that one city because some of them performing religious practices at odds with official RCC doctrine. Yes I'd disagree with some of what they were doing, but the point here is that the RCC slaughtered that entire city. Then check out what the Pope wrote to the Prussian king about the Hussites.

      Third, I'm sure you have a warped and twisted RCC apologetic for this, but 1 Timothy 4:1-3:
      Now the Spirit speaketh expressly, that in the latter times some shall depart from the faith, giving heed to seducing spirits, and doctrines of devils; Speaking lies in hypocrisy; having their conscience seared with a hot iron; Forbidding to marry, and commanding to abstain from meats, which God hath created to be received with thanksgiving of them which believe and know the truth [emphasis added]
      Quite clearly labels RCC "no meat on Fridays or you're going to hell" practices of the first half of the 20th century, and the 1139 decree at Lateran that forbid priests to marry completes the picture.

      The RCC said eating meat on Fridays was a mortal sin through the first half of the twentieth century. So what does the RCC say happens to a person who went to Hell for eating meat on Fridays who died in 1950, after the mortal sin nature of that offense was lifted? Did they bounce up to purgatory when the pope signed the document?
    177. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1

      Pall, your scripture twisting has gotten pretty bad. First of all, if you showed Matthew 1:26 to 100 non-religious people and asked what the plain meaning of that passage was (explaining that "knew her" was a euphemism for coital relations), how many would say that the meaning of that was anything but the meaning everyone but the RCC gets from it?

      First of all, it's not just the Catholic Church that understands it this way. So do many Anglicans, some Lutherans, all Orthodox, all the Oriental Orthodox, etc.

      Second, if you were to show non-religious people some of the so-called "Biblical contradictions", they would say that the Bible contradicted itself and thus contained errors. What is true is that the Bible is completely free from error, but there's no guarantee that the "obvious" interpretation of the Bible by any particular person is the correct one. Indeed, many different Bible-only believers interpret the Bible in completely different ways, thus demonstrating that individual interpretation of the Bible doesn't work. Our interpretation of the Bible has to be in accordance with what the Apostles taught, and not just what a particular individual happens to think it means.

      Second, you keep alleging that the RCC is not drunk with the blood of the saints.

      The problem is that you're ignoring the fact that others, such as Protestants and Communists, may have killed more Christians than Catholics, so I don't see why Catholics are supposed to be the only ones to fit the description here. Where does the Bible say how many Christians killed would satisfy the description of "drunk"? The Jews (including Saul/Paul) attacked the early Christian Church, and it is this that John is talking about in Revelation.


      Third, I'm sure you have a warped and twisted RCC apologetic for this, but 1 Timothy 4:1-3:

      Now the Spirit speaketh expressly, that in the latter times some shall depart from the faith, giving heed to seducing spirits, and doctrines of devils; Speaking lies in hypocrisy; having their conscience seared with a hot iron; Forbidding to marry, and commanding to abstain from meats, which God hath created to be received with thanksgiving of them which believe and know the truth [emphasis added]


      This describes the Gnostics, including the Albigensians. Look up a description of them and you'll see the similarity.

      Quite clearly labels RCC "no meat on Fridays or you're going to hell" practices of the first half of the 20th century, and the 1139 decree at Lateran that forbid priests to marry completes the picture.

      The difference, of course, is that we're not vegetarians, and we don't forbid marriage. Anyone is free to marry. Priests vow to remain celibate, but no one forces them to do so. If someone want to get married, then clearly God hasn't called that person to the priesthood in the Latin rite.

      The RCC said eating meat on Fridays was a mortal sin through the first half of the twentieth century. So what does the RCC say happens to a person who went to Hell for eating meat on Fridays who died in 1950, after the mortal sin nature of that offense was lifted? Did they bounce up to purgatory when the pope signed the document?

      If someone willfully disobeyed the Church, and her God-given authority, then that person can go to hell for it. If the Church changes a particular law, then one need no longer obey it, since the law is now void. It's just like if the government were to suddenly say that something that had been illegal was now legal. People who had broken the law (in the past) are criminals, but now someone who does the same thing is no longer a criminal.

    178. Re:Call the editor! by Tyreth · · Score: 1

      Your first link is out of date (1996), new research was discovered afterwards indicating the much younger age of 6,000 years for mitochondrial eve.

      The problem with the calculations in your first article is that they were calibrated by evolutionary expectations. ie, they weren't grounded in fact but rather what the experimenters thought it would say.

      Your second article is also using the outdated information, likely from the first source.

      As for the third one, it has more details - however, the main crux of his argument is "it does not agree with our evolutionary expectations, so these are the reasons why it could be incorrect" - never assuming for a moment that the estimates could be right.

      Btw, posting links does not constitute "refuting". And the archaeological record certainly does not back you up. Please provide an example of how it does.

    179. Re:Call the editor! by Tyreth · · Score: 1

      The Bible in fact implies that the earth is circular:

      "It is He who sits above the circle of the earth,
      And its inhabitants are like grasshoppers..." - Isaiah 40:11a

      Where does it imply that it is flat? Please quote references.

    180. Re:Call the editor! by Tyreth · · Score: 1

      Can I encourage you not to post anonymously? There are other creationists around, and we'd love to put a name with arguments :) My karma has stayed at excellent, no matter how many times my creationist comments are modded down.

    181. Re:Call the editor! by Tyreth · · Score: 1

      No, he posted a link to trueorigins.org.

    182. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      Citing ecumenically allied groups like Anglicans and parts of other denominations is like citing your siblings as proof that you grew up in a nice family. Then you blur things by introducing a completely different topic.

      Remember a while ago, I gave you a nice summary of how to interpret the Bible, a document generally known as the Golden Rule of Bible Interpretation. I'll repeat it for those tuning in late:
      When the PLAIN SENSE of Scripture makes COMMON SENSE, SEEK NO OTHER SENSE. Therefore, take EVERY WORD at its primary, ordinary, usual, literal meaning, UNLESS the facts of the immediate context, studied in light of related passages, and axiomatic and fundamental truths, indicate CLEARLY otherwise. God, in revealing His Word, neither intends nor permits the reader to be confused. He wants His children to understand
      Based on that simple, direct, obvious principle, there is no other explanation for Matthew 1:26 than the plain meaning, literal sense.

      Dodging the point about Beziers and other RCC atrocities by asking if the Bible gives a required body count to get drunk on the blood of the saints is too blatantly flamebait to be responded to. Just admit, as have so many Catholic sources, how many Manichaeans, Arians, Priscillianists, Paulicians, Bogomiles, Cathari, Waldensians, Albigensians, witches, Lollards, Hussites, Anabaptists, and Jews the RCC has slaughtered. Catholic sources like the Jesuit historian Llorente, who was the last to have access to the source documents about the inquisition. He wrote that between 1481 and 1808 that the Spanish Inquisition condemned 341,000 persons. Note that number is just in Spain, and just for a subset of the time of the Inquisition.

      Then you claim that 1Tim 4:1-3 does not apply to the RCC requirement for celibacy in priests (instituted at Lateran in 1139, not practiced before then). Nice try, but again you're twisting scripture. Apply the rule given above, and rationality will show you the error.
    183. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1

      Citing ecumenically allied groups like Anglicans and parts of other denominations is like citing your siblings as proof that you grew up in a nice family.

      You had said that Catholics are the only ones who believe that Mary was a perpetual virgin. So I demonstrated that this isn't the case. Anglican belief in this doesn't derive from ecumenicism, as it predates the ecumenical movement.

      Remember a while ago, I gave you a nice summary of how to interpret the Bible, a document generally known as the Golden Rule of Bible Interpretation.

      Why should I accept this rule? Where is this rule stated in the Bible?

      The fact is that it contradicts the Bible. The following sentence: "God, in revealing His Word, neither intends nor permits the reader to be confused" contradicts what Peter says about Paul's epistles: "in which are some things hard to be understood." (2 Peter 3:16)

      Dodging the point about Beziers and other RCC atrocities by asking if the Bible gives a required body count to get drunk on the blood of the saints is too blatantly flamebait to be responded to.

      I had said that Revelation is speaking here of the Jews, but you replied by saying that the Jews had not killed enough Christians. First, how do we know that the Jews did not kill enough Christians to fulfill what Revelation says? On what do you base this assertion? Second, you said that only the Catholics have killed enough Christians. But others have killed as many (or more) Christians as the Catholics did. The Protestants have possibly killed more (including both Catholics and Protestants), but the Communists have certainly killed more Christians than either the Catholics or the Protestants. Muslims have also killed a lot of Christians over the years.

      Just admit, as have so many Catholic sources, how many Manichaeans, Arians, Priscillianists, Paulicians, Bogomiles, Cathari, Waldensians, Albigensians, witches, Lollards, Hussites, Anabaptists, and Jews the RCC has slaughtered.

      Most of these groups aren't Christians, and so don't fulfill what the book of Revelation is talking about. The following were Gnostics: Manichaeans, Priscillianists, Paulicians, Bogomils, Cathari, and Albigensians. Also, witches and Jews aren't Christians. It could also be said that the Arians aren't Christians either; but in any case, the Arians did more killing of Catholics than the other way around.

      Catholic sources like the Jesuit historian Llorente, who was the last to have access to the source documents about the inquisition. He wrote that between 1481 and 1808 that the Spanish Inquisition condemned 341,000 persons.

      This number is way too high. See this page concerning Llorente and how inaccurate he was.

      Then you claim that 1Tim 4:1-3 does not apply to the RCC requirement for celibacy in priests

      Right, because no one is forbidden to marry. People can freely choose whether they become a priest or get married or remain a single layman.

      (instituted at Lateran in 1139, not practiced before then).

      No, this isn't true. There were councils around the years 300 or 400 AD that talked about priestly celibacy and continence. See this page.

    184. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      You continue to assert that Revelation talks about Jews killing Christians; by the time Revelation was written (90-95 AD, when John was on Patmos), Jerusalem had been a pile of rubble for twenty years. The Jews were running, and not in a position of power to do much killing. The same has been true from that time till now. Your attempts to claim that Revelation was referring to historical events contradicts the Lord Jesus Christ's own statement about how to interpret the book of His Revelation, in verse 1:19 He says
      Write the things which thou hast seen, and the things which are, and the things which shall be hereafter;
      It is quite clear in the context that the preceeding bits of chapter 1 were the things which John saw, chapters 2 and 3 are the things which are (letters to the seven churches), and the things which shall be are chapter 4 on. This is shown by the indicator in verse 4:1 which marks the beginning of the prophetic portion
      After this I looked, and, behold, a door was opened in heaven: and the first voice which I heard was as it were of a trumpet talking with me; which said, Come up hither, and I will shew thee things which must be hereafter.
      So in attempting to use the RCC approach of denying the prophetic nature of Revelation, you are on ground that most people would be very uncomfortable to be on. The plain, simple meaning of those two verses is clear. As is Matthew 1:25, for that matter.
    185. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      You continue to assert that Revelation talks about Jews killing Christians; by the time Revelation was written (90-95 AD, when John was on Patmos), Jerusalem had been a pile of rubble for twenty years.

      From the article on Revelation I've been quoting from:
      Now the majority of scholars at present argue that Revelation was written by John at the end of his life around 96 AD during the reign of Emperor Domitian, during an alleged period of persecution of Christians.

      However, the minority opinion (and the one we and a growing number of scholars in fact hold) is that Revelation was written shortly before 70 AD and the destruction of the Temple. ... [T]here is growing evidence (see, for example, Kenneth L. Gentry's Before Jerusalem Fell) that Revelation can well be dated to the years just preceding the destruction of the temple in Jerusalem in 70 AD. Underlying this date is the fact that throughout the rest of the New Testament the persecution which concerns both Jesus and the apostles is not Roman persecution but persecution launched by Jews against the Church and the theological implications of this. This persecution of the Church by Jews culminated (as Jesus prophesied in, for example, Matthew 24) in the judgment on the Temple when Jerusalem was sacked and the Temple destroyed by the Romans in 70 AD. This destruction of the temple and demolition of Jerusalem signified for the early Church the passing away of the Mosaic covenant and the establishment of the covenant of Christ.

      And so, throughout the New Testament the persecution that preoccupies Christian thought is not persecution by Romans, but persecution by Jews. In the gospels, of course, it is the Jewish authorities at Jerusalem who initiate the persecution and eventual death of Jesus. Pilate is, at best, a reluctant participant. Similarly, it is a Roman soldier who declares, "Surely this man was a son of God." In other words, the gospels in no way depict the Church as a political revolutionary force in the Roman Empire. There is no particularly anti-Roman sentiment in the gospels, nor is there a particularly Roman persecution of Jesus in the gospels. Likewise, in the book of Acts, the first eight chapters show persecution against the Church coming exclusively from Jerusalem: from the priests, from men like Saul of Tarsus, and from others acting with the authority or approval of the Jerusalem elite. And as Acts and the New Testament continues, it is this mystery of Jewish persecution of the Church that continues to preoccupy the New Testament writers. Indeed, Paul meditates on it more than once in his epistles (most notably Romans 9-11) and with good reason. For he encounters constant persecution repeatedly throughout the book of Acts (both inside and outside Judea), and without any significant exception it originates from Jews who resent the kerygma or proclamation of the Gospel and its implications.
    186. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      As your own source says, that view is in the minority. And certainly does nothing to calm the anti-Semitism problems.

      The idea that John wrote prior to 70 (usually this heretical view puts it about 66 or so) originated with the Jesuits (Alcazar, Spanish Jesuit, late sixteen - early seventeenth century), most likely due to the huge problems the RCC would have with it otherwise.

      Also by 66 or so the churches in Asia Minor had been under the control of Paul, as evidence by all the Pauline epistles. Putting John on Patmos in 66, he would not have had time to get control of all the churches in Asia Minor to write the letters to them. Ephesus when John wrote to them was far different than Ephesus when Paul wrote to them. Quite some time had to have elapsed to cause that difference.

      Gnostics had not started to arise in force during the time of Paul; it was closer to the turn of the century that the hierarchical Gnostic concepts got going (see Nicolaitans).

      Now to the people who were close enough to know... Irenaeus was a disciple of Polycarp, who had been a disciple of John. He wrote:
      The Apocalypse was seen not long ago, but almost in our own generation, near the end of the reign of Domitian.
      And Victorinus agrees, saying John was banished by Domitian. Eusebius agrees as well. Sulpicius Severus said:
      John, the apostle and evangelist, was banished by Domitian to the isle of Patmos, where he had visions, and where he wrote the Revelation.
      So all the Jesuit scripture twisting won't help you. Revelation was not about AD 70, it's about our future. It will happen sooner or later, whether we die first or not only our Lord knows. I just pray you'll be with me in Heaven during the tribulation, that you will have obeyed the call to "Come out of her, my people, that ye be not partakers of her sins, and that ye receive not of her plagues" [Revelation 18:4]
    187. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      As your own source says, that view is in the minority.

      So the truth can be decided by a vote? The view that Jesus is God is also a minority opinion, but that doesn't mean it isn't true.

      And certainly does nothing to calm the anti-Semitism problems.

      Then you're saying the Bible is anti-Semitic.

      The idea that John wrote prior to 70 (usually this heretical view puts it about 66 or so)...

      If this is a heretical view then, according to Sola Scriptura, the Bible must clearly state that John wrote the book of Revelation after 70 AD.

      The idea that John wrote prior to 70 ... originated with the Jesuits (Alcazar, Spanish Jesuit, late sixteen - early seventeenth century), most likely due to the huge problems the RCC would have with it otherwise.

      No, the idea existed long before then. For instance, the Muratorian Canon (about 170 AD) says that John wrote the book of Revelation before Paul wrote his epistles: "[T]he blessed Apostle Paul, following the rule of his predecessor John, writes to no more than seven churches by name... And John too, indeed, in the Apocalypse, although he writes only to seven churches, yet addresses all."

      Also by 66 or so the churches in Asia Minor had been under the control of Paul, as evidence by all the Pauline epistles. Putting John on Patmos in 66, he would not have had time to get control of all the churches in Asia Minor to write the letters to them.

      You don't need to control someone in order to write to that person. The seven churches of Revelation happen to be near Patmos.

      Gnostics had not started to arise in force during the time of Paul; it was closer to the turn of the century that the hierarchical Gnostic concepts got going (see Nicolaitans).

      The Nicolaitans weren't full-fledged Gnostics, but precursors to the Gnostics.

      Now to the people who were close enough to know... Irenaeus was a disciple of Polycarp, who had been a disciple of John. He wrote:

      The Apocalypse was seen not long ago, but almost in our own generation, near the end of the reign of Domitian.


      You're misquoting Irenaeus. He never said "The Apocalypse was seen not long ago". See the following:

      This is the only evidence [in favor of a late date for Revelation] of any value, and it is so slight as to be nearly worthless. Irenaeus was a church father of the second century, many of whose letters have come down to us. Concerning the mystic number of the beast given Revelation 13:18, Irenaeus says thus: "If it were necessary to have his name distinctly announced at the present time it would doubtless have been announced by him who saw the apocalypse; for it was not a great while ago that (it or he) was seen, but almost in our own generation, toward the end of Domitian's reign." It should be observed that the subject of the verb "was seen" is ambiguous, and may be understood to refer to either John or the apocalypse. To argue as do some that the subject of the verb is the apocalypse is purely arbitrary. In fairness, either John or the apocalypse may be the subject. But what is the point of saying the vision was seen in recent times? The nearness of the vision cannot not open the symbols of the book. It was the author John to whom it belonged to expound the meaning of the mystic name. Thus if the reference is to anything, it would seem to be to John. However, even if Irenaeus' statement is granted to mean what advocates of the 96 A.D. say, this is the only independent, external evidence favoring that date.

      And Victorinus agrees, saying John was banished by Domitian. Eusebius agrees as well. Sulpicius Severus said:

      John, the apostle and evangelist, was banished by Domitian to the isle of Patmos, where h

    188. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      Bible antisemitic?

      You claim that Laodicea was destroyed in an earthquake in 66AD and not rebuilt for a century. Yet from the International Standard Bible Encyclopaedia:
      In the year 60 AD, the city was almost entirely destroyed by an earthquake, but so wealthy were its citizens that they rejected the proffered aid of Rome, and quickly rebuilt it at their own expense (compare Rev 3:17). It was a city of great wealth, with extensive banking operations (compare Rev 3:18).
      Since it was destroyed in 60 (the only places I could find that say 66 are those that say "or earlier"), rebuilding it by 70 and having the church get so decadent that the letter to them would find them in the state they are described as being in is pushing it. It is far more reasonable to see that when the city was hammered in 60 by the quake, that it took 20-25 years to rebuild the place, then 10-15 years for the apostasy to build up. Further, from
      Nelson's Illustrated Bible Dictionary we see:
      Laodicea became extremely wealthy during the Roman period. For example, in 62 B.C. Flaccus siezed the annual contribution of the Jews of Laodicea for Jerusalem amounting to 20 pounds of gold. Moreover, when the city was destroyed by an earthquake in A.D. 60 (along with Colossae and Hierapolis), it alone refused aid from Rome for rebuilding (compare the self-sufficient attitude of the church of Laodicea in Rev 3:17).
    189. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      Sorry, hit the wrong button there. Submitted before complete...

      Your claim about my viewing the Bible as antisemitic is absurd; the unfulfilled promises to the nation of Israel are still to come, clearly the Lord has much in store for them. I realize you're very steeped in the preterist, amillennial viewpoint, but if you have just a bit of openness, try listening to this for an explanation of what the millennium may really be about.

      And to answer your last two questions, yes I am pre-trib and premillennial, both positions the RCC vehemently disagrees with (as holding those positions enables recognizing the RCC is the woman on the Beast). And yes I know I'm going to heaven, because my Lord promises it (sorry that such a view sounds arrogant to a Catholic, but it's what the Bible says). Claiming that Paul did not believe in eternal security is misinterpreting him, most usually done by out of context quotes and twisting of meanings. After all, Paul said:
      For to me to live is Christ, and to die is gain. But if I live in the flesh, this is the fruit of my labour: yet what I shall choose I wot not. For I am in a strait betwixt two, having a desire to depart, and to be with Christ; which is far better: Nevertheless to abide in the flesh is more needful for you. [Philippians 1:21-24]
      And from John:
      If we receive the witness of men, the witness of God is greater: for this is the witness of God which he hath testified of his Son. He that believeth on the Son of God hath the witness in himself: he that believeth not God hath made him a liar; because he believeth not the record that God gave of his Son. And this is the record, that God hath given to us eternal life, and this life is in his Son. He that hath the Son hath life; and he that hath not the Son of God hath not life. These things have I written unto you that believe on the name of the Son of God; that ye may KNOW that ye have eternal life, and that ye may believe on the name of the Son of God. [1 John 5:9-13, emphasis added]
      Note the emphasized section - John is writing that we may know, that is present tense, that we have, that is present possession, eternal life. There is no equivocation here, no purgatory reference, no except for sin not confessed to a priest. Just that if we believe, we are saved.

      However I think we've abused slashdot's discussion areas enough without getting into a debate about eternal security or eschatological interpretations. Speaking just for myself, there are far more competent defenders of that position than I.
    190. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You spent wayyyyyyyyy too much time on that shit you god fearing prick

    191. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 0, Offtopic
      the unfulfilled promises to the nation of Israel are still to come, clearly the Lord has much in store for them.

      Paul talks about the Jews in Romans chapters 9 to 11. The promises to Israel are fulfilled when they accept their Messiah and become Christians.

      And to answer your last two questions, yes I am pre-trib

      The problem with this is that the Rapture takes place at the end of the world.

      1 Thessalonians 4:16-17

      "For the Lord himself will descend from heaven with a cry of command, with the archangel's call, and with the sound of the trumpet of God. And the dead in Christ will rise first; then we who are alive, who are left, shall be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air; and so we shall always be with the Lord."

      You can see that the rapture takes place when the dead rise again, and Jesus returns at His Second Coming. In other words, it takes place at the end of the world. When Jesus returns, he will judge all of mankind, and some will go to heaven, and the others to hell (Mt. 25:31-46). There won't be anyone left behind on earth after that.

      Claiming that Paul did not believe in eternal security is misinterpreting him, most usually done by out of context quotes and twisting of meanings. After all, Paul said:

      For to me to live is Christ, and to die is gain. But if I live in the flesh, this is the fruit of my labour: yet what I shall choose I wot not. For I am in a strait betwixt two, having a desire to depart, and to be with Christ; which is far better: Nevertheless to abide in the flesh is more needful for you. [Philippians 1:21-24]


      At certain times, we can be sure of going to heaven if we were to die at that very moment, such as right after our baptism, or after making a good confession. But there's no guarantee that, at some time in the future, we won't fall into sin. We must persevere.

      Here are a few verses on this. In the first two, Paul refers to his own salvation:

      Philippians 3:11-14

      If by any means I might attain unto the resurrection of the dead. Not as though I had already attained, either were already perfect: but I follow after, if that I may apprehend that for which also I am apprehended of Christ Jesus. Brethren, I count not myself to have apprehended: but this one thing I do, forgetting those things which are behind, and reaching forth unto those things which are before, I press toward the mark for the prize of the high calling of God in Christ Jesus.

      1 Corinthians 9:27
      But I keep under my body, and bring it into subjection: lest that by any means, when I have preached to others, I myself should be a castaway.

      1 Corinthians 10:12
      Wherefore let him that thinketh he standeth take heed lest he fall.

      Romans 11:22
      Behold therefore the goodness and severity of God: on them which fell, severity; but toward thee, goodness, if thou continue in his goodness: otherwise thou also shalt be cut off.

      Galatians 5:1
      Stand fast therefore in the liberty wherewith Christ hath made us free, and be not entangled again with the yoke of bondage.

      Galatians 6:9
      And let us not be weary in well doing: for in due season we shall reap, if we faint not.

      Hebrews 3:12-14
      Take heed, brethren, lest there be in any of you an evil heart of unbelief, in departing from the living God. But exhort one another daily, while it is called Today; lest any of you be hardened through the deceitfulness of sin. For we are made partakers of Christ, if we hold the beginning of our confidence stedfast unto the end.

      James 1:12,15-16
      Blessed is the man that endureth temptation: for when he is tried, he shall receive the crown of life, which the Lord hath promised to them that love him. ... Sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death. Do not err, my beloved brethren.

      And from John:

      If we receive the witness of men

    192. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      About Paul's statement in Philippians 1:21-24:

      For to me to live is Christ, and to die is gain. But if I live in the flesh, this is the fruit of my labour: yet what I shall choose I wot not. For I am in a strait betwixt two, having a desire to depart, and to be with Christ; which is far better: Nevertheless to abide in the flesh is more needful for you.

      You claim that

      At certain times, we can be sure of going to heaven if we were to die at that very moment, such as right after our baptism, or after making a good confession. But there's no guarantee that, at some time in the future, we won't fall into sin.

      Seriously now, where do you see Paul in Philippians saying "because I just made a great confession" or "since I just got sprinkled with water" that "I can die at this moment, but not necessarily at the moment you read this"? Nothing Paul wrote there is conditional. If he wanted to convey a point about conditionality, he needed to there. But he didn't, and the Holy Spirit who was inspiring him did not inspire him to.

      Thanks for pointing out that point about the rapture (popular name) or harpazo (Greek term) occuring. I totally agree, that's when the Lord returns IN THE CLOUDS, as the verse says. The verse also says the the DEAD IN CHRIST shall rise first, then those of us who are alive and saved.

      Then note that in Revelation 20 the dead not in Christ are brought forth to the White Throne judgment. As verse 20:6 says:

      Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years

      Those are the believers, obviously, who are resurrected at the rapture. Then in verses 20:12-15 we see what happens to those who died without the Lord:

      And I saw the dead, small and great, stand before God; and the books were opened: and another book was opened, which is the book of life: and the dead were judged out of those things which were written in the books, according to their works. And the sea gave up the dead which were in it; and death and hell delivered up the dead which were in them: and they were judged every man according to their works. And death and hell were cast into the lake of fire. This is the second death. And whosoever was not found written in the book of life was cast into the lake of fire.

      So believers will be raptured, that is the first resurrection. Unbelievers will, at the end of the millennium, be judged according to their works. Note that believers are not in that judgment.

      Note that when Jesus actually returns to earth (not in the clouds as in the rapture), He comes back with the saved, as in Revelation 19:11-16:

      And I saw heaven opened, and behold a white horse; and he that sat upon him was called Faithful and True, and in righteousness he doth judge and make war. His eyes were as a flame of fire, and on his head were many crowns; and he had a name written, that no man knew, but he himself. And he was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood: and his name is called The Word of God. And the armies which were in heaven followed him upon white horses, clothed in fine linen, white and clean. And out of his mouth goeth a sharp sword, that with it he should smite the nations: and he shall rule them with a rod of iron: and he treadeth the winepress of the fierceness and wrath of Almighty God. And he hath on his vesture and on his thigh a name written, KING OF KINGS, AND LORD OF LORDS.

      And when he gets here, he sets foot on the Mount of Olives, which splits in two:

      And his feet shall stand in that day upon the mount of Olives, which is before Jerusalem on the east, and the mount of Olives shall cleave in the midst thereof toward the east and toward the west, and there shall be a very great valley; and half of the mountain shall remove toward the north, and half of it tow

    193. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I agree with you, but actually, there is a documented case of a guy spending time inside a whale. Back in the whaling days, a guy was swallowed by a whale, a day or two later the ship caught the whale, saw an imprint in the whale, and cut it open. the guy was delirious with fever and died shortly after.

      ah! forgot my password again!

    194. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 0, Offtopic
      About Paul's statement in Philippians 1:21-24:

      For to me to live is Christ, and to die is gain. But if I live in the flesh, this is the fruit of my labour: yet what I shall choose I wot not. For I am in a strait betwixt two, having a desire to depart, and to be with Christ; which is far better: Nevertheless to abide in the flesh is more needful for you. ...
      Seriously now, where do you see Paul in Philippians saying "because I just made a great confession" or "since I just got sprinkled with water" that "I can die at this moment, but not necessarily at the moment you read this"? Nothing Paul wrote there is conditional.


      Look at the context. He is talking about wanting to die at that moment and thus be with Christ. If he were then in a state of grace and died, then there is nothing conditional about it: he would definitely go to heaven.

      But as I've already shown with many quotes from the Bible, being in a state of grace right now does not guarantee that we will remain that way. We must persevere.

      Thanks for pointing out that point about the rapture (popular name) or harpazo (Greek term) occuring. I totally agree, that's when the Lord returns IN THE CLOUDS, as the verse says.

      Well, there's only one Second Coming of Jesus, and that is it. If you're saying that the Bible's description of Jesus "returning in the clouds" implies that He doesn't make it all the way down to the earth, then you're wrong. See the following:

      Acts 1:9-11

      And when he had spoken these things, while they beheld, he was taken up; and a cloud received him out of their sight. And while they looked stedfastly toward heaven as he went up, behold, two men stood by them in white apparel; which also said, "Ye men of Galilee, why stand ye gazing up into heaven? this same Jesus, which is taken up from you into heaven, shall so come in like manner as ye have seen him go into heaven."

      Here, he started off on the ground and went up into the clouds into heaven. At the Second Coming, the process is reversed, and He comes down from the clouds all the way to the ground.

      The verse also says the the DEAD IN CHRIST shall rise first, then those of us who are alive and saved.

      The context here is that the Thessalonians were worrying about whether, if they were to die before the Second Coming, they would be at some disadvantage compared to those who would be alive at the Second Coming (i.e. whether they would resurrect and be present at Jesus' return). Paul reminds them that, as they have been united to Jesus' death and resurrection, they have nothing to worry about. If they die in Christ, then they can rest assured: they will resurrect in Christ.

      No mention is made of those not dead in Christ because the Thessalonians weren't worried about that particular question. But the fact is that everyone will be resurrected then, both the saved and the unsaved.

      John 5:28-29

      Marvel not at this: for the hour is coming, in the which all that are in the graves shall hear his voice, and shall come forth; they that have done good, unto the resurrection of life; and they that have done evil, unto the resurrection of damnation.

      Then note that in Revelation 20 the dead not in Christ are brought forth to the White Throne judgment. As verse 20:6 says:

      Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years

      Those are the believers, obviously, who are resurrected at the rapture.


      No, look at verse 4 (of Revelation 20), and you'll see that the believers here have no bodies; John sees only their souls. Thus they haven't been resurrected yet.

      The first resurrection is the gaining of salvation, and thus the state of grace. "On such the second deat

    195. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      Yet again, you're doing the "argument from silence" tactic to interpreting the Scriptures. When Paul wrote Philippians 1:21-26, he did not include any conditional statements. You argue:
      If he were then in a state of grace and died, then there is nothing conditional about it: he would definitely go to heaven.
      But the plain, simple reading of the text has nothing about conditional elements of salvation:
      For to me to live is Christ, and to die is gain. But if I live in the flesh, this is the fruit of my labour: yet what I shall choose I wot not. For I am in a strait betwixt two, having a desire to depart, and to be with Christ; which is far better: Nevertheless to abide in the flesh is more needful for you. And having this confidence, I know that I shall abide and continue with you all for your furtherance and joy of faith; That your rejoicing may be more abundant in Jesus Christ for me by my coming to you again.
      Paul wrote about "having this confidence" - he did not write about "hoping this is true".

      The same flaw exists in your discussion about Jesus's departure in Acts 1. While the angels do say He will return in the same way, that certainly does not preclude Him coming as 1 Thessalonians says He will.

      In 1 Thessalonians 4:16-17:
      For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first: Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord.
      There believers meet Him in the air, He is coming only with a voice of "the archangel". Then in Revelation 19:11-14:
      And I saw heaven opened, and behold a white horse; and he that sat upon him was called Faithful and True, and in righteousness he doth judge and make war. His eyes were as a flame of fire, and on his head were many crowns; and he had a name written, that no man knew, but he himself. And he was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood: and his name is called The Word of God. And the armies which were in heaven followed him upon white horses, clothed in fine linen, white and clean.
      The saints (in the Bibllical, not RCC meaning of saints) come with the Lord when He comes to the earth. You may say the "armies...clothed in fine linen, white and clean" are angels, but that would be ignoring Revelation 19:7-9:
      Let us be glad and rejoice, and give honour to him: for the marriage of the Lamb is come, and his wife hath made herself ready. And to her was granted that she should be arrayed in fine linen, clean and white: for the fine linen is the righteousness of saints. And he saith unto me, Write, Blessed [are] they which are called unto the marriage supper of the Lamb. And he saith unto me, These are the true sayings of God.
      Which clearly states who is clothed "in fine linen, clean and white: for the fine linen is the righteousness of saints".

      If you believe the millennium is "present and future" as you wrote, then you are claiming something is wrong with God's statement in Revelation 20:1-3
      And I saw an angel come down from heaven, having the key of the bottomless pit and a great chain in his hand. And he laid hold on the dragon, that old serpent, which is the Devil, and Satan, and bound him a thousand years, And cast him into the bottomless pit, and shut him up, and set a seal upon him, that he should deceive the nations no more, till the thousand years should be fulfilled: and after that he must be loosed a little season.
      Since Satan is supposed to be chained, bound, sealed, and shut up, his influence would clearly be minimized. Can you rationally say that in a world with rampant sin, rapidly passing and overtaking Sodom and Gomorrah's levels, that we are in a world wherein Satan is chained, bound, sealed, and shut up away from us?

      And about David's throne not being of this world, please explain how David ruled from a throne that was not of this world.
    196. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 0, Offtopic

      For to me to live is Christ, and to die is gain.

      Yet again, you're doing the "argument from silence" tactic to interpreting the Scriptures.

      No, not at all. It is you who is arguing from silence. I'm saying that Paul believes that he's saved, which is what the text says. You, on the other hand, are adding the idea that Paul supposedly believes that he will continue to be saved until he dies. Nowhere does Paul say this. Not only that, but Paul has often said the opposite, that we can lose our salvation.

      Here are some verses on this topic that I've already sent you. I'd like to see your response to them:

      Philippians 3:11-14

      If by any means I might attain unto the resurrection of the dead. Not as though I had already attained, either were already perfect: but I follow after, if that I may apprehend that for which also I am apprehended of Christ Jesus. Brethren, I count not myself to have apprehended: but this one thing I do, forgetting those things which are behind, and reaching forth unto those things which are before, I press toward the mark for the prize of the high calling of God in Christ Jesus.

      1 Corinthians 9:27
      But I keep under my body, and bring it into subjection: lest that by any means, when I have preached to others, I myself should be a castaway.

      1 Corinthians 10:12
      Wherefore let him that thinketh he standeth take heed lest he fall.

      Romans 11:22
      Behold therefore the goodness and severity of God: on them which fell, severity; but toward thee, goodness, if thou continue in his goodness: otherwise thou also shalt be cut off.

      Galatians 5:1
      Stand fast therefore in the liberty wherewith Christ hath made us free, and be not entangled again with the yoke of bondage.

      Galatians 6:9
      And let us not be weary in well doing: for in due season we shall reap, if we faint not.

      Hebrews 3:12-14
      Take heed, brethren, lest there be in any of you an evil heart of unbelief, in departing from the living God. But exhort one another daily, while it is called Today; lest any of you be hardened through the deceitfulness of sin. For we are made partakers of Christ, if we hold the beginning of our confidence stedfast unto the end.

      James 1:12,15-16
      Blessed is the man that endureth temptation: for when he is tried, he shall receive the crown of life, which the Lord hath promised to them that love him. ... Sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death. Do not err, my beloved brethren.

      The same flaw exists in your discussion about Jesus's departure in Acts 1. While the angels do say He will return in the same way, that certainly does not preclude Him coming as 1 Thessalonians says He will.

      Acts 1 and 1 Thes. 4 are clearly describing the same event. There's only one Second Coming of Jesus. In 1 Thess. 4:15, Paul says he's talking about "the coming of the Lord". He doesn't imply at all that it is but one of many comings, nor does the Bible do so elsewhere. What the Thessalonians were worried about was what would happen to those who were dead at the end of the world, when Jesus returns.

      The saints come with the Lord when He comes to the earth. You may say the "armies...clothed in fine linen, white and clean" are angels, but that would be ignoring Revelation 19:7-9 ... which clearly states who is clothed "in fine linen, clean and white: for the fine linen is the righteousness of saints".

      It says the Bride (the Church) is clothed with the righteousness of the saints (the Church's members). If you think that means the armies are made up solely of saints, that's fine with me. Now, the question is, where does it say that these saints mentioned here have been resurrected or raptured?

      If you believe the millennium is "present and future" as you wrote, then you are claiming something is wrong with God's statement in Revelation 20:1-3 ... Sinc

    197. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The verses you asked for comment on simply teach that we must be wary in our Christian walk, that we can slide into sin. Doing so by no means loses our salvation, but God's chastisement of us when we're in sin, well, hurts. Getting taken to the woodshed is necessary to teach us the lesson, and after it we are closer to God, but the process is not fun.

      About the parable of the tares and the wheat, all that illustrates is that there will always be tares until the end of the world. The fact that the church is raptured out before the tribulation doesn't mean that there won't be tares in among the believers who come to Christ after the rapture and before the tribulation.

      If you read the two letters to the church at Thessalonica, you will see that in the first letter the rapture or harpazo is discussed (1 Thes 4:17). In the second letter is the actual second coming of our Lord Jesus Christ. (2 Thes 1:10). Note that the word "harpazo" or "caught up" (Strong's 726) is NOT in the 2nd letter. The two letters in those areas refer to two different events. He is coming only as far as the clouds, not to earth, to take His saints from the church age.

      The OT talked of the advent of Christ in two roles: ruling with a rod of iron (Psa 2:9, Isa 32, Isa 40, Eze 20), and as a suffering servant (Isa 53, Psa 22). Therefore the Jews who could not reconcile the two roles never realized this was Messiah coming twice, once to save mankind, once to judge were spiritually blind to the truth in the scripture

      In the same way, the Holy Spirit (who is author of all the Bible) in the new testament uses the same structures extensively. So there will be two comings in the NT as well. The rapture is referred to in John 14:1-3; Romans 8:19; 1 Cor 1:7-8, 15:1-53, and 16:22; Phillipians 3:20-21; Collossians 3:4; 1 Thessalonians 1:10, 2:19, 4:13-18; 5:9, and 5:23; 1 Timothy 6:14; 2 Timothy 4:1; Titus 2:13; Hebrews 9:28; James 5:7-9; 1 Peter 1:7, 1:13; 1 John 2:28-3:2; Jude 21, Revelation 2:25 and 3:10. The Second Coming is in Daniel 2:44-45, 7:9-14, 12:1-3; Zech 14:1-15; Matthew 13:41, 24:15-31, 26:64; Mark 13:14-27, 14:62; Luke 21:25-28; Acts 1:9-11, 3:19-21; 2 Thessalonians 2:8; 2 Peter 3:1-14; Jude 14-15; Revelation 1:7, 19_11-20:6, 22_7, 12, 20. Pray for extra discernment as you read those passages, and see that they are talking about two separate events.

      Bottom line here Pall, is that we are commanded to judge by fruits (Matthew 7:16 and 7:20). The fruits of the RCC are things like the slaughter of up to 100,000 souls in one town in one day (Beziers, France). And like the scandal of over a thousand children molested by sexual pervert priests who were shielded and knowingly allowed to continue their abuse by the Roman Catholic Church. A THOUSAND IN ONE CITY!!! (That Boston Herald link may not work in a few days, I have not studied their archiving techniques). Those fruits are awfully rotten. Biblical Christianity, which is distinctly different than the RCC teachings, has no such fruits. And before you go off about protestants, they are closer to the RCC than to the Bible. Luther, the leader of the "reformation", never understood the book of Revelation, and called it worthless. Non-denominational, biblical Christians are unrelated to the protestants and to the RCC. As the Bible says will happen in the last days, there will be a growth toward a one-world government (ever heard of the "New World Order"?) and toward a one-world religion (ecumenism). The current pope has been pushing toward the latter pretty hard, with things like getting the mark of Shiva, saying Buddhism is a religion of salvation, kissing the Quran, holding that all religions lead to salvation.

    198. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      You claim that
      Mary was saved at her conception, but she was saved nonetheless.
      Saved from what? Unless she was a sinner, she didn't need a Saviour. Yet she clearly knew when she called God her Saviour that she needed one, hence she knew she had sinned (Luke 1:47).

      And while we're on that topic (well I am, you can ignore this point as you have several others), in Luke 1:28 Mary is called "blessed art thou among women" which the RCC uses to raise Mary above all humanity. Yet the word "blessed" there is the same word (Strongs 2127) as in Galatians 3:9 "So then they which be of faith are blessed with faithful Abraham." So Mary is told she is blessed with the same word as any believer is told they are. Not like the RCC says.

      And in Judges 5:24 "Blessed above women shall Jael the wife of Heber the Kenite be". Note that Jael is not blessed "among" but "above" women. So she should outrank Mary. Yet the RCC has, to all appearances, pretty much ignored Jael.

      Pall, go read Revelation 2 and 3, and observe the history of the church in the progression of the seven churches. Study it carefully, and you'll see how prophetic it is.

      You repeatedly claim that the women on the beast is the city of Jerusalem riding on Rome. Yet Revelation 17:18 disproves that: "And the woman which thou sawest is that great city, which reigneth over the kings of the earth." The woman is on seven hills, the woman has committed spiritual fornication with the kings of the earth (why has the RCC never excommunicated two of its more famous members - Benito Mussolini and Adolph Hitler? Because it had concordats with both, surely that is offensive to God!!!). The woman is unmistakably the RCC, and I pray you will follow the commandment of the Lord Jesus Christ Himself in Revelation 18:4 "And I heard another voice from heaven, saying, Come out of her, my people, that ye be not partakers of her sins, and that ye receive not of her plagues."
    199. Re: Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      There were no popes in the Bible.

      There was Peter. The fact is that Jesus put the government of the Church in Peter's care (Matt. 16:18-19, John 21:15-17).

      Priests weren't celibate

      Paul was (1 Corinthians 7:7-9). And Jesus and Paul encouraged celibacy, Paul explicitly mentioning that it helps one to concentrate on God (Matthew 19:12, 1 Corinthians 7:32-33)

      didn't forgive anyone's sins.

      John 20:22-23
      And when he had said this, he breathed on them, and saith unto them, "Receive ye the Holy Ghost: Whose soever sins ye remit, they are remitted unto them; and whose soever sins ye retain, they are retained."

      There was no mass.

      Matthew 26:26-28
      And as they were eating, Jesus took bread, and blessed it, and brake it, and gave it to the disciples, and said, Take, eat; this is my body. And he took the cup, and gave thanks, and gave it to them, saying, Drink ye all of it; For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.

      1 Corinthians 11:26-30
      For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the Lord's death till he come. Wherefore whosoever shall eat this bread, and drink this cup of the Lord, unworthily, shall be guilty of the body and blood of the Lord. But let a man examine himself, and so let him eat of that bread, and drink of that cup. For he that eateth and drinketh unworthily, eateth and drinketh damnation to himself, not discerning the Lord's body. For this cause many are weak and sickly among you, and many sleep.

      Acts 2:42
      And they continued stedfastly in the apostles' doctrine and fellowship, and in breaking of bread, and in prayers.

    200. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 0, Offtopic
      The verses you asked for comment on simply teach that we must be wary in our Christian walk, that we can slide into sin. Doing so by no means loses our salvation, but God's chastisement of us when we're in sin, well, hurts. Getting taken to the woodshed is necessary to teach us the lesson, and after it we are closer to God, but the process is not fun.

      Okay, let's take a look at them one by one, and see if they can be interpreted in this way.

      Philippians 3:11-14

      If by any means I might attain unto the resurrection of the dead. Not as though I had already attained, either were already perfect: but I follow after, if that I may apprehend that for which also I am apprehended of Christ Jesus. Brethren, I count not myself to have apprehended: but this one thing I do, forgetting those things which are behind, and reaching forth unto those things which are before, I press toward the mark for the prize of the high calling of God in Christ Jesus.

      Here he's talking about whether or not he will "attain unto the resurrection of the dead". So your interpretation doesn't fit.

      1 Corinthians 9:27

      But I keep under my body, and bring it into subjection: lest that by any means, when I have preached to others, I myself should be a castaway.

      Here he's talking about whether or not he will be a "castaway", rejected by God. So your interpretation doesn't fit.

      1 Corinthians 10:12

      Wherefore let him that thinketh he standeth take heed lest he fall.

      Have a look at what comes before this.

      1 Corinthians 10:1-6
      Moreover, brethren, I would not that ye should be ignorant, how that all our fathers were under the cloud, and all passed through the sea; and were all baptized unto Moses in the cloud and in the sea; and did all eat the same spiritual meat; and did all drink the same spiritual drink: for they drank of that spiritual Rock that followed them: and that Rock was Christ. But with many of them God was not well pleased: for they were overthrown in the wilderness. ["Because the Lord was not able to bring this people into the land which he sware unto them, therefore he hath slain them in the wilderness." (Numbers 14:16)] Now these things were our examples, to the intent we should not lust after evil things, as they also lusted.

      So these things are an example for us, showing that those who are saved can spiritually die; just as the Israelites sinned and thus died. They had been saved from slavery, and were supposed to go to the Promised Land, but they didn't because they had sinned.

      1 Corinthians 10:7-11
      Neither be ye idolaters, as were some of them; as it is written, "The people sat down to eat and drink, and rose up to play." Neither let us commit fornication, as some of them committed, and fell in one day three and twenty thousand. Neither let us tempt Christ, as some of them also tempted, and were destroyed of serpents. Neither murmur ye, as some of them also murmured, and were destroyed of the destroyer. Now all these things happened unto them for examples: and they are written for our admonition, upon whom the ends of the world are come.

      These are more examples for us, showing that sin results in spiritual death. So now we have finally come to the verse I had quoted earlier: "Wherefore let him that thinketh he standeth take heed lest he fall." Paul's whole point here is that we can lose our salvation if we sin. This danger is always there, which is why we must "take heed" lest we fall.

      Romans 11:22

      Behold therefore the goodness and severity of God: on them which fell, severity; but toward thee, goodness, if thou continue in his goodness: otherwise thou also shalt be cut off.

      Here is the context of the above verse:

      Romans 11:16-24
      If the root be holy, so are the branches. And if some of the branches be broken off, and thou, being a wild olive tree, w

    201. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      Your assert that

      Mary was conceived without sin, through the grace of God. Thus, she was saved from sin. Without God's intervention, she would have been in a state of sin, but God saved her from ever being in that state.

      Our Lord Jesus Christ was of course born without sin as he was the seed of the woman, and did not inherit Adam's sin nature. You (and the RCC which you defend so vigorously) state that Mary was also born without sin, but from the seed of Adam. Yet if that were true, then there is a way for Adam's race to be born without sin; then Jesus died for nothing, according to the RCC interpretations.

      In the gospels, he asks, as in Matthew 26:39

      O my Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me: nevertheless not as I will, but as thou wilt

      He asked the Father that if there were any other way to redeem Adam's race, that the cup (of having all of your sin, my sin, the world's sin put upon Him) pass from Him. Yet, according to God's holy word, there was no other way, Jesus had to die for our sins. To claim that He died in vain is so reprehensible that perhaps now you can see why Bible-believing Christians are so angered by the positions and teachings of the RCC. You've proved my original assertion for me: the RCC is not only non-biblical, not only extra-biblical, but anti-biblical. And by the definitions of John in his epistles, that is equated to anti-Christ.

      You then claim that the word (Strong's 5487) translated "thou that art highly favoured" means "full of grace". Yet even Thayer's lexicon says it's:

      to make graceful i.e. charming, lovely, agreeable

      And look at the other use of the word, in Ephesians 1:6

      To the praise of the glory of his grace, wherein

      he hath made us accepted in the beloved.

      That context surely does not carry the meaning you and the RCC are trying to force upon the humble "handmaid of the Lord" Mary. What you're trying to produce is the Queen of Heaven version you call Mary, only you need to re-read Jeremiah 7 and 44 to see what God thinks of the Queen of Heaven.

      Further, though we have already discussed Mary's humble admission of her need for a Saviour

      my spirit hath rejoiced in God my Saviour

      You assert that this is Mary thanking God for saving her at conception, that she was sinless from birth to assumption by RCC doctrine. Yet if she were sinless, why in Luke 2:22-24 was it necessary for her to be purified and for her to offer a sacrifice? Sinless beings don't offer sacrifices. She was doing it based on Leviticus 12, see particularly verse 8:

      And if she be not able to bring a lamb, then she shall bring two turtles, or two young pigeons; the one for the burnt offering, and the other for a sin offering: and the priest shall make an atonement for her, and she shall be clean.

      If Mary were sinless, why did she make a sin offering? This is yet another case of the RCC not spending enough time studying the Jewishness of the scriptures; our Lord Jesus Christ was Jewish, lest you forget that. Gentiles are only grafted in based on the unmerited favor or grace of God.

      Please read Revelation 17 again; you keep glossing over the key points. From 17:1-2

      I will shew unto thee the judgment of the great whore that sitteth upon many waters: With whom the kings of the earth have committed fornication, and the inhabitants of the earth have been made drunk with the wine of her fornication.

      From 17:6

      And I saw the woman drunken with the blood of the saints, and with the blood of the martyrs of Jesus

      From 17:9

      The seven heads are seven mountains, on which the woman sitteth

      From 17:15

      The waters which thou sawest, where the whore sitteth, are peoples, and multitudes, and nations, and tongues.

    202. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      And my apologies for being incorrect about the excommunication of Mussolini and Hitler; indeed the Mit brennender Sorge (With Burning Anxiety) was a very positive and worthwhile document (though I don't read German and am relying on others' interpretations for that conclusion).

      However the excommunications you cite for the two dictators appears to have been the form known as "minor" excommunication, whereby, as you stated, their actions caused them "to automatically incur excommunication, and both of these men did so".

      There are two further levels that were not used with them; the major excommunication, apparently a formal proceeding with the pope declaring the sentence. Beyond that is anathema, used for the gravest offenses (which certainly both men were guilty of without a shadow of doubt), and is done with great formality:
      the pontiff is vested in amice, stole, and a violet cope, wearing his mitre, and assisted by twelve priests clad in their surplices and holding lighted candles. He takes his seat in front of the altar or in some other suitable place, amid pronounces the formula of anathema which ends with these words:

      Wherefore in the name of God the All-powerful, Father, Son, and Holy Ghost, of the Blessed Peter, Prince of the Apostles, and of all the saints, in virtue of the power which has been given us of binding and loosing in Heaven and on earth, we deprive XXXXX himself and all his accomplices and all his abettors of the Communion of the Body and Blood of Our Lord, we separate him from the society of all Christians, we exclude him from the bosom of our Holy Mother the Church in Heaven and on earth, we declare him excommunicated and anathematized and we judge him condemned to eternal fire with Satan and his angels and all the reprobate, so long as he will not burst the fetters of the demon, do penance and satisfy the Church; we deliver him to Satan to mortify his body, that his soul may be saved on the day of judgment.
      From what you say, neither major excommunication nor anathema was pronounced upon either Mussolini or Hitler. So while I was technically incorrect that they were indeed sort of pro forma excommunicated, the more formal and severe forms were not used on them.

      If they did not deserve the most severe censure, one must ask why not.
    203. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 0

      Thank you Pall, you have made my point for me. The Roman Catholic Church teaches, as you have just ably illustrated, that believers are in perpetual jeopardy of losing salvation, unless they perform properly.

      No, what I have illustrated is that the Bible teaches this. Why don't you accept what the Bible teaches?

      This is best summarized as "works salvation".

      No, works salvation means that one can be saved through our own efforts. This is false. We actually gain salvation only through the free gift of God's grace. What I'm talking about (losing salvation) can happen only after we have already received the grace of salvation. It is a rejection of the gift God has given us.

      Did Adam work for his salvation? No, he was created "saved" as a gift from God. But did Adam reject God's gift? Yes, he sinned and thus lost his salvation.

      Biblical Christianity, in direct contrast to the RCC and many Protestant denominations, teaches eternal security. We can screw up (who doesn't?) and lose some rewards, and get chastised; but once saved, always saved.

      In that case, please show me the correct way to interpret all those verses I sent you. The last explanation you gave me didn't apply to any of them.

      See we Biblical Christians believe the simple, direct teaching of our Lord, as in John 10:25-29

      Jesus answered them, I told you, and ye believed not: the works that I do in my Father's name, they bear witness of me. But ye believe not, because ye are not of my sheep, as I said unto you. My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me: And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand. My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father's hand.

      Here Jesus clearly states that he will give believers eternal life, and that we shall never perish and that we cannot be plucked out of His Father's hand.


      He gives us eternal life, and we can live our eternal life in heaven if we persevere in His grace to the end. We cannot be plucked out of God's hand by anyone else, but we can freely decide to leave God's hand. God respects our free will.

      As for the idea that works are required for salvation, as you have so convincingly shown the Roman Catholic Church teaches

      I have not shown this, nor does the Catholic Church teach it.

      Read Ephesians 2, not a verse out of context, but an entire chapter:

      I agree with all of that.

      Anyone who has accepted the free gift of Jesus is of the household of God; He does not throw us out of the house for being what we are, inherently sinful.

      First, He does not throw us out, we leave of our own free will. And if we repent, we can return to Him. Second, once we are saved, we are not doomed to sin whether we like it or not. We do have concupiscence and temptations to deal with, but God gives us sufficient grace to overcome them and avoid sin. If we sin, we have only ourselves to blame. It is not inevitable that we will sin, and to say otherwise is to deny the sufficiency of God's grace.

      I am indeed quite grateful for the good works of the RCC, but if you're going to cite them, you have to accept the bad as well.

      I find it somewhat amusing to hear this coming from you. Did you cite any good along with the bad? In any case, as I pointed out, the fruits that the Bible are talking about are those that flow from erroneous doctrines, and not from the sins of individuals who decide to ignore correct doctrine.

      And saying that Poland was the cause of the collapse of the USSR is a bit off base, even Gorby says it was the financial ruin they were facing as Reagan was getting SDI going. Socialism can't outperform Capitalism, and that's what failed them. Of course open information (through faxes and laser print

    204. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      Why haven't you answered the simple question about how Mary could possibly be sinless when she submitted a sin offering on the eighth day? Do you want the question repeated?

      I realize you are not going to listen to why Once Saved, Always Saved is the true reading of Scripture based on our discussions here. So I'll suggest a book for you that you'll probably ignore, since your priest will tell you not to read it. See here for a great resource.

      And then you claim that
      Muslims intend to worship the same God as we do (I believe their explicit intention is to worship the God of Abraham)
      Amazing. Just amazing. Muslims believe their allah is a vengeful, arbitrary, and capricious god, and that only by killing infidels can they be guaranteed heaven. Which to them is a group of virgins, seventy I think. Note that women don't an equivalent offer. While they may mention Abraham, they diverge there. Jews and Christians worship the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. The allah is Abraham and Ishmael. In the hadith, which is sort of their equivalent of RCC tradition except that it's written, they have many passages about killing Christians and Jews. Advocating slaughter of innocents is not something done by the God I worship, and there's no way Muslims are worshipping Him.
    205. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1

      A formal excommunication is not meant to be used for "politically correct" purposes, to distance oneself from someone we find distasteful. It is meant as a warning to Christians who have left the faith, in the hope that they will reconsider and return to the Church (like the sentiment expressed in 2 Thessalonians 3:14-15). This presupposes that the person in question would have some interest in belonging to the Church in the first place. Hitler and Mussolini had no interest in belonging to the Church (they were, in fact, enemies of the Church for quite a long time). They weren't even Christians. So a formal excommunication would be pointless.

    206. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 0, Offtopic

      Your assert that "Mary was conceived without sin, through the grace of God. Thus, she was saved from sin. Without God's intervention, she would have been in a state of sin, but God saved her from ever being in that state."

      Our Lord Jesus Christ was of course born without sin as he was the seed of the woman, and did not inherit Adam's sin nature.


      Jesus was born without sin because He is God. It has nothing to do with His being the seed of a woman. On the other hand, the entire universe was affected by Adam's fall, and yet the universe isn't descended from Adam:

      Romans 8:20-22
      For the creature was made subject to vanity, not willingly, but by reason of him who hath subjected the same in hope, because the creature itself also shall be delivered from the bondage of corruption into the glorious liberty of the children of God. For we know that the whole creation groaneth and travaileth in pain together until now.

      You (and the RCC which you defend so vigorously) state that Mary was also born without sin, but from the seed of Adam. Yet if that were true, then there is a way for Adam's race to be born without sin;

      Yes, through the grace of God. Mary was saved just like anyone else: through God's grace. The only difference between Mary and the rest of us with regard to being saved is that Mary was saved at her conception, and while the rest of us are saved later on.

      then Jesus died for nothing, according to the RCC interpretations.

      It is only because Jesus died that Mary could be saved, whether at her conception or at any other time. Without Christ's sacrifice, Mary (and everyone else) would die in a state of sin and be damned.

      In the gospels, he asks, as in Matthew 26:39

      O my Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me: nevertheless not as I will, but as thou wilt

      He asked the Father that if there were any other way to redeem Adam's race, that the cup (of having all of your sin, my sin, the world's sin put upon Him) pass from Him. Yet, according to God's holy word, there was no other way, Jesus had to die for our sins.


      Exactly. Thus, Mary was saved through Christ's sacrifice.

      And by the definitions of John in his epistles, that [being anti-Biblical] is equated to anti-Christ.

      Being anti-Biblical is certainly not a good thing. But what you say here about John's definitions of the Antichrist isn't true. John describes the Antichrist as someone who denies that Jesus is the Messiah or that Christ has a human nature:

      1 John 2:22-23
      Who is a liar but he that denieth that Jesus is the Christ? He is antichrist, that denieth the Father and the Son. Whosoever denieth the Son, the same hath not the Father: he that acknowledgeth the Son hath the Father also.

      1 John 4:3
      And every spirit that confesseth not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is not of God: and this is that spirit of antichrist...

      2 John 1:7
      For many deceivers are entered into the world, who confess not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh. This is a deceiver and an antichrist.

      You then claim that the word (Strong's 5487) translated "thou that art highly favoured" means "full of grace". Yet even Thayer's lexicon says it's:

      to make graceful i.e. charming, lovely, agreeable


      What makes us agreeable to God is grace.

      The definition you offered above is Thayer's first definition of "charitoo". The second definition offers another possible translation of the word as it is used in Lk. 1:28: "endued with grace".

      And look at the other use of the word, in Ephesians 1:6

      To the praise of the glory of his grace, wherein he hath made us accepted in the beloved.

      That context surely does not carry the meaning you and the RCC are trying to force upon the humble "handmaid of the Lord" Mary.


      As you say, the context is different. But both cases refer to a giving of grace by God.

      As

    207. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 0, Offtopic
      Why haven't you answered the simple question about how Mary could possibly be sinless when she submitted a sin offering on the eighth day?

      I just did so here.

      I realize you are not going to listen to why Once Saved, Always Saved is the true reading of Scripture based on our discussions here.

      Well, maybe it would help if you actually offered me some sort of argument in defense of your position.

      Here are the verses I sent you. Please respond to each one individually, showing me how they agree with your doctrine of "Once Saved, Always Saved".
      Philippians 3:11-14
      If by any means I might attain unto the resurrection of the dead. Not as though I had already attained, either were already perfect: but I follow after, if that I may apprehend that for which also I am apprehended of Christ Jesus. Brethren, I count not myself to have apprehended: but this one thing I do, forgetting those things which are behind, and reaching forth unto those things which are before, I press toward the mark for the prize of the high calling of God in Christ Jesus.

      1 Corinthians 9:27
      But I keep under my body, and bring it into subjection: lest that by any means, when I have preached to others, I myself should be a castaway.

      1 Corinthians 10:12
      Wherefore let him that thinketh he standeth take heed lest he fall.

      Romans 11:22
      Behold therefore the goodness and severity of God: on them which fell, severity; but toward thee, goodness, if thou continue in his goodness: otherwise thou also shalt be cut off.

      Galatians 5:1
      Stand fast therefore in the liberty wherewith Christ hath made us free, and be not entangled again with the yoke of bondage.

      Galatians 6:9
      And let us not be weary in well doing: for in due season we shall reap, if we faint not.

      Hebrews 3:12-14
      Take heed, brethren, lest there be in any of you an evil heart of unbelief, in departing from the living God. But exhort one another daily, while it is called Today; lest any of you be hardened through the deceitfulness of sin. For we are made partakers of Christ, if we hold the beginning of our confidence stedfast unto the end.

      James 1:12,15-16
      Blessed is the man that endureth temptation: for when he is tried, he shall receive the crown of life, which the Lord hath promised to them that love him. ... Sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death. Do not err, my beloved brethren.

      And then you claim that

      Muslims intend to worship the same God as we do (I believe their explicit intention is to worship the God of Abraham)

      Amazing. Just amazing. Muslims believe their allah is a vengeful, arbitrary, and capricious god, and that only by killing infidels can they be guaranteed heaven.


      Indeed, the Muslims are very wrong in how they see God, but then again so are the Jews. God is actually a Trinity, and neither the Muslims nor the Jews acknowledge this. Anyway, my point was that the intention of the Muslims is to worship the same God as we do. God calls them to worship Him, but they are ignorant of some of the truth, and so they respond to His grace in the best way they know how.

      God calls everyone to become members of His Church, the Catholic Church. You presumably don't realize this yet. Assuming that you act in good faith, and are actually trying to seek the truth and do what He wants you to do, then you can be saved despite not formally being a Catholic, since God understands that you have limitations due to your upbringing, etc. However, once you realize that God wants you to join the Church, then you must do so, since that is what you now know God wants you to do for your salvation.
    208. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      You claim that both muslims and Jews see God incorrectly, implying they are equally in error. Yet the Koran lists 99 attributes of Allah; none of them involve love.

      Other than not seeing the trinitarian nature of God, the Jews clearly do worship the same God the Father as in the Bible. Yes they miss things like the conversation between the persons of the trinity in Psalm 2 (Psalm 1 in the Hebrew texts I think). Just because they don't have enlightenment, at least the Tanach has the real God in it; and yes they miss things like the grammatically unnecessary Aleph-Tov in Zechariah 12:10 which points to the Alpha and Omega. But remember Jesus Himself is a Jew; so be careful when you equate muslims and Jews.

      And no, God is not calling me to be a member of a pagan-derived, nicolaitan church whose head kisses the Koran and who worships Mary and has idols galore and who portrays Satan's transitory moment of triumph by using crucifixes instead of the empty cross. But He is calling members of that "church" to "come out of her".

      Philippians 3:11-14, you did not include verses 9 and 10:

      And be found in him, not having mine own righteousness, which is of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith: That I may know him, and the power of his resurrection, and the fellowship of his sufferings, being made conformable unto his death;

      (Phi 3:9-10)

      Clearly Paul is saying here that he has no inherent righteousness through any behavior or works, rather the only righteousness he has is from faith in Christ. He then, in the verses you extracted, states that he is always seeking improvement. However put in more full context, this makes the point against any of our works having anything to do with righteousness, since the only righteousness we have is in Christ, and His is perfect.

      1 Corinthians 9:27: In context, it means that Paul is being temperate in all things so that he does not mislead any new converts or nearly converted astray by his actions. If you read all of the chapter, he is talking about why he does not take money for his preaching even though he could do so based on scripture. There's no way that he's talking about losing salvation in this verse.

      1 Corinthians 10:12: You have to put this in context with

      All things are lawful for me, but all things are not expedient: all things are lawful for me, but all things edify not. (1 Cor 10:23)

      Again, nothing about losing salvation there.

      Romans 11:22: Again, context. See 11:20 "Well; because of unbelief they were broken off, and thou standest by faith.". Biblical Christians stand by faith, we are not cut out. Even if we grant your point for the sake of discussion here, Romans 11 is talking about how Gentiles should be grateful for being grafted into the tree which is rightly Israel's; and that if we start getting anti-Semitic we are showing that we did not understand things correctly and may have never been saved in the first part. That is not good news for many popes who were so clearly anti-semitic (such as the ones who ordered crusaders to slaughter the Jews along the way).

      Galatians 5:1: That verse by itself speaks for the OSAS side, not the RCC side. Getting yoked with bondage is falling back into the law, and away from the easy yoke that Christ gives us (Matthew 11:30). Indeed this chapter speaks eloquently of those who think they must be justified by actions rather than by faith, and as such is a warning to RCC believers who think their actions are worth something (Isa 64:6 "But we are all as an unclean thing, and all our righteousnesses are as filthy rags").

      Galatians 6:9: Context, context, context.

      Be not deceived; God is not mocked: for whatsoever a man soweth, that shall he also reap. For he that soweth to his flesh shall of the flesh reap corruption; but he that soweth to the Spirit shall of the Spirit reap life everlasting.

      (Gal 6:7-8)

    209. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You correctly point out that Jesus was baptized only because it was to fulfill all righteousness (Matthew 3:15). But note the verse before that, Jesus is challenged, to the point that John the Baptist "forbad him" (Matthew 3:14), since it was clear that Jesus was without sin. Even Pontius Pilate knew Jesus was sinless (Luke 23:4, John 18:38). Yet no one, anywhere in the Bible, calls Mary sinless or without fault. In fact she knows she needs a Saviour, as she cites in the magnificat.

      You citations of the OT all have one common element: whoever was applying the sacrifices, and the person (not thing) on whose behalf the sacrifice was made, were all sinners. You maintain Mary was sinless. Since after the Fall no one was sinless, your OT citations fall down on that point. Note also that no one told her not to make a sin offering, or to offer only one of the turtledoves and not the one for the sin offering.

      Making a sin offering when there is no sin would be denying God's power to have created her without sin; that would be blasphemy and a sin. I think Joseph Heller refers to that kind of situation as a Catch-22.

      In Revelation, the phrase referring to the RCC says she is "drunken with the blood of the saints, and with the blood of the martyrs of Jesus". Since there is clear proof of the RCC having a vast amount more blood of martyrs on its hands than the Jews or the Protestants or the Roman Empire, only one entity can fit as having spilled so much blood that she is drunken on it. I know you don't like that point, but the history books are clear about it. Go to Beziers, France some day - they have a tourist industry built up around the slaughter that happened there one afternoon on the pope's orders. Estimates of the dead range up to 100,000 men, women, children, and infants. Why do I keep bringing that up? Because you keep denying the RCC has so much blood on its hands. I'd be glad to drop the point if you would admit the magnitude of the RCC's bloodthirstiness. I doubt you will, because that would lead to admitting who the woman on the beast is in Revelation.

    210. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Hi, I'm another anonymous coward besides the one you've been conversing with, but I have a quesiton..

      these have been interesting conversations to read. I have this question pressing on my mind. The Bible nowhere indicates the lofty position that the RCC places Mary in.

      Justification by grace through faith, and not by works, is taught with amazing clarity in the Bible, hundreds of verses can be found to prove this position beyond question. Yet, I fail to have seen a single verse that would make us think that Mary was anything other than a normal woman, blessed by God to be the mother of our Messiah.

      I have to say, that I find it an amazing stretch based on extra-biblical opinions to say that Mary did not have further children:
      "Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not wanting to make her a public example, was minded to put her away secretly. But while he thought about these things, behold, an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream, saying, 'Joseph, son of David, do not be afraid to take to you Mary your wife, for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Spirit...'" Matthew 1:19-20
      And further down, "Then Joseph, being aroused from sleep, did as the angel of the Lord commanded him and took to him his wife, and did not know her till she had brought forth her firstborn Son. And he called His name Jesus." (vs 24-25)

      Now I cannot see how anyone could possibly read that and say that Joseph did not have sex with Mary ever. It would be no wife if he could not do that which God put in us. And this is easy to prove. The disciples when Jesus told them that they shouldn't divorce said it is better then that a man not get married. Jesus said that it was true, but not all could accept this. Paul explains too again that he thinks it is good that a man stays single, but it is better to marry than to burn with passion. It is absurd for any of us to believe, in any age, or in any culture, that Joseph would want or that God would command him to take Mary as a "wife" if they were unable to have sex. Perhaps you have a good reason to explain these things, but from where I sit it seems your teachings reach far beyond the Scripture, common sense, or anything we have ever known about the nature of a relationship between a man and woman bonded through marriage.

      There is one more thing though, under no reading in English could "Then Joseph, being aroused from sleep, did as the angel of the Lord commanded him and took to him his wife, and did not know her till she had brought forth her firstborn Son" be interpreted as "he never knew her". The portion "did not know her till she had" says beyond doubt that after her firstborn Son they knew each other. Again, why would they say her "firstborn"? Every single phrase and word in that verse suggests so very strongly that they did know each other after Jesus was born. I think I could show that verse to every english speaking person on earth, and not a single one would say that it meant "he never knew her" (excepting, of course, Roman Catholics who have been told he didn't). How do you explain this problem?

      I just don't understand on what grounds you relegate Mary to such an esteemed position, which seems dangerous blasphemy.

    211. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      Hi, I'm another anonymous coward besides the one you've been conversing with, but I have a quesiton..

      Hi there.

      these have been interesting conversations to read. I have this question pressing on my mind. The Bible nowhere indicates the lofty position that the RCC places Mary in.

      There's lots of different reasons for our view of Mary. For instance, concerning the efficacy of her prayers for us: have a look at the wedding at Cana (John 2:1-10). Jesus was not going to help the people there with their wine problem, because His time had not yet come. And yet, despite this, Mary was able to get Jesus to help them...

      Have a look at this page for more background on this.

      Justification by grace through faith, and not by works, is taught with amazing clarity in the Bible, hundreds of verses can be found to prove this position beyond question. Yet, I fail to have seen a single verse that would make us think that Mary was anything other than a normal woman, blessed by God to be the mother of our Messiah.

      There isn't any Biblical verse that clearly states that God is a Trinity, but we believe it nonetheless.

      I have to say, that I find it an amazing stretch based on extra-biblical opinions to say that Mary did not have further children:

      First of all, it's not a matter of "opinion" at all, but of historical fact. The Bible isn't a book of fiction; it tells us about things that actually happened in the real world. The early Christians knew very well that Mary had no other children, and they didn't need the Bible to tell them this.

      Second, where does the Bible say that it contains all truth?

      But, as it turns out, the Bible does tell us that Mary and Joseph were not planning to ever have sex. We can see this from the first chapter of Luke.

      Luke 1:30-33

      And the angel said unto her, "Fear not, Mary: for thou hast found favour with God. And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name JESUS. He shall be great, and shall be called the Son of the Highest: and the Lord God shall give unto him the throne of his father David: And he shall reign over the house of Jacob for ever; and of his kingdom there shall be no end."

      If Mary intended to have a normal marriage, including sexual intercourse, one would have expected her to react in the following manner: "How wonderful! Joseph and I will be the parents of the Messiah!" But instead, what she said is:

      Luke 1:34

      How shall this be, seeing I know not a man?

      If Mary had intended to have sexual intercourse with Joseph, what she says here makes no sense at all. Thus, she intended to remain a virgin even in marriage.

      "Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not wanting to make her a public example, was minded to put her away secretly. But while he thought about these things, behold, an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream, saying, 'Joseph, son of David, do not be afraid to take to you Mary your wife, for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Spirit...'"

      How does the fact that Joseph thought Mary was a loose woman imply that he will eventually have sex with her?

      It would be no wife if he could not do that which God put in us.

      Among the Jews in that time, people were already considered husband and wife while they were engaged (i.e. before they even had sex with each other). So in Mary and Joseph's case, it would merely be a life-long extension of that state. It is not the most common form of marriage, of course, but it's not completely unknown. Gandhi, for instance, lived with his wife without sex for the last several decades of their married life.

      The disciples when Jesus told them that they shouldn't divorce said it is better then that a man not get married. Jesus said that it

    212. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1

      You correctly point out that Jesus was baptized only because it was to fulfill all righteousness (Matthew 3:15). But note the verse before that, Jesus is challenged, to the point that John the Baptist "forbad him" (Matthew 3:14), since it was clear that Jesus was without sin.

      Right. So we see from this that receiving something that is meant for sinners does not mean that the recipient is a sinner.

      Yet no one, anywhere in the Bible, calls Mary sinless or without fault.

      Nowhere in the Bible does it say that all truth is found in the Bible.

      In fact she knows she needs a Saviour, as she cites in the magnificat.

      She doesn't say she needs a Savior, she says she has a Savior.

      Luke 1:47
      "And my spirit hath rejoiced in God my Saviour."

      You citations of the OT all have one common element: whoever was applying the sacrifices, and the person (not thing) on whose behalf the sacrifice was made, were all sinners.

      What you are ignoring is that, in all the cases I cited, what was being cleansed was ceremonial impurity, not sin. Also, in one case, a sin offering was used to cleanse an altar, which cannot be tainted with sin. Thus, the use of a sin offering does not imply sin in the one cleansed.

      You maintain Mary was sinless. Since after the Fall no one was sinless,

      After the Fall, two people were sinless: Jesus and His mother Mary. Jesus is sinless because He is God, and Mary because God gave her the grace to be sinless.

      Note also that no one told her not to make a sin offering, or to offer only one of the turtledoves and not the one for the sin offering.

      As I said, it was the Law. Why would anyone suggest to her that she break the Law?

      Making a sin offering when there is no sin would be denying God's power to have created her without sin; that would be blasphemy and a sin.

      No, not at all. And, as I've already shown, a sin offering does not imply the presence of sin in the one cleansed.

      Does the fact that Jesus received a baptism of repentance when He had nothing to repent mean that He denied His own sinlessness, and therefore sinned?

      Go to Beziers, France some day - they have a tourist industry built up around the slaughter that happened there one afternoon on the pope's orders.

      The Pope never ordered this. Either produce the document in which he did order this, or apologize.

    213. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      You claim that both muslims and Jews see God incorrectly, implying they are equally in error.

      No, I obviously did not imply they are equally in error. But the Jews clearly have a false idea of God.

      And no, God is not calling me to be a member of a pagan-derived, nicolaitan church whose head kisses the Koran and who worships Mary and has idols galore and who portrays Satan's transitory moment of triumph by using crucifixes instead of the empty cross.

      Hmmm, lots of little attacks here. No, we're not pagan-derived, we don't worship Mary, we don't have idols, etc.

      The Nicolaitans were a sect based on unrestrained indulgence. I don't see how this has anything to do with Catholicism.

      As for depicting Christ on the cross, why do you have a problem with that? "We preach Christ crucified, unto the Jews a stumblingblock, and unto the Greeks foolishness." (1 Corinthians 1:23) It is through His death on the cross that we can be saved. An empty cross doesn't necessarily represent a resurrected Christ - after all, the cross was empty right after He was taken down from it, and He was dead then. A cross with Christ on it, on the other hand, is a visual reminder of the fact that He loved us enough to give up His life for us, and thus obtain for us salvation.

      Anyway, let's look at things objectively. The Church in the Bible is described as having certain sacraments. The Catholic Church has them. Does your church? Here are two I've already mentioned:

      The confession of sins:

      John 20:22-23

      And when he had said this, he breathed on them, and saith unto them, "Receive ye the Holy Ghost: Whose soever sins ye remit, they are remitted unto them; and whose soever sins ye retain, they are retained."

      The Eucharist, which is the Body and Blood of Christ:

      Mark 14:22-24

      And as they did eat, Jesus took bread, and blessed, and brake it, and gave to them, and said, Take, eat: this is my body. And he took the cup, and when he had given thanks, he gave it to them: and they all drank of it. And he said unto them, This is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many.

      1 Corinthians 11:26-29
      For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the Lord's death till he come. Wherefore whosoever shall eat this bread, and drink this cup of the Lord, unworthily, shall be guilty of the body and blood of the Lord. But let a man examine himself, and so let him eat of that bread, and drink of that cup. For he that eateth and drinketh unworthily, eateth and drinketh damnation to himself, not discerning the Lord's body.

      Finally, the Bible tells us that God gave Peter the grace to protect the faith of the other Christians. (Luke 22:31-32) Now, this makes complete sense to Catholics in light of the Papacy. How does your religion explain the fact that Jesus prayed only for Peter, and not for the other Christians also? That is, how do you explain the fact that God chose to use one man, Peter, as the means through which to protect the faith of His Church?

      Okay, now we get to your explanations of the anti-Once-Saved-Always-Saved verses:

      Philippians 3:11-14, you did not include verses 9 and 10:

      And be found in him, not having mine own righteousness, which is of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith: That I may know him, and the power of his resurrection, and the fellowship of his sufferings, being made conformable unto his death;
      (Phi 3:9-10)

      Clearly Paul is saying here that he has no inherent righteousness through any behavior or works, rather the only righteousness he has is from faith in Christ. He then, in the verses you extracted, states that he is always seeking improvement. However put in more full context, this makes the point against any of our works having anything to do with righteousness, since the only righteousness we

    214. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      AC#1 here... I said no one anywhere in the Bible calls Mary sinless, or without fault. For a doctrinal point to be made, surely the Holy Spirit would have inspired an author to make that less obvious point more clear than the point that Jesus was without sin, which is obvious since He is also God. Yet there is zero mention in the Bible of Mary's sinlessness. Indeed even the RCC did not declare her sinless until 1854 (by Pius IX). Why did centuries of "infallible" popes get it wrong then? Innocent III said "she was produced in sin, but she brought forth without sin [De festo Assump., sermon 2]".

      Also isn't the RCC interpretation of Revelation 12:2 is Mary giving birth? If so, then since she is travailing in birth, she is subject to the curse of painful childbirth given to sinners in Genesis 3.

      You claim Innocent III did not order the Albigensian Crusades, and that he did not order the slaughter at Beziers and so many other places. Since these are matters of historic fact, the burden of proof rests on anyone who disputes the points, i.e., you. It's up to you to prove that some one else ordered the slaughter at Beziers, and the slaughter of the Hussites, etc.

      And back to Mary for a second here - if she really knew her Bible (or Tanach in her case) then she would have known Isaiah 7:14 and not had to ask how it was possible for her, in the betrothed but not consummated state that Jews then practiced for a year between engagement and the honeymoon, to have a child. She would also have worked out, as Simeon and Anna had, that the Messiah was due to be born (it can be worked out from Daniel 9) and known that someone in her age bracket would be chosen to bear Him. And if she had led a sinless life, she would be so remarkably different from everyone else that she would not have been at all surprised by Gabriel's announcement, and would not have been questioning about how it could be.

      Also you seem to be working under a lack of knowledge of the Jewish marriage system at the time. It was a four stage process:

      1. Friendship approved by the family.
      2. Engagement. This was a contract arranged by the family.
      3. BETROTHAL. This was public ratification of the engagement. It lasted one year. They officially belonged to each other but did not have the rights of actually living together. They were called husband and wife. The only way betrothal could be terminated was through Divorce. If the husband to be happened to die before the wedding the girl was called a "Virgin who is a Widow".
      4. Marriage, taking place after the year long betrothal.

      Of course she was virginal during the one-year betrohal period, that was an absolute requirement. Only upon consummation did they move from betrothal to married, and Joseph put that off until after the birth of Jesus. That is why she asked Gabriel how it could be since she knew not a man, yet was betrothed.

    215. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      You claim you don't worship Mary, yet you say prayers to her. Show me in the Bible where ANYONE except God was prayed to. And no that does not me "I pray you let me have some food", that is a figure of speech. The challenge is an actual prayer said to some entity other than God which is not an illustration of idolatry or heresy.

      You again issue the "produce the documents" challenge about the slaughter ordered by the popes; again, these are historically proven facts, if you wish to dispute them, then the burden of proof is on you to provide contrary evidence.

      Your citation of 1 Cor 1:23 is a good one, but note that the word "crucified" is in the PAST TENSE. It therefore means that He was crucified, that heinous act is complete. Yet the RCC shows Him at the moment of what Satan thought was his triumphant victory, having killed the Son of God. An empty cross as protestants use is more accurate, He is no longer there. Actually an empty tomb is a more accurate depiction, but somehow that never caught on.

      Back to the claim that the RCC does not worship Mary. Uh-huh. Jesus clearly told us to pray to God the Father, note the disciples' prayer in Matthew 6 and Luke 11. He never said "pray to my Mom" or "gee that's a tough one, better see my Mom about that one". Yet the RCC prays to Mary, note the Rosary's conclusion: "Hail, holy Queen [of heaven], Mother of Mercy! Our life, our sweetness, and our hope! To thee do we cry, poor banished children of Eve; to thee do we send up our sighs, mourning and weeping, in this valley of tears.". If that's not praying to Mary, then the 10% of the rosary addressed to God the Father is also not praying. Speaking of the rosary, it is clearly anti-biblical as Jesus Himself said
      But thou, when thou prayest, enter into thy closet, and when thou hast shut thy door, pray to thy Father which is in secret; and thy Father which seeth in secret shall reward thee openly. But when ye pray, use not vain repetitions, as the heathen do: for they think that they shall be heard for their much speaking. Be not ye therefore like unto them: for your Father knoweth what things ye have need of, before ye ask him. (Mat 6:6-8)
      Note no mention of praying to anyone else. Keep John 16:23-24 in mind: "Verily, verily, I say unto you, Whatsoever ye shall ask the Father in my name, he will give it you. Hitherto have ye asked nothing in my name: ask, and ye shall receive, that your joy may be full".

      You also claim that you don't worship idols, yet show me in the Bible where any image was worshipped by a Christian. Or "venerated" as the catechisms call it.
    216. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      AC#1 jumping in here...

      You claim with Mary again that her statement of "How shall this be, seeing I know not a man?" only makes sense for you to argue if one assumes that you don't understand Jewish marriages of the time. They went in four stages (see other post for details).

      But aside from that, there is yet another major hole punched in RCC doctrine by the words of Christ Himself:
      And it came to pass, as he spake these things, a certain woman of the company lifted up her voice, and said unto him, Blessed is the womb that bare thee, and the paps which thou hast sucked. But he said, Yea rather, blessed are they that hear the word of God, and keep it. (Luk 11:27-28)
      Here Jesus Christ says that more blessed than His mother are those who hear or understand the Word of God, and keep or obey it. Mary was certainly not considered blessed by Him. To consider her blessed above any believer who is faithful is to call the Lord Jesus Christ a liar or worse.

      Which all goes to prove my original point at the very start of this massive discussion - the RCC is not Biblical in its doctrines.

      Quod Erat Demonstratum.
    217. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      You claim with Mary again that her statement of "How shall this be, seeing I know not a man?" only makes sense for you to argue if one assumes that you don't understand Jewish marriages of the time. They went in four stages

      I fail to see what difference this makes. No matter how many stages there were, eventually the normal course of things was for the couple to have sex. Clearly Mary wasn't planning to do so. I'll go into more detail in the other thread.

      And it came to pass, as he spake these things, a certain woman of the company lifted up her voice, and said unto him, Blessed is the womb that bare thee, and the paps which thou hast sucked. But he said, Yea rather, blessed are they that hear the word of God, and keep it. (Luk 11:27-28)

      Here Jesus Christ says that more blessed than His mother are those who hear or understand the Word of God, and keep or obey it. Mary was certainly not considered blessed by Him.


      Where does it say that He didn't consider her blessed? Mary is someone who hears the word of God and keeps it, so He's calling her blessed too.
      Mark 10:18
      And Jesus said unto him, "Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God."
      Is Jesus denying here that He is good? Is He denying that He is God?

      Quod Erat Demonstratum

      A small correction:
      Quod Erat Demonstrandum
    218. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Ah it has been too long since I studied Latin; got me with that one again. Thanks for the correction.

      But on to substantive matters: the point about "I know not a man" only says that at that point in time she was a virgin; we all agree on that. Nothing in that sentence says "I will never know a man". Had the intent of the Holy Spirit been to tell us that she was to remain a virgin, He could have communicated that point by changing the tense of the verb there. But instead the plain, simple, clear, direct reading of that is that at that point in time, she was a virgin. The RCC and you are making an unwarranted extrapolation to go beyond that time. Particularly when combined with Matthew 1:25 it is very clear.

      When Jesus said "rather, blessed are they that hear the word of God, and keep it" He clearly communicated that Mary was not blessed above the status of any believer who is faithful. For the RCC to exalt her to the point of praying to her is a clearly extrabiblical doctrine.

    219. Re:Call the editor! by Tyreth · · Score: 1
      Hi there.

      Still the other guy here, not the original AC :)

      There's lots of different reasons for our view of Mary. For instance, concerning the efficacy of her prayers for us: have a look at the wedding at Cana (John 2:1-10). Jesus was not going to help the people there with their wine problem, because His time had not yet come. And yet, despite this, Mary was able to get Jesus to help them...

      This is completely irrelevant. What I said is there's no reason for putting Mary in this lofty role, that's exactly what I meant. I read that story at the wedding, and I don't see anything special or unique. Mary did little persuading. Now Moses - there was a great man. God was going to destroy all the Israelites, yet Moses persuaded God not to. Surely that feat was greater? And then there was a mere gentile woman who begged Jesus to remove a demon from her possessed daughter. He said "I was not sent except to the lost sheep of the house of Israel." Yet she was able to persuade Him to heal her daughter (Matthew 15:24-28). Now I just don't see anything special with this wedding story to make me go, "wow, you are right, Mary was really special to be able to do that". Instead, she seems like a mother anxious to please the party crowd. She knows that her son can provide the wine they need, so with a caring spirit she does what she can to ensure that they have wine. Nothing special, just an ordinary every day person who knew her Son was God. Now here is what I need: verses that show that Mary deserves the lofty position you give her. What you have given me: an interpretation of a verse that is valid only when we have already established her lofty position, not as an affirmation of it. There are many different ways to interpret that wedding - so why should I accept your understanding?

      There isn't any Biblical verse that clearly states that God is a Trinity, but we believe it nonetheless.

      Precisely my point. There are no verses that say "God is a trinity". There are many, many, many verses which say that He is Word, Spirit and Father. The word trinity may never be used, but His triune nature is imprinted throughout the whole Bible so that we have no difficulty demonstrating this truth.

      Where is a single verse that shows us that Mary deserves this role you place her in? I don't need it to say specifically that she is, but it does need to be very persuasive, not just an interpretation based on a preconceived notion (like the wedding story).

      First of all, it's not a matter of "opinion" at all, but of historical fact. The Bible isn't a book of fiction; it tells us about things that actually happened in the real world. The early Christians knew very well that Mary had no other children, and they didn't need the Bible to tell them this.

      And where does history say this? (I don't want Catholic records saying Mary was childless, but rather quotes from historians or Christians perhaps 0-200AD, close to the time). This is why it's extra-Biblical. The Bible has a few verses that make it sound like Jesus had brothers, so it is the strange thing that needs strong evidence to say that she didn't, not the other way around.

      Second, where does the Bible say that it contains all truth?

      Entirely unecessary. What proof is it if I say "I never tell a lie"? You can't know for sure by the statement itself. We know that the Bible is the sole Scripture for other reasons, it is not important - nor would it be helpful - if the Bible said it was the sole Scripture. Besides, that wouldn't happen, because most of the books were written by different people, separately from each other.

      If Mary intended to have a normal marriage, including sexual intercourse, one would have expected her to react in the following manner: "How wonderful! Joseph and I will be the parents of the Messiah!" But instead, what she said is:

      Luke 1:34 How shall this be, seeing I know not a

    220. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1

      the point about "I know not a man" only says that at that point in time she was a virgin; we all agree on that. Nothing in that sentence says "I will never know a man". Had the intent of the Holy Spirit been to tell us that she was to remain a virgin, He could have communicated that point by changing the tense of the verb there. But instead the plain, simple, clear, direct reading of that is that at that point in time, she was a virgin.

      The problem is that, if she were planning to have sex, then what she says doesn't make sense. She clearly understands that women get pregnant by "knowing" men, and yet she, a betrothed woman, expresses that she doesn't know how it is possible for her to get pregnant... If she were planning to have a normal marriage, then she would soon "know" Joseph. But her reply to the angel indicates that she wasn't planning to do so.

      When Jesus said "rather, blessed are they that hear the word of God, and keep it" He clearly communicated that Mary was not blessed above the status of any believer who is faithful.

      Where does He say that? Does everyone have exactly the same level of faithfulness? Someone who is better at hearing the word of God and keeping it is more blessed than someone else who is less good at that.

      Besides, Mary's blessedness has already been established Luke 1. Elizabeth, filled with the Holy Spirit, says that Mary is blessed among women, so clearly she's very blessed. Also, Elizabeth says in Luke 1:43 that it's an honor for her to be visited by the mother of her Lord. And in verse 44, John the Baptist leapt in the womb for joy when he heard Mary's voice.

      For the RCC to exalt her to the point of praying to her is a clearly extrabiblical doctrine.

      Asking Mary to pray for you is no different than asking another Christian to pray for you. If Christians on earth pray for others, then how much more do the Christians in heaven do so. But I'll have more to say on this in the other thread.

    221. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      Your claim that Mary was planning not to "know" Joseph is extremely weak, particularly in light of Matthew 1:23, Matthew 12, Matthew 13, Mark 3, Mark 6, Luke 8, and Galatians 1. The simple, plain, direct reading of all those passages speaks firmly against the RCC position; in claiming that all those passages are incorrect, the RCC says God is the author of confusion (somewhat analogously to the manuscript family issues). He is not the author of confusion, His book says simply and directly what it says: Mary had other children.

      Your claim (well, the RCC claims it and you're defending the RCC) that Mary was sinless has yet another hole in it:
      And the angel came in unto her, and said, Hail, thou that art highly favoured, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women. And when she saw him, she was troubled at his saying, and cast in her mind what manner of salutation this should be.(Luk 1:28-29)
      Here Mary is "troubled" at the angel saluting her as "highly favoured" and "blessed ... among women". If she were sinless, she would know that she were; and she would be aware that would make her uniquely blessed and favoured. Yet she was "troubled" at the angel describing her that way. And from Daniel 9 she could have worked out (as Anna and Simeon did, see Luke 2:25-6 and 2:36-38) that the time was right for the birth of Messiah to a virgin, something she would be uniquely qualified for, being sinless. Yet she was surprised and had to be told "Fear not, Mary". Why would she be afraid of something she knew was inevitable? Why would she have to be told that she "hast found favour with God"? Were she sinless, that would be so radically different from everyone around her that she could hardly be unaware of the vividly stark contrast to everyone else.

      In Luke 11:28 the comparative "rather" is clear; in response to "Blessed is the womb that bare thee, and the paps which thou hast sucked", He answered "But he said, Yea rather, blessed are they that hear the word of God, and keep it". If Mary were sinless, she would be blessed above others; yet in Luke 1 she is blessed "among" women, and here in Luke 11, rather than her being blessed, believers are blessed. Believers are not sinless, yet the RCC claims Mary was; if she were, she would be blessed above others as she would have been blessed in a way that no one else has ever been.

      Praying to Mary you claim is the same as asking any other Christian to pray for us. That would have been true when she was here, but not now. She is dead now, and contact with the dead by us is forbidden throughout scripture.

      The RCC also claims Mary is omnipotent:
      "thou, O Mary, art all-powerful" [Our Lady's Book, Rev. Jas. J. Cashman, CM, ed., (Vincentian Foreign Mission Soc., St. Louis, 1942), p. 14 Imprimi Potest, Marshall F. Winne, CM; Nihil Obstat, Wm. M. Drumm; Imprimatur, Jas. P. Murray, May 20, 1949]
      and
      "I come to thee in my distress, O Blessed Mother, for thou art all powerful in heaven and on earth" [ibid, p. 31]
      and
      "by the ordinance of God, her power is without limit. All that He could give to Mary, He has given" The Official Handbook of the Legion of Mary, by Concilium Legionis Mariae (1959), p 11 Nihil Obstat: Michael L. Dempsey, S.T.D., Imprimi Potest: Joannes Carolus, Archbishop of Dublin, March 25, 1953 [Note: A letter, posted in the foreword, from Pius XI to the Legion of Mary 16th Sept., 1933, states his approval thus: "We give a very special blessing to this beautiful and holy work...."]
      Clearly those are blasphemous, yet they have the imprimatur and the last one has approval from a pope. (Those three are from here, a useful site for those reading along.)
    222. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      You claim you don't worship Mary, yet you say prayers to her. Show me in the Bible where ANYONE except God was prayed to. And no that does not me "I pray you let me have some food", that is a figure of speech. The challenge is an actual prayer said to some entity other than God which is not an illustration of idolatry or heresy.

      Psalm 103:20-21

      Bless the Lord, O you his angels, you mighty ones who do his word, hearkening to the voice of his word! Bless the Lord, all his hosts, his ministers that do his will!

      You again issue the "produce the documents" challenge about the slaughter ordered by the popes; again, these are historically proven facts,

      Crusaders did "slaughter Jews along the way", as you described it, but this was not ordered by any Pope. So what you've done here is bear false witness against your neighbors (the Popes).

      if you wish to dispute them, then the burden of proof is on you to provide contrary evidence.

      That's not the way it works. If you make an accusation against someone, then it's up to you to provide evidence to back up your accusation.

      Your citation of 1 Cor 1:23 is a good one, but note that the word "crucified" is in the PAST TENSE. It therefore means that He was crucified, that heinous act is complete.

      No, it's not a past tense there. The word "crucified" here is a past participle, and it's acting as a participial adjective describing Christ.

      So "we preach Christ crucified" means "we preach the crucified Christ." This is precisely what the image of Christ on the cross does, it "preaches" that Christ died for our sins.

      Yet the RCC shows Him at the moment of what Satan thought was his triumphant victory, having killed the Son of God.

      So, in other words, you disagree with the Bible when it says "We preach Christ crucified."

      An empty cross as protestants use is more accurate, He is no longer there.

      Maybe an empty cross shows that you don't believe that Christ was ever crucified... Or that you, like Satan, wish that Christ had never been crucified.

      I wasn't being serious, I was merely imitating what you did above. Perhaps now you can see that the way you cast the worst possible light on everything isn't very reasonable.

      Back to the claim that the RCC does not worship Mary. Uh-huh. Jesus clearly told us to pray to God the Father, note the disciples' prayer in Matthew 6 and Luke 11. He never said "pray to my Mom"

      Jesus also never said to pray to Himself, or to the Holy Spirit. Does that mean it's wrong for us to do so?

      He never said "gee that's a tough one, better see my Mom about that one".

      Actually, that's precisely what He does at the wedding at Cana. The people there had a problem, but He was unwilling to help them. He waited until His mother intervened on their behalf before He actually did anything to help them.

      Yet the RCC prays to Mary, note the Rosary's conclusion: "Hail, holy Queen [of heaven], Mother of Mercy! Our life, our sweetness, and our hope! To thee do we cry, poor banished children of Eve; to thee do we send up our sighs, mourning and weeping, in this valley of tears.".

      Let's have a look at this:

      Hail, holy Queen [of heaven]

      Why did you add that last part? To make it look worse in your own eyes? In any case, in accordance with Biblical usage, Mary is a Queen because her son is a King, as I've already explained.

      Mother of Mercy

      Mercy=Jesus

      Our life, our sweetness, and our hope!

      This refers to the idea that Mary prays to God and asks Him to give us His grace. So Mary is our life and hope in the sense that we receive grace through her prayers, and grace gives us spiritual life. The implication here is that without Mary's prayers, we would not get as much grace; so for some of us, Mary's prayers might mean the difference between salvati

    223. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      I said no one anywhere in the Bible calls Mary sinless, or without fault.

      Perhaps not explicitly, but there are lots of possible indirect allusions to this.

      First, I've already talked about the word "kecharitomene", which states that Mary was embued with grace in a special way.

      Second, there's the prophecy in Genesis 3:15, which states that there is a special enmity between Satan and the mother of the Messiah. Enmity with Satan implies lack of sin.

      Third, the Ark of the Covenant can be seen as a type of Mary. The Ark contained within it types of Christ, just as Mary had Christ within herself. The Ark was specially constructed from materials known for their incorruptibility (gold and shittim wood). Thus, Mary was also specially made for her role: she was given the grace to be preserved from the corruption of sin.

      Fourth, Christ is the second Adam. The prophecy of Genesis 3:15 points to Mary as the New Eve. Eve said yes to Satan and brought sin into the world, while Mary said yes to God and brought salvation into the world. Adam, Eve, and Christ were all created or conceived without sin, and the same would be true of Mary.

      For a doctrinal point to be made, surely the Holy Spirit would have inspired an author to make that less obvious point more clear than the point that Jesus was without sin, which is obvious since He is also God.

      Where does the Bible say that all doctrines must be clearly stated in the Bible?

      Indeed even the RCC did not declare her sinless until 1854 (by Pius IX).

      So what? The doctrine of the Trinity wasn't defined until 325 AD. That doesn't mean that it wasn't believed before then.

      Why did centuries of "infallible" popes get it wrong then?

      I'm not aware that they did. But I think you misunderstand what papal infallibility is about. The following is from the Council of Vatican I:

      When the Roman pontiff speaks "ex cathedra" - that is, when, in the exercise of his office as shepherd and teacher of all Christians, in virtue of his supreme apostolic authority, he defines a doctrine concerning faith or morals to be held by the whole church - he possesses, by the divine assistance promised to him in blessed Peter, that infallibility which the divine Redeemer willed his church to enjoy in defining doctrine concerning faith or morals.

      Ludwig Ott, in his book "Fundamentals of Catholic Dogma" (p. 287), describes the conditions for infallibility:

      For this is required:

      (a) that he speak as pastor and teacher of all the faithful with the full weight of his supreme apostolic authority; if he speaks as a private theologian or as the bishop of his Diocese, he is not infallible;

      (b) That he have the intention of deciding finally a teaching of faith or morals, so that it is to be held by all the faithful. Without this intention, which nust be made clear in the formulation, or by the circumstances, a decision ex cathedra is not complete. Most of the doctrinal expressions made by the Popes in their Encyclicals are not decisions ex cathedra.

      Innocent III said "she was produced in sin, but she brought forth without sin [De festo Assump., sermon 2]".

      It doesn't say "she was produced with sin", but "in sin". The "sin" or lack thereof applies to the parents, not to the children.

      Also isn't the RCC interpretation of Revelation 12:2 is Mary giving birth? If so, then since she is travailing in birth, she is subject to the curse of painful childbirth given to sinners in Genesis 3.

      Well, to my knowledge there's no official interpretation of that passage, but the Woman in Revelation 12 can be seen as the Jewish people of the Old Testament, the Church of the New Testament, and Mary. The various details found in that chapter can apply partly to each of the three. Mary was, indeed, the Mother of Christ. But the birth pangs there refer to the people

    224. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      You point out that the doctrine of the trinity was not "official" until 325, yet there is a very explicit verse which shows it
      For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. (1 John 5:7)
      So where is the equally explicit verse or verses showing the sinlessness and assumption of Mary? Where is the equally explicit verse showing prayers to the dead?

      You want proof of the slaughters ordered by the popes, I doubt your abbot/bishop (are you a priest or monk; or which are you training for?) will let you read it, though. Anyway, this book gives all the documentation of atrocities by popes you asked for.

      You claim the Ark of the Covenant is a type of Mary. That is the RCC view, but the biblical view that the Ark is a type of Christ makes a lot more sense. For example, the tables of the law are in the Ark. Mary did not bear the law, but Christ did fulfill the law. There is a pot of manna in the Ark; Mary did not contain food for all, but Christ is the bread of life (John 6:33-51). There is a budded rod of Aaron in the Ark; Mary did not contain a rod, but Christ is the anointed high priest, which is what the rod was about (also see Isaiah 11:1). There is a mercy seat on the Ark; Mary has nothing biblically to do with mercy for us, whereas Christ died for us, giving us the ultimate act of mercy by forgiving our sins (and only God can forgive sins (Mark 2:7). The Ark is a type of Christ far more clearly than a type of Mary.

    225. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      You want proof of slaughter ordered by popes, as mentioned in the other thread, I doubt your abbot/bishop will let you read this, but here is a book which provides documentary evidence on that and worse.

      Splitting hairs about past participles or past tense is missing the point; the point is the act has been completed, whether illustrated by a verb or a participle or a gerundive. The point is that Christ has been crucified, the heinous, awful, terrible act has been completed for a long time. Depicting Him as still on the cross is depicting the time of Satan's joy, regardless of who is doing the depicting. Yes it's distasteful, at least you see that part. As far as the empty cross, I hold to symbols are inappropriate in almost all cases (no I'm not JW) since the Lord warns us about such things, particularly
      Take ye therefore good heed unto yourselves; for ye saw no manner of similitude on the day that the LORD spake unto you in Horeb out of the midst of the fire: Lest ye corrupt yourselves, and make you a graven image, the similitude of any figure, the likeness of male or female, The likeness of any beast that is on the earth, the likeness of any winged fowl that flieth in the air, The likeness of any thing that creepeth on the ground, the likeness of any fish that is in the waters beneath the earth: And lest thou lift up thine eyes unto heaven, and when thou seest the sun, and the moon, and the stars, even all the host of heaven, shouldest be driven to worship them, and serve them, which the LORD thy God hath divided unto all nations under the whole heaven. (Deu 4:15-19)
      The RCC with all its statues and idols (including the former statue of Jupiter which was re-labelled as Peter) clearly is in immense violation of this scripture.

      You claim that Cana was a case of Jesus saying "that's a tough one, better ask my Mom?". No, that was a case of His mother asking Him to make some more wine for a wedding of one of His half-sisters (one of Joseph and Mary's kids). He did what she asked to obey the fifth commandment (the RCC calls it the fourth; their rewriting of the ten commandments is an entirely different topic). Your attempt to recast it as something she did which He could not is, well, lame.

      You then assert that Paul's handkerchiefs and Peter's shadow being efficacious for healings is relevant to veneration of saints. No, in the apostolic time there were spiritual gifts given to the apostles which ended with the closing of the canon and the death of the last of the apostles (~100 AD, shortly after John wrote Revelation in ~96AD). Only the charismatics claim otherwise; are you one of those charismatic RCC folk?

      Oh and for those interested in what the RCC did to the ten commandments, see the chart here for an explanation of how they ignore a few verses so they can have their idols. Exodus 20:4 is even in their NRSV yet they skip over it when listing the ten commandments.

      Yet again, proof of the non-Biblical nature of the RCC. QED again.
    226. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      You point out that the doctrine of the trinity was not "official" until 325, yet there is a very explicit verse which shows it

      For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. (1 John 5:7)


      This isn't part of the original Biblical text. The oldest Greek manuscripts that include it are from around 1200 AD or so. This started out as a comment written in the margins of the Bible that eventually got incorporated into the text of some manuscripts.

      So where is the equally explicit verse or verses showing the sinlessness and assumption of Mary? Where is the equally explicit verse showing prayers to the dead?

      Well, as I've asked many times, where in the Bible does it say that all Christian teachings are to be found in the Bible?

      In any case, as far as Biblical allusions are concerned, I've already addressed the sinlessness question. With regard to the assumption, since the Ark is a type of Mary, the following could refer to her assumption:

      Psalm 132:8
      Arise, O LORD, into thy rest; thou, and the ark of thy strength.

      Concerning asking the saints for prayers, there are various verses in which Christians are asked to pray for others. We are all members of the Body of Christ, and death doesn't change that. The saints in heaven would pray for us, their brothers in Christ, just as readily as we do, or even more so.

      There is archaeological evidence that the early Christians asked the saints in heaven to pray for them. In the catacombs of Rome, there are many requests for prayers from the saints carved into the walls:

      The spirituality of the catacombs is moreover "social". The Christian, who is accustomed to say in prayer not "my Father" but "our Father", knows that in God's family one does not live separately, but socially. "Though many in number, we form one body in Christ" (Rom 12,59)...

      Hundreds of pilgrims, buried in the Memoria of the ancient Appian Way (the Catacombs of St. Sebastian), invoke Peter and Paul, by scratching short prayers on the plaster of the triclia (hall for funeral banquets, in the open air): "Paul and Peter, pray for Victor - Paul, Peter, pray for Sozomenon".

      At the entrance of the Crypt of the Popes in St. Callixtus, the wall is covered with prayers: "O St. Sixtus, remember in your prayers Aurelius Repentinus".

      You want proof of the slaughters ordered by the popes,

      No, I want proof of your assertion that Pope Innocent III ordered the slaughter at Beziers. Either provide it or apologize.

      are you a priest or monk; or which are you training for?

      Thanks for the compliment, but I'm just a layman.

      Anyway, this book gives all the documentation of atrocities by popes you asked for.

      That book contains many errors. See, for instance, this page and this one.

      You claim the Ark of the Covenant is a type of Mary.

      Yes, she bore Christ, just as the Ark bore the three types of Christ.

      For example, the tables of the law are in the Ark. Mary did not bear the law, but Christ did fulfill the law.

      Christ is the Word, just as the Law is the Word of God. So the tables are a type of Christ. The Ark bore the tables, just as Mary bore Christ.

      There is a pot of manna in the Ark; Mary did not contain food for all, but Christ is the bread of life (John 6:33-51).

      Yes, Christ is the bread of life, and so the manna is a type of Christ. Mary bore Christ, just as the Ark bore the manna.

      There is a budded rod of Aaron in the Ark; Mary did not contain a rod, but Christ is the anointed high priest, which is what the rod was about (also see Isaiah 11:1).

      Yes, the rod is

    227. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      You said about 1 John 5:7

      This isn't part of the original Biblical text. The oldest Greek manuscripts that include it are from around 1200 AD or so. This started out as a comment written in the margins of the Bible that eventually got incorporated into the text of some manuscripts.

      I've been wondering when you would start to attack the scriptures themselves, now you're down to that point. Here we see the fruits of the Marian of the Roman Catholic Church: in order to defend the Marian doctrine, you are willing to attack God's word. I think you'd better do more than apologize, it's time to get on your knees, repent, and ask forgiveness of God.

      As to the reasons for 1 John 5:7 (the "Johannine Comma"), there are three types of arguments for it. First is the theological argument; this is obvious based on the myriad other places the trinity is taught in scripture. As 1 John 5:7 is a clear summary of all those points, it is certainly not introducing any new doctrine nor providing anything but an easily understood summarization of many other points in the scripture. Also note that a forger (the RCC and textual critics' suppositional source of 1 John 5:7) would have been far more likely to use "Father, Son, and Holy Ghost" rather than "Father, Word, and Holy Spirit".

      The second argument is grammatical. Note that in 1 John 5:8 which in the RCC manuscripts (Aleph, B, etc.) still mentions "spirit, water, and blood". Yet those are all neuter nouns, but are treated in verse 8 as masculine. If you omit the Johannine Comma, it's grammatically unbalanced. Yet leaving it in works very well; the masculine nouns "Father" and "Word" in verse 7 control the gender in the succeeding verse due to what's called the "attraction principle".

      The third argument is from the manuscripts. You claim that the Johannine Comma came about in 1200 from 4 manuscripts, a common tactic from the RCC and its manuscript defenders. The current edition of the UBSNT (critical text) shows 6 (61, 88mg, 429mg, 629, 636mg, and 918) with the Johannine Comma. There are at least twenty more MSS with the Johannine Comma in them, some of those are 61, 88mg, 629, 634mg, 636mg, omega 110, 429mg, 221, and 2318. Two lectionaries also have it (60 and 173). It is also mentioned by Tertullian, Cyprian, Augustine, and Jerome. The UBSNT has retained other verses on a lot less evidence than this.

      Even without the Johannine Comma, the trinity is very clearly taught. Your three corrupted manuscripts that disagree with each other as often as the disagree with the TR do at least contain the Hebrew Shema. This is a prayer said twice daily by all orthodox Jews worldwide, and begins in Deuteronomy 6:4

      "Hear, O Israel, the Lord our God is One Lord"

      Transliterated that is

      "shema Yisrael, Yehovah Eloheinu, Yehovah achad"

      . A literal translation of that is

      "Hear O Israel, The Almighty Lord, our God

      s, is a united Almighty Lord"

      In other words, God is a compound entity. The verb "achad" is used in Genesis 2:24 to describe how man and woman are united in one flesh. Pretty explicit that God is not a singular being, despite the RCC teaching that Allah is the same god as God.

      If you want an exhaustive treatment on the Johannine Comma, see Frederick Nolan's work written in 1815 An Inquiry into the Integrity of the Greek Vulgate or Received Text of the New Testament, in which the Greek manuscripts are newly classed, the integrity of the Authorised Text vindicated, and the various readings traced to their origin. It's only 576 pages, you can get the reprint of it from Bible for Today, 900 Park Ave., Collingswood, NJ 08108. A more readable yet still mighty scholarly work on the topic is A History of the Debate over 1 John 5:7-8 by Michael Maynard. It's available from Comma Publications, P.O. Box 1625, Tempe, AZ 85285-1625; I will gladly pay for it to be sent to yo

    228. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1

      Your claim that Mary was planning not to "know" Joseph is extremely weak, particularly in light of Matthew 1:23, Matthew 12, Matthew 13, Mark 3, Mark 6, Luke 8, and Galatians 1.

      What you have to understand is that all of the Bible is true, not just the parts that you can fit into what you believe. All those verses you mentioned can easily be understood in a way that agrees with what Luke 1:34 tells us (that Mary never intended to have sex). For instance, the Bible uses the word "brother" to refer to many close family relationships, so the verses you cited using the word "brother" do not contradict the fact that Mary remained a virgin all of her life. On the other hand, there's no way to make Luke 1:34 agree with your interpretation of those verses you mentioned. Therefore, your interpretation of these passages is incorrect.

      in claiming that all those passages are incorrect,

      Those passages are not incorrect, it is your interpretation of them that is incorrect. There is a difference.

      And the angel came in unto her, and said, Hail, thou that art highly favoured, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women. And when she saw him, she was troubled at his saying, and cast in her mind what manner of salutation this should be.(Luk 1:28-29)

      Here Mary is "troubled" at the angel saluting her as "highly favoured" and "blessed ... among women". If she were sinless, she would know that she were; and she would be aware that would make her uniquely blessed and favoured.


      As I said in the other thread, holy people are humble, and don't think of themselves as holy.

      And from Daniel 9 she could have worked out (as Anna and Simeon did, see Luke 2:25-6 and 2:36-38) that the time was right for the birth of Messiah to a virgin, something she would be uniquely qualified for, being sinless.

      I'm happy to see that you agree that being sinless would make one uniquely qualified to be the mother of the Messiah.

      Yet she was surprised and had to be told "Fear not, Mary". Why would she be afraid of something she knew was inevitable?

      You seem to assume that she would automatically know everything that was about to be told to her, but I don't see why that would be the case. As I said in the other thread, the meaning of prophecies isn't always clear until after they come true. Besides, I think a little fear is understandable under the circumstances.

      Why would she have to be told that she "hast found favour with God"?

      Why did Jesus have to be told "Thou art my beloved Son; in thee I am well pleased." (Luke 3:22)?

      In Luke 11:28 the comparative "rather" is clear; in response to "Blessed is the womb that bare thee, and the paps which thou hast sucked", He answered "But he said, Yea rather, blessed are they that hear the word of God, and keep it".

      He says "yea rather", not "nay rather". He's not saying His mother isn't blessed.

      The point of what He's saying here is that if you had a choice between being His mother (and not hearing the word of God and keeping it) and hearing the word of God and keeping it (but not being His mother), you'd be better off in the second category. But He's not at all denying that His mother is blessed, since she does hear the word of God and keep it; moreover, the Bible tells us elsewhere that Mary is blessed.

      Believers are not sinless, yet the RCC claims Mary was

      Believers are sometimes sinless, such as after their baptism or confession.

      Praying to Mary you claim is the same as asking any other Christian to pray for us. That would have been true when she was here, but not now. She is dead now, and contact with the dead by us is forbidden throughout scripture.

      We aren't forbidden to talk to the dead (for instance, think of Jesus at the Transfiguration); rather, we are forbidden to try (through magical means) to get the dead to talk to us, in an atte

    229. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      You want proof of slaughter ordered by popes

      I want proof of your assertion that Popes ordered Crusaders to kill Jews they found along the way. Either provide the evidence for this, or apologize.

      Splitting hairs about past participles or past tense is missing the point; the point is the act has been completed, whether illustrated by a verb or a participle or a gerundive. The point is that Christ has been crucified, the heinous, awful, terrible act has been completed for a long time.

      The point is that Paul says that we Christians preach the crucified Christ (1 Corinthians 1:23), Christ in the state of crucifixion. It is precisely Christ on the cross that Paul is talking about here - it is the very fact that Christ was crucified that the Jews find to be a stumbling block, since the Messiah was supposed to be a great king, and not executed like a criminal.

      We shouldn't be ashamed that Christ died for us; rather, we should glory in this:

      Galatians 6:14

      But God forbid that I should glory, save in the cross of our Lord Jesus Christ, by whom the world is crucified unto me, and I unto the world.

      Here Paul emphasizes Christ on the cross:

      1 Corinthians 2:2

      For I determined not to know any thing among you, save Jesus Christ, and him crucified.

      Christ's death on the cross is what shows us how much God loves us:

      John 15:13

      Greater love hath no man than this, that a man lay down his life for his friends.

      1 John 4:9-11
      In this was manifested the love of God toward us, because that God sent his only begotten Son into the world, that we might live through him. Herein is love, not that we loved God, but that he loved us, and sent his Son to be the propitiation for our sins. Beloved, if God so loved us, we ought also to love one another.

      In fact, Jesus told us to commemorate His crucifixion in the Eucharist:

      1 Corinthians 11:24,26

      "Take, eat: this is my body, which is broken for you: this do in remembrance of me." ... For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the Lord's death till he come.

      Take ye therefore good heed unto yourselves; for ye saw no manner of similitude on the day that the LORD spake unto you in Horeb out of the midst of the fire: Lest ye corrupt yourselves, and make you a graven image, the similitude of any figure, the likeness of male or female, The likeness of any beast that is on the earth, the likeness of any winged fowl that flieth in the air, The likeness of any thing that creepeth on the ground, the likeness of any fish that is in the waters beneath the earth: And lest thou lift up thine eyes unto heaven, and when thou seest the sun, and the moon, and the stars, even all the host of heaven, shouldest be driven to worship them, and serve them, which the LORD thy God hath divided unto all nations under the whole heaven. (Deu 4:15-19)

      What this forbids is the making of images for the sake of worshipping them, and not the making of images as such. God Himself ordered images to be made:

      Exodus 25:18-22

      And thou shalt make two cherubims of gold, of beaten work shalt thou make them, in the two ends of the mercy seat. And make one cherub on the one end, and the other cherub on the other end: even of the mercy seat shall ye make the cherubims on the two ends thereof. And the cherubims shall stretch forth their wings on high, covering the mercy seat with their wings, and their faces shall look one to another; toward the mercy seat shall the faces of the cherubims be. And thou shalt put the mercy seat above upon the ark; and in the ark thou shalt put the testimony that I shall give thee. And there I will meet with thee, and I will commune with thee from above the mercy seat, from between the two cherubims which are upon the ark of the testimon

    230. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      I've been wondering when you would start to attack the scriptures themselves

      It's not an attack on the Scriptures to defend their integrity. The fact is that the Johannine comma doesn't appear in any Greek manuscript of the first millennium.

      As to the reasons for 1 John 5:7 (the "Johannine Comma"), there are three types of arguments for it. First is the theological argument; this is obvious based on the myriad other places the trinity is taught in scripture. As 1 John 5:7 is a clear summary of all those points, it is certainly not introducing any new doctrine nor providing anything but an easily understood summarization of many other points in the scripture.

      The fact that it's "an easily understood summarization" actually argues in favor of it being a commentary on the original text. Commentaries seek to explain obscure or difficult-to-understand passages in a clear way. It's someone's interpretation of "Spirit, water, and blood" as being a reference to the Trinity.

      Also note that a forger (the RCC and textual critics' suppositional source of 1 John 5:7)

      It's not a forger, it's an honest mistake. Someone wrote a comment in the margin. And, later on, someone else who was copying the manuscript assumed that the comment in the margin was meant as an attempt to correct a previous scribe's mistake, and so he inserted the comment into the text of his own copy of the Bible. There's no need to suppose malice on anyone's part here.

      would have been far more likely to use "Father, Son, and Holy Ghost" rather than "Father, Word, and Holy Spirit".

      There's no difference between "Holy Ghost" and "Holy Spirit" in Latin. These are two English translations of "Spiritus Sanctus".

      The second argument is grammatical. Note that in 1 John 5:8 which in the RCC manuscripts (Aleph, B, etc.) still mentions "spirit, water, and blood". Yet those are all neuter nouns, but are treated in verse 8 as masculine. If you omit the Johannine Comma, it's grammatically unbalanced. Yet leaving it in works very well; the masculine nouns "Father" and "Word" in verse 7 control the gender in the succeeding verse due to what's called the "attraction principle".

      The grammatical argument is responded to here.

      The irregular agreement of the masculine here with three neuter antecedents Dabney termed "an insuperable and very bald grammatical difficulty." Irregular gender agreement, however, is never a "very bald grammatical difficulty" in Greek. It may be seen, for example, in I Cor. 13:13, where the antecedents, "faith, hope, and love" (feminine genders) are followed immediately by "these three" (neuter, "tauta"). Matt. 23:23 proves the point further, that "judgment (feminine), mercy (masculine), and faith" (feminine) are the implied antecedents of the demonstrative pronoun "these (neuter) ought ye to have done."

      Any "known rule of syntax" about "the masculines among the group" that "control the gender over a neuter connected with them" is completely irrelevant here. In v. 6, the "Spirit" has been introduced as the witness bearer, and John in his Gospel narrative uses the masculine ekeinos ("he") to refer to the neuter, "Spirit" in John 16:13. There is no reason why John would not use a masculine participle here where the third Person of the Godhead was "connected" with the two other neuters in I John 5:8. Dabney, here, thus destroys his own argument by correctly stating that "pneuma" (Spirit) is "the leading noun of this second group" in v. 8--that being the case, John would certainly ascribe a masculine gender to the entire "group" since he has already been known to ascribe a masculine gender to the Holy Spirit in John 16:13.

      It is also mentioned by Tertullian, Cyprian, Augustine, and Jerome.

      These are all Latin writers. Since we're discussing whether the Johannine comma appeared in Greek manuscripts, I fai

    231. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      Your claim that Luke 1:34 shows that Mary intended to remain celibate is, well, absurd. What she said was "How shall this be, seeing I know not a man?". Had she said "seeing I will never know a man" you would have a point. But her statement there was clearly describing her present condition (seeing I know not), not her perpetual condition.

      Consider this case. You are in college, and your class schedule shows you will learn calculus and QM in a year. You are then told that you will, in three months, explain the HUP and PEP to a classroom. Your response could be "How shall this be, seeing I know not an integral?" This would communicate that you do not presently have what it normally takes to accomplish the task you have just been told you will do. Just as Mary. The interpretation you and the RCC put on that verse is twisting scripture; not something wise to engage in.

      Then you claim that Mary wouldn't think she was holy. But she would know she was sinless, and false humility == pride, so she would know she was holy. So you still have the problem that her being troubled at being called "highly favoured" and "blessed ... among women" does not mesh with her being sinless. She would know that she were, and she would be aware that would make her uniquely blessed and favoured; to deny it would be a sin and therefore against your doctrine. "yea, let God be true, but every man a liar (Romans 3:4)".

      You claim the meaning of prophecies aren't always clear until fulfilled, true enough in many cases. However we know that Anna and Simeon had both worked it out, and from Jesus' declaration:
      And when he was come near, he beheld the city, and wept over it, Saying, If thou hadst known, even thou, at least in this thy day, the things which belong unto thy peace! but now they are hid from thine eyes. For the days shall come upon thee, that thine enemies shall cast a trench about thee, and compass thee round, and keep thee in on every side, And shall lay thee even with the ground, and thy children within thee; and they shall not leave in thee one stone upon another; because thou knewest not the time of thy visitation. (Luk 19:41-44)
      We see that the Lord held Jerusalem in general responsible to have known the time of the visitation, and they did not. For the judgment to fall that He utters here, it was a mighty sin. Yet Mary knew not the time either; how can that be???

      And you seem to be twisting the meaning of the word "rather" in Luke 11:28. Here's the definition from Webster's; please indicate which of these definitions fits yours (hint: none):
      RATH'ER, adv. [I would rather go, or sooner go. The use is taken from pushing or moving forward.] [L. ante, before.] But he said, yea rather, happy are they that hear the word of God and keep it. Luke 11]

      1. More readily or willingly; with better liking; with preference or choice.
      My soul chooseth strangling and death rather than life. Job 7.

      Light is come into the world, and men loved darkness rather than light, because their deeds were evil. John 3. Psa 84.

      2. In preference; preferably; with better reason. Good is rather to be chosen than evil. See acts 5.

      3. In a greater degree than otherwise.
      He sought throughout the world, but sought in vain, and no where finding, rather fear'd her slain.

      4. More properly; more correctly speaking.
      This is an art which does mend nature, change it rather; but the art itself is nature.

      5. Noting some degree of contrariety in fact.
      She was nothing better, but rather grew worse. Mark 5.

      Mat 27.
      The rather, especially; for better reason; for particular cause.
      You are come to me in a happy time, the rather for I have some sport in hand.
      Had rather, is supposed to be a corruption of would rather.
      I had rather speak five words with my understanding -
      Note particularly the primary definition, which uses Luke 11 as the example.

      If you claim that Mary was holy because she got Jesus to change the water into wine at Cana, then I gather the woman in Matthew 15:22-28 must also be holy; what is her name, and how many statues of her are in RCC churches?
    232. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You want the proof, I gave you the documentation. It's your choice to believe it or not, but the fact is that an RCC historian made those assertions, they did not originate with me. Get him excommunicated if it's egregiously wrong.

      Now you're telling us that Catholics don't worship the images, statues and idols? Tell that to your pope - and that's a Catholic site!

      And how about claims like pope Leo "We hold upon this earth the place of God Almighty." -- Pope Leo XIII in an Encyclical Letter, dated June 20, 1894. [Very Rev. Thomas J. Shahan, The Beginnings of Christianity. Benziger Brothers (1903) p. 304. Imprimatur JNO]

      That is clear, outright, unadulterated blasphemy; the Jews crucified Christ for saying He was God. Yet He is God, they had it wrong. Now the Catholic Church has popes who have claimed to be God - what punishment is justly due them for that offense?

      And I have no opinion about equality of sins in the tenth (RCC 9th and 10th) commandment(s) - you're drawing your own conclusions about that.

      Try reading the ten commandments in Exodus 20; see how the RCC has excised the inconvenient bit. Editing God's word by taking out bits you don't like is not a good idea...

      And about Laodicea; observe the warning given for that data: "This report is preliminary and has not received official approval. Subsequent review may result in revisions to the report. Readers are cautioned to consider carefully the provisional nature of the information before using it...". That is, by its own standards, not a reliable source.

      And check out here which talks about the stadium built there in 79AD, and note that Tacitus, an historian at the time, wrote about the great quake happening in 61, whereupon it was rebuilt.

    233. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      You state
      The fact is that the Johannine comma doesn't appear in any Greek manuscript of the first millennium.
      You are very selective in the points that you answer; I see you ignored the strongest by far argument for the Johannine comma, in fact you (in the quote above) utterly denied their existence. So once again:
      The third argument is from the manuscripts. You claim that the Johannine Comma came about in 1200 from 4 manuscripts, a common tactic from the RCC and its manuscript defenders. The current edition of the UBSNT (critical text) shows 6 (61, 88mg, 429mg, 629, 636mg, and 918) with the Johannine Comma. There are at least twenty more MSS with the Johannine Comma in them, some of those are 61, 88mg, 629, 634mg, 636mg, omega 110, 429mg, 221, and 2318. Two lectionaries also have it (60 and 173). It is also mentioned by Tertullian, Cyprian, Augustine, and Jerome. The UBSNT has retained other verses on a lot less evidence than this.
      The comma was in a number of early manuscripts; your denial is irrelevant, the facts override your opinion.

      About the sources you keep demanding for the information about "Innocent" III; again, see the Catholic source I provided you. If you don't like the source, and if he's that immensely inaccurate, go get him anathematized by the current pope. After all, all Baptists and most Protestants are anathematized by the RCC already; send him on over too.

      You claim that there are quotes from the sepuagint; my point here is that the greek text of the LXX would have been very easy to align with the extant Greek manuscripts of the NT, making it appear to later generations that the order was LXX first, NT second instead of the other way around. The fact that they have identical wording only proves that one was taken from the other, not the order in which that was done.

      You keep twisting points to try to defend tradition, yet while the Lord quoted often from the OT, can you show once that he quoted from tradition (other than the times he chastised the religious hierarchy for tradition)?
    234. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1

      You state

      The fact is that the Johannine comma doesn't appear in any Greek manuscript of the first millennium.

      You are very selective in the points that you answer; I see you ignored the strongest by far argument for the Johannine comma, in fact you (in the quote above) utterly denied their existence.


      Actually, I did respond to this, but I'll go into more detail below.

      So once again:

      The current edition of the UBSNT (critical text) shows 6 (61, 88mg, 429mg, 629, 636mg, and 918) with the Johannine Comma. There are at least twenty more MSS with the Johannine Comma in them, some of those are 61, 88mg, 629, 634mg, 636mg, omega 110, 429mg, 221, and 2318. Two lectionaries also have it (60 and 173).


      As I said, there are no Greek manuscripts from the first millennium with the Johannine Comma. The manuscripts you mentioned are relatively recent ones. I found the following dates on this page:

      61, Codex Monfortianus 16th cent. (Metzger), C.1250 (Adam Clarke)
      88mg, (margins) Codex Regius of Naples, 12th Century
      429mg, (margins) Codex Wolfenbuettel, 14th Century
      629, Codex Ottobonianus, 14th or 15th cent.
      636mg, (margins) Naples, a variant reading, 16th century,
      918, Escorial, 16th century,
      omega 110, Codex Ravianus (also called Berolinensis), 16th Century.
      221, (margins) - Bodleian Library, Oxford, a 10th century manuscript with a variant reading dated to the 15th or 16th Century
      2318. (margins) A Bucharest manuscript, thought to have been influenced by the Clementine Vulgate. Dated to the eighteenth-century, though I did come across a date of 1592.
      60 (lectionary) (AD 1021)

      In many of these, the Comma appears only in the margins of the Bible, and not in the actual text.

      It is also mentioned by Tertullian, Cyprian, Augustine, and Jerome.

      Again, these are Latin writers, and so they would have been able to read Latin manuscripts that contained the Comma. The Comma did not appear in early Greek manuscripts.

      About the sources you keep demanding for the information about "Innocent" III; again, see the Catholic source I provided you.

      So if you have this proof that Innocent III ordered the killing at Beziers, why don't you actually provide it? Either do so, or apologize.

      You claim that there are quotes from the sepuagint; my point here is that the greek text of the LXX would have been very easy to align with the extant Greek manuscripts of the NT, making it appear to later generations that the order was LXX first, NT second instead of the other way around. The fact that they have identical wording only proves that one was taken from the other, not the order in which that was done.

      The Septuagint is about 300 years older than the New Testament. Manuscripts of the Septuagint dating from before Christ have been found in Qumran.

      You keep twisting points to try to defend tradition, yet while the Lord quoted often from the OT, can you show once that he quoted from tradition

      Nice try, but the verses I provided are sufficient to show that Catholic oral Tradition (the passing down of the teachings of the Apostles by word) is mentioned in the Bible.

      However, since you ask, this page mentions a few cases of Jewish oral tradition in the New Testament, including an example of Jewish oral tradition used by Jesus (Matthew 23:2-3).

      (other than the times he chastised the religious hierarchy for tradition)?

      He chastised them for their manmade traditions, not for passing down authentic teachings.

    235. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      The Johannine Comma is in the 2nd Century Old Latin Bible; this predates the Aleph and B sources. Yes it's not Greek, but it's older than your primary source documents you draw from. It is also in the Old Syriac version, roughly 170 AD. Cyprian writes of it in 250, as did Tertullian in 200.

      Further on the grammatical evidence

      1) EDWARD HILLS: "[T]he omission of the Johannine comma involves a grammatical difficulty. The words spirit, water, and blood are neuter in gender, but in 1 John 5:8 they are treated as masculine. If the Johannine comma is rejected, it is hard to explain this irregularity. It is usually said that in 1 John 5:8 the spirit, the water, and the blood are personalized and that this is the reason for the adoption of the masculine gender. But it is hard to see how such personalization would involve the change from the neuter to the masculine. For in verse 6 the word Spirit plainly refers to the Holy Spirit, the Third Person of the Trinity. Surely in this verse the word Spirit is "personalized," and yet the neuter gender is used. Therefore since personalization did not bring about a change of gender in verse 6, it cannot fairly be pleaded as the reason for such a change in verse 8. If, however, the Johannine comma is retained, a reason for placing the neuter nouns spirit, water, and blood in the masculine gender becomes readily apparent. It was due to the influence of the nouns Father and Word, which are masculine. Thus the hypothesis that the Johannine comma is an interpolation is full of difficulties.

      2) FLOYD JONES: The Greek language has "gender" in its noun endings (as do many other languages). Neuter nouns normally require neuter articles (the word "the" as in "the blood" is the article). But the article in verse 8 of the shortened reading as found in the Greek that is the foundation of the new versions?is masculine. Thus the new translations read "the Spirit (neuter), the water (neuter), and the blood (neuter): and these three (masculine!! - from the Greek article "hoi") are in one." Consequently three neuter subjects are being treated as masculine (see below where the omitted portion is capitalized). If the "Comma" is rejected it is impossible to adequately explain this irregularity. In addition, without the "Comma" verse 7 has a masculine antecedent; three neuter subjects (nouns in vs.8) do not take a masculine antecedent. Viewing the complete passage it becomes apparent how this rule of grammer is violated when the words are omitted. I John 5:6-8:

      "... And it is the Spirit (Neuter) that beareth witness (Neuter), because the Spirit (Neuter) is truth. For there are three (Masculine) that bear record (Masculine) IN HEAVEN, THE FATHER (Masculine), THE WORD (Masculine), AND THE HOLY SPIRIT (Neuter): AND THESE THREE (Masculine) ARE ONE (Masculine). AND THERE ARE THREE (Masculine) THAT BEAR WITNESS IN EARTH, the Spirit (Neuter), and the water (Neuter), and the blood (Neuter): and these three (Masculine) agree in one.

      3) THOMAS HOLLAND: The phrase in verse 8, to pneuma, kai to udor, kai to aima (the Spirit, and the water, and the blood), are all neuter nouns. They are, however, contiguous with the phrase, oi marturountes (who bare witness) which stands in the masculine (as does the Greek word for three, treis). The proper grammatical explanation for this, mixing the neuter and the masculine, is that the parallel is introduced in verse 7. There we find the phrase, o Pater, o Logos, kai to Agion Pneuma (the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost) which are masculine nouns (with the exception of the Holy Ghost, which stands in the neuter). The would allow for the masculine oi marturountes since the clause contains two masculine nouns. If, on the other hand, the masculine nouns of verse 7 are removed we are at a loss as to why the masculine is used in verse 8. Therefore, the inclusion of the Comma is not only proper theology, it is proper Greek.

      In Matthew 23, Jesus is railing against the scribes and Pharisees, see verse

    236. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      You want the proof, I gave you the documentation.

      If you have the necessary documentation, then use it to provide the proof for your assertion that various Popes ordered crusaders to kill Jews they encountered along the way. Do so or apologize.

      [sspxasia.com] - and that's a Catholic site!

      No, the SSPX are not Catholics, they're a denomination that broke away from the Church a few decades ago.

      And how about claims like pope Leo "We hold upon this earth the place of God Almighty." -- Pope Leo XIII

      That is clear, outright, unadulterated blasphemy; the Jews crucified Christ for saying He was God. Yet He is God, they had it wrong. Now the Catholic Church has popes who have claimed to be God


      Pope Leo wasn't saying that he is God, but rather that he (as Pope) is God's representative on earth. That's what is indicated by the keys that Jesus said he would give Peter in Matthew 16:19. Have a look at the following passage from Isaiah:
      Isaiah 22:21-22
      And I will clothe him with thy robe, and strengthen him with thy girdle, and I will commit thy government into his hand: and he shall be a father to the inhabitants of Jerusalem, and to the house of Judah. And the key of the house of David will I lay upon his shoulder; so he shall open, and none shall shut; and he shall shut, and none shall open.

      This is analogous to Peter being given the keys of the kingdom of heaven. In this passage from Isaiah, Eliakim is being made steward over the house of David. He is not the king, but only a steward, governing in the king's place (using his keys) while the king is away. That's exactly what the Pope does: Christ ascended into heaven, but He left the Church in the care of the Pope, His visible representative on earth.

      Here are some Biblical quotes about people acting in Christ's place:
      John 13:20
      Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that receiveth whomsoever I send receiveth me; and he that receiveth me receiveth him that sent me.

      2 Corinthians 5:20
      Now then we are ambassadors for Christ, as though God did beseech you by us: we pray you in Christ's stead, be ye reconciled to God.

      And I have no opinion about equality of sins in the tenth (RCC 9th and 10th) commandment(s) - you're drawing your own conclusions about that.

      There's clearly a lot of difference between coveting your neighbor's wife and coveting your neighbor's goods.

      Try reading the ten commandments in Exodus 20; see how the RCC has excised the inconvenient bit. Editing God's word by taking out bits you don't like is not a good idea...

      Nothing has been excised, the part about not worshipping false gods belongs to the first commandment. It's just like when you say the tenth commandment is "Thou shalt not covet", without actually listing all the things the Bible lists, such as donkeys, oxen, etc. By doing so, you're not saying that coveting donkeys and oxen is allowed.

      And check out here [pilgrimtours.com] which talks about the stadium built there in 79AD,

      The same page also says "It was destroyed by an earthquake (A.D. 66, or earlier) and rebuilt by Marcus Aurelius." Marcus Aurelius ruled around 150 AD or so. As for the stadium, it says that it was built on the same plateau as the town, not that it was part of the town.

      and note that Tacitus, an historian at the time, wrote about the great quake happening in 61, whereupon it was rebuilt.

      Sure, and then there was another earthquake.
    237. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1

      Your claim that Luke 1:34 shows that Mary intended to remain celibate is, well, absurd. What she said was "How shall this be, seeing I know not a man?". Had she said "seeing I will never know a man" you would have a point. But her statement there was clearly describing her present condition (seeing I know not), not her perpetual condition.

      Since she was about to be married, it shouldn't have been much of a mystery to her how she could conceive a child (if she was planning to have a normal marriage, that is). But it was a mystery to her, so it follows that she intended to remain celibate even in marriage. She intended her present condition to be a permanent one.

      Consider this case. You are in college, and your class schedule shows you will learn calculus and QM in a year. You are then told that you will, in three months, explain the HUP and PEP to a classroom. Your response could be "How shall this be, seeing I know not an integral?" This would communicate that you do not presently have what it normally takes to accomplish the task you have just been told you will do.

      Your analogy doesn't fit because Mary was never told when she would conceive a child, but only that she would conceive a child at some unspecified time in the future. The time of her betrothal would soon be coming to an end, so someone expecting to have a normal marriage would naturally assume that the conception would take place after that. If she were planning to have sex during her marriage, she would have expected to soon "know a man", and so there would be no reason for her to wonder how she was to conceive a child.

      Here's a better analogy, based on yours:

      You are in college, and you're a Fine Arts major. You are told that you will eventually have to explain the HUP and PEP to a classroom. Your response could be "How shall this be, seeing I know not an integral?" This would communicate that you do not presently have what it normally takes to accomplish the task you have just been told you will do, and that, furthermore, you have no intention of ever learning it.

      Then you claim that Mary wouldn't think she was holy. But she would know she was sinless, and false humility == pride, so she would know she was holy.

      If you were perfectly humble, you wouldn't think of yourself as holy. The thought wouldn't even occur to you. Someone who is humble doesn't think about his or her own greatness.

      You claim the meaning of prophecies aren't always clear until fulfilled, true enough in many cases. However we know that Anna and Simeon had both worked it out,

      The Bible doesn't say that either Anna or Simeon had worked out what the prophecies meant. Simeon was explicitly told by God that he wouldn't die before seeing the Messiah, and the Holy Spirit told him to go to the Temple on the day Jesus was there (Luke 2:27); and Anna seems to have said what she did due to inspiration by the Holy Spirit (Luke 2:38) - she was a prophetess, not a Bible scholar.

      And when he was come near, he beheld the city, and wept over it, Saying, If thou hadst known, even thou, at least in this thy day, the things which belong unto thy peace! but now they are hid from thine eyes. For the days shall come upon thee, that thine enemies shall cast a trench about thee, and compass thee round, and keep thee in on every side, And shall lay thee even with the ground, and thy children within thee; and they shall not leave in thee one stone upon another; because thou knewest not the time of thy visitation. (Luk 19:41-44)

      We see that the Lord held Jerusalem in general responsible to have known the time of the visitation, and they did not. For the judgment to fall that He utters here, it was a mighty sin. Yet Mary knew not the time either; how can that be???


      Jesus wasn't condemning them for not figuring out prophecies. Jesus expected them to believe in Him because of His teachings, and failing that, because of His miracles. Despite all the pro

    238. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      The Johannine Comma is in the 2nd Century Old Latin Bible

      Yes indeed, that's where it was first added as a comment in the margin.

      Yes it's not Greek

      And the Johannine Comma doesn't appear in any Greek manuscript for over a thousand years.

      Cyprian writes of it in 250, as did Tertullian in 200.

      These are Latin writers, reading the Old Latin Bible.

      Further on the grammatical evidence

      I believe I've replied to this grammatical issue in my previous post.

      In Matthew 23, Jesus is railing against the scribes and Pharisees, see verse 13.

      That's right, and it helps to emphasize that the scribes and Pharisees have an authentic authority that must be obeyed, and that their moral failings don't take anything away from this.

      If that's your example of Jesus mentioning oral tradition, it is clearly when put in context, a case of Him strongly condemning it.

      Not at all. If He were condemning oral tradition, Jesus would have told people to ignore the commands of the scribes and Pharisees. But He doesn't do this. Jesus agrees with oral tradition, and says that the scribes and Pharisees do have Moses' authority.

      The site you gave as an example is awfully weak, it calls citing an historic fact a citation of oral tradition.

      It is a historical fact that the scribes and Pharisees made laws, but that's not what the oral tradition was talking about. The oral tradition says that the scribes and Pharisees made those laws with the authority of Moses. This is not a historical fact, but a religious one. In order to accept what Jesus said, people had to believe that Moses' authority had to be obeyed, and that the scribes and Pharisees possessed Moses' authority.

      By the way, the site I mentioned provides another example of Jesus using oral tradition:
      Matthew 23:35
      Upon you may fall the guilt of all the righteous blood shed on earth, from the blood of righteous Abel to the blood of Zechariah, the son of Berachiah, whom you murdered between the temple and the altar.
      In 2 Chronicles 24:20-21, the Bible tells us that Zechariah was stoned to death in the courtyard of the temple. But the Zechariah mentioned in 2 Chronicles was the son of Jehoiada, not Berachiah. Zechariah son of Berachiah was the author of the biblical book of the same name, and the Bible doesn't say anything about how he died. According to Protestant author Gleason L. Archer,
      [Jesus] knew what He was talking about. If so, then we discover that the Zechariah He was referring to was indeed the son of Berachiah (not Jehoiada), and that he was indeed the last of the Old Testament martyrs mentioned in the Hebrew Scriptures. In other words, Christ is recalling to His audience the circumstances of the death of the prophet Zechariah, son of Berachiah (Zech. 1:1) . . . [I]t may very well have been that sometime between 580 and 570 Zechariah the prophet was martyred by a mob in much the same way Zechariah the son of Jehoiada was some three centuries earlier. . . . In the absence of any other information as to how the prophet Zechariah died, we may as well conclude that Jesus has given us a true account of it.
      In other words, Jesus was referring to an oral tradition regarding the death of Zechariah. We can safely assume that this was common knowledge because He made this statement in the middle of a withering condemnation of the Pharisees and the teachers of the law. After Jesus rebuked them, they 'began to oppose him fiercely and to besiege him with questions, waiting to catch him in something he might say.' If Jesus were presenting new information, these men would have pounced on that in order to undermine His credibility. The fact that they did not do so shows that this was not new information to them. Obviously, Jesus was relying on an oral Tradition that was well known to the Pharisees and the teachers of the law.
    239. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      Your passage from Isaiah 22 clearly is talking of a very specific case of a regent (Eliakim) to rule Jerusalem and Judah; your application of it to Peter is as absurd as claiming that Peter was made head of the church (about five miles up in this discussion, see the points about James running the church, not Peter).

      Your claim for when Laodicea was destroyed make for a hard problem in Revelation. Since clearly those seven churches had been under Paul's control until his death, John would have to take a few years to get control after that. Yet your interpretation allows no time for that to happen. And if we take for the sake of discussion your dating for Revelation, and your interpretation of the destruction of the temple in 70 AD as being what the seals, trumpets, and bowl judgments are about, then how do you deal with passages like Revelation 6:14 "every mountain and island were moved out of their places"? Last time it was checked, even Mount Moriah where Jerusalem is has not moved out of its place, much less every mountain and island. You have to allegorize scripture to get your interpretation in there. The RCC also allegorizes

      The first angel sounded, and there followed hail and fire mingled with blood, and they were cast upon the earth: and the third part of trees was burnt up, and all green grass was burnt up. And the second angel sounded, and as it were a great mountain burning with fire was cast into the sea: and the third part of the sea became blood; And the third part of the creatures which were in the sea, and had life, died; and the third part of the ships were destroyed. And the third angel sounded, and there fell a great star from heaven, burning as it were a lamp, and it fell upon the third part of the rivers, and upon the fountains of waters; And the name of the star is called Wormwood: and the third part of the waters became wormwood; and many men died of the waters, because they were made bitter. And the fourth angel sounded, and the third part of the sun was smitten, and the third part of the moon, and the third part of the stars; so as the third part of them was darkened, and the day shone not for a third part of it, and the night likewise. (Rev 8:7-12)

      None of that has happened, has it? Seen a third of the sea become blood ever? Note that in Revelation 9 the judgment is not talking about Jews refusing to accept Christ, but sinners engaging in idolatry. That's more about judging the RCC than about 70 AD, which was a political revolution against Rome.

      And where is Revelation 13 fulfilled in the RCC twisting of scripture? Where was a mark on the right hand or forehead required for commerce?

      Face it, the RCC does not accept the plain reading of scripture, it has to allegorize it to avoid being clearly labelled as the woman who rides the beast.

      Oh and about pope Leo, that has not gone away; check out the Catechism of the RCC, 1994, P. 254 #882:

      For the Roman pontiff, by reason of his office as VICAR OF CHRIST, and as pastor of the entire Church has full, supreme, and universal POWER over the whole Church, a power which he can always exercise UNHINDERED."

      Compare that with

      Power tends to corrupt. Absolute power corrupts absolutely (Lord Acton)

      While this explains the excesses of the popes, it does not excuse them.

      Also note that "anti-christ" as used in the Greek means "in place of", note that the "vicar of Christ" is therefore identical to "anti-christ". And the pope is the "vicar of Christ". So what else is he? Look up the definitions, this is simple, straightforward logic. Your pope is claiming to be anti-christ, I'm not hanging that label on him, he is grabbing it with both hands. Also consider

      And as he sat upon the mount of Olives, the disciples came unto him privately, saying, Tell us, when shall these things be? and what shall be the sign of thy coming, and of the end of the world? And Jesus answered and said u

    240. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      I'm glad to see you pick definition 1:
      1. More readily or willingly; with better liking; with preference or choice.
      My soul chooseth strangling and death rather than life. Job 7.

      Light is come into the world, and men loved darkness rather than light, because their deeds were evil. John 3. Psa 84.
      For the definition of rather in
      And it came to pass, as he spake these things, a certain woman of the company lifted up her voice, and said unto him, Blessed is the womb that bare thee, and the paps which thou hast sucked. But he said, Yea rather, blessed are they that hear the word of God, and keep it. (Luk 11:27-28, emphasis added)
      By agreeing to definition 1, you agree now that "more readily" or "with preference" that simple believers in Christ are more blessed than Mary, who at the time quite likely was not a believer (as shown by her attempts to dissuade Christ from his preaching, as in Mark 3 and Matthew 12).

      You also claim that "If you were perfectly humble, you wouldn't think of yourself as holy". Fascinating, your statement claims that Christ, who was perfectly humble, did not think of Himself as holy. Amazing. I suggest you spend some time in prayer on that topic and its implications before you present it again.

      Your extraction of a bit of Romans 8:34 shows yet again the pattern of quoting out of context. In context:
      What shall we then say to these things? If God be for us, who can be against us? He that spared not his own Son, but delivered him up for us all, how shall he not with him also freely give us all things? Who shall lay any thing to the charge of God's elect? It is God that justifieth. Who is he that condemneth? It is Christ that died, yea rather, that is risen again, who is even at the right hand of God, who also maketh intercession for us. Who shall separate us from the love of Christ? shall tribulation, or distress, or persecution, or famine, or nakedness, or peril, or sword? As it is written, For thy sake we are killed all the day long; we are accounted as sheep for the slaughter. Nay, in all these things we are more than conquerors through him that loved us. For I am persuaded, that neither death, nor life, nor angels, nor principalities, nor powers, nor things present, nor things to come, Nor height, nor depth, nor any other creature, shall be able to separate us from the love of God, which is in Christ Jesus our Lord. (Rom 8:31-39)
      Clearly in context the explanation of "yea rather" is that it is the fact that Christ is risen as more significant than His death when it comes to our eternal security. This passage shows that Christ alone is our intercessor (not Mary), that we cannot be separated from His love. It's a marvelous passage, and is strongly against many RCC doctrines. I'm not surprised you extracted just a tiny bit of it, since the rest is clearly against the RCC tradition.
    241. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      There you go again, claiming that Christ was using oral tradition when simple history is the point. One possibility is that Berechiah and Jehoida have identical meanings if you look up the words, and the use of synonyms for Jewish names is well established throughout scripture. It is not a hard proof of use of tradition in any case.

      Again for the Johannine comma I refer you to the books previously mentioned, and to this quotation from Jerome's prologue to the canonical epistles when referring to the Johannine comma: "Irresponsible translators left out this testimony in the Greek codices." Since Jerome is a clearly Catholic source, why are you taking a position against a father of your church?

      If you'd like a nice read on the comma, see here.

    242. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      About Laodicea: there were two earthquakes in Laodicea, one in 60 AD, and one in 65 AD. The Laodiceans rebuilt after the first one, and then had their town destroyed again in the second earthquake. The town was eventually rebuilt a century later. So there was no town of Laodicea in 96 AD; in fact it wasn't there when Jerusalem fell in 70 AD. Thus, John wrote the book of Revelation before the fall of Jerusalem.

    243. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      There you go again, claiming that Christ was using oral tradition when simple history is the point. One possibility is that Berechiah and Jehoida have identical meanings if you look up the words, and the use of synonyms for Jewish names is well established throughout scripture.

      Berechiah means "God blesses".
      Jehoiada means "God knows".
      These aren't synonymous...

      In any case, what we were originally talking about was Christian oral Tradition, not Jewish oral tradition. And as I've already shown, the Bible does support what the Catholic Church teaches about the Tradition of the Apostles:
      2 Thessalonians 2:15
      Therefore, brethren, stand fast, and hold the traditions which ye have been taught, whether by word, or our epistle.

      2 Timothy 2:2
      And the things that thou hast heard of me among many witnesses, the same commit thou to faithful men, who shall be able to teach others also.

      1 Thessalonians 2:13
      For this cause also thank we God without ceasing, because, when ye received the word of God which ye heard of us, ye received it not as the word of men, but as it is in truth, the word of God, which effectually worketh also in you that believe.

      Again for the Johannine comma I refer you to the books previously mentioned, and to this quotation from Jerome's prologue to the canonical epistles when referring to the Johannine comma: "Irresponsible translators left out this testimony in the Greek codices."

      So, in other words, Jerome says that the Johannine Comma didn't appear in Greek manuscripts of the Bible. No Greek Fathers mention it, even when they were trying to convert the Arians, who didn't believe in the Trinity. They weren't aware of the existence of the Comma, because if they were, they certainly would have used it.
    244. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      By agreeing to definition 1, you agree now that "more readily" or "with preference" that simple believers in Christ are more blessed than Mary,

      No, not at all. Mary was a believer in Christ, so she was blessed in this sense too, just as in the following, Christ both died and rose again:

      Romans 8:34

      It is Christ that died, yea rather, that is risen again...

      Jesus was saying that yes, His mother was blessed for being His mother, but she was even more blessed for hearing the word of the Lord and keeping it.

      who at the time quite likely was not a believer

      That's an odd thing to say. An angel appeared to her telling her that Jesus was the Messiah. Not only that, but she knew better than anyone that Jesus had been conceived without a human father! That sort of evidence is hard to ignore.

      (as shown by her attempts to dissuade Christ from his preaching, as in Mark 3 and Matthew 12).

      Mary did not attempt to dissuade Christ from preaching.

      First of all, the people who said Jesus was "beside himself" were Jesus' friends:

      Mark 3:21

      And when his friends heard of it, they went out to lay hold on him: for they said, "He is beside himself."

      But why did they say this about Jesus? The above verse tells us that they said this because they "heard of it". What did they hear? The previous verse says:

      Mark 3:20

      And the multitude cometh together again, so that they could not so much as eat bread.

      In other words, Jesus' friends were worried about Him, since He was in the middle of a crowd so great that He couldn't eat properly.

      Anyway, Mary isn't mentioned in the above. She is mentioned later on in the chapter, though:

      Mark 3:31-32

      There came then his brethren and his mother, and, standing without, sent unto him, calling him. And the multitude sat about him, and they said unto him, "Behold, thy mother and thy brethren without seek for thee."

      All that this says about Mary is that she was with some of Jesus' relatives, and that they wanted to talk to him. Wanting to talk to Jesus doesn't imply anything bad about Mary. Even if we were to assume that the "friends" in Mark 3:21 are the same as the "brethren" in Mark 3:31-32, all that this would mean is that Jesus' friends and family were worried that Jesus wasn't eating enough. Such a reaction was to be expected, especially in Mary's case, as it had been her job to take care of Jesus' well-being.

      You also claim that "If you were perfectly humble, you wouldn't think of yourself as holy". Fascinating, your statement claims that Christ, who was perfectly humble, did not think of Himself as holy.

      I didn't say that one would think of oneself as unholy, as you seem to suggest. I'm saying that humble people don't concentrate on the fact that they're holy. It is pride that leads one to compare oneself with others and say, "I am holy." Humble people, on the other hand, tend to dismiss suggestions that they are holy.

      Philippians 2:3

      In lowliness of mind let each esteem other better than themselves.

      So someone who was truly holy and who thus zealous followed what Paul says here would think other people to be better than himself, due to humility. This isn't false modesty, that's just the way humble people are.

      Jesus, of course, is God, so He knows that, by definition, no one is better than Him. But humble people (who are solely human beings) would tend to follow what Paul says, and thus not think of themselves as particularly holy.

      Your extraction of a bit of Romans 8:34 shows yet again the pattern of quoting out of context.

      I don't see what the context has to do with it; I'm talking about the meaning of the expression "yea rather":

      Romans 8:34

    245. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      Okay, back to the original point of this thread, the key point that the RCC is not only non-biblical, it's anti-biblical. Let's focus on the key doctrine of salvation. What does the Bible teach it takes to be saved? Here are some examples of how simple it is to be saved:

      That whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have eternal life. For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. (John 3:15-16)

      And Philip said, If thou believest with all thine heart, thou mayest. And he answered and said, I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God. (Acts 8:37)

      And he said unto Jesus, Lord, remember me when thou comest into thy kingdom. And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, To day shalt thou be with me in paradise. (Lukr 23:42-43)

      And brought them out, and said, Sirs, what must I do to be saved? And they said, Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and thou shalt be saved, and thy house. (Acts 16:30-31)

      Now let's contrast by seeing what the Roman Catholic Church teaches is the requirement for salvation:

      From the Mother of the Savior[sic] Seminary in Blackwood, NJ prayer card on how to be saved:

      Things necessary for salvation: Believing in God; Hoping in God; Loving God; Being sorry for offending God; Adoring God; Aspiring after God; Thanking God; Calling upon God; Being led, restrained, comforted and defended by God; Consecrating all thoughts, words, actions and sufferings to God; Referring all actions to God's Glory; Suffering whatever God appoints; Desiring God's will; Having understanding enlightened, will inflamed, body purified and soul sanctified; Expiating offences, overcoming temptations, subduing passions, acquiring virtues; Loving God's goodness, hating my faults, loving my neighbor, having contempt for the world; Being submissive to superiors, courteous to inferiors, faithful to friends, and charitable to enemies; Overcoming sensuality, avarice, anger and tepidity; Being prudent, courageous, patient and humble; Being attentive at prayer; temperate at meals; diligent in employment, constant in resolutions; Having a pure conscience, being modest, letting conversation be edifying, and deportment regular; Laboring to overcome nature, working with God's Grace, keeping His commandments and working out my salvation; Seeing the nothingness of this world, the greatness of heaven, the shortness of time and the length of eternity; Preparing for death, fearing God's judgments, thereby to escape hell and in the end obtain salvation.

      Note that in that list, an official Roman Catholic list, JESUS CHRIST is NOT MENTIONED as being necessary for salvation! Note that a lots of works are mentioned, but faith in our Lord Jesus Christ is not.

      Here is the absolute proof of the RCC promoting another gospel, of being anti-biblical. Consider

      But I fear, lest by any means, as the serpent beguiled Eve through his subtilty, so your minds should be corrupted from the

      simplicity that is in Christ. For if he that cometh preacheth another Jesus, whom we have not preached, or if ye receive another spirit, which ye have not received, or another gospel, which ye have not accepted, ye might well bear with him. (2Co 11:3-4, emphasis added). Note that the verses quoted above do indeed teach a simplicity, whereas the RCC teaches anything but.

      I marvel that ye are so soon removed from him that called you into the grace of Christ unto another gospel: Which is not another; but there be some that trouble you, and would pervert the gospel of Christ. (Gal 1:6-7)

      Once again, QED. The RCC is anti-biblical, it promotes a gospel completely different from the one Jesus and Paul preached. Go ahead and believe in it, but that warm place you'll go is not purgatory, and when your time is up you'll go to the White Throne Judgment and be judged by your works ("Bu

    246. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      If you maintain as you seem to that the traditions of man (as in the RCC teachings) are important, then you have to reconcile that with the Lord Jesus Christ's teachings in Matthew 15:3, 15:6; Mark 7:8-9, 7:13.

      As for your other positions, see the posting in the other thread.

    247. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      If you maintain as you seem to that the traditions of man (as in the RCC teachings)

      Catholic teachings are not "traditions of man". Catholic Tradition consists of the teachings of Jesus and the Apostles, handed down from generation to generation until the end of the world. Part of it the Apostles passed down to us in the form of the New Testament, and part of it they passed down orally:
      2 Thessalonians 2:15
      Therefore, brethren, stand fast, and hold the traditions which ye have been taught, whether by word, or our epistle.

      2 Timothy 2:2
      And the things that thou hast heard of me among many witnesses, the same commit thou to faithful men, who shall be able to teach others also.

      1 Thessalonians 2:13
      For this cause also thank we God without ceasing, because, when ye received the word of God which ye heard of us, ye received it not as the word of men, but as it is in truth, the word of God, which effectually worketh also in you that believe.
      you have to reconcile that with the Lord Jesus Christ's teachings in Matthew 15:3, 15:6; Mark 7:8-9, 7:13.

      Jesus was not condemning His own teachings and those of his Apostles. Here's the passage from Matthew 15 (Mark 7 is similar):
      Matthew 15:1-9
      Then came to Jesus scribes and Pharisees, which were of Jerusalem, saying, "Why do thy disciples transgress the tradition of the elders? for they wash not their hands when they eat bread."

      But he answered and said unto them, "Why do ye also transgress the commandment of God by your tradition? For God commanded, saying, 'Honour thy father and mother': and, 'He that curseth father or mother, let him die the death.' But ye say, 'Whosoever shall say to his father or his mother, "It is a gift, by whatsoever thou mightest be profited by me"; and honour not his father or his mother, he shall be free. Thus have ye made the commandment of God of none effect by your tradition.

      "Ye hypocrites, well did Esaias prophesy of you, saying, 'This people draweth nigh unto me with their mouth, and honoureth me with their lips; but their heart is far from me. But in vain they do worship me, teaching for doctrines the commandments of men.'"
      Jesus' point is that the Pharisees were using their own regulations to avoid obeying God's commandments, as in the example Jesus gives here. Jesus said elsewhere that the Pharisees and scribes had the authority to make laws, so He's not condemning them for doing so; rather, He condemns them for making regulations that are not in harmony with God's will. The regulations of the scribes and Pharisees could have been good ones, but instead they were self-serving.

      So what Jesus says in Matthew 15 and Mark 7 does not contradict what Paul says in 1 Thessalonians 2:13, 2 Thessalonians 2:15, and 2 Timothy 2:2.
    248. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      You're really pushing the point here. Clearly Paul taught verbally before he wrote all of his letters. Therefore to those recipients of the letters which he had verbally taught, he made the statements you quote.

      But there is no parallel for oral tradition to the clear statement for scripture:
      But evil men and seducers shall wax worse and worse, deceiving, and being deceived. But continue thou in the things which thou hast learned and hast been assured of, knowing of whom thou hast learned them; And that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus. All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.(2Timothy 3:13-17)
      You may claim, as you have previously, the our Lord said to obey his words. Yet there is nothing which shows that He meant anything for us beyond that recorded in scripture. From the history of the manuscripts, it's clear that written transmission is of a far higher fidelity than verbal (think about the game of "telephone").

      The RCC has clearly made regulations against God's will, such as forbidding their priests to marry. You claim that this is a voluntary act of a priest / nun / monk, yet the simple fact is that the RCC forbids marriage. Yes there have been exceptions, just as the RCC has sold indulgences to gain forgiveness of sins and sells mass cards as get-out-of-purgatory-early tokens. In fact the RCC doctrine of forbidding marriage is clearly labelled in scripture:
      Now the Spirit speaketh expressly, that in the latter times some shall depart from the faith, giving heed to seducing spirits, and doctrines of devils; Speaking lies in hypocrisy; having their conscience seared with a hot iron; Forbidding to marry, and commanding to abstain from meats, which God hath created to be received with thanksgiving of them which believe and know the truth. For every creature of God is good, and nothing to be refused, if it be received with thanksgiving: For it is sanctified by the word of God and prayer.(1Timothy 4:1-5)
      Compare that with the catechism 1579, the one used to keep priests from marrying. The RCC does occasionally allow a married Anglican priest to become an RCC priest, yet if he becomes a widower, he cannot marry once a priest. That is forbidding to marry, something the Bible clearly labels a doctrine of devils.
    249. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      Oh and further proof of the non-biblical nature of the RCC, about marriage and priests. I forgot to include the wonderful passage that requires that a bishop be married:
      This is a true saying, If a man desire the office of a bishop, he desireth a good work. A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach; Not given to wine, no striker, not greedy of filthy lucre; but patient, not a brawler, not covetous; One that ruleth well his own house, having his children in subjection with all gravity; (For if a man know not how to rule his own house, how shall he take care of the church of God?) (1Timothy 3:1-5)
      Note that does not say that a bishop "can" be married or is "permitted" to be married, rather that he "must be...the husband of one wife".

      Another case is:
      Marriage is honourable in all, and the bed undefiled: but whoremongers and adulterers God will judge. (Hebrews 13:4)
      What does "all" mean? All means all, that's all all means. If marriage is honourable in all, then the RCC is anti-biblical to suggest otherwise as it does in Catechism 1579. Once again, Q.E.D.
    250. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      Your passage from Isaiah 22 clearly is talking of a very specific case of a regent (Eliakim) to rule Jerusalem and Judah

      The point is what keys represent: the king's authority. The steward wasn't the king, but governed in the king's place. The same is true for the Pope. Jesus gave the keys to Peter, so Peter ruled in Christ's place after Christ's ascension into heaven, as Christ's steward.

      (about five miles up in this discussion, see the points about James running the church, not Peter).

      It was to Peter that Christ gave the keys, not James. It was for Peter that Christ prayed (Luke 22:32), not James.

      Your claim for when Laodicea was destroyed make for a hard problem in Revelation. Since clearly those seven churches had been under Paul's control until his death, John would have to take a few years to get control after that.

      Who says that John couldn't write a letter to these towns, even if they were under Paul's control?

      And if we take for the sake of discussion your dating for Revelation, and your interpretation of the destruction of the temple in 70 AD as being what the seals, trumpets, and bowl judgments are about, then how do you deal with passages like Revelation 6:14 "every mountain and island were moved out of their places"? Last time it was checked, even Mount Moriah where Jerusalem is has not moved out of its place, much less every mountain and island. You have to allegorize scripture to get your interpretation in there.

      I see, so you believe that there will literally be a woman riding a multi-headed beast? Besides, the verse before the one you mention above says that the stars fall to earth. If that were to happen literally, there would be no mountains or islands left.

      Note that in Revelation 9 the judgment is not talking about Jews refusing to accept Christ, but sinners engaging in idolatry... 70 AD, which was a political revolution against Rome.

      From the Scripture study I've cited earlier:

      The plague of stinging locusts is allowed to torture those without the seal for "five months." What does this period signify? Many scholars believe this refers to the opening acts of the Jewish rebellion against Rome in 66 AD. Gessius Florus, the procurator of Judea, deliberately slaughtered 3600 innocent citizens of Jerusalem in May 66 in order to incite a revolt by the citizens of Jerusalem whom he despised. And it worked. For the next five months, a vicious war broke out against the Roman power in Judea. On the heels of the outbreak, the Roman army under the command of Cestius invaded Palestine with troops who were garrisoned near the Euphrates. Then, after ravaging the countryside for five months, they moved to attack the city of Jerusalem. However, right around the Feast of Trumpets (in September 66), Cestius suddenly and inexplicably broke off the attack and withdrew his forces. Encouraged by this, the rebelling Jews pursued the fleeing army and inflicted heavy casualties. This victory was taken by the Jews as a sign of divine deliverance and transformed the revolt against Rome into a real war. In its wake, the Jewish populace threw its enthusiasm headlong into the suicidal attempt to defeat the full might of Rome. And this, in turn, brought down upon Judea the legions of Titus and Vespasian who four years later would besiege Jerusalem and destroy the Temple.

      Revelation, of course, sees in these events not merely a geopolitical dimension, but most importantly a spiritual one. The attacking army is headed, not by Cestius or Caesar, but by a destroying angel called Abaddon or Apollyon (9:11). Likewise, the "locust" of the invading Roman army are described, not in literal terms, but in terms which mix the imagery of the biblical plagues and the imagery describing the ancient Assyrian and Babylonian invaders. What brings on this destructive onslaught is not, for John, the wrongheaded p

    251. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      Okay, back to the original point of this thread, the key point that the RCC is not only non-biblical, it's anti-biblical. Let's focus on the key doctrine of salvation. What does the Bible teach it takes to be saved? Here are some examples of how simple it is to be saved:

      That whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have eternal life. For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. (John 3:15-16)

      And Philip said, If thou believest with all thine heart, thou mayest. And he answered and said, I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God. (Acts 8:37)

      And he said unto Jesus, Lord, remember me when thou comest into thy kingdom. And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, To day shalt thou be with me in paradise. (Lukr 23:42-43)

      And brought them out, and said, Sirs, what must I do to be saved? And they said, Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and thou shalt be saved, and thy house. (Acts 16:30-31)


      You left out a few important passages, which I will get to below.

      From the Mother of the Savior[sic] Seminary

      Why "[sic]"? It's spelled correctly.

      Now let's contrast by seeing what the Roman Catholic Church teaches is the requirement for salvation: [...] prayer card on how to be saved:

      Things necessary for salvation: Believing in God; Hoping in God; Loving God; Being sorry for offending God; Adoring God; Aspiring after God; Thanking God; Calling upon God; Being led, restrained, comforted and defended by God; Consecrating all thoughts, words, actions and sufferings to God; Referring all actions to God's Glory; Suffering whatever God appoints; Desiring God's will; Having understanding enlightened, will inflamed, body purified and soul sanctified; Expiating offences, overcoming temptations, subduing passions, acquiring virtues; Loving God's goodness, hating my faults, loving my neighbor, having contempt for the world; Being submissive to superiors, courteous to inferiors, faithful to friends, and charitable to enemies; Overcoming sensuality, avarice, anger and tepidity; Being prudent, courageous, patient and humble; Being attentive at prayer; temperate at meals; diligent in employment, constant in resolutions; Having a pure conscience, being modest, letting conversation be edifying, and deportment regular; Laboring to overcome nature, working with God's Grace, keeping His commandments and working out my salvation; Seeing the nothingness of this world, the greatness of heaven, the shortness of time and the length of eternity; Preparing for death, fearing God's judgments, thereby to escape hell and in the end obtain salvation.


      This list isn't, for the most part, about things that are absolutely necessary for salvation. Some things are necessary, such as believing in God, hoping in God, loving God (faith, hope, and charity), while many things are merely good advice about avoiding sin and living a good life. This is directed to people who have already been saved, so it deals with how to persevere in the state of grace. Only if you are saved and then remain in the state of grace will you go to heaven.

      As for those who haven't yet received salvation, here's a pretty good explanation of what one needs to be saved:

      Q: What would you tell someone who asks, 'How can I be saved'?

      A: "Repent, believe, and be baptized."

      That's all you need for the basic question. You can go into more detail on what each of the terms means (just as you can with the different Protestant models of what one needs to do to be saved), but the concept itself is simplicity itself. Even the most rustic can learn it.

      And unlike the different Protestant models, it takes into account all the elements Jesus, Peter, and Paul lay out on the three occasions when someone asks this question.

      Matthew 19:1

    252. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      Clearly Paul taught verbally before he wrote all of his letters. Therefore to those recipients of the letters which he had verbally taught, he made the statements you quote.

      Precisely. And he says that his oral teachings are the Word of God, just as Scripture is.

      1 Thessalonians 2:13

      When ye received the word of God which ye heard of us, ye received it not as the word of men, but as it is in truth, the word of God.

      But there is no parallel for oral tradition to the clear statement for scripture:

      But evil men and seducers shall wax worse and worse, deceiving, and being deceived. But continue thou in the things which thou hast learned and hast been assured of, knowing of whom thou hast learned them; And that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus. All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.(2Timothy 3:13-17)


      Well, Paul saying that his oral teachings are the word of God is pretty clear. And in 2 Thessalonians 2:15, oral teachings and written teachings are placed on the same level.

      You may claim, as you have previously, the our Lord said to obey his words. Yet there is nothing which shows that He meant anything for us beyond that recorded in scripture.

      What makes you say that? Is it written in the Bible somewhere? The fact is that the Bible tells us that Christian teaching is transmitted both orally and in written form. Otherwise, in 2 Timothy 2:2, why did Paul say, "The things that thou hast heard of me among many witnesses, the same commit thou to faithful men, who shall be able to teach others also"? Why didn't he just say, "Pass my letters around"?

      From the history of the manuscripts, it's clear that written transmission is of a far higher fidelity than verbal (think about the game of "telephone").

      Unlike the game of telephone, the transmission of the faith from one generation to another is protected by the Holy Spirit.

      The RCC has clearly made regulations against God's will, such as forbidding their priests to marry. You claim that this is a voluntary act of a priest / nun / monk, yet the simple fact is that the RCC forbids marriage.

      The Catholic Church does not forbid marriage. Some people voluntarily choose to make a vow to remain celibate: not only priests, but also monks, nuns, and other laypeople. It is up to the individual to choose whether or not to make such a vow to God.

      Yes there have been exceptions, just as the RCC has sold indulgences to gain forgiveness of sins

      No, the Church has never sold indulgences, because an indulgence can't be sold. There are different types of indulgences, and one type involved giving alms, which some people misinterpreted as "buying" an indulgence. But the indulgence is received only if you're in a state of grace, if you reject sin with all your heart, etc. Giving money, by itself, would not get you anything as far as the indulgence was concerned.

      Secondly, an indulgence does not gain anyone the forgiveness of their sins. That happens at confession. An indulgence forgives you the temporal punishment for sin (whether on earth or in purgatory). But to obtain an indulgence, you already have to be in a state of grace, with no mortal sins on your soul.

      In fact the RCC doctrine of forbidding marriage is clearly labelled in scripture:

      Now the Spirit speaketh expressly, that in the latter times some shall depart from the faith, giving heed to seducing spirits, and doctrines of devils; Speaking lies in hypocrisy; having their conscience seared with a hot iron; Forbidding to marry, and commanding to abstain from meats, which God hath created to be received with thanksgiving of them

    253. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      The topic of simplicity of salvation is seen from the verses quoted, the complexity from an RCC document. While independent Baptists and Evangelicals know that the Lord Jesus Christ is the only way to salvation, the point was that the RCC document does not mention Him at all. I can't see how you got the interpretation that I thought Jesus is not necessary; the RCC says He's not in that document. I challenge you to find an independent Baptist that explains salvation without mentioning Jesus as the RCC has in that document. Perhaps you meant to dodge the bullet by saying that the name of God is identical to the name of Jesus. Yet the Bible says they are distinct, and that only through the name of Jesus can we be saved:
      Be it known unto you all, and to all the people of Israel, that by the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth, whom ye crucified, whom God raised from the dead, even by him doth this man stand here before you whole. This is the stone which was set at nought of you builders, which is become the head of the corner. Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved. (Acts 4:10-12, emphasis added)
      For further proof of this point, see Acts 2:38, 8:12, 8:16, 19:15, 1 Corinthians 1:2, 1 John 3:23.

      The Bible clearly teaches that Jesus is the only way to eternal life; the RCC does not. Hence, yet again, Q.E.D.: the RCC is anti-biblical.

      As to why "savior" and "Saviour" are different, the word was always spelled with a "u" until HPB made her "god" and "savior" intentionally different by dropping the "u". So "savior" was coined to refer to Maitreya or Lucifer or Satan, while "Saviour" was coined to refer to our Lord Jesus Christ. Also note that "Saviour" has seven letters, while "savior" has six. Biblically that's significant. Prior to very recent times, dictionaries defined "savior" as one who saves, while "Saviour" is defined as "Jesus Christ, by way of distinction".

      You quote one RCC source, but the official RCC Catechism states
      "No one can merit the initial grace which is at the origin of conversion. Moved by the Holy Spirit, we can then merit for ourselves and for others all the graces needed to attain eternal life, as well as necessary temporal goods." (Catechism, p 490, para 2027)
      Which says that "we can merit ... the grace[s] needed to attain eternal life". That, my friend, is works salvation, taught by the RCC. That is NOT in the Bible. Yet again, Q.E.D.: the RCC is anti-biblical.

      Note also that in several places, salvation is shown as only requiring belief in Jesus as Lord, that baptism is not required. While it is a commandment and we'd be idiots to ignore the Lord's commandment, the thief on the cross had no opportunity to be baptized. Yet Jesus tells him that he'll be in paradise that day (not purgatory, yet another RCC invention / pagan retention).

      You also claimed that Strong's number 572 does not mean simplicity. In fact it is translated as simplicity more times than it's translated any other way. And the definition from Thayers is
      1) singleness, simplicity, sincerity, mental honesty
      1a) the virtue of one who is free from pretence and hypocrisy
      2) not self seeking, openness of heart manifesting itself by generousity
      So simplicity means, well, simplicity. Pretty obvious, really.

    254. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      The topic of simplicity of salvation is seen from the verses quoted

      No, the verse you quoted talks about the simplicity of Christians, not the simplicity of salvation:

      But I fear, lest by any means, as the serpent beguiled Eve through his subtilty, so your minds should be corrupted from the simplicity that is in Christ. For if he that cometh preacheth another Jesus, whom we have not preached, or if ye receive another spirit, which ye have not received, or another gospel, which ye have not accepted, ye might well bear with him. (2Co 11:3-4, emphasis added).

      The word "simplicity" here describes Christians, not salvation.

      You also claimed that Strong's number 572 does not mean simplicity.

      When did I say this?

      In fact it is translated as simplicity more times than it's translated any other way. And the definition from Thayers is

      1) singleness, simplicity, sincerity, mental honesty
      1a) the virtue of one who is free from pretence and hypocrisy
      2) not self seeking, openness of heart manifesting itself by generousity


      Right, this is what I had said. The word "simplicity" describes people, not doctrines. A simple Christian is someone who is sincere, mentally honest, etc.

      the complexity from an RCC document.

      That document is speaking to people who are already saved through baptism, and who have to deal with the many ways we can fall into sin. The document could have simply said "remain in the state of grace", but practically speaking, it makes sense to exhort us to do particular things, and to warn us to avoid particular sins.

      The Bible does the same sort of thing. For instance:

      1 Corinthians 6:9-10

      Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind, nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God.

      Are you going to complain now that Bible isn't simple enough?

      While independent Baptists and Evangelicals know that the Lord Jesus Christ is the only way to salvation, the point was that the RCC document does not mention Him at all.

      Sure it does. Catholics believe that Jesus is God.

      I can't see how you got the interpretation that I thought Jesus is not necessary

      I didn't say that you think Jesus is not necessary. I was asking you whether you believe that Jesus is God. You seem to be implying that "God" can't refer to Jesus.

      I challenge you to find an independent Baptist that explains salvation without mentioning Jesus as the RCC has in that document. Perhaps you meant to dodge the bullet by saying that the name of God is identical to the name of Jesus. Yet the Bible says they are distinct, and that only through the name of Jesus can we be saved

      Again, that document was addressing people who have already been saved through baptism, "in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost." (Matthew 28:19) They have already been saved in the name of Jesus.

      As to why "savior" and "Saviour" are different, the word was always spelled with a "u" until HPB made her "god" and "savior" intentionally different by dropping the "u". So "savior" was coined to refer to Maitreya or Lucifer or Satan, while "Saviour" was coined to refer to our Lord Jesus Christ. Also note that "Saviour" has seven letters, while "savior" has six. Biblically that's significant. Prior to very recent times, dictionaries defined "savior" as one who saves, while "Saviour" is defined as "Jesus Christ, by way of distinction".

      No offense, but this is silly. The KJV uses the "-our" ending because it uses British spelling. It's like armour vs. armor, colour vs. color, etc.

      By the way, "Christ" has six letters, while "Messiah" has seven. Is this Biblically sig

    255. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      You still claim, now in two posts, that "Jesus Christ" is not needed for salvation, yet you ignored the verses which show you are incorrect. Once again for emphasis:
      Be it known unto you all, and to all the people of Israel, that by the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth, whom ye crucified, whom God raised from the dead, even by him doth this man stand here before you whole. This is the stone which was set at nought of you builders, which is become the head of the corner. Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved. (Acts 4:10-12, emphasis added)
      It doesn't matter what you, I, or the RCC says, the Bible is quite clear. Once the dispensation of the Church started, we can ONLY be saved by Jesus Christ. Otherwise Jews and others who didn't believe in Jesus but did believe in God could be saved, which would be against the clear, direct reading of scripture. Since the RCC does say, as I quoted a few posts back upstream, that salvation does not require the name of Jesus Christ, the Roman Catholic Church therefore goes against the Bible. That is simple, clear, direct, and obvious. You may choose to ignore it, but it is the truth.

      And once again, here's the content of a Catholic prayer card describing how to obtain salvation:
      Things necessary for salvation: Believing in God; Hoping in God; Loving God; Being sorry for offending God; Adoring God; Aspiring after God; Thanking God; Calling upon God; Being led, restrained, comforted and defended by God; Consecrating all thoughts, words, actions and sufferings to God; Referring all actions to God's Glory; Suffering whatever God appoints; Desiring God's will; Having understanding enlightened, will inflamed, body purified and soul sanctified; Expiating offences, overcoming temptations, subduing passions, acquiring virtues; Loving God's goodness, hating my faults, loving my neighbor, having contempt for the world; Being submissive to superiors, courteous to inferiors, faithful to friends, and charitable to enemies; Overcoming sensuality, avarice, anger and tepidity; Being prudent, courageous, patient and humble; Being attentive at prayer; temperate at meals; diligent in employment, constant in resolutions; Having a pure conscience, being modest, letting conversation be edifying, and deportment regular; Laboring to overcome nature, working with God's Grace, keeping His commandments and working out my salvation; Seeing the nothingness of this world, the greatness of heaven, the shortness of time and the length of eternity; Preparing for death, fearing God's judgments, thereby to escape hell and in the end obtain salvation.
      That does not once mention the Lord Jesus Christ, in whose name alone we can be saved. It does mention a lot of works that must be done to earn salvation, hence it advocates works salvation, something strongly counter to Paul's teachings. Therefore, it is not Salvation as given by Jesus Christ, it is salvation according to the RCC. And the RCC is therefore not biblical. Once again, Q.E.D. Aren't you getting tired of your church being shown to be far outside the Bible? Don't you feel that tug of the Holy Spirit telling you to
      Come out of her, my people, that ye be not partakers of her sins, and that ye receive not of her plagues. (Revelation 18:4)
    256. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      You still claim, now in two posts, that "Jesus Christ" is not needed for salvation

      No, I did not. We are saved only through Jesus Christ.

      Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved. (Acts 4:10-12, emphasis added)

      And I wrote that we are saved through baptism. We are baptized "in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost." (Matthew 28:19) In baptism, we are united to Christ's death and resurrection.
      Colossians 2:12
      Ye are... buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead.

      Romans 6:4
      Therefore we are buried with him by baptism into death: that like as Christ was raised up from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so we also should walk in newness of life.

      Once the dispensation of the Church started, we can ONLY be saved by Jesus Christ.

      Actually, even in Old Testament times, we could only be saved by Jesus. Only through Jesus can we be saved.

      Since the RCC does say, as I quoted a few posts back upstream, that salvation does not require the name of Jesus Christ, the Roman Catholic Church therefore goes against the Bible.

      Don't you believe that Jesus is the Son of God, as He is called in the baptismal formula of Matthew 28:19?

      And once again, here's the content of a Catholic prayer card describing how to obtain salvation:
      [...]
      That does not once mention the Lord Jesus Christ, in whose name alone we can be saved.


      Again, the people addressed in that card have already been saved in the name of Jesus.

      It does mention a lot of works that must be done to earn salvation, hence it advocates works salvation, something strongly counter to Paul's teachings.

      No, works salvation is the idea that we can earn the grace of justification. The people for whom that card was written have already received the grace of justification as a free gift from God. We do, however, have to persevere in the state of grace if we are to go to heaven when we die, and this is what the card addresses. Here are some Biblical verses on this, which I hope you will accept as the truth:
      Philippians 3:11-14
      If by any means I might attain unto the resurrection of the dead. Not as though I had already attained, either were already perfect: but I follow after, if that I may apprehend that for which also I am apprehended of Christ Jesus. Brethren, I count not myself to have apprehended: but this one thing I do, forgetting those things which are behind, and reaching forth unto those things which are before, I press toward the mark for the prize of the high calling of God in Christ Jesus.

      1 Corinthians 9:27
      But I keep under my body, and bring it into subjection: lest that by any means, when I have preached to others, I myself should be a castaway.

      1 Corinthians 10:12
      Wherefore let him that thinketh he standeth take heed lest he fall.

      Romans 11:22
      Behold therefore the goodness and severity of God: on them which fell, severity; but toward thee, goodness, if thou continue in his goodness: otherwise thou also shalt be cut off.

      Galatians 5:1
      Stand fast therefore in the liberty wherewith Christ hath made us free, and be not entangled again with the yoke of bondage.

      Galatians 6:9
      And let us not be weary in well doing: for in due season we shall reap, if we faint not.

      Hebrews 3:12-14
      Take heed, brethren, lest there be in any of you an evil heart of unbelief, in departing from the living God. But exhort one another daily, while it is called Today; lest any of you be hardened through the deceitfulness of sin. For we are made partakers of Christ, if we hold the beginning of our confidence stedfast unto the end.

      James 1:12,15-16
      Blessed is the man that endureth temptation: for when he is tried, he shall receive the crown of life, which the Lord hath promised to them that love him. ... Sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death. Do not err, my beloved brethren.
    257. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The selection of verses you quoted simply teach that Christians are not to sit back and sin away, but instead to strive to be more Christ-like. Not that we get anything for it but rewards in heaven.

      And no, it does not reduce our time in "purgatory", there is no such thing. It's an invention of one of the apocryphal books (Maccabees) and even so takes some serious torture of scripture.

      Of course the RCC will never give up on "purgatory"; it's a huge source of cash for the wealthiest organization on the planet.

    258. Re:Call the editor! by Vaughn+Anderson · · Score: 1
      You seem to have studied scripture quite abit and are able to find scriptures easily to support your views, which leads me to believe that you hold your religion with high regard.

      In your other posts you also show a desire for the truth, of which we both share a desire for the truth. I have noted in this particular post things that may be of intrest to you regarding the truth.

      God is actually a Trinity, and neither the Muslims nor the Jews acknowledge this.

      The Bible is very clear that there is only 2 beings of the God family, God the Father and God the Son (Jesus), not three. There are many scriptures that explain this even starting in Genesis, yet there is no scripture to show God is a trinity in any way.

      God calls everyone to become members of His Church

      Jesus said "many are called" _not_ "everyone".

      Matthew 22:14 "For many are called, but few are chosen."

      His Church, the Catholic Church.

      God's Church is recognized by the name of Jesus Christ and God, not the Catholic name. Refer to these scriptures, which all call the Church by it's true name.

      1 Corinthians 1:2, 1 Corinthians 10:32, 1 Corinthians 11:16, 1 Corinthians 11:22, 1 Corinthians 15:9, 2 Corinthians 1:1, Galatians 1:13, 1 Thessalonians 2:14, 2 Thessalonians 1:4, 1 Timothy 3:15

      ...then you can be saved despite not formally being a Catholic,

      Since the meaning of the word "Catholic" in Greek is "universal", by your statement you are saying that to be saved you must be universal, which doesn't make sense. So then if you are saying you have to be of a certain church sect called the "Catholic Church" then you are incorrect, as there is only one name under heaven which men are to be saved, that is Jesus, not Catholic.

      Acts 4:12, 2:21

    259. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      You claim Peter ruled the church, yet in Acts 15 James issues a ruling at a meeting where Peter is present. Just curious, is there a case where a pope accepted a ruling binding on him from a local bishop? I doubt it, since popes are supposed to be supreme. And Acts 15 shows that James had power over Peter.

      Revelation is full of literal predictions. The moving of all mountains is talking about a geophysical catastrophe. If you are going to allegorize that judgment, do you also allegorize the flood in Genesis 7-8?

      You also again try to say that Babylon is not Rome. Yet even one of the most respected and well-known Catholic apologists, Karl Keating, clearly states that Babylon is a word for Rome:

      "Babylon is a code word for Rome. It is used that way six times in the last book of the Bible [four of the six are in chapters 17 and 18 and in extrabiblical works such as Sibylling Oracles (5, 159f.), the Apocalypse of Baruch (ii, 1), and 4 Esdras (3:1).

      Eusebius Pamphilius, writing about 303, noted that "it is said that Peter's first epistle... was composed at Rome itself; and that he himself indicates this, referring to the city figuratively as Babylon."

      See also here, here, and here. Even your church admits Babylon in Revelation is Rome; why do you fight against your church? Are you showing signs of independent thought, of interpreting the Bible for yourself? Better watch out, your church still has the office that burned people for doing that.

      You say you receive the eucharist weekly. The eucharist is one of the most heinous inventions of the Catholic Church. Well, they actually took it from the pagans (see Jeremiah 7:18, 44:19) as they did so much of their practices.

      The RCC claims that the wine becomes blood, and the bread becomes flesh. Yet even the most docile Catholic notices that it still tastes like a slice of bland dough and cheap wine. Therefore the RCC came up with the doctrine of "transubstantiation". The mechanism for this is based on the work of Aristotle, as applied by "saint" Thomas Aquinas. In fact he supposedly got his sainthood for this use of a pagan concept to a Catholic doctrine. Aristotle taught that all matter has two components: "Accident" and "Substance". The "accident" is the outward appearance, while "substance" is its inner nature. This has of course been known to be utterly absurd and silly for centuries, but the RCC still clings to it as the explanation for transubstantiation. They claim that the wafer becomes the cookie god, an icon to be worshipped in direct, flagrant violation of the word of God by undergoing a change in its substance without changing its accident. The common phrasing of this is that the wine changes to blood "under the semblance of remaining wine". If at Cana Jesus had changed the water to wine "under the semblance of it remaining water", the master of the feast would have screamed "FRAUD" when he was told that the water was indeed wine, but under the appearance of remaining water. And he would have been right.

      And if it does become flesh and blood, there's a far more severe problem. Ever since God allowed mankind to be omnivorous as Noah got off the ark, the consumption of blood has been forbidden (Genesis 9:4). For Jews, it was even more strongly forbidden, resulting in the death penalty (Leviticus 7:24, 17:10, 17:14). Yet Jesus said in Matthew 5:17 "Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil". So He would never have given blood to His disciples to drink, whether real or "under the semblance". Blood is still forbidden to Christians, see Acts 15:29.

      See also in John 6 that Jesus is clearly speaking spiritually when He says that He is break (or do you and the RCC maintain that He is a loaf?). And in 6:63 He makes it even clear

    260. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      When Paul taught the Bereans, they were lauded and celebrated because they checked everything he said, all the words he used, directly against scripture (Acts 17:11). They did not check it against other oral teachings or against tradition. They are praised in the Bible for checking all teachings against the Bible. I suggest you do the same for the teachings of the RCC. You will be heartily welcomed in an independent Baptist congregation, we tend to have many former Catholics who have awakened to the fact that the RCC is not biblical.

      You say the RCC does not forbid marriage. That's pretty strong twisting of truth, Pall. You say that "must be the husband of one wife" does not mean marriage. Fascinating, to back that up let's see a dictionary meaning of "must" that encompasses your claim. Either that or retract and admit the RCC is non-biblical. The definition of the word translated "must" (Strong's 1163) is, according to Thayer's:
      1) it is necessary, there is need of, it behooves, is right and proper
      1a) necessity lying in the nature of the case
      1b) necessity brought on by circumstances or by the conduct of others toward us.
      1c) necessity in reference to what is required to attain some end
      1d) a necessity of law and command, of duty, equity
      1e) necessity established by the counsel and decree of God, especially by that purpose of his which relates to the salvation of men by the intervention of Christ and which is disclosed in the Old Testament prophecies
      1e1) concerning what Christ was destined finally to undergo, his sufferings, death, resurrection, ascension
      Which of those is the one you are using?
    261. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      If it weren't so tragic it would be hilarious - you claim that indulgences were never for sale:

      No, the Church has never sold indulgences, because an indulgence can't be sold. There are different types of indulgences, and one type involved giving alms, which some people misinterpreted as "buying" an indulgence. But the indulgence is received only if you're in a state of grace, if you reject sin with all your heart, etc. Giving money, by itself, would not get you anything as far as the indulgence was concerned.

      Secondly, an indulgence does not gain anyone the forgiveness of their sins. That happens at confession. An indulgence forgives you the temporal punishment for sin (whether on earth or in purgatory). But to obtain an indulgence, you already have to be in a state of grace, with no mortal sins on your soul.

      Yet truth, history, and facts are all against you on this, as on so many other of your defenses of the indefensible behavior of the Roman Catholic Church.

      Pope Sixtus IV, in a Bull in 1476, extended the right of use of excess good works done by saints, and "extended this privilege to souls in purgatory, provided that their living relatives purchased indulgences for them (emphasis added)". That's one clear, direct, incontrovertible proof that you're wrong.

      Leo X commissioned Friar Johann Tetzel to sell indulgences. Tetzel's pitch was "as soon as the coin in the coffer rings, a soul from purgatory springs". This was the final straw that drove Luther to nail his theses to the cathedral door. It was also the source of funds for the construction of St. Peter's in Rome. From here:

      TETZEL, JOHANN (c. 1460-1519), preacher and salesman of papal indulgences, the son of Hans Tetzel, a goldsmith of Leipzig, was born there about 1460. He matriculated at the university in 1482, graduated B.A. in 1487, and in 1489 entered the Dominican convent at Leipzig. He early discovered his vocation as a preacher of indulgences; he combined the elocutionary gifts of a revivalist orator with the shrewdness of an auctioneer.

      He painted in lurid colours the terrors of purgatory, while he dwelt on the cheapness of the indulgence which would purchase remission and his prices were lowered as each sale approached its end. He began in 1502 in the service of the Cardinal-legate Raymond Peraudi; and in the next few years he visited Freiberg (where he extracted 2000 gulden in two days), Dresden, Pirna, Leipzig, Zwickau and Gorlitz. Later on he was at Nuremherg, Ulm and Innsbruck, where he is said to have been condemned to imprisonment for adultery, but released at the intercession of the elector of Saxony. This charge is denied by his apologists; and though his methods were attacked by good Catholics like Johann Hass, he was elected prior of the Dominicans in Glogau in 1505.

      Fresh scope was given to his activity in 1517 by archbishop Albrecht of Mainz. Albrecht had been elected at the age of twenty-four to a see already impoverished by frequent successions and payments of annates to Rome. He had agreed with Pope Leo X. to pay his first-fruits in cash, on condition that he were allowed to recoup himself by the saie of indulgences. Half the proceeds in his province were to go to him, half to Leo X. - for building the basilica of St Peter's at Rome. Tetzel was selected as the most efficient saksman; he was appointed general sub-commissioner for indulgences, and was accompanied by a clerk of the Fuggers from whom Albrecht had borrowed the money to pay his first-fruits. Tetzel?s efforts irretrievably damaged the complicated and abstruse Catholic doctrine on the subject of indulgences; as soon as the coin clinks in the chest, he cried, the soul is freed from purgatory. in June he was at Magdeburg, Halle and Naumburg; the~ elector of Saxony excluded him from his dominions, but Albrecht?s brother, the elector Joachim of Brandenburg, en

    262. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The reply to this is here.

    263. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      The selection of verses you quoted simply teach that Christians are not to sit back and sin away, but instead to strive to be more Christ-like. Not that we get anything for it but rewards in heaven.

      Okay, let's take a look at them one by one, and see if they can be interpreted in this way.

      Philippians 3:11-14

      If by any means I might attain unto the resurrection of the dead. Not as though I had already attained, either were already perfect: but I follow after, if that I may apprehend that for which also I am apprehended of Christ Jesus. Brethren, I count not myself to have apprehended: but this one thing I do, forgetting those things which are behind, and reaching forth unto those things which are before, I press toward the mark for the prize of the high calling of God in Christ Jesus.

      Here he's talking about whether or not he will "attain unto the resurrection of the dead". So your interpretation doesn't fit.

      1 Corinthians 9:27

      But I keep under my body, and bring it into subjection: lest that by any means, when I have preached to others, I myself should be a castaway.

      Here he's talking about whether or not he will be a "castaway", rejected by God. So your interpretation doesn't fit.

      1 Corinthians 10:12

      Wherefore let him that thinketh he standeth take heed lest he fall.

      Have a look at what comes before this.

      1 Corinthians 10:1-6
      Moreover, brethren, I would not that ye should be ignorant, how that all our fathers were under the cloud, and all passed through the sea; and were all baptized unto Moses in the cloud and in the sea; and did all eat the same spiritual meat; and did all drink the same spiritual drink: for they drank of that spiritual Rock that followed them: and that Rock was Christ. But with many of them God was not well pleased: for they were overthrown in the wilderness. ["Because the Lord was not able to bring this people into the land which he sware unto them, therefore he hath slain them in the wilderness." (Numbers 14:16)] Now these things were our examples, to the intent we should not lust after evil things, as they also lusted.

      So these things are an example for us, showing that those who are saved can spiritually die; just as the Israelites sinned and thus died. They had been saved from slavery, and were supposed to go to the Promised Land, but they didn't because they had sinned.

      1 Corinthians 10:7-11
      Neither be ye idolaters, as were some of them; as it is written, "The people sat down to eat and drink, and rose up to play." Neither let us commit fornication, as some of them committed, and fell in one day three and twenty thousand. Neither let us tempt Christ, as some of them also tempted, and were destroyed of serpents. Neither murmur ye, as some of them also murmured, and were destroyed of the destroyer. Now all these things happened unto them for examples: and they are written for our admonition, upon whom the ends of the world are come.

      These are more examples for us, showing that sin results in spiritual death. So now we have finally come to the verse I had quoted earlier: "Wherefore let him that thinketh he standeth take heed lest he fall." Paul's whole point here is that we can lose our salvation if we sin. This danger is always there, which is why we must "take heed" lest we fall.

      Romans 11:22

      Behold therefore the goodness and severity of God: on them which fell, severity; but toward thee, goodness, if thou continue in his goodness: otherwise thou also shalt be cut off.

      Here is the context of the above verse:

      Romans 11:16-24
      If the root be holy, so are the branches. And if some of the branches be broken off, and thou, being a wild olive tree, wert grafted in among them, and with them partakest of the root and fatness of the olive tree; boast not against the branches. But if thou boast, thou bearest not the root, but

    264. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      When Paul taught the Bereans, they were lauded and celebrated because they checked everything he said, all the words he used, directly against scripture (Acts 17:11). They did not check it against other oral teachings or against tradition. They are praised in the Bible for checking all teachings against the Bible.

      No, they were praised for checking the prophecies that Paul was using to prove that Jesus was the Messiah. If they were checking Christian teachings against the Old Testament, I imagine they would have rejected Christianity. For instance, in Mark 7:18-19, Jesus abolished the Old Testament laws concerning clean and unclean food. So if they had looked this up in the Old Testament, they would have seen that it contradicts what the Old Testament says, and rejected it as unBiblical.

      What the Bereans checked in the Old Testament was whether Jesus fulfilled the prophecies concerning the Messiah. If He was the Messiah, then He would have the authority to change Old Testament Law; and if not, then not. So checking the teachings themselves would be beside the point, since whether or not they can be changed is dependent on the question of Jesus' authority.

      In any case, if you believe that all teachings must be checked against the Bible, then you must accept oral tradition, since the Bible teaches it:

      2 Thessalonians 2:15

      Therefore, brethren, stand fast, and hold the traditions which ye have been taught, whether by word, or our epistle.

      2 Timothy 2:2
      And the things that thou hast heard of me among many witnesses, the same commit thou to faithful men, who shall be able to teach others also.

      1 Thessalonians 2:13
      For this cause also thank we God without ceasing, because, when ye received the word of God which ye heard of us, ye received it not as the word of men, but as it is in truth, the word of God, which effectually worketh also in you that believe.

      You say the RCC does not forbid marriage.

      That's right, it doesn't. Are you an advocate of forced marriage, since you say marriage is required for bishops? If marriage is "forbidden" in one case, then it is "forced" in the other.

      You say that "must be the husband of one wife" does not mean marriage. Fascinating, to back that up let's see a dictionary meaning of "must" that encompasses your claim.

      The important word is not "must", but "one". Paul didn't say a bishop "must be married", but that he "must be the husband of one wife", including the word "one" in what he said. He's rejecting people with more than one wife.

      Compare this to 1 Timothy 5:9, where Paul says, "Let not a widow be taken into the number under threescore years old, having been the wife of one man." The expression "the wife of one man" can't be the equivalent of the word "married", because it would be redundant to say that a widow had to have been married in the past. When Paul uses this phrase, he means "the wife of no more than one man". The same is true in the case of bishops: he is rejecting those with more than one wife.

      He is not requiring bishops to have a wife, because that would mean that Paul himself would need to be married, which he wasn't.

      Pope Sixtus IV, in a Bull in 1476, extended the right of use of excess good works done by saints, and "extended this privilege to souls in purgatory, provided that their living relatives purchased indulgences for them (emphasis added)". That's one clear, direct, incontrovertible proof that you're wrong.

      No, Pope Sixtus IV, in "Cum Praeexcelsa" (1476), granted an indulgence for assisting at the Divine Office (a liturgical celebration) for a certain day. In other words, the indulgence was granted for participating in prayer. Money was not involved.

      Leo X commissioned Friar Johann Tetzel to sell indulgences.

      No, he didn't. As I said, you can't sell an indulgence. The Pope had commissioned Tetzel to promote a certain ind

    265. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1

      You claim Peter ruled the church, yet in Acts 15 James issues a ruling at a meeting where Peter is present. Just curious, is there a case where a pope accepted a ruling binding on him from a local bishop? I doubt it, since popes are supposed to be supreme. And Acts 15 shows that James had power over Peter.

      Where does it say that what James said was binding on Peter? The Greek word which the KJV translates as "sentence" is krino, which is usually translated as "judge", such as in the sense of "to be of the opinion that..." So this isn't much evidence for James being the head of the Church, especially since the Bible makes it clear elsewhere that it was Peter who was the head.

      In any case, the Bible itself says that the decision was made by the council as a whole (Acts 15:28, Acts 16:4).

      Revelation is full of literal predictions. The moving of all mountains is talking about a geophysical catastrophe.

      Is that so? As I said, the previous verse, Revelation 6:13, says that the stars fall to the earth. Since this is, according to you, to be taken literally, the earth has been boiled away into space by the heat of the stars by the time verse 14 predicts the mountains and islands moving.

      If you are going to allegorize that judgment, do you also allegorize the flood in Genesis 7-8?

      There was indeed a flood, but then again Genesis was meant to be a historical work, while Revelation is a book of prophecy.

      You also again try to say that Babylon is not Rome. Yet even one of the most respected and well-known Catholic apologists, Karl Keating, clearly states that Babylon is a word for Rome

      So what? Have a look at what the Bible says:

      "The woman which thou sawest is that great city." (Revelation 17:18) The Bible tells us that "the great city, which spiritually is called Sodom and Egypt," is "where also our Lord was crucified." (Revelation 11:8) So, in other words, the woman in Revelation is Jerusalem.

      Even your church admits Babylon in Revelation is Rome; why do you fight against your church?

      I'm not aware that the Church has defined this either way.

      Are you showing signs of independent thought, of interpreting the Bible for yourself?

      Independent thought and interpreting the Bible for yourself is fine as long as you don't deny any of the teachings of the Church.

      You say you receive the eucharist weekly. The eucharist is one of the most heinous inventions of the Catholic Church.

      Matthew 26:26-28
      And as they were eating, Jesus took bread, and blessed it, and brake it, and gave it to the disciples, and said, "Take, eat; this is my body." And he took the cup, and gave thanks, and gave it to them, saying, "Drink ye all of it; for this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins."

      1 Corinthians 11:26-29
      For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the Lord's death till he come. Wherefore whosoever shall eat this bread, and drink this cup of the Lord, unworthily, shall be guilty of the body and blood of the Lord. But let a man examine himself, and so let him eat of that bread, and drink of that cup. For he that eateth and drinketh unworthily, eateth and drinketh damnation to himself, not discerning the Lord's body.

      The RCC claims that the wine becomes blood, and the bread becomes flesh. Yet even the most docile Catholic notices that it still tastes like a slice of bland dough and cheap wine.

      Christians claim that Jesus was both man and God. Yet even the most docile Christian would notice that Jesus looked like an ordinary man.

      Therefore the RCC came up with the doctrine of "transubstantiation". The mechanism for this is based on the work of Aristotle, as applied by "saint" Thomas Aquinas.

      No, transubstantiation was always believed. All Aquinas did was to describe it using Aristotelian terms. The belief

    266. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      Just responding quickly here to your purgatory apostasy. Your attempt to use the Bible to justify it is not supported by the Catholic Encyclopedia (see p. 704):
      We would appeal to these general principles of Scripture, rather than to particular texts often alleged in proof of Purgatory. We doubt if they contain an explicit and direct reference to it.
      Yet again, Q.E.D. - the RCC is not biblical, and even their encylopedia admits that a key doctrine is not in it!

      Further, the Lord never mentioned purgatory when He was here, or scripture would have it recorded. He mentioned Heaven, and He mentioned Hell. But never purgatory. If it were to exist, that would have been a significant missing piece. You may choose to believe that He would not tell us about something that important, but instead He told us that He was going to prepare mansions for us. Since He made the universe and this world and us in six days, imagine what He's built for us in a couple of thousand years! He told us:
      In my Father's house are many mansions: if it were not so, I would have told you. I go to prepare a place for you. And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come again, and receive you unto myself; that where I am, there ye may be also. And whither I go ye know, and the way ye know. (John 14:2-4)
      So that means you are teaching that Jesus has to go to purgatory too, so that He will be where you will be. Go ahead and teach that, but the RCC and you're being anti-biblical again.

      Paul taught in many places that to die is to be with Christ. Nothing intermediate. See Romans 14:8, 9; 2 Corinthians 5:6-9; Philippians 1:21, 23, 24; 1 Thessalonians 5:9, 10. And again believers are shown there as either on earth or with the Lord Jesus Christ. Claiming that there is a purgatory is again saying that He would be there. Not likely.

      Similarly, praying for "souls in purgatory" is also major-league unscriptural. See 2 Samuel 12:21-23, where David ceased praying for his son when the son died. Clearly David, inspired by the Holy Spirit, wrote as he did because he knew his son was then in heaven. No record of baptism is put down, as would be necessary to convey the RCC "saved by baptism" doctrine. So by RCC reckoning, David's son would have been condemned. David's son was in heaven, not purgatory.

    267. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      Unbelievable, you're comparing commandments of the Lord God to build Him a sanctuary and an Ark to the pagan idols of the Roman Catholic Church. There is no recorded commandment to build gem-encrusted golden crucifixes in the Bible, yet you're trying to compare the Ark of the Covenant with them. No wonder God singles out the RCC in Revelation, He has very strong reason to judge the RCC and those who defend it using such tactics.

      And equally absurd is your claim that "A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach (1 Timothy 3:2)" has the "must" not governing the entire "husband of one wife" clause but only the numeric portion thereof. So by your logic, a statement like "a priest must not be the molester of one child" means that it's okay for a priest to molest many children, but not to molest only one, since the "must ... one" was changed by inversion to "must not ... one". Agreed that is not far from recorded official Roman Catholic doctrine, but it is awfully offensive.

      Then again you claim indulgences were not for sale. Yet see:
      "In corruption," says Symonds, " he [Innocent VIII] advanced a step even beyond Sixtus, by establishing a bank at Rome for the sale of pardons. Each sin had its price, which might be paid at the convenience of the criminal: one hundred and fifty ducats of the tax were poured into the Papal coffers; the surplus fell to Franceschetto, the Pope's son." Foote and Wheeler, Crimes of Christianity, Progressive Publishing Company, London, 1887, Volume I, p. 338 (a book about the crimes of the RCC and the Pope, unfortunately titled)
      Or more to your taste, from a Catholic source, see:
      For this payment, which smacked of simony, the pope would allow an indemnity, which in this case took the form of an indulgence. By this ignoble business arrangement with Rome, a financial transaction unworthy of both pope and archbishop, the revenue should be partitioned in equal halves to each, besides a bonus of 10,000 gold ducats, which should fall to the share of Rome.
      Are you going to apologize now for saying that indulgences were not for sale, or should I post the list of crimes and how much Rome charged for an indulgence applied to that particular crime?
    268. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      Interesting, you say "Genesis was meant to be a historical work, while Revelation is a book of prophecy". Do you then ignore all the prophecy in Genesis? If so, you miss Jesus as the lion of the tribe of Judah, the fact that there will be a redeemer of all mankind, in fact all of Jacob's prophetic statements to his sons. Is that official RCC doctrine, that Genesis does not have prophecy in it?

      You then state that, in relation to the RCC calling the eucharist "an unbloody sacrifice" that "The sacrifice of the Mass is the same sacrifice as that of Calvary". So now you're saying that Calvary was an unbloody sacrifice as well, that it was therefore useless against sin?

      BZZZT. Wrong. Jesus bled on the cross; His blood washes believers in Him from sin. He completed His work on the cross, the reenactment of it by priests is simple apostasy. Calvary was a bloody sacrifice, therefore efficacious. The eucharist, as stated by the RCC, is an unbloody sacrifice. Therefore, according to scripture, it is useless against sin. So you have to choose now - believe the Bible or believe your church.

      Further about the uselessness of the eucharist:
      Then said I, Lo, I come (in the volume of the book it is written of me,) to do thy will, O God. Above when he said, Sacrifice and offering and burnt offerings and offering for sin thou wouldest not, neither hadst pleasure therein; which are offered by the law; Then said he, Lo, I come to do thy will, O God. He taketh away the first, that he may establish the second. By the which will we are sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all. And every priest standeth daily ministering and offering oftentimes the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins: But this man, after he had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever, sat down on the right hand of God; From henceforth expecting till his enemies be made his footstool. For by one offering he hath perfected for ever them that are sanctified. Whereof the Holy Ghost also is a witness to us: for after that he had said before, This is the covenant that I will make with them after those days, saith the Lord, I will put my laws into their hearts, and in their minds will I write them; And their sins and iniquities will I remember no more. Now where remission of these is, there is no more offering for sin. (Hebrews 10:7-18, emphasis added)
      What part of that don't you understand?
    269. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The reply to this is here

    270. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      Further, the Lord never mentioned purgatory when He was here, or scripture would have it recorded.

      Oh really? How do you know this? John specifically says at the end of his gospel that only a small fraction of what Jesus did on earth is recorded.

      He mentioned Heaven, and He mentioned Hell. But never purgatory. If it were to exist, that would have been a significant missing piece.

      Purgatory isn't necessarily a place, but rather a purification that prepares us for heaven.

      In my Father's house are many mansions: if it were not so, I would have told you. I go to prepare a place for you. And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come again, and receive you unto myself; that where I am, there ye may be also. And whither I go ye know, and the way ye know. (John 14:2-4)

      So that means you are teaching that Jesus has to go to purgatory too, so that He will be where you will be.


      Why would Jesus have to go to purgatory? Let's say I were to invite you to my house, where I've prepared a room for you. Now, I go and pick you up in my car, and take you to my house. If your shoes are dirty when we get to my house, you should wipe them before entering. But if my shoes are clean, I don't need to wipe them.

      Paul taught in many places that to die is to be with Christ. Nothing intermediate.

      Not exactly, because first there's judgment: "It is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment." (Hebrews 9:27) And Paul says concerning purgatory:
      1 Corinthians 3:13-15
      Every man's work shall be made manifest: for the day shall declare it, because it shall be revealed by fire; and the fire shall try every man's work of what sort it is. If any man's work abide which he hath built thereupon, he shall receive a reward. If any man's work shall be burned, he shall suffer loss: but he himself shall be saved; yet so as by fire.

      Similarly, praying for "souls in purgatory" is also major-league unscriptural. See 2 Samuel 12:21-23, where David ceased praying for his son when the son died. Clearly David, inspired by the Holy Spirit, wrote as he did because he knew his son was then in heaven. No record of baptism is put down, as would be necessary to convey the RCC "saved by baptism" doctrine. So by RCC reckoning, David's son would have been condemned. David's son was in heaven, not purgatory.

      Young children don't go to Purgatory, since they've never committed any sin.
    271. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      Interesting, you say "Genesis was meant to be a historical work, while Revelation is a book of prophecy". Do you then ignore all the prophecy in Genesis?

      No, I'm talking about the styles of the books in general. For instance, the beginning of the book of Revelation is "historical" in style, but most of the book is composed of prophecy.

      You then state that, in relation to the RCC calling the eucharist "an unbloody sacrifice" that "The sacrifice of the Mass is the same sacrifice as that of Calvary". So now you're saying that Calvary was an unbloody sacrifice as well, that it was therefore useless against sin?

      No, it's the same sacrifice in both cases. In the Eucharist, its form is unbloody, since Christ isn't being killed a second time.

      Jesus bled on the cross; His blood washes believers in Him from sin. He completed His work on the cross, the reenactment of it by priests is simple apostasy. Calvary was a bloody sacrifice, therefore efficacious. The eucharist, as stated by the RCC, is an unbloody sacrifice. Therefore, according to scripture, it is useless against sin.

      No, it's the same sacrifice, as I said. Scott Hahn had a interesting talk about the Eucharist and Calvary, which shows that they are the same sacrifice. It's long, but I'll try to shorten his argument a little bit:

      Luke 22, verse 15, our Lord says, "I have earnestly desired to eat this Passover with you." So we are assured that the Last Supper in the Upper Room was a Passover meal. In Mark 14, verses 22 through 26, we hear the words of institution, "And as they were eating He took bread and blessed and broke it and gave it to them and said, 'Take, this is my body.' And He took a cup and when He had given thanks, He gave it to them and they drank all of it and He said to them, 'This is my blood of the New Covenant which is poured out for many. Truly I say to you, I shall not drink again of the fruit of the vine until that day when I drink it new in the kingdom of God.'"

      And I thought, "Huh, I never noticed those words before, 'I shall not drink of the fruit of the vine until that day when I drink it new in the kingdom of God.'" Elsewhere you have the same idea expressed in the gospels where Jesus says, "I won't drink of the fruit of the vine until," you know, I'm being glorified. And I thought, "Well, wait a second, when he said, 'It is finished,' he had just taken some sour wine." I wanted to work on that connection a little more.

      And then I noticed the next phrase, "And when they had sung a hymn, they went out into the night." I had been studying the ancient Jewish Passover liturgy for some time and I knew the four cups of the Passover liturgy represent essentially the basic liturgical structure of this meal. The first cup is the blessing of the festival day, it's the kiddush cup. The second cup of wine occurs really at the beginning of the Passover liturgy itself, and that involves the singing of psalm 113. And then there's the third cup, the cup of blessing which involves the actual meal, the unleavened bread and so on. And then, before the fourth cup, you sing the great hillel psalms: 114, 115, 116, 117 and 118. And having sung those psalms you proceed to the fourth cup which for all practical purposes is the climax of the Passover.

      Now what's the problem? The problem is that gospel account says something like this: after the third cup is drunk Jesus says, "I shall not drink again of the fruit of the vine until I am entering into the kingdom of God." And it says, "Then they sang the psalms." Every Jew who knows the liturgy would expect: 'and then they went ahead and said the grace and the blessing and had the fourth cup which climaxed and consummated the Passover.' But no, the gospel account say they sang the psalms and went out into the night.

      Jesus did this deliberately. He interrupted the Passover liturgy right at its climactic moment. For what purpose? Well, in Mark 14, verse 32, it goes on to read, "And they went to a

    272. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      Unbelievable, you're comparing commandments of the Lord God to build Him a sanctuary and an Ark to the pagan idols of the Roman Catholic Church. There is no recorded commandment to build gem-encrusted golden crucifixes in the Bible

      So you consider Jesus to be a pagan god?

      yet you're trying to compare the Ark of the Covenant with them.

      The point is that the Bible supports the use of gold and gems in religious objects, such as the Ark, the candlesticks, the garments of Aaron, etc.

      And equally absurd is your claim that "A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach (1 Timothy 3:2)" has the "must" not governing the entire "husband of one wife" clause but only the numeric portion thereof.

      Paul could have simply said that a bishop had to be married, if that's what he meant, but instead he used the expression "husband of one wife". When we look at 1 Timothy 5:9, we see that it would be redundant to use this sort of expression there if it means what you say it means, since by definition a widow has been married. So Paul uses this to disqualify people with more than one spouse.

      One problem with your interpretation of the phrase is that if Paul made marriage mandatory, then he'd be disqualifying himself.

      Second, Paul considered marriage to be a distraction from serving God, so it wouldn't make much sense for him to go out of his way to burden those who were dedicating themselves to the service of God with such a distraction.
      1 Corinthians 7:32-33
      He that is unmarried careth for the things that belong to the Lord, how he may please the Lord: but he that is married careth for the things that are of the world, how he may please his wife.

      Third, Paul is listing qualifications that would prevent having a blameworthy bishop. There's no blame in having no wife (Paul says that this is actually to be preferred), while there is blame in having more than one wife.

      Then again you claim indulgences were not for sale. Yet see:

      "In corruption," says Symonds, " he [Innocent VIII] advanced a step even beyond Sixtus, by establishing a bank at Rome for the sale of pardons. Each sin had its price, which might be paid at the convenience of the criminal: one hundred and fifty ducats of the tax were poured into the Papal coffers; the surplus fell to Franceschetto, the Pope's son." Foote and Wheeler, Crimes of Christianity, Progressive Publishing Company, London, 1887, Volume I, p. 338


      All you've shown here is that some nineteenth-century atheists have the same misunderstanding of indulgences as you do.

      Or more to your taste, from a Catholic source [newadvent.org], see:

      For this payment, which smacked of simony, the pope would allow an indemnity, which in this case took the form of an indulgence. By this ignoble business arrangement with Rome, a financial transaction unworthy of both pope and archbishop, the revenue should be partitioned in equal halves to each, besides a bonus of 10,000 gold ducats, which should fall to the share of Rome.


      The only bad thing I see here concerning indulgences is that there appears to have been a misappropriation of the money given as alms. But nowhere does it say anything about indulgences being sold.
    273. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Oh, the apostasies...

      You claim that the fact that Jesus is recorded in scripture frequently talking about heaven and hell yet never mentioning "purgatory" is unimportant. Nice try, but if He had not been recorded as mentioning demons and fasting to drive them out, we would have lost a hugely significant teaching. And purgatory is would be more important since otherwise we would think salvation had failed if we wound up burning after death. Yet purgatory is not mentioned by the Lord. Simple logical reasoning again shows the RCC is non-Biblical. Q.E.D.

      Then you claim that Jesus saying "I will come again, and receive you unto myself; that where I am, there ye may be also (John 14:3)" does not mean that He will be with us constantly. If He says that He will receive me unto Himself, so that where He is, I may be also, then if I go to purgatory, He would be there too. Yet He is sinless, and that would be unjust, since He already made the one unique and perfectly efficacious sacrifice for sin.

      Now to the closing apostasy in your post, where you claim young children are sinless. You apparently miss the point about why Jesus had to be born as the "seed of the woman": Adam's seed carried Adam's sin. So any child born of his seed has sin accounted to it; there was only one sinless birth, as scripture records. Even the RCC says an infant has to be baptized; what about one that dies during delivery then?

    274. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Simple, simple points - the RCC says the eucharist is an "unbloody sacrifice". Scripture clearly teaches that without the shedding of blood, there is no remission of sins. Therefore, quite simply (unless you're deluded by demonic forces) the eucharist is ineffective against sin according to the Bible: "without shedding of blood is no remission (Hebrews 9:22)".

      And claiming that the eucharist and the cross are the same sacrifice, well, that's just plain silly. It's the core of the RCC distinctives, and I'm not trying to be cruel here, just plain honest. But to claim that a wafer waved around by a homosexual pedophile ordained as a priest is to be worshipped is offensive. The practice goes way back, observe in Jeremiah 7 and 44 where the practice is soundly condemned by the Lord.

      Then there's the point that our Lord followed and fulfilled the law perfectly. One of the principle teachings of the law was never to drink blood. Yet by RCC reckoning that is carried out not only in the last supper but daily around the world. So by RCC doctrine, Jesus sinned, and taught all His disciples to sin. Can't you see the absurdity of that, the contradiction to scripture? Can't you see that there is no way that Jesus would force His disciples to consume blood, that it had to be a symbolic presentation? As in John 10 where He says that He is a door, why doesn't the RCC teach that He has hinges?

      You think John 6 teaches the eucharist, yet it clearly does the opposite. If you hold to John 6:51-53 teaching the eucharist, then no one can be saved without it. Yet we have the jailer, the eunuch, the thief on the cross, etc. all told that they are saved without mentioning the cakes of Jeremiah 7 and 44, known as the "host" in RCC terminology. Additionally, since John 6:51-53 says that baptism is not necessary for salvation (itself an incorrect RCC teaching), the RCC is self-contradictory. You teach that baptism is necessary for salvation, yet John 6:51-53 by your twisting of scripture is about the eucharist. If it were, then it would teach that only the eucharist is necesary for salvation. Yet again, the RCC is non-biblical, and another Q.E.D.

    275. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Nice trolling, but I don't worship idols, I don't make statues or icons. The RCC does. You'll have to answer for that some day, not to me, but to Him. Unless you obey Him: "And I heard another voice from heaven, saying, Come out of her, my people, that ye be not partakers of her sins, and that ye receive not of her plagues. (Revelation 18:4)"

      Then you try to get "must be the husband of one wife" as a requirement for being a bishop to be disclaimed because Paul was not married. Bzzzzzzt. Nowhere in scripture is Paul labelled as a bishop. Only Timothy and Titus are so labelled. Must means must; yes the RCC is perfectly willing to ignore, add to, and subtract from scripture, but it's anti-biblical when it does so.

      And you continue to claim indulgences were not sold. If that were true, Martin Luther would not have gained the following he did so rapidly. The sale of indulgences was repugnant to anyone who read and believed scripture, that's why he got such a huge response - all the true believers were offended by the actions of the RCC.

    276. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      the RCC says the eucharist is an "unbloody sacrifice".

      The Eucharist is the same sacrifice as that of Calvary, made present in an unbloody manner. Jesus did indeed shed His blood on Calvary.

      And claiming that the eucharist and the cross are the same sacrifice, well, that's just plain silly.

      I don't know if you read the article I posted last time, but you should have a look at it.

      To claim that a wafer is to be worshipped is offensive.

      Paul would disagree with you.

      1 Corinthians 11:26-29

      For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the Lord's death till he come. Wherefore whosoever shall eat this bread, and drink this cup of the Lord, unworthily, shall be guilty of the body and blood of the Lord. But let a man examine himself, and so let him eat of that bread, and drink of that cup. For he that eateth and drinketh unworthily, eateth and drinketh damnation to himself, not discerning the Lord's body.

      Then there's the point that our Lord followed and fulfilled the law perfectly. One of the principle teachings of the law was never to drink blood. Yet by RCC reckoning that is carried out not only in the last supper but daily around the world.

      Actually, Jesus said that we can eat anything, despite what the Mosaic Law said:

      Mark 7:15

      There is nothing from without a man, that entering into him can defile him: but the things which come out of him, those are they that defile the man.

      Can't you see that there is no way that Jesus would force His disciples to consume blood, that it had to be a symbolic presentation?

      It seems to me that if it were sinful literally, it would be sinful symbolically. For instance, would it be okay for Jesus to encourage the Apostles to symbolically murder someone?

      As in John 10 where He says that He is a door, why doesn't the RCC teach that He has hinges?

      Jesus is a door in that we go through Him to go to heaven. But Jesus never said, "This particular door is me." He did take some bread and say, "This is my body," and I believe Him.

      If you hold to John 6:51-53 teaching the eucharist, then no one can be saved without it. Yet we have the jailer, the eunuch, the thief on the cross, etc. all told that they are saved

      The Eucharist is to our spiritual life what food is to our physical life, just as baptism is to our spiritual life what birth is to our physical life. In order to live, you don't need to be constantly eating. But if you don't eat for long enough, you will die. In the same way, if you are in a state of grace, you can get by for a while without the Eucharist and the grace it gives you. But if you don't receive the Eucharist for long enough, you will eventually fall into sin, because we rely on God's grace to avoid sin.

      Someone who has been baptized, such as the jailer or the eunuch, is saved; that person has received justifying grace. If that person were to suddenly die right after his baptism, without having received the Eucharist, then he would go to heaven, because one is in a state of grace immediately after baptism. However, the longer he goes without receiving the Eucharist, the more likely it is that he will fall into sin and lose his salvation, since he isn't receiving the grace that would help him to remain in a state of grace. In the same way, a child that is just born doesn't need to immediately eat in order to be alive. But if he doesn't eat for a long time, he will eventually die.

      Additionally, since John 6:51-53 says that baptism is not necessary for salvation

      Really? Where does it say that? I do know that a few chapters before this, it is stated that baptism is necessary:

      John 3:5

      I tell you solemnly, unless a man is born through water and the Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God.

    277. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1

      You claim that the fact that Jesus is recorded in scripture frequently talking about heaven and hell yet never mentioning "purgatory" is unimportant. Nice try, but if He had not been recorded as mentioning demons and fasting to drive them out, we would have lost a hugely significant teaching.

      So what you're saying is that only the Gospels are important? If, for instance, a teaching appears only in the epistles of Paul, you believe that we should ignore it, because the Bible doesn't record it as something Jesus said?

      And purgatory is would be more important since otherwise we would think salvation had failed if we wound up burning after death.

      Well, Paul tells us about Purgatory, so Christians would know about it. Besides, I think one would know one weren't in hell. See, for instance, Isaiah 6:1-7.

      Then you claim that Jesus saying "I will come again, and receive you unto myself; that where I am, there ye may be also (John 14:3)" does not mean that He will be with us constantly. If He says that He will receive me unto Himself, so that where He is, I may be also, then if I go to purgatory, He would be there too.

      First of all, Purgatory is not a place, it's a state of purification. Using my previous example, we could both be in the same place, at the entrance to my house, and yet only you would wipe your shoes clean if you were the only one with dirty shoes.

      Now to the closing apostasy in your post, where you claim young children are sinless.

      I said that they don't sin. They do have the stain of Original Sin, which is why they're baptized. But they don't commit any sins themselves.

      You apparently miss the point about why Jesus had to be born as the "seed of the woman": Adam's seed carried Adam's sin.

      No, Jesus was sinless because He is God. His sinlessness has nothing to do with Adam's seed.

      there was only one sinless birth, as scripture records.

      Where does Scripture record that there was only one sinless birth?

      Even the RCC says an infant has to be baptized; what about one that dies during delivery then?

      Children are conceived with the stain of Original Sin, so they lack justifying grace. This is why they are baptized: baptism gives them the grace of justification, saving them. Without baptism, it is possible that infants go to hell, although we can hope that God would save the child despite the lack of justifying grace. But it is better to baptize children in order to ensure that they have the grace of justification.

      Now, purgatory cleanses us of the temporal punishment for sin. An infant, baptized or not, has never done anything to merit a temporal punishment, and so, because he has nothing to cleanse, he wouldn't go to purgatory.

    278. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1

      Nice trolling, but I don't worship idols, I don't make statues or icons.

      I didn't say you did. It's just that you seemed to be implying that a crucifix is a pagan idol, which would only make sense if you believed that Jesus is a pagan god. If I misinterpreted what you said, please let me know.

      Then you try to get "must be the husband of one wife" as a requirement for being a bishop to be disclaimed because Paul was not married. Bzzzzzzt. Nowhere in scripture is Paul labelled as a bishop. Only Timothy and Titus are so labelled.

      In 2 Timothy 1:6, Paul says that he had ordained Timothy. Thus Paul was a bishop.

      And you continue to claim indulgences were not sold. If that were true, Martin Luther would not have gained the following he did so rapidly. The sale of indulgences was repugnant to anyone who read and believed scripture, that's why he got such a huge response - all the true believers were offended by the actions of the RCC.

      Actually, Protestantism gained the following it did only because it was supported by the local rulers. See Section VIII of this page, the section in question being entitled "The Largely Political Basis of the Protestant Revolt". It includes quotes from Luther admitting that without government support for Protestantism, most people would have rejected it.

    279. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      Purgatory again. Even though it's an ancient pagan practice adopted by your church, you keep defending it. Okay, you used 1 Corinthians 3:13-15 as your biblical basis for purgatory. I'm glad you did that, because that passage, when read in full context, clearly has absolutely nothing to do with the Catholic Church invention of purgatory. Sorry, that's wrong; the Catholic church didn't invent purgatory, they adopted the idea from Babylonian paganism.

      Anyway, in 1 Corinthians 3, you take verse 13 ("Every man's work shall be made manifest: for the day shall declare it, because it shall be revealed by fire; and the fire shall try every man's work of what sort it is.") and claim that the work being tried by fire is everything that we could be judged about, and that therefore a purging in purgatory is necessary to burn away our unforgiven sins (even though Jesus Christ died once for all sins, you and your church deny that portion of scripture).

      It is blatantly obvious that the works being discussed throughout chapter 3 of 1 Corinthians are in the context of the Corinthians being divisive about whether they followed Paul, or Apollos, or another. Paul then chides them for being carnal for caring about such things.

      Then Paul notes that he was tasked by God with being the masterbuilder who constructs the foundation for churches. Then he warns to build upon that foundation with care; that only building upon Christ is right, not building on one teacher or another. Building with gems, gold, etc. is not proper. Then come the verses you (and the RCC) pull out of context to justify purgatory for all acts in life. Then after those verses, Paul is still in the same context talking about himself, or Apollos, or Cephas. So the RCC action of pulling those verses so far out of context to justify an absurd pagan practice is clearly yanking three verses from their prior and subsequent context and claiming that they stand alone. They do not; they are integral with the entire chapter. You and your church are again twisting scripture to support pagan practices.

      And one more point; of course Jesus is and was sinless because He is God; that is the divine portion of His nature. Yet He is not only 100% God, He is also 100% man. And as a man, if He was born in the typical fashion, He would have been tainted in His human portion by being a descendant of Adam. Only the virgin birth cleared Him of Adam's seed. That is why in Genesis, His birth is fortold as "the seed of the woman". Women don't have the seed, that's the male contribution. So only Christ was sinless, as only He was from the seed of a woman.

      Oh and for convenience, here's 1 Corinthians 3:

      And I, brethren, could not speak unto you as unto spiritual, but as unto carnal, even as unto babes in Christ. I have fed you with milk, and not with meat: for hitherto ye were not able to bear it, neither yet now are ye able. For ye are yet carnal: for whereas there is among you envying, and strife, and divisions, are ye not carnal, and walk as men? For while one saith, I am of Paul; and another, I am of Apollos; are ye not carnal? Who then is Paul, and who is Apollos, but ministers by whom ye believed, even as the Lord gave to every man? I have planted, Apollos watered; but God gave the increase. So then neither is he that planteth any thing, neither he that watereth; but God that giveth the increase. Now he that planteth and he that watereth are one: and every man shall receive his own reward according to his own labour. For we are labourers together with God: ye are God's husbandry, ye are God's building. According to the grace of God which is given unto me, as a wise masterbuilder, I have laid the foundation, and another buildeth thereon. But let every man take heed how he buildeth thereupon. For other foundation can no man lay than that is laid, which is Jesus Christ. Now if any man build upon this foundation gold, silver, precious stones, wood, hay, stubble; Every man's work shall be made manifest: for the day

    280. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      Of course I don't think Jesus is a pagan god; how absurd a thought.

      In this bit of scripture:
      Wherefore I put thee in remembrance that thou stir up the gift of God, which is in thee by the putting on of my hands. For God hath not given us the spirit of fear; but of power, and of love, and of a sound mind. Be not thou therefore ashamed of the testimony of our Lord, nor of me his prisoner: but be thou partaker of the afflictions of the gospel according to the power of God; Who hath saved us, and called us with an holy calling, not according to our works, but according to his own purpose and grace, which was given us in Christ Jesus before the world began, But is now made manifest by the appearing of our Saviour Jesus Christ, who hath abolished death, and hath brought life and immortality to light through the gospel: Whereunto I am appointed a preacher, and an apostle, and a teacher of the Gentiles. (2 Timothy 1:6-11)
      You claim that says that Paul was a bishop because he "ordained" Timothy. Yet scripture does not say that he ordained anyone, merely that he put his hands on Timothy and thereby gave Timothy a gift of God which is power, love, and a sound mind.

      Getting Paul being a bishop ordaining Timothy out of that may fit some Roman Catholic manual somewhere, but that's irrelevant. The bible quotes Paul as saying that he is appointed "a preacher, and an apostle, and a teacher of the Gentiles". Paul does not describe himself as a bishop. You calling him one doesn't make it so; scripture disagrees with you, therefore I do as well.

      Protestantism is, particularly nowadays, so close to your RCC that it's not really distinct. Parts of it are even more apostate, going into new age deviltry and heresies (parts of RCC are doing that as well, but it's not the main theme in the RCC). So telling me that Protestantism has flaws is like telling me that Hollywood hates God; nothing newsworthy, we can agree they're both bad news. But as I have said many times, I'm not a protestant. Independent Baptists tend not to be protestants, we were around (much as the RCC is desperately denying this) long before Martin Luther.
    281. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      The RCC says, in its catechims, that the eucharist is an unbloody sacrifice. The Bible says that without shedding of blood, there is no remission of sins.

      Therefore, simple logic shows that the Bible says the eucharist is ineffective. The RCC and you say otherwise, invoking mumbo-jumbo about the "mystery" of the eucharist. Yep, Mystery Babylon in fact:
      And upon her forehead was a name written, MYSTERY, BABYLON THE GREAT, THE MOTHER OF HARLOTS AND ABOMINATIONS OF THE EARTH. (Revelation 17:5, emphasis added)
      You and your church are part of prophecy. Don't get proud of that, read the context and see what's coming for you and your church. Repent and GET OUT before it's too late!!!!

      And your statements that baptism is necessary for salvation are easily refuted in God's holy word. See the story about the jailer (Acts 16), the thief on the cross (Luke 23), etc.

      You and your church are not following the Bible. Fine, just don't keep claiming to be following it, or at least understand that you're being absurdly inconsistent.
    282. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      The RCC says, in its catechims, that the eucharist is an unbloody sacrifice.

      Actually, no. What the Catechism says is that the sacrifice of the Eucharist is the same as that of Calvary, but offered in an unbloody manner. The Catechism says:
      1367 The sacrifice of Christ and the sacrifice of the Eucharist are one single sacrifice: "The victim is one and the same: the same now offers through the ministry of priests, who then offered himself on the cross; only the manner of offering is different." "And since in this divine sacrifice which is celebrated in the Mass, the same Christ who offered himself once in a bloody manner on the altar of the cross is contained and is offered in an unbloody manner. . . this sacrifice is truly propitiatory."

      By the way, how do you interpret this passage concerning the Eucharist?
      1 Corinthians 11:26-29
      For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the Lord's death till he come. Wherefore whosoever shall eat this bread, and drink this cup of the Lord, unworthily, shall be guilty of the body and blood of the Lord. But let a man examine himself, and so let him eat of that bread, and drink of that cup. For he that eateth and drinketh unworthily, eateth and drinketh damnation to himself, not discerning the Lord's body.

      And your statements that baptism is necessary for salvation are easily refuted in God's holy word. See the story about the jailer (Acts 16), the thief on the cross (Luke 23), etc.

      The jailer was baptized (Acts 16:33). If baptism wasn't considered necessary, then why did he and his family all get baptized immediately, in the middle of the night?

      Have a look at all the conversions mentioned in the book of Acts, and see how many involve baptism and how many don't.

      The fact is that the Bible explicitly tells us that baptism is the means through which we are saved:
      1 Peter 3:20-21
      ...in the days of Noah, while the ark was a preparing, wherein few, that is, eight souls were saved by water. The like figure whereunto even baptism doth also now save us...

      Titus 3:5
      Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost.

      As for the thief, he didn't really have much opportunity to get baptized, given that he was attached to a cross. God wouldn't hold something that was beyond the thief's control against him. God knows what our intentions are and acts accordingly.
    283. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      The passage from 1 Corinthians 11 is only interpretable if you put it in context. Look at verses 24 and 25; see that the Lord commands to do this "in remembrance of me". Humans can remember things, and do things in remembrance of, without engaging in the "mystery of the eucharist". Sure your catechism says that it's efficacious, but God's word contradicts that. An unbloody sacrifice is useless; spin words all you want, the Bible is against you.

      Yes the jailer was baptized, it's a commandment. But when he asked Paul and Barnabas what was necessary, they were quite explicit, clear, and distinct:
      And brought them out, and said, Sirs, what must I do to be saved? And they said, Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and thou shalt be saved, and thy house. And they spake unto him the word of the Lord, and to all that were in his house. (Acts 16:30-32, emphasis added)
      Note carefully, since after this verse is the one about them being baptized, that all his house had the word preached to them; following that, they were baptized. Talking to an infant is useless, so clearly his entire household was able to reason.

      Note also, as the bolded section of Holy Scripture clearly states, that Paul answered that the way to be saved was to Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ. Not that you have to believe and be baptized, though that certainly is the right thing to do, as evidenced in verse 33.

      Again Pall, you took one verse out of context. Does your continually doing that indicate that you put your church or tradition above scripture? Where does it come down to with you - is scripture the final authority, or your church's teachings?
    284. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      Of course I don't think Jesus is a pagan god; how absurd a thought.

      Then maybe you shouldn't call Him one.

      In this bit of scripture:

      Wherefore I put thee in remembrance that thou stir up the gift of God, which is in thee by the putting on of my hands. For God hath not given us the spirit of fear; but of power, and of love, and of a sound mind.
      [...]
      You claim that says that Paul was a bishop because he "ordained" Timothy. Yet scripture does not say that he ordained anyone, merely that he put his hands on Timothy and thereby gave Timothy a gift of God which is power, love, and a sound mind.


      Why would this gift be incompatible with ordination? It is the grace given so that Timothy might worthily carry out his sacred ministry.

      Timothy apparently needed encouragement in his ministry, and here Paul is trying to give him some encouragement and to get him to make use of the grace given to him. Paul does the same sort of thing in 1 Timothy 4:14, which explicitly mentions ordination:
      1 Timothy 4:14
      Neglect not the gift that is in thee, which was given thee by prophecy, with the laying on of the hands of the presbytery.

      Paul is talking about the same gift in both cases, so he was talking about ordination in both cases.

      The bible quotes Paul as saying that he is appointed "a preacher, and an apostle, and a teacher of the Gentiles". Paul does not describe himself as a bishop.

      The Bible says that the office of an apostle is that of a bishop:
      Acts 1:16-17,20
      Men and brethren, this scripture must needs have been fulfilled, which the Holy Ghost by the mouth of David spake before concerning Judas, which was guide to them that took Jesus. For he was numbered with us, and had obtained part of this ministry. ... For it is written in the book of Psalms, Let his habitation be desolate, and let no man dwell therein: and his bishoprick let another take.

      Independent Baptists tend not to be protestants, we were around (much as the RCC is desperately denying this) long before Martin Luther.

      Really? Do you have any proof for this assertion?
    285. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      The passage from 1 Corinthians 11 is only interpretable if you put it in context. Look at verses 24 and 25; see that the Lord commands to do this "in remembrance of me". Humans can remember things, and do things in remembrance of, without engaging in the "mystery of the eucharist".

      Well, Jesus explicitly told us to "do this". Now, what is Jesus talking about here? What is it we are supposed to do in remembrance of him? Well, we're supposed to do what He did, that is, change the bread and wine into the Body and Blood of Christ. Then we're supposed to take it and eat it.

      Sure your catechism says that it's efficacious, but God's word contradicts that. An unbloody sacrifice is useless; spin words all you want, the Bible is against you.

      The sacrifice of the Eucharist is the same as that of Calvary. Have a look once again at that talk by Scott Hahn that I posted here. It shows pretty clearly that Calvary and the Last Supper are all part of the same Passover sacrifice, with Christ as our Lamb.

      Yes the jailer was baptized, it's a commandment. But when he asked Paul and Barnabas what was necessary, they were quite explicit, clear, and distinct:

      And brought them out, and said, Sirs, what must I do to be saved? And they said, Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and thou shalt be saved, and thy house. And they spake unto him the word of the Lord, and to all that were in his house. (Acts 16:30-32, emphasis added)


      And if you believe in Jesus, you also believe what He taught, such as the fact that baptism is necessary for salvation (John 3:5). So saying that one must believe to be saved implies that one accepts the necessity of baptism.

      Besides, you're ignoring some of the other occasions on which people asked about what was needed for salvation:

      Matthew 19:16-19

      And, behold, one came and said unto him, "Good Master, what good thing shall I do, that I may have eternal life?" And he said unto him, "Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments." He saith unto him, "Which?" Jesus said, "Thou shalt do no murder, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness, honour thy father and thy mother: and, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself."

      Acts 2:37-39
      Now when they heard this, they were pricked in their heart, and said unto Peter and to the rest of the apostles, "Men and brethren, what shall we do?" Then Peter said unto them, "Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost. For the promise is unto you, and to your children, and to all that are afar off, even as many as the LORD our God shall call."

      Acts 16:30-31
      And brought them out, and said, "Sirs, what must I do to be saved?" And they said, "Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and thou shalt be saved, and thy house."

      Note carefully, since after this verse is the one about them being baptized, that all his house had the word preached to them; following that, they were baptized. Talking to an infant is useless, so clearly his entire household was able to reason.

      Infants are open to receiving the grace of justification through baptism. They can't reject that grace as an adult can, which is why an adult must believe in order to be baptized; an adult must choose whether or not to accept the grace of justification.

      Besides, the Bible says that young children can be believers. For instance:

      Luke 1:41-44

      And it came to pass, that, when Elisabeth heard the salutation of Mary, the babe leaped in her womb; and Elisabeth was filled with the Holy Ghost: And she spake out with a loud voice, and said, "Blessed art thou among women, and blessed is the fruit of t

    286. Re:Call the editor! by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1
      Purgatory again. Even though it's an ancient pagan practice adopted by your church, you keep defending it.

      In what sense is purgatory a "practice"?

      Anyway, if what you're saying is that there were similar beliefs among pagans, I don't see how that automatically makes it wrong. The idea of a god who dies and comes back to life existed among various pagan religions, so would you say that this means that the Resurrection is a pagan idea adopted by the Church?

      Anyway, in 1 Corinthians 3, you take verse 13 ("Every man's work shall be made manifest: for the day shall declare it, because it shall be revealed by fire; and the fire shall try every man's work of what sort it is.") and claim that the work being tried by fire is everything that we could be judged about, and that therefore a purging in purgatory is necessary to burn away our unforgiven sins

      I never said anything about unforgiven sins; I'm talking about the temporal punishment for sins. Even after a sin is forgiven, a punishment can remain. For instance, in 2 Samuel 12, David is punished even though his sin was already forgiven:

      2 Samuel 12:13-14

      And David said unto Nathan, "I have sinned against the Lord." And Nathan said unto David, "The Lord also hath put away thy sin; thou shalt not die. Howbeit, because by this deed thou hast given great occasion to the enemies of the Lord to blaspheme, the child also that is born unto thee shall surely die."

      It is blatantly obvious that the works being discussed throughout chapter 3 of 1 Corinthians are in the context of the Corinthians being divisive about whether they followed Paul, or Apollos, or another.

      Sure. But Paul goes on to talk about what happens on Judgment Day, based on what we do in this life, and this is applicable to anyone even though he's speaking about particular people here. "Every man shall receive his own reward according to his own labour. For we are labourers together with God."

      Then Paul notes that he was tasked by God with being the masterbuilder who constructs the foundation for churches. Then he warns to build upon that foundation with care; that only building upon Christ is right, not building on one teacher or another.

      Well, he says that there is only one foundation that can be laid: Christ. "For other foundation can no man lay than that is laid, which is Jesus Christ." It's not teachers who are being built on, it's teachers who are doing the building. And it is based on how well they build that they will be judged: "But let every man take heed how he buildeth thereupon."

      Building with gems, gold, etc. is not proper.

      Building with gold, silver, precious stones is proper. What is improper is building with wood, hay, and stubble. The first group of building materials are high-quality materials, and they will survive the fire; but the second group won't survive. "Every man's work shall be made manifest: for the day shall declare it, because it shall be revealed by fire; and the fire shall try every man's work of what sort it is. If any man's work abide which he hath built thereupon, he shall receive a reward. If any man's work shall be burned, he shall suffer loss: but he himself shall be saved; yet so as by fire." This last part describes purgatory, here with respect to the teachers, but it also applies to any Christian, since we will all be judged, not just the teachers. Once we are saved, we are temples of God (1 Corinthians 6:19). Our foundation, as Christians, is Christ. We work with God in building up the temple. If we do a good job, we go to heaven. If we do a bad job, our work will be purified of whatever was bad, but we will ultimately go to heaven. On the other hand, if we defile the temple, losing the grace of justification, then we will go to hell: "If any man defile the temple of God, him shall God destroy."

      And one more point; of course Jesus is and was sinless because He is God; tha

    287. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Pall, you're pretty far off base. I never called Jesus a pagan god; I pointed out that the RCC adopts and uses pagan techniques.

      I never said that laying on hands was inconsistent with ordination, as it's not inconsistent with many forms of blessing. But because it has broad application, your claim that it's just for ordination is groundless without additional scriptural evidence.

      Is your memory faulty? There are tons of proof that Baptists preceeded Luther by more than a millenium. You don't believe the "Trail of Blood". But your lack of belief does not make it false.

    288. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Don't you get it? I don't care what Scott Hahn wrote; I care what God inspired to be written in scripture. The eucharist is not in scripture: Jesus was using His body and blood at the Last Supper; so claiming that He did a physical and not spiritual conversion is absurd. And your dismissal of the Bible's point about a non-bloody sacrifice being useless is also absurd - your church claims that the eucharist is a non-bloody sacrifice. The Bible says such a sacrifice is useless. If you claim it isn't useless you're perfectly welcome to do so, but in doing so, you are adopting an anti-biblical stance, as is your church. And in doing so, you have proved my original point. Thanks!

      John leapt in Elizabeth's womb because he had the Spirit of God even there (and that was not a usual thing, or it would not have been significant enough to be mentioned in Luke 1:15), not because infant baptism is worthwhile.

      Scripture says it meets all needs and may be used to make a man perfect (complete), as it says in 2 Timothy 3. If it's adequate to make a man complete, then nothing else is necessary, is it?

      And again, I don't acknowledge your church as anything but a derivative work of Babylonian heresies labelled with Christian words. So pointing out something in your catechism to me accomplishes nothing.

    289. Re:Call the editor! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Purgatory is a pagan practice because it does not exist in the Bible. That's why.

      Your passage about David having a sin still have consequences after he had been forgiven is irrelevant to your defense of purgatory. One is a natural consequence here on earth. The forgiveness of God applies to afterwards. If you rob a store, then confess and repent of your sin, you are forgiven. But you'll still do time in jail; that's the natural consequence of your sin. You're confusing topics here.

  3. What? Hasn't anyone bothered to examine by teamhasnoi · · Score: 3, Funny

    Strom Thurmond's head?

  4. Hominids by xtrucial · · Score: 5, Informative

    Not that hominids, though, arrived considerably earlier than this... what's the latest figure? somewhere in the 4 million range? Some of them wren't exactly dumb either; neanderthals, in fact, are supposed to have had more brain mass than humans did/do.

    1. Re:Hominids by Jareeedo · · Score: 3, Informative

      Brain size doesn't correspond to intelligence. The significance regarding hominid brains has less to do with mass and more to do with the development of Broca's area which enables the capacity for language.

    2. Re:Hominids by dalutong · · Score: 1

      More brain mass, but not as dense.

      --

      What comes first, finding a teacher or becoming a student?
    3. Re:Hominids by PD · · Score: 1

      Brain and brain!!! What is brain???

    4. Re:Hominids by $alex_n42 · · Score: 5, Informative

      Just though I should fire up the old google and check it out for myself, here's what I found:

      "While the largest Homo erectus brains were about 1250 ml (2 imperial pints) and modern brains average about 1200 - 1500 ml in volume, female Neanderthal brains were about 1300 ml and those of males about 1600 ml, extending to 1740 ml in the Amud man." --Stringer, Christopher & Gamble, Clive. In Search of the Neanderthals. New York: Thames & Hudson, 1993. link

      "The Neanderthals were fully bipedal and had a slightly larger average brain capacity than that of a typical modern human (though the brain structure was organised somewhat differently)." --link

      A good discussion and some comparisons here: link

      Of course by the time I've read it all and wrote this, someone might have posted some relevant information already. Just though I'd share anyway.

    5. Re:Hominids by AllenChristopher · · Score: 5, Funny

      We, however, are tricksy. We probably convinced neanderthals to sign a license agreement on fire.

    6. Re:Hominids by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      A good discussion and some comparisons here: link [icr.org]

      Keep in mind that icr.org is a creationist website, and they have a big axe to grind.

    7. Re:Hominids by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Perhaps this has something to do with why the Neanderthals are extinct-- unless your society is capable of doing cesarean sections having a large skull is maladaptive.

    8. Re:Hominids by pajamacore · · Score: 5, Informative

      The Broca's area in H. neanderthalensis was as fully developed as it is in H. sapiens. Also, the basicrania of Neanderthals were just as flexed as anatomically modern humans. Neanderthals also possessed an enlarged canal in the thoracic vertebrae allowing for fine control over phonetically significant movements of the rib cage.

      The extent to which Neanderthals could speak was determined by their anatomy. The larynx was located high in the vocal tract and the oral cavity was significantly longer than in H. sapiens. This differently arranged vocal tract could not form the 'i', as in tea; 'u', as in too; and 'a', as in tall. Nor could it pronounce 'k' as in kite and 'g' as in god.

      However, as Steven Pinker put it: "In any case, e lengeege weth e smell nember ef vewels cen remeen quete expresseve, so we cannot conclude that a [hominin] with a restricted vowel space had little language."

    9. Re:Hominids by Jareeedo · · Score: 1

      Don't forget the hyoid bone. There have been very few recovered hyoid fossils, but they do exist.

      So is Pinker implying that certain european accents require a restricted vowel space? ;-)

    10. Re:Hominids by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Note that many researchers now beleive that some distinctive features of european caucasians arose by the interbreeding of Neanderthals and Hom. Sapiens.

    11. Re: Hominids by Black+Parrot · · Score: 3, Informative


      > The extent to which Neanderthals could speak was determined by their anatomy. The larynx was located high in the vocal tract and the oral cavity was significantly longer than in H. sapiens. This differently arranged vocal tract could not form the 'i', as in tea; 'u', as in too; and 'a', as in tall. Nor could it pronounce 'k' as in kite and 'g' as in god.

      > However, as Steven Pinker put it: "In any case, e lengeege weth e smell nember ef vewels cen remeen quete expresseve, so we cannot conclude that a [hominin] with a restricted vowel space had little language."

      Notice that the modern Tashlhiyt Berber language is so stingy with vowels that stop consonants can serve as the nucleus of its syllables. There simply isn't any theory that tells us a minimum number of phonemes required for oral communication. Moreover, some linguists think sign language may have preceded oral language anyway.

      There have been way too many dogmatic claims of an absence of language in early hominids without any good supporting evidence. The very rudimentary linguistic skills of chimps and even gorillas suggests that linguistic ability has deep evolutionary roots.

      --
      Sheesh, evil *and* a jerk. -- Jade
    12. Re:Hominids by MonkeyDluffy · · Score: 1

      The icr is hardly a place to go for any factual information - for that matter, they are well known for their dishonesty.
      -MDL

      --
      Happy meals fund terrorism
    13. Re:Hominids by whovian · · Score: 1
      I was wondering about that -- patriarchal biases in archaeology.

      What strikes me as a little odd is how the three skulls are
      "probably that of a male"
      while later they
      "can't tell whether they were killing them [hippos] or scavenging them."
      --
      To-do List: Receive telemarketing call during a tornado warning. Check.
    14. Re:Hominids by Lairdsville · · Score: 1, Funny

      It has been said that the New Zealand accent only has one vowel, e. Try speaking with only e's and you might find you sound like a New Zealander. Perhaps there is a throw back to the Neanderthals there, it could explain why they are so good at Rugby...

    15. Re:Hominids by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Some of them wren't exactly dumb either

      To be exact, my teacher was a Neanderthal, and I distinctly remember getting a "D" in Spelling when I missed that exact same word, "wren't" on a pop quiz.
      I was dispatched with such suddenness, that even today I cringe when I see the word "wren't".

    16. Re:Hominids by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      "probably that of a male"

      Because they are larger (Sorry, couldn't resist... did I now offend the 3 shegeeks that read Slashdot?)

    17. Re:Hominids by Dr.+Evil · · Score: 2, Insightful

      Yeah, they can never be sure. After all, sexual dimorphism almost always leads to larger males, and all the femur, hip-bones and other skeletal remains with good sexual indicators have been accompanied by skull casings which are consistent with larger brains.

      It's quite possible that men had birthing hips and would bear children. Of course they would need vaginas and breasts, and women would need penises, but that doesn't make the men less manly or the women less womanly.

      The bottom line is that the skulls are probably those of males. It would be remarkable if they turned out to be female, but there's no direct evidence either way, and since no other hominid has larger females than males, it's a reasonable assumption.

      Saying that there is a patriarchal bias, is to say that you percieve something inherently better about a larger brain. This advantage you attribute to sexual lines. That's not only sexist, but it belittle both men's and women's contributions to anthropology.

    18. Re:Hominids by whovian · · Score: 1
      Saying that there is a patriarchal bias, is to say that you percieve something inherently better about a larger brain. This advantage you attribute to sexual lines. That's not only sexist, but it belittle both men's and women's contributions to anthropology.
      I'm not sure you are referring to me in particular, but I meant to merely question the basis of their apparent assumption that "male must be bigger". (Not true, see black widow spiders, but they don't have skeletons either.) But your saying it's usually true does help to substantiate their assumption.

      --
      To-do List: Receive telemarketing call during a tornado warning. Check.
    19. Re:Hominids by the_2nd_coming · · Score: 2, Interesting

      brain size apparently does not matter ad evidenced above...j/k

      anyway...the large brain size was due to the larger body mass.

      the truth is that Neanderthal did not have the ability to for large social structures and were confined to small family groups.

      most anthropologists belive that it was due to their peaceful nature (no evidence of wars or murder until humans come along) that contributed greatly to their extinction....humans are more opertunistic and manipulative than Neanderthal I guess.

      --



      I am the Alpha and the Omega-3
    20. Re:Hominids by Cleon · · Score: 1

      ...And many don't, mainly because of the large genetic dissimilarities.

      http://www.psu.edu/ur/NEWS/news/Neandertal.html

      --
      Gifts for Geeks - Stuff that really matters!
    21. Re:Hominids by Abcd1234 · · Score: 1

      The facts are still correct, though. I've read those sames stats in a number of publications, including Scientific American, amongst others (they had a rather interesting article on the possible differences between human and neanderthal brains which led to human success and neanderthal extinction, despite the larger neanderthal brain. Basically, it ain't the size that matters, but how you use it :).

    22. Re:Hominids by EdlinUser · · Score: 1

      > (they had a rather interesting article on
      > the possible differences between human
      > and neanderthal brains which led to human
      > success and neanderthal extinction, despite
      > the larger neanderthal brain.

      A bit of a puzzle here tho.
      Cromagnon Man replaced the Neanderthals and became our, supposed, ancestor.
      But, the Cromagnons had even larger brains than the Neanderthals. And Modern Man has a smaller brain than the Neanderthals.

    23. Re:Hominids by Abcd1234 · · Score: 1

      Yes, but as I said, the size isn't what matters. It's how the brain is organized and utilized which does. eg, one possible theory is that the neanderthal brain might have been highly specialized and compartmentalized. When they were making tools, that's all they thought about. When they were hunting, that's all they thought about. They had great concentration, but the complete inability to bring thsoe skills together. In other words, their brain wasn't all that malleable or flexible. The human brain, OTOH, is highly flexible... we are capable of combining various modes of thought in a way which the neanderthals couldn't. And in this way, we had an advantage. It wasn't due to brain size... it was brain structure.

    24. Re:Hominids by Imperator · · Score: 1

      No, we just patented all the possible ways of making, preserving, and using fire.

      --

      Gates' Law: Every 18 months, the speed of software halves.
    25. Re: Hominids by Ieshan · · Score: 1

      Not only that, but language isn't integral to concept formation, as many people believe. The fact that we can represent concepts abstractly has nothing to do with the fact that we can represent them through language, many other animals (including chimps and birds [see http://pigeon.psy.tufts.edu]) can form abstract mental representations (like same vs. different, around vs. through, left vs. right) on different dimensions (visual and auditory).

      Animal research has proven this, so I'm not really sure why people are so hung up on the language = reason issue.

    26. Re: Hominids by Black+Parrot · · Score: 1


      > A bit of a puzzle here tho. Cromagnon Man replaced the Neanderthals and became our, supposed, ancestor. But, the Cromagnons had even larger brains than the Neanderthals. And Modern Man has a smaller brain than the Neanderthals.

      Maybe we're just denser.

      --
      Sheesh, evil *and* a jerk. -- Jade
  5. How come there are modern and non modern Human? by sebol · · Score: 1

    How come there are modern human and non-modern?

    What's next?
    newmodern?
    gerymodern?
    Crux?
    Bluecurve?

    --
    -- Hasbullah bin Pit (sebol)
  6. they're quite intelligent (already) by maliabu · · Score: 5, Interesting

    along with the skulls are some tools, and their way of burial is more than a simple "covering up with dirt and let's move on", which sort of indicates these ancestors are pretty smart and know what they were doing.

    are we going to discover even earlier "modern" human remains in order to find out how we really came from??

    1. Re:they're quite intelligent (already) by Muhammar · · Score: 1

      Standing in the muddy lake and bludgeoning hippos with stone hand axes... modern humans were developing fast right there.

      Being small, skinny and sickly can be useful trait. It gives you opportunity to draw pictures of men hunting hippos and men-hunting hippos for your children.

      --
      I doubt that we will ever figure out - and I suspect that even if we did figure out we couldn't do much about it
    2. Re:they're quite intelligent (already) by jabbadabbadoo · · Score: 1

      Uhm, even elephants have burials. Really.

    3. Re:they're quite intelligent (already) by Read+Icculus · · Score: 2, Interesting

      That's why scientists use different criteria for establishing "intelligent" burials that were done for some purpose beyond just keeping the body safe from scavengers and whatnot. Presence of dyes, plants, tools, and various things are used to determine that sort of thing. Neanderthals buried their dead, but scientists cannot agree if it was done for a spiritual reason, or just to keep the sabre-toothed hyenas away. Neanderthals are quite often given the short end of the stick by scientists.

      --
      Anti-social? My code is just platform-specific.
    4. Re:they're quite intelligent (already) by EvilTwinSkippy · · Score: 1
      Neanderthals are quite often given the short end of the stick by scientists.

      Probably because they feel a little uncomfortable with the idea that we may have given them the pointy end of the spear. Whenever they discuss how the Neanderthals died out, they kind of tail off at the notion that we exterminated them in a turf war.

      Hell, just look in the bible. Don't the Philistine's sound an awful lot like the Neandertals, at least as described by a primative scribe?

      --
      "Learning is not compulsory... neither is survival."
      --Dr.W.Edwards Deming
    5. Re:they're quite intelligent (already) by hesiod · · Score: 1

      > Don't the Philistine's sound an awful lot like the Neandertals,

      That's interesting, & I'd like to read that, but unfortunately I have very limited knowledge of the Bible. Do you know where (not necessarily the verse, but at least the book & general idea of chapter) they are described?

    6. Re:they're quite intelligent (already) by EvilTwinSkippy · · Score: 1
      A screw it, I had it completely wrong, it was the Cannanites. In any case this article goes into depth about the giants of the bible.

      Have fun with it.

      --
      "Learning is not compulsory... neither is survival."
      --Dr.W.Edwards Deming
    7. Re:they're quite intelligent (already) by Fishstick · · Score: 1

      >the notion that we exterminated them in a turf war.

      More than just that, possibly.

      I think it was a show on Discovery Channel where they talked about this a bit. One source said that Neanderthals might have been hunted for food.

      --

      There is much cruelty in the universe, John.
      Yeah, we seem to have the tour map.

    8. Re:they're quite intelligent (already) by dubStylee · · Score: 1

      "Whenever they discuss how the Neanderthals died out, they kind of tail off at the notion that we exterminated them in a turf war."

      Where do you get your idea of prehistory, tarzan movies? Homo Sapiens and Neandertals lived near each other for over 80,000 years without exterminating each other and there's no evidence of any kind that their disappearance was caused by warfare. Even the idea that we out-competed them is only a guess. "They" tail off when discussing Neandertal extinction because a few hundred skeletons over a few hundred thousand years isn't much to go on.

    9. Re:they're quite intelligent (already) by dubStylee · · Score: 1

      "I think it was a show on Discovery Channel where they talked about this a bit. One source said that Neanderthals might have been hunted for food."

      An equivalent software statement might be: "I think it was a show on WB where one source said that DOS is the best operating system ever invented." Did you ever hear of a library or google? What makes you think your partially remembered version of one person's ill informed blather on a tv show is relevant to anything? They might have been hunted off by aliens too, where's the evidence?

      I don't mean to pick on you in particular but I am boggled at the readiness of people in this forum to talk about things they no nothing about.

    10. Re:they're quite intelligent (already) by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      geez, calm down -- it's only slashdot!
      "Neanderthal" on Discovery Channel

      Contrary to popular belief, Neaderthals were not an evolutionary dead-end. They in fact merged with CroMagnion into a little-known genus calls slashdottus-assholus. Examples of these non-sapien hominids can be seen wandering about at comic book stores, at sci-fi movies or at computer equipment retailers. Most commonly, they can be observed making insulting comments at each other via an electronic medium known as the internet. It is believed that this line will shortly die out, given their tendancy to prefer self-stimulation over mating with members of the opposite sex.

      wanker

    11. Re:they're quite intelligent (already) by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      "things they no nothing about."

      That's all I needed to see.

    12. Re:they're quite intelligent (already) by dubStylee · · Score: 1

      > "things they no nothing about."

      >> That's all I needed to see.

      At least I sign my typos :-)

    13. Re:they're quite intelligent (already) by Read+Icculus · · Score: 1

      Well another thing to bring up is that some scientists think that homo sapiens, (us), and Neanderthals might have interbred. Certain genetic traits, and genes that are found in Europeans are also found in Neanderthals. There's some fossil evidence to back this up too, depending on who you ask. Of course this makes people even more uncomfortable than the idea that we killed them all off. As we tend to view Neanderthals as stupid and a lower life form. Googling for "mulitregional evolution", and "neanderthals" should get some good info on the subject. This might explaion GWB and some of the knuckle-draggers who live among us.

      --
      Anti-social? My code is just platform-specific.
  7. Government Coverup by Squarewav · · Score: 1, Funny

    What they din't tell you is they also found remains of a time machine, indicating that they are from people from the 31st century

    Now ware did I put my tin-foil hat

  8. Re:What? Hasn't anyone bothered to examine by localghost · · Score: 3, Funny

    Modern humans. Come on, think before you post.

  9. Brain Food? by sssmashy · · Score: 4, Insightful

    The Herto skulls were not found with other bones from the rest of the bodies, which is unusual, White said, leading the researchers to infer that the people "were moving the heads around on the landscape. They probably cut the muscles and broke the skull bases of some skulls to extract the brain, but why, whether as part of a cannibalistic ritual, we have no way of knowing."

    I was rather surprised by the possibility of ritualistic brain-eating amongst the earliest ancestors of our species. Maybe they were extracting the brains not for appetizers, but for the same reasons Egyptians removed the brains prior to mummification: so that dead would not be encumbered by the useless grey gunk inside their head on the journey to the afterlife.

    1. Re:Brain Food? by l810c · · Score: 0, Funny

      Mmmm, Brain

    2. Re:Brain Food? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Insightful

      It isn't reasonable to think that they would be removing the brains for a trip to the afterlife. The age of these skulls predates organized religion. Without religion to convey the idea of an afterlife, they wouldn't have any reason to believe that they should prepare their dead for a trip to the afterlife. Eating the brain of dead comrades may have seemed logical, for they could have associated consuming their brains with acquiring their skills and knowldge. It's not unreasonable that they would have been able to associate brains with their ability to think. As for burying the dead, it could be simply a survival tactic so that the smell of rotting flesh wouldn't attract predators and insects.

    3. Re:Brain Food? by JebusIsLord · · Score: 1

      Actually, ancestor reverence and worship predates complex organized religion in essentially all societies.

      We have evidence that H. neanderthalensis buried their dead ritualistically from a few sites. At one location they found the burial hole contained pollen grains suggesting flowers were laid out under the body. If this was done for the smell, why would they have buried the body in the back of the same cave in which they lived?

      --
      Jeremy
    4. Re:Brain Food? by JebusIsLord · · Score: 1

      I don't wan't to sound like I am sure however... this is simply the position I argued in a recent paper. It is much contested within the archaeological community.

      --
      Jeremy
    5. Re:Brain Food? by Montreal+Geek · · Score: 4, Informative
      I was rather surprised by the possibility of ritualistic brain-eating amongst the earliest ancestors of our species. Maybe they were extracting the brains not for appetizers, but for the same reasons Egyptians removed the brains prior to mummification: so that dead would not be encumbered by the useless grey gunk inside their head on the journey to the afterlife.

      Not necessarly strange; it has been common in human cultures to associate eating something with assimilating the attributes of the eaten, or desirables attributes associated to the eaten. Examples of this are present in basically all cultures, modern day included-- look into why tigers are hunted to extinction in asia or why eating oysters is still associated with erotism and sexual potency.

      It's not much of a stretch to guess that a culture that has figured out that the head/brain is the where intelligence/personality/memory lives (if only by looking at the effect of a bad bonk on the head) might want to preserve/steal the attributes of the recently dead.

      The point of the research team is just that they have no way of knowing-- wether the brain was eaten or just discarded as a side effect of the ritual is undeterminable. The only thing they do know is how they did it, not why.

      -- MG

    6. Re:Brain Food? by Captain+Beefheart · · Score: 1

      As I understand it, our ancestors during this time were primarily scavengers. The brain is overwhelmingly left intact while the rest of the body is ravaged by lions, tigers and bears (oh my!). The brain of any mammal also contains a very high amount of protein. All it takes is a creature smart enough to remember the brain is nutritious and smart enough to know how to get at it after the other animals have eaten the flesh. I hope you weren't eating while you read that...

    7. Re:Brain Food? by ObligatoryUserName · · Score: 5, Interesting

      In an article in Science this April ("Balancing Selection at the Prion Protein Gene Consistent with Prehistoric Kurulike Epidemics"), British scientists suggest that our ancestor's urge to eat brains may have lead to the modern absence of prion-based diseases (such as mad cow disease) in humans. This suggests that, to some extent, at some point evolution selected for brain eating in humans. The actual article requires a paid subscription, but here's a summary from a newspaper.

    8. Re:Brain Food? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      "...The brain is overwhelmingly left intact while the rest of the body is ravaged by lions, tigers and bears (oh my!)..."

      I can't believe you said that. I really can't fathom it. Know that I hate you, now and forever.

    9. Re:Brain Food? by drinkypoo · · Score: 1
      ...or why eating oysters is still associated with erotism and sexual potency.

      I thought that was about texture. You know, if she'll swallow that salty slimy thing...

      Of course that doesn't explain why the men eating oysters is supposed to be erotic in heterosexual courtship rituals. Supposedly they lend staying power. I guess if you can work yourself up to swallow them, you can work yourself up to anything.

      --
      "You're right," Fisheye says. "I should have set it on 'whip' or 'chop.'"
    10. Re:Brain Food? by fireman+sam · · Score: 2, Funny

      Oyster ---> clam ---> bearded clam

      nuff said

      Mod me down, I don't care!

      --
      it is only after a long journey that you know the strength of the horse.
    11. Re:Brain Food? by Read+Icculus · · Score: 1

      Cannabalism was pretty common among our ancestors. Various sites have large amounts of human bones that have marks from the butchering process left by tools, and have been cracked to extract the marrow. Fossilized human feces has been shown to contain human remains. Human bones have been found among the garbage pits where other animal bones were tossed after butchering. I forget the various places where ancient cannibalism took place, but a more recent example is the Anasazi. Some googling or looking through a recent SciAm I was reading will get you some good info.

      --
      Anti-social? My code is just platform-specific.
    12. Re:Brain Food? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Yes, but unfortunately very few cultures made the leap that that is what the brain is used for. We know from Egyptian medical texts for example that, like the Greeks, they didn't know what the brain was for. (Socrates once theorized the brain is a radiator for cooling off the blood)... More likely brain-eating among primitive cultures arose simply because the brain is very fatty and probaby very uhh... flavorful. :)

    13. Re:Brain Food? by Pentagram · · Score: 2, Funny

      Not necessarly strange; it has been common in human cultures to associate eating something with assimilating the attributes of the eaten, or desirables attributes associated to the eaten.

      This meme still exists in our culture today, albeit in a sanitised form - just look at NetHack.

    14. Re:Brain Food? by GoofyBoy · · Score: 1


      Zombies!

      Or maybe they just had a taste for sweetbread.

      --
      The surprise isn't how often we make bad choices; the surprise is how seldom they defeat us.
    15. Re:Brain Food? by Muad'Dave · · Score: 1

      Not necessarly strange; it has been common in human cultures to associate eating something with assimilating the attributes of the eaten, or desirables attributes associated to the eaten.

      It apparently applies to Martian cultures, too. They call it "Grokking".

      --
      Tiller's Rule: Never use a word in written form that you've only heard and never read. You will end up looking foolish.
    16. Re:Brain Food? by the_2nd_coming · · Score: 1

      I bet that they consumed the brains as a way to gain a persons life force...if that is what tehy did.

      this makes sence in ansestor worship becasue you want to be as close the the dead person as possable and what is a better way than making them part of you after death?

      --



      I am the Alpha and the Omega-3
    17. Re:Brain Food? by Alidar · · Score: 1

      How would primitive man have an understanding that the 'grey hunk of matter' was responsible for their ability to think?

      --
      HTTP Status 418
    18. Re:Brain Food? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      How would primitive man have an understanding that the 'grey hunk of matter' was responsible for their ability to think?
      By observing that severe head trauma seemed to affect Oog's ability to think, whereas injuries to other parts of the body did not have the same effect.
    19. Re:Brain Food? by cens0r · · Score: 1

      Of course, this wouldn't explain while the people in new guinea came down with laughing sickness until they stopped eating eachother.

      --
      Jack Valenti and Orrin Hatch will be first up against the wall when the revolution comes.
    20. Re:Brain Food? by hesiod · · Score: 1

      > How would primitive man have an understanding that the 'grey hunk of matter' was responsible for their ability to think?

      They might not have immediately known that the brain was the source, but it seems like a reasonable beliefe that it is the head area... Except for touch (the skin, duh), all of our observational senses are located around the head, so the head would appear to be the most important part of the body even to a non-educated human-ape.

      Of course, this is entirely a guess, but it makes sense to me. Now why they thought they would gin

    21. Re:Brain Food? by default+luser · · Score: 2, Insightful

      Observation, of course.

      When a child is born with a deformed head, it will most likely exhibit less intelligence.

      When a man is hit in the head, he may become disoriented.

      Extreme head injury can lead to long-term brain damage.

      You don't think we just sat around and banged rocks together all day, do you?

      Anyway, humans could not help but have a basic understanding of how a system like the digestive tract works. They slaughtered animals to live, they must have observed the system as a whole and in parts.

      This gives rise to the question: how do you connect the brain with the concept of central control? Unlike the digestive tract it has no obvious flow path, it has no obvious inputs and outputs. But it is connected to the spine with nervs splintering out throught the body. This would imply some sort of system that branchs out, with the center being in the brain.

      So, if you've observed brain injuries to affect cognitive ability, then the answer is obvious.

      --

      Man is the animal that laughs.
      And occasionally whores for Karma.

  10. Re:How come there are modern and non modern Human? by Dr.+Jest · · Score: 5, Funny

    You think it's confusing now? Wait until we get the postmodern humans. I shiver at the idea of self-referential genetics.

  11. Re:Someone's slacking.. by rjamestaylor · · Score: 0

    They've been dead 160,000 years -- what's another couple days?

    --
    -- @rjamestaylor on Ello
  12. Re:Government Coverup by bmwguy · · Score: 1

    Personally, I don't know if they are that old...i've heard that those dating techinques fail alot...kinda like mine :-D

  13. Oh if you only knew the real 'truth'.... by arcite · · Score: 2, Funny

    Also found with the body, a rock tablet pecking stone. Scientists will never be sure what the writing on the tablet means, but have surmised that it was either the etchings of a madman, or the first failed attempt at hand writing recognition software, ancient ancestor to the newton. :)

    1. Re:Oh if you only knew the real 'truth'.... by pyrote · · Score: 3, Funny

      ..strangely enough a small 'CE' inscription was found and the tablet immediately lept from their hands and 'crashed' to the floor. The shards however did turn completely blue.

      --
      THE WORLD IS GOING TO END!!!! eventually.
    2. Re:Oh if you only knew the real 'truth'.... by hazem · · Score: 1

      The writing probably means, "check out the zawongas on THAT babe!"

    3. Re:Oh if you only knew the real 'truth'.... by dogfart · · Score: 1

      Latest scientific theory is that this is the predecessor of the Hollerith card. The markings have been tentatively identified as a primitive form of mainframe JCL.

      --

      "dope will get you through times of no money better than money will get you through times of no dope"

    4. Re:Oh if you only knew the real 'truth'.... by Fishstick · · Score: 1

      I can't help myself...

      http://www.42.dropbear.id.au/ms_nt_1.html

      --

      There is much cruelty in the universe, John.
      Yeah, we seem to have the tour map.

    5. Re:Oh if you only knew the real 'truth'.... by pyrote · · Score: 1

      30% overrated
      heh, looks like I hurt some CE advocate feelings :) ... it's called 'editorial humor'.

      damn, sometimes i wonder why there isn't a shortage of wood in the world with all the slashdot moderators having sticks up thier asses.

      --
      THE WORLD IS GOING TO END!!!! eventually.
  14. Lameness filter encountered. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Funny

    (age > 6000) + "years"
    Too many digits.

  15. Modern humans resemble gorillas... by jkrise · · Score: 2, Funny

    Some even weigh 800 lb. They own insane amounts of cash. These gorillas control millions of supposedly more intelligent sapient humans.

    Evidence of evolution is also seen in the computing industry. 30 years ago, smart humans sat in front of dumb terminals. These days dumb bimbos operate smart PCs.

    At Slashdot, a few ninja monkeys....

    --
    If you keep throwing chairs, one day you'll break windows....
    1. Re:Modern humans resemble gorillas... by Captain+Large+Face · · Score: 1

      Some even weigh 800 lb. They own insane amounts of cash. These gorillas control millions of supposedly more intelligent sapient humans.

      An insanely rich 800lb gorilla? Surely someone like that would stand out in the crowd?

  16. Where is Charlton Heston when you need him? n/t by arcite · · Score: 1

    hehe

  17. Geez..... by botzi · · Score: 0
    and their way of burial is more than a simple "covering up with dirt and let's move on"

    ...do this meen they were more advanced than we are????? Cause "covering up with durt and let's move on" is pretty much what we do now, don't we;oP?

    --
    1. No sig. 2. ???? 3. Profit!!!
    1. Re:Geez..... by drinkypoo · · Score: 1

      Religion is often seen as an advance in a culture's history. Burial rituals imply a seeking for meaning after death and lead to religion. Unfortunately, religion tends to lead to organized religion, and then people start telling people what to do, and the next thing you know you have currency and trade and everything goes right to hell.

      --
      "You're right," Fisheye says. "I should have set it on 'whip' or 'chop.'"
    2. Re:Geez..... by t0ny · · Score: 1

      No, because you still have to bury them after they die in the 'retirement home'.

      --

      Manipulate the moderator system! Mod someone as "overrated" today.

    3. Re:Geez..... by hydrofilic · · Score: 0

      Good point.
      Christianity claims that if you don't believe in Jesus then you will burn in hell forever.
      Many in ancient times thought that if this might possibly be true then becoming a christian might be safer bet.
      This is how christianity caught on.

    4. Re:Geez..... by ajs318 · · Score: 1

      And you don't think that this Jesus character might not kind of twig onto who was believing in him for the right reasons {being a good person}, and who was beliveing in him for the wrong reasons {fear of going to hell}?

      Any god like that frankly doesn't deserve to be believed in .....

      --
      Je fume. Tu fumes. Nous fûmes!
    5. Re:Geez..... by hydrofilic · · Score: 0

      Jesus never said "Believe in me or you will burn in hell forever".
      It was the power hungry officials of the early christian church that propagated that myth.

  18. Re:How come there are modern and non modern Human? by Jareeedo · · Score: 1

    Perhaps non-modern refers to homo-erectus, the first hominid which lived ~2 million years ago, whereas modern humans refers to homo-sapiens (you and I and most slashdot readers).

  19. God is Dead I (Friedrich Nietzsche) by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    >> Haven't you heard? (Score:1)
    >>by arcite (661011) on Friday June 13, @02:34AM >>(#6188625)
    >>God was a monkey. ;)

    If God Were alive you would have said:

    God IS a monkey

    1. Re:God is Dead I (Friedrich Nietzsche) by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      God is an explanation for people who cant explain something!!!

  20. Yay Creationism! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Yay for Creationism! Turns out we were right after all.

    1. Re:Yay Creationism! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      No you aren't! Scientists are just making this stuff up, you know! O_O They want to prove the Bible wrong... I WON'T LET THEM! YOU HEAR ME?

      /me gets taken away by nice men in white coats, while continuing to shout randomness

    2. Re:Yay Creationism! by Cackmobile · · Score: 1

      I love creationist theory. Adam was the first man and eve was the first woman. I asked a creationist 'doesn't this mean we are all related and have fu*ked up mutations. No he said there son got a different wife. From where I said. He goes. its in the bible, he went over the hills to get his wife. What a crock. Where the hell did this other woman come from. how can you believe this.

      Mark me as troll!!!

      --
      -- Karma Karma Karma Karma, Karma Chameleon - Boy George
    3. Re:Yay Creationism! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      He goes. its in the bible, he went over the hills to get his wife

      So what you have is:
      1. God creates Adam & Eve
      2. Adam & Eve begets children
      3. ???
      4. POPULATION!!!

      I'm no creationist either but I think step 3 is:
      3. God creates some other people over the hill.

      --> No logical fallacy.

    4. Re:Yay Creationism! by stanmann · · Score: 2, Informative

      Well, or you could read the bible.

      Gen 5:3 And Adam lived an hundred and thirty years, and begat [a son] in his own likeness, after his image; and called his name Seth:
      Gen 5:4 And the days of Adam after he had begotten Seth were eight hundred years: and he begat sons and daughters:
      Gen 5:5 And all the days that Adam lived were nine hundred and thirty years: and he died.
      Now In answer to the GP question, what about genetic diseases and mutations
      Given:
      God Created Adam and Eve.
      God Created them Perfect
      Minor Conclusion
      Mutations came later.
      Conclusion:
      Interbreeding wasn't harmful until mutations came along.

      --
      Food not Bombs is a nice platitude but it breaks down when you notice that the Bombees are usually well fed
    5. Re:Yay Creationism! by Tyreth · · Score: 3, Informative

      This is the result of a misunderstanding of creationism.

      And I wouldn't worry about you being marked as a troll. Evolutionists are almost never marked troll. I find however, no matter how rational or kind/non confrontational I make my pro-creationist posts they get modded troll. But I don't mind, people like my other posts enough that my karma will be impervious to their attacks!

      Here is what happened. Adam and Eve were created man and woman, the first two humans. They had many children, sons and daughters. These sons and daughters married each other (if there was an official ceremony) and had children. These children were safe from the dangers of mutations since they were the offspring of flawless parents. That means there were no common recessive harmful mutations to share amongst each other. Incest was only outlawed much later (around 2000 years later I think) when mutations had become rife and the dangers were stronger. Then it wasn't restricted to cousins - in fact, amongst cousins I believe the danger is ~2% or something, but that could be wrong.

      As for going over the hill, that is a load of crock - and the result of a misreading of the Bible (or perhaps imagining verses that aren't there), and a misunderstanding of genetics.

    6. Re:Yay Creationism! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Here is what happened.


      Or rather, that's one of many interpretations of the Bible.
    7. Re:Yay Creationism! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      "And I wouldn't worry about you being marked as a troll. Evolutionists are almost never marked troll. I find however, no matter how rational or kind/non confrontational I make my pro-creationist posts they get modded troll."

      This is only a defect in the /. moderating system. Creationists get moderated as "troll" primarily because there isn't an "incorrect" or "inaccurate" -1 widget to click instead. Actually, such a widget would make a lot of sense in general, not just in application to pseudoscience posts.

    8. Re:Yay Creationism! by Airline_Sickness_Bag · · Score: 1

      This is the result of a misunderstanding of creationism.

      Have you ever considered that there are enough science literate people on Slashdot that understand creationism, and have found it ... lacking (to use a polite description)?

      I find however, no matter how rational or kind/non confrontational I make my pro-creationist posts they get modded troll.

      Again, have you ever considered that there are enough science literate people on Slashdot that understand creationism, and have found it ... lacking (to use a polite description)?

      Also, when you talk about creationism, do you mean Young Earth, Old Earth, Intellegent Design, etc, or any of the other creation myths of all those other religions? One thing all of these have in common is that:

      1. They are not scientific
      2. There is little if any evidence for it outside of their own religious texts

      Now, when I say they are not scientific, I mean that it does not meet any of the criteria needed to be a scientific theory - Explaining the evidence, making predictions that can be examined, and be falsifiable (you can devise tests that could possibly disprove it). For years, creationists have been asked for a scientific theory of creationism on the Usenet newsgroup talk.origins - and none has *ever* been posted.

      And as far as using the Bible as evidence, I hope you realize that the Bible is full of inaccuracies and total falsehoods (example: The Great Worldwide Flood - there is overwhelming evidence that it never happened).

      Now, your explanation of how the human race was created, well, it is amusing fiction. Of course, it completely contradicts all known fossil and genetic evidence. It's ironic when you talk about others having a misunderstanding of genetics when you post this stuff.

      -asb

    9. Re:Yay Creationism! by Tyreth · · Score: 1
      Have you ever considered that there are enough science literate people on Slashdot that understand creationism, and have found it ... lacking (to use a polite description)?

      Yes, I have - and I've found it not to be true. I have *never* found a slashdotter who yet understands the creationist position. And the biggest problem is that they all *think* they do when their posts display obvious fundamental misunderstandings.

      Again, have you ever considered that there are enough science literate people on Slashdot that understand creationism, and have found it ... lacking (to use a polite description)?

      That's still no reason to moderate it troll. Overrated....maybe, but certainly not troll.

      Now, when I say they are not scientific, I mean that it does not meet any of the criteria needed to be a scientific theory - Explaining the evidence, making predictions that can be examined, and be falsifiable (you can devise tests that could possibly disprove it). For years, creationists have been asked for a scientific theory of creationism on the Usenet newsgroup talk.origins - and none has *ever* been posted.

      Every time this has been posted I ask the person who seaid it to provide me first with the equivalent evolutionary theory, so I can produce or see if something of a similar nature can be made. Besides, creationism model isn't scientific in the true sense, but it does make a few predictions that can be proven right or wrong by the use of scientific methods. Evolution employs unscientific methods also, AFAIK. For example, has anyone ever observed the whale evolving from a land mammal? What is a scientific, repeatable, observable test to prove that?

      And as far as using the Bible as evidence, I hope you realize that the Bible is full of inaccuracies and total falsehoods (example: The Great Worldwide Flood - there is overwhelming evidence that it never happened).

      How pursuasive. Care to point me to actual arguments?

      Now, your explanation of how the human race was created, well, it is amusing fiction. Of course, it completely contradicts all known fossil and genetic evidence. It's ironic when you talk about others having a misunderstanding of genetics when you post this stuff.

      I wasn't presenting a scientific argument. I was demonstrating within the constraints of the Biblical explanation, how it is possible that these first children found partners. Besides, the problem with most fossil/genetic evidence is that it's based on evolutionary assumptions. For example, mtDNA was believed to prove show that mtDNA eve lived around 200,000 years ago. However, the rate of mutation of mtDNA was decided by evolutionary assumptions, ie "mtDNA eve should have lived around this long ago, so this is what the mutation rate should be". Later it was discovered the mutation rate was around 20x faster, resulting in an mtDNA eve around 6,000 years ago. So I am skeptical that there is huge amounts of fossil and genetic evidence - I'm guessing, case by case, that these were all dated by evolutionary assumptions rather than blind tests...and there's other evidence that indicates a young earth.

    10. Re:Yay Creationism! by Tyreth · · Score: 1

      I consider it the role of posters to demonstrate the incorrect or inaccurate nature of a post - definately not the role of mob moderation. We're not interested in whether someone *thinks* something is incorrect, but rather why it is incorrect.

    11. Re:Yay Creationism! by Airline_Sickness_Bag · · Score: 1
      provide me first with the equivalent evolutionary theory

      A common textbook definition of it is: Evolution can be precisely defined as any change in the frequency of alleles within a gene pool from one generation to the next.

      Here is a simplified version of it: Evolution is a process that results in heritable changes in a population spread over many generations.



      About the evidence refuting a worldwide flood:

      How pursuasive. Care to point me to actual arguments?

      Sure. Heres a Link that not also gives the arguements, but also has links to additional information.


      About mtDNA:

      Later it was discovered the mutation rate was around 20x faster

      Parsons found a rate that was 20 times higher than other researchers, but the original value tends to result in better correlation with the fossil record.


      It seems that you are a young earth creationist - here is a page with links to articles on the problems with a young earth.

    12. Re:Yay Creationism! by Tyreth · · Score: 1
      A common textbook definition of it is: Evolution can be precisely defined as any change in the frequency of alleles within a gene pool from one generation to the next.

      Here is a simplified version of it: Evolution is a process that results in heritable changes in a population spread over many generations.

      Bah, that's not evolution at all. I mean, it is and it isn't. The evolution I disagree with is the idea that all living things alive today could have originated from simple single celled live, over time evolving through inheritence to become what we see today. What you describe as evolution I have no problems with.

      So give me the description of the theory that causes so much controversy.

    13. Re:Yay Creationism! by Airline_Sickness_Bag · · Score: 1

      So give me the description of the theory that causes so much controversy.

      Sorry, but that is the theory. I guess you don't realize that the long term implication is that starting from a simple single cell, over time evolving to become the diversity of life that we see today.

      As far as controversy, in the fields of science related to biology, there is no controversy. And even major Christian denominations, such as the Methodist Church and Catholic Church have no problem with evolution. They even teach it in their biology classes

      -asb

    14. Re:Yay Creationism! by Tyreth · · Score: 1
      No, I'm sorry, you don't understand this at all. The long term application of this theory does not mean the change of simple single celled organisms->life we see today. Not by a long shot. And to say that that theory necessarily leads to that is entirely untrue. If that's the best you can come up with that's weak - you should be unsurprised that creationists have never given a definition of their theory akin to what you have provided: simply because we have no problem with what you just said. You simply described a theory that talks about mutations we see today.

      The disagreance is whether those mutations lead to the simple organisms->today's life, and that is simply not covered by the theory you provided. We believe these mutations are insufficient to ever lead to what evolutionists claim.

      As far as controversy, simply because many people accept evolution does not mean it is right - evolutionists are fond of quoting Galileo's experiences, so am I. Galileo was by far a minority view. I have no problem with considering something that is a minority view to be correct.

      Now you need to provide for me the description of the testable theory that creationists disagree with - simple organisms->life today. The statement you gave does not describe that at all.

      Something I should have picked up before:
      Parsons found a rate that was 20 times higher than other researchers, but the original value tends to result in better correlation with the fossil record.

      What you are saying is that even though the true mutation rates did not fit with the fossil record, the ones that were invented based on the fossil record correlate with it better and so should be used. Or something else? It seems to me you are saying that "if something disagrees with what we believe it can't be true". I think you need to explain this more carefully, because right now it looks like you are willing to invent numbers to support evolution.

    15. Re:Yay Creationism! by Airline_Sickness_Bag · · Score: 1

      The disagreance is whether those mutations lead to the simple organisms->today's life, and that is simply not covered by the theory you provided. We believe these mutations are insufficient to ever lead to what evolutionists claim.

      No. New species arise from existing species. The only way that it wouldn't is if there was some sort of mechanism that would keep sufficient mutations from accumulating from happening - something that has never been found.

      As far as controversy, simply because many people accept evolution does not mean it is right - evolutionists are fond of quoting Galileo's experiences, so am I. Galileo was by far a minority view. I have no problem with considering something that is a minority view to be correct.

      Well, you know the old saying: They laughed at Galileo, they laughed at Einstein. But they also laughed at Bozo the Clown. :). Now, I didn't just say that many people accept evolution, I indicated that experts in the areas of science and religion accept it. While I myself have no problems with considering a minority viewpoint, to take the other viewpoint against such a well supported theory such as evolution requires real evidence - which creationists don't have - such as a mechanism that would prohibit species evolving into new new species.

      What you are saying is that even though the true mutation rates did not fit with the fossil record, the ones that were invented based on the fossil record correlate with it better and so should be used.

      No, I did not say that. I said he found different values than did other researchers. And the values others found (not invented) correlate better with known information.

      I think you need to explain this more carefully, because right now it looks like you are willing to invent numbers to support evolution.

      Actually, it looks more like your side is willing to invent numbers, since you are willing to grab one set of numbers that do not correlate with what all the other researchers have found. It reminds me of the "moon dust", where creationists tried to use long discredited results from a poorly run experiment to claim that a lack of deep moon dust was evidence of the moon being young.

      BTW, in an erlier post, you seem to indicate that you are a young earth creationist - do you realize that it was a hot topic (Omphalos Hypothesis) back in the 19th century, but it was dropped because of the quandry of having God creating the earth relatively recently but leaving overwhelming evidence of great age - God the deceiver. The young earth creationist has problems with many other branches of science, including Geology, Chemistry, Physics, Astronomy, not just Biology. All of these sciences point to a very old earth and older universe.

      -asb

    16. Re:Yay Creationism! by Tyreth · · Score: 1
      You think that I haven't looked into this at all don't you? You think that I've heard some people saying "we have overwhelming evidence that the earth is young" and left it at that?

      I have been reading up on this issue for a long time.

      No. New species arise from existing species. The only way that it wouldn't is if there was some sort of mechanism that would keep sufficient mutations from accumulating from happening - something that has never been found.

      You are not going to fool me - this works the other way. Mutations have not been observed to gradually give rise to new species. The processes that evolution claim created life on earth have *never* been observed. You make it sound like these mutations are assuredly going to give rise to new species. In fact, you just have no understanding of genetics. These mutations change information, but they don't demonstrate the process by which the original simple single celled life could have possibly obtained more information to create more complex life forms. We simply don't observe it - and that is why it is unscientific to claim that it happened. Don't you see though - you have taken something that is observed, and extrapolated that into something we can't observe. That is unscientific.

      Again regarding mtDNA I suggest you read my post here and then view the responses and replies by BCGlorfindel, perhaps that will make it clearer for you.

      And ditch your elephant hurling - "This is a debate tactic known as âelephant hurlingâ(TM). This is where the critic throws summary arguments about complex issues to give the impression of weighty evidence, but with an unstated presumption that a large complex of underlying ideas is true, and failing to consider opposing data, usually because they have uncritically accepted the arguments from their own side. But we should challenge elephant-hurlers to offer specifics and challenge the underlying assumptions." (from AiG website). I'minterested in specifics, not generalities. Problems with geology, chemistry, physics, astronomy, biology? I'd rather deal with them because I think they can be answered. Your general responses do nothing to pursuade me.

    17. Re:Yay Creationism! by Airline_Sickness_Bag · · Score: 1

      You think that I haven't looked into this at all don't you? You think that I've heard some people saying "we have overwhelming evidence that the earth is young" and left it at that?

      And how many scientists in the field of biology, geology, astronomy, physics, and chemistry have you convinced? About zero. You cannot even convince most mainstream Christian denominations.

      Mutations have not been observed to gradually give rise to new species.

      Just grabbing a few quick references...

      Barton, N. H., J. S. Jones and J. Mallet. 1988. No barriers to speciation. Nature. 336:13-14.

      Callaghan, C. A. 1987. Instances of observed speciation. The American Biology Teacher. 49:3436.

      Cracraft, J. 1989. Speciation and its ontology: the empirical consequences of alternative species concepts for understanding patterns and processes of differentiation. In Otte, E. and J. A. Endler [eds.] Speciation and its consequences. Sinauer Associates, Sunderland, MA. pp. 28-59.

      Schluter, D. and L. M. Nagel. 1995. Parallel speciation by natural selection. American Naturalist. 146:292-301.

      Ramadevon, S and Deaken, M.A.B., 1991, The Gibbons speciation mechanism, Journal of Theoretical Biology, Volume 145(4) pages 447-456.

      Sharman, G.B., Close, R.L, Maynes, G.M., 1991, Chromosome evolution, phylogeny, and speciation of rock wallabies, Australian Journal of Zoology, Volume 37(2-4), pages 351-363.

      Nevo, E., 1991, Evolutionary Theory and process of active speciation and adaptive radiation in subterranean mole rats, spalax-ehrenbergi superspecies, in Israel, Evolutionary Biology, Volume 25, pages 1-125.

      And here is a nice page.

      The processes that evolution claim created life on earth have *never* been observed.

      Sorry, but evolution has nothing to do with the creation of the initial life form - it deals with life once it has formed. The area investigating initial life forms is referred to as abiogenesis.

      And ditch your elephant hurling - "This is a debate tactic known as âelephant hurlingâ(TM). This is where the critic throws summary arguments about complex issues to give the impression of weighty evidence, but with an unstated presumption that a large complex of underlying ideas is true, and failing to consider opposing data, usually because they have uncritically accepted the arguments from their own side.

      ROTFL. I'm not really here to teach you biology. There are large complex undelying ideas in evolution, but there is also a tremendous amount of evidence in support of it. Consider opposing data? Well, I've seen so many creationist whoppers that I have a hard time understanding how some of them can look at themselves in the mirror with the lies that they have told. Noah's ark, the speed of light, 2nd law of thermo, dinosaur/manprints, the Grand Canyon, basking shark/plesiosaur, blatent misquotes of various evolution supporters.....

      Problems with geology, chemistry, physics, astronomy, biology? I'd rather deal with them because I think they can be answered.

      Go ahead. But so far, you and your supporters have failed to convince a noticable number of scientists working in those areas.

      -asb

    18. Re:Yay Creationism! by Tyreth · · Score: 1
      I've had enough of this. Did you care to look at the links on mtDNA in that other thread?

      And how many scientists in the field of biology, geology, astronomy, physics, and chemistry have you convinced? About zero. You cannot even convince most mainstream Christian denominations.

      Again, I don't care. I personally have not convinced any - however, there have been scientists and Christians numerous times pursuaded. Even if there weren't, I still base my opinions on what I understand (not desire) to be correct.

      Just grabbing a few quick references...

      You are mistaken if you think I'm going to go to my library and borrow or purchase any of these books. As for the talkorigins site, I might be willing to examine each of those in detail, but I really don't feel like doing that with you. Maybe another time

      Sorry, but evolution has nothing to do with the creation of the initial life form - it deals with life once it has formed. The area investigating initial life forms is referred to as abiogenesis.

      A common copout. Of course the theory of evolution strictly refers to after the formation of life. However, the general phrase "evolution" refers to a number of realms besides biological evolution (even though this is not correct usage). If it is demonstrated beyond doubt that the earth is in fact around 6000 years old, then the theory of evolution will be declared false. If it is demonstrated beyond doubt that the first life that evolution requires could never have formed or come into existence, then evolution will be declared false. So even though evolution doesn't directly deal with these areas, it lies on that foundation without which it has no foothold. That is why it is a copout to ignore them. But in the phrase you were replying to, I was referring to the process of evolution not the initial formation of life.

      ROTFL. I'm not really here to teach you biology. There are large complex undelying ideas in evolution, but there is also a tremendous amount of evidence in support of it. Consider opposing data? Well, I've seen so many creationist whoppers that I have a hard time understanding how some of them can look at themselves in the mirror with the lies that they have told. Noah's ark, the speed of light, 2nd law of thermo, dinosaur/manprints, the Grand Canyon, basking shark/plesiosaur, blatent misquotes of various evolution supporters.....

      You can stop laughing now. As I said to another once - I contend that the problem is not with the creationist arguments but instead with your biased misinterpretation of them. For example, many of the points in SciAm's 15 answers to creationist nonsense are based on misunderstand or misrepresentation of the creationist position (example, no creationist with the slightest bit of knowledge would argue against natural selection). But I don't have time to talk with you. I'm interested to see if you have realised your mistake with mtDNA after reading those other responses. I have read up on this issue a great deal, I have seen arguments for both creationists and evolutionists.

      I know, I have something we can discuss - how about you cite for me one major evidence for evolution? Then we can talk about that. I prefer to deal with specifics, because there's no way to argue against a statement like "amazing amount of evidence in support of it".

      Go ahead. But so far, you and your supporters have failed to convince a noticable number of scientists working in those areas.

      And I don't suppose that has anything to do with the materialistic/atheistic bias of many/most of these scientists? No, of course not. Because while creationists are fairly accused of bias, it is unfair to accuse materialistic atheists of being biased against creationism.

      Heck, I know a Christian biologist who is also an evolutionist. He's relatively high up in his work place. He believes evolution, but he hadn't even *heard* about the creationist arguments. So it's absolutely no surprise to

    19. Re:Yay Creationism! by Tyreth · · Score: 1
      A common textbook definition of it is: Evolution can be precisely defined as any change in the frequency of alleles within a gene pool from one generation to the next.

      Here is a simplified version of it: Evolution is a process that results in heritable changes in a population spread over many generations.

      I thought I should retouch this after coming across another website I had heretofore been unaware of. He talks about the definition given by talkorigins of evolution, and makes precisely the same statement I did:

      Talk.Origins is very hard to targetâ"a fact that may be so by design. For example, if a person disagrees with TO on the âfact of evolutionâ(TM), these people will employ a definition of evolution [âoeBiological evolution is a change in the genetic characteristics of a population over timeâ] that makes it impossible to disagree and, if one does argue, then that person comes across as being uninformed or irrational or fanatical. This might be acceptable if only it remained right there.

      I wish and hope you can understand this - that we don't disagree with that plain defintion - but that this definition does not necessarily lead to what talkorigins was designed to defend. I don't appreciate this kind of deception, not in the slightest. You may read the full article here.

    20. Re:Yay Creationism! by Tyreth · · Score: 1

      Found this too, a reply to your nice page.

    21. Re:Yay Creationism! by Airline_Sickness_Bag · · Score: 1

      About abiogenesis:
      A common copout. Of course the theory of evolution strictly refers to after the formation of life. However, the general phrase "evolution" refers to a number of realms besides biological evolution (even though this is not correct usage). If it is demonstrated beyond doubt that the earth is in fact around 6000 years old, then the theory of evolution will be declared false.

      Yep, like all scientific theories, it is falsafable. And since there is overwhelming evidence in the fields of geology, astronomy, and physics that the earth is billions of years old, there is plenty of time for evolution to occur.

      If it is demonstrated beyond doubt that the first life that evolution requires could never have formed or come into existence, then evolution will be declared false.

      Nope - it doesn't matter if the first life arose from natural causes, The Invisible Pink Unicorn, your God, or aliens from planet Zork - that wouldn't prove that evolution was false.

      So even though evolution doesn't directly deal with these areas, it lies on that foundation without which it has no foothold. That is why it is a copout to ignore them.

      But as I said, it really doesn't matter where the first life came from.

      I know, I have something we can discuss - how about you cite for me one major evidence for evolution?

      How about this? It's a listing of a set of 29 evidences for macroevoultion.

      And I don't suppose that has anything to do with the materialistic/atheistic bias of many/most of these scientists? No, of course not. Because while creationists are fairly accused of bias, it is unfair to accuse materialistic atheists of being biased against creationism.

      While I don't know what percentage of scientists working in the areas related to evolution or the age of the earth who are Christian, it is a significant number, and it is one of the reasons I have mentioned numerous times that many major Christian denominations have no problems with evolution - or are they atheists in disguise? :).

      Heck, I know a Christian biologist who is also an evolutionist. He's relatively high up in his work place. He believes evolution, but he hadn't even *heard* about the creationist arguments. So it's absolutely no surprise to me

      Well, my wife is a Christian biologist, and is also an evolutionist - she got her degree from a Methodist college, where evolution is taught as part of the normal curiculum.

      For example, many of the points in SciAm's 15 answers to creationist nonsense are based on misunderstand or misrepresentation of the creationist position (example, no creationist with the slightest bit of knowledge would argue against natural selection).

      Ever heard of the Institute for Creation Research? Duane Gish? Ken Hovind? It's ok if you want to distance yourself from these guys. :).

      -asb

    22. Re:Yay Creationism! by Tyreth · · Score: 1
      I left some time, in case you hadn't noticed some of my other posts, but it's been quite a few hours.

      Yep, like all scientific theories, it is falsafable. And since there is overwhelming evidence in the fields of geology, astronomy, and physics that the earth is billions of years old, there is plenty of time for evolution to occur.

      Stop trying to drop elephants into every line. It was unecessary to say there's overwhelming evidence, because again I disagree. I'm interested in specifics, not general copycat lines.

      Nope - it doesn't matter if the first life arose from natural causes, The Invisible Pink Unicorn, your God, or aliens from planet Zork - that wouldn't prove that evolution was false.

      And to think of all the times evolutionists accuse creationists of being able to fall back on the "God did it" argument, making our position unscientific. If you can invent all manner of excuses, then what makes you so sure this is scientific to believe at all? Here is an excellent quote:

      If we are allowed to propose essentially anything (aliens, parallel universes, 1020 planets, extra dimensions, time travel, etc., etc.) in order to uphold our theory then how will it ever be possible for that theory to be truly falsifiable? As clever and imaginative as we humans are, wouldnâ(TM)t we be able toâ"donâ(TM)t weâ"contrive just about anything that would allow us to retain the position or theory that we cherish?

      Be careful not to be hypocritical, accusing us of unscientific positions when you yourself propose unscientific propositions. You tell me - did that first life come from God, pink unicorns or chance? What you believe, not what is possible.

      But as I said, it really doesn't matter where the first life came from.

      It matters if your personal position is naturalistic atheism. If you believe it was God then we have a whole set of different problems to discuss. But this question is important.

      How about this? It's a listing of a set of 29 evidences for macroevoultion.

      How about this, a reply in which I posted a link to a rebuttal of those 29 evidences? How about you pick one of those you consider very convincing and we'll look at it in detail? I'm not going to skim over 29 examples - it is far better to examine one in depth.

      While I don't know what percentage of scientists working in the areas related to evolution or the age of the earth who are Christian, it is a significant number, and it is one of the reasons I have mentioned numerous times that many major Christian denominations have no problems with evolution - or are they atheists in disguise? :).

      They are considered allies of evolution only so long as there is resistence. If the creationist movement was to ever be utterly destroyed, then I imagine the atheistic evolutionists would then move to attack Christian evolutionists. For now they tolerate Christian evolutionists because it provides a useful (but irrational) argument with which to pursuade other Christians to accept evolution. I couldn't care less about numbers as I said before - I'm interested in truth. And I've seen a great deal of lies and misrepresentations on behalf of evolutionists, and creationists have been accused of it too. That's why I want to look at specifics in detail, because that's how I'll be pursuaded - not by generalities that only reveal an ability to repeat what one has heard other say.

      Well, my wife is a Christian biologist, and is also an evolutionist - she got her degree from a Methodist college, where evolution is taught as part of the normal curiculum.

      And you yourself are not a Christian? Tell me, in how much detail did she analyse the creationist position before rejecting it?

      Ever heard of the Institute for Creation Research? Duane Gish? Ken Hovind? It's ok if you want to dist

    23. Re:Yay Creationism! by Airline_Sickness_Bag · · Score: 1

      Stop trying to drop elephants into every line. It was unecessary to say there's overwhelming evidence, because again I disagree.

      Disagree all you want - there is no credible evidence that the earth is not billions of years old - at least evidence that would convince scientists working in the related fields.

      Be careful not to be hypocritical, accusing us of unscientific positions when you yourself propose unscientific propositions. You tell me - did that first life come from God, pink unicorns or chance? What you believe, not what is possible.

      Taking me out of context, I see. I guess I'll have to restate it - BIOLOGICAL EVOLUTION OCCURS AFTER THE FIRST REPLICATING CELLS HAVE BEEN CREATED - THEREFORE, HOW THE FIRST CELL CAME ABOUT IS NOT PART OF EVOLUTION.

      How about this, a reply in which I posted a link to a rebuttal of those 29 evidences? How about you pick one of those you consider very convincing and we'll look at it in detail? I'm not going to skim over 29 examples - it is far better to examine one in depth.

      A strawman rebuttal to the link I provided.

      About that many major Christian denominations have no problems with evolution, and many scientists in the fields related to evolution are Christian:

      They are considered allies of evolution only so long as there is resistence. If the creationist movement was to ever be utterly destroyed, then I imagine the atheistic evolutionists would then move to attack Christian evolutionists.

      Are you serious? I think that you need a reality check - you seem to think that there is some sort of conspiracy. And you seem to think that creationism is taken seriously by scientists in anything other than a political sense.

      They aren't involved with AiG, ICR or any of the other major organisations I respect, so yeah.

      Duane Gish is with the ICR, btw. You actually respect the ICR? I consider the ICR despicable for their dishonesty - "Lying for Christ" is not the way of a true Christian. Here's a visit.

      I'll tell you how I feel about this whole thing. I've talked to many evolutionists, and they all come from a patronising position as if I am a fool to believe what I do. And I think this is mostly due to organisations like talkorigins.org and a general culture of intolerance.
      How do you feel about people who believe that the earth is flat? That the haulocaust didn't happen? That the moon landing didn't occur? They believe these things with a passion, and that there is some sort of conspiracy against them.

      I want to deal with specifics as I've said before. I want to demonstrate to you step by step, if you are willing, that I have indeed thought about what I believe and I don't just blindly accept. So you can also see that I have a rational mind and I listen to reason.

      No, you don't. You use (post) strawman arguements, and have the mind of a "true believer". Your dismissal of the virtually unanimus agreement by scientists in the fields of biology, astronomy, physics, and geology, along with agreement with mainstream Christian denominations proves it.

      -asb

    24. Re:Yay Creationism! by Tyreth · · Score: 1
      I thought you weren't going to reply, I was hoping you would.

      Disagree all you want - there is no credible evidence that the earth is not billions of years old - at least evidence that would convince scientists working in the related fields.

      This is what I meant about throwing elephants. You summarise complex issues into one statement arguments. I haven't even started talking with you about the problems with dating, and you come up with summary statements like this. Just ditch it unless you want to go through them one by one in detail.

      Taking me out of context, I see. I guess I'll have to restate it - BIOLOGICAL EVOLUTION OCCURS AFTER THE FIRST REPLICATING CELLS HAVE BEEN CREATED - THEREFORE, HOW THE FIRST CELL CAME ABOUT IS NOT PART OF EVOLUTION.

      Oh yes, the evil creationists taking someone out of context *again*. I've already said I agree with you that biological evolution does not answer the question about where the first cell came from. There's no need to shout. But you'd be a fool to think that it isn't important for biological evolution if it cannot be demonstrated reasonably that the first cell could come about. Now if you believe it's God that put it there, that's one thing. But if you think that it came there by chance mixing of certain chemicals, etc, then that's another thing. We know most/all of the possibilities of how that first cell came about - stop pretending it's not important. If you believe it's God, we'll discuss one thing. If you think it's chance we'll discuss another.

      A strawman rebuttal to the link I provided.

      Woah ho! You sure make a pursuasive argument. You summarised the whole response as a strawman? And you think I should be pursuaded?!? A one sentence answer to the creationist page??? I think you should do better than that. Why, exactly, is it a strawman?

      Are you serious? I think that you need a reality check - you seem to think that there is some sort of conspiracy. And you seem to think that creationism is taken seriously by scientists in anything other than a political sense.

      I am no fool, I've seen some of the things that famous evolutionists have said, such as Gould. I know that many of them push evolution precisely because they have materialistic beliefs. They work with the attitude that evolution must be right, rather than looking at the evidence for the best answer. There are creationists who do that to. I don't care what you say about a reality check. You can bet that if evolution ever destroyed the creationist position totally, that the next thing on the agenda would be Christianity. It is inevitable. People may not think it now - but once there is no real world evidence for Christianity, most/all will begin to question their faith. Evolutionists do it now. They act patronising and arrogant to the simple minded creationists who can't see past their faith to the pure facts of science. Once there is no scientific hold for creationism, it will be resigned to minority groups.

      Of course, I'm not worried about any of this - I have examined the evidence for evolution and creation quite a lot, and so far the evolutionist position is weak. I've offered to look at it in detail with you, but...

      No, you don't. You use (post) strawman arguements, and have the mind of a "true believer". Your dismissal of the virtually unanimus agreement by scientists in the fields of biology, astronomy, physics, and geology, along with agreement with mainstream Christian denominations proves it.

      ...you tell me I use strawman arguments without explaining why. You tell me I have the mind of a "true believer" as if that's a problem, yet you haven't discussed any arguments with me - instead you've made pathetic appeals to the "amazing numbers" who accept evolution and "the overwhelming evidence". And now you tell me there's a unanimous consensus about the facts of evolution when I can assure you that:
      a) It is not unanimous, a few significantly e

    25. Re:Yay Creationism! by Airline_Sickness_Bag · · Score: 1
      Woah ho! You sure make a pursuasive argument. You summarised the whole response as a strawman? And you think I should be pursuaded?!? A one sentence answer to the creationist page??? I think you should do better than that. Why, exactly, is it a strawman?

      Here's a link to the response to Camp's critique. It explains the strawman arguements that he used.

      And now you tell me there's a unanimous consensus about the facts of evolution when I can assure you that:
      a) It is not unanimous, a few significantly educated scientists reject evolution

      First, I said *virtually*. Also, most of those few scientists who disagree are not working in the fields related to evolution - they are speaking outside of their expertise. Or, to quote, "Take me out of my field of study and I'm just another guy sitting on a barstool".

      You know, have you actually ever bothered to look past the talkorigins propaganda and see if what the creationists are saying is true? It's awfully easy to stand with a bunch of bullies throwing stones at someone, never asking whether what you are doing is right. It is another thing entirely to actually step inside our shoes and consider. I'm not talking about our faith - I'm talking about logic, reason and fact. You betray ignorance and worse than that - arrogance. You spew forth the same propaganda rubbish that every other evolutionst seems to.

      Doing what is right? Give me a break! I would say refuting creationist lies and falsehoods is doing right. And as far as bullying goes, I would say that some creationists attitudes that Christians who accept that the theory of evolution is correct are not real Christians and will burn in hell is far worse than anything that the T.O regulars have done.

      I looked at your ICR criticisms - I have in fact discussed some of those issues with an evolutionist. We didn't get on well. Regarding asking to date a knowingly young sample when the lab said they couldn't is dodging the root question: why is the lab unwilling to date samples, say, less than 2Ma? Answer that question.

      I assume it is due to the type of equipment or proceedure that they use. But to abuse that like Austin did raises ethics questions on his part - that is the *real* root question.

      The transitional fossils that have been presented so far are less than weak, certainly not enough to pursuade a rational man. Darwin himself expected a lot more. The predictory power of evolution failed to predict what the fossil record explains - so the liquid nature of evolution was changed to now predict such a fossil record.

      No, the traditional fossil record is not weak, and have convinced quite a few scientists. Darwin did not expect alot more, even though we have found far more transitional fossils since Darwin's time. Your comment about evolution changing - are you referring to punctuated equilibrium? Darwin states this in the Origin of the Species:

      One other consideration is worth notice: with animals and plants that can propagate rapidly and are not highly locomotive, there is reason to suspect, as we have formerly seen, that their varieties are generally at first local; and that such local varieties do not spread widely and supplant their parent-forms until they have been modified and perfected in some considerable degree. According to this view, the chance of discovering in a formation in any one country all the early stages of transition between any two forms, is small, for the successive changes are supposed to have been local or confined to some one spot. Most marine animals have a wide range; and we have seen that with plants it is those which have the widest range, that oftenest present varieties; so that with shells and other marine animals, it is probably those which have had the widest range, far exceeding the limits of the known geological formations of Europe, which have oftenest g

    26. Re:Yay Creationism! by Tyreth · · Score: 1
      Here's a link to the response to Camp's critique. It explains the strawman arguements that he used.
      Lucky for me, I can post links too, a defence of the criticisms given in the link you just posted. My link is newer, do I win?

      Or would you rather stop link posting, and we look at one example in detail ourselves, rather than hoping on the most recent rebuttal of others?

      First, I said *virtually*. Also, most of those few scientists who disagree are not working in the fields related to evolution - they are speaking outside of their expertise. Or, to quote, "Take me out of my field of study and I'm just another guy sitting on a barstool".

      First of all, though the strict theory of evolution is biological only, it also relies on a number of assumptions in other fields without which it would be impossible. For example, we cannot discuss the creation of a palace on a mountain if the mountain itself does not exist. You cannot avoid that - so the questions of geology and other fields in relation to evolution are vitally important.

      Secondly, there are a number of creation biologists. But I know your response - this list is small. I know a Christian biologist who has never even thought about creationism. He just accepted evolution because that is what he was taught. I am betting that most biologists today are evolutionists purely because that is what they have been told - and I'm betting that most of them have never considered creation or looked into it. So to me, the numbers of biologists is largely irrelevant. The fact is, there are some creation biologists, and that is significant.

      Doing what is right? Give me a break! I would say refuting creationist lies and falsehoods is doing right.

      Call a spade a spade. I'm happy for you to refute creationist lies and falsehoods. But I doubt that you are informed enough to recognise them. Do you want to look at any specific area in detail with me and find out who is right? I asked you a question: have you bothered to look past the propaganda of talkorigins and mainstream media to consider whether creationism is right? Or have you always approached it from the angle of "these poor misguided religious zealots, why can't they see the truth?" - or whatever stance it is you take.

      And as far as bullying goes, I would say that some creationists attitudes that Christians who accept that the theory of evolution is correct are not real Christians and will burn in hell is far worse than anything that the T.O regulars have done.

      We are the Church of God, Creator of the Heavens and the Earth. He has saved us, and called us to judge each other. You as an outsider cannot tell us how we should run our affairs. We listen to Him alone, and He requires us to guard carefully that which He gave us. I personally do not condemn evolutionist christians as unsaved. I do chastise Christians who believe evolution - I give them the benefit of the doubt, that they have not considered what they believe. But once having understood what is truly at stake in the creation evolution controversy, they must ultimately make a choice.

      I assume it is due to the type of equipment or proceedure that they use. But to abuse that like Austin did raises ethics questions on his part - that is the *real* root question.

      Be careful what you assume. This is *exactly* the problem I'm talking about. You talk about how Austin acted deceitfully, or unethically, but you don't even know why they can't date less than 2Ma!! And the answer to that question demonstrates beyond doubt that Austin acted with integrity, and his point was affirmed and strengthened. Do you care why? In fact, this experiment is one of the simplest demonstrations of the complete bankruptcy of evolution, yet so many fail to see. I wonder if thats because one needs a blind attitude in orde

    27. Re:Yay Creationism! by young-earth · · Score: 1

      One of the key points that the theory of evolution requires is vast ages of time. No one thought those were necessary until they wanted to disprove the Bible. But since evolution hinges on long ages, a key place to check to see if it could be true is in the area of timing it took to form parts of the earth.

      A key part of this is how long did it take for the continent base rocks, the granites, to form? Evolution requires something like the planetary accretion disk approach in order to get the time spans needed. By this idea, the granites formed over vast stretches of time from a molten mass, then hardened gradually.

      However there is hard evidence, published in secular highly respected journals, which indicates that is not possible. The pleochroic halos that Gentry found in granites show clearly and distinctly that the granites were formed in a matter of seconds or minutes. Any longer than a few minutes in a molten state and the Polonium halos would not have formed. Either that or, radioactive decay rates have been immensely discontinuous in the past - which would throw out all radiometric dating methods. Either way, long ages are disproven.

      And don't bother with Brawley's incredibly weak talkorigins post about Gentry, if you even begin to understand the issue you can see the flaws in his arguments.

      And without vast stretches of time, no evolution had time to happen.

      Quod Erat Demonstratum.

    28. Re:Yay Creationism! by Airline_Sickness_Bag · · Score: 1
      Lucky for me, I can post links too, a defence of the criticisms given in the link you just posted. My link is newer, do I win?


      No, because my link included a refutation to his rebuttal to my rebuttal.


      First of all, though the strict theory of evolution is biological only, it also relies on a number of assumptions in other fields without which it would be impossible.


      And you will note that in this thread, I refer to those areas, like geology, astronomy, physics. And the vast majority of scientists in those fields, that work in the the areas that have an impact on evolution, agree with the findings that are important to the theory of evolution - as an example, geologists who work in the area realated to the age of the earth - very, very few would argue that the age of the earth is substantially different than 4.7 billion years old. Or, very, very few astronomers would argue that the age of the universe is substatially different than around 14 billion years old. Of course, this impacts evolution because of the time scales required.


      The fact is, there are some creation biologists, and that is significant.


      Not really. In any sufficiently large group, you will find a few, "interesting" individuals, to put it politely. And when you throw in religion in, interesting things can happen - look at the Branch Davidians, Jim Jones (Kool Aid), The Church of Jesus Christ and Aryan Nation (I am *not* making this one up!), etc.


      We are the Church of God, Creator of the Heavens and the Earth. He has saved us, and called us to judge each other. You as an outsider cannot tell us how we should run our affairs. We listen to Him alone, and He requires us to guard carefully that which He gave us. I personally do not condemn evolutionist christians as unsaved. I do chastise Christians who believe evolution - I give them the benefit of the doubt, that they have not considered what they believe. But once having understood what is truly at stake in the creation evolution controversy, they must ultimately make a choice.


      And that is why I have mentioned over and over that mainstream Christian denominations such as the Catholic Church and the Methodist Church do not have problems with the theory of evolution.

      a. The lab cannot accurately age samples known less than 2Ma
      b. Austin sent a sample knowingly less than 2Ma to be sampled
      Conclusion. Austin's results are good for nothing

      That logic misses the point completely. It is mere playing with words.

      Do you know anything about research and performing experiments? You seem not to. Not only are Austin's results not good for anything, it is unethical to try to draw the types of conclusions he did from the lab results.


      If the dating method fails with samples of known age, dating them to be old, then how do we know samples aged in the millions of years are being dated correctly?


      No - if you abuse the technique, don't be surprised if the results are wrong - garbage in, garbage out.


      But as we have seen, even organisms that elave excellent fossils, like turtles, are lacking in intermediates.


      But as we have seen, even organisms that elave excellent fossils, like turtles, are lacking in intermediates


      The evolution of of reptiles to turtles occured more than 250 million years ago, so I'm not surprised that there are not a large number of intermediates found.


      So if today it is quote common for fossils to form, then what excuse is there for the almost empty fossil record for the last supposed couple of billion years?


      Well, prior to the cambrian explosion around 550 million years ago, creatures had soft bodies - so they didn't fossilize very well. Also, a fossil has to do more than be formed, to be found millions of years later - it has to survive.


      -asb

    29. Re:Yay Creationism! by Tyreth · · Score: 1
      No, because my link included a refutation to his rebuttal to my rebuttal.

      This is the list of links I have so far:
      Initial article
      Response by Camp to initial
      Response to Camp
      Response by Camp to the response of his first response

      Apart from these I cannot find an additional link that you mentioned. Could you post it please?

      Do you know anything about research and performing experiments? You seem not to. Not only are Austin's results not good for anything, it is unethical to try to draw the types of conclusions he did from the lab results.

      Why don't you elaborate on why I misunderstand research, why Austin's results are good for nothing, and why his conclusions were unethical, instead of just telling me it's a fact?

      As for the rest of this post, I have lost the motivation to reply.

    30. Re:Yay Creationism! by Airline_Sickness_Bag · · Score: 1
      Apart from these I cannot find an additional link that you mentioned. Could you post it please?


      It's on the same web page as the response to Camp.


      Why don't you elaborate on why I misunderstand research, why Austin's results are good for nothing, and why his conclusions were unethical, instead of just telling me it's a fact?


      When you do research or perform experiments, you should never improperly use a proceedure or method and then try to use those results to draw conclusions. Anyone who would do that deserves a sharp blow on the knuckles using the edge of a ruler by their boss.


      -asb

    31. Re:Yay Creationism! by Tyreth · · Score: 1
      It's on the same web page as the response to Camp.

      Ah, you mean interspersed? Needless to say, I haven't read these evidences, and I'm guessing you haven't read the responses. Still, that was a fun exercise in link posting.

      When you do research or perform experiments, you should never improperly use a proceedure or method and then try to use those results to draw conclusions. Anyone who would do that deserves a sharp blow on the knuckles using the edge of a ruler by their boss.

      This is the same response I always receive. This is just a play with words and semantics. What Austin did was apply a blind test to the method. It's an amazingly simple concept, and I'm constantly astounded that people don't understand it. The lab returned dates that demonstrated that young samples have enough Ar to be dated older than they really are....I just don't know how to explain this any simpler. It's a blind test, and it failed.

      Maybe you can help me understand why you think that he used the procedure improperly (considering the conclusion he drew), but from where I stand this is a powerful blow to geological dating.

    32. Re:Yay Creationism! by Airline_Sickness_Bag · · Score: 1
      Maybe you can help me understand why you think that he used the procedure improperly (considering the conclusion he drew), but from where I stand this is a powerful blow to geological dating.


      Nope, it is a powerful blow to Austin's credibility. You say that you have recieved the same response before - I'm not surprised since this is such a basic thing. You seem to be hung up on the idea that it was a blind test - but it was a poorly done test because he violated a simple but very important rule. So of course you get a garbage result - garbage in, garbage out.

      By the way, the samples were low in Ar - from
      talkorigins.org


      First, Austin sent young, low-potassium (and therefore very low in radiogenic argon) rocks to Geochron Laboratories, which specifically states in its advertisements: "We are not in a position to analyze samples expected to be younger than 2 M.Y."


      -asb

    33. Re:Yay Creationism! by Tyreth · · Score: 1
      You still are not explaining the problem. You, like the rest, have been unable to explain what the problem is. You cling to the words of the lab religiously, without trying to consider why they have that limitation in place.

      Let me see if I can make this simple again. I find a rock that is amongst strata "known" to be 2.2Ma. I send it off to the lab to be dated (though in reality I possibly wouldn't date it since it's already "known" to be 2.2Ma). The lab returns a result of 1.8Ma. I think "accounting for errors and the nature of this work, that's pretty close". Then I suddenly see that the rock is of the same material of a nearby lava flow. I realise that the rock was added to the 2.2Ma strata accidently, and it actually came from the nearby flow that is only 50 years old. What then?

      That's what the test proves. What you are telling me, is that somehow when we know the age of a sample it suddenly, magically, makes it impossible to work. But so long as the date is unknown the results are accurate?

      Austin applied the lab to a blind test. In these cases of young ages, the lab *should* have said "not enough argon to potassium to produce a date". Instead, they reported back varying ages, sometimes saying too young, other times up to 2Ma and older. How can this not be a powerful testimony against the validity of K/Ar dates? I hope you can see why I don't understand your claims of his [Austin] unethical behavior. If we can't apply K/Ar dating to blind tests, how can we ever be sure of it's validity? That's not science.

      In fact, this sounds like a perfect way to falsify K/Ar dating methods. Wouldn't you agree that K/Ar is falsified if a knowingly young sample reports back an age >1Ma? If not, then what is science?

  21. Re:How come there are modern and non modern Human? by cujo_1111 · · Score: 1

    I like how you said 'most slashdot readers'. Where do the others fit in? homo-dickus

    --
    If I point out that you are incorrect, making me a foe does not make you any more correct.
  22. Re:How come there are modern and non modern Human? by MoThugz · · Score: 1

    Yeah... and the next thing they'll come up with is that humans are descendants of apes...

    Damn scientists!

    p/s: Long time no see sebol... Remember me?

  23. as a christian by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 3, Funny

    i refuse to believe my ancestors were

    you know

    "black"

    1. Re:as a christian by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Yeah, it's funny 'cause it's true, but c'mon. . .don't mod it up.

      People who read at those higher thresholds will cry and shit their pants over it.

      Like reading at +3 means anything

    2. Re:as a christian by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      What does Christianity say about race? Nada!

      The Bible talks about Jews everywhere. I don't see many Europeans in it.

      Christianity is not racist, no matter what some stupid misinformed dolt says.

    3. Re:as a christian by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Interesting

      Actually Moses took a Nigerian woman as a wife and Aaron and his sister got upset. God set them straight about it. : )

    4. Re:as a christian by Roofus · · Score: 1, Interesting

      Christianity is not racist, no matter what some stupid misinformed dolt says.

      Oh yeah?! Then why is Jesus white in almost every painting?

    5. Re:as a christian by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Perhaps because the individual painting the picture is of similar ethnic background. Or perhaps has been influenced by earlier works depicting Jesus as a certain ethnic background.

      I, for one, have no problem associating myself with an ethnic God or Jesus. God created man in his own image. Consider that God and Jesus may not appear the same to everyone, as we do not appear the same to each other.

    6. Re:as a christian by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Indeed, if it helps one to view Jesus as looking like his own race, then that is fine by me! Most of us realize that Jesus probably looked nothing like a white European. This doesn't not change who Jesus is.

    7. Re:as a christian by 3rd_Floo · · Score: 0, Flamebait

      Really? I always thought Jesus was a hispanic guy with a crowbar who stole hubcaps from cars?!?

      BHG! =P

    8. Re: as a christian by Black+Parrot · · Score: 1


      > Oh yeah?! Then why is Jesus white in almost every painting?

      FWIW, from centuries ago until around 1970 Jesus was almost always portrayed with long hair, but to avoid the obvious hippie associations a lot of short-haired portrayals started showing up around then. (In the Early Christian Era he was always portrayed as a "philosopher king", beardless and with hair of moderate length.)

      Also, supposedly on one of the Pacific islands a sect emerged which claimed that the White Man had torn out the first page of the Bible, which held the preface explaining that Jesus was a Polynesian...

      Religious belief is fascinating.

      --
      Sheesh, evil *and* a jerk. -- Jade
    9. Re:as a christian by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Christianity is not racist, no matter what some stupid misinformed dolt says.

      Christians sure are racist though.

    10. Re:as a christian by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I guess Picasso could have painted him without an ear?!

      People paint what they want to. That does NOT make the racist.

    11. Re:as a christian by keirre23hu · · Score: 1

      its funny that you post as anonymous coward, because that shows that you already know how ignorant that comment was... i am not mad at you because generations of idiots such as yourself have created the circumstances that allow people to actually believe ignorant shit like that by attempting to dehumanize blacks and other non-white people as being less than human, or in some other way less than themselves. I would try to give you some knowledge, but I have already wasted more than enough time on this lost cause already... tip... pick up a book and read/...if you did you would know that among other things, genetic diversity _BETWEEN_ people of different "races" is less than the genetic diversity _WITHIN_ people of different "races" (read further and you might learn more about why the notion of race is even more ignorant).. take a second and think about the fact that skin tone is one of millions of characteristics that humans possess, I would love to hear you explain scientifically how skin tone is _THE_ indicator that a person is "better" than others, although I actually wish that you were right (you aren't), because as a human being i am ashamed that we are in the same species.

    12. Re:as a christian by hesiod · · Score: 1

      >Christians sure are racist though.

      Of course... just as racist as atheists. And Jews... Can't say the same for Buddhists, but they're different in a lot of ways.

    13. Re:as a christian by Roofus · · Score: 1

      No, it doesn't necessarily mean they are racist. But I'll be honest when I say that it bothers me when I go to my Catholic church, and anything with images of Jesus, Joseph, Mary or any of the Apostiles are always white. I'd rather be historically accurate - and with that thought I'll mention that I'm starting to have serious issues about the validity of Christianity.

    14. Re:as a christian by downwa · · Score: 1

      As a Christian, I believe my ancestor "Noah" had genes for all races who descended from him, and thus most probably had darker skin that most "whites" and lighter skin than the darkest "blacks", some asian features, etc.

      Really, the Bible is a very non-racist book. Even though it deals mostly with the Jews, their racism against non-Jews was not condoned, nor was the racism of their enemies.

      --
      Life's a lot like money-- you spend it, then it's gone. Spend wisely.
    15. Re:as a christian by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Except the Bible has a whole chapter or three on God-sanctioned smiting based entirely on race/tribe. Been a while since you read the thing, eh?

    16. Re:as a christian by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I am ashamed you cannot format your comment so it is readable.

    17. Re:as a christian by nnnneedles · · Score: 1

      Jews are white. Arabs are white.

      Jesus was a jew.

      He wasn't black, that's for sure.

      --
      Will code a sig generator for food
    18. Re:as a christian by 3rd_Floo · · Score: 1

      Wow, the mod must hate jimmy pop ali... sadness

    19. Re:as a christian by downwa · · Score: 1

      I just now finally read this response.

      I am well aware of the slaughter of entire tribes in certain cases. The fact that it was the exception rather than the rule (e.g. God condemned wholesale slaughter in many other cases) led me to try to determine why certain cases were not just allowed, but required.

      I have concluded that in these cases, God was punishing these tribes for their long-term unrepented of sins. These tribes were known for their violence, human sacrifice (including innocent children), debasement and idolatry, etc., and had continued it so long that God apparently saw there was no longer any hope for them, and they would spread their black arts to the rest of humanity if left unchecked.

      The example of the burning of Sodom, Gomorrah, and two other cities of the plain by God himself, is often looked at as an anti-homosexual act by God, but the Bible lists many other problems with those cities, among which were their own violence and disregard for human life.

      --
      Life's a lot like money-- you spend it, then it's gone. Spend wisely.
  24. WOW! by gatesh8r · · Score: 0

    Now we have an explaination for SCO!

    --
    Karma whorin' since 1999
    1. Re:WOW! by drinkypoo · · Score: 1

      Now? I thought that it was already covered by the infinite monkeys theory.

      --
      "You're right," Fisheye says. "I should have set it on 'whip' or 'chop.'"
  25. Euthenasia ... Now! by BillsPetMonkey · · Score: 1

    that they believe to be the oldest anatomically modern human ... they date to 160,000 years ago

    Come on Grandpa, you've been living off the state long enough now ...

    --
    "It's not your information. It's information about you" - John Ford, Vice President, Equifax
  26. Re:Someone's slacking.. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    GW Bush: Standing Stark Naked, Stirring a Hornet's Nest With a Stick

  27. What I don't understand by Ravenscall · · Score: 4, Interesting

    Is that, Okay, Great^n Grandpawas around 160,000 years ago, complete with stone tools and burial practices.

    Yet Civilization only 'started 6-10,000 years ago.

    Why does this just not quite add up to me. I mean, our ancestors were not stupid, they posessed the same intuition and logic that we do today. Whay did it take so long to get where we are now though?

    Just food for thought.

    --
    You say you want a revolution....
    1. Re:What I don't understand by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 2, Insightful

      Well, why didn't we have computers 10,000 years ago? Afterall, there were modern humans back then too. The problem I think you are having is the definition of civilization. Just because the tribes living in the Amazon don't have the same civilization as we do doesn't mean they don't have a civilization.

    2. Re:What I don't understand by Frostalicious · · Score: 4, Informative

      I mean, our ancestors were not stupid, they posessed the same intuition and logic that we do today. Whay did it take so long to get where we are now though?

      I believe it had to do with climate. Prior to say 8,000BCE, it was too cold (ice age ending). They couldn't grow crops and survived through hunting/gathering. This environment could not support more advanced civilizations. Small groups of people could follow herds around for food, but a big city couldn't sustain itself.

    3. Re:What I don't understand by freeweed · · Score: 2, Insightful

      Many reasons. First, most places on Earth didn't have what we'd call "civilization" until well beyond 6-10,000 years ago, and most of them got it from the Egyptians/Babylonians. There just isn't a need for people to form complex societies when populations are small, and resources are abundant. In the middle east/Africa, conditions were such that large groups were better able to survive - read up on the history of agriculture sometime.

      Hell, most of North America was populated with hunter/gatherers until Europeans came, and it's not like they weren't 'smart' enough or anything. Sometimes people just don't need it.

      Or, take the easy route: the Earth is only 6/12,000 years old, and don't bother asking the important questions :)

      --
      Endless arguments over trivial contradictions in books written by ignorant savages to explain thunder in the dark.
    4. Re:What I don't understand by Jareeedo · · Score: 4, Interesting

      It doesn't add up because you have to know the big picture. It has to do with our evolved capacity to suppress non-kin conflicts of interest, using the threat of coercive violence, on a larger and larger scale throughout our history. Every time humans developed a new way to do this, you notice an "adaptive revolution", followed by a period of adaptive sophistication:

      (Dates are fairly approximate)

      ~2 m.y.a. - development of elite throwing: We could throw accurately, and fast enough to kill. This is precisely when the first Homo evolved.

      ~50,000 yrs ago - the Atlatl: a spear-like device enabled us to kill at farther distances. Behaviorally modern revolution occurred soon after.

      ~10,000 yrs ago - the bow: a long distance precision weapon (relative to what was before). The agricultural revolution occurred soon after. This might be what you're referring to as "civilization" in your post.

      ~5,500 yrs ago - Body armor & "Shock weapons" such as swords coincides with the rise of the archaic state.

      ~600 yrs ago - gunpowder/artillery: with gunpowder came the rise of the modern state. Things started to change rapidly after this. Body armor was no longer effective in stopping gunpowder, so we could threaten coercive violence on a larger scale.

      ~400 yrs ago - handguns: different from artillery in the sense that it allowed mostly anyone to possess an accurate, small deadly weapon. The democratization of the modern state occurred. See: The United States of America

      ~50 yrs ago - aircraft and missles: this enables us to effectively coerce non-cooperating persons on the other side of the planet. We are in the midst right now of a formation of a pan-global coalition.

      note: There're a few game-theory terms used in the aforementioned explanation.

    5. Re:What I don't understand by dvdeug · · Score: 4, Insightful

      Why does this just not quite add up to me.

      How many times in your life have you changed the world? The concept to stop chasing wildlife, and to settle down and grow crops is revolutionary, and would be a scary step (since you're betting on crops coming in right until you can build up enough storage) even for those who have plenty of knowledge in the subject. The combination of knowledge, wisdom and courage to take that step is not commonly found, and even when the step was take, the society might easily disappear if there were a short drought. I have a harder time imagining why someone would do this, then why they wouldn't.

    6. Re:What I don't understand by JebusIsLord · · Score: 1

      The last iceage ended 10,000 years ago. This was accompanied by farming, which led to population concentration, which led to cultural complexity, cities etc.

      Stone tools DID evolve quite a bit during the 300,000 - 500,000 years prior. Not much else is preserved of course, but we can assume other advancements took place as well.

      --
      Jeremy
    7. Re:What I don't understand by Jareeedo · · Score: 5, Informative

      Hell, most of North America was populated with hunter/gatherers until Europeans came, and it's not like they weren't 'smart' enough or anything.

      Thats not true. Specific cases in North America include the Mississippians, the Anasazi and the Calusa. These were sophisticated societies. They had relatively complex economies, large cities consisting of thousands of people, organized religion, art and centralized government. What is true, is that we know very little else about these societies, as the Europeans brought diseases which essentially wiped out these people.

    8. Re:What I don't understand by TheBadger · · Score: 1

      Would ancient computer components still be recognisable after 10,000 years? There have been one or two battery type devices found from ancient Egypt, these were probably used for gold plating, but it just shows that electricity was being used 1000s of years ago, but then "forgotten" about.

      What if there was a "revolution" where people thought that civilization/technology/captialism/money/whatever was ruining the race (root of all evil etc) and it was all/half destroyed by some arch villain/bin laden/country? People were saying immediately after 9/11 that this could be the end of civilization, slightly extreme I know, but this upset was cause very few people.

      Post apocolypse, what's important to save for prosperity? Probably nothing. The most important thing is where's my next meal coming from. What's to say that there haven't been lots of civs and lots of apocolypses?

    9. Re:What I don't understand by dekashizl · · Score: 1

      What's to say that there haven't been lots of civs and lots of apocolypses?

      Well the main argument against that is the massive lack of any evidence to support that claim. I agree that such a lack does not prove that there haven't been other civilizations, but it makes it more unlikely, as they would have probably had to develop their technology to the point where it was possible to entirely wipe all evidence of themselves or the technology itself off of the planet.

      But hey, who's to say we're not all just part of one big infinitely cyclical postmodern technological revolution 10s of thousands of years old...

    10. Re:What I don't understand by Captain+Beefheart · · Score: 1
      What's to say that there haven't been lots of civs and lots of apocolypses?

      Lots of nonexistant ruins made of materials assumed to be completely unavailable, for the most part. After that, bodies wearing clothing consisting of materials assumed to be unknown at the time. After that, vehicles far too complex for the period. After that, mysterious geographical anomalies revealed by satellite, on a global scale...I doubt there's any mystery or conspiracy here. Just a whole lot of nothing at all.

    11. Re:What I don't understand by dekashizl · · Score: 1

      And furthermore, to bring your answer back to his question, lack of rich diet as found in agricultural societies results in poor nutrition (breadth-wise, not calorie-wise), which prevents more sophisticated areas of the body (especially in the brain) from developing and functioning "properly". Take your vitamins, kids.

    12. Re:What I don't understand by johannesg · · Score: 3, Funny

      Thag the Warrior held the patent on civilisation, and his descendents kept extending the duration of the patent...

    13. Re:What I don't understand by dekashizl · · Score: 0, Offtopic

      MOD PARENT UP Insightful!

      Actually an "atlatl" is not technically a "spear-like device", but it is a device used to launch a light spear more accurately and powerfully than by hand. Kind of like a sling conceptually, but for a spear (dart) instead of a rock.

      A good site about the atlatl.

      And the History Channel has an EXCELLENT show called "Conquest" that did an episode that included the atlatl (I think it was "Stone Age Weapons").

    14. Re:What I don't understand by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      But his whole point is that "Just a whole lot of nothing at all" might be exactly its "vehicles far too complex" and orbiting "satellites.

    15. Re:What I don't understand by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I suggest you check out "Guns, Germs and Steel" by Jared Diamond for a discussion on how human societies came to be.

    16. Re:What I don't understand by jjh37997 · · Score: 1

      Why does this just not quite add up to me. I mean, our ancestors were not stupid, they posessed the same intuition and logic that we do today. Whay did it take so long to get where we are now though?

      Because they started with nothing, not even language. Think how hard it would have been for early humans to pass on knowledge about their world without a fully developed language to facilitate the transfer. How many thousands of years did it take our early ancestors to evolve a language that could express concepts more complex than Ogg smash!? I'm sure if we forced five thousand Slashdot readers on a remote island without any tools or books their descendants will have developed a complex civilization in just a few hundred years. But they'll be able to do that because they're standing on the shoulders of giants and already posses the greatest tool Mankind has, language.

    17. Re:What I don't understand by glassgnost · · Score: 1

      Maybe they were really smarter than us, and resisted the urge for 150,000 years. Y'see, first there was the amoeba, and it was perfect. It lived in harmony with it's environment. Then it mutated...

    18. Re:What I don't understand by wfberg · · Score: 1

      How many thousands of years did it take our early ancestors to evolve a language that could express concepts more complex than Ogg smash!?


      They were already using the as-yet-unreleased Ogg Smash codec?? Theora isn't even finished yet!
      --
      SCO employee? Check out the bounty
    19. Re:What I don't understand by nepheles · · Score: 1

      The answer to that relatively well understood

      Firstly, we had to wait until the ice-age passed

      And, after that, no cities (understandably) were founded until farming became common-practice. Cities required administrators; those who didn't need to hunt/farm to acquire their food. And it wasn't until the advent of farming that this became possible, with surpluses in food production. Also, population density was another prime contributing factor, and, once again, the new sedentary lifestyle allowed, and indeed encouraged, population to grow around existing settlement. It is no co-incidence that the first civilisation and the first farmers both had their origins in Mesopotamia.

      --
      ((lambda x ((x))) (lambda x ((x))))
    20. Re:What I don't understand by spun · · Score: 3, Informative
      Huh. Why is there no large scale evidence of human on human violence until ~4500bc then? No mass graves, no body armor, no fortifications of dwellings, no weapons that are primarily aimed at killing other humans (like swords.) The only thing you'll find is the occasional wound caused by a weapon which may well have been a hunting accident.


      No, early humans used no coercive violence prior to massive climate shifts in 4500bc which caused the drying up of the Sahara and central Asia. This lead to widespread famine and the birth of violent, dominator type cultures. For a very thorough analysis of this idea, see an article titled "The Origins and Diffusion of Patrism in Saharasia, c.4000 BCE"


      Your times are off, as well: humans evolved "modern" behavior 25,000 years before the atlatl, and agriculture 10,000 to 20,000 years before the bow.


      Organized coercive violence caused human development. Bah. Just what the world needs, another apologist for violence.

      --
      - None can love freedom heartily, but good men; the rest love not freedom, but license. -- John Milton
    21. Re:What I don't understand by hydrofilic · · Score: 0

      population density was another prime contributing factor
      You have hit the nail on the head here. Civilisation's didn't develop becuase it was a better way to live. Population density and the desire to extract more protien form a given area of land drove the establishment of the first farming settlements.
      Once more complex socities developed they were able to conquer the less complex societies thru force of numbers and superior weponry.

    22. Re:What I don't understand by anubi · · Score: 1
      Dekashizl, you hit right on a concern I have toyed around with for years...
      "But hey, who's to say we're not all just part of one big infinitely cyclical postmodern technological revolution 10s of thousands of years old... "
      I was hoping we would find the answer on the moon.

      Consider, if mankind in any point since creation of Earth itself had risen to the point we are in now... even if it were millions of years ago... they would have sent stuff to the moon and left their mark there, just as we have.

      On Earth, weather, corrosion, and human nature have a tendency to destroy artifacts. But if they landed it on the moon, its safe there.. safe from weather, corrosion, and the hands of those not savvy enough to get there. Much less accessible than say, trying to hide it in a pyramid, where it is a constant target for looters. We already have a quantity of unexplainable items on Earth... but then these could be hoaxes or just flat misunderstood.

      It is a great curiousity of mine to see them map the moon and look for any anomolies ( shades of the Tycho monolith as in 2001-A Space Odessey? ). If we find anything there, its gonna be one helluva study to find out how it got there.

      --
      "Prove all things; hold fast that which is good." [KJV: I Thessalonians 5:21]

    23. Re:What I don't understand by hydrofilic · · Score: 0

      lack of rich diet as found in agricultural societies results in poor nutrition
      Actually archeological evidence from early agricultural societies indicates that the diet of the early farmers was not very nutritious at all, due largely to lack of variation and ignorance oft the importance of a varied diet. The health and life expectancies of the early farmer was significantly less than their hunter/gatherer counterparts.

    24. Re: What I don't understand by Black+Parrot · · Score: 2, Insightful


      > Is that, Okay, Great^n Grandpawas around 160,000 years ago, complete with stone tools and burial practices. Yet Civilization only 'started 6-10,000 years ago.

      Depends on what you mean by "civilization", of course.

      > Why does this just not quite add up to me. I mean, our ancestors were not stupid, they posessed the same intuition and logic that we do today. Whay did it take so long to get where we are now though?

      Because technology and social structures are cumulative inventions. I don't know how technology should be measured, but qualitatively speaking it appears to be growing at an exponential rate. And if you trace an exponential curve far out into the past it gets really flat.

      That is to say, I don't think there's really any mystery here that needs explaining.

      --
      Sheesh, evil *and* a jerk. -- Jade
    25. Re: What I don't understand by Black+Parrot · · Score: 1


      > > Hell, most of North America was populated with hunter/gatherers until Europeans came, and it's not like they weren't 'smart' enough or anything.

      > Thats not true. Specific cases in North America include the Mississippians, the Anasazi and the Calusa. These were sophisticated societies. They had relatively complex economies, large cities consisting of thousands of people, organized religion, art and centralized government.

      Still, much of the Americas still lived a Stone Age lifestyle when the Europeans came, and in fact the same could be said of parts of New Guinea at least until the middle of the Twentieth Century.

      The bigger point is that being a modern human does not guarantee you a high-tech civilization within any bounded amount of time.

      --
      Sheesh, evil *and* a jerk. -- Jade
    26. Re:What I don't understand by kzdero · · Score: 1

      Tasmanians, Kiwis and Canadians! Molecules move slower.

    27. Re:What I don't understand by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Insightful

      ~400 yrs ago - handguns: different from artillery in the sense that it allowed mostly anyone to possess an accurate, small deadly weapon. The democratization of the modern state occurred. See: The United States of America

      See also: Ancient Greece (and, according to the writers of the time, numerous earlier cultures)

      ~50 yrs ago - aircraft and missles: this enables us to effectively coerce non-cooperating persons on the other side of the planet. We are in the midst right now of a formation of a pan-global coalition.

      Um... there's nothing new about global civilisations or empires.

      History is not linear, chaps!

    28. Re:What I don't understand by hoover · · Score: 1

      Depends on what you define as "civilization". In our culture, it's usually assigned to the start of people being totally dependent on agriculture for making a living, thus producing huge food surplusses and spreading like wildfire because of the resulting overpopulation.

      As you correctly point out, they did not spread into an empty world. There must have been hundreds if not thousands of other cultures around which had quite a different lifestyle and switched to totalitarian agriculture either by force "we need your land to grow crops" or sometimes by choice (although making a living by agriculture is much harder work than making a living by hunting and gathering).

      I think it was quite a similar process to what is happening to the last tribes of mankind in the rainforests all around the world now. Taker culture (ours) ventures into their territory, they briefly fight for their old way of life but eventually are assimilated, or if they continue to refuse to accept our vision and way of living, simply killed and done away with.

      Interestingly enough, their societies usually don't have the problems that we always moan about (abuse, crime, drug addiction, you name it), or have very effective ways to deal with these problems.

      Usual plug to answer those questions: read Dan Quinn's book Ishmael or a summary of his ideas here on our "major" religions if you are interested.

      Cheers,

      uwe

      --
      Ever wondered whats wrong with the world? http://www.ishmael.org/
    29. Re:What I don't understand by mpe · · Score: 1

      ~600 yrs ago - gunpowder/artillery: with gunpowder came the rise of the modern state. Things started to change rapidly after this. Body armor was no longer effective in stopping gunpowder, so we could threaten coercive violence on a larger scale.

      Body armor had already been rendered ineffective before the invention of firearms. Most notably the Battle of Agincore. Even modern body armour wouldn't be much good against Roman artillary.

    30. Re: What I don't understand by kin_korn_karn · · Score: 3, Insightful

      My opinion, for what it's worth, is that cultures evolve to the technological level that they need to survive.

      In the classical "Cradle of Civilization", the Tigris-Euphrates valley, there were few animals to eat, and plants didn't grow regularly. So, the people needed to learn how to make the plants grow regularly. Irrigation developed. Wait, we grew too much, we need something to store all this food in! I found this clay over here, let's make some pottery.

      Many native american tribes didn't go any higher than stone age in some technologies, because they didn't need to.

    31. Re:What I don't understand by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Why is there no large scale evidence of human on human violence until ~4500bc then?

      Because it was retail rather than wholesale?

      Just what the world needs, another apologist for violence.

      Better than another fantasist postulating some ancient feminist utopia based on wishful thinking and no hard evidence whatsoever.

    32. Re:What I don't understand by Gallowglass · · Score: 2, Interesting
      There was a documentary series about 20 years ago on PBS called "The Ascent of Man" written and narated by Jacob Bronowski. (This is also available as a book)

      In it, Prof. Bronowski posited that civilisation begins with the invention of agriculture approximately 15,000 years ago. It is at that time that the modern grain came into existence. (How, why or when no one knows.) This allowed people to accumulate food surpluses which could be stored. The importance of this is that it allows humans to settle in a single location rather than leading a nomadic existence.

      Now nomads can only keep what they can carry. But a settled farmer can accumulate goods because he is not limited by his carrying capacity. "Well, so what?" you might say. Bronowski made the claim that this leads to the invention of writing. If you have a surplus, at some point you start keeping records - particularly if you have a tribe and a need for distribution of goods. This record keeping starts off with such things as knotted strings or tally sticks, but at some point it starts to evolve into a written language.

      And what is the importance of that? It is this. Animals have only two ways of accumulating knowledge: instinct (passed on by DNA), and what it learns in it's lifetime. These have finite limits. But writing allows you to write down information that later generations can access - and build on. Thus the amount of information available to the species begins to increase - and so civilisation.

      Which shouldn't surprise us geeks. We know that the design of the system influences the behaviour of the system. :-)

      (BTW, if you ever get a chance to view the series or read the book, do so. It is a beautiful and inspiring story. -- Or so I found it. YMMMV)

    33. Re:What I don't understand by d3faultus3r · · Score: 1

      But then SCO sued them, claiming they found identical DNA between modern humans and their own species, homo erectus.

      --
      read my blog
      musings on politics and technol
    34. Re:What I don't understand by Rinikusu · · Score: 1

      Well, when you have a tribe of 50 people following around a herd and a raiding party of 10 or 12 come running around to slaughter your men, steal your food and rape your women, well, it stands to reason there's not much "mass" to bury..

      Your "statements of fact" that humans never used coercive violence are merely statements of "opinion" as we currently have no evidence to support your assertions, or the assertions of anything else.

      From observation of modern humans, I'd say there were always fucking assholes in society that liked to make life miserable for the rest.

      While I don't support the original poster's assertion that violence causes human development, I think it's naive to think that mankind never engaged in coercive acts of violence against one another prior to whenever. It may be the case that a small tribe of people could travel years without encountering other tribes, which of course would tend to limit inter-tribal violence. However, people are people and people have disagreements. Your "hunting accidents" could be another man's means of homicide.

      --
      If you were me, you'd be good lookin'. - six string samurai
    35. Re:What I don't understand by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      The Battle of Agincourt is a bad example. The poor tactics of the French were primarily responsible for their defeat. Armor did play a role, but a minor one. The French men-at-arms were wearing heavy armor and were unable to stand if knocked to the ground. It took two or three British archers to knock down one French man-at-arms. Needless to say, the lightly armored British were having a splendid time knocking down the French. Contrary to popular opinion, light armor was still in use well after the invention of firearms as it was effective in close combat - which happened quite frequently due to the limited range, accurracy, and reload time of the weapons.

    36. Re:What I don't understand by ryanvm · · Score: 2, Funny

      ~2 m.y.a. - development of elite throwing: We could throw accurately, and fast enough to kill. This is precisely when the first Homo evolved.

      Wait a minute - I thought homos throw like a girl.

      [Easy, it's just a joke.]

    37. Re:What I don't understand by julesh · · Score: 1

      There is a theory, albeit with little if any actual supporting evidence, that suggests that a mutation occurred in the human genome, probably initially arising somewhere in central or west asia, which led to the ability to develop and understand strict codes of behaviour. Without this capability, large scale civilisation would have been impossible, and humanity would have been restricted to living in small tribal groups. The mutation would have slowly spread to the rest of the world by population migration (etc), leaving in its wake a tide of primitive civilisations. History seems to bear out this version of events.

      Of course, there is at present no way of proving this theory, and probably little chance of disproving it either. So as a theory, its not particularly remarkable. But it does fit with what little evidence there is (at least according to the source I picked it up from, and what was said there agrees generally with what I know of the development of early civilisations).

      Of course, IANAH (I am not a historian).

    38. Re:What I don't understand by EvilTwinSkippy · · Score: 1
      Don't forget about the long bow.

      But remember, ranged weapons are no use in close-quarters combat. Across a field, an archer with a long-bow would easily take out a knight in armor.

      10 feet away, my money is on the knight!

      --
      "Learning is not compulsory... neither is survival."
      --Dr.W.Edwards Deming
    39. Re:What I don't understand by lawpoop · · Score: 1

      Let's define civilization to meaning "people living in cities". You have to have domesticated, staple crops. Those came about long after modern human arrived.(Domesticated animals help, but aren't necessary. See Incas, Aztecs).

      --
      Computers are useless. They can only give you answers.
      -- Pablo Picasso
    40. Re:What I don't understand by lawpoop · · Score: 1

      Don't forget the Cahokians, whose temple mound neat St. Louis is larger than the Aztec Sun Temple.

      --
      Computers are useless. They can only give you answers.
      -- Pablo Picasso
    41. Re:What I don't understand by freeweed · · Score: 1

      Hell, most of North America was populated with hunter/gatherers until Europeans came, and it's not like they weren't 'smart' enough or anything.

      Thats not true. Specific cases in North America


      I guess someone's completely unfamiliar with the term 'most' :)

      --
      Endless arguments over trivial contradictions in books written by ignorant savages to explain thunder in the dark.
    42. Re:What I don't understand by reverseengineer · · Score: 1
      Why is there no large scale evidence of human on human violence until ~4500bc then?

      Actually, there is some evidence for it occuring far earlier than you state, although I'm not sure what you would consider to be "large scale."

      I'm reading a fascinating book right now called "Africa: A Biography of the Continent" by John Reader- covers from the actual beginnings of Africa the continent some 4 billion years ago to the mid-1990s- obviously, more of a survey than an in-depth study. On page 146, it mentions a site in modern-day Sudan excavated in the 1960s, prior to being flooded by the construction of the Aswan High Dam:

      Excavations uncovered the skeletons of fifty-nine men, women, and children, who had been buried in shallow graves under thin slabs of sandstone sometime between 14,000 and 12,000 years ago. The burial positions and orientation were remarkably uniform. Virtually all the bodies lay on their left side. head to the east, hands to the face. and knees flexed so that the heels touched the buttocks. The total number, sex, and age structure of the group indicated that they had belonged to a fairly large population, and the mode of burial demonstrates a high degree of concern for the dead. Less caring, however, was the manner in which they died. Most had died violently.

      A total of 116 flaked-stone artefacts were found in direct association with twenty-four of the burials, either embedded in the bone or enclosed within the body cavity, and a further 73 items were indirectly associated with other skeletons. The artefacts were not "grave goods" left with the deceased for use in the afterlife: they were projectile points, incontrovertibly in most instances, had been directly responsible for the death of the individual.

      Points were found wedged in the spine, and embedded in the skull, the pelvis, and the limb bones. The killings showed no respect for age or sex. Two adult males had a total of 27 pieces either in their bones or in direct association. an adult female and a child buried togehter both had pieces embedded in the upper chest area. Two children, estimated to have been seven and twelve years old, had points in precisely the same position at the base of the skull, and both showed signs of having been struck about other parts of the body.

      The explanation that Reader gives for this incident is that the variability of the Nile produced a boom-bust cycle of population growth in times of plenty, followed by intense competition for limited food in times of famine.

      I went to your link, by the way, and to my surprise, one of the links on the main page, "Update on Saharasia," leads to a long letter in which the evidence of Jebel Sahaba is discussed in light of DeMeo's Saharasia theory. He claims that the Jebel Sahaba site is not accurately dated, and is much more recent than 12,000-14,000 years old. Most of the links I found on Jebel Sahaba disagree, however, and have ages in the 12,000-14,000 years ago range. I'm far from being an expert in this area, however, so I have no idea who is correct. It would appear, though, that the debate over when man first took up arms against man is in no way definitively resolved.

      --
      "FDA staff reviewers expressed concern about the number of patients who were left out of the study because they died."
    43. Re:What I don't understand by Ugmo · · Score: 1

      Douglas Adams said in Hitchhikers Guide to the Galaxy:

      It is an important and popular fact that things are not always what they seem. For instance, on the planet Earth, man had always assumed that he was more intelligent than dolphins because he had achieved so much - the wheel, New York, wars and so on - whilst all the dolphins had ever done was muck about in the water having a good time. But conversely, the dolphins had always believed that they were far more intelligent than man - for precisely the same reasons.

      Seriously, studies of the Bushmen hunter/gatherers that they spend less time searching for food than agriculturists spend growing it. Small groups of hunter/gatherers have less disease and violence than settled peoples. Overall hunter/gatherers have a better quality of life than primitive farmers. Maybe our ancestors were smarter than us for 140,000 years and then suddenly got stupid recently and developed civilization.

    44. Re:What I don't understand by Flambergius · · Score: 1

      They have the same anatomy as we have today. Intuition and logic we have today has taken thousands of years to develop and is passed on to us via education.

      Big technological development before the rise of "civilization" is food production, the domestication of plants and animals. This isn't just coming up with the idea that you could plant wheat. There are no wild plants that could have by themselves supported food producing people. Farming was a sideshow until more efficient plants were developed via natural selection.

      Food production began 13,000 years ago in the Fertile Crescent. Before that everybody was pretty much moving around all the time. Say you come up with neat new gadget, like a ceramic bowl. It's clearly useful, but it does weight quite a bit. You are already carrying as much as you can, and everything you have is likely to be essential to your survival. Talk about disincentive to innovation.

      Food production also enables people to specialize. Some make war, some govern, some innovate and some produce food for everybody. Even the most skilled and intelligent hunter-gatherer would have to spend most of his time feeding himself.

      I don't know when human speech became expressive enough to be compared to modern languages. I would hazard a guess that the Grandpawa from 160000BC didn't have it.

      All those reason together ... well, I don't wonder at all why it took as long as it did.

      --Flam
      - Mega-trends rule!

      --
      Computers are useless. They can only give you answers - Pablo Picasso
    45. Re: What I don't understand by Jareeedo · · Score: 1

      Still, much of the Americas still lived a Stone Age lifestyle when the Europeans came

      Ok, I'll bite. Specifically who lived this stone-age lifestyle? But before you get into that, define stone-age as well. The bigger point is that being a modern human does not guarantee you a high-tech civilization within any bounded amount of time

      Absolutely true. The occurrance of adaptive revolutions depends upon our ability to create larger and larger sized coalitions.

    46. Re:What I don't understand by Jareeedo · · Score: 1

      The ability to cost-effectively suppress conflicts of interest, through posing the threat of coercive violence, does just the opposite of what you're thinking. It's a driving factor for peace, rather than violence. It forces us to form larger and larger coalition groups, exposing us to more and more extragenetic knowledge, which in turn allows us to create and build all types of technology on an increasingly larger and larger scale.

      For example: I'm not an expert carpenter. Yet I am able to enjoy the benefits of an expert carpenter since the knowledge of wood craftsmenship was passed on, and made "public" (note the implications of open-source here ). This is possible because this extragenetic knowledge was not kept within a small village, but rather that village containing that knowledge of wood carpentry, was forced (through the threat of violence) to join with another village at some point in time thus making that knowledge available for everyone.

    47. Re:What I don't understand by Javaman97 · · Score: 1

      Forgive me if this has already been mentioned. If you are interested for causation in the rise of civilization (as well as a pretty good look at why some civilizations 'advanced' more then others) there is a book titled 'Guns Germs and Steel" by Jared Diamond. It's a good read and pretty informative.

    48. Re:What I don't understand by cens0r · · Score: 1
      For civilation to start you need food production to start. And for food production to start it has to be better than the hunter/gather lifestyle. This only occurs after a few things:
      • The population becomes large enough that the hunter/gather lifestyle is no longer efficient.
      • The climate must be suitable for food production
      • Enough domestic plants and animals exist to actually begin food production. For instance, in california the climate was perfect for food production, but there were no suitible plants and animals to use.
      • The people actually have to develop farming and herding techniques.
      • Crop yields must become efficient enough (through selective breeding) to completly end dependence on hunter/gathering.
      • All these things take time. In some places (the australian outback for instance) food production could never take place. In other places there just wasn't anything viable to produce food with.
      --
      Jack Valenti and Orrin Hatch will be first up against the wall when the revolution comes.
    49. Re:What I don't understand by Jareeedo · · Score: 1

      If I laugh, will I get ...flamed?

    50. Re:What I don't understand by crulx · · Score: 1
      A very insightful post!

      While the details surrounding the choices that humanity made 10,000 years ago or so may never get unearthed, we can surmise the nature of the mental change they made by the way it effects human society today. First, we must point out, as you did in your post, that the change that humans made involved thought. Humans before this had very similar genetics to us and non-civilized peoples our culture has met certainly have our intellectual potential, if not the huge knowledge set our culture posesses. So knowing this change has an intellectual basis, we should look for its root ideas. I wish to set out the basic Memes of our civilization.

      Meme 1: Humans have a special place in the universe before all other forms of life.

      We feel that we no longer need to obey the laws that other animals follow. We feel that we have a âoespecialâ place in the universe, given to us by God for the religious or Reason for the atheist. Our legal system carefully systematizes this distinction between Human and Animal. It pervades most peoplesâ(TM) thoughts without them realizing it.

      Meme 2: Our particular civilization has the TRUE way to live.

      This way involves a totalitarian form of agriculture in which we constantly choose humans and food for humans over all other forms of life. Chickens must live so foxes must die. Cows must live so wolves must die. Wherever our civilization has gone, we have robbed the local environment to produce food or space for our human species.

      Another part of this involves the notion of a âoejobâ. We feel that everyone should make products to sell so that we can buy products. This make product/get product habit encompasses every aspect of life and we have developed many theories to handle it, ie economics. A more realistic understanding of âoeeconomyâ would include the resource limitations put on the system by our environment.

      Meme 3: All other humans must live this way.

      Humans in this civilization always defend aggressively to the death their system. Even very minor deviances from the current cultural system, be it economic belief, religious belief, or even particular habits can cause massive wars. Whenever we encounter another group of humans, âoemissionariesâ flock to the location in order to indoctrinate these people and give them âoethe one true way.â

      The agricultural system ties into it power on this planet. By constantly pushing the Food side of the population equation, we consistently have increased our human population. For 10,000 years we have grown âoemore food for a growing population.â From the look of it, we intent to do that right to the point where we completely outstrip the global environments ability to replenish itself.

      Most of you who read this believe these 3 things, even if reading them separately causes you to âoefeel above that.â Please make an effort to rid yourself of these ideas because within them contains the destruction of all of the lifeforms on this planet.

      From animist perspective:
      Daniel Quinn's Ishmael site

      From the enlightenment perspective:
      J Krishnamurti

      From the pop culture perspective:
      The Matrix

    51. Re: What I don't understand by cens0r · · Score: 1

      You're kind of right. They did hunt alot of the game to extiniction. However, the climate at that time was perfect for agriculture. The land also contained natrually occuring plants that were perfect for cultavting (wheat, barley, olives) and animals perfect for domesticating (horses, cows, goats, pigs). Now think about areas that we associate with being in the stone age. What kind of naturally occuring plants and animals did they have to domesticate? Not very many. It was kind of luck of the draw that people in the near east had the goods to start efficient food production.

      --
      Jack Valenti and Orrin Hatch will be first up against the wall when the revolution comes.
    52. Re:What I don't understand by merchant_x · · Score: 1

      Like I said in an earlier post, it looks to me like the discovery of beer could have been a prime factor in teh switch from Hunting/gathering to agriculture. I know the thought of getting my hands on an alcoholic beverage would be enough to convince me to stop throwing sticks at animals and start puttin seeds in the ground.

    53. Re: What I don't understand by kin_korn_karn · · Score: 1

      that's a good point. I should have disclaimed, IANAA (anthropologist).

    54. Re: What I don't understand by cens0r · · Score: 1

      I'm not an anthropologist either. But I have read "Guns, Germs, and Steel" and quite a few other books in the vein. Plus my girlfriend is an anthropologist.

      --
      Jack Valenti and Orrin Hatch will be first up against the wall when the revolution comes.
    55. Re:What I don't understand by spun · · Score: 1
      It would appear, though, that the debate over when man first took up arms against man is in no way definitively resolved.

      Exactly. Personally, I believe DeMeo's theory, the amount of evidence he cites (over 3,000 cultural anthropological surveys) but many do not. The evidence is not conclusive.

      Choosing to believe the theory is a bit of wishful thinking on my part: I would rather believe that humans are naturally more cooperative than competetive. It makes building a just society easier.

      But we need to know the truth, and work from there. Maybe we are naturally violent bastards. If so, we need to know so that we can compensate, not so that we can justify violence. If we aren't, though, assuming we are can become a self fulfilling prophecy as suspicion breeds hate, leading to violence.

      On a tangent, modern economic research is overurning the conventional wisdom of 'selfish actors.' Seems experimental data shows that most humans value ideals of fairness over pure personal gain, especially in situations where percieved unfairness can be punished. This supports my hypothesis that humans are natural cooperators, not naturally selfish competitors.

      --
      - None can love freedom heartily, but good men; the rest love not freedom, but license. -- John Milton
    56. Re: What I don't understand by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      > cultures evolve to the technological level
      > that they need to survive.

      Well, I wonder how we will survive a fall back
      to the Ice Age climatology: no nice flat climate
      but a climate that varies on the order of O(10)
      years, such that predictable agriculture becomes
      impossible.

    57. Re:What I don't understand by spun · · Score: 1

      Ridiculous. You assume that the threat of violence is the only thing forcing humans into larger coalition groups and sharing of knowledge. Violent groups tend to be insular, not trusting the knowledge of outsiders. Groups that cooperate rather than compete won't be wasting resources on useless conflict, and will have more resources due to sharing of innovation. This is enough of a reason to cooperate, without the threat of violence. Humans have evolved a natural drive to cooperate, because those that tried to compete weren't as efficient as those that cooperated.

      Are you implying that the only reason people contribute to, say, open source, is the threat of violence?

      --
      - None can love freedom heartily, but good men; the rest love not freedom, but license. -- John Milton
    58. Re:What I don't understand by Ravenscall · · Score: 1

      Well, by nature, we are pack animals. Similar behaivior has been seen in dolphins, and even dolphin on dolphin violence, with bulls from one pod raiding another for breeding stock.

      --
      You say you want a revolution....
    59. Re:What I don't understand by spun · · Score: 1

      Nature is wonderful, in that if you want to excuse any kind of human behavior as 'natural' you can easily find an example of it in nature. More useful would be to look at our nearest realtives, the chimpanzees, gorillas, and bonobos. Chimps in nature can be very heirarchal and violent. Gorillas are less violent, but still heirarchal, while bonobos are non-violent and non-heirarchal.

      --
      - None can love freedom heartily, but good men; the rest love not freedom, but license. -- John Milton
    60. Re:What I don't understand by Ravenscall · · Score: 1

      I was going with dolphins because they seem to be a bit more on par with us on the intelligence scale than Chimpanzees, etc.

      --
      You say you want a revolution....
    61. Re:What I don't understand by spun · · Score: 1

      Maybe, maybe not, but the primates I mentioned certainly have an intelligence that is more similar to human's than dolphins, considering the fact that dolphins have sonar, no arms and legs, and live in water. Also, primate social structure is more like ours than the dolphin's social structure is. Dolphins remind me more of lions in their pod structure.

      Besides, almost all animals are being severly stressed by human actions, who's to say if any animal alive today is behaving naturally or acting out pathological stress response patterns.

      --
      - None can love freedom heartily, but good men; the rest love not freedom, but license. -- John Milton
  28. God has evolved by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    God is not dead. It has evolved from animal to human.

    No big surprise here, God was created by humans (for emotional support)

  29. Very important discovery... by kramer2718 · · Score: 4, Interesting

    I think that the most important part of this discovery, though is that it pretty much rules out the descent of homo sapiens from homo neanderathalensis. I know that there was a lot of evidence of that, anyway, but this seems pretty conclusive.

    Still, I think that more interesting discoveries would be from 5 million years ogo. In particular, I would like to see remains of the ancestors of Australopithecenes and Ardopithecenes which would support the evolution of modern chimpanzees and modern humans from a common ancestor.

    1. Re:Very important discovery... by hydrofilic · · Score: 0

      In particular, I would like to see remains of the ancestors of Australopithecenes and Ardopithecenes which would support the evolution of modern chimpanzees and modern humans from a common ancestor.

      Ultimately all living things, mushrooms, you, me, the pine tree, etc, have a common ancestor, if you go back far enough.

    2. Re:Very important discovery... by White+Manual · · Score: 1
      From the ScienceDaily article:
      "Howell added that these anatomically modern humans pre-date most neanderthals, and therefore could not have descended from them"
      Shouldn't that be "all neanderthals" in the premise, to logically reach such conclusion?
    3. Re:Very important discovery... by kramer2718 · · Score: 1

      Notice that we are not proving theorems here and can not "logically" reach any conclusions.

      It is really pretty much impossible to "prove" anything about the past. In fact it is impossible to prove anything without making assumptions.

      But to answer your question from an anthropological point of view. First of all, IANAA, but I would guess that if these homo sapiens fossils pre-date most neanderthals, that is probably enough to establish the conclusion based on mutation and evolution rates of mammals. Again, IANAA, so anyone who knows more, please speak up!

    4. Re:Very important discovery... by kramer2718 · · Score: 1

      Sure. I believe that and you believe that, but tell that to my girlfriend who says "Ewww. Chimps fling poo. I could not possibly be related to one of those things."

      But seriously, I'm not sure that that has been established. For the first billion years or so, most of the life on this planet was bacterial. Note that bacteria are much simpler than eukariotic life. They consist of a loop of DNA surounded by cytoplasm containing RNA and all of the other chemicals that make life possible. I think that it's fairly likely that if one bacterium can evolve from the primodial ooze on its own, another should be able to also.

    5. Re:Very important discovery... by White+Manual · · Score: 1

      I don't know if you would agree that the sentence in question could be paraphrased to "Since these particular homo sapiens were concurrent in time with some neanderthals, the posibility of the homo sapiens descending from the neanderthal is ruled out"?

      Actually this is the way in which the discovery has been explained on tv in my country. I suspected a faulty translation at first but, after reading the article, I am not so sure.

      To me, the posibility of the homo sapiens descending from the early neanderthal is still there.

    6. Re:Very important discovery... by hesiod · · Score: 1

      > Since these particular homo sapiens were concurrent in time with some neanderthals, the posibility of the homo sapiens descending from the neanderthal is ruled out

      I believe that it is ruled out because evolution is so slow. Can you name an existing species that was directly descended from another species that is still alive in the same area? Granted, I've never researched anything like this, but my guess is that you probably can't.

    7. Re:Very important discovery... by hesiod · · Score: 1

      > I think that it's fairly likely that if one bacterium can evolve from the primodial ooze on its own, another should be able to also.

      That's a very interesting point. Maybe multiple starting points explains why we have such diversity of living things, such as plants, mammals, amphibians, insects, etc.

    8. Re:Very important discovery... by White+Manual · · Score: 1

      Your question reminds me of an old joke from stand-up comedian Miguel Gila: "When I was born, my mother couldn't be present at the delivery because she was out of town."

      Can you see the absurd in "species B descending directly from species A without coexisting for at least some time"?

      Also, if it were true that evolution forces are always slow, wouldn't that coexistence time be more often long than short?

    9. Re:Very important discovery... by dubStylee · · Score: 1

      "Can you name an existing species that was directly descended from another species that is still alive in the same area?"

      What do you imagine happens, species A is alive then the first mutation of B occurs and immediately all members of species A dies off and only B is left? There *always* has to be an overlap period in which members of the two related groups co-occur.

    10. Re:Very important discovery... by hesiod · · Score: 1

      > There *always* has to be an overlap period in which members of the two related groups co-occur.

      Yes, but it is a slow transition. In-between, the species would be a mix between the two, it doesn't just suddenly happen that Species A has a new offspring that is a different species. It takes a long time -- I suppose a better way to look at it is that there really aren't two species, but one changes into the other -- therefore they can't coexist (except on a personal level, ie 1 animal is both species [sorta]).

  30. *sigh* by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    There used to be a time when slashdot was on top of the news. I read about this on quite a few other sites over 2 days ago. Perhaps its time to get some other news posters eh?

    1. Re:*sigh* by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      well it could be that you and the other whining twits never submitted the story.

  31. OOG by VAXGeek · · Score: 1

    OOG the Open Source caveman LIVES!!!

    --
    this sig limit is too small to put anything good h
  32. Re:How come there are modern and non modern Human? by $alex_n42 · · Score: 1

    No, apes are descendants of humans. We just haven't discovered the joy of flinging poo, yet.
    (alright alright, SOME of us haven't discovered yet)

  33. is it really the oldest? by Arctic+Dragon · · Score: 1, Funny
    The fossilized skulls of two adults and one child discovered in the Afar region of eastern Ethiopia have been dated at 160,000 years, making them the oldest known fossils of modern humans


    I always thought this was the oldest fossil.
  34. But do they predate Lawyers? by Nom+du+Keyboard · · Score: 1, Funny

    I wonder if they predate lawyers. Would tell us which way evolution has been going ever since.

    --
    "It's the height of ridiculousness to say for those 9 lines you get hundreds of millions."
    1. Re:But do they predate Lawyers? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I no speak English. You are saying these beings came before lawyers o you are saying that they were predators who evolved into lawyers?

    2. Re:But do they predate Lawyers? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      But I though Prostitution was the oldest job.
      Same, same I guess.

    3. Re:But do they predate Lawyers? by hesiod · · Score: 1

      You may no speak-a-de-english, but that's still funny.

  35. Oldest whatnow? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    What was it, like 6 baud? Ah crap, I guess I'm the only one who thought that said "Oldest Modem Found".

  36. God part of the brain by DigiShaman · · Score: 2, Interesting

    So you must be one of those proponents to "God part of the brain" theory, yes? I understand it's purpose is for the cognitive mind to not break down psychologically to the mear thought of death. After all, just seeing something dead will for a moment give us a bit of fear due to self reflection to just how mortal we really are. In the end though, it doesn't matter. I believe there is a God. Something/s had to come from nothing. And that my friend, is a miracle unto itself.

    --
    Life is not for the lazy.
    1. Re:God part of the brain by Negatyfus · · Score: 2, Interesting

      Why? Can you fathom "nothing?" Can you imagine there being "nothing" and then there being "something?" Of course you can't, but that doesn't mean there is a God. It certainly doesn't mean there is a God in the Christian sense. On the other hand, it doesn't mean anything neither. It's just that so many people get their dick stepped on whenever you talk about anything involving evolution, religion or whatever. Sure, fanatic believers on such theories and beliefs can't go both ways; either the one is true, or the other. So there you have it. You take one thing for granted and stick with it for the life of you, even when it's getting very unlikely that it is you that's right. It's nature of man, according to Socrates.

    2. Re:God part of the brain by DigiShaman · · Score: 2

      No, I can't fathom "nothing" all by itself. Because that would contridict all the matter and energy all around us...including me writing this post. Basically you can't obverve "nothing" without "something".

      --
      Life is not for the lazy.
    3. Re:God part of the brain by ajs318 · · Score: 1

      What makes you believe that there is "something" ? The universe is huuuuuuge, right? And you know what most of it is made up of? Empty space! Even what you think of as "solid" matter, really is mostly empty space. An atom has a tiny nucleus, vast swathes of empty space and then some even tinier electrons whizzing about it. A molecule has football pitches of empty space between atoms.

      Now, when nobody is saying anything on the telephone, or the radio or any means of reproducing sound electronically, you hear static -- white noise. Scientists reckon it is due to the way molecules vibrate, occasionally an electron jumps off and inadvertently sets up a current flow ..... and who am I to argue {I have got a dusty B. Eng. Electrical and Electronic Engineering somewhere at the bottom of a drawer} ..... Anyway, the point is that this noise is largely unavoidable. We'd like it not to be there and we've got used to blanking it out. {Side note; amusing things happen if you have a decent amplifier and someone used to cheapo tranny kit tries to set the volume for "comfortable listening" using the background noise level as a guide ;-) }

      My "controversial" new theory is that the matter in the universe does not, in fact, exist at all; it is just a kind of "solid static" in a universe that ideally would consist of nothing but empty space.

      --
      Je fume. Tu fumes. Nous fûmes!
    4. Re:God part of the brain by Negatyfus · · Score: 1

      You don't understand. If there is nothing, there is no static. You are not there, so that you cannot see that there is nothing. Nothing exists to describe the nothingness, because nothing is there. Not even empty space. Empty space is something. Yes, even vaccuum. If there is absolutely nothing, there is no time. It is not even possible to think about something like time, since, well, there is nothing that can think, even if there was something to think about. Nothing is absolutely, positively NOTHING! NOTHING!!

    5. Re:God part of the brain by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Insightful

      ....nod, ....smile, ....slowwwly back away...

    6. Re:God part of the brain by notque · · Score: 1

      Can you fathom "nothing?"

      yes.

      Can you imagine there being "nothing" and then there being "something?

      Sure.

      Of course you can't, but that doesn't mean there is a God.

      There is a god. You are discussing it.

      It certainly doesn't mean there is a God in the Christian sense.

      You just brought it up again. Obvious proof that indeed, god must exist. It's sure talked about a lot. It's a part of our lexicon. You must involve god at some point in your life, and thus it is real.

      It's just that so many people get their dick stepped on

      Ouch.

      It's nature of man, according to Socrates.

      You quoted it, so I know it's true.

      --
      http://use.perl.org
    7. Re:God part of the brain by Negatyfus · · Score: 2, Insightful

      You must define God before you can make this claim. I cannot say that I have a million dollars, just because I am thinking of it right now and telling you about it, then expect to have it. It does exist, naturally, but do dragons? Yes, in my imagination. Fantasy dragons do exist and have a very clear definition. If you mean God in the Christian sense, then no. He doesn't exist simply because I was discussing it. It doesn't work that way as far as I know.

    8. Re:God part of the brain by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Wait, so what's there again? Something?

    9. Re:God part of the brain by notque · · Score: 1

      You must define God before you can make this claim.

      I can make any claims I wish without definition. (God is this sense is a word/concept which is so engrained in not only our culture, but every person within our culture, that to deny it's existence is futile. We can talk about going into the future without it being true. I don't say there is no going into the future, just that we cannot do it. God exists in the hearts of men and women, which affects them, which affects me.

      I.E. God exists.

      I cannot say that I have a million dollars

      You just did.

      just because I am thinking of it right now and telling you about it,

      Having a million dollars, and the plausability of a million dollars are different concepts.

      Ever seen a million dollars up close? Does it exist?

      It does exist, naturally, but do dragons? Yes, in my imagination.

      And that is all that matters. If you beileve that dragons matter, you interact in life with the concept that dragons matter, then no matter what I say or do, your life is affected by dragons.

      If I wish to work in the numberset, which is your life, and manipulate with you, I would need to follow a logic, Dragons exist.

      It matters not if the tree fell, only if I heard it.

      Fantasy dragons do exist and have a very clear definition.

      I looked up "Fantasy Dragons" and didn't find anything.

      If you mean God in the Christian sense, then no.

      You keep saying in the Christian sense. You have Christianity issues. I don't even relate god to Christianity, so stop it.

      He doesn't exist simply because I was discussing it.

      What's this he stuff? It exists, simply because you were discussing it. That is a true statement, because I said it, and I am smart.

      It doesn't work that way as far as I know.

      Then you know wrong.

      --
      http://use.perl.org
    10. Re:God part of the brain by hawkestein · · Score: 1

      There is a god. You are discussing it.

      Ah, God exists as a concept, certainly! But we can make a distinction between the set of concepts and the set of things. The interesting question is: does God exist as an element of the set of things?

      --
      -- Will quantum computers run imaginary-time operating systems?
    11. Re:God part of the brain by notque · · Score: 1

      Ah, God exists as a concept, certainly! But we can make a distinction between the set of concepts and the set of things. The interesting question is: does God exist as an element of the set of things?

      But my question is, what is the purpose of the seperation?

      What does it matter, in essence?

      If you beileve there is a God, then I must use that as a pretense in which to discuss things. I must accept that what I say will be put through a filter, and thus I will relent to your assertions if only to communicate in a mutually beneficial way.

      The only reason to make a definitive remark is to state truth. There is no way that any of us can state truth amongst a matter base on pure speculation.

      And thus, aside from our own egotistical goals of understanding things in which we do not have enough information to make solid judgements on, there is no point. Maybe coffeeshop (slashdot) banter.

      The large problem I have with athiests (of which I am one) is there inability to accept the situations which they are presented, and their fierce need to change everyone elses opinion based on conclusions they've come across.

      --
      http://use.perl.org
    12. Re:God part of the brain by notque · · Score: 1

      And if I could use there correctly, then maybe I could expect anyone to take my statements seriously.

      I really should use the preview button.

      --
      http://use.perl.org
    13. Re:God part of the brain by Negatyfus · · Score: 1

      Interesting reply. I have no time to read it thoughtfully and reply in lenght at this time, but I enjoyed it nonetheless. I agree in part.

    14. Re:God part of the brain by pompousjerk · · Score: 1
      It exists, simply because you were discussing it.

      What if I had breasts (as in, mammary glands)?
      What if I hadn't dropped the lightbulb?

      I suggest you look up words like subjunctive and counterfactual.

    15. Re:God part of the brain by pompousjerk · · Score: 1

      The large problem I have with athiests (of which I am one)

      Might help to spell it atheist, but, okay, sure.

      If you beileve there is a God, then I must use that as a pretense in which to discuss things. I must accept that what I say will be put through a filter, and thus I will relent to your assertions if only to communicate in a mutually beneficial way.

      No, you need not.

      Like I mentioned above, there are things like the subjunctive mood; this, I am quoting from The Merriam-Webster Online dictionary:

      of, relating to, or constituting a verb form or set of verb forms that represents a denoted act or state not as fact but as contingent or possible or viewed emotionally

      What does this mean? Quite simply, it's a what-if thing; saying something that doesn't reflect reality at all, although it could.

      There is also the counterfactual, e.g., "What if I hadn't crashed my car two years ago?" deliberately contradicts reality; something that can't be changed.

      Also, try on this little bit of logic:

      Suppose X.
      We know Y to be true.
      If Y is true X cannot be true.
      Therefore, not-X.

      And in none of that did you have to say, "I believe X is true."

    16. Re:God part of the brain by notque · · Score: 1

      The large problem I have with athiests (of which I am one)

      ----

      Might help to spell it atheist, but, okay, sure.


      Because as well all know, incorrect spelling means that my points are invalid. Bravo!

      If you beileve there is a God, then I must use that as a pretense in which to discuss things. I must accept that what I say will be put through a filter, and thus I will relent to your assertions if only to communicate in a mutually beneficial way.

      ----

      No, you need not.

      Like I mentioned above, there are things like the subjunctive mood; this, I am quoting from The Merriam-Webster Online dictionary:

      "of, relating to, or constituting a verb form or set of verb forms that represents a denoted act or state not as fact but as contingent or possible or viewed emotionally"

      What does this mean?


      Enlighten me.

      Quite simply, it's a what-if thing; saying something that doesn't reflect reality at all, although it could.

      I understand the point you are making, but I disagree with the point you center on. You are attempting to define what I am saying with a word, stating the definition, and then using that as a connectivity to create an incorrect statement.

      It's subjunctive. Subjunctive means this. Therefore it cannot mean what you say it means for it is subjunctive.

      It cannot be subjunctive by truth, because subjunctive states opinion. The opinion that something does, or does not reflect reality.

      There is also the counterfactual, e.g., "What if I hadn't crashed my car two years ago?" deliberately contradicts reality; something that can't be changed.

      Correct.

      What is your point in regards to what I said?

      That it's counterfactual to go along with something that you do not beileve to interact with someone under the guise you do for a mutual benefit? That was the basis of the statement you quoted. I at least see where you are coming from with your attempt to discredit by semantics in regards to subjunctive, but you're going nowhere with counterfactual. At least add some connectivity to your statements.

      Unless you were just using the dictionary for fun.

      The meaning of a string in some language, as opposed to syntax which describes how symbols may be combined independent of their meaning.

      Fun!

      Also, try on this little bit of logic:

      I'm kind of tall, have it in my size?

      Suppose X.
      We know Y to be true.
      If Y is true X cannot be true.
      Therefore, not-X.

      And in none of that did you have to say, "I believe X is true."


      Correct. My argument was if X was true. It was that it is irrelevant if X is true if there is no proof of the truth of X.

      Sorry if I sound rude, I just don't get how you use evidence to support a countpoint for a statement that I never endorsed.

      In none of what I said did I say X is true, because the very nature of my arguement was that it doesn't matter. At least not to me.

      --
      http://use.perl.org
    17. Re:God part of the brain by smithmc · · Score: 1

      Something/s had to come from nothing.

      Who said it did? What definitive proof is there that there was ever a time at which there literally was nothing?

      --
      Downmodding is the refuge of the weak. Don't downmod, make a better argument!
    18. Re:God part of the brain by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Look buddy, just because YOU (or any human) cannot explain 'something' coming out of 'nothing', doesn't mean it didn't happen. Attributing it to a 'god' figure is pure superstition.

    19. Re:God part of the brain by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      Of course you can't, but that doesn't mean there is a God.

      There is a god. You are discussing it.

      That's fucking bullshit. We're not discussing god. We're discussing the possibility that god exists. There is no presumption for the existance of a god figure to do this.

      You don't need to believe in little green men or tooth fairies or santa claus to discuss them, do you?

    20. Re:God part of the brain by Omestes · · Score: 1

      You mean "the TERM God exists", not god as a spiritual entity, unless every term is in some way a spiritual entity. And if thats what you mean, please lay off the Plato, great, the platonic ideals are a nice symbolic device, but don't map into reality.

      GOD as GOD is a judeochristian construct. There is no other way to look at the capitolized God, other than in a judeochristian context, if it was a lowercase god, then it would be generic. So to talk of God is to talk of either Christianity, Islam, or Judeaism. Might be different if you were talking about Oden, Thor, Zues, Dionysus, Ra, Nut, Mithras, whatnot, but being that you use the term "God" there is no other options.

      I really hate to "dis" that silly modern philosophical trend of post-modernism, but it is subjectivistic bullshit. I can think of anything I want, and it does not make it REAL. I'm pondering you dead, are you dead? No. I might think you are, but that does not make it so. I don't know of the existance of 99.9% of the worlds population, but they exist. Reality is not INTERNAL, it is EXTERNAL. Sure, you process reality internally, but that does not perfeclty mirror the real world, and to assert that it does you relive medeival magic (as above so below, blah, it's toads all the way down).

      Just because I stop beleiving in the bullet careening towards my skull, doesn't make it go away.

      --
      A patriot must always be ready to defend his country against his government. -edward abbey
    21. Re:God part of the brain by pompousjerk · · Score: 1

      Because as well all know, incorrect spelling means that my points are invalid. Bravo!

      Er, that wasn't ad hominem. That was pointing out a spelling mistake.

      It's subjunctive. Subjunctive means this. Therefore it cannot mean what you say it means for it is subjunctive.

      Close.

      It's subjunctive. Subjunctive means this. Therefore, it's possible to discuss something without believing it is true, or that it exists anywhere but the imagination.

      What is your point in regards to what I said?

      You said:

      There is a god. You are discussing it.

      Which is false, because of the subjunctive. You can talk about an idea without making it real.

      Blue flamingos.

      That it's counterfactual to go along with something that you do not beileve to interact with someone under the guise you do for a mutual benefit? That was the basis of the statement you quoted.

      You're right. I messed up. I didn't mean to use that quote. :S

      I at least see where you are coming from with your attempt to discredit by semantics in regards to subjunctive, but you're going nowhere with counterfactual.

      At least add some connectivity to your statements.

      Insult.

      Unless you were just using the dictionary for fun.

      Insult.

      Also, try on this little bit of logic:

      I'm kind of tall, have it in my size?


      Okay, now you're just being a jerk.

    22. Re:God part of the brain by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      in that case, i imagine notque drinks from the toilet, pukes through his nose, and sucks big green donkey ****.

    23. Re:God part of the brain by jephthah · · Score: 1

      > Sure, fanatic believers on such theories and beliefs can't go both ways; either the one is true, or the other.

      why must one of them be true? i vote for neither.

    24. Re:God part of the brain by hawkestein · · Score: 1

      But my question is, what is the purpose of the seperation [between concepts and things]?

      What does it matter, in essence?


      Ummm... well, I'm a materialist, so I'm really only interested in substantial *things*, which are the only entities that can somehow affect other *things*. (On the other hand, concepts can not in any way have an effect on *things*). The world, in my view, is therefore a collection of things.

      Now, I don't think being a materialist makes me a priori an athiest. If God can have an effect on the world, then he must be a *thing* (and if you believe that God created the universe, then he can certainly have an effect on things!). But we can't really get anywhere simply by discussing God as a concept.

      The only reason to make a definitive remark is to state truth

      I don't mean to be facetious, but what do you mean by *truth*? There are statements about mathematical truths (13 is prime), and statements about the world (Washington D.C. is the capital of the US). Which do you mean? Both?

      --
      -- Will quantum computers run imaginary-time operating systems?
    25. Re:God part of the brain by Negatyfus · · Score: 1

      Well, if you vote neither this doesn't apply. If you pick one, however, the other can't be true. You can't believe that Jesus Christ is the saviour and then not accept him as such and still expect to be saved-- IF you believe in Christianity. If Christianity is true, a lot of other stuff must be untrue and it's very hard not to judge is you consider that.

    26. Re:God part of the brain by notque · · Score: 1

      Okay, now you're just being a jerk.

      A pompous one at that.

      (Ironically, I'm adding you as a friend.)

      --
      http://use.perl.org
  37. Re:Any relation? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    "Thats the exact same joke. Its just a damn popularity contest with you kids." - Superintendant Chalmers.

  38. Why did I misread this as... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    ... oldest modern human food?

    1. Re:Why did I misread this as... by JebusIsLord · · Score: 1

      ...a twinkie. What else could be preserved that long?

      --
      Jeremy
    2. Re:Why did I misread this as... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      What else could be preserved that long?

      A pickled Neanderthal brain?

  39. Re:How come there are modern and non modern Human? by JebusIsLord · · Score: 4, Informative

    Uhh, Homo erectus was not the first hominid. Not by a long shot. Try Ardipithecus ramadis at 5 to 8 million years ago, or arguably something earlier. A. ramadis is most likely bipedal however, which is typically the criteria for early hominids.

    If you were refering to the first in the Homo genus, that would be (in my opinion) Homo habilis or possibly Homo heidelburgensis. These were characterized by the earliest confirmed tool use (Homo habilis means "handy man"). These fellas were around for several hundred thousand years before H. erectus and H. ergaster.

    Sorry about the lack of italicised names, I'm lazy.

    --
    Jeremy
  40. Atlantis by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Informative

    Maybe myths of Atlantis and other advanced civilizations are true? For some reason they fell. Maybe this happens in cycles where humans get advanced and then nearly destroy themselves in the process. Then its back to the stone age. Your thoughts?

  41. Re:How come there are modern and non modern Human? by JebusIsLord · · Score: 2, Interesting

    Oh, and to answer your half-question. There were also "archaic Homo sapiens" as a sort of intermediate between what we call anatomically modern Homo sapiens and H. erectus. Not a separate species, because they simply transitioned into us.

    --
    Jeremy
  42. In other paleontological news... by Goonie · · Score: 4, Informative
    It seems we were almost wiped out 70,000 years ago, according to this BBC News article.

    IANA geneticist, but I wonder whether some rapid evolution occurred amongst these small subgroups that gave modern humans the advantage over the Neanderthals?

    --

    Any sufficiently advanced technology is indistinguishable from a rigged demo
    --Andy Finkel (J. Klass?)
    1. Re:In other paleontological news... by drinkypoo · · Score: 1

      I think it's more likely that some group (or groups) of people who lived in conditions most similar to what the climate suddenly did managed to adapt. Of course if the climate suddenly (globally) changed then you could be saved by the above, or by migration, or by your local climate actually getting better, or any combination of the above. Not to mention happening to have a really good bloodline that lent itself to intelligence, or a really good tradition that lent itself to being successful, whether it be motivational or some skill handed down from individual to individual. After all, anything that allows one to survive and procreate is a positive trait, even if it ain't genetic.

      --
      "You're right," Fisheye says. "I should have set it on 'whip' or 'chop.'"
    2. Re:In other paleontological news... by ites · · Score: 1
      This is a very important point. I believe that modern humans came through this near-extinction episode with a different social structure, and that was what allowed us to compete with and beat the Neanderthals. We are basically, since that time, very closely related, almost clones. Neanderthals (like most other species) had much more variation, and so could not relate to each other on any large scale. Whereas Neanderthals could do very well in small groups, modern post-disaster humans could work in huge groups, hundreds or thousands, and basically our success as a species stems from this.

      That, anyhow, is my interpretation of this episode and the way we organize today.

      --
      Sig for sale or rent. One previous user. Inquire within.
    3. Re:In other paleontological news... by cobbaut · · Score: 1

      I read some more interesting facts in paper newspaper ;-)

      According to my newspaper (www.standaard.be) today, humans around 150.000 years ago started out as a small group of 700 people. For a couple of centuries this number stayed around 700, until a group migrated to the north (Sahara). That Sahara group had around 2700 individuals.

      So we all descent from those 700 people...interesting.

      --
      European Linux user, living in Antwerp
    4. Re:In other paleontological news... by richie2000 · · Score: 1
      So we all descent from those 700 people...interesting.

      Yeah, that's the standard crew complement of a Class 2 exploration spacecraft from the Alpha Centauri planetary society.

      --
      Money for nothing, pix for free
    5. Re:In other paleontological news... by Mr+Bubble · · Score: 1
      RE: "IANA geneticist, but I wonder whether some rapid evolution occurred amongst these small subgroups that gave modern humans the advantage over the Neanderthals?"

      My understanding is that our branch of evolution succeeded while the neanderthals failed because we were nomadic while they tended to try and stay in one area. The idea is that out cultural evolution made us more fit to survive and prosper be cause we became more able to deal with change.

      --
      "The world is a construct of forceful imagination. Those who don't know walk around in the reailties of those who do"
    6. Re:In other paleontological news... by Ugmo · · Score: 1
      I wonder whether some rapid evolution occurred amongst these small subgroups

      I think you are right.

      I heard that they dug up a visor next to one 70,000 year old body and another had an adamantine reinforced skeleton and extra retractable claws.

    7. Re:In other paleontological news... by hesiod · · Score: 1

      > another had an adamantine reinforced skeleton and extra retractable claws.

      extra claws... as opposed to just the regular adamantium claws that come standard with most people?

  43. Am I the only one here that... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    ...Sees the term "oldest modern" shown in the headline as an oxymoron?

    1. Re:Am I the only one here that... by pajamacore · · Score: 1

      It isn't really an oxymoron when you think about it. Most anthropologists consider anything that falls in the genus Homo a human. This includes H. habilis, H. rudolfensis, H. erectus [ergaster], H. heidelbergensis, H. neanderthalensis, and H. sapiens.

      H. sapiens and its subspecifics are obviously modern humans. The newly named specimen H. s. idaltu is modern and our subspecies, H. s. sapiens, the subspecies that spread all over the globe, is what we call an anatomically modern human.

    2. Re:Am I the only one here that... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      H. s. sapiens, the subspecies that spread all over the globe, is what we call an anatomically modern human.

      Wouldn't that be H. s. caucasius?

  44. Re:How come there are modern and non modern Human? by pyrote · · Score: 2, Funny

    We just haven't discovered the joy of flinging poo, yet.

    obviously missed a few presidential debates.

    --
    THE WORLD IS GOING TO END!!!! eventually.
  45. Linuxx?? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    How long before someone gets Linux running on one of those??

  46. Re:How come there are modern and non modern Human? by Jareeedo · · Score: 2, Informative

    Whoops. Good call. You are absolutely correct. I wasn't thinking. Homo rudolfensis is around then too. I wouldn't consider Homo heidelburgensis to be the first hominid, only because it came about so close to the evolutionary division which eventually resulted in Homo neandethalensis on one end, and Homo sapiens on the other. This subject is somewhat debatable, but the point is that they were after Austrolopithecus Garhi.

  47. patents by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    the humans had to wait for the copyrights and silly patents to expire. the Monkey Patenters Ass. of Ages Ago (MPAAA) had a way to stifle inovation.

  48. Cool video clip by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Short 4 minute astronomy video clip here.. Homepage here. They deal with the Biblical material within an old universe model.

    1. Re:Cool video clip by SystematicPsycho · · Score: 1

      Sounds like argument from design

      --
      Analytic & algebraic topology of locally Euclidean meterization of infinitely differentiable Riemmanian manifold
    2. Re:Cool video clip by eclectic4 · · Score: 1

      Not to mention, there is mounting evidence that complex protiens rain down on Earth (and of course, everywhere else) from space via ) all the time. So, from my seat, this "video" strengthens that view, not the creationist view.

      --

      "The greatest obstacle to discovery is not ignorance - it is the illusion of knowledge." - Daniel Boorstin
  49. Tough on Kansas by surprise_audit · · Score: 1
    "The human fossils from Herto are near the top of a well-calibrated succession of African fossils," White said. "This is clear fossil evidence that our species arose through evolution."

    That's really going to irritate everyone in Kansas that fought to have evolutionary theories suppressed...

    1. Re:Tough on Kansas by spakka · · Score: 2, Interesting

      That's really going to irritate everyone in Kansas that fought to have evolutionary theories suppressed...

      The case for evolution is already overwhelming to anyone who cares about evidence. The others consider it a virtue to believe what they believe in spite of the evidence. These discoveries probably won't change anybody's mind.
  50. Mod me down-- I'm an idiot :) by jkauzlar · · Score: 1

    Ok, I'm thinking of Java man, from the island of Java. I must have learned this from grade school and I thought that was a silly name to call a primitive man, because it was coffee, right? So it must have stuck in my head that way, that primates came from Java, and I assumed they must have migrated to Africa and elsewhere. So apparently these primitive men can build ships and navigate waters too...

  51. Burial? Maybe not. by w3svc_animal · · Score: 1

    Was he buried? Or did they find him where he fell?

    Scavengers would have made off with the rest of his body and left the skull (due to the lack of meat).

    --

    Error encountered in IAWebSig.clsSig.Create: Last Procedure: sPrc_Ins_tblSig

  52. Er... this is beginning to become a moral issue by ericvids · · Score: 3, Interesting

    You would be annoyed if someone digged up your grave. It's disrespectful considering our current social norms.

    But imagine a few years into the future, and someone digs up your corpse, and people there think it's ok.

    Hmmm.

    --
    Pet peeve: Profane people propagating perfunctory pedantry.
    1. Re:Er... this is beginning to become a moral issue by Jareeedo · · Score: 1

      At what point in time does it become ok to dig up remains in the name of science- in order to learn more about our past? How many years? Hundreds? thousands?

    2. Re:Er... this is beginning to become a moral issue by pajamacore · · Score: 1

      It tends to only become a moral issue when there's a possibility that the remains in question might be associated with an extant group of people or tribe.

      This is much of the reason that Judge Jelderks ruled in favour of the scientists rather than native tribes in the Kennewick case--there was no sufficient evidence to support any cultural affiliation.

    3. Re:Er... this is beginning to become a moral issue by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 1, Interesting

      In the middle ages in europe, bodies were routinely exhumed after lying in the ground enough for the flesh to rot away, then their skeletons were stacked in the "charnel house"

      This was considered "good enough" for christians at the time, and solved the terrible graveyard overcrowding problems europe was having due to increasing population.

      This pracitice continued until near-modern times(mentioned in Shakespeare, for example.)

    4. Re:Er... this is beginning to become a moral issue by Keola · · Score: 1

      I don't know how annoyed I would be; being dead and all ;)

    5. Re:Er... this is beginning to become a moral issue by ramzak2k · · Score: 2, Funny

      you own copyrights to your body for around 25 years. after that it becomes public domain.

      --

      Siggy Say, Siggy Do
    6. Re:Er... this is beginning to become a moral issue by TheMidget · · Score: 1
      you own copyrights to your body for around 25 years. after that it becomes public domain.

      ... unless you're a mouse or a duck. In that case, congress will extend the term as soon as the 25 years approach too close for comfort.

    7. Re:Er... this is beginning to become a moral issue by praedor · · Score: 1

      I don't give a rat-f*ck what you do with my corpse. I'll be DEAD and couldn't possibly give a damn one way or another. I wouldn't be laying there in my body screaming silently into the nothingness of death, "Leave my stinking, rotting, putrid corpse alone! I'm still using it!"


      In any case, since I will be cremated, there wont be much corpse/remains to study...although, if the norm was for people to be cremated, I would opt to NOT be cremated to help ensure that future paleontologists and archaeologists have some remains to study.

      --
      In Bushworld, they struggle to keep church and state separate in Iraq as they increasingly merge the two in America.
    8. Re:Er... this is beginning to become a moral issue by mikecarrmikecarr · · Score: 1

      You would be annoyed if someone digged up your grave.

      As annoyed as I could be considering I'd be freaking DEAD!

      --

      ID-10-T is a way of life

  53. There always something that dont fit by Albinoman · · Score: 1

    Like why the hell would God put the genetic code for teeth in birds? Was God lazy? Was it an accident?

    The "evolution vs. creation" section on that side explains the many creatures as things he did during the initial seven "days" (by the way, it says God is in his seventh day now, and is therefore resting, so quit bothering him, omnipotent beings get tired too, dont they?). So if a creature is found that didnt exist 160,000 years ago what other way can the vague first chapter of Genesis be stretched?

    1. Re:There always something that dont fit by stanmann · · Score: 2, Interesting

      Well, Um didn't need to spend all that money, could have just asked a chicken farmer. Newly hatched chicks have from 1-3 teeth. they use them to help break through the shell.

      --
      Food not Bombs is a nice platitude but it breaks down when you notice that the Bombees are usually well fed
    2. Re:There always something that dont fit by SL33Z3 · · Score: 1

      As any coder will tell you, it becomes habit to cut and paste existing code. I'm sure when God was coding the world, this was just a failure to omit parts He wasn't going to use.

      For real thought. You base your entire belief on the idea of TEETH in birds?

      --
      SL33ZE - Artificial Intelligence is No Match For Natural Stupidity -
    3. Re:There always something that dont fit by notque · · Score: 1

      You base your entire belief on the idea of TEETH in birds?

      Is that any different than baseing your entire belief system on a book?

      --
      http://use.perl.org
    4. Re:There always something that dont fit by hesiod · · Score: 1

      > Is that any different than baseing your entire belief system on a book?

      hehe, touche'

  54. Christian ape disputes man descended from him by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Read more here.

  55. Passing the buck by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    I used to get very annoyed with the "life must have come from comets or outer space" brigade. I felt that they had decided that "creation" on Earth wasn't feasible through natural terrestrial processes, so rather than accepting divine creation, they looked for life from a dirty snowball after millions of years in hard vaccum with no heat.

    I have since realised that referring to God uses the same dodgy logic, as unless you step outside time, you then have to ask where God came from, and within what context does He exist?

    Despite all this, I am a committed Christian and I know where I'm going when I die. The above question will be on my list of things to ask, that is probably part of the Pearly Gates FAQ...

    1. Re:Passing the buck by hydrofilic · · Score: 0

      When you are dead you are dead and that is all that there is to it.
      There is no heaven and there is no afterlife. There is no God.
      Humanity is the result of a slow and gradual process of evolution from simpler life forms.
      Just deal with it.

    2. Re:Passing the buck by notque · · Score: 1

      When you are dead you are dead and that is all that there is to it.
      There is no heaven and there is no afterlife. There is no God.
      Humanity is the result of a slow and gradual process of evolution from simpler life forms.
      Just deal with it.


      Thank you for explaining that. For a second I thought there was another possibility to the one you just stated, but nope. There in black and white.

      --
      http://use.perl.org
    3. Re:Passing the buck by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Ok, fine, there is an afterlife. You're going to heaven. But only if you're good, and righteous, and just. You feel better about dying now?

  56. So what about Petralona? by prodromos · · Score: 3, Informative

    "Homo sapiens (archaic) Discovered by villagers at Petralona in Greece in 1960. Estimated age is 250,000-500,000 years. It could alternatively be considered to be a late Homo erectus, and also has some Neandertal characteristics. The brain size is 1220 cc, high for erectus but low for sapiens, and the face is large with particularly wide jaws." Actually, the age was originally determined to be much older, 700,000-800,000 years, but there seems to be an organised program to discredit those findings, presumeably because it turns all the established theories on the origins of man on their head. However, even the most conservative estimates are still much older than the ethiopian finds.

    1. Re:So what about Petralona? by cfan · · Score: 1

      I have searched on google. It seems that the reminders of Petralona belongs to a species called Homo heidelbergensis, a species between an homo erectus and an H. neanderthalensis, but for sure NOT a modern human (an homo sapiens sapiens).

    2. Re:So what about Petralona? by hesiod · · Score: 1

      > an homo sapiens sapiens

      WAAAAY Off-topic, but I've wondered why some people use "an" instead of "a" when using a noun that starts with an "h." The H makes a sound, so why say "an?"

    3. Re:So what about Petralona? by Jogar+the+Barbarian · · Score: 1

      > I've wondered why some people use "an" instead of "a" when using a noun that starts with an "h." The H makes a sound, so why say "an?"

      Saying "an homo sapiens" is incorrect. AFAIK it only applies to the word "historic".

      When you're talking fast it's easier to say "annistoric event" than "a historic event". It's especially noticeable on news programs.

      --
      3. Profit!
      2. ???
      1. On Soviet Slashdot, a Beowulf cluster of alien Natalie Portman overlords welcomes YOU!
  57. Re:How come there are modern and non modern Human? by pajamacore · · Score: 2, Informative

    Actually, the term hominid has become somewhat broader in recent years. Hominid is a derivative of Hominidae, the family once used to describe humans and their extinct relatives but now inclusive to the non-human great apes as well--both gorilla species, both orang-utan species, chimpanzees, and bonobos.

    Humans and their relatives tend to be grouped in the subfamily Homininae these days. Thats where the term "hominin" comes in to play.

  58. Re:And the Creationists said... by hashwolf · · Score: 2

    "The Herto skulls were not found with other bones from the rest of the bodies"

    Too bad they can't count the ribs.

    --
    - "They misunderestimated me."
  59. And here's the proof by janaagaard · · Score: 2, Funny

    Over the years those who had the power (kings and churches) sought to enhance and secure their position by keeping the people dumb and manipulating them by altering passages from the bible in their favour.

    [9F18] "... and the Lord said, Whack ye all the serpents which crawl on their bellies and thy town will be a beacon unto others. So you see Lisa, even God himself endorses whacking day."

  60. Re:How come there are modern and non modern Human? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    And some archaic traits persist to today - see madonna's gappy smile!

  61. Self contradictory by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    If they "don't even know anymore what parts were actually in the original scripture" they how do they know they have changed?

    Do you have any proof of your assertion that people changed the Scriptures to fit their needs, and those changes have not been caught and reversed?

    Or is this more of the overly simplistic logic that starts by assuming the Bible is false and then procedes to construct some alternative scenario?

    1. Re:Self contradictory by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You obviously are ignorant of Biblical criticism. For starters, there are various versions of the "Old Testament" which survive, and which contradict each other. The Greek Septaugint was translated into Greek fairly early and is different from the later "official" Hebrew version, which was reedited centuries later to change the meanings of many passages to weed out "messianism" which might have cast a favorable light on Christianity and messianicly-inclined Jewish splinter movements.

      Likewise the "New Testament" went through a period of modification. There were older sources which were cobbled together to form the various Gospels; these in turn had text inserted to prove later theological points. This can be seen in the language of the text; you have multiple accounts of the same incidents which contradict each other; or places where the language changes abruptly where an interpolated text was inserted. There is a reason why we don't have any surviving texts from early versions of the various books of the Bible: they were destroyed when the religous authorities agreed on the final "official" versions.

      Discoveries like the Dead Sea Scrolls, or the Nag Hammadi Library, show that these sources were once in a state of flux. Their "fixed, official, permanent" status only came later, when these books were canonized. Before they were canonized, no one felt odd about altering them to "correct" an incorrect or incomplete passage that had obviously come about by satanic ingenuity.

      This is a huge subject which is totally ignored by the "pious" believers who don't want to know too much about how their religions evolved. You can read up on it yourself, if you want to understand how Biblical scholars came to these conclusions about how these texts evolved, but I sense that you won't.

    2. Re:Self contradictory by Negatyfus · · Score: 2, Informative

      Most certainly.

      You can most vividly see the changes and omissions made by comparing several translations of the bible. Some will have extra verses and some verses will be missing. Some are obvious and reasonable, others are disputable. But certainly there have been made other changes over the course of history, for which you will have to do some deeper research. If you'd like, I can dig it up.

      And don't get me started on the inconsistencies that are evident in the bible, neither. They are numerous as are the various explanations possible to harmonize these discrepancies.

    3. Re:Self contradictory by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You are just regurgitating what you have heard others say. Like I said, would you care to actually show something or are you happy to just sit back and make false claims?

      I am well versed from conservative theological considerations to the Jesus Seminar and am willing to defend anything put before me.

    4. Re:Self contradictory by Becquerel · · Score: 4, Insightful

      Or is this more of the overly simplistic logic that starts by assuming the Bible is false and then proceeds to construct some alternative scenario?

      How do we know anything is true, we must and do on a daily basis make assumptions about the world around us from what we observe. I see a table, i walk up to it, touch it, i know it's a table. We use simple logic to assume things are right or wrong, true or false. If i am told something is true i do not believe it unless i can verify it for myself.

      As such, i believe there is a book called the bible with many secular variations. Having read some of it, I know it contains some fascinating insights into human nature and accounts of historic events. But my wider knowledge allows me to put it in picture with the history of the roman occupation of the area, simultaneous Chinese philosophy, Mayan empires, etc. And my knowledge of human nature, culture, behaviour; to come to the simple logical conclusion that it is most likely that Jesus existed and was immensely insightful into human nature and further evolved a system of living by which humanity and all it's individuals could prosper. However i see no good evidence for divine intervention.

      What your parents tell you to believe in ... isn't always right

      --
      My spelling isn't bad, I'm evolving the language
    5. Re: Self contradictory by Black+Parrot · · Score: 2, Insightful


      > If they "don't even know anymore what parts were actually in the original scripture" they how do they know they have changed?

      History.

      > Do you have any proof of your assertion that people changed the Scriptures to fit their needs, and those changes have not been caught and reversed?

      How about the fact that even today not all sects agree on the same canon, let alone on the translation and interpretation of its contents?

      --
      Sheesh, evil *and* a jerk. -- Jade
    6. Re: Self contradictory by NixterAg · · Score: 1

      How about the fact that even today not all sects agree on the same canon, let alone on the translation and interpretation of its contents?

      Now it appears you are talking about two different things. The assertion, at least as far as I understood it, was that some group was actually manipulating the source material, such as the Dead Sea Scrolls. This idea is obviously false.

      People will always manipulate scripture to try and support their own desires. The scripture even predicts that very thing. But the scripture itself (speaking in terms of the source material) has not changed.

    7. Re: Self contradictory by Black+Parrot · · Score: 1


      > Now it appears you are talking about two different things. The assertion, at least as far as I understood it, was that some group was actually manipulating the source material, such as the Dead Sea Scrolls.

      I wouldn't know about that.

      > This idea is obviously false.

      It's obviously not obvious to everyone participating in this thread.

      > People will always manipulate scripture to try and support their own desires. The scripture even predicts that very thing. But the scripture itself (speaking in terms of the source material) has not changed.

      Didn't read my history link, did you.

      --
      Sheesh, evil *and* a jerk. -- Jade
    8. Re: Self contradictory by NixterAg · · Score: 1

      Didn't read my history [wikipedia.org] link, did you.

      We seem to be referring to do different things. There's no question that the arrangement of the Bible has changed. It's well documented and most certainly admitted by any reputable biblical scholar. In fact, anyone suggesting otherwise is flat wrong, without question, and should be removed from your list of critical thinkers.

      However, the contents of the scripture, the individual lines of scripture and the message that the scripture conveys, is remarkably true to the original. You should check out Geisler's book "Christian Apologetics" for some interesting information on the reliability of scripture and for a comparison of how well the original manuscripts stack up against the commonly accepted translations of today.

    9. Re: Self contradictory by Black+Parrot · · Score: 2, Insightful


      > We seem to be referring to do different things.

      Yes, to a big extent we are talking past each other.

      > There's no question that the arrangement of the Bible has changed. It's well documented and most certainly admitted by any reputable biblical scholar. In fact, anyone suggesting otherwise is flat wrong, without question, and should be removed from your list of critical thinkers.

      > However, the contents of the scripture, the individual lines of scripture and the message that the scripture conveys, is remarkably true to the original. You should check out Geisler's book "Christian Apologetics" for some interesting information on the reliability of scripture and for a comparison of how well the original manuscripts stack up against the commonly accepted translations of today.

      I don't have any problem with that; I just think it's odd that you're focusing on the fact that the sentences haven't changed within such-and-such a book, but whole books have been swapped in and out of the canon.

      What ultimately matters is that the canon was established by men by a combination of formal and informal negotiations that lasted over centuries. Is it really so hard to see that the end result represents "a change", and that the process was subject to the pressures of special interest groups?

      E.g., some wanted to exclude St. John's Revelation, not because they didn't think it was inspired, but because they observed that it was a keystone of competing traditions.

      --
      Sheesh, evil *and* a jerk. -- Jade
    10. Re:Self contradictory by Christianfreak · · Score: 1

      Simply not true.

      The "Authorized King James Version" published by the Mormon church has omissions and additions made in the last 150 years

      The "Bible" that the Jehovah's Witnesses use has significant differences where they took things out or added them.

      Neither of these should properly be called Bibles as they were obviously changed to fit with their beliefs.

      There are about 6 major translations in use by protestant churches I can guarentee that at the very least those 6 agree with each other verse for verse.

      The Catholic Church also has a translation, the only difference between it and the Bibles in use by protestant churches is the Catholic Bible includes several books called the "Apocrapha", these books don't disagree with the rest of the Bible.

      Translations today agree because they are not translated from each other or even from past modern translations. All new translations are done from anchient manuscripts and as I pointed out in earlier post there are over 10,000 sources and most Bibles document the small differences between them.

    11. Re: Self contradictory by Tikiman · · Score: 1
      What ultimately matters is that the canon was established by men by a combination of formal and informal negotiations that lasted over centuries. Is it really so hard to see that the end result represents "a change", and that the process was subject to the pressures of special interest groups?

      There is an inherent paradox in the notion of "Canon" - Christians should believe that God is the highest authority. But how can this be, when the books that are supposedly authoritative have been "established" by a council of men? Doesn't that men that, in the end, the men are really the ultimate authorities? The theological answer is that Christians *don't* believe they were established by men - they were established by God. Chapter 1, Sec. 4 of the Westminster Confession of Faith talks about this:

      The authority of the Holy Scripture, for which it ought to be believed, and obeyed, dependeth not upon the testimony of any man, or Church; but wholly upon God (who is truth itself) the author thereof: and therefore it is to be received, because it is the Word of God.

      The essential paradox remains no matter how it was decided - if it was a world-wide democratic vote, or one guy in is basement, you still have this problem. Therefore, the only way to believe in both God and canon is to believe that God establised it, we obey it because God established it, and that the natural consequence is that the we know the canon is "correct" because He is sovereign and supervised the process. For example, the book of Hebrews was probably included because they thought it was written by Paul. Nowadays, Heberews is attributed to an anonymous author, but it's role in the lives of Christians is invaluable.

      This is one of those issues where outsiders scratch their heads and go "huh?". But if you were God, what would you do? Dropping a book out of the sky really isn't the way to go - that breeds far more skepticism than the process used in the current NT canon. Besides, the NT is a message, not a rulebook (OT is different story). It seems like the method chosen of finding the most accurate gospels and pulling the best of Paul's letters was a good way to go, IMO.

    12. Re:Self contradictory by Surak · · Score: 1

      The Catholic Church also has a translation, the only difference between it and the Bibles in use by protestant churches is the Catholic Bible includes several books called the "Apocrapha", these books don't disagree with the rest of the Bible.

      They don't? That's humorous at best. Why do you think they are called 'The Apocrypha'? What do you think is the origin of the term apocryphal? Of course they contradict the rest of the Bible and specific beliefs held by the Protestants.

      And the Catholic Church doesn't call it 'The Apocrypha' any longer, they use the term 'Septuagint' (from the fact that there are *7* books.)

    13. Re:Self contradictory by Negatyfus · · Score: 1
      There are about 6 major translations in use by protestant churches I can guarentee that at the very least those 6 agree with each other verse for verse.
      Verse for verse you say? Are you sure? Does that include inconsistencies in describes scenes about, for example, the number of people that where present there? How certain things happened? Stuff that apparantly cannot happen, but happen anyway?

      Because I could give you examples that you could check out for your own.
    14. Re: Self contradictory by Black+Parrot · · Score: 1


      > And the Catholic Church doesn't call it 'The Apocrypha' any longer, they use the term 'Septuagint' (from the fact that there are *7* books.)

      Ah, no. "Apocrypha" just means "hidden away". ["apo" = "away", "kryph-" related to "crypto"]

      "Septuagint" refers to the tradition that the Jewish scriptures were translated into Greek by 70 scribes, way back when.

      --
      Sheesh, evil *and* a jerk. -- Jade
    15. Re:Self contradictory by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      While your post sounds very open to all points of view, you are calling Jesus either a liar or a lunatic. He clearly, many times in the NT, directly claims to be fully God. The possible choices you have are that He is Liar, Lunatic, or Lord. Your claim that he was just a really insightful good teacher is, well, just plain wrong.

    16. Re:Self contradictory by EnderWiggnz · · Score: 1

      the apocrypha is totally different than the extra books you are talking about.

      what you are referring to is the "deuternomical" books. These were considerred secondary by jewish tradition, and were removed by Martin Luther in his translation.

      The apocrypha - are tottally different, and do disagree with much of the rest of the bible... like the bible according to timothy.

      --
      ... hi bingo ...
    17. Re:Self contradictory by hesiod · · Score: 1

      > He clearly, many times in the NT, directly claims to be fully God.

      Is it possible he never claimed that? Maybe all his followers were putting words into his mouth. Which appears to be what you are doing to the parent poster -- he didn't call Jesus a liar or a lunatic.

    18. Re:Self contradictory by Abcd1234 · · Score: 1

      Your claim that he was just a really insightful good teacher is, well, just plain wrong.

      Why can't you be an insightful, yet insane, good teacher? A good teacher with a god complex, if you will? :)

    19. Re:Self contradictory by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      To meet your criteria, He would have been lying but insightful. Are you sure you wish to call your saviour a liar?

    20. Re:Self contradictory by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Why was He put to death? Answer: the religious system rulers (against whom He had the strongest condemnation, calling them vipers etc.) had him executed by the Romans for heresy - He was executed because He said He is God.

      So no, to answer your question, it's not possible that He was misquoted. He was killed because of His claims.

    21. Re:Self contradictory by junkgrep · · Score: 1

      You've been reading too much C.S. Lewis. This is a classic, and now textbook, example of a false dilemna. Real people are complex, and real people have all sorts of complex mixes of nutty and insightful. Newton was a genius: he was also nuts when it came to the arcane. People can have all sort of crazy beliefs and also be insightful. People tell the truth a little, people lie a little, and some people are a little bit nutty (the vast majority of people with mental illness aren't "insane" but are quite high functioning, just with some odd beliefs: just look up schitzotypal personality disorder). In fact, you don't even take your own argument seriously because if you did you'd have to accept the claims of mystics and phrophets in a whole host of other religions who made extreme claims about who and what they were, but also made insightful comments.

    22. Re:Self contradictory by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      What do the Romans care if some Jew claims to be the Messaih? (sp) Answer: They didn't, the Jewish religious leaders cared. Yet, the punishment for blaphemy is stoning, not crucifixtion.

      So, the only reason he would have been crucified is for rebellion against the state of Rome (not claiming to be the son of God).

      So, in all likelyhood, Jesus (if he even existed) was the leader of a jewish rebellious sect.

      There ya go...discuss...

    23. Re:Self contradictory by Sven+The+Space+Monke · · Score: 1
      That's one thing I never understood. By assuming that by "God", he was referring to a "Great Creator", that leaves the Liar, Lunatic, or Lord possibilities. What if by "God", He was thinking more along the lines of Nietzsche's Ubermensch? By that, I mean someone who, either via nature/nurture (that's an argument I want to avoid...) was "elevated" above the rest of us? Maybe he had mental disciplines and insight so advanced that those around him started to see him as devine in nature. Maybe he was just a great philosopher and pacifist who just didn't explain himself well enough to those around him. I'm not saying that I believe one way or the other, I'm just saying that the Bible does not validate itself.

      BTW, that holds true for ALL documents. Just because Tom Clancy puts "Based on a true story" at the beginning of a book doesn't mean it actually happend (I don't know if he ever has, I don't read Tom Clancy). Again, I'm not saying the Bible is complete fiction, but you can't take a book at face value just because said book tells the reader that everything in it is true.

      --
      A man who can't pronouce "nuclear arsenal" shouldn't have one -sig ends here.
    24. Re:Self contradictory by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1

      No, the apocrypha (or deuterocanonicals as we call them) do not disagree with the rest of the Bible. In fact, these books were included in the Septuagint, the Greek version of the Bible used by the Evangelists.

    25. Re:Self contradictory by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Or more accurately, they don't disagree with the rest of the Bible moreso than the rest of the Bible disagrees with itself.

    26. Re:Self contradictory by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Read the four gospel accounts and you will see the politics. It was a feast day, Pontius Pilate did not have all the troops he wanted to have, and he was afraid of a riot. So he gave in to the religious rulers, although he quite insightfully declared that he found no fault in Him. He even gave the crowd a choice of who to release, Barrabas (convicted murderer) or Jesus. The crowd (rounded up by the Pharisees) asked for Barrabas.

      If as you assert the Romans had put Him to death for treason, there never would have been an assertion by the governor that He was faultless. And He never would have been given as an option to the crowd for release.

    27. Re:Self contradictory by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      If you read first the old testament, with which everyone around Him was intimately familiar, you will see "which God" He was referring to. As in John 8:58 "Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I AM." this was a very direct claim to be the same God as the God of the Old Testament, which is why John 8:59 follows on to it: "Then took they up stones to cast at him: but Jesus hid himself, and went out of the temple, going through the midst of them, and so passed by." His contemporaries certainly understood that He was claiming to be God (see Exodus 3:14).

      And yes you can't take every book and accept self-claims about it, that's obvious. But you can test the bible, many people have. Check out Sir Walter Scott and his drive to disprove the bible.

    28. Re:Self contradictory by Abcd1234 · · Score: 1

      First, he ain't my saviour. :) I just like playing Devil's Advocate (if you'll pardon the pun ;). Second, sure, why not?

      Jesus: You should all be nice to one another, 'cuz we're all human beings and thus we are brothers.

      Some Guy: Yeah, you're totally right, Jesus. Great idea!

      Jesus: Yeah, and then you have to be saved through me, because you are a sinner in the eyes of almight God. Otherwise you will burn in the depths of hell for eternity!

      Some Guy: Err... okay... *backs away slowly*

      See, insightful, but a nut all the same. :)

    29. Re:Self contradictory by EnderWiggnz · · Score: 1

      again, you are using the wrong term.

      the apocrypha refers to books outright rejected from the (roman catholic) canon, because they are not considerred to be divinely inspired.

      in the roman catholic tradition, the books you refer to are called the deuternomical texts. these deuteronomical texts. these are ... off hand.. ruth, maccabes, baruch... and one or two others. They are still included in the Catholic bible, but not in an "protestant" version, as Martin Luther mis-interpreted the jewish tradition of considering them to be secondary to the pentateuch.

      the preceding wellesly link considers the books i'm talking about to be apocrypha, because the welleslyan church is an offshoot of luther.

      i'm guessing that you are educated in a protestant tradition, which is why we are arguing semantics here, however i feel it is necessary to draw a line between deuteronomic texts such as baruch and ruth, and apocrypha such as Enoch and the Gospel according to Thomas.

      if you read the deuteronomic texts that i refer to, and compare them to some of the apocrypha i have listed, you will notice that the apocrypha most definitely does not fit in with the rest of the bible, and the deuteronomics aree a nice companion and in agreement, though not necessary.

      seriously, read the gospel of thomas and tell me that its congruent with the rest of the christian bible.

      --
      ... hi bingo ...
    30. Re: Self contradictory by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Uh, sure, but that is not the only meaning of the word.

      AÂpocÂryÂpha ( P ) Pronunciation Key (-pkr-f)
      n. (used with a sing. or pl. verb)

      1. The biblical books included in the Vulgate and accepted in the Roman Catholic and Orthodox canon but considered noncanonical by Protestants because they are not part of the Hebrew Scriptures. See table at Bible.
      2. Various early Christian writings proposed as additions to the New Testament but rejected by the major canons.
      3. apocrypha Writings or statements of questionable authorship or authenticity.

    31. Re:Self contradictory by Pall+Agamemnides · · Score: 1

      Sorry, my mistake, I got confused from reading some of the parent posts and thought you were talking about what Protestants call the apocrypha, and we Catholics call the deuterocanonical books, and saying that those were "totally different" from the rest of the Bible and disagreed with it.

      However, I think you're wrong about the term "deuteronomical". As I understand it, that's an adjective that describes something having to do with the book of Deuteronomy. The correct term should be, as I had said earlier, "deuterocanonical".

      Anyway, sorry about the misunderstanding!

    32. Re:Self contradictory by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      You assert that by having a belief in the Lord Jesus Christ that I'd
      have to accept the claims of mystics and phrophets in a whole host of other religions who made extreme claims about who and what they were, but also made insightful comments
      That's a catchy assertion you make, but not a logical one. Jesus was not simply "a great moral teacher"; as we have tragically seen repeatedly in history, it takes just one hit of immorality for a person in a moral leadership position to be disgraced. Jesus never lied, never sinned. Why? Because He was the perfect sacrifice who could and did atone for our sins vicariously.
    33. Re:Self contradictory by junkgrep · · Score: 1

      Now, suddenly, the Bible is innerrant (something that would require precisely what you are trying to prove)? Beg any more questions today, or are you done with your half-assed apologetics?

      Regardless, I don't consider Jesus to be a particularly outstanding or original moral teacher. Name me one moral idea of his that was original, or even articulated better than previous thinkers.

      And don't even try to sell me on the suspiciously pagan voodoo sacrifice trope wherein the blood of an innocent gives magical cleansing power to the unclean. God briefly murders himself to "pay back "a debt that he is demanding... apparently from himself. That sure makes a lot of sense! Are we going to toss the virgin Mary into a volcano next to appease the great Volcano gods?

    34. Re:Self contradictory by Alphtoo · · Score: 1

      If you have not already done so, there is a great book called "Rabbi Jesus" that you might care to read. It changed my way of thinking about a few things, which is damned hard to do (I'm a stubborn old fart). And as for the 160,000-year-old skulls, I don't know about you folks but I feel a lot younger already!

    35. Re:Self contradictory by Tikiman · · Score: 1
      Regardless, I don't consider Jesus to be a particularly outstanding or original moral teacher. Name me one moral idea of his that was original, or even articulated better than previous thinkers.

      Let me pull up what I think summarizes the "ideas" of Jesus the best, Matt 22:34-40:

      Hearing that Jesus had silenced the Sadducees, the Pharisees got together. One of them, an expert in the law, tested him with this question: "Teacher, which is the greatest commandment in the Law?" Jesus replied: " 'Love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your mind.' This is the first and greatest commandment. And the second is like it: 'Love your neighbor as yourself.' All the Law and the Prophets hang on these two commandments."

      Jesus himself admits these ideas aren't "new" - they go back all the way to Genesis if you look. These laws are merely a summary of the OT laws (and "Law", the Pentateuch), with "your neighbor" now meaning "all people" as opposed to simply Isreal. Let's face it, given how selfish people are, if everyone "loved their neighbor as yourself", there would be world peace! World peace in five words. So how was this idea better articulated by someone else?

    36. Re:Self contradictory by junkgrep · · Score: 1

      Uh: by virtually every other major moral philosopher in previous history (Socrates, for one)? By many different Eastern mystics and philosophers? I mean, the idea that if we treat each other well, the world will be great, is not exactly an earth-shattering insight.

    37. Re:Self contradictory by Tikiman · · Score: 1
      Uh: by virtually every other major moral philosopher in previous history (Socrates, for one)? By many different Eastern mystics and philosophers? I mean, the idea that if we treat each other well, the world will be great, is not exactly an earth-shattering insight.

      Quotes? Examples? Who are these Eastern mystics that said your salvation was dependent on your heart, not on what you do? That obedience to God was fulfilled in loving your fellow man? Ancient religions were full of "salvation by works" notions... but what Jesus talked about was entirely new - so new, in fact, the Jewish authorites felt the need to have him crucified.

  62. Does that mean... by Balinares · · Score: 4, Funny

    ... that we're really the VHS of evolution, and killed out Betamax while it was still young? :)

    --

    -- B.
    This sig does in fact not have the property it claims not to have.
    1. Re:Does that mean... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Perhaps, perhaps not. Discoveries of what appear to be hybridised skeletons in Northern Europe suggest at least some Hom.Sap. racial differences may come from limited Hom.Neanderthalensis interbreeding.

  63. How does such a clueless post get to +5? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    There are small differences in manuscripts, but nothing that changes the theological doctrin of Christianity or Judaism.

    Of course, since you say "Christianity is WRONG!!!!" all the Slashbots will give you their +1 mod points. If somebody where to say something equally stupid about science, they would get modded into the floor as a troll.

    Slashdot moderators, get your heads out of your asses, your hands off your dicks, and think before you mindless moderate up bad comments.

    1. Re:How does such a clueless post get to +5? by Negatyfus · · Score: 1

      Nowhere did I say that Christianity is wrong. I do, however, strongly oppose the idea that the bible is inerrant. Whether the Christian doctrine is true is not the question here. You are free to decide that for yourself, based on all the facts and beliefs you hold dear.

    2. Re:How does such a clueless post get to +5? by notque · · Score: 0, Troll

      Christianity is wrong. I do, however, strongly oppose the idea that the bible is inerrant.

      Christianity is not wrong, you monster.

      --
      http://use.perl.org
    3. Re:How does such a clueless post get to +5? by Negatyfus · · Score: 1

      You think that by misquoting me you can achieve something?

    4. Re:How does such a clueless post get to +5? by notque · · Score: 0, Troll

      You (...) achieve something.

      Thank you. To what aims, I do not know, but it is nice to be appreciated.

      --
      http://use.perl.org
    5. Re:How does such a clueless post get to +5? by Negatyfus · · Score: 1

      Really, you are getting nowhere with this. I'm not even paying attention, see?

    6. Re:How does such a clueless post get to +5? by Fjord · · Score: 1

      you are getting [...] attention

      Well, maybe you should just ignore him.

      --
      -no broken link
  64. Sydney Morning Herald by Cackmobile · · Score: 1

    I read there yesterday that there was no evidence that these early humans buried their dead and that the marks may have been from canabalism.

    --
    -- Karma Karma Karma Karma, Karma Chameleon - Boy George
  65. Modern? by jandersen · · Score: 1

    How can anything that old still be modern? Haven't people got any taste? ;-)

  66. This find has 'flawed' written all over it. by Dolemite_the_Wiz · · Score: 3, Interesting

    I'd like to wait for the full report to be released but I've got some thoughts on this article.

    There's too many conclusions drived from too little facts. How can a conclusion be derived about wether they used plants if only the Volcanic Layers and fossils were tested for age? There's no mention of testing or even finding any sort of plant material. Geology researchers (about 98% of them anyways) are not going to know or care about testing for this sort of thing.

    Furthermore, there's no mention of attempting to re-create the environment that the fossils were found in based on geological tests, it seems that theories were based only on the fossils found. (At least that's what I get from the wording of the article). For all we know these fossils were moved from a different area/region/continent. The fossils were found bashed in. Was the bashing the result of being prey for a different, un-discovered predator?

    Also, did anyone catch, near the end of the article, the following quote:

    In this single study area, the team has found fossils dating from the present to more than 6 million years ago, painting a clear picture of human evolution from ape-like ancestors to present-day humans.

    Is it me or is there something REALLY wrong in the fact that such a wide age range of fossils were found IN ONE STUDY AREA? I refuse to accept the fact that ALL of the fossils came from ONE area without some sort of assistance in reaching their final destination.

    I did my U-Grad work in Archaeology and didn't pursue it because of these 'play in my sandbox or else' reserchers and their theories that never hold water.

    Archeaologists/anthropologists seem to make their fame on either discoveries and their theories with the connection to human evolution or disproving said theories in research journals.

    Dolemite
    ________________________

    --
    Save the World! Use a Quote!
    1. Re:This find has 'flawed' written all over it. by pitboss8881 · · Score: 1

      First of all, how big was the study area? Secondly, you have to consider how many "people" probably lived or died there in 6 million years. Third, the wording "paint a clear picture" is in itself unclear and subjective. Fourth, you could find one fossil from a relatively recent time frame and another from 6 million years ago and claim to have "fossils" that prove whatever you want them to prove. In short, there aren't too many conclusions, rather it seems you are reading too much into the scientific BS.

    2. Re:This find has 'flawed' written all over it. by whimdot · · Score: 1

      What struck me was that the dating was done using layers of volcanic minerals. These folk may well have been ritually killed or buried, my question: How deep were they buried?

    3. Re: This find has 'flawed' written all over it. by Black+Parrot · · Score: 3, Informative


      > What struck me was that the dating was done using layers of volcanic minerals. These folk may well have been ritually killed or buried, my question: How deep were they buried?

      Competent archaeologists can see where holes have been dug, and report them regularly in their reports. When you dig a hole, put something in it, and fill it back up, the dirt doesn't go back in the same way it came out. So the lowest undisturbed layer above a grave gives a terminus ante quem for the date of the grave.

      --
      Sheesh, evil *and* a jerk. -- Jade
    4. Re:This find has 'flawed' written all over it. by Hideyoshi · · Score: 1

      Perhaps you might try reading the actual articles in
      http://www.nature.com
      Nature magazine before going into "Sceptical Scientist" [TM] mode?

    5. Re: This find has 'flawed' written all over it. by Black+Parrot · · Score: 1


      > There's too many conclusions drived from too little facts. How can a conclusion be derived about wether they used plants if only the Volcanic Layers and fossils were tested for age? There's no mention of testing or even finding any sort of plant material.

      Presumably that's because the link is a press release rather than a scientific publication. If you want more details you'll have to track down the June 12 Nature article.

      > Geology researchers (about 98% of them anyways) are not going to know or care about testing for this sort of thing.

      People get real interested in dating that sort of thing when they get a phone call from paleontologists working in the field.

      > Is it me or is there something REALLY wrong in the fact that such a wide age range of fossils were found IN ONE STUDY AREA? I refuse to accept the fact that ALL of the fossils came from ONE area without some sort of assistance in reaching their final destination.

      And the basis for your denial is...?

      Face it, "people" have been living in Afar for a long time.

      --
      Sheesh, evil *and* a jerk. -- Jade
    6. Re:This find has 'flawed' written all over it. by TheMidget · · Score: 1
      There's too many conclusions drived from too little facts.

      Drived? As in "drivel is a conclusion drived from too little fact?"

    7. Re: This find has 'flawed' written all over it. by whimdot · · Score: 1

      As I understood it at least one of the skulls was found on the surface, so they could only verify the layer underneath and that it was not above the next dateable layer.

    8. Re: This find has 'flawed' written all over it. by Black+Parrot · · Score: 2, Informative


      > As I understood it at least one of the skulls was found on the surface, so they could only verify the layer underneath and that it was not above the next dateable layer.

      Yes, some of the material was exposed or partly exposed. However, as best I can tell from the press release, not all of it was completely exposed. For the stuff that's still completely or partially buried you can look to see whether the matrix is part of the natural layering or part of a backfill such as a burial pit. Hopefully the Nature article will have drawings or photos that give more details for the current find.

      AFAIK you cannot use the layers to date something that is completely exposed.

      --
      Sheesh, evil *and* a jerk. -- Jade
    9. Re:This find has 'flawed' written all over it. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Is it me or is there something REALLY wrong in the fact that such a wide age range of fossils were found IN ONE STUDY AREA?

      Well, if you had bothered to read the linked articles, you would know that they were found in the same area but hundreds of feet deeper.

    10. Re:This find has 'flawed' written all over it. by Dolemite_the_Wiz · · Score: 1

      My point exactly.

      Dolemite
      __________________

      --
      Save the World! Use a Quote!
  67. Why? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    A troll? It's a perfectly valid question.

    Anyhow.. First off, realize that the Old Testament (cue ominous music) ain't Christian/Catholic. It was, of course, pillaged from the Jews (aka, the Israelites).

    Second, realize that the entirety of 'The Bible' has been mistranslated and purposefully modified for centuries now.

    Add one, add two - and here's a theory. Genesis explains the creation of the Israelites (aka, the Jews, the Chosen of God, blah-di-blah). Not man itself.

    As for myself, I don't believe that any living being was created by some random deity sneezing on a pile of dirt. :p

  68. Mod parent up! by $alex_n42 · · Score: 1

    You are correct! I'm sorry I didn't finish reading before I posted the link(showes me to RTFA first!). I am aware of talk.origins website and lurk their newsgroup regularly.

    (OTOH, they did have a nice physical comparison table, that was my original motivation)

    Thank you for correcting me.

    1. Re:Mod parent up! by stanmann · · Score: 0, Flamebait

      And the talk.origins people are of course known for their intellectual honesty and complete lack of bias.

      --
      Food not Bombs is a nice platitude but it breaks down when you notice that the Bombees are usually well fed
    2. Re:Mod parent up! by Airline_Sickness_Bag · · Score: 1

      Most of the people who wrote articles on the talk.origins website are scientists working in fields related to evolution and use information from sources such as peer reviewed journals. So far, I have seen little (if any) criticism of the information on the website from other scientists working in the fields related to evolution.

      It should be noted that most major Christian denominations have no problems with evolution, including the Catholic Church, Methodists, etc.,
      and teach evolution in their biology classes at their colleges - I should know, my wife is a biologist with a degree from a Methodist college.

      -asb

  69. The first Homo? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    All that handling of other people's stones, probably...

  70. Here's one for the creationists. by ajs318 · · Score: 2, Funny

    The Bible says God created Man first, then took out one of his ribs to make Woman. Jehovah's Witnesses and probably some other groups still claim this as evidence for the biblical creation myth, even though there have been found enough women with 12 ribs and men with 14 to dilute the gender - rib count correlation.

    What's to say that God didn't actually create Woman first, then cut off her willy to make Man?

    --
    Je fume. Tu fumes. Nous fûmes!
    1. Re:Here's one for the creationists. by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Apparently God didn't give you a brain. So I guess anything is now possible.

    2. Re:Here's one for the creationists. by Tyreth · · Score: 2, Informative

      This is just an urban myth. The truth is that part of a rib can be taken off and it will grow back if done right. Surgeons do this sometimes when they need some bone for an operation.

      It is not expected for men to be missing a rib. Besides, it's rubbish anyway - just because Adam was missing a rib that didn't change his DNA, so his children should have still had the same number as he originally had. That's like saying if I lose my arm my children will also have only one arm.

  71. off topic? by djupedal · · Score: 1

    ...seems the joke went way over someone's head, eh? :)

    The establishment encourages humor...sorry if it's a bit too sophisticated. Next time I'll dummy it down....not!

  72. Brain-Body Mass Ratio by handy_vandal · · Score: 1

    ... neanderthals ... are supposed to have had more brain mass than humans did/do.

    The ratio of brain mass to body mass determines intelligence, not brain mass alone.

    Women have smaller brains than men, but that doesn't make them less smart: their bodies are proportionately smaller, so the brain/body mass ratio remains constant. (See The Dragons of Eden by Carl Sagan for more details.)

    --
    -kgj
  73. Artist's Illustration is Misleading by Hideyoshi · · Score: 5, Interesting

    The artist's illustration in the Berkeley article (also used on the cover of the current edition of Nature) is misleading, in as much as it gives the figure kinky hair and thick lips, making for a more "African" look than is likely to have been the case.

    The truth of the matter is that the earliest men almost certainly would have had straight hair, not curly or kinky but straight, and thin lips, just like most Europeans and Asians today. The wild-type for hair in primates is straight, and all of the great apes conform to that type. Similarly, no ape has thick lips, and our closest living relatives are pretty much lipless. Given these facts, why would any reasonable person expect the "first" men to look like modern day Africans?

    Of course, it is logically impossible to rule out that our species evolved to gain the features of modern-day Africans only to lose them once again, but this flies in the face of both probability and Occam's razor - it is extremely unlikely that a feature, once lost, can then be regained down the line, simultaneously around all of the world outside Africa.

    One mistake people tend to make is to assume that because our species originated in Africa, modern day Africans are somehow "closer" to what we must have originally been like, but this is nonsense. Africans are just as far removed from the original homo sapiens populations as any other population groups, so they've had just as much time to diverge from the original type. Africans, like any other populations, haven't stood still in evolutionary terms, contrary to the misleading notion that this article illustration propagates.

    1. Re:Artist's Illustration is Misleading by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Is this even the same species? It was my understanding that Homo sapiens caucasius and Homo sapiens niger were two disctinct subspecies of Homo sapiens...

    2. Re:Artist's Illustration is Misleading by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      various articles I've read have suggested that 'Caucasians' developed around 160,000 years ago, 'Mongiloids' around 100,000 years ago and 'negroids' around 70,000 years ago. Making 'blacks' the youngest race on the planet.

    3. Re:Artist's Illustration is Misleading by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 2, Informative

      Genetic profiling shows that there is only one species of man, no sub races. Two puppies born of the same Bitch and Dog have more genetic differences than two humans selected anywhere on the planet. One troup of Chimps has more genetic diversity than all of Humanity.

      We have so little genetic variation that it is amazing that we have survived. The only animal that I'm aware of that has less genetic variation than us are Cheeta's, and they are on the verge of going extinct because of it.

    4. Re:Artist's Illustration is Misleading by Ugmo · · Score: 1

      Your comments do make sense but recent DNA studies show that Australian Aboriginies and the inhabitants of Papua New Guinea are descended from an 40,000 year old coastal migration from Africa. Europeans, Central Asians and American Indians are descended from a later migration.
      Australian Aboriginies and Papua New Gunineans (sp?) have kinky hair and other features similiar to Africans.

      In favor of your position, the skulls found are 110,000 years older than the migration I am talking about. That leaves a lot of time for changes to have taken place. The skulls are also mentioned to have a narrow nose while the people I refer to tend to have wide noses. They all live in warm climates and so would tend to independently develop adaptions to the climate similiar to Africans but if this last is the case then should not these skulls also have adaptions suitable to Africa?

      Things like nasal openings, cheekbones shape, chin and forehead shapes can be measured directly from skulls. Lips and hair will always be speculative.

    5. Re:Artist's Illustration is Misleading by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      maybe it is becuase africans are not humans, but an inferior species? all you have to do is look at every african culture to tell that.

  74. maybe when they become FOSSILIZED? (n/t) by TwistedGreen · · Score: 1

    ...

  75. "the 'i' as in tea"??? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    "This differently arranged vocal tract could not form the 'i', as in tea"

    What in the hell are you talking about?

    1. Re:"the 'i' as in tea"??? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      I think he meant there is no 'i' in team...
      but then he took out the 'm' instead.

    2. Re:"the 'i' as in tea"??? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Considering that another example he gave was 'u' as in too, he might have been using the common latin/italian/german pronounciation of the vowels... although I have a hard time figuring out why. Perhaps that's something a cunning linguist would do?

  76. Sometimes a cigar is just a cigar... by mactov · · Score: 1

    Burial rituals imply a seeking for meaning after death and lead to religion.

    Well, maybe. And maybe not. In making that statement, you are projecting notions of afterlife on people who may have simply had reverence for a body that once was a living person, someone of significance to them. There's nothing in the simple fact of a burial "ritual" -- which in this case may or may not have been a ritual, but which involved treatment of the body before disposal [burial] -- that points to "meaning" much less "religion."

    Imagine that you *don't* believe in afterlife, and death is the ultimate challenge to meaningful life. Now imagine that someone you love a lot or respect a lot dies. They're lost, forever, they ain't coming back (at least, no one else has) and you feel sad as heck. The body's all you've got left, and you know from previous experience that it isn't going to keep for long. Elaborate burial might be merely a mark of respect and of bitter acceptance that when it's over, it's over.

    Without a lot more data, there's no way of knowing what death meant to these folks, or what the after-death treatment of the bodies signifies.

    --
    OK, now what?
  77. A slightly different explanation..... by lysium · · Score: 1
    One of theories on this comes from Terrance McKenna who, while having colorful opinions, was an anthropologist by trade. He put together a rather interesting theory on the sudden "jump-start" of civilization: certain tribes in a few select regions started eating the mushrooms that grew in the vicinity of cattle. McKenna theorized that the psychedelic properties of the mushrooms acted as some sort of catalyst for higher levels of mental and social complexity. The supporting information can be found in the book An Archaic Revival -- needless to say, there is enough evidence to really make you think...

    ---------------

    --
    Together, we will drive the rats from the tundra.
  78. related book ... by vu2lid · · Score: 1

    Tracing human migratin through gene/DNA studies of widely separated human populations has revealed a lot of new information in recent years. This discovery confirms a lot that is already known. There is an interesting (and very readable) book called Mapping Human History. Recommended to anyone interested in human history, evolution, ... and you will know how wrong all those race supremist theories, racial conflicts, ... are.

  79. The Plow and other Society changing inventions by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    One of the more popular theories is that the rise of Mesopotamia, Egypt and the Yellow Valley can be linked to the invention of the Plow. Up until that time there is evidence of small farming communities but the Plow was the first device that actually created a true excess of food. An excess of food is considered one of the prerequisites to the creation of higher societies as for the first time people can have professions and occupations that have little to nothing to do with obtaining food. Exchanges between those who make food and those that have a skill or profession to trade creates commerce, etc.

    A little more off topic if you look at modern cities you will find it wasnâ(TM)t until the invention of the sewage system that cities became capable of overcoming sanitary issues and really started to see unrestricted growth. This is a fairly recent invention and as you can see with computers, the toilet, the car, the plow and other such inventions, society tends to chug along at the status quo until someone invents something that causes a revolutionary change.

    1. Re:The Plow and other Society changing inventions by stanmann · · Score: 1

      You mean like the sewage system involving both public sewage run-off from public baths/toilets and private septic tanks for individual homeowners in Pompeii some 3000+ years ago??

      --
      Food not Bombs is a nice platitude but it breaks down when you notice that the Bombees are usually well fed
    2. Re:The Plow and other Society changing inventions by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      No I mean modern sewage and sanitation like water treatment and collection services. Roman water handling while advanced for the time is a far cry from what is required for the modern metropolis.

  80. Translating the bible by FuzzyDaddy · · Score: 3, Insightful
    And so what if the Dead Sea Scrolls are in Hebrew and Aramaic? You can certanly translate them!

    Yes and no... there are some ambiguities about translation of the bible. Some words only appear a few times, or even once, making their meaning impossible to know for sure. The meanings of words also change over time, so a word that meant something when the bible was translated into greek, say, might have been given a different meaning than when it was first written down.

    This is not to say that translation is impossible or a useless effort. It's just to say that the exact meaning of a given word is often ambigous. Often, these (in my view, somewhat silly) arguments about what the bible says center around individual words.

    For example, does "four corners" mean four geometric corners? Does it mean "prominent places", or was it a colloquial expression?

    (My favorite one is when the Israelites were building the Tabernacle in the desert, and they used "Dolphin Skins". Where did they get Dolphin skins from? It's a funny little thing, and you wonder if the text is really refering to the skins of animals we call dolphins, or something else. But dolphin skins? From Egypt?)

    The whole topic of translating ancient texts (not just the bible) is a facinating one. If you're interested in an alternate english translation of the bible, the Jewish Publication society put one out under the name "Tanakh" (the Jewish word for the bible). Every page there are footnotes with the comment "meaning of original hebrew uncertain" , or providing an alternate translation.

    DISCLAIMER - I am not a linguist or biblical scholar. (IANALOBS)

    --
    It's not wasting time, I'm educating myself.
    1. Re:Translating the bible by Christianfreak · · Score: 1

      IANABSEBIHFTA (I am not a Bible scholar either but I have friends that are) ... maybe that acronym is too long ... :)

      Anyway while I agree with you there are words that are impossible to translate and lots of metaphors that probably weren't fully understood back when they were written.

      However there over 10,000 documents that have been discovered in the ancient world and they all agree with each other, to the point where the only differences are slight word choices and small mistakes (where an author may have left out a word etc.) That's very remarkable, it seems a lot of people took very great care over several thousand years to copy the documents word for word. 10,000 is more than any other ancient work. For instance there are less than 10 documents that refer to the Trojen War in Greece but most historians believe that war happened.

      As for the slight differences, there are a number of Bibles (I would say most study Bibles) are published with footnotes containing the differences alternate translations etc, like you describe.

    2. Re: Translating the bible by Black+Parrot · · Score: 1


      > However there over 10,000 documents that have been discovered in the ancient world and they all agree with each other, to the point where the only differences are slight word choices and small mistakes (where an author may have left out a word etc.) That's very remarkable, it seems a lot of people took very great care over several thousand years to copy the documents word for word.

      Which has jack-all to do with the veracity of the document. The demonstrably false claims in the Bible were copied with every bit as much loving care as the rest, for all those centuries. And are still copied now, even though we know they are wrong.

      > 10,000 is more than any other ancient work. For instance there are less than 10 documents that refer to the Trojen War in Greece but most historians believe that war happened.

      They know there was a city called Illion that was sacked several times. No one but a kook believes that Akhilleus fought gods mano a mano on the plain before the city.

      --
      Sheesh, evil *and* a jerk. -- Jade
    3. Re:Translating the bible by operagost · · Score: 1

      It doesn't really matter what "dolphin skins" or "gopher wood" are. The important information is that a tabernacle was built, and a ship was built.

      --

      Gamingmuseum.com: Give your 3D accelerator a rest.
    4. Re: Translating the bible by Christianfreak · · Score: 1

      There is plenty of evidence that the places refered to in the Bible exist(ed), archelogical evidence shows this to be true.

      10,000 document proves that the Bible isn't a right wing conspiracy.

      I apologize that my original post is really just in the context of the person I replied to rather than in context of the article.

      I have a big problem with creationists as probably you do (imagine that and I'm a Christian too!) because the Bible is not (and never was intended to be) a science book. The whole point of the creation story isn't to show how God brought about the world, rather to show that he did, and why he did. The creationists put God in a box by trying to add "how" to the story, when the story itself only says that God spoke and it happened, I don't think that precludes evolution simply because God speaks->evolution happens (And all the details there of) -> we get humans. The story doesn't need the detail and couldn't have had it anyway since the authors themselves wouldn't have understood it.

      Now I assume you are probably an atheist, that's fine I respect that. But please respect my belief as well that unexplainable things can happen. I've witnessed plenty personally. I'm not certain what "demonstrably false claims" you are refering to but I can imagine a few you might have in mind.

      All I can say is the nature of faith is that it can't be explained and I have faith that those things happened, namely a man named Jesus who was God died and came back to life.

      The whole idea is to trust that God knows what he's doing. And if there is no god or its all false then in the end I haven't lost anything, and people will still say that I was a good person.

    5. Re:Translating the bible by junkgrep · · Score: 1

      For instance there are less than 10 documents that refer to the Trojen War in Greece but most historians believe that war happened.

      Yes, but rather few of them believe that Circe turned Ulysses' men into pigs.

    6. Re: Translating the bible by Black+Parrot · · Score: 1


      > There is plenty of evidence that the places refered to in the Bible exist(ed), archelogical evidence shows this to be true.

      The same can be said of The Illiad, or for that matter, of any historical novel ever written. There is not legitimate inductive leap from "says some true things" to "everything it says is true".

      > I apologize that my original post is really just in the context of the person I replied to rather than in context of the article.

      No apology needed - this whole thread has become a context minefield, and I think I've stepped off the path several times myself.

      > I have a big problem with creationists as probably you do (imagine that and I'm a Christian too!) because the Bible is not (and never was intended to be) a science book.

      That is indeed the tragedy of creationism: what they promote and what they demote in their religious beliefs.

      --
      Sheesh, evil *and* a jerk. -- Jade
    7. Re:Translating the bible by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      For instance there are less than 10 documents that refer to the Trojen War in Greece but most historians believe that war happened.

      Many historians agree that some kind of war described as the Trojan War did happen, but will probably never agree as to exactly when or even where it took place. Certainly very few believe gods took part in that war.

    8. Re: Translating the bible by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      The story doesn't need the detail and couldn't have had it anyway since the authors themselves wouldn't have understood it.

      This is an interesting point... for all we know, the authors WERE told about evolution, but after they stopped laughing or scratching their heads, they wrote something that made some sense to them. This is kinda like all those ancient texts purportedly describing atomic power and flying machines and space travel and electricity, etc; for all we know some advanced civilization or aliens DID show them all that stuff, but hey, any tech sufficiently advanced will appear to be magic, so what the hell do we know?

    9. Re: Translating the bible by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0
      The whole idea is to trust that God knows what he's doing. And if there is no god or its all false then in the end I haven't lost anything, and people will still say that I was a good person.

      You don't need to believe in god and waste all the time worrying about it, and the afterlife, and following some teachings to be a good person. I believe I am a good person, but that's because that is how I want to lead my life, not because a god told me to. Definitely not because a god promised me a good afterlife.

    10. Re: Translating the bible by Tikiman · · Score: 1
      You don't need to believe in god and waste all the time worrying about it, and the afterlife, and following some teachings to be a good person. I believe I am a good person, but that's because that is how I want to lead my life, not because a god told me to. Definitely not because a god promised me a good afterlife.

      Then you understand nothing about Christianity. A "good afterline" is promised to everyone when they walk in the door! It has nothing to do with what you "do". Christians are good people only because they respect God, they think He created the Universe, and He deserves some props. Now I'm not saying you are an evil person or anything. However, I would suggest that you may be short-changing yourself, because the promises of God are specifically to help you become a better person. Galatians 5:15-26 summarizes this well:

      So I say, live by the Spirit, and you will not gratify the desires of the sinful nature. For the sinful nature desires what is contrary to the Spirit, and the Spirit what is contrary to the sinful nature. They are in conflict with each other, so that you do not do what you want. But if you are led by the Spirit, you are not under law. The acts of the sinful nature are obvious: sexual immorality, impurity and debauchery; idolatry and witchcraft; hatred, discord, jealousy, fits of rage, selfish ambition, dissensions, factions and envy; drunkenness, orgies, and the like. I warn you, as I did before, that those who live like this will not inherit the kingdom of God. But the fruit of the Spirit is love, joy, peace, patience, kindness, goodness, faithfulness, gentleness and self-control. Against such things there is no law. Those who belong to Christ Jesus have crucified the sinful nature with its passions and desires. Since we live by the Spirit, let us keep in step with the Spirit. Let us not become conceited, provoking and envying each other.
      These "fruits of the spirit" are what every good person looks for. The promises of Christ are to help people seek these fruits, and to expunge hatread, discord, etc. What hangs a lot of people up is that they are willing to be "good", but not if someone else is telling them to be do so. The central message of Christianity is not God saying "Be good or go to Hell", but rather "Let's see how good you can be, and by the way don't worry about Hell, I already took care of that for you". It's a distinction that is hard to see when your mind is already made up
  81. It's really about skull efficiency by Flamecoach · · Score: 1

    If you consider that even when these prehistoric humans lived to the age of 35, they were "old" and they were somebody's "grampaw" and "grammaw." Compare that today with many people waiting till the age of 35 for their first young 'un. In 100 years today, a family may spawn three generations. Back then, the number would be closer to seven generations of skulls. In that context, it's easier to see how skull shapes could change in only 160,000 years or so. Back then we were generating new skulls and losing the ineffective ones at a much faster rate. Not that we're creating fewer skulls today...quite the contrary. It's just that we hang on to the less efficient ones for a lot longer.

  82. Oldest modem? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    On my RH9 box I'm constantly reading "Oldest Modem Humans Found" Tree trunk and stix prolly.

  83. Lived like Indians for 100,000 years by peter303 · · Score: 1

    Homo sapiens lived a nomadic hunter-gatherer-fisher life for the first 90% of their existance- much like the aborigional populations did. It sis thought they full language capabilities by 50,000 years ago, when most of the world was quickly occupied by humans. However it is one of the great mysteries why poepl did start vivilization until the end of the last glaciation.

  84. Been warm THRICE since 150,000 years by peter303 · · Score: 1

    If warm climate is a factor, then it was warm 110,000 and 60,000 yearts ago- well after the new homo sapien skull discoveries. You have to explain why civilization did start then.

  85. what tipped the scale to Africa by alfredo · · Score: 1

    was the discovery of some DOS manuals along with some early remains in Ethiopia. We all know that 'real men use DOS.'

    --
    photosMy Photostream
    1. Re:what tipped the scale to Africa by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Real men don't read manuals.

    2. Re:what tipped the scale to Africa by CharlesClarkson · · Score: 1

      I met a couple of Manuals once. Could never read the father any better than the son.

      --

      Charles K. Clarkson
      Many people truly want to help. Unfortunately, many people truly suck at it.
  86. Revolutionary and stupid by roystgnr · · Score: 2, Insightful

    The concept to stop chasing wildlife, and to settle down and grow crops is revolutionary, and would be a scary step

    What's worse, there seems to be evidence that growing crops put individuals at a short-term disadvantage over hunter-gatherers, giving them a poorer diet for more work! The primary advantage of crop growing, though, is that it supports a higher population density, so even if your hunter-gatherer tribe may be living better than the nearby village growing crops, the village can feed ten times as many people and so they can expand faster than you and win any conflict between you.

    1. Re:Revolutionary and stupid by merchant_x · · Score: 1

      I always heard that humans moved to agriculture because of beer. That seems like a pretty good reason to start growing crops to me.

  87. Cousins of yours? by crashnbur · · Score: 1
    I know some people that look too old to be alive, and I know some things that should be left well enough alone -- this qualifies as neither, as I'm the kind of guy that wants to see Tim Allen holding up a 160,000-year-old skull and asking someone in the front row of his audience if they're related...

    It occurs to me that this post is either interesting and funny or overrated and offtopic. Such is the way of the world.

  88. Oldest modem, humans found? by cliveholloway · · Score: 1
    wtf? I think I need to stop doing these all-nighters...

    cLive ;-)

    --
    -- Trinity in high heels carrying a whip: The donimatrix - there is no spoonerism
  89. Origins and the Bible by sabshire · · Score: 2, Insightful

    For those interested in really seeing what the Bible teaches and how science the Bible compliment one another nicely, please visit Reasons To Believe

    --
    You will never "find" time for anything. You must "make" it.
  90. God of the wired? by Felinoid · · Score: 1

    The title is a joke for anime fans :)
    But now for the real meat.
    The snowballs from space thing is more or less science fiction not science. The science holds that we did come from earth that we simply started as single celled creatures and evolved over time.
    But dose this preclude adam and eve? Thelogens will argue the more dynamic point that adam and eve were the first single celled creatures and in this way theology holds true.
    Wiccans already clame the pagan myths are not litteral but symbolic. Eventually Christians will need to make the same clame.
    Some theologens already do.
    Most of the Christian bible is a historical document but some of it wasn't a matter of historical record.
    The mirricals are a matter of interpretation and much debate.
    There has even been some scientific exploration into how the red sea could have been parted.
    Your welcome to believe what ever you like so long as it fits available facts.
    But life from space snowballs dose not.

    --
    I don't actually exist.
  91. James P. Hogan reference by kmahan · · Score: 1

    Wonder if they found a mud filled watch casing that the lead archaelogist throws away while commenting that it must be some discarded child's toy.

    --
    Invalid Checksum. Retrying.
  92. Can I get in on this? by DaveOf9thKey · · Score: 2, Funny

    When I die, I want someone find my skull 160 millenia from now and gape in awe and wonder. In fact, I'm going to put a big sign on my grave that says, "Do not open until Christmas, 162,052 A.D."

    Puny humans.

    --

    Visit me on the web at Permanent4.com.
  93. GHAGLUAGNALGUHG by Jerk+City+Troll · · Score: 2, Informative

    I would like to see some credible evidence before I'll believe that contradictions exist in the Bible.

    Perhaps you haven't investigated this too deeply. I would suggest taking a look at this enumeration of "apparent" contradictions.

    I am not attempting to discredit the Bible or the religion it supports. I am simply pointing out there's a lot to analyse and contemplate on this particular subject.

    Go read for yourself.

    1. Re:GHAGLUAGNALGUHG by operagost · · Score: 1

      Maybe YOU should read the parent's post more thoroughly! The link to CARM addresses most of the difficulties in your link, and all the others can be found elsewhere on the internet.

      --

      Gamingmuseum.com: Give your 3D accelerator a rest.
    2. Re:GHAGLUAGNALGUHG by Omestes · · Score: 1

      And THIS is the problem. You give me a contradiction, and I'll refute it, then you can refute my refutation. Big nasty cycle, never ends. People should just stop it, you CAN'T refute the bible in an meaningful sense, and even if you could, WHY WOULD YOU WANT TO? 1 billion people believe in it, and even if you proved the bible dead wrong, NO ONE WOULD CARE, its all about faith. (damn George Michael meme!).

      I'm not a xtian of any sort, I'm more of a rabid animist agnostic discordian, but I still wouldn't want to live in a world without the Bible, the Torah, and the Koran (not counting all the Hindu, Buddhist and whatnot texts), we need a moralizing influence. Science doesn't cut it there, science has no morals, some scientists do, but as a belief system science lacks all form of everyday wisdom.

      I really don't understand the "religion bashers", they are more obnoxious than the "door-to-door faith salesmen of the soul" (Mormons, Jehovas witnesses, adventists, ect...).

      --
      A patriot must always be ready to defend his country against his government. -edward abbey
    3. Re:GHAGLUAGNALGUHG by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Who ever said that science was a moralizing influence? And who said that morals require religion? You can be non-religious and still moral. (Science has nothing to do with it.)

    4. Re:GHAGLUAGNALGUHG by agm · · Score: 1

      Science isn't a belief system and can't be expected to be a source of morality.

      The problem I have with religion is the ignorance factor (no offense intended). By that I mean that religion can cause people to put their hands over their ears and shout "Not listening! Not listening!" when their beliefs are questioned rather than taking the intellectually honest approach and actually investigating the issue. I have no respct for beliefs that are held in blind faith. Oh, that and the fact there is no evidence for a god.

    5. Re:GHAGLUAGNALGUHG by Omestes · · Score: 1

      Science IS a belief system, you have FAITH in measurable observation, and deny that any thing is unquantifiable. You have FAITH in the method, in technique. And I could easily accuse scientists (and science "fanboys") of putting there hands over their ears and doing the exact same thing as religious fundalmentalists when confronted with something immeasurable, or unquantifiable. "If you can observe it, or describe it, it does not exist"

      Of course some religious people won't listen to you, or your "proof" against them, the same as how a majority of scientists scoff at UFOs, Angels, or God. For them "proof" isn't everything, and might vary well be meaningless to their thoughts. Just because you find a problem in the logic/timing of the bible, doesn't make God obsolete, they have FAITH, just as do. By nature God is UNDESCRIBABLE, and UNQUANTIFIABLE, meaning he is completely incompatible with science. Why do I* beleive in God, because I FEEL that he exists. Proof enough.

      Gut instinct is much stronger than emperical proof.

      * I am not a Christian, nor do I beleive in their God. As I stated earlier, I am an animist agnostic discordian, meaning I FEEL that there is something bigger than science, and I FEEL that science is limited by nature, and cannot ever explain anything in its fullness. To make it short and accurate, I see a gestultist universe, the sum is greater than the value of your observations and maths. While I doubt that there is a sencient creator out there, I do think that there is some form of "whole being", science will never prove this, and it doesn't matter to me, your proof against it be damned, since you are nothing, and I am nothing, so we CANNOT EVER SEE THE WHOLE, which makes all proof obsolete.

      But then again I value the metaphysics of old, over the physics of now (prime materialism at its best). Its all a construct anyways, so it doesn't matter.

      I quit waxing philosophical now...

      --
      A patriot must always be ready to defend his country against his government. -edward abbey
  94. Oldest Modern Humans and Religion by nicospoul · · Score: 0, Flamebait

    This new discovery might be a proof that the Christian Religion has some false beliefs.
    According to this new discovery, now we have definite proof that the Homo sapiens and the Homo neanderthalensis co-existed in some time period

    Now,consider this:
    1.It has already been prooved that Homo neanderthalensis was a sentient being with advanced culture and rituals

    2.If Homo neanderthalensis was an ancestor of Homo Sapiens then this was consistant to christianic beliefs. That is because someone could assume that The Creation formed Adam and Eve as Homo neanderthalensis and then their ancestors evolved into Homo Sapiens.

    3.Now that we have proof that the Homo neanderthalensis and Homo Sapiens were completely different lifeforms, not related to each other we have to conclude that either:
    A. During 'The Creation' God gave sentient life to two different kinds of species, but in the bible we have records only for our species
    B. Bible is wrong in some parts

    Please consider before you flame me that I am not an atheist. On the contrary, I consider my self as a Christian, but I think we have the right to question some parts of the bible in the light of modern scientific discoveries

    1. Re:Oldest Modern Humans and Religion by ArsSineArtificio · · Score: 1

      This new discovery might be a proof that the Christian Religion has some false beliefs... I consider my self as a Christian, but I think we have the right to question some parts of the bible in the light of modern scientific discoveries

      If you give a rat's ass about the goofy proto-science and dull genealogical records which comprise the Old Testament. Some of us just stick with the New, which is basically the important part.

      ASA

      --
      All employees must wash hands before seeking equitable relief.
    2. Re:Oldest Modern Humans and Religion by Quixotic+Raindrop · · Score: 1

      Not according to the Old, which proclaims that the Jews are the chosen people of God.

      All the New Testament does is revise this, saying that "whosoever shall believe in me shall not die but have everlasting life." This is nothing more than a questioning of the Old Testament's teachings in light of new evidence. Why stop there?

      Can you prove that the light of scientific discovery is not the Voice of God for a new generation? It certainly seems plausible that the miracles being shown to everyday people in the current day and age are inside of science ("whoa, electrons, protons, and neutrons are not the fundamental particles" ... discovering quarks qualifies as a miracle, in my book), and not in a burning bush. God has stopped screaming, and started whispering, it seems to me.

      --
      Only two things are infinite, the universe and human stupidity, and I'm not sure about the former. (Einstein)
    3. Re:Oldest Modern Humans and Religion by nicospoul · · Score: 1

      What kind of a fascist Moderation is this?

      I expressed my opinion in the start of this thread with specific points and paradigms...

      And I get a flamebait??

      Even though I explicitly say that this is only a 'food for thought', an opinion???

      Dear Moderator, congratulations on bringing the Slashdot in the dark ages when the so-called 'witches' were burned in a pyre!!!!
      You haven't have the slightest idea what moderation means, my friend.

      Moderation is a responsibility. You don't just 'flambaiting' someone for having a different opinion!!
      I believe that Iam entitled to be leveled at least to a score 0.

      I dont want to be moderated as Interesting or Insightfull or anything but it is a matter of personal integrity not to be regarded as a flamebait for simply expressing (with examples, logic and facts) my opinions

  95. Oldest modern human was already known by McShazbot · · Score: 1

    I've been watching the oldest modern human once a year on his "Rockin New Year's Eve" show for as long as I can remember.

    --
    When life gives you lemons, make lemonade. But when life gives you crap, please don't make a beverage out of it.
  96. What's with Africa? by filmcritic · · Score: 0

    Why does it appear that anthropologists only work in Africa? It certainly seems that way because every "revolutionary" find is African. Something sounds fishy here doesn't it? Why don't they go to the real birthplace of human civilization? Could it be that they may find something that disagrees with their carefully constructed theories? The bottom line is that the fertile crecent area of Mesopotamia is where everything got started, not Africa, so why not look there? Someone is hiding something in the name of science falsely so called.....

    1. Re:What's with Africa? by cens0r · · Score: 1

      Because africa is where modern humans emerged, and messopatamia is where civilization first emerged. Two completly different things. Think of the difference between an anthropologist and an archealogist.

      --
      Jack Valenti and Orrin Hatch will be first up against the wall when the revolution comes.
    2. Re:What's with Africa? by nicholasharbour · · Score: 1

      If you are studying the development and relationships of and between primates, it makes sense start at the place where there is the most varieties. Besides, you are referring to the beginning of civilization, which is about the point in time where this type of research stops. Not much happens genetically in 8000 years when your time between generations is at least 12 years or so.

      Nicholas Harbour

      --

      Nearly half of all people are below average
    3. Re:What's with Africa? by hesiod · · Score: 1

      > your time between generations is at least 12 years or so.

      12 years? Wouldn't that mean that the average woman becomes pregnant at the age of 11yrs 3mos? I realize you said "at least" 12 years, but it looks like a low estimate to me.

    4. Re:What's with Africa? by nicholasharbour · · Score: 1

      12 years sounds crazy now days, but up until recently life spans were only until your twenties. We as a species have not always held your victorian view of sexuality. In nature, things generally become sexually active with puberty. I am not sure what the exact mean age for girls to hit puberty is but it has been documented to have increased throughout history. If you go back 10 or 15 thousand years, a 12 year old girl would be sexually mature (And theoretically in a mid-life crisis :) and would likely be pregnant as soon as possible. You must not also forget that in those days you needed to give birth often, because the odds of it surviving to maturity were even at best.

      So to answer you question no, it is not a particularly low estimate. But the time between generations is important to adaptability in genetics, since everything works on a generation level. Thats why those cockroaches can adapt so much faster that us. They can have hundreds and thousands of generations before we can have one. if you look at the original post, the context of that was that 8 thousand years is not much time genetically speaking when you have to wait at least 12 years to give birth. If you feel more comfortable saying 18 then that would only further prove my point, even though it is false.

      --

      Nearly half of all people are below average
    5. Re:What's with Africa? by dubStylee · · Score: 1

      > Why does it appear that anthropologists only
      > work in Africa?

      Good question, why does it appear to *you* that anthropologists only work in Africa. Could it be that you simply don't pay attention to the many news items about finds in Portugal or Croatia, or Iraq, or Mexico?

      > Why don't they go to the real birthplace
      > of human civilization?

      Maybe because it's currently a war zone?

      And What does civilization have to do with it? that's not what these particular anthropologists are stufying. These finds relate to remains that are 140,000 years away from "civilization".

      > The bottom line is that the fertile crecent
      > area of Mesopotamia is where everything got
      > started, not Africa

      Hmm, did Uzxgrip from the Planet Xenon tell you this directly? Just because agriculture, and writing may have started there (among other places) doesn't mean that everything else started there. Do you assume that the Finns invented mathematics because you know that Linux was invented in Finland?

    6. Re:What's with Africa? by dubStylee · · Score: 1

      12 years sounds crazy now days, but up until recently life spans were only until your twenties

      Good point. The only change I would make is "up until recently in industrialized countries". The odds of living past thirty are less than even in many countries of the world today.

  97. Reality and the Bible by NaugaHunter · · Score: 2, Informative

    For those interested in seeing how uninsightful, superstitious, and self-contradicting the works of one of the dozens of ancient civilizations can be, feel free to check The Skeptic's Annotated Bible

    Especially if you are a woman, just, or tolerant.

    --
    R: That voice. Where have I heard that voice before? B: In about 365 other episodes. But I don't know who it is either.
    1. Re:Reality and the Bible by sabshire · · Score: 1

      And if you were as smart as you think you are... I am a guy! Names 101 for the illiterate, check it out at Amazon.

      --
      You will never "find" time for anything. You must "make" it.
    2. Re:Reality and the Bible by NaugaHunter · · Score: 1

      Wow! You're right! I intended my reply ONLY for you!

      In other words, I was trying to offer a counter-point, and indicate that certain groups may want to check exactly what the bible does say about certain things. It's easy to make assumptions on the overall tone based on whatever ministers/priests/whatever choose to read from week to week (like I used to), but once you research and read the thing itself you* might come away with a new perspective.

      Frankly, having watched Fellowship again this week, "sabshire" sounds like a Hobbit surname.

      *- Again, the universal you, for anyone who happens to read this and hasn't completely made up their mind one way or another.

      Further reading for the really curious: Pagan & Christian Creeds, a 'free' book from the Gutenburg Project that discusses such interesting points as the history of creation mythology, and why Christmas is timed around the Winter Solstice. I'd assumed it was to compete with the pagans, but apparently it may have been part of the merging of pagan beliefs and jewish prophecy.

      --
      R: That voice. Where have I heard that voice before? B: In about 365 other episodes. But I don't know who it is either.
    3. Re:Reality and the Bible by sabshire · · Score: 1
      I'll give you kudos for the sarcasm. Well placed. However, I have to disagree with you on the part about taking from it whatever you want. I too have seen those who do that, but I approach things with an open mind. You really do need to check Reasons to Believe out... they have some great scientific articles. And no, it does not approach things from a young earth view. I used to hold that view, but have since changed my views.

      As for Christmas, I have never held that it occurred in the winter. And I really don't care for it's commercialism either.

      I have read the links you mentioned, but it has been some time ago.

      Just a few more cents to throw in there.

      --
      You will never "find" time for anything. You must "make" it.
    4. Re:Reality and the Bible by sabshire · · Score: 1

      Make that http://www.reasons.org as the address. Sorry about that. I got ahead of myself when I was replying.

      --
      You will never "find" time for anything. You must "make" it.
  98. Surprised by dachang · · Score: 1

    I thought Dick Clark is the oldest. He must be 250 years old.

  99. Its more interesting than that by Unknown+Poltroon · · Score: 1

    "It really made me realize how related we all are, and silences the idiots who think blacks are closer to the apes, and whites are more advanced, etc."

    I was watching a show on discovery, and they were talking about how there was a massive genttic bottleneck in the huma race about 75,000 years ago, whre the human race was reduced to a couple of thousand individuals world wide. They couldnt figure out why, untill a vulcaologist saw a talk they gave, and he happend to know about the toba explosion in the pacific that happed at the same time. basically, the human race was damn near wiped out by the volcano, to the point that the average chimpanzee family, has more genetic diversity than the whole human race.

    --
    All Troll + "offtopic" mods are meta moderated as "Unfair", because you abused the system.
  100. Paleoantrhopologists discover earliest OS by dubStylee · · Score: 1

    At last an intelligent comment, culture is cumulative. Other than this posting and one or two others, the level of this discussion is mind-boggling. I saw a PBS special 10 years ago that said foo, I googled and found one page that said bar. Sheesh, it's like a paleoanthropologist or geneticist forum discussing linux based on a single news report of Steve Ballmer's latest gurglings. For those that actually want some information on this topic, try http://anthro.palomar.edu/homo2/ for general paleoanthropology or http://www.wam.umd.edu/~mturn/WWW/deacon.html for an interesting starting point on the prehistory of language.

  101. bah by EnderWiggnz · · Score: 1

    thomas, not timothy...

    thomas has jesus doing miracles at like age 9...

    --
    ... hi bingo ...
  102. I remain your obedient servant... by Jerk+City+Troll · · Score: 1

    I cannot possibly reply any more eloquently than Black Parrot does in this post.

  103. Captain Beefheart and Brain Food? by Xandar01 · · Score: 1

    I have to say that I am slightly amused that "Captain Beefheart" is talking about brain food and nutrition.

    --
    Life moves pretty fast; if you don't stop and look around once in a while, you could miss it. -FB
  104. Creation by kelceylehrich · · Score: 1

    I am a creationist ::hears laughter in the background::. Is anyone else? Doesnt anyone know what a load of bull this is?

    1. Re:Creation by mpost4 · · Score: 1

      I am not laughing at you, I agree with you on this. I know that both you, and I for responding to you will be modded down.

  105. Oh, I get it now. by stinky+wizzleteats · · Score: 1

    The skulls also demonstrate evidence of ritual burial.

    They must have been going for chivalry. Knights kick ass.

  106. Re:You're going to hell!! by bach37 · · Score: 1

    You might want to reconsider you comments, or enjoy your time in hell. :)
    Scott

  107. Re:You're going to hell!! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    that's always annoyed me. if you don't believe or slight the religion/jesus/god you're supposed to go to hell (insofar as i am aware). i doubt any god would be so petty to do his people, more of conversion technique if anything. "believe today and win a 'get out of hell free' card !"

  108. I have a contradiction... by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Reconcile the genocidal maniac Jahweh of the OT, who invaded lands and put the resident women and children to the sword, with the god of love of the NT.

  109. Re:How come there are modern and non modern Human? by JebusIsLord · · Score: 1

    Sorry, that's incorrect. Homo and australopithecine species are known as "Hominids" or family Hominidae. The great apes are all "Hominoids" or superfamily Hominoidia.

    --
    Jeremy
  110. Re:How come there are modern and non modern Human? by pajamacore · · Score: 1

    Not incorrect. It really depends on who you ask.

    Some scientists prefer a broader definition of the Hominidae, others a narrower definition. The broader definition has gained significant ground with scientists in the past two decades as a result of molecular studies illustrating that all the great apes (humans included) form a clade of very closely related species.

    The narrower definition is a left-over of the days of mythological distinctions between man and animal.

    These days, Hominoidea is still a superfamily constituting the Hylobatidae (gibbons and siamangs) and the Hominidae. Within the Hominidae are the subfamilies Ponginae (orangs) and Homininae (the African apes). Still further below the Homininae is the tribe Hominini (humans and our related bipedal apes).

  111. Re:How come there are modern and non modern Human? by JebusIsLord · · Score: 1

    Gee, I just graduated Monday with a degree in Primatology and this is news to me. The wonders of Slashdot!

    --
    Jeremy
  112. why "everything is from africa" by guest12 · · Score: 1

    because thats where the money is.
    I mean thats where the funds for studies are sanctioned.

    Thats how you can prove...SEE? africans are primitive.

    If africans get their act together they'll fund studies showing whites are H.erectus not even neanderthals.

  113. Hasn't it occured to anyone? by Vishak · · Score: 1

    With all the bible trashing it hasn't really occured to anyone that a single origin for all of mankind from the area where the garden of eden is supposed to be located is now supported by the scientific evidence. I don't think it's a coincidence. Is it religion that must accomodate science, or science converging with religion?

    --
    Intelligent Design Theory is not Creationism
    1. Re:Hasn't it occured to anyone? by hesiod · · Score: 1

      > Is it religion that must accomodate science, or science converging with religion?

      Neither, they must be taken completely separately without trying to make one support the other. That is not to say, however, that they should not be looked at as interrelating.

    2. Re:Hasn't it occured to anyone? by brett720 · · Score: 1

      Actually I disagree...this would put humans WAY before the Bible accounts for the creation of Adam and Eve date wise.

  114. Philistines by MenTaLguY · · Score: 1

    Actually, you might be more familiar with them as the Phonecians... bit to late historically to be Neanderthals, sorry.

    --

    DNA just wants to be free...
  115. Science Journals by jjhlk · · Score: 1

    Speaking of good science articles, if I were only able to buy one, should I buy a subscription to Science or Nature? I can handle 100 dollars a year, but I'm not so sure about 200.

    And I'm sorry to see that this has turned into a creationism vs. evolution debate. (Evolution is a fact, btw). But it's like flogging a dead horse.

    Scientific American and Discover are good too, but it's pretty cool reading the actual publications they refer to.

    Also, how big is a typical issue of Nature or Science? I'd think they're pretty big by the TOC, which was quite impressive for a single issue.

    1. Re:Science Journals by Bowling+Moses · · Score: 1

      It depends. Both Science and Nature are not exactly what you'd call popular journals, so unless you actually do science for a living they'll probably be too technical (or at least too dry). Another reason not to get either journal is the fact that the articles are extremely terse, imagine having the work of five people over the course of two years compressed down into three pages. Both Science and Nature do have about 20-30 pages or so of broader interest bits in their "News and Views" sections and the like. Another point to consider is that some public libraries have a subscription to Science and Nature, failing that you may be able to obtain photocopies of articles through an interlibrary loan program--not sure if the public libraries do this, though. If you're still interested, Science is probably the more rounded of the two; Nature as the name implies is more biologically oriented. Size wise, the two journals are about 150 pages--again due to article compression.

      And almost every time some article is posted that has something to do with evolution the "scientific" creationists come out of the woodwork. You'd think a technology and science website like /. wouldn't have so many or that they'd be so voiciferous...unfortunately you'd also be wrong.

  116. That would do it by roystgnr · · Score: 1

    Thanks; I'd never heard of that idea before. I had heard that lots of ancient cultures drank weak beer whenever they could instead of water for the health benefits (fewer deleterious microorganisms), but it hadn't occurred to me that beer is one "food" source you can't pluck off a bush or hit with a spear.

    Do you know where you heard this, off-hand? I'd like to see what the evidence is; it would be hilarious if civilization was the result of beer.

    1. Re:That would do it by merchant_x · · Score: 1

      I beleive I heard this in an anthropolgy class in college a few years back. A quick google search turns up this very basic summary of the theory and attributes it to a Dr. Solomon Katz. I'll leave it up to you to pursue further research. Please refer to the url below.

      http://www.beerinstitute.org/history1.htm

  117. Arguments creationists should not use by geekotourist · · Score: 3, Informative
    How come it takes so long for refuted stories to stop showing up in creationists' arguments? In general, even when a major creationist group itself says not to use certain arguments, you'll still find them used. Sometimes creationists will ignore data that is directly presented to them. For example, Gish kept on telling the story of the supposedly hidden skills of Java man 15 years after being shown he was wrong.

    But specifically, in reference to your listing of Piltdown, Nebraska man, and Java man, read the extensive talk.origins FAQs on these very items: (emphasis added by me)

    • Nebraska man: "as creationists tell the story, evolutionists used one tooth to build an entire species of primitive man... before further excavations revealed the tooth to belong to a peccary... The true story is much more complex... The imaginative drawing of Nebraska Man to which creationists invariably refer... was done for a British popular magazine... ...Most other scientists were skeptical even of the modest claim that the Hesperopithecus tooth belonged to a primate... It is simply not true that Nebraska Man was widely accepted as an ape-man, or even as an ape, by scientists, and its effect upon the scientific thinking of the time was negligible."
    • Java man: "Many creationists have claimed that Java Man, discovered by Eugene Dubois in 1893, was "bad science". Gish (1985) says that Dubois found two human skulls at nearby Wadjak at the same level and had kept them secret; that Dubois later decided Java Man was a giant gibbon; and that the bones do not come from the same individual. Most people would find Gish's meaning of "nearby" surprising: the Wadjak skulls were found 65 miles (104 km) of mountainous countryside away from Java Man. Similarly for "at the same level": the Wadjak skulls were found in cave deposits in the mountains, while Java Man was found in river deposits in a flood plain (Fezer 1993).

      Nor is it true, as is often claimed, that Dubois kept the existence of the Wadjak skulls secret because knowledge of them would have discredited Java Man. Dubois briefly reported the Wadjak skulls in three separate publications in 1890 and 1892. Despite being corrected on this in a debate in 1982 and in print (Brace 1986), Gish has continued to make this claim, even stating, despite not having apparently read Dubois' reports, that they did not mention the Wadjak skulls (Fezer 1993)."

    • Piltdown: It took *less* than 50 years and suspicions that they were a hoax existed by 1914. Even so, Piltdown represents a bad episode in science: "...the hoax points to common and dangerous faults. The hoax succeeded in large part because of the slipshod nature of the testing applied to it; careful examination using the methods available at the time would have immediately revealed the hoax."

      In the 90 years since then have we developed better and more rigorous testing methods? Yes. But even during those 40 years it took for the full hoax to be revealed, faults with Piltdown were found, long before testing showed that they were recent skulls: "...It should be remembered that, at the time of Piltdown finds, there were very few early hominid fossils; Homo neanderthalensis and Homo sapiens were clearly fairly late. It was expected that there was a "missing link" between ape and man ... Piltdown man had the expected mix of features, which lent it plausibility as a human precursor.

      This plausibility did not hold up. During the next two decades there were a number of finds of ancient hominids and near hominids, e.g. Dart's discovery of Australopith

    1. Re:Arguments creationists should not use by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Nebraska man was one of the primary "evidences" cited in the Scopes trial. That's pretty significant and impactful. Sorry, talkorigins is dead wrong on that.

      Java man had many problems, if you want to study up on it, try reading "Bones of Contention".

      Piltdown man was still in textbooks when the fraud was widely publicized. Your claims that it's not impactful are again in error.

  118. Re:You're going to hell!! by Bobspamming · · Score: 1

    My personal take on Hell is it is simply getting what you ask for, to have nothing to do with God. If you believe as I and many others do, you know that God is everywhere within His creation, so no matter what you do in this life he is never far from you. God reaches out to you and comforts you even though you are unaware and are sometimes hostile to Him.
    Imagine the feeling youâ(TM)d have if you killed everyone you love (including you wife with whom you are just as madly in love as the day you married her over 15 years ago) in a plain crash. All because you didnâ(TM)t take the time to pay attention to what you were doing and were willfully negligent. You are the only survivor and become stranded by yourself for the rest of your life. What if that rest of your life were thousands of years and you spent each day knowing that you put all those people who loved you so much, and who you loved so much, away from you forever? Imagine the loneliness, the regret, the despair. Imagine that every day after the crash you felt just as alone and just as regretful as the first day. Imagine NEVER feeling better. All of this happening because of your own choices, and you have no one to blame but yourself. That would only be a small glimpse of what hell might be like.

    Now imagine the flip side. Imagine that instead of being alone for all eternity you were loved. What if instead of never seeing or talking to anyone again, you were part of a society that is governed by a perfect being and therefore keeps all members in perfect check without even needing to discipline His citizens. Imagine a place where all desires are pure and never unfulfilled. Again only the smallest glimpse of what Heaven might be like.

    How could God force either on us and still love us? He couldnâ(TM)t let everyone into heaven because heaven is being with him and He is perfect. Imperfect (sinful) beings like us canâ(TM)t exist in the presents of perfection. (That is why Jesus died, to take the rap for our sins making us clean and therefore able to stand in the presence of God.)

    Likewise He wonâ(TM)t send everyone to Hell; that is not what we were created for (Do you have children with your spouse with the express purpose of harming or abandoning them?). In order for a choice to be with God to mean anything the option to not be with Him must be there. When given a choice people are bound to make different choices for different reasons. God knows what we are going to chose because he is not âoein timeâ and therefore sees His creation as a whole not only as something with a beginning and end. In other words we are not fated to go to one or the other by God. Just because God knows what we will chose doesnâ(TM)t mean we donâ(TM)t still have to make the choice.

    Now if God were to truly prove His existents beyond all doubt, where would the choice be? If He removed all doubt that He exists how could anyone choice to NOT follow Him?

    Obviously I presuppose that God exists and that judeo Christian beliefs are correct. If you want to scoff at my beliefs as absurd I sure hope you donâ(TM)t believe in evolution. Because if you do then youâ(TM)re telling me that itâ(TM)s more absurd to think that we were created by God then to think that all life came from a rock. I donâ(TM)t expect that everyone will agree with me, or that I will really change peopleâ(TM)s minds.

    P.S. I would like to apologize for all those people who do not present to gospel and anything more than a cure for hell.

  119. Cold Nuclear Fusion vs Duke Nukem Forever by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    Laugh all you want, but my money is on CNF working before DNF.

  120. Nothing is Nothing so there was nothing by thetonka · · Score: 1

    Well, if

    Nothing is absolutely, positively NOTHING! NOTHING!!

    Than it never existed, and never happened. If nothing is absolute than there was nothing, including NO GOD.

    Wasn't someone earlier talking about contradictions?

    Mike

    1. Re:Nothing is Nothing so there was nothing by Negatyfus · · Score: 1
      Than it never existed, and never happened.
      This is exactly my point! Can you imagine this nothing in any real sense? No, because it doesn't exist in the same realm as you perceive yourself to be.
  121. Re:maybe when they become FOSSILIZED? (n/t) by hesiod · · Score: 1

    > maybe when they become FOSSILIZED

    Despite the fact that there was no post, the point is very good. Since they are fossils, they are just copies of the original skull (fragments) made from deposited rock/limestone/whatever and not the actual skull of the person.

  122. should have previewed.... by EnderWiggnz · · Score: 1
    --
    ... hi bingo ...
  123. That is disingenuous by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    I was thinking the same thing, and it does appear that the poster is trying hard to reconsile some apparently contradiction with overrationalization.

    However, the original argument is entirely unfair. It's like the little joke, "You're being defensive." And when I say, "No I'm not." You reply, "See. Yes you are." There is no way to properly answer the claims if you stifle the discussion by saying that any rationalization is overrationalization.

    In this case, I don't think the defender of the Bible is going too far, either. Sure there are cases of people contorting themselves to explain a Biblical paradox, but I don't think this is one of those cases.

  124. Dating technique suspect by downwa · · Score: 1
    According to the original Berkley article, the dating was done using the argon/argon method. This article points out some flaws in the method, which could give older dates than the actual age.

    Interestingly though, the Berkley article states that "Howell added that these anatomically modern humans pre-date most neanderthals, and therefore could not have descended from them, as some scientists have proposed."

    If the relative age difference could be relied upon (which is suspect considering the possibility of excess argon in the volcanic layers they dated), this could point to a possible "dark ages" of civilization after an initial period of greater civilization.

    If you believe the general flow of history as documented by the Bible, this would be consistent with an intelligent race which falls into decline after a widespread flood followed by an ice age.

    --
    Life's a lot like money-- you spend it, then it's gone. Spend wisely.
  125. What about it? Archaic = transitional by geekotourist · · Score: 1

    The new findings show that modern looking Homo sapiens existed 160,000 years ago. Petralona is one of many skulls that show that earlier Homo sapiens didn't look like modern humans, i.e. none of these earlier skulls could be confused with a modern human. These earlier fossils range from not-quite modern to not-quite Homo erectus.

  126. Re:There always something that dont fit? by Bobspamming · · Score: 1

    It's not the book, it's the knowlege inside the book. You try and make it sound like people are basing their belief of some fancy wood plup.

  127. Using the exact same post twice in a week. by Bowling+Moses · · Score: 2, Informative

    "Mitochondrial Eve has been shown in secular literature (ever heard of the magazine "Science") to have lived ~6000 years ago. Evidence of the flood here."

    What's going on?! I used the exact same message (below) already once this week for the exact same argument. Fortunately somebody else already took care of the rest of your message so I don't have to.

    One nit to pick. Going back to the original "Research News" article in Science (vol 279 issue 5347 pg 28-29), we see that instead of this being evidence for a ~6000 year old mitochondrial eve, we have to reconsider some of our beliefs about mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA), or more specifically a region of mtDNA called the D-loop, which comprises only 7% of mtDNA and which most mtDNA studies have used. One of the biggies is that most mtDNA studies use "so-called "noncoding" sequences of the control region of mtDNA, which do not code for gene products and therefore are thought to be free from natural selection." to quote the article. Another is to check and see if we are instead hitting "hotspots," regions with above-average mutation rates; hotspots will have more back- and parallel-mutations which will cloud the picture. A third is that the mutation rate may vary over time. A fourth is to investigate the issue of heteroplasmy--having multiple mtDNA sequences, even though for a given region there should be only one. For a while it was thought to be rare, now 10-20% of the population could be heteroplasmic. All of these issues would need to be addressed by the creationists before it could be considered evidence of a ~6,000 year old mitochondrial eve rather than a problem with the underlying assumptions of the technique. Indeed, with the advancement of our ability to manipulate and sequence DNA, we no longer have to utilize only 7% of the mtDNA--we can sequence the whole thing--all 16,000 or so base pairs of it. A recent study published in Nature (vol 408 pg 708-713, Dec. 2000) using mtDNA--all of it--found that the D-loop (used in most mtDNA studies) does not have a constant mutation rate. The study goes on to show (again using the whole mtDNA sequence) that the date of "mitochondrial eve" is about 170,000 years ago. A more reader-friendly report by the author of the Nature paper can be found here .

    Say, you ever get a chance to actually read that Dalrymple article you so badly mangled? Here's a refresher. Just go up the thread.

  128. problem if you take the Bible literally! by brett720 · · Score: 1

    This would put humans WAY before the creation of Adam and Eve date-wise according to the Bible! More evidence against validity of the Bible in my opinion.

  129. Oooh, Modern by way2trivial · · Score: 1
    from across the room (hit enter, stepped away, came back to slowly) I woulda swore I saw

    oldest modem people found

    and thought I was going to be reading about a bunch of hard core 110 baud folks..

    --
    every day http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Special:Random
  130. Did you read the FAQs? by geekotourist · · Score: 1
    A hoax was listed in textbooks until after science proved that it was a hoax. It is a good case study of why scientists should make sure they apply the best testing methods to new discoveries, which they didn't do for Piltdown. What, though, is the impact that you talk about?

    There are multiple FAQs/reviews on Bones of Contention. "The major argument of Marvin Lubenow's book Bones of Contention (1992) is that the various species of hominid cannot form an evolutionary sequence because they overlap one another in time... Once it is realized that this argument is based on a misunderstanding of evolutionary theory, Lubenow's book loses much of its force."

    Do you think Java man is a human or ape? Looking at all the species of hominids we know about, can you draw a line to separate human from ape? Why can't Gish, Lubenow and others agree on which are apes? As one Lubenow FAQ asks: ""If two eminent authorities cannot agree whether these skulls are human or ape, does this not imply that they are, um, intermediate?"

    Interesting point on Scopes. Another FAQ on Nebraska Man (including the Scopes trial) talks about this "...Osborn apparently began to have doubts about his identification of the tooth shortly before the Scopes "monkey trial" in July 1925, and he stopped mentioning it in his publications. It seems likely that the crumbling of the Fundamentalist assault on evolution in the years following the Scopes trial prevented the Hesperopithecus affair from becoming a serious embarrassment to evolutionists. Although Nebraska Man did not survive long enough to become widely accepted by the scientific community and was quickly forgotten when its true identity was recognized, Hesperopithecus is again being trotted out in the current recrudescence of creationist attacks on evolution. The creationists who belittle mistakes by scientists cannot admit that science advances, in part, by correcting error. "

    1. Re:Did you read the FAQs? by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      You obviously have not read Lubenow's book. As usual, TalkOrigins did a fairly shoddy job of reviewing it and completely missed the major points. Not surprising, just disappointing that they would do so again.

    2. Re: Did you read the FAQs? by Black+Parrot · · Score: 1


      > You obviously have not read Lubenow's book. As usual, TalkOrigins did a fairly shoddy job of reviewing it and completely missed the major points.

      Since you're so familiar with the book maybe you'd like to summarize its major claims for us, along with a brief listing of the major evidence for each of its major claims.

      --
      Sheesh, evil *and* a jerk. -- Jade
  131. Beer as a civilizing force. by Cordath · · Score: 1

    First of all, what we define as civilization is largely a product of ego. We look for characteristics of ourselves when we're looking for "civilization". We are mostly sedentary(i.e. not nomadic) with a hierarchial power structure and specialization of labor. (e.g. we have doctors, butchers, farmers, etc.) Arguably, for the few nomadic groups we haven't dragged out of the jungles & deserts and sent to work in factories yet, civilization came a lot earlier and only know are we decending into barbarism. I, however, like my bed, my fridge, and my TV, so let's go with what we know.

    Most traditional archaeologists tend to think of civilization as a sort of ladder, and the first few rungs were actually quite slippery. Here's one possible ladder: (there are several)

    First, if you want to have a town with art, politics, beer, hookers, etc. the first thing you need is a food supply that is reliable and doesn't move around a lot.

    Deer, elk, tapirs, camels, elephants, etc. all move around most vexingly. Turnips do not. Agriculture is the way to go! For agriculture, you need a crop. Something to grow.

    We can grow beans, squash, wheat, turnips, you name it. Unfortunately, these are all highly domesticated plants that we've been selectively breeding for thousands of years. Take corn for example. Today a stalk of corn puts out great big honking cobs chock full of juicy kernals. 50,000 years ago the stuff looked a lot like grass. It is in fact, more than a little bit unlikely that you could have lived off the stuff back then. (more on that later) So if no suitable crops existed, we had to breed one.

    Here we hit a major hang up. Breeding massive changes into plants isn't exactly a speedy process when you *know* what you're doing. How exactly our ancestors ever managed to develop a crop suitable for agriculture is actually quite a hot topic of debate! Still, somehow we managed, but it probably took a while. Even for relatively smart people, it is not inconceivable that this took tens of thousands of years.

    -----

    Now for an alternate take on things... Beer is the root of civilization. Yes, that most lovely of liquids: the Wobbly Pop.

    Take the domestication of corn in the america's for example. At first we had a sorry grass-like plant that would have been a royal pain in the ass to try to live off of. However, as it was, collecting relatively small ammounts to ferment into chicha (BEER!) for those important social events (religion?) was a much more reasonable undertaking. Of course, excessive beer consumption does tend to make one lazy, so naturally our fastly-becoming-religious ancestors decided to start throwing a bunch of seeds together in one place so they didn't have to look all over the bloody planet to round up enough for a good er... mass. Gradually they tossed the crappier grass out and the better stuff got inbred, mutated all to hell, and gradually become more and more like the corn of today. Eventually, we got a crop good enough to actually become a dietary staple. Someone might then have said "Hey guys! We can eat this stuff too! F@$* this walking around all day BS. Let's just stay here all the time. There's BEER!"

    So we have a nice town springing forth from the wilderness. Art, culture, and all the trappings of civilization are flowering forth... and people are shitting in the river. This is baaad. People are getting sick! Fortunately, achohol tends to be safer to drink than brownish water! While the high-proof Canadian beers of today would be a tad difficult to live on, the watered down chicha of the day was just the thing for daily consumption. To this day there are still countries where beer is cheaper than safe drinking water. As a beneficial side effect, people with beer tend to be easier to talk into paying taxes, running off to kill people they've never met before, building pyramids, etc...

    Of course, archaeology itself would be nowhere without beer. Seriously, how many major archaeological digs ar

  132. Re:There always something that dont fit? by Albinoman · · Score: 1

    Arent they? All the books within it a supposedly written by people anyway. Im just saying that there is no reason to have DNA at all if God created all of us.

    Fine, how about this. When you go to heaven its a happy place right? Most people will assume they can remember their coporeal life (if you couldnt, youd be rewarded for things you cannot remember, or punished for that matter). Dont you think youd have sorrow or grief for people you knew that didnt make it? Thats not too happy, getting to witness people you love burn forever.

    And how is this any different than basing your beliefs on a book filled with provable facts?

  133. They finally found him! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    They finally found my old english lit teacher from college!

  134. DeMeo's "patrism" doesn't hold water by Imperator · · Score: 1

    You might want to note that the article you linked to is a teaser for a book whose table of contents includes an appendix titled "HIV is Not the Cause of AIDS", a view he shares with few people except Falwell and Mbeki. He's also written a book about "orgones", some sort of pseudoscientific chi energy thing. (I became suspicious when I noticed a white American blaming all the ills of humanity on Africa and Asia, and singling out England in particular as a last European bastion of "matrism".) Not such an intellectual it seems. But, lest you rightly accuse me of attacking one work on the faults of another, I've read his article and I can poke some big holes in it:

    • We have no reason to believe violence is something that developed in humans. We see all sorts of other animals, from beetles to chimpanzees, being mortally wounded in fights over mates. When a new lion becomes leader of the pride, he kills all the cubs so he can impregnate the lionesses with his own genes. When times are tough, groups of primates will systematically attack and kill other groups of their own species to reduce competition. Why should we think humans haven't been doing the same things from the start?
    • The dessication of the Sahara 6000 years ago was certainly not the first severe multi-generation length drought humans have experience in (say) the last 20000 years. Why did this drought supposedly lead to the spread of patrism where previous droughts did not?
    • Many of the practices he lists as belonging to "patrist" societies--no matter how horrible they seem today--can be explained by the advantages they provided to societies of the time they were introduced. For example, female genital mutilation (removal of the clitoris) and the female premarital sex taboo both make it less likely that unmarried females will have children; in those societies, mothers without husbands were a drain on society. The incest taboo served (and still serves) a purpose, as any high school biology student can explain: sex between close relatives increases the likelihood that a disease-causing recessive gene is expressed in the offspring. (See the European royal families for numerous well-documented examples. Is it just chance they had so much hemophilia?) Slavery provides numerous benefits for the people commanding or owning the slaves. Contraception and abortion not only allow unmarried females to prevent unwanted children, but also allow even married ones a control over how large a family they want--too many children, and the odds of any given one surviving to reproductive age decrease. Property inheritance encourages people to develop property. Prostitution gives work to women that have been abandoned by society and would otherwise starve. Class/caste stratification and controlling priests both prevent disorder that might threaten a society's survival. Now I'm not arguing for some of the things in this paragraph that I consider to be quite terrible, but I would say that we can find simple explanations for the rise of most societal practices and traditions--the good, the bad, and the ugly.
    • He claims that patrism spread to the New World beginning with the Pacific coast, where it presumably came from the Old World. Furthermore, he suggests that parts of the Americas didn't become patrist until after 1492. But even the oldest archaeological evidence we have from the Americas suggests patrism as much as matrism. We have plenty of evidence that the pre-Columbus Americans engaged in the full range of patrist behaviors, including bloody wars, massacres, ritual sacrifies, and so on.

    In summary, as compelling as his argument sounds at first, I'm going to need to see proof--not just logical explanations accompanied by evidence that seems entirely one-sided, before I'll accept DeMeo's theory of patrism and matrism. As tempting as it is to accept a theory that supposedly explains all of human suffering and blames it on authoritative men who repress and abuse women and children, it just isn't that simple.

    --

    Gates' Law: Every 18 months, the speed of software halves.
    1. Re:DeMeo's "patrism" doesn't hold water by spun · · Score: 1

      Well, you have managed to completely misrepresent what you read. Yes, James DeMeo has some wacky theories, but Saharasia is an interesting and well researched book. He cites several thousand cultural anthropological studies in his work. Basically, he believes humans have two modes of behavior, which he calls matrism and patrism, but roughly, they are feast and famine mode. We got locked into famine mode after developing agriculture, animal husbandry, and surplus. Before that point, isolated groups might become locked into this mode, but most humans during our hunter gatherer phase just moved on. A huge famine swept the central Asian and Saharan region, and for the first time ever, we had organized societies capable of carrying out large scale invasions. In the famine struck region, people suffered post traumatic stress in great numbers, and their children were born brain damaged due to lack of naiacin.

      On to your specific points:
      1. Other animals are also violent, why not humans? Well, first off, he isn't saying that we aren't violent, he is saying that we can be violent or peaceful as the situation warrents, but that we have become locked into the violent mode even though it is no longer appropriate. Secondly, all animals with significant weaponry develop some sort of instinctive restraint against using it lethally against their own kind. Looking at our closest relatives, the gorillas, the chimpanze, and the bonobo, or pygmy chimp, we see that the first two have male dominated, heirarchal societies, while the third has female lead non heirarchal societies. So who knows, our natural inclination could lean more towards peace or more towards violence, but in either case, we are now more violent and heirarchal than is good for us.

      2. It happened before, so why was this time special? I believe I answer this one above: before this point, we had no surplus or organized societies that could spread the violence meme very far.

      3. Lots of nasty things people do to each other are good for us. Uh, I disagree. There is no medical reason for genital mutilation. In hunter gatherer times, there was no reason for birth control, considering how many children died in childhood due to disease. It has been shown that matristic societies have no taboo against incest, adultery, or homosexual sex, but that in fact, these practices are less common in matristic societies that do permit them than in patristic societies that don't. Our natural instincts are perfectly good guides to succesful reproductive strategies, we don't taboos.

      4. Patrism and the new world. he shows that a similar series of events happened in parallel in the new world: development of agricultural surplus and organized socity, localized famine, and the spread of patrism through violent warfare.

      The Saharasia theory isn't as simple, nor as outlandish as you try to make it sound.

      --
      - None can love freedom heartily, but good men; the rest love not freedom, but license. -- John Milton
  135. How long until we find out they're fakes? by lord_nightrose · · Score: 0

    Can you say "Piltdown Man?" No? Perhaps "Nebraska Man?" I'd stake my nonexistent fortune on the bet that this turns out to be another fake.

    --
    This is not part of my post. It's my signature. I bet you're disappointed.
  136. Dating technique valid, ICR suspect by Bowling+Moses · · Score: 1

    I'd really like to thank you for that link to the ICR. Several months back I was arguing the exact same issue and I was wondering where exactly the source was from. Now whenever I need to present clear-cut examples of "scientific" creationist fraud I've got another excellent example. The ICR can't even read a table correctly: the "dates" that they give for the lava samples aren't dates at all, but instead refer to how far an individual sample was from the expected concentration of Ar-40. The ICR also fails to mention that some samples had lower levels of Ar-40 than expected. The true irony is that rather than this article (Dalrymple) undermining the validity of radiometric dating, it is clearly supporting.

    But don't take my word for it. Read the paper yourself: G.B. Dalrymple, "40Ar/36Ar Analyses of Historic Lava Flows," Earth and Planetary Science Letters, 6 (1969): pp. 47-55. It'll be available at (or at least through interlibrary loan) any university.

  137. [True & Cristian believer] I see jesus! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    We told you so. There he is! Hidding on the edge of the broken off chip that's not really there! See it's proof.

    He really does exist, and science proved it. We now have real evidence that Jesus is our lord & savior. You must all now take him into your hearts and quit laughing at and making fun of us.

  138. Re:Haven't you heard? by mugley · · Score: 1

    And then He got first post?

  139. doh... by EnderWiggnz · · Score: 1

    you're right...

    deuterocanonical.... is what i was talking about, and apocrypha has always meant "things that were never included in the bible"

    so... what were we arguing about again? :-)

    --
    ... hi bingo ...
  140. Re:There always something that dont fit? by SL33Z3 · · Score: 1

    Obviously you are knocking on a book you haven't read. This subject, too, is accounted for.
    Don't get me wrong, I'm not a Bible thumper. (sometimes I wish I had the courage to be, though). What I am saying is that it takes more faith to believe in big-bangs and mutating monkeys than it does to believe in God. It was with that realization in mind that I decided to actually study that book to see for myself

    --
    SL33ZE - Artificial Intelligence is No Match For Natural Stupidity -
  141. Makes you wonder... by Perdition · · Score: 1

    "They were mis-labeled as "Hittites" by their discoverers because - you guessed it - they were trying to read the Bible into what they found. Scholars wring their hands over that fact, but all recognize that it's too late to change it now due to the amount of material that has been published and the confusion that would result from a name correction after all these years."

    Makes you wonder how much hand-wringing is going on all over the impunable "scientific" world, doesn't it? So, the choice should have been made first to discount the Bible, right? Sounds fair to me. I mean, why bother to get the facts right in science? It might be inconvenient or confusing. So, we'll just labor along with the fallacy and hope it just goes away. I doubt any serious student of any scientific discipline would as openly admit to propagating a lie for appearance's sake as you now have. I now lean back effortlessly into the arms of science for matters concerning the Bible. Thanks heaps.

    --
    Windows XP SP2 told me to install third-party software that prevents viruses and protects stability... I chose Ubuntu
  142. Re: Still on about Polonium? by fluffy666 · · Score: 1

    Hmmm..

    First, a note about Granites; they do doffer substantially from the bulk composition of the continental crust, being somewhat lighter and SiAl-rich by comparison. Typically we see ancient groundwater/hydrothermal systems associated with them - systems which give rise to hiughly useful mineral deposits; we see large scale metamorphic haloes caused by the emplacement of hot rocks and subsequent recrystalisation of the country rock. At places like Yellowstone, we even see the process going on today. Can you explain why a god would set this all up to make it all look so old?

    Don't suppose you'd like to tell me why these polonium isotopes were 'created', but none of the other short lived (i.e. half life less than around 10 million years) isotopes? Things like Technitium? Plutonium?

    Anyway, you know the explanation for those haloes, even if it annoys you. Zircons in granites contain high concentrations of Uranium; polonium is part of the decay chain of uranium. You will notice that it is directly below Radon; Radon, being a gas, will diffuse through the rock and hence when it decays to Polonium, it will appear that the polonium has just appeared. Problem solved.

  143. Re: Still on about Polonium? by young-earth · · Score: 1
    You attempted the explanation:
    Zircons in granites contain high concentrations of Uranium; polonium is part of the decay chain of uranium. You will notice that it is directly below Radon; Radon, being a gas, will diffuse through the rock and hence when it decays to Polonium, it will appear that the polonium has just appeared. Problem solved
    Obviously you have never read the original papers; this is most often a claim that evolutionists level against creationists. The shoe is now on the other foot.

    Had Radon diffused through the minerals, it would have left a trail of halos, a cylindrical tube as it diffused (varying with diffusion rates in its intensity). This has _never_ been observed. Also, Gentry did specific experiments, which you would be aware of had you read the original papers, designed to find any traces of Radon seepage. There was no evidence at all. Also the chain through Po takes three steps; many of the halos had only two of those steps. No way that would happen in your scenario. But again, if you'd read the papers, you'd know that.

    You also asked me to speculate on why you assume age for some formations. Sorry, you'll have to ask someone else that question.

    If you would like to read the original papers, here is a list of them:

    Gentry, R.V. 1968. "Fossil Alpha-Recoil Analysis of Certain Variant Radioactive Halos." Science 160, 1228.

    Gentry, R.V. 1970. "Giant Radioactive Halos: Indicators of Unknown Alpha-Radioactivity?" Science 169, 670.

    Gentry, R.V. 1971. "Radiohalos: Some Unique Pb Isotope Ratios and Unknown Alpha Radioactivity." Science 173, 727.

    Gentry, R.V. 1973. "Radioactive Halos." Annual Review of Nuclear Science 23, 347.

    Gentry, R.V. 1974. "Radiohalos in Radiochronological and Cosmological Perspective." Science 184, 62.

    Gentry, R.V. 1975. Response to J.H. Fremlin's Comments on "Spectacle Halos." Nature 258, 269.

    Gentry, R.V. 1977. "Mystery of the Radiohalos" Research Communications NETWORK, Breakthrough Report, February 10, 1977

    Gentry, R.V. 1978a. "Are Any Unusual Radiohalos Evidence for SHE?" International Symposium on Superheavy Elements, Lubbock, Texas. New York: Pergamon Press.

    Gentry, R.V. 1978b. "Implications on Unknown Radioactivity of Giant and Dwarf Haloes in Scandinavian Rocks." Nature 274, 457.

    Gentry, R.V. 1978. "Reinvestigation of the ? Activity of Conway Granite." Nature Vol. 273, p 217-219 May 18, 1978.

    Gentry, R.V. 1979. "Time: Measured Responses." EOS Transactions of the American Geophysical Union 60, 474.

    Gentry, R.V. 1980. "Polonium Halos." EOS Transactions of the American Geophysical Union 61, 514.

    Gentry, R.V. 1982. Letters. Physics Today 35, No. 10, 13.

    Gentry, R.V. 1983a. Letters. Physics Today 36, No. 4, 3.

    Gentry, R.V. 1983b. Letters. Physics Today 36, No. 11, 124.

    Gentry, R.V. 1984a. "Radioactive Halos in a Radiochronological and Cosmological Perspective." Proceedings of the 63rd Annual Meeting of the Pacific Division. American Association for the Advancement of Science 1, 38.

    Gentry, R.V. et al. 1973. "Ion Microprobe Confirmation of Pb Isotope Ratios and Search for Isomer Precursors in Polonium Radiohalos." Nature 244, 282.

    Gentry, R.V. et al. 1974. "'Spectacle' Array of Po-210 Halo Radiocentres in Biotite: A Nuclear Geophysical Enigma." Nature 252, 564.

    Gentry, R.V. et al. 1976a. "Radiohalos and Coalified Wood: New Evidence Relating to the Time of Uranium Introduction and Coalification." Science 194, 315.
  144. Re: Still on about Polonium? by fluffy666 · · Score: 1

    Obviously you have never read the original papers; this is most often a claim that evolutionists level against creationists. The shoe is now on the other foot.

    Apart from the fact that you COMPLETELY FAILED to answer any of the other points raised.

    Had Radon diffused through the minerals, it would have left a trail of halos, a cylindrical tube as it diffused (varying with diffusion rates in its intensity).

    Would it? Only in a perfectly uniform rock; not in granite. And a section through such a cylinder would look axactly like a single halo.

    This has _never_ been observed

    Well, see above. I'm not surprised. Patterns of haloes along cracks and fissures have. By me.

    Also, Gentry did specific experiments, which you would be aware of had you read the original papers, designed to find any traces of Radon seepage. There was no evidence at all.

    That is a bit strange, given that granites *do* seep Radon. Tends to make me think the experiment was flawed.

    Also the chain through Po takes three steps; many of the halos had only two of those steps. No way that would happen in your scenario. But again, if you'd read the papers, you'd know that.

    Which implies that the non-3 step haloes were not Polonium. Which kind of argues against your case.

    You also asked me to speculate on why you assume age for some formations. Sorry, you'll have to ask someone else that question

    Translation: You have no answer.

  145. Re: Still on about Polonium? by young-earth · · Score: 1

    Bottom line: read the original papers. Why are you unwilling to do so?

  146. Re:You're going to hell!! by Tyreth · · Score: 1

    If it annoys you, perhaps it is because your understanding is incorrect.

    It's not some meaningless blief in God that saves you.

    It is faith in Him to trust you. Much like saying to a friend "I trust you with my life" in a dangerous situation.

    The reason why you and I would go to hell without Him, is because each of us has sinned, and the wages of sin is death. Of course few today realise how grave it is to rebel against God. Once realised though how deep ones corruption goes, that is when one realises that they, you and I, are in need of His forgiveness. Like a friend you have wronged and you ask them to forgive you - except our crimes are much worse.

  147. Re: Still on about Polonium? by fluffy666 · · Score: 1

    Well, let's see..

    Science 169, 670 - Documents the existance of giant halos, but pretty much admits that they are the result of standard decay of U and Th. At that time, the idea of superheavy elements with long half-lives was not out of the question.

    Science 173, 727. - Documents the existance of halos dominated by U-238 derived lead; i.e from Radon movement.

    Annual Review of Nuclear Science 23, 347. - Now this actually gives some interesting data, notably that Po-210 and Rn-222 haloes are going to be virtually indistinuishable. Indeed, the given uncertanties in measurement are larger.

    Science 184, 62 - Apart from the given diagram siomply not supporting the text, there is no new evidence here. There is a *claim* [That the haloes can't come from Rn-222], but no supporting evidence is given.

    Most of the later references either seem to be in non-peer reviewed publications or unavailable online, which is a pity.

    And this is the problem. None of the published material excludes the alternative hypothesis [i.e. decay chain element migration].

    And if we look for example, we see that Po-209 is the most stable isotope of polonium, yet we don't see any haloes from that. This is really the show stopper.

    So, I've looked at the papers. There is nothing there to support instantaneous creation. Now, will you answer my questions?

  148. Re: Still on about Polonium? by young-earth · · Score: 1

    You claim that Po-209 being the most stable Po isotope is a show stopper; yet from the reference you provided a couple of posts ago Po-209 is NOT on the decay chain of U->Pb. So why are you making Po-209 the "showstopper" when your own background data shows it's not relevant?

    Also Po halos are not smeared as they would be by Rn migration along fault and crack lines; instead the published (in peer-reviewed journals) pictures clearly show point sources. If you have contradictory evidence, you should definitely publish; Science and Nature would surely welcome anything to refute Gentry that would pass peer review. And since the peers are clearly slanted against Gentry, your getting published should be quite simple.

    And since the Rn222 halo would be roughly 2 microns wider than the Po210 halo, it would be quite clear if Rn222 had been the parent of the Po218. But many halos have been published which have the Po and not the Rn halos.

    Additionally, before you go attack Gentry as many anti-creationists have tried to do, based on his experimental technique, you should know that while at ORNL he headed a team of seven scientists. One of them, an atheist, was asked about Gentry's technique: "Impeccable -- one of the most careful researchers with whom I have ever worked". When asked for an alternative explanation to fiat creation, the same person said "Well, I don't have a better explanation, but I hope that at some future time there will emerge a more acceptable explanation of the data."

  149. Re: Still on about Polonium? by fluffy666 · · Score: 1

    You claim that Po-209 being the most stable Po isotope is a show stopper; yet from the reference you provided a couple of posts ago Po-209 is NOT on the decay chain of U->Pb. So why are you making Po-209 the "showstopper" when your own background data shows it's not relevant?

    IF fiat creation was the answer, we would expect to see Po-209 haloes. It's not a show stopper for the hypothesis that the Po is a result of Rn-222 decay, but it is for fiat creation.

    Also Po halos are not smeared as they would be by Rn migration along fault and crack lines; instead the published (in peer-reviewed journals) pictures clearly show point sources.

    Problem is, of course, that the pictures are available on line, and they are blurred. Plus, what does a section through a cylinder look like?

    And since the Rn222 halo would be roughly 2 microns wider than the Po210 halo, it would be quite clear if Rn222 had been the parent of the Po218. But many halos have been published which have the Po and not the Rn halos.

    Certainly not in the papers you cite. There's a danger of sending people to look at papers. You do realise that 2 microns is right at the edge of resolution for a geological microscope on a thin section, don't you?

  150. Re: Still on about Polonium? by young-earth · · Score: 0
    Your assertion:
    IF fiat creation was the answer, we would expect to see Po-209 haloes
    Is in error. See, God made us in His image; when you start to dictate how He should have made the world, that's you making Him in an image you constructed. Nevertheless, He is ready and anxious to forgive all your sins and receive you unto Himself. He has used terrible sinners in the past, once they admit their sins to Him. Look at Moses (a murderer) and David (adulterer, murderer); they both authored significant amounts of scripture yet they had, uh, shady backgrounds.

    You claim the Rn222 halos would not be visible is obviated by the papers. Perhaps the online representations are flawed; in the actual papers which are reprinted in Gentry's book the pictures are far more clear. In the article from Annual Review of Nuclear Science:
    Figure 1t shows a 218Po halo in fluorite. Here an important observation can be made. Note that the annulus between the 210Po and 218Po rings in Figure 1t (cf Figure 1n) is distinctly wider than the same annulus in the 238U halo in 1f. This is clear evidence that the 222Rn ring in Figure 1f is missing from the halo in it. In other words, the halo in Figure 1t indeed originated with 218Po rather than 222Rn a-decay


    That's a peer reviewed publication. No counter papers were submitted. While you may disagree personally and certainly are free to do so, no peer reviewed paper disputed those findings. By the standards of scientific papers, that means it is "officially" undisputed. If you have counter evidence, again, I invite you to submit it; truth is what matters here, and if you're correct, please do make sure the real facts are published. As I stated earlier, given the heavy anti-creationist bias in the scientific press, a paper disproving Gentry would sail through the review process if it had any merit.

  151. Re: Still on about Polonium? by fluffy666 · · Score: 1

    Is in error. See, God made us in His image; when you start to dictate how He should have made the world, that's you making Him in an image you constructed.

    Once you invoke the supernatural as an explanation, you are of course abandoning any semblance of being scientific. You can assert anything supernatural you like, but it's not a valid answer.

    You claim the Rn222 halos would not be visible is obviated by the papers.

    I didn't claim that - I pointed out that they could not be distinguished from polonium haloes due to the inherent limitations of thin section technique. Assuming that Gentry has chosen to publish the best, hand picked specimens to try and make his case, the evidence is simply lacking.

  152. Re: Still on about Polonium? by young-earth · · Score: 1
    Your assert:
    Once you invoke the supernatural as an explanation, you are of course abandoning any semblance of being scientific. You can assert anything supernatural you like, but it's not a valid answer
    Yet that means you are unwilling to accept anything but natural causes. That bias indicates you have a mind closed in some areas, which is unfortunate. A true scientist should go wherever the evidence and facts lead, without predetermining which answers will be acceptable. It is unfortunately true that most "scientists" today share your philosophy and approach, and arbitrarily set limits on what they will accept.

    Your claim that the halos of Rn222 and Po210 are indistinguishable due to equipment limitations is obviated by the lack of response to the original papers. Were you correct, the peer review process would certainly have stopped the publication of the papers, since that was a central point in them. Instead, as I mentioned above, it is likely a limitation in the resolution during the transfer to electronic media. I have seen the halos in color plates and the distinction between the annuli is quite clear. Yes they're close, but they do not blur together in one massive ring. Try to either get hold of Gentry's book, which has color pictures of the halos used in the papers, or get an original publication. Unfortunately many have been microfilmed, and that will impose a resolution limit which could make it more difficult, I have not looked at microfilmed versions and can't tell you if they're obscuring or not.

    Note also that Henderson's original work in the 1930's showed the same effect, and he was puzzled by it. In fact it was Henderson's original work which Gentry built on (originally using some of his samples in fact). Henderson was certainly not a creationist, yet he found the same anomalies. And again his work passed peer review. I have not found any of his papers in a journal that retains the resolution, so I can't personally judge the quality of the photographs, but I think we have to agree that his peers reviewing the work would certainly have examined the photographs before recommending publication.

    God loves you, fluffy666, no matter what you've done. Just as he loves me, no matter what I've done. And I'm far, far, far from "good". He "is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance." [2 Peter 3:9]
  153. Re: Still on about Polonium? by fluffy666 · · Score: 1

    Yet that means you are unwilling to accept anything but natural causes. That bias indicates you have a mind closed in some areas, which is unfortunate.

    The whole point of science is that supernatural explanations are not allowed! This is not closed mindedness, it is part of the whole process - and if you wish to participate in it, you are bound by the rules.

    Your claim that the halos of Rn222 and Po210 are indistinguishable due to equipment limitations is obviated by the lack of response to the original papers.

    Actually, the lack of response was probably more due to apathy and lack of time than anything else. Plus these papers were not published in the geological journals; journals like Science and Nature tend to have a less specialist set of revewers.

    But as far as the thin sections go, I've done a LOT of thin section work in my time. Geological specimens - especially in rocks with large crystals - are very difficult to get thin enough (the crystals tend to break along cleavage planes, and the harder parts will resist polishing). This limits the resolution you can get, and means you are always looking at a 3D picture. There is no way you could distinuish rings so close together under these conditions.

    For an instantaneous creation hypothesis to be correct, the following would have to follow:

    a) The haloes would have to be present in association with Te or Se minerals; the lower O group elements would be expected to occur together. Instead, they are only found in association with U cointaining minerals.

    b) We would expect to see haloes indiciating the presence of all isotopes of Po; the fact that all of those present are from the decay chains of long lived isotopes is storng evidence against a supernatural origin.

    c) We would would also expect to find evidence of other related elements (At, Fr, etc..). Indeed, if we assume that all isotopes of all elements were 'created' with abundances in proportion to the stable isotopes we see today, we should see literally dozens of such isotopes. But we don't - we only detect those isotopes that have either very long half-lives (U, Th, etc), exist in the decay chains of these isotopes, or are made by cosmogenic processes.

    The hypothesis fails because the predictions that come from it (as above) fail. And this is science; you can't ignore failures in prediction.

  154. Re: Still on about Polonium? by young-earth · · Score: 1

    Oh really, inventing the rules by which God had to create the universe is more than a bit presumptuous. Sure a theory has to have its predictions borne out, but you're working on the prequel, not the sequel, to use vernacular. Predictions are worthwhile criteria when they are used to predict subsequent events. Einstein's special theory of relativity was tested by his prediction that light would have its path altered by a strong gravitational field. And in the next eclipse that provided an opportunity to see if his prediction was correct, his theory was confirmed. Predictions like "there will be salt water found under the crystalline rock at the base of the Bosporus and Dardanelles" provide real tests since the facts are not known in advance. This prediction, made in 1995, was confirmed in 1998. That or Einstein's are the kind of prediction which have merit, as no one believed either happened and the theories made predictions which were counter to common beliefs.

    Your preconditions that science utterly excludes supernatural causes is a refreshing admission, thank you for categorically stating that. Since by science's rules something cannot come from nothing (that would be beyond the rules), and since something is here, clearly science is incapable of explaining everything.

    Your casting aspersions on the reviewers of Gentry's work is clearly unfair; unless you have full information on them, your attacks are unfounded and ad hominem. Try a factual argument instead of attacking people.

  155. Good job! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

    As one of your fans, I have to say...

    Great debate! Keep it up! It's nice to see someone defending the Church these days.

    1. Re:Good job! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Yes you're right, he is defending his church.

      Note however that he is not defending the Lord Jesus Christ, nor is he defending God, and he is most certainly not defending the Bible - he attacks the Bible as not being reliable.

      So my great thanks to you, as you have helped to further prove the original point, that the Roman Catholic Church is non-Biblical.

      I pray you both will realize the errors of the RCC and find a bible-believing church to attend, be saved, and then get baptized (not sprinkled).

    2. Re:Good job! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      No, I don't attack the Bible as not being reliable. The Bible is inspired by the Holy Spirit, and as such it contains no error at all. Your interpretations of it are often erroneous, however.

      And as I've demonstrated for a long time now, the Catholic Church is in harmony with the Bible.

    3. Re:Good job! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Thanks for your kind words!

    4. Re:Good job! by Anonymous Coward · · Score: 0

      Now that's amusing. You attack the Johannine Comma as being unreliable, yet you declare now that it contains no error at all (is inerrant). Either the Bible is inerrant or it's not; choose.

      You attack clear, direct interpretations (which are not just mine, obviously) as erroneous, yet see no inconsistencies in the massive heresies of your church.

      You've shown and illustrated vast dissonance, not harmony, between the RCC and the Bible.